Statements:

I. All J are Z.

ll. Some Z are T.

The least possible diagram for the given statements is as follows:

Conclusions:

I. Some J are T → False (Because there is no direct relation between J and T, thus it is possible but not definite, so it is false)

II. All T are Z → False (Because 'Some Z are T', thus All T are E is possible but not definite, so it is false)

Hence, the correct answer is "Neither conclusion follows".

The logic follows here is:

Thus, the missing term is 'YPS'.

Hence, the correct answer is "YPS".

As per the given information,

The shaded by part represents 'the total number of cats' = 41 + 39 + 27 + 28 = 135

Hence, the correct answer is "135".

The logic follows here is:

Two opposite faces are never together or adjacent to each other.

There is a pattern in which unfolded dice occur opposite to each other.

Clearly, A is adjacent to both C and Z. Thus, cube I and IV can be made. 

 

Hence, the correct answer is "I and IV".

As per the given information,

• A girl walks 100 metre towards east. She turns to left and walks 120 metre. She turns to the right and walks 50 metre. She turns to the right and walks 200 metre.

• She turns to the left and walks 40 metre. She turns to the left and walks 20 metre. Finally, she turns to the left and walks 110 metre.

Now, 

Distance between AH is calculated by using Pythagoras theorem:

 

→ (AH)2 = (AQ)2 + (QH)2 

→ (AH)2 = (80)2 + (60)2 

→ (AH)2 = 6400 + 3600

→ (AH)2 = 10000

→ AH = 100 metre

Clearly, the girl is '100km South -East' metre far from the starting point.

Hence, the correct answer is "100 km South-East".

Decoding the information,

 

On checking each option and replacing the sign from left to right and using BODMAS rule, we get  

1) 50 - 30 + 10 ÷ 8 × 32 = 42

⇒ 50 + 30 ÷ 10 × 8 - 32 = 42

⇒ 50 + 3 × 8 - 32 = 42

⇒ 50 + 24 - 32 = 42

⇒ 74 - 32 = 42

⇒ 42 = 42

2) 50 + 25 - 8 ÷ 20 × 12 = 140

⇒  50 ÷ 25 + 8 × 20 - 12 = 140

⇒  2 + 8 × 20 - 12 = 140

⇒  2 + 160 - 12 = 140

⇒ 162 - 12 = 140

⇒ 150 ≠ 140

3) 25 × 6 - 30 ÷ 8 + 12 = 51

⇒  25 - 6 + 30 × 8 ÷ 12 = 51

⇒  25 - 6 + 20 = 51

⇒  45 - 6 = 51

⇒  39 ≠ 51

4) 50 - 24 + 28 ÷ 4 × 8 = 30

⇒  50+ 24 ÷ 28 × 4 - 8 = 30

⇒  50+ 0.85 × 4 - 8 = 30

⇒  50 + 3.4 - 8 = 30

⇒  53.4 - 8 = 30

⇒  45.4 ≠ 30

Hence, the correct answer is "50 - 30 + 10 ÷ 8 × 32 = 42".

According to the given information:

Dog, Horse, and Cow are the names of the animal.

Whereas,

'Stable' is a building for livestock animals such as cows or horses to live in.

Thus, 'Stable' is different from others and does not belong to that group.

Hence, the correct answer is "Stable".

As per the given information,

I. The number of classes which are neither boys nor girls is 45.

→ The shaded part represents 'the number of classes which are neither boys nor girls' = 45

Thus, the given statement is true.

ll. The number of boys which are girls is 33.

→ The shaded part represents 'the number of boys which are girls' = 35 + 33 = 68 ≠ 33

Thus, the given statement is not true.

Hence, the correct answer is "Only I".

The logic follows here is:

• VB : TZ

Similarly,

• NZ : ?

Hence, the correct answer is "LX".

The logic follows here is:

All the figures have two symbols i.e a triangle and a circle, such that

• The triangle is rotating 90° in clockwise and changing its position from one corner to other in a clockwise direction.
• The circle is moving toward the opposite side following the same path.

​The logic is followed by all the other options except figure (D).

• Figure A to Figure B →

• Figure B to Figure C →

​

• Figure C to Figure D →

​

Here, Figure D is not following the logic.Thus, it is the wrong figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "option (4)".

For this question, the relation is given below :

• From figures (I) and (II), '5' is common.

Now, we take the clockwise direction from '5' in figures (I) and (II) respectively.

1. In figure (I), moving in clockwise direction from 5 we have '4' and '2' respectively.
2. In figure (II), moving in clockwise direction from 5 we have '3' and '1' respectively.

​Therefore, we have:

Thus,

• 5 is opposite to 6.
• 4 is opposite to 3.
• 2 is opposite to 1​

Clearly, '1' is opposite to the face containing 2.

Hence, the correct answer is '1'.

As per the question,

Eight persons A, B,C, D, E, F, G and H sit in a row facing towards the north (not necessarily in the same order).

• D sits third to the right of C.

• Two persons sits between A and D.

• E sits to the immediate left of H.

• One person sits between B and H.

There are two possibilities:

• F sits second to the right of G.

Here, Case II will be eliminated as it contradicts the given condition.

Therefore, the final arrangement is:

Now,

I. One person sits between D and G → True

ll. E sits third to the left of B → True

IlI. F sits at an extreme end → True

Thus, all the given statements I, II, and III are true.

Hence, the correct answer is "I, II and III".

The logic follows here is:

 

Thus, code for 'me are bad' is '^ # Ȯ '

• me → ^
• are → Ȯ
• bad  → #

Hence, the correct answer is "^ # Ȯ".

Given Series : 16, 48, 24, 75, 34, 104, 46, 135, 70 

The logic followed here is:

Thr given series consists of two different number series such that:

Series I → 

"Next number in the Series I is obtained by adding consecutive even number starting from '8', to the previous number.

According to the logic, a consecutive even number is added to the previous numbers but in the given series even number i.e. '24' is added to the 4^th term i.e. '46' which gives the wrong term of the series which is "70".

Therefore, the wrong term in the series is 70.

Series II → 

"Next number in the Series II is obtained by adding consecutive odd number starting from '27', from the previous number.

• Thus, the correct series is:

Hence, the correct answer is "70".

