DSSSB TGT Social Studies Female 10 Oct 2021 (Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

Given: 68, 68, 102, 204, 510, ?

The logic follows here is:

Thus, the missing number is '1530'

Hence, the correct answer is "1530".

The logic follows here is:

Thus, the missing term is 'TD'.

Hence, the correct answer is "TD".

Statements:

I. All A and B.

II. All B are C.

The least possible diagram for the given statements is as follows:

Conclusions:

I. No A is C → False (Because 'All A and B' and 'All B are C' so some A are C. Thus, No A is C is false)

II. Some B are A → True (Because 'All A and B', so some B are A is definitely true)

Hence, the correct answer is "Only conclusion II follows".

The logic follows here is:

1) NPOQ

2) ZBAC

3) BECD

**Thus, '**BECD' does not follow the logic.

4) PRQS

Hence, the correct answer is "BECD".

The logic follows here is:

• AN ∶ VM

Similarly,

• PJ ∶ ?

Hence, the correct answer is "KI".

As per the given information,

→ The shaded part represents 'bottles that are either red or plastic but not both' = 25 + 15 = 40

Hence, the correct answer is "40".

The logic follows here is:

→ (8 × 4) + 3 = 32 + 3 = 35

→ (10 × 3) + 6 = 30 + 6 = 36

→ (12 × 2) + 8 = 24 + 8 = 32

Hence, the correct answer is "32".

The logic follows here is:

The number is obtained by adding the positional values of the letters and then the resultant number's digits are also added to itself. 

• 'MAINS' is written as '67'

⇒ M(13) + A(1) + I(9) + N(14) + S(19) → 13 + 1 + 9 + 14 + 19 = 56 = 56 + (5 + 6) = 56 + 11 = 67

• 'BORN' is written as '62'.

⇒ B(2) + O(15) + R(18) + N(14) → 2 + 15 + 18 + 14 = 3 = 49 + (4 + 9) = 49 + 13 = 62

Similarly,

• 'HUNT' in that code language will be:

⇒ H(8) + U(21) + N(14) + T(20)  → 8 + 21 + 14 + 20 = 63 = 63 + (6 + 3) = 63 + 9 = 72

Hence, the correct answer is "72".

According to the given information,

A team of five members is to be selected among eight members A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H.

Given condition:

1. C and F have to be selected together.
2. Either G or D has to be selected with A.
3. B or E has to be selected with H.
4. G and C cannot be selected together.

On checking each option:

1) ABCDE

→ False, because C and F have to be selected together. Thus, it does not follow condition 1.

2) ABCFG

→ False, because G and C cannot be selected together. Thus, it does not follow condition 4.

3) BCDFG

→ False, because G and C cannot be selected together. Thus, it does not follow condition 4.

4) BCDEF

→ True, because it follows the given condition. 

Therefore, 'BCDEF' members can be selected.

Hence, the correct answer is "BCDEF".

Statements:

I. Some P are Q.

II. All Q are R.

III. No R is S.

The least possible diagram for the given statements is as follows:

Conclusions:

I. Some P are S → False (Because there is no direct relation between P and S, so it is possible but not definite. Thus it is false)

II. No Q is S → True (Because 'All Q are R' and 'No R is S', so 'No Q is S' is definitely true)

III. All P are R → False (Because 'Some P are Q' and 'All Q are R' so some P are R. Thus it is false)

Hence, the correct answer is "Only conclusion II follows".

Given:

Square represents White, Rectangle represents Copy, and the below square represents paper. 

I. Copy which are white and paper both are 16→ True (16 is the only number that is part of both the squares and rectangle)

​II. Paper which is neither copy nor white is 14 → false (13 is Paper which is neither copy nor white. Whereas 14 is Copy which is neither White nor Paper).

Hence, Only I is the answer.

Given:

• point P is 9 metres to the west of point Q.
• Point R is 4 metres to the north of point Q.
• Point S is 31 metres to the east of point R.
• Point S is 5 metres to the south of point T.​

Distance from T to P is,

By using Pythagoras theorem,

PT = √9² + 40²

PT = √1681

PT = 41m.

The direction of P from T is South-West ( As S is to the South of T, it makes P South-West of T).

Hence, P is 41m, southwest of T.

The logic followed here is,

All the arrows inside the square are facing towards the centre or else away from the centre direction i.e., North, south, east, and West.

But the above image does not follow the above-mentioned logic.

Hence, Option 1 is the odd one among them and it is the answer.

Given,

The logic followed here is, the alternate images are the same. The same follows for Images 2 and image 4.

Hence, option 4 is the answer.

According to the given information,

Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H sit around a circular table facing towards the center (not necessarily in the same order). 

• H sits third to the right of D.

• Two persons sit between B and H.

• A is not the neighbor of B.

• Three persons sit between A and C (This makes it impossible to place A as a neighbor of H)

• E sits second to the left of G.

Hence,

I. A sits second to the right of F→ True

II. Three persons sit between D and E→ False. (Only one person sits between D and E - Towards the right of D)

(Five persons sit between D and E - Towards the left of D)

Hence, Only I is true.

Given:

• Ramesh starts walking towards the south and walks 10 meters.
• He turns to the left and walks 24 meters. He turns to the left and walks 10 meters.
• He turns to the right and walks 11 meters.
• Finally, he turns to the right and walks 12 meters

The distance from starting point is:

= √35² + 12<sup>2

= </sup>√1369

= 37m.

The direction from starting point is Southeast.

Hence, Ramesh is 37m, southeast from his starting point.

Given:

By folding the paper, we get,

• Shaded dot and 7 opposite to each other
• Two lined box and 3 opposite to each other,
• A and vertical cross line opposite to each other.

Thus, Option 3 is the answer.

The positional value of letters according to alphabetical order is:

The logic followed is,

The first letter is increased by +4, the second letter is increased by +3, the third letter is decreased by -4 and the last letter is decreased by -3.

The letter Y in DBAY must be replaced by X.

Hence, DBAY is the correct answer.

Given, six boxes P, Q, R, S, T, and U are kept above the other (not necessarily in the same order),

Two boxes are kept between R and U.

One box is kept between P and U.

P is kept just above T.

Case - I      

Case - II

T is kept above Q, but below S.(This is not possible in Case - I and hence it gets eliminated)

Hence, 4 boxes were placed between Q and S.

The positional value of all the letters according to alphabetical order is:

Given, UVXT: WYTO, The logic followed here is,

Similarly, 

Hence, JSTR: LVPM is the answer.

The correct answer is Only I.

Key Points

• Tomb of Maryam-uz-Zamani 
• It is the mausoleum of Mariam Begum, Queen of King Akbar.
• It is located in the small suburb, Sikandra of Agra, Uttar Pradesh.
• This tomb was built by Jehangir, son of Mariam.
• It holds three tombstones.
• The actual grave of the queen is located in an underground mortuary chamber, which is closed to public.
• The ground floor consists of some forty chambers, which bear faint traces of paintings on plastered walls.
• Another important aspect of the tomb is that it is identical both in the front and the rear.
• French War Memorial ​
• It is in Puducherry, India.
• It was originally built in 1937 and inaugurated on 3^rd April 1938 by the Governor of Crocicchia.
• It is a war memorial dedicated to residents of French India who died for the country during the First World War.
• A bronze plaque lists the names of soldiers who died during the First World War.
• Further plaques were added, listing the names of soldiers who died during World War II, the French War in Indochina and the Algerian War.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• If a substance gives OH- ions when it dissolved in a solution, then it is known as Base.
• As per Bronsted-Lowry theory, the base is an acceptor of the proton.
• Bases are bitter in taste and soapy substance.
• If a base is soluble in water then it is called alkalies.
• The strength of a base depends on the concentration of the hydroxyl ions(OH^-) when it is dissolved in water.
• A base turns red litmus paper blue.
• Some common examples of alkali are calcium hydroxide, sodium hydroxide, magnesium hydroxide, etc.
• The substances that dissociate in an aqueous solution to release H⁺ ions are acids.
• They are sour in taste.
• Their pH range varies from 1 (extremely acidic) to 7 (neutral).
• It reacts with active metals to yield hydrogen gas. and reacts with bases to produce a salt compound and water.
• It changes blue litmus into red and phenolphthalein turns colorless in presence of acid.
• The element common to all acids is hydrogen.
• Aqueous solutions of acids are electrolytes which means that they conduct an electrical current.