Statements:

I. All A are B.

II. Some B are C.

III. No C is D.

The least possible diagram for the given statements is as follows:

Conclusions:

I. Some A are not D→ False (Because there is no direct relation between A and D so it is possible but not definite, so it is false)

ll. Some B are not D  → True (Because 'Some B are C' and 'No C is D', so some B that are C are not D, so it is definitely true)

Ill. Some A are C → False (Because there is no direct relation between A and C so it is possible but not definite, so it is false)

Hence, the correct answer is "Only conclusion II follows".

As per the given information,

The time in a clock is 3:00 am. If the hour hand points towards the west such that:

Clearly, the minute hand is pointing in 'South' direction.

Hence, the correct answer is "South".

The arrangement of all the given words in the order in which they appear in an English dictionary is as shown below:

The letter X is common in all words, so we will start arranging the word from the second letter as per alphabetical order.

2. Xanthic
3. Xebecs
4. Xenias 
5. Xennial
6. Xenons

Hence, the correct answer is "21534​".

According to the given information:

A team of four members is to be selected among eight members A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H.

• C has to be selected with H.
• B has to be selected with E.

Possible cases:

 

• G cannot be selected with H.

Possible cases:

 

• F cannot be selected with A.

Possible cases:

 

Here, a team of four members is to be selected so team BEGF or BEGA can be selected.

So, from the given options team 'BEAG' can be selected.

Hence, the correct answer is "BEAG".

Alternate Method 

According to the given information:

A team of four members is to be selected among eight members A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H.

• C has to be selected with H.
• B has to be selected with E.
• G cannot be selected with H.
• F cannot be selected with A.

On checking each option:

1) BCEF

→ Here, C and H are not selected together which contradicts the condition that 'C has to be selected with H'. Thus, this combination is not possible.

2) ACGH

→ Here, G and H are selected together which contradicts the condition that 'G cannot be selected with H'. Thus, this combination is not possible.

3) ABCD

→ Here, C and H are not selected together which contradicts the condition that 'C has to be selected with H'. Thus, this combination is not possible.

4) BEAG

→ This combination possible because it follows the given conditions that 'B has to be selected with E' ,'G cannot be selected with H' and 'F cannot be selected with A'.

Thus, team 'BEAG' can be selected.

Hence, the correct answer is "BEAG".

The logic follows here is:

• (XG, CK, HO)

1) (LT, QX, VB) 

Clearly, (QW, PX, OY) follow the same logic as given in the question.

2) (QS, VW, AB) 

3) (DN, HR, MV)

4) (AF, FJ, KM) 

Hence, the correct answer is " (LT, QX, VB)".

As per given question,

Seven cars C1, C2,C3, C4, C5, C6 and C7 have different prices.

• The price of only two cars is more than the price of C5.
• The price of only one car is less than the price of C7.

__ > __ > C5 > __ > __ > C7 > __    ---------(i)

• The price of C1 is more than the price of C4 and C5.

​C1 > C4, C5    ---------(ii)

• The price of C4 is more than the price of C2.
• The price of C3 is less than the price of C2.

 C4 > C2 > C3  ---------(iii)

• The price of C1 is not the highest.

On combining equation (i), (ii) and (iii) we get:

 C6 > C1 > C5 > C4 > C2 > C7 > C3

Now,

i. The price of C1 is more than the price of C6 → False

Il. The price of C7 is more than the price of C3 → True

Hence, the correct answer is "Only II".

The correct answer is Magnesium.

Key Points

• Group 1 elements in the Periodic table are known as Alkali metals
• When reacting with water, form Alkalis i.e. strong base which can neutralize the acid.
• Lithium(Li),
• Sodium(Na),
• Francium (Fr),
• Potassium (K),
• Rubidium (Rb),
• Cesium (Cs)
• Hence Magnesium is NOT alkali metal.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Nominal GDP / Real GDP.

Key Points

• The GDP deflator, also called the implicit price deflator, is a measure of inflation.
• It is the ratio of the value of goods and services an economy produces in a particular year at current prices to that of prices that prevailed during the base year.
• GDP deflator = Nominal GDP / Real GDP
• This ratio helps show the extent to which the increase in the gross domestic product has happened on account of higher prices rather than an increase in output.
• Since the deflator covers the entire range of goods and services produced in the economy, as against the limited commodity baskets for the wholesale or consumer price indices, it is seen as a more comprehensive measure of inflation.

Additional Information

• Real vs nominal GDP -GDP price deflator measures the difference between real GDP and nominal GDP.
• Nominal GDP does not adjust for inflation, so changes in nominal GDP reflect both changes in production quantity and price level.
• On the other hand, Real GDP adjusts for inflation and measures the value of all goods and services produced by an economy at constant prices (of a base year)
• As a result, nominal GDP will most often be higher than real GDP in an expanding economy.
• The formula to find the GDP price deflator: GDP price deflator = (nominal GDP ÷ real GDP) x 100.

The correct answer is Only II.

Key Points

• Indirect tax refers to the tax that is levied on goods and services.
• Excise tax
• Custom tax
• Service tax
• Market tax/vat
• Entertainment tax
• Hence statement 2 is correct.

Additional Information

• A direct tax is a type of tax that is levied on an individual or organization's income or profits.
• Wealth Tax
• Property Tax
• Corporate Tax
• Income Tax

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• Wheat requires moderate temperature and rainfall during growing season and bright sunshine at the time of harvest.
• Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It thrives best in well drained loamy soil. Wheat is grown extensively in USA, Canada, Argentina, Russia, Ukraine, Australia and India. In India it is grown in winter.
• Jute is known as golden fibre because of its shiny brown colour.
• Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Jute is the crop of hot and humid climates.
• It requires a high temperature (24^o C to 35^o C) and heavy rainfall of 120 to 150 cm.

The correct answer is 44^th.

Key Points

• 44^th amendment in the constitution of India, ‘Right to Property’ has been removed from the category of fundamental rights.
• The property right was deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44thAmendment Act, 1978. It is made a legal right under Article 300-A in Part XII of the Constitution.
• It is not an exclusive legal right offered to citizens. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• Amendments for this purpose are made to article 19 and article 31 is deleted.
• It is ensured that the removal of property from the list of fundamental rights would not affect the right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
• The 44thAmendment Act, 1978 inserted Article 300A in a new chapter IV of Part XII of the Constitution, thereby depriving the ‘right to property of its ‘fundamental right’ status.
• Article 300 A of the constitution of India says that a person shall not be deprived of his property save by the authority of the law of the Lok Sabha.

Additional Information

• 77^th Amendment Act extended reservations for promotion in employment for Scheduled Castes and Tribes (SCs and STs).
• The 40^th Amendment Act of 1976 was applied to Article 297 of the constitution of India.
• The 42^nd Amendment of the Constitution of India was enacted in the year 1976.
• It is officially known as the Constitution Act, 1976.
• It was enacted during the Emergency by the Indian National Congress Head Indira Gandhi.
• It is considered as the most controversial Constitutional Amendments in Indian history.
• Added three new Directive Principles viz., equal justice and free legal aid, the participation of workers in the management of industries and protection of the environment, forests, and wildlife.

The correct answer is 10.

Key Points

• Number of protons in an atom = Z
• Number of electrons in an atom = Z
• Number of nucleons in an atom = A
• Number of neutrons in an atom = N = A – Z
• Hence for X 
• Z = 8
• A = 18
• No of neutrons = A – Z = 10

Additional Information

• ATOMIC NUMBER: It is defined as the number of protons present in the nucleus. It is denoted by letter Z.
• MASS NUMBER: The total number of protons and neutrons present in a nucleus is called the mass number of the element. It is denoted by letter A.

The correct answer is Wular.

Key Points

• Wular Lake is the largest freshwater lake in India, which is situated at Bandipora District of Indian state Jammu & Kashmir.
• Wular Lake is the 2^nd largest fresh-water lake of Asia too, situated under the Haramuk Mountain range.
• Wular Lake is spread around a total area of 200 square km covering almost 24 km in length while its breadth is 10 km.
• River Jhelum is the main source of water for Wular Lake.
• ‘Zaina Lank’ name small island also situated in its centre.

Additional Information

• Bhimtal is a town and a nagar panchayat, near Nainital city in Nainital district in the state of Uttarakhand, India.
• Dal is a lake in Srinagar, the summer capital of Jammu and Kashmir.
• Loktak Lake is the largest freshwater lake in Manipur.

The correct answer is 24^th.

Key Points

• Vardhamana Mahavira:
• Vardhamana Mahavira was the 24^th Tirthankara of the Jain tradition.
• He was born at Kundagrama near Vaisali to Kshatriya parents Siddhartha and Trisala.
• Bimbisara was the contemporary of Vardhamana Mahavira.
• At the age of thirty, he became an ascetic and wandered for twelve years.
• In the 13^th year of his penance, he attained the highest spiritual knowledge called Kevala Gnana.

Additional Information

• The three principles of Jainism, also known as Triratnas (three gems), are:
• Right faith
• Right knowledge
• Right conduct.
• Mahavira regarded all objects, both animate and inanimate, have souls and various degrees of consciousness.
• He advocated a very holy and ethical code of life.
• Even the practice of agriculture was considered sinful as it causes injury to the earth, worms, and animals.

The correct answer is Only I.

Key Points

• Biogas and sludge are the products of wastewater treatment.
• Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Sewage is liquid waste which may contain solid contaminants such as faeces.
• Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• The biogas forms due to the microbial degradation of the waste and sludge are the end by-product of the wastewater treatment.
• The main by-product from wastewater treatment plants is sewage sludge which is usually treated in the same or another wastewater treatment plant.
• Biogas can be another by-product if anaerobic treatment processes are used.

The correct answer is Ashvaghosha.

Key Points

• Ashvaghosha was a Sarvastivada Buddhist philosopher and poet.
• He was born in Saketa in northern India.
• Though Pali language literature was popular in Buddhism, Ashvaghosha wrote in Classical Sanskrit.
• Buddhacharita written by Ashvaghosha is an epic on the life of the Buddha.
• He also wrote Saundarananda, with the theme of the conversion of Nanda, Buddha's half-brother, so that he might reach salvation.
• He is also thought to be the author of the Sutralankara.

Additional Information

• Jaidev was the court poet of Bengal and the famous Sanskrit poet of the 12^th century.
• He composed the book Geet Govind, an important text of the Bhakti Movement.
• It was composed in the 12^th century.
• Banabhatta is the author of Kadambari.
• He was the court poet of Harsha who wrote his biography called Harshacharita.
• Kalidas is a pioneer of Sanskrit literature - Shakuntala and Meghdutum are his famous plays.
• Mahakavi Kalidas was known as the Shakespeare of India.
• Malavikagnimitra is also written by Kalidas.

The correct answer is Article 51-A.

Key Points

• Article 51-A of Indian constitution is related to the fundamental duties of Indian citizens.
• Fundamental Duties were added to the constitution in 1976.
• It is inspired by the Constitution of the erstwhile USSR.
• It was recommended by the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee.
• Its need and necessity were felt during the operation of the internal emergency (1975-1977).

Additional Information

• There are 11 fundamental duties, according to Article 51A, that are to be obeyed by all the citizens of the country:
• To abide by the Indian Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Anthem, and the National Flag.
• To follow the Noble ideals that inspired the national struggle for freedom.
• To protect and uphold the sovereignty, integrity, and unity of the country.
• To defend the nation and render national services when asked to do so.
• To promote the spirit of Brotherhood and fraternity in the country.
• To strive for excellence.
• To protect the environment of the nation.
• To value and preserve the rich heritage of the country's composite culture.
• To safeguard public property and to deny violence.
• To generate a scientific rationale for every thought.
• To provide opportunities for education to children between the age of 6 and 14.

The correct answer is Sikkim.

Key Points

• Losoong Festival is one of the most important festivals in Sikkim.
• Losoong Festival is celebrated on the occasion of the end of the harvest season and at the end of the tenth month of Tibetan year in the rural Sikkim.
• During this festival, the Chaam dances by the people of Sikkim are performed.

Additional Information

• Sikkim is the northeastern state of India.
• It borders Tibet in the north and northeast, Bhutan in the east, Nepal in the west, and West Bengal in the south.
• The Capital of Sikkim is Gangtok.
• It was founded by the Namgyal dynasty in the 17^th century.
• Kangchenjunga the highest peak of India and third highest on Earth is in the State of Sikkim.
• Sikkim became a state of India by the 36^th Amendment Act, 1975 on 26^th April, 1975

The correct answer is Rajasthan.

Key Points

• Rajasthan is the largest state of India in terms of area.
• It covers an area of 342,239 sq. km and has a population of 6.85 crores as per the 2011 census.
• Uttar Pradesh is the largest state of India in terms of population.

Additional Information 

• Area wise states-

• Population wise states-

The correct answer is Novak Djokovic.

Key Points

• Novak Djokovic won the French Open in 2021.
• He is from Serbia.
• He is currently ranked as world No. 1 by the Association of Tennis Professionals (ATP).
• He has won a joint record of 20 Grand Slam men's singles titles, including a record nine Australian Open titles.