The correct answer is Kanchipuram.

Key Points

• Kanchipuram was the capital of Pallavas.
• ​Hiuen Tsang visited Kanchipuram, the capital of Pallavas, during the reign of Narasimha Varman I.
• The Pallavas were one of the ancient South Indian dynasties that were active in the Andhra region from the second century CE onwards and moved south to settle in Tamil Nadu.
• Their history is better documented from the sixth to the eighth century, when they left many inscriptions in stone and several monuments.
• Their powerful kings spread their empire to various parts of the subcontinent, at times reaching the borders of Odisha, and their links with South–East Asia were also strong.
• Although they were mostly Shaivite, several Vaishnava shrines also survived from their reign, and there is no doubt that they were influenced by the long Buddhist history of the Deccan.
• Simha Vishnu is considered the founder of the Pallavas.
• He put an end to the political disturbances created by Kalabhras.
• Mahendravarman I is considered to be the greatest ruler of the Pallavas.
• His reign was marked by many architectural and literary achievements which would lay the foundations of the future Art and Culture of South India.
• Narasimhavarman II built the Shore Temple and the Kanchi Kailasanathar Temple at Mahabalipuram.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• Summer Olympic 
• It is a major international multi-sport event normally held once every four years.
• The inaugural Games took place in 1896 in Athens, Greece.
• The International Olympic Committee (IOC) is responsible for organising the Games and for overseeing the host city's preparations.
• The Games have been held in nineteen different countries over five continents.
• London was the first city to host the Summer Olympic Games three times. It hosted in 2012.
• Sydney hosted the games in 2000.
• Qualification rules for each of the Olympic sports are set by the International Sports Federation (IF) that governs that sport's international competition.
• Paris will host for the third time in 2024, followed by Los Angeles which will host the Games in 2028.

Additional Information

• The IOC divides Summer Olympic sports into five categories (A – E) based on popularity, as per six criteria-
• television viewing figures (40%)
• internet popularity (20%)
• public surveys (15%)
• ticket requests (10%)
• press coverage (10%)
• number of national federations (5%).

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

• Around 50 percent of the basin area of Godavari lies in Maharashtra.
• The Godavari River is the largest river in peninsular India and known as the 'Dakshina Ganga'.
• The Godavari Basin is the second largest basin after the Ganges basin and accounts for nearly 9.50 % of the total geographical area of the country.
• The River rises in the Sahyadris near Trimbakeshwar in the Nashik district of Maharashtra and flows across the Deccan Plateau from the Western to the Eastern Ghats.
• It flows east for 1,465 kilometers (910 mi), draining the states of Maharashtra (48.6%), Telangana (18.8%), Andhra Pradesh (4.5%), Chhattisgarh (10.9%) and Odisha (5.7%).
• Godavari basin has been divided into twelve sub-basins by Krishna - Godavari Commission.
• On the north, the basin is bounded by the Satmala hills, the Ajanta range and the Mahadeo hills.
• The basin is bounded on the east by Eastern Ghats and the Bay of Bengal.
• On the south, it is bound by the Balaghat and the Mahadeo ranges.

The correct answer is S.N. Ghormade.

Key Points

• S.N. Ghormade was appointed as the Vice Chief of Naval Staff of Indian Navy in July 2021.
• ​He took over from former Vice Admiral G Ashok Kumar.
• He was commissioned into the Indian Navy on January 1, 1984, and is a Navigation and Direction specialist.
• Vice Admiral Ghormade's important operational appointments include Commands of Guided Missile Frigate INS Brahmaputra, Submarine Rescue Vessel INS Nireekshak, and Minesweeper INS Alleppey, and Second-in-Command of Guided Missile Frigate INS Ganga.
• INS Nireekshak was awarded the Unit Citation for the first time during his command.
• Vice Admiral Ghormade was awarded the Ati Vishisht Seva Medal on 26 January 2017 and Nausena Medal in 2007 by the President of India, and Commendation by the Chief of the Naval Staff in 2000.

Additional Information

• The Vice Chief of the Naval Staff (VCNS) is a statutory position in the Indian Armed Forces.
• The Vice Chief is the deputy of the Chief of the Naval Staff and is usually the second highest ranking officer of the Indian Navy.
• The current Chief of the Naval Staff (CNS) in the Indian Armed Forces is Admiral R. Hari Kumar.

The correct answer is Mahendra Singh Dhoni.

Key Points

• Mahendra Singh Dhoni is NOT a winner of Bharat Ratna Award.
• Bharat Ratna Award
• ​It is the  highest civilian Award of the country.
• It was instituted in the year 1954.
• It is awarded in recognition of exceptional service/performance of the highest order in any field of human endeavour.
• The recommendations for Bharat Ratna are made by the Prime Minister himself to the President. No formal recommendations for this are necessary.
• On conferment of the award, the recipient receives a Sanad (certificate) signed by the President and a medallion.
• The Award does not carry any monetary grant.
• Any person without distinction of race, occupation, position or sex is eligible for these awards.

Additional Information

• Mahendra Singh Dhoni received India's highest sports honour, the Major Dhyanchand Khel Ratna Award in 2008 for his outstanding achievements.
• ​He received India's fourth civilian award Padma Shri in 2009 and third civilian award Padma Bhushan in 2018.
• Pranab Mukherjee received Bharat Ratna in 2018.
• Pandit Ravi Shankar ​received Bharat Ratna in 1999.
• Atal Bihari Vajpayee received Bharat Ratna in 2015.

The correct answer is protons.

Key Points

• The atomic number of an element is the same as the number of protons.
• ​The number of electrons = number of protons.
• Hence, the total number of electrons present in an atom represents the atomic number of a particular atom.
• Elements are different because of their atomic number.
• The periodic table displays all of the known elements and is arranged in order of increasing atomic number.

Additional Information

• Neutrons are subatomic particles that are one of the primary constituents of atomic nuclei.
• Atoms of a chemical element that differ only in neutron number are called isotopes.
• Neutron was discovered by James Chadwick in 1932.
• An electron is a negatively charged subatomic particle that together with protons and neutrons form an atom's nucleus.
• Electrons play an essential role in numerous physical phenomena, such as electricity, magnetism, chemistry and thermal conductivity, and they also participate in gravitational, electromagnetic and weak interactions.
• Electron was discovered by J J Thomson.
• Protons are the positively charged particles which are present in the nucleus of an atom.
• They provide the attractive electrostatic central force which binds the atomic electrons.
• It was observed as H⁺ by Eugen Goldstein (1886). It was identified in other nuclei (and named) by Ernest Rutherford (1917–1920).

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• Our atmosphere is divided into five layers starting from the earth’s surface. These are-
• Troposphere
• Stratosphere
• Mesosphere
• Thermosphere
• Exosphere
• Mesosphere​​
• ​This is the third layer of the atmosphere.
• It lies above the stratosphere.
• It extends up to the height of 80 km.
• In this layer, once again, temperature starts decreasing with the increase in altitude and reaches up to minus 100° C at the height of 80 km.
• Meteorites burn up in this layer on entering from the space.
• The meteors make it through the exosphere and thermosphere without much trouble because those layers don't have much air. But when they hit the mesosphere, there are enough gases to cause friction and create heat.
• The upper limit of mesosphere is known as the mesopause.

The correct answer is F2.

Key Points

• In a convex lens, when the object is at infinity, then the image is formed at F2.
• A lens may have two spherical surfaces, bulging outwards. Such a lens is called a double convex lens.
• It is also simply called a convex lens.
• It is thicker at the middle as compared to the edges.
• Convex lens converges light rays. Hence convex lenses are called converging lenses.