Additional Information 

• French Open is a Grand Slam level tennis tournament played on outdoor clay courts.
• Winners of French Open 2021-​

The correct answer is Uttrakhand.

Key Points

• The First Forest Healing center of the country was inaugurated on 7 March 2021 at Ranikhet in Kalika, Uttarakhand.
• The forest healing centre has been developed by the Research Wing of Uttarakhand Forest Department after research on the healing properties of the forests and its revitalizing impact on overall health and well-being.
• It involves many activities like forest walking, tree-hugging, etc.

The correct answer is Amitabh kant.

Key Points

• In June 2021, the tenure of CEO of NITI Aayog Amitabh kant was extended by one year.
• Amitabh Kant was the former CEO of the NITI Aayog.
• Currently, Parameswaran Iyer is the CEO of NITI Aayog.(Dec 2022)
• Suman Bery is the current Vice Chairman of the NITI Aayog.
• Amitabh Kant is an IAS officer of the 1980 batch.

Additional Information

• The National Institution for Transforming India, also called NITI Aayog, was formed via a resolution of the Union Cabinet on January 1, 2015.
• NITI Aayog is the premier policy ‘Think Tank’ of the Government of India, providing both directional and policy inputs.
• Chairperson - Shri Narendra Modi, Hon'ble Prime Minister.

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

• Priyanka Mohite has become first Indian woman to scale mount Annapurna.
• She belongs to Maharashtra, India.
• Priyanka Mohite has climbed:
• The world's highest peak Mount Everest (8,849 m) in 2013
• Mount Lhotse (8,516 m) in 2018
• Mount Makalu (8,485 m)
• In April 2021, she had scaled Mt Annapurna (8,091 m), the 10^th highest mountain peak in the world and had become the first Indian woman climber to achieve the feat.
• In May 2022, she climbed Mount Kanchenjunga (8,586 m).

Additional Information

• Mount Annapurna is the tenth highest mountain in the world at 8,091 meters (26,545 ft).
• It is in the Annapurna massif of Nepal Himalayas.
• It includes many peaks over 7,000 meters.
• Mt. Everest is the highest peak in the world with a height of 8840 meters above the mean sea level.
• It is known as Sagarmatha in Nepal and Chomolungma in Tibet.
• It is named after a Surveyor General of India George Everest.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• Most of the scripts of Asoka are written in three languages – Prakrit, Greek and Aramaic.
• Prakrit inscriptions are mainly written in the Kharosthi and Brahmi scripts.
• Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The ancient name of coastal Orissa was Kalinga.
• The Kalinga was invaded by the Mauryan emperor Ashoka in 261 BCE in the Kalinga War.
• Orissa and Utkalam are also the old names of Odisha.
• Hence statement 2 is correct.

Additional Information

• Ashoka (273 BC-232 BC): 
• He was the greatest Mauryan ruler, Governor of Taxila and Ujjain.
• He was the son of Bindusara.
• His rule extended to the whole of the sub-continent which included Afghanistan, Baluchistan, Kashmir, and the valleys of Nepal except the extreme south.
• Under Ashoka, the Mauryan Empire reached its climax.
• Ashoka fought the Kalinga War in 261 BC. Later, he was moved by the massacre in this war and, therefore, abandoned the policy of physical occupation in favor of the policy of cultural conquest.
• He embraced Buddhism under Upagupta.
• He sent his son Mahendra and daughter Sanghamitra to Ceylon (Sri Lanka) as Buddhist missionaries with a sapling of the original peepal tree.
• He inaugurated Dhamma Yatras from the 11^th year of his reign by visiting Bodh Gaya and also appointed Dhamma Mahamatras (officer of righteousness to spread the message of Dhamma).

The correct answer is Paris.

Key Points

• The host city of the 2024 Summer Olympics is Paris, France.
• The Motto is Made for Sharing.
• Skateboarding, sport climbing, surfing, and breaking have been confirmed as the additional sports proposed for inclusion at the Paris Olympic Games in 2024.
• Los Angeles, California, United States will host the 2028 Summer Olympics.
• The Tokyo Summer Olympic Games will be held from July 23 to August 8, 2021.
• They were originally set to take place from July 24 to August 9, 2020, but were postponed because of the COVID-19 pandemic.

Additional Information 

• Host cities for Summer and Winter Olympic Games:
• Summer Olympic Games
• The 2020 Summer Olympic Games were held in Tokyo, Japan
• The 2024 Summer Olympic Games will be held in Paris
• Winter Olympic Games
• The 2022 Winter Olympic Games were held in Beijing, China
• The 2026 Winter Olympic Games will be held in Italy

The correct answer is **Gateway of India.**​

Key Points

• The Gateway of India is located in Mumbai.
• It is NOT a world Heritage site.
• It was constructed in 1924.
• The main objective behind the construction of the Gateway of India was to commemorate the visit of King George V and Queen Mary to Bombay (Mumbai).
• In March 1911, Sir George Sydenham Clarke, who was then the Governor of Bombay, laid down the monument's foundation.
• The architectural design of the Gateway of India was done by the architect George Wittet.

Additional Information

• There are 40 World heritage sites in India and they are as follows:(Dec 2022)

1. Taj Mahal, Agra
2. Khajuraho, Madhya Pradesh
3. Hampi, Karnataka
4. Ajanta Caves, Maharashtra
5. Ellora Caves, Maharashtra
6. Sun Temple, Konark, Odisha
7. Red Fort Complex, Delhi
8. Sanchi, Madhya Pradesh
9. Chola Temples, Tamil Nadu
10. Group of Monuments at Mahabalipuram, Tamil Nadu
11. Humayun’s Tomb, New Delhi
12. Jantar Mantar, Jaipur, Rajasthan
13. Agra Fort, Uttar Pradesh
14. Fatehpur Sikri, Uttar Pradesh
15. Rani Ki Vav, Patan, Gujarat
16. Group of Monuments at Pattadakal, Karnataka
17. Elephanta Caves, Maharashtra
18. Nalanda Mahavihara (Nalanda University), Bihar
19. Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Terminus (formerly Victoria Terminus), Maharashtra
20. Mountain Railways of India
21. Qutub Minar and its Monuments, New Delhi
22. Champaner-Pavagadh Archaeological Park, Gujarat
23. Hill Forts of Rajasthan
24. Churches and Convents of Goa
25. Rock Shelters of Bhimbetka, Madhya Pradesh
26. The Victorian and Art Deco Ensemble of Mumbai
27. The Pink City - Jaipur
28. The Historic City of Ahmedabad
29. Capitol Complex, Chandigarh
30. Kaziranga Wild Life Sanctuary, Assam
31. Sundarbans National Park, West Bengal
32. Great Himalayan National Park, Himachal Pradesh
33. Manas Wild Life Sanctuary, Assam
34. Keoladeo National Park, Bharatpur, Rajasthan
35. Nanda Devi and Valley of Flowers National Parks, Uttarakhand
36. Western Ghats
37. Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodh Gaya, Bihar
38. Khangchendzonga National Park
39. Kakatiya Rudreshwara (Ramappa) Temple
40. Dholavira: A Harappan City