Important Points

• The nature, position and relative size of the image formed by convex lens for various positions of the object is-

The correct answer is Kathak.

Key Points

• Kathak doesn't belong to Southern India.
• It is originated from Uttar Pradesh.
• It is one of the eight forms of ancient classical dances of India.
• It originated within Hindu temples as a storytelling device for portraying the epic tales from Hindu scriptures, Mahabharata and Ramayana.
• The Kathakars communicate stories through rhythmic foot movements, hand gestures, facial expressions and eye work.

Additional Information

• Kathakali
• ​It is a classical dance form of Kerala.
• The characters of Kathakali do not speak and the story is presented through songs from the background.
• It can be distinguished from the others through the intricate and vivid make-up, unique face masks and costumes worn by dancers as also from their style and movements that reflect the age-old martial arts .
• Kuchipudi
• ​It is a dance-drama performance art that originated in a village of Krishna district of Andhra Pradesh.
• This ancient dance form finds place in the 10^th century copper inscriptions and in 15^th century texts like ‘Machupalli Kaifat’.
• This dance is a combination of Tandava (the majestic, masculine) and and Lasya (lyrical graceful and feminine energy).
• A distinctive feature of this dance is the execution on a brass plate and moving the plate to the accompaniment of Carnatic music.
• Bharatanatyam
• ​It is one of the most popular and widely practiced classical dance styles of India.
• A form of illustrative anecdote of Hindu religious themes and spiritual ideas emoted by dancer with excellent footwork and impressive gestures.
• Its performance repertoire includes nrita, nritya and natya.
• Accompanists include a singer, music and particularly the guru who directs and conducts the performance.

The correct answer is VIII.

Key Points

• Part VIII of the Indian Constitution
• ​It includes Articles 239 to 242.
• Union Territories are covered under this.
• List of Union Territories-
• Andaman and Nicobar
• Chandigarh
• Daman and Diu and Dadra and Nagar Haveli
• Delhi
• Jammu and Kashmir
• Ladakh
• Lakshadweep
• Puducherry

Additional Information

• Part X of the Indian Constitution
• It consists of Articles on the scheduled and Tribal Areas.
• It includes Articles 244 and 244 (A).
• Article-244-Administration of Scheduled Areas and Tribal Areas. Article-244 (A)- Formation of an autonomous State comprising certain tribal areas in Assam and creation of local Legislature or Council of Ministers or both therefor.
• Part VII of the Indian Constitution
• Out of the 22 parts of the Indian Constitution that originally existed during its formation, the only part which has been deleted is Part VII.
• It was repealed by the Constitution (7^th Amendment) Act, 1956.
• It dealt with the Part-B States in the Indian Union.
• Part IX of the Indian Constitution
• It contains provision for the Panchayats.
• It was added by the 73^rd Constitutional Amendment act, 1992.
• Provision of part IX is not applicable in Nagaland, Meghalaya, and Mizoram, tribal and hill areas of Manipur and V schedule areas.

The correct answer is Babur.

Key Points

• Babur defeated Ibrahim Lodi at Panipat in 1526.
• Babur was the founder of the Mughal Empire.
• He was the first Emperor of the Mughal dynasty who ruled between 1526 to 1530.
• He defeated Ibrahim Lodhi in the first battle of Panipat in 1526.
• He defeated Mahmud Lodi in the battle of Ghaghra in 1529. Babur died in 1530 in Agra.
• He was first buried in Agra, later his mortal remains were moved to Kabul and reburied in Bagh-e Babur in Kabul.
• Autobiography of Babur: Baburnama.

Additional Information

• Jahangir was born in 1569 at Fatehpur Sikri, present Uttar Pradesh.
• In 1605, Prince Salim succeeded with the title Jahangir (Conqueror of World) after the death of Akbar.
• Jahangir issued coins jointly in Nurjahan's name and his own.
• Jahangir also married Manbai in 1585 AD and Jodhbai in 1587 AD.
• He defeated and imprisoned his son, Khusrau Mirza.
• He also beheaded Guru Arjun, the 5^th Sikh Guru and one of the supporters of Khusrau Mirza.
• Captain Hawkins (1608-1611) and Sir Thomas Roe (1615-1616) visited Jahangir's court.
• Humayun (1530 to 1540 and again from 1555 to 1556)
• He was Babur's son.
• He ascended the throne of India three days after Babur's death in 1530.
• Six months after his accession, Humayun besieged the fortress of Kalinjar in Bundelkhand.
• Humayun forces were defeated by Afghan ruler Sher Shah Suri at Chausa near Buxar in June 1539.
• On May 17, 1540, the Mughals and the Afghans met again opposite Kannauj.
• His hopelessly demoralised army was defeated at the battle commonly known as the Battle of Kannauj.
• In February 1555, he captured Lahore, and after a few months captured also.
• Akbar (1556 AD-1605 AD)
• He undertook the title of Jalaluddin Muhammad Akbar Badshah Ghazi at the young age of 14.
• The Second Battle of Panipat,1556 was fought between Hemu, the Hindu General of Muhammad Adil Shah and Bairam Khan, the regent of Akbar.
• He divided his empire into 12 subbas. The word 'subba' means the province.
• He built Buland Darwaza at Fatehpur Sikri.
• He also built Fatehpur Sikri, Agra Fort, Lahore Fort, Allahabad Fort and Humayun’s Tomb in Delhi.
• He proclaimed a new religion, Din‑i‑Ilahi, in 1581 AD.
• Birbal was the only Hindu who followed Din-i-Ilahi.

The correct answer is Mahesh Bhupathi.

Key Points

• Mahesh Bhupathi never won an Olympic medal for India.
• Mahesh Bhupathi
• He is an Indian former doubles world No. 1 tennis player.​
• He is also the founder of International Premier Tennis League.
• In December 2016, Bhupathi was appointed as India's next non-playing Davis Cup captain and took over the reins from Anand Amritraj in February 2017.
• Neeraj Chopra won the Gold Medal in the 2020 Summer Olympics – Men's javelin throw.
• Vijay Kumar won the silver medal in the individual 25 metre rapid fire pistol event at the 2012 Summer Olympics.
• Leander Paes won a bronze medal for India in men's singles at the 1996 Atlanta Olympic Games.

The correct answer is Oak.

Key Points

• Tropical evergreen forests
• These forests are also called tropical rainforests.
• These thick forests occur in the regions near the equator and close to the tropics.
• These regions are hot and receive heavy rainfall throughout the year.
• As there is no particular dry season, the trees do not shed their leaves altogether.
• This is the reason they are called evergreen.
• The thick canopies of the closely spaced trees do not allow the sunlight to penetrate inside the forest even in the day time.
• Some of the commercially important trees of this forest are ebony, mahogany, rosewood, rubber and cinchona.
• The common animals found in these forests are elephant, monkey, lemur and deer.
• Onehorned rhinoceroses are found in the jungles of Assam and West Bengal.
• Oak is found in Temperate Evergreen Forests.

The correct answer is Baltic Sea.

Key Points

• The 12^th edition of exercise INDRA NAVY, a biennial bilateral maritime exercise between Indian Navy and Russian Navy was held in the Baltic Sea from 28 to 29 July 2021. 
• ​This exercise was undertaken as part of the visit of INS Tabar to St Petersburg, Russia to participate in the 325^th Navy Day celebrations of the Russian Navy.
• Initiated in 2003, Ex INDRA NAVY epitomises the long-term strategic relationship between the two navies.
• The primary aim of this edition was to further consolidate inter-operability built up by the two Navies over the years and also to enhance understanding and procedures for multi-faceted maritime operations.
• The scope of this edition includes wide-ranging and diverse activities across the spectrum of maritime operations.
• The exercise was progressed over two days and included various facets of fleet operations such as anti-air firings, underway replenishment drills, helicopter ops, boarding drills and seamanship evolutions.

The correct answer is 8 April, 1929.

Key Points

• On 8 April, 1929, Bhagat Singh and B. K. Dutt threw a bomb in the Central Legislative Assembly.
• ​They were members of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association.
• It was against the Public Safety Bill and the Trade Dispute Bill.
• They did not want to injure anyone but wanted to make a statement that they would not bear the colonial rule of Britishers.
• Dutta also initiated a historic hunger strike along with Bhagat Singh to protest against the abusive treatment of Indian political prisoners.

Additional Information

• Bhagat Singh
• He founded Naujawan Bharat Sabha in March 1926.
• The objective of this organisation was to encourage revolution against British rule by rallying the peasants and workers.
• Bhagat Singh popularized the phrase " Inqualab Zindabad" which was first phrased by Maulana Hazrat Mohani.
• Some of the books written by Bhagat Singh are "Why I Am an Atheist", "No Hanging, Please Shoot Us", "on the Path of Liberation" among others.​
• Bhagat Singh, Rajguru and Sukhdev were involved in the Lahore conspiracy case and because of this, the court had ordered that they were to be hanged on March 23, 1931.

The correct answer is Cash Reserve Ratio.

Key Points

• The average daily balance that a bank is required to maintain with the Reserve Bank as a share of such per cent of its Net demand and time liabilities (NDTL) that the Reserve Bank may notify from time to time in the Gazette of India is called as Cash Reserve Ratio.
• Cash Reserve Ratio
• ​It is the percentage of cash required to be kept in reserves as against the bank's total deposits.
• Commercial banks have to hold a certain minimum amount of deposit as reserves with the central bank.
• During high inflation in the economy, the central bank raises the CRR to lower the bank’s loanable funds.

Additional Information

• Repo rate
• It ​is the rate at which the central bank of a country (Reserve Bank of India in the case of India) lends money to commercial banks in the event of any shortfall of funds.
• Repo rate is used by monetary authorities to control inflation.
• Reserve repo rate
• ​It is the rate at which the central bank of a country (Reserve Bank of India in case of India) borrows money from commercial banks within the country.
• It is a monetary policy instrument which can be used to control the money supply in the country.
• The repo rate helps control inflation, and the reverse repo rate increases liquidity.
• The repo rate set by the RBI is always higher than the reverse repo rate.
• Statutory Liquidity Ratio
• ​It is the minimum percentage of deposits that a commercial bank has to maintain in the form of liquid cash, gold or other securities.
• The SLR is determined as a percentage of total demand and time liabilities.
• RBI uses SLR to control inflation and fuel growth, by decreasing or increasing the money supply.

The correct answer is 156.

Key Points

• Article 156
• ​The Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.
• The Governor may, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign his office.
• Subject to the foregoing provisions of this article, a Governor shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office.

Additional Information

• Article 161
• ​The Governor of a State shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the State extends.
• Article 165
• ​The Governor of each State shall appoint a person who is qualified to be appointed a Judge of a High Court to be Advocate-General for the State.
• The Advocate-General shall hold office during the pleasure of the Governor, and shall receive such remuneration as the Governor may determine.
• Article 152
• ​It contains the definition. In this Part, unless the context otherwise requires, the expression “State” does not include the State of Jammu and Kashmir.​​

The correct answer is 7.

Key Points

• The government of India declares MSP for 23 crops. Out of thse, 7 are cereal crops.
• The Commission for Agricultural Costs & Prices (CACP) is an attached office of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Government of India.
• It came into existence in January 1965.
• It is mandated to recommend minimum support prices (MSPs) to incentivize the cultivators to adopt modern technology, and raise productivity and overall grain production in line with the emerging demand patterns in the country.
• As of now, CACP recommends MSPs of 23 commodities, which comprise-
• 7 cereals (paddy, wheat, maize, sorghum, pearl millet, barley and ragi)
• 5 pulses (gram, tur, moong, urad, lentil)
• 7 oilseeds (groundnut, rapeseed-mustard, soyabean, seasmum, sunflower, safflower, nigerseed)
• 4 commercial crops (copra, sugarcane, cotton and raw jute)
• CACP submits its recommendations to the government in the form of Price Policy Reports every year, separately for five groups of commodities namely Kharif crops, Rabi crops, Sugarcane, Raw Jute and Copra.

Formula Used:

Average = Sum of all observations ÷ Number of observations

Calculation: 

The total weight of all the boys is 12 × 55 = 660 kg.

The total weight of all the girls is 15 × 45 = 675 kg.

The total weight of the entire class is 660 + 675 = 1335 kg.

The number of students in the class is 12 + 15 = 27.

Average weight = Total weight ÷ Number of students

⇒ Average weight = 1335 ÷ 27

⇒ Average weight = 49.4 kg

So, the average weight of the entire class is 49.4 kg.

Solution:

Total marks = 250

Marks obtained = 120

Percent marks obtain = 120 ÷ 250 × 100 = 12 ÷ 25 × 100 = 12 × 4 = 48

Hence, 120 is 48% of 250.

Concept Used:

Loss Percentage is calculated on Cost Price, 

Loss Percentage = Loss ÷ Cost Price × 100

Selling Price = (100 - Loss Percentage) of the Cost Price

Calculation:

Loss = 37.5% of Cost Price

⇒ Selling Price = (100 - 37.5)% of the Cost Price

⇒ 100 = (100 - 37.5) × Cost Price ÷ 100

⇒ 100 = 62.5  × Cost Price ÷ 100

⇒ Cost Price = 100 × 100 ÷ 62.5

⇒ Cost Price = 160

So, the Cost Price of the article is Rs. 160.

Solution:

Marks obtain in S1 is 70

and marks obtained in S5 is 50

Required percentage = 70 ÷ 50 × 100

⇒ Required percentage = 140

Concept:

Solution:

$\dfrac{27\div 9\times 4+ 7 \div 14 - 2 \times6}{5\times 4-6 \times 3}$

$\Rightarrow \dfrac{3\times 4+ 1 \div 2 - 12}{20-18}$

$\Rightarrow \dfrac{12+ 1 \div 2 - 12}{2}$

$\Rightarrow \dfrac{ 1 \div 2}{2} = \dfrac{1}{4}$

Concept Used:

For fractions with the same denominator, the fraction with the highest numerator is the largest fraction.

Calculation:

The LCM of denominators is 765.

Next, we can express each fraction with a denominator of 765, by multiplying both the numerator and denominator by the same factor.

For 7/9, we multiply both the numerator and denominator by 85, to get 595/765.

For 13/15, we multiply both the numerator and denominator by 51, to get 663/765.

For 15/17, we multiply both the numerator and denominator by 45, to get 675/765.

For 3/5, we multiply both the numerator and denominator by 153, to get 469/765.

So, the largest of these is 15/17.

Alternate Method 7/9, 13/15, 15/17, and 3/5 are all fractions, so to compare them we need to find their decimal equivalents.

7/9 = 0.777...

13/15 = 0.866...

15/17 = 0.882...

3/5 = 0.600...

So, the largest of these is 15/17, or 0.882.

Formula Used:

Speed = Distance ÷ Time

⇒ Time = Distance ÷ Speed

and 1 hour = 60 minutes 

1 minutes = 60 seconds and 1 km = 1000 meter.

Calculation:

The speed of train is 15 meter/second,

covered distance = 15 km = 15 × 1000 meter = 15000 meter

Time = 15000 ÷ 15 = 1000 seconds

⇒ Time = 1000÷60 minutes = 50÷3 minutes

⇒ Time = 50 ÷ (3× 60) hours

⇒ Time = 5/18 hours

Formula Used:

Average = Sum of all observations ÷ Number of observations

Calculation: 

Sum of all income for company P is 300 + 500 + 600 + 400 + 200 = 2000

Average income of company P per year = 2000 ÷ 5 = 400 (this is J1)

Difference between income,

For year Y1, 600 - 300 = 300

For year Y2, 800 - 500 = 300

For year Y3, 700 - 600 = 100

For year Y4, 500 - 400 = 100

For year Y5, 300 - 200 = 100

Sum of all = 300 + 300 + 100 + 100 + 100 = 900 (this is J2)

Now, J2 - J1 = 900 - 400 = 500

Hence, the required value is 500.