Given

The number of mobiles sold by C3 = 450

The number of mobiles sold by C5 = 100

Solution

The difference of the number of mobiles sold by C3 and C5 = 450 - 100

⇒ 350

Given:

A train of length 110 metres is moving with the speed of 36 kilometre/hour.

Bridge of length 122 metre

Formula used:

Speed = Distance/Time

Calculation:

Speed = 36 km/hr

Convert into km/hr to m/sec

⇒ 36 × (5/18)

⇒ 10 m/sec

Total distance = Length of train + Length of Bridge

⇒ 110 + 122

⇒ 232 m

Time = distance/time

⇒ 232/10

⇒ 23.2 sec

∴ The time taken by the train to cross a bridge of length 122 metre is 23.2 sec.

Given

Loss% = 36%

Formula

C.P - S.P = loss

Solution

Let the C.P be 100x

Then,

S.P = 100x - 36x

⇒ 64x

The ratio of cost price to the selling price:

⇒ 100x : 64x or 25 : 16

Shortcut Trick

Total capacity of the tank = LCM(6, 9, 18) = 18 units

Efficiency of filling Tap A = 18 ÷ 6 = 3 units/h

Efficiency of filling Tap B = 18 ÷ 9 = 2 units/h

Efficiency of emptying Tap C = 18 ÷ (−18) = −1 units/h

Time taken together = Total capacity ÷ Combined efficiency = 18 ÷ (3 + 2 − 1) = 18 ÷ 4 = 4.5 hours

∴ The correct answer is 4.5 hours.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by tap A to fill the tank = 6 hours

Time taken by tap B to fill the tank = 9 hours

Time taken by tap C to empty the tank = 18 hours

Concept Used:

Total Capacity = LCM of individual times

Efficiency = Total Capacity ÷ Time

Calculations:

⇒ Total efficiency of A, B and C together = 3 + 2 − 1 = 4 units/h

⇒ Time taken by all taps together = Total Capacity ÷ Total Efficiency

⇒ Time taken = 18 ÷ 4 = 4.5 hours

∴ The correct answer is 4.5 hours.

Additional Information

Pipes & Cisterns

If a pipe can fill a tank in x hours, its efficiency is considered positive (+1/x). If an outlet pipe empties the tank in y hours, its efficiency is considered negative (−1/y).

Work & Wages

Wages are distributed in the ratio of the total work done by each person. If workers work for the same number of days, the ratio of their wages equals the ratio of their individual efficiencies.

Alternate Day Work

When persons or pipes operate on alternate days/hours, find the combined work of one complete cycle (e.g., 2 hours for 2 pipes) and scale it up to reach close to the total work.

Given:

The smallest three-digit number when increased by 6 becomes divisible by both 4 and 6.

Concept:

LCM of 4 and 6.

Multiples of of the LCM of 4 and 6.

Solution:

As per the question,

The smallest three-digit number which is divisible by 4 and 6 will be the multiple of their LCM.

LCM of 4 and 6 is 12

The multiples of 12 are as follows,

12, 24, 36, 48, 60, 72, 84, 96, 108

A three-digit multiple of LCM of 4 and 6 is 108.

Subtracting 6 from 108 we will get,

108 - 6 = 102.

Therefore, 102 is the smallest three-digit number when increased by 6 and becomes divisible by both 4 and 6.

Hence, option 4 is correct.

Given:

Rs. 10000 is divided among P, Q, and R in the ratio of 7 ∶ 8 ∶ 10 respectively.

Concept:

The sum of the proportion of P, Q, and R will be equal to Rs. 10000

Solution:

As per the question,

Rs. 10000 is divided among P, Q, and R in the ratio of 7 ∶ 8 ∶ 10 respectively.

Let us assume the amount Rs. 10000 is divided as 7x, 8x, and 10x among P, Q, and R respectively.

Now,

7x + 8x + 10x = 10000

25x = 10000

x = 400

The share of Q i.e. 8x is 8(400) = Rs. 3200

Hence, option 1 is correct.

Given:

The given cubic sum is as follows,

 13 + 23 + ......... 103

Concept:

The sum of the cube of the first n natural number is ${[\frac{n(n+1)}{2}]}^2$

Solution:

As per the given cubic sum n = 10

Substituting the value of n in ${[\frac{n(n+1)}{2}]}^2$ we will get,

${[\frac{n(n+1)}{2}]}^2={[\frac{10\times 11}{2}]}^2$

$55^2=3025$

Hence, option 1 is correct.

Given:

6/7 of 35 percent of a number is 330.

Concept:

The a % of a number X is $\frac{a}{100}\times X$

Solution:

Let the number be x

35 percent of the number x is,

$\frac{35x}{100}$

$\frac{6}{7}$ of 35 percent of the number x will be,​

$\frac{6}{7}\times\frac{35x}{100}$

As per the question,

6/7 of 35 percent of a number is 330,​

$\frac{6}{7}\times\frac{35x}{100}=330$

x = 1100

Hence, option 3 is correct.

Given:

I. If the side of a cube is 45 cm, then the total surface area of this cube is 12150 cm2.

Il. The radius of the base and height of the cylinder is 7 cm and 12 cm respectively. The total surface area of this cylinder is 682 cm2. 

Concept:

The total surface area of a cube having a side as "a" unit is "6a²" square unit.

The total surface area of a cylinder having a radius of the base and height as "r" unit and "h" unit respectively is $2 \pi r(r+h)$ square unit.

Solution:

As per the data given in the question,

I. If the side of a cube is 45 cm, then the total surface area of this cube is 12150 cm2.

The total surface area of a cube having a side of 45 cm is,

6a2 = 6 x (45)² = 12150 cm².

Statement I is correct.

Il. The radius of the base and height of the cylinder is 7 cm and 12 cm respectively. The total surface area of this cylinder is 682 cm2. 

The total surface area of a cylinder having a radius of the base and height as 7 cm and 12 cm respectively is,

 $2 \pi r(r+h)=2 \times \frac{22}{7}\times 7(7+12)=44 \times19=836 \ cm^2$

Statement II is incorrect. 

Hence, option 1 is correct.

Given:

The length of the one diagonal of a rhombus is 30 cm.

The area of the rhombus is 300 cm2.

Concept:

The area of a rhombus with diagonals as D₁ and D₂ is $\frac{1}{2}× D_1× D_2$ square units.

Solution:

As per the question,

The length of the one diagonal of a rhombus is 30 cm.

Let us assume the other diagonal is D₂ cm.

Now,

The area of the rhombus is 300 cm2 = $\frac{1}{2}× D_1× D_2$

1/2 × 30 × D2 = 300

⇒ D2 = 20cm

Hence, option 3 is correct.

Given:

The value of the positive square root of 54 + 14√5 .

Concept:

The algebraic identity,

(a+b)² = a² + b² + 2ab

Solution:

The number is given as,

 54 + 14√5 

Simplifying the number as follows,

49 + 5 + 14√5

(7)² + (√5)² + 2x7x√5

Comparing the above with,

a2 + b2 + 2ab

a = 7

b = √5

Therefore,  54 + 14√5 can be expressed as (7 + √5)²

Now, the positive square of 54 + 14√5 will be the square root of,

 $\sqrt{(7+\sqrt5)^2}=7+\sqrt5$ 

 Hence, option 3 is correct.

Given:

The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 7 ∶ 6 ∶ 5.

Concept:

The angle sum property of a triangle states that the sum of all three angles of a triangle is 180^o .

Solution:

As per the question,

The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 7 ∶ 6 ∶ 5

Using the angle sum property of the triangle, we have

7x + 6x + 5x = 180o 

18x = 180o 

x = 10o

The largest angle of the triangle is 7x i.e., 70^o .

Hence,, option 1 is correct.

Given:

The pie chart given below shows the amount spent by a housewife on 8 different articles. The total amount spent on all these 8 articles is Rs. 40000. Amount spent on a particular article is shown as a percentage of the total amount spent on all these 8 articles.

Concept:

The % of a number X is $\frac{a}{100}\times X$.

The total central angle in a pie chart is 360^o.

Solution:

As per the question,

Statement - I

The total amount spent by a housewife on articles W and R is Rs. 7600.

Percent that articles W and R holds is 6% and 13% respectively.

Percent (W + R) = 19%

19% of Rs. 40000 is as follows,

(19/100)x40000 = Rs. 7600

Therefore, Statement - I is correct.

Statement - II

The sum of the central angle formed by sector S and T are 105.2 degrees. 

The percentage acquired by S and T is 15% and 17% respectively.

Percent (S + T) = 32%

32% of the total angle formed at the center of the pie chart i.e., 360^o is as follows,

32% of 360o is as follows,

(32/100)x360 = 115.2^o

Therefore, Statement - II is incorrect.

Hence, option 2 is correct.

Given:

A runner starts running from a point at 6:00 am at the speed of 5 km/hr. The second runner starts from the same point at 8:00 am in the same direction with a speed of 10 km/hr.

Concept:

The relation between distance, speed, and time is as follows,

$Speed=\frac{Distance}{Time}$

Solution:

The distance covered by the runner in 2 hours who started from a point at 6:00 am 

Distance = Speed x Time = 5 x 2 = 10 km

The time taken by the second runner to cover the distance of 10 km is as follows,

$\frac{10km}{10km/hr-5km/hr}=2 \ hr$

Since the second runner started at 8:00 am, so time at which the second runner will overtake the first runner will be,

8:00 am + 2 = 10:00 am.

Hence, option 2 is correct.

Given:

The bar graph given below shows the birth rate and death rate of 6 different states.

Concept:

For given two numbers A and B,

As compared to B, A will be $\frac{A}{B}\times100$

Solution:

As per the question,

Statement - I

The birth rate of state A is 16.66 percent of the birth rate of state D.

The birth rate of State A is 1.5.

The birth rate of State D is 9.

As compared to State D, the birth rate of State A is as follows

(1.5/9)x100 = 16.66%

Therefore, Statement - I is correct.

Statement - II

The ratio of the birth rate of state E to the death rate of state E is 5 ∶ 3. 

The birth rate of State E is 7.5.

The death rate of State E is 4.5.

The ratio is as follows, 7.5 : 4.5 = 5 : 3

Therefore, Statement - II is correct.

Hence, option 1 is correct.

Given:

(5 + 3√2)2 = 43 + Q√2.

Concept:

The algebraic identity 

(a + b)² = a² + b² + 2ab

Solution:

The given expression is as follows,

(5 + 3√2)2 = 43 + Q√2

25 + 18 + 30√2 = 43 + Q√2

43 + 30√2 = 43 + Q√2

Comparing the above, we will get

Q = 30

Hence, option 3 is correct.

Given:

The ratio of the marked price and selling price of an article is 3 ∶ 2 respectively.

Concept:

Discount = Marked Price - Selling Price

Discount % = $\frac{Discount}{Marked \ Price}\times100$

Solution:

According to the question,

The ratio of the marked price and selling price of an article is 3 ∶ 2 respectively.

Assume the marked price as 3x and the selling price as 2x.

Discount = Marked Price - Selling Price = 3x - 2x = x

Discount % = $\frac{Discount}{Marked \ Price}\times100$

Discount % = $\frac{x}{3x}\times100=33.33\%$

Hence, option 1 is correct.

Given:

The P percent of P is 225.

Concept:

The a % of a value X is $\frac{a}{100}\times X$

Solution:

As per the question,

P percent of P is $\frac{P}{100}\times P$

 $\frac{P}{100}\times P=225$

$P^2=22500$

Hence, option 4 is correct.

Given:

The sum of a natural number and its positive square root is 182.

Concept:

The algebraic identity,

(a + b)² = a² + b² + 2ab

Solution:

Let the number be x, so the positive square root will be $\sqrt x$

As per the question,

The sum of a natural number and its positive square root is 182.

$x+\sqrt x=182$

Let x = y² and $\sqrt x$ = y

y² + y = 182

y2 + y - 182 = 0

y2 + 14y - 13y - 182 = 0

(y + 14)x(y - 13) = 0

y = -14 and 13

Since y = $\sqrt x$ i.e., a positive square root.