Concept Used:

We know, (a ± b)2 = a2 + b2 ± 2ab

Calculation:

41 + 24√2 = A²

⇒ 32 + 9 + 2×4√2×3 = A2

⇒ (4√2)² + 3² + 2×4√2×3 = A2

⇒ (4√2 + 3)2 = A2

⇒ ±(4√2 + 3) = A

⇒ 4√2 + 3 = A 

 (as A is positive)

And ​​

36 - 16√2 = B2

⇒ 32 + 4 - 2×4√2×2 = B2

⇒ (4√2)2 + 22 - 2×4√2×2 = B2

⇒ (4√2 - 2)2 = B2

⇒ ±(4√2 - 2) = B

⇒ 4√2 - 2 = B 

(as B is positive)​

Thus, A - B = 3 + 2 = 5

Solution:

Let the required number be x.

ATQ: 20% of x = 200

⇒ 20 × x ÷ 100 = 200

⇒ 20x = 20000

⇒ x = 1000

Now, 37.5 % of 1000 = 37.5 × 1000 ÷ 100 = 37.5 × 10 = 375

Hence, the required value is 375.

Solution:

Let Mohit alone can finish work in x days and Rohit can do the same in y days.

Then, one day work of Mohit is 1/x parts and one day work of Rohit is 1/y parts.

One day work of Mohit and Rohit together is 1/x + 1/y = (x + y)/xy parts

Given both can complete the work in 15 days,

Then, one day work of both together is 1/15 parts

⇒ 1/15 = (x + y)/xy

⇒ 15x + 15 y = xy . . .(i)

Also, Mohit is thrice as efficient as Rohit i.e., Mohit will finish work in 1/3 of the time in which Rohit can finish the work

that means, 3x = y . . .(ii)

Using (i) and (ii), we get

⇒ 15x + 45x = 3x²

⇒ 3x2 - 60x = 0

⇒ 3x(x - 20) = 0

⇒ x = 0 (not possible) or x = 20

Thus, y = 3 × 20 = 60

Hence, Rohit can finish work alone in 60 days.

Formula Used: 

Area of rectangle = Length × Breadth

and Perimeter of rectangle = 2( Length + Breadth )

Calculation:

Let x be the breadth of the rectangle, then the length will be 3x.

The area of the rectangle is given by x × 3x = 1200,

⇒ 3x2 = 1200 

⇒ x² = 400 

Solving for x, we get

x = 20 cm.

So, the perimeter of the rectangle is 2 × (20 + 3 × 20) = 2 × (20 + 60) = 2 × 80 = 160 cm.

Hence, the perimeter of the given rectangle is 160 cm.

Formula Used:

The formula to calculate compound interest (CI) is given by:

CI = P((1 + r/100)^t - 1) 

Where, P = principal, r = rate of interest  and t = period

Calculation:

For given question, P = Rs. 48000, r = 25%, t = 2  

Thus, CI = 48000×[(1 + 25/100)² - 1] = 48000×[(1.25)² - 1]

⇒ CI = 48000 × (1.5625 - 1) 

⇒ CI = 48000 × 0.5625 = 27000 

Hence, the compound interest for 2 years is Rs. 27000.

Shortcut Trick

Total mixture = 400 liters, Quantity A = 240 liters.

Quantity B = 400 − 240 = 160 liters.

Ratio A : B = 240 : 160.

Divide both by HCF (80): 240 ÷ 80 : 160 ÷ 80 = 3 : 2.

∴ The correct answer is 3 : 2.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total quantity of mixture = 400 liters

Quantity of component A = 240 liters

Formula used: Quantity B = Total Mixture − Quantity A

Total Mixture = 400 L A = 240 L B = ? Mixture Components Distribution

Calculations:

⇒ Total volume = 400 liters

⇒ Quantity of A = 240 liters

⇒ Quantity of B = 400 − 240 = 160 liters

⇒ Required Ratio = A : B

⇒ Ratio = 240 : 160

⇒ Ratio = 24 : 16

⇒ Ratio = 3 : 2

∴ The correct answer is 3 : 2.

Additional Information

Ratio and Proportion

A ratio is a comparison of two quantities by division, expressed as a : b. It must always be simplified to its lowest terms by dividing with the HCF.

Percentage in Mixture

To find the percentage of a component: (Quantity of component ÷ Total Mixture) × 100. For A, it is (240 ÷ 400) × 100 = 60%.

Quantity from Ratio

If ratio A:B is x:y and total is T, then A = [x ÷ (x + y)] × T and B = [y ÷ (x + y)] × T.

Solution:

Rohit's present age 24 years and Mohit's present age is 27 years.

After 6 years,

Rohit's age = 30 years

Mohit's age = 33 years

Required ratio = 30 : 33 = 10 : 11

Hence, ratio of their age after 6 years is 10 : 11.

Concept Used:

For any number to be divisible by 9, the sum of it's digits must also be divisible by 9.

Calculation:

For 5234M,

Sum of digit = 5 + 2 + 3 + 4 + M = 14 + M

For a number to be divisible by 9, 14 + M needs to be divisible by 9

For M = 4, 14 + M = 18, which is divisible by 9.

Hence, the value of M is 4.

Formula Used:

The volume of the cone is (1/3)πr²h,  and the Volume of the sphere is (4/3)πr³

Calculation:

Let's denote the height of the cone as "h". Then, the radius of the cone is "r" and "R" be the radius of the sphere.

According to the given information,

r = 10 cm, h = 9R

and r = h - 17 cm and r = 10 cm.

So, h = r + 17 = 10 + 17 = 27 cm.

Thus, R = 3 cm

The volume of the cone is = (1/3) π × 10² × 27 = 900π cm³.

And the volume of the sphere is = (4/3)π × 3³ = 36π

Now, let's there be n solid spheres out of which cone is formed

⇒ n × 36π = 900 π

⇒ n = 900 ÷ 36

⇒ n = 25 

Hence, there will 25 solid spheres are needed to form a cone of the required specification.

Concept Used:

HCF stands for Highest Common Factor, which is also known as Greatest Common Divisor (GCD). The HCF of two or more integers is the largest positive integer that divides each of the integers without leaving a remainder.

LCM stands for Least Common Multiple, which is the smallest positive integer that is a multiple of two or more integers. In other words, it is the smallest integer that is divisible by all of the given integers.

Calculation:

As B = 120 = 40 × 3 = A × 3

Thus, B itself is the LCM and A itself is HCF. 

HCF : LCM = 40 : 120 = 1 : 3

Hence, the required ratio is 1:3.

Solution:

Number of pens sold by A is 120

Number of pens sold by E is 30

Required ratio is 120 : 30 = 4 : 1

Formula Used:

Speed = Distance ÷ Time

1 km = 1000 meter and 1 hour = 3600 second

Calculation:

Since, the length of the platform is 680 meters and for train to cross platform it needs to cover length of platform as well as its length.

Let x meters be the length of the train.

Traveled distance by train in 56 seconds is (680 + x) meters

Speed = (680 + x) ÷ 56

Given speed is 72km/hr = 72 × 1000 ÷ 3600 = 72 × 5 ÷ 18 = 20 m/sec

⇒ (680 + x) ÷ 56 = 20

⇒ 680 + x = 20 × 56

⇒ x = 1120 - 680

⇒ x = 440

Hence, the length of the train is 440 meters.

The correct answer is "sufficient to join New Guinea to Australia."

Key Points

• The correct answer. "Sufficient to join New Guinea to Australia" is a grammatically correct sentence and it makes sense in the context of the sentence. It is saying that a slight warping of the sea bottom in the vicinity of Torres Strait would be enough to connect the two land masses of New Guinea and Australia.
• Option 4 are incorrect because the sentence is not grammatically correct and
• option 2 is incorrect because it implies that New Guinea is a separate entity from Australia which is not true.
• Thus the correct answer is sufficient to join New Guinea to Australia.

Correct sentence: A slight warping of the sea bottom in the vicinity of Torres Strait would be sufficient to join New Guinea to Australia.

The correct answer is "RPSQ"

Key Points

• The correct sequence is "RPSQ"
• R will be the sentence after the opening sentence because it best connets the previous sentence and it provides background information on the history of the software.
• P follows R because it further  provides information on the software's impact and usage.
• S follows P because  it describes how the software's name has been adopted into everyday language.
• Q comes next because it describes the capabilities of the software.
• Finally, "Photoshop uses its own PSD and PSB file formats to support these features will be the last sentence.

Correct arrangement: Adobe Photoshop is a raster graphics editor developed and published by Adobe Inc. for Windows and macOS.  It was originally created in 1988 by Thomas and John Knoll. Since then, the software has become the industry standard not only in raster graphics editing, but in digital art as a whole. The software's name has thus become a generic trademark, leading to its usage as a verb (e.g. "to photoshop an image", "photoshopping", and "photoshop contest") although Adobe discourages such use.  Photoshop can edit and compose raster images in multiple layers and supports masks, alpha compositing and several colour models including RGB, CMYK, CIELAB, spot colour, and duotone. Photoshop uses its own PSD and PSB file formats to support these features

The correct answer is "QSRP"

Key Points

• The first sentence will the one that best connects the starting i.e. Pit bull is a term used in.
• The sentence "the United States for a type of dog" (Q) comes first because it sets the context of the paragraph, which is about the term "pit bull" and its usage.
• The sentence "descended from bulldogs and terriers," (S) comes next because it describes the origin of the "pit bull" type of dog.
• The sentence "while in other countries such as" (R) comes after that because it introduces the idea of the term being used differently in other countries.
• The sentence "the United Kingdom the term is used as an abbreviation" (P) follows, because it gives an example of how the term is used differently in other countries
• Finally, "of the American Pit Bull Terrier breed" comes last because it provides more specific information about the breed the paragraph is discussing.

Correct arrangement:  Pit bull is a term used in the United States for a type of dog descended from bulldogs and terriers, while in other countries such as the United Kingdom the term is used as an abbreviation of the American Pit Bull Terrier breed.

The correct answer is "An old fashioned person."

Key Points

• A fuddy-duddy is a person who is old-fashioned and conservative in their ideas and ways. The term is often used to describe someone who is out of touch with current trends and fashions.
• For example, "My grandfather is such a fuddy-duddy. He still uses a flip phone and refuses to try out any new technology."
• Thus, the correct answer is "An old fashioned person"

Correct answer: An old fashioned person.

The correct answer is "Introverts have a side to them that they keep hidden"

Key Points

• Still waters run deep" is a proverb that means that people or things that appear calm and unassuming on the surface may actually have a lot of depth and complexity. It can also imply that someone who is quiet and reserved may have strong emotions or hidden talents.
• For example, "Don't underestimate Jane. She may seem quiet, but still waters run deep. She's actually a brilliant scientist."

Correct answer: Introverts have a side to them that they keep hidden

The correct is "buffoons"

Key Points 

• The correct answer is "buffoons"
• The phrase "divinely gifted artists" implies that the individuals being referred to have exceptional talents or abilities in the realm of art. "Buffoons" is the best choice to fill in the blank because it suggests that these artists are entertainers who aim to get a laugh by making people laugh.
• Thus, the most appropriate choice is "buffoons"

Correct sentence: These were the experiences of divinely gifter artists and not buffons 

Additional Information

• The other options:
• Perceivers - Perceivers means a person who notices or understands something, which is not in line with the phrase "divinely gifted artists"
• Charlatans - Charlatans means a fraud or fake person which is not in line with the phrase "divinely gifted artists"
• Bigots - Bigots means a person who is intolerant towards those holding different opinions from oneself which is not in line with the phrase "divinely gifted artists"

The correct answer is "​If creative spirit of Periclean age be"

Key Points

• The part of the sentence that has an error is "If creative spirit of Periclean age be.
• The error in this part of the sentence is the verb form "be" which should be "was" to match with the subject "creative spirit" and to complete the proper grammatical structure of the sentence, it should be "If the creative spirit of the Periclean age was manifested in the Parthenon."
• Thus, the error lies in the first part of the sentence "If creative spirit of Periclean age be"

Correct sentence: If the creative spirit of the Periclean age was manifested in the Parthenon then the Bolshevist era is manifested through its cubist grimace

The correct answer is "​A place where animal hides are treated."

Key Points

• Tannery is a factory or workshop where animal hides are processed into leather.
• A tannery is a factory or workshop where animal hides are processed into leather. The process involves soaking, cleaning, and treating the hides with chemicals to preserve them and change the texture and color. The hides are then stretched, dried, and finished to make them suitable for use in various products such as clothing, shoes, and furniture.
• Thus the most appropriate meaning for he word "Tannery" is "​A place where animal hides are treated"

Correct answer: ​A place where animal hides are treated

The correct answer is "I will either watch a movie or go to sleep".

Key Points

​

• "I will either watch a movie or go to sleep" is the correct substitution for the bracketed segment because it is grammatically correct and completes the sentence meaningfully.
• The phrase "I will either watch a movie or go to sleep" indicates that the speaker has a choice between two options and will do one or the other, which makes sense in the context of the sentence.
• The other options, "I will be neither watching a movie or go to sleep" and "I will either watch a movie nor go to sleep" are not grammatically correct.

Correct sentence: Thank you for inviting me but the day has been exhausting, I will either watch a movie or go to sleep,

Additional Information

• "Neither...nor" is a conjunction used to connect two negative options. It is used to indicate that none of the options being presented are true or applicable.  The word "neither" comes before the first option and "nor" comes before the second option.
• **For example: "**I will have neither coffee nor tea for breakfast." In this sentence, the speaker is saying that they will not have coffee or tea for breakfast, and it is indicating that the two options are mutually exclusive, meaning that the speaker can't have both at the same time.
• Either...or" is a conjunction used to connect two positive options. It is used to indicate that one of the options being presented is true or applicable. The word "either" comes before the first option and "or" comes before the second option.
• ​For example: "I will either have coffee or tea for breakfast." In this sentence, the speaker is saying that they will have either coffee or tea for breakfast.

 ​

The correct answer is "GLOOMY"

Key Points

• In the above question we have to the word that is opposite in meaning to the word "GLEAMING"
• GLEAMING: Reflecting light brightly and evenly, often used to describe shiny surfaces(चमचमाती).
• For example, "The gleaming stainless steel of the new skyscraper could be seen for miles(मनहूस,अंधकारपूर्न)."
• GLOOMY: Dark, dull, and dismal in appearance or mood, often used to describe a place or a person's emotional state.
• For example, "The gloomy weather matched the gloomy mood of the city."
• Thus, the Antonym of "GLEAMING" is "GLOOMY"

Correct answer: GlOOMY

Additional Information

• Let's understand the other given words.
• Glittering: Shining brightly with flashes of light, often used to describe something that is sparkly or shiny(चमचमाती).
• For example, "The glittering jewels on the crown caught the light and sparkled."
• Flashing: Shining quickly and brightly, often used to describe something that is blinking or flashing on and off(चमचमाती).
• For example, "The flashing lights on the ambulance alerted everyone to clear the way."
• Golden: Having the color of gold, often used to describe something that is yellow or has a yellowish tint(सुनहरा).
• For example, "The golden sun set behind the mountain range."