So y will be taken as 13.

And, x = y2 = 13² = 169

Hence, option 1 is correct.

Given

Time = 40 years

Principal = 3x

Formula

S.I = PRT/100

Solution

Let the initial principal be x.

Then the principal after 40 years = 3x

So, the interest of 2x(3x - x) is earned in 40 years.

⇒ 2x =( x × r × 40)/100

⇒ r = 200/40 = 5%

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• The given word "Cogent" means something that is clear, logical, lucid and convincing.
• From the given options Option 3 closely resembles the given word.
• Convincing means the capacity to make someone believe
• Convincing and Cogent convey the same meaning.

Thus, Option 3 which is 'Convincing' is the correct answer.

Additional Information

• Let's have a look at the other options.
• Feeble: weak, having no strength.
• Dreamy: having pleasantly unreal quality.
• Indecisive: having no clear meaning or result.

The correct option is Option 1.

Key Points

• In the given sentence 'not her parents like' is the erroneous part, in that place 'nor her parents like' will come.
• In grammar there are correlative conjunctions which always come in pair like Either...or, Neither...nor, Not only...but also.
• In such correlative conjunctions the verb depends on the latter subject 
• For ex: Neither Sam nor his friends are coming to the party.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1 nor her parents like.

The correct option is Option 4.

Key Points

• The given sentence is of comparative degree which is comparing soup with molasses.
• The comparison is taking place between like entities so 'as thick as' is the correct phrase for comparison
• Hence 'The soup was as thick as molasses is correct.

Hence the answer is Option 4 No improvement.

The correct answer is Option 2. 

Key Points

• The meaning of the word Sterling is exceptional, of the highest quality or order, the cream of the lot.
• The meaning of the word Atrocious is dreadful, of the worst quality.
• As opposite of Sterling is asked and hence Atrocious is the correct option as the meaning as opposite in nature.

Hence the correct answer is Option 2 Atrocious.

Additional Information

• Let's have a look at the other words given. 
• Sapid: Having pleasant and strong taste.
• Legal: Abiding by law.
• Valid: Legally binding, correct.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• The phrase 'All the rage' means to be very popular at a particular time.
• This phrase is used to a cult, person or thing that is very popular and famous.
• For ex: Bitcoin has had all the rage among young investors who want to make a quick buck.
• Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3 Very popular.

Additional Information

• Let's understand the meaning of other given phrases.
• ​To instigate: to put in motion
• Escaping by a narrow margin: To be saved by small margin.

The correct option is Option 3.

Key Points

• This paragraph talks about calligraphy as the introducing statement is about revival of calligraphy.
• After the introducing statement place where calligraphy is reviving should be mentioned which is given in Q.
• R speaks about the time when calligraphy revival takes place.
• P gives more idea about the situation
• S gives a comparison between artistic reaction which is calligraphy against mechanization of manual crafts.
• The whole paragraph reads The revival of calligraphy artistic reaction against the in Great Britain at the end of the 19^th century was part of a broader mechanization of manual crafts. ​

 

​Hence the answer is Option 3 QRPS.

The correct option is Option 2.

Key Points

• Here the blank is to be filled with an appropriate modal verb.
• Modal verbs accompany the main verb.
• Examples of modal verbs are can, could, may, might, should, shall, ought to, need to and many more.
• In the given sentence modal verb of ability is to filled and the tense of the sentence is Simple Present tense.
• The ability to make planet whole and healthy again.
• Can is the correct option for this particular sentence
• Hence the correct sentence structure will be " We can make the nature of out planet whole and healthy again."

Hence the correct answer is Option 2 Can

The correct option is Option 2.

Key Points

• Out of the given sentences, only R can be the opening sentence, as it speaks about observers and travellers.
• Sentence S gives the suggestion of the observers and travellers mentioned in the sentence R.
• Sentence P gives continuity to S, which is followed by Q, which concludes the passage.
• Hence, the correct flow of the passage is as follows: "Most observers and traveller accounts suggest that pluralism, diversity, multiformity was embedded in the very mosaic of India since its very inception."

Hence the correct answer is Option 2: RSPQ.

The correct option is Option 4

Key Points

• The correct spelling is Geometrically.
• The word Geometrically means involvement of various shapes, geometrical figures like square, circles, etc.

 

Hence the correct answer is Option 4 Geometrically.

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Meritocracy.

Key Points

• The word "Meritocracy" refers to a system in which progress is based on ability and talent rather than on class privilege or wealth. (योग्यता तंत्र)
• Example: In a true meritocracy, the most capable people are selected for important positions regardless of their background.
• "Leadership chosen on the basis of intellectual criteria" implies a merit-based system where individuals are selected according to their abilities and merits rather than other factors. (बुद्धिमत्ता पर आधारित नेतृत्व)
• Example: Her promotion was based on meritocracy, as she proved her skills and expertise consistently.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Meritocracy.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Plutocracy (धनिकतंत्र): A society that is ruled or controlled by people of great wealth or income.
• Example: Some critics argue that modern democracies are becoming plutocracies, where the wealthy have undue influence.
• Democracy (लोकतंत्र): A system of government by the whole population, typically through elected representatives.
• Example: India is the world's largest democracy.
• Theocracy (धर्मतंत्र): A system of government in which priests rule in the name of God or a god.
• Example: Iran is often cited as an example of a theocracy.

The correct answer is Option 3

Key Points

• The correct spelling is Necessary
• The word Necessary means need, urgency.

 

Hence the correct answer is Option 3 Necessary

The correct answer is 'greatest impacts on health of livestock.'

Key Points

• This sentence lacks the use of the correct article before the noun phrase 'greatest impacts on health of livestock.'
• In English, articles (the, a, an) are used before a noun or a noun phrase. They provide a type of reference, specificity, or quantity to the noun.
• 'Greatest impacts' implies a comparative or superlative degree of impact.
• In this case, 'the' would be the appropriate article to use before 'greatest impacts' as it's specific and singular.
• Similarly, 'on health of livestock' is a specific reference to the health of a particular group (livestock). It should therefore be 'on the health of livestock.'
• Applying these corrections, the sentence should read: "Restriction on access to pastures has had even the greatest impacts on the health of livestock."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

The correct option is Option 2.

Key Points

• The idiom New York minute means a very short time.
• It is used for things which are transitory, fleeting. 
• For example: Holidays always feel like New York minute.

Hence the correct answer is Option 2 A very short time.