The correct answer is "RECOGNITION"

Key Points

• In the above question we have to the word that is similar in meaning to the word "CANONIZATION"
• CANONIZATION: The process by which a deceased person is officially recognized by the Catholic Church as a saint(संत रूप में ख्याति).
• For example, "Mother Teresa was canonized as a saint by the Catholic Church in 2016."
• RECOGNITION: The act of acknowledging or identifying something or someone(

मान्यता).

• For example, "The company's new product received recognition from industry experts
• Thus, the word that is similar in the meaning to the word "CANONIZATION" is "RECOGNITION"

Correct answer: RECOGNITION

Additional Information

• Let's understand the meaning of the other given words.
• Veto: The power to reject or forbid a decision or proposal made by others(

निषेधाधिकार).

• For example, "The president used his veto power to reject the new bill passed by Congress."
• Mobilization: The process of organizing and gathering resources, such as troops or equipment, for a specific purpose or action(

गतिमान करना).

• For example, "The country's mobilization for war was successful and the troops were ready to fight."
• Comparison: The act of examining or evaluating similarities and differences between two or more things(तुलना).
• For example, "The comparison of the two different economic models revealed that one was more successful than the other."

The correct answer is "Choosing'

Key Points

• In the above question we have to choose the most appropriate word to fill in the blanks.
• The most appropriate word is "Choosing",because it is a present participle, and it is used to form the progressive tenses. The progressive tenses are used to describe an action that is currently in progress or incomplete. In this sentence, the action of not responding to an event is still a response, and it is currently in progress or incomplete.
• Thus, the correct answer is "Choosing"

Correct Sentence:  Choosing to not respond to the event in our lives is still a response to the events in our lives.

Additional Information

• "Chose" is the past tense of choose, it is incorrect here as the sentence is talking about an ongoing action.

The correct answer is "AIRY"

Key Points

• In the above question, we have to find the word that is similar in meaning to the word given below.
• ETHEREAL:  is used to describe something that is very light, delicate, and not of this world(हवाई).
• For example, "The ethereal beauty of the butterfly's wings is breathtaking."
• AIRY: This word is used to describe something that is light, open, and spacious(हवाई).
• For example, "The airy living room felt open and inviting."
• Thus, the synonym of the word "ETHEREAL"  is  "AIRY"

Correct answer: AIRY

Additional Information

• Let's understand the other given words.
• Indelicate: This word is used to describe something that is not delicate or refined. It can also be used to describe someone who is tactless or rude(अशिष्ट).
• For example, "The indelicate way she spoke to her boss got her fired."
• Substantial: This word is used to describe something that is large, important, or of significant value(तात्त्विक,संतोषजनक).
• For example, "The substantial amount of money he had saved allowed him to retire early."
• Unreal:. Unreal refers to something that is not real or that cannot be believed.
• For example, "The movie special effects were so good, it was hard to tell what was real and what was unreal."

The correct answer is "As Freud once said that, ‘One day, in the"

Key Points

• In the above question, the error lies in the first part of the sentence "As Freud once said that, ‘One day, in the"
• "As Freud once said that", This phrase implies that Freud had said the quote in the past, but it should be "Freud once said that" because it is a quote and not something that is being said by Freud at the moment. The phrase "As Freud once said that" is redundant and should be removed.
• The correct sentence would be " "Freud once said, ‘One day, in retrospect, the years of struggle will strike you as the most beautiful."

Correct answer:  "Freud once said, ‘One day, in retrospect, the years of struggle will strike you as the most beautiful.’"

The correct answer is "PLAYWRITE"

Key Points

• The incorrect spelt word is "PLAYWRITE"
• The correct spelling is "PLAYWRIGHT"
• A playwright is a person who writes plays for the theater.
• Example: "William Shakespeare is considered one of the greatest playwrights in history."​

Correct answer: PLAYWRITE

Additional Information

• Let's understand the other words given in the options.
• Millennium refers to a period of 1000 years. It can also refer to a specific 1000-year period, such as the "Millennium" that began on January 1, 2000.
• Example: "The new millennium brought many changes to the world."
• Colonel is a military rank, typically above a lieutenant colonel and below a brigadier general.
• Example: "The colonel led the regiment into battle."
• Zucchini is a type of summer squash, often used in cooking.
• Example: "I'm going to sauté some zucchini to go with my steak tonight."

The correct answer is "The Amazons"

Key Points

• The most suitable title for this passage is "The Amazons"
• The title "The Amazons" is chosen for this passage because it is discussing the legendary tribe of female warriors and hunters in Greek mythology who were known as the Amazons. The passage provides information about their origins, society, culture, and their roles in ancient epic poems and legends. It also includes information about their association with the foundation of temples and the establishment of ancient cities and their location and the possible inspiration behind the myth. So the title "The Amazons" summarizes the main topic of the passage and provides an idea of what the passage will be discussing.
• Thus, The Amazons is the correct answer to this question.

Correct answer: The Amazons

The correct answer is "Self effacing"

Key Points

• In the passage it is clearly mentioned that the with reference to the women warriors & their society that the women warriors were, courageous, autonomous, robust and fiercely independent.
• The women warriors were not self-effacing. In fact they were courageous, fiercely independent and undertook various military expeditions.
• Thus, "Self effacing" is the correct answer to this question.

Correct answer: Self effacing

The correct answer is "Only A is correct".

Key Points

• Refer to the line: However, authors most frequently referred to Pontus in northern Anatolia, on the southern shores of the Black Sea, as the independent Amazon kingdom where the Amazon queen resided at her capital Themiscyra, on the banks of the Thermodon river.
• Statement A is correct.
• Refer to the line: In 2019, a grave with multiple generations of female Scythian warriors, armed and in golden headdresses, was found near Russia's Voronezh.:
• Statement B is incorrect because "The Scythian warriors are not a myth"
• Refer to the line: Their society was closed for men and they only raised their daughters, either killing their sons or returning them to their fathers, with whom they would only socialize briefly in order to reproduce.
• Statement C is correct because it is mentioned in the passage that their society was closed for men, it indicates their society was matriarchal.
• Thus, the correct answer is "A and C are correct"

Correct answer: A and C are correct

The correct answer is "Thermodon"

Key Points

• Refer to the line:  However, authors most frequently referred to Pontus in northern Anatolia, on the southern shores of the Black Sea, as the independent Amazon kingdom where the Amazon queen resided at her capital Themiscyra, on the banks of the Thermodon river.
• In the passage, it is clearly mentioned that "Thermodon is a river not an ancient city".
• Thus "Thermodon" is the correct answer to this question.

Correct answer: Thermodon

The correct answer is "Vagabond"

Key Points

• Refer to the line: They were a group of female warriors and hunters, who matched men in physical agility and strength, in archery, riding skills and the arts of combat.
• The skills of the women warriors mentioned in the passage are archery, horse riding, art of combat.
• There is no mention of "Vagabond"  as a skill of the women warriors.

Correct answer: Vagabond

वीर पुत्र को जन्म देने वाली स्त्री वाक्यांश के लिए उचित शब्द वीरप्रसू है।  

Key Points

• वीरप्रसु = वह स्त्री जो वीर संतान उत्पन्न करने वाली हो।
• ‘वसुंधरा’ अर्थात ‘धरती’, ‘माते’ अर्थात ‘माता के लिए कहा गया।

Important Points

• दो बार जन्म लेने वाला- द्विज
• जिसका कोई शत्रु ही न जन्मा हो- अजातशत्रु

Additional Information

• वाक्यांश - भाषा को सुंदर, आकर्षक और प्रभावशाली बनाने के लिए अनेक शब्दों के स्थान पर एक शब्द का प्रयोग किया जाता है तो वह वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द कहलाता है।

इतः + ततः शब्द की सन्धि इतस्ततः है। 

Key Points

• इतस्ततः= इतः + ततः
• इतस्तत: शब्द में विसर्ग संधि है।
• ( इ, ई, उ, ऊ, ए ) विसर्ग संधि

Additional Information

भ्रम का विलोम शब्द निभ्रम है। 

Key Points

• भ्रम का विलोम शब्द निभ्रम होता है।
• भ्रम का अर्थ - संदेह, संशय (जैसे—भ्रम में पड़ना, भ्रम दूर करना)।
• निभ्रम का अर्थ - शुद्ध निभ्रम वह कहलाता है, जिसके विषय में भ्रम का आरोप भी न हो सके।

Additional Information

घबराहट शब्द विशेषण का उदाहरण नहीं है।

Key Points

• घबराहट शब्द में भाववाचक संज्ञा है।
• संज्ञा घबराहट शब्द में 'आहट' प्रत्यय का प्रयोग हुआ है।
• घबराहट में कृत प्रत्यय का भाववाचक कृदन्त प्रत्यय का प्रयोग हुआ है।
• भाववाचक संज्ञा - जो शब्द पदार्थों की अवस्था, गुण, दोष, धर्म, दशा, स्वभाव आदि का बोध कराते हैं, उन्हें भाववाचक संज्ञा कहते हैं।
• जैसे- बुढ़ापा , मिठास, बचपन, चढाई, थकावट, मोटापा, मानवता, चतुराई, जवानी, लम्बाई, मित्रता, मुस्कुराहट, अपनापन, परायापन आदि।

Important Points

Additional Information

द्वंद्व समास के दोनों पदों के बीच योजक चिन्ह का प्रयोग होता है।

Key Pointsद्वंद्व समास-

• जिस समस्त-पद (पूर्ण शब्द) के दोनों पद प्रधान (प्रथम पद व उत्तर पद) हों तथा शब्द का विग्रह करने पर 'और', 'अथवा', 'या', 'एवंं' लगता हो, तो ऐसे शब्द को द्वंद्व समास कहते हैं।
• द्वंद्व समास की पहचान-
• द्वंद्व समास के समस्त पद में दोनों पद योजक चिह्न से जुड़े होते हैं।
• द्वंद्व समास के दोनों पद प्रधान होते हैं।
• प्रत्येक दो पदों के बीच और, एवं, तथा, या, अथवा में से किसी एक का लोप पाया जाता है।
• विग्रह करने पर दोनों शब्दों के बीच, अथवा, या आदि शब्द लिखे जाते हैं।
• द्वन्द्व समास तीन प्रकार के होते हैं–
• इतरेतर द्वन्द्व
• वैकल्पिक द्वन्द्व
• समाहार द्वन्द्व

Important Points

Additional Information

• समास के 6 प्रकार होते हैं। 
• अव्ययी भाव समास
• तत्पुरुष समास
• कर्मधारय समास
• द्विगु समास
• द्वन्द्व समास
• बहुव्रीहि समास।

जैसे ही राधा आयी, वैसे ही पार्टी शुरू हो गयी।-यह मिश्रित वाक्य है। 

Key Points

• जैसे ही राधा आयी, वैसे ही पार्टी शुरू हो गयी।
• उपर्युक्त वाक्य में 'जैसे ही राधा आयी' प्रधान उपवाक्य है , जबकि 'वैसे ही पार्टी शुरू हो गयी' आश्रित उपवाक्य है।

मिश्र वाक्य-

• मिश्र वाक्य में एक से अधिक उपवाक्य होते हैं।
• उनमें एक उपवाक्य प्रधान होता है तथा अन्य एक-या-अधिक उपवाक्य उस पर आश्रित होते हैं।
• ये उपवाक्य परस्पर व्यधिकरण योजकों (जैसे कि, यदि, अगर, तो, तथापि, यद्यपि, इसलिए आदि) से जुड़े हुए होते हैं।

Additional Information

निम्नलिखित में पुलिस ने चोर को पकड़वाया - अकर्मक क्रिया सही नहीं है।

Key Points

• पुलिस ने चोर पकड़वाया- प्रेरणार्थक क्रिया
• जिस क्रियाओं के प्रयोग से यह पता चलता है की कर्ता खुद कार्य न करके किसी और से कार्य करवा रहा है या किसी और को कार्य करने की प्रेरणा दे रहा है तो उसे प्रेरणार्थक क्रिया कहते हैं।
• जैसे- करवाना, कटवाना, पिलवाना, पढवाना, लिखवाना, खिलवाना, सुनाना, बोलवाना, पिलवाता, पिलवाती इत्यादि। मालिक नौकर से कार साफ करवाता है।

Important Points

• प्रेरणार्थक क्रिया के दो प्रेरक होते हैं।
• 1.प्रेरक कर्ता
• 2.प्रेरित कर्ता
• प्रेरक कर्ता- जो किसी और को प्रेरणा प्रदान करता है या प्रेरणा देता है उसे प्रेरक कर्ता अर्थात प्रेरक करने वाला कहते हैं।
• जैसे- मालिक, अध्यापिका इत्यादि।
• प्रेरित कर्ता- जो किसी और से प्रेरणा लेता है उसे प्रेरित कर्ता अर्थात प्रेरित हुआ कर्ता कहते हैं।
• जैसे- नौकर, छात्र इत्यादि।

Additional Informationक्रिया

अतिशयोक्ति शुद्ध शब्द है।

Key Points

• उपर्युक्त विकल्पों में से शुद्ध वर्तनी वाला शब्द 'अतिशयोक्ति' है।
• 'अतिशयोक्ति' का अर्थ 'किसी बात को बढ़ा-चढ़ाकर कहना' होता है।

Important Points

Additional Information

घर के प्रत्येक सदस्यों से सह आपेक्षित है कि वे सद्भावना से रहें। वाक्य में शुद्ध भाग घर के प्रत्येक है। 

Key Points

• घर के प्रत्येक सदस्यों से सह आपेक्षित है कि वे सद्भावना से रहें। यह गलत वाक्य है।
• इस वाक्य का शुद्ध वाक्य इस प्रकार होगा - घर के प्रत्येक सदस्य से सह आपेक्षा है कि वे सदभाव से रहें।

Additional Information

• वाक्य अशुद्धि शोधन-
• ‘वाक्य’ भाषा की महत्त्वपूर्ण इकाई है, अत: वाक्य को बोलते व लिखते समय उसकी शुद्धता, स्पष्टता और सार्थकता का ध्यान रखना आवश्यक है।
• यदि वाक्य में किसी तरह की अशुद्धि होती है तो आपके बोले गए वाक्य अर्थ भी बदल सकता है।
• सामने वाले व्यक्ति को आसानी से और सही-सही समझ आ सके उसके लिए आवश्यक है कि व्याकरण के नियमों की दृष्टि से ‘वाक्य’ को शुद्ध हो।
• अत: वाक्य को व्याकरण के नियमों के अनुसार शुद्ध करना ही ‘वाक्य अशुद्धि शोधन’ कहलाता है।

भारतीय शब्द का बहुवचन भारतीयों है।

Key Points

• भारतीय शब्द का बहुवचन भारतीयों होगा।
• इसका अर्थ यह है कि भारतीय को भारत देश के रुप में दर्शाया गया है और भारतीयों से अभिप्राय लोगों से है।
• बहुवचन- संज्ञा के जिस रुप से किसी व्यक्ति, वस्तु, प्राणी, पदार्थ आदि के एक से अधिक होने का बोध होता है या पता चलता है उसे बहुवचन कहते हैं। 
• जैसे- लड़के, बच्चे कपड़े पुस्तकें स्त्रियां टोपिया, गाड़ियां, ठेले, नदियां आदि।

Additional Informationवचन -

रियासत स्त्रीलिंग शब्द है।

Key Points

• ​स्त्रीलिंग -
• जो संज्ञा शब्द स्त्री वर्ग के वाचक होते हैं, उन्हें स्त्रीलिंग कहते हैं।
• रियासत शब्द के पर्यायवाची – मिलकियत, इलाका, राज्य, संपत्ति, क्षेत्र, प्रदेश।
• अन्य विकल्प उचित पुल्लिंग शब्द हैं।

Additional Information