The correct option is Option 4

Key Points

• The phrase 'Corporate messaging that dilutes' (1) is correct. It's a compound noun 'corporate messaging' that is modified by a relative clause 'that dilutes.'
• The verb 'dilutes' (meaning to weaken or lessen in strength, value, or quality) is referring to "the definition of harassment' and is also used correctly in this context.
• 'The definition of harassment can' (2) is also grammatically correct. It contains a noun phrase 'the definition of harassment' which is a specific type of harassment that is being referenced. The modal verb 'can' is used correctly to express possibility.
• 'Have unintended side effects' (3) is also correct. The verb 'have' properly agrees with the plural subject 'side effects.'
• The adjective 'unintended' correctly modifies the noun 'side effects.'
• All parts of the sentence are grammatically correct and make logical sense when put together, thus no errors are present in the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

The correct answer is Option 1

Key Points

• The given sentence speaks of application of conditioner on hair. Out of the given option damp perfectly conveys the meaning as conditioners are applied on damp hair.
• The meaning of the word Damp is slightly wet, moist. Application of conditioner on damp hair even spreads fluids like conditioners equally.
• For ex. For colour to spread equally on the canvas damp it by sprinkling some water.
• Rest all the other words do not fit the context of the sentence and hence can be eliminated.

Therefore the correct option is Option 1 Damp

Additional Information

• Let's have a look at some other words given 
• Shrewd: Sharp-witted
• Pale: Light in colour of shade.
• wary: cautious.

The correct option is Option 3

Key Points

• After reading the passage the idea of animal extinction due to human activities is understood.
• The third paragraph clear states the solution by saying "If we accept that we will lose some battles to save species in the wild, how do we make sure we don't lose the war on extinction in the long term? One option is to establish populations in zoos and aquariums. When carefully managed, these populations serve as safety nets against species extinction. They buy us time until we sort out the human side of the extinction equation."
• The fourth paragraph mentions the result by saying "Captive populations have restocked wild populations and saved many species from extinction. The Puerto Rican toad, California condor, Scimitar-horned oryx, Amur leopard and the black-footed ferret wouldn't exist if it weren't for their captive-bred ancestors. In Canada, captive breeding helped save the Vancouver Island marmot. Wildlife biologists like myself continue to work with species declared extinct in the wild - the Kihansi spray toad, Panamanian golden frog, Micronesian kingfisher and Hawaiian crow. But we will have to wait until the threats, such as habitat loss and invasive species, that led to their extinction in the wild are neutralized before they can be reintroduced."

Hence the correct answer is Option 3 To understand the idea of keeping the wild animals in captivity.

The correct option is Option 1.

Key Points

• Let's first have a look at the words given in the options

1. Humanistic: Relating to humans
2. Dogmatic: Having bias
3. Bitter: Harsh
4. Sarcastic: insulting in a funny way.

• The main theme of the passage is animal extinction due to human activities and revival of endangered species with human intervention.
• That's why we can say the tone of this passage is related to humans and hence the tone of this passage is Humanistic.

Hence the correct answer is Option 1 Humanistic.

The correct option is Option 3.

Key Points

• The given passage talks about the extinction of animal species due to human activities and the effects of human activities on the animals and their habitat.
• Option 1 is clearly mentioned in the passage that horn of Rhino are made of keratin.
• Option 2 is also mentioned in the passage that human activities are the reason behind the acceleration for extinction of wildlife.
• Option 4 is also mentioned that captivity of wild animals have helped a lot in protection of wildlife and it is revived the population of the extinct species.
• Option 3 is nowhere mentioned in the given passage.

Hence the correct option is Option 3 What are the benefits of saving wild animals from extinction?

The correct option is Option 4.

Key Points

• Keratin is a protein which is found in hair and nails.
• In the given passage it is mentioned in second paragraph "Rhino horn, for example, fetches upwards of US$60,000 per kilogram in countries where it is prized as a cure and status symbol. But this is bogus. Rhino horn is made of keratin, like our fingernails, and cannot cure disease. We need a planet-wide shift in thinking about how we value the wildlife resources within the limited intact ecosystems that remain. But many species cant wait that long.

Hence then correct option is Option 4 Fingernails.$

The correct option is Option 1.

Key Points

• The word Bogus means spurious, fake, misleading.
• Out of the given options only Authentic conveys the opposite meaning which means real, original, true.
• Hence Authentic is not the synonym of Bogus

Hence the correct answer is Option 1 Authentic.

Additional Information

• Let's have a look at some other words mentioned.
• Pretend: To be what you are not, fake a behaviour.
• Spurious: not genuine
• Sham: fake act, scam.

सूर्योदय हो गया चिड़ियाँ चहकने लगी। दिए गए वाक्य में उपयुक्त विराम चिह्न( ; ) है। 

Key Points

• विराम चिह्न - वाक्य को लिखते अथवा पढ़ते समय विराम को प्रकट करने के लिए लगाये जाने वाले चिह्नों को विराम चिह्न कहते है।
• उदाहरण - सूर्योदय हो गया; चिड़ियाँ चहकने लगी।

Additional Informationअन्य उदाहरण -

श्याम के काम करने पर वह अवश्य उन्नति करता। सरल वाक्य का उदाहरण है।  

Key Points

• सरल वाक्य - जिन वाक्यों में केवल एक ही उद्देश्य और विधेय हो।
• उदाहरण - राम खाना खता है

Additional Information

गरिष्ठ शब्द की वर्तनी शुद्ध है।

Key Points

• शुद्ध वर्तनी - जिस शब्द में जितने वर्ण या अक्षर जिस अनुक्रम में प्रयुक्त होते है उन्हें उसी क्रम में लिखना ही वर्तनी है।
• उदाहरण - अहार-आहार, अत्याधिक-अत्यधिक, अलोचना-आलोचना आदि।

Additional Informationअन्य उदाहरण -

मालिक ने नौकरों को कपड़े दिए। संप्रदान कारक का उदाहरण है। 

Key Points

• संप्रदान कारक - सम्प्रदान का अर्थ देना होता है, इसका परसर्ग 'के लिए' अथवा 'को' है।
• उदाहरण - राम गरीबो को फल देता है।

Additional Informationअन्य उदाहरण -

अपभ्रंश  शब्द का उपसर्ग अप है। 

Key Points

• अप + भ्रंश = अपभ्रंश
• उपसर्ग की परिभाषा - वह अव्यय जो शब्द के पहले लगकर उसका अर्थ बदल दे।

Additional Information