Previous Year Paper

DSSSB TGT Social Studies Female 9 Oct 2021 (Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2021

200 questions120 minutes
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General Ability (20 questions)

Question 1

A boy walks 5 km towards south. He turns towards east and walks 15 km. He turns to the left and walks 2 km turns towards west and walks 7 km. Finally, he turns to the left and walks 3 km. How far is he now from the starting point ?

  1. AOption (a)

    14  km

  2. BOption (b)

    8 km

  3. COption (c)

    10 km

  4. DOption (d)

    6 km

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

10 km

Why this answer is correct

According to the given information :

  • A boy walks 5 km south. He turns towards the east and walks 15 km.
  • He turns to the left and walks 2 km turns towards the west and walks 7 km.
  • Finally, he turns to the left and walks 3 km.

Now, the Distance between the Start point and the Endpoint is given by:

Now,

Distance between AF is calculated by using Pythagoras' theorem:

→ (AF)2 = (AG)2 + (GF)2 

→ (AF)2 = (6)2 + (8)2 

→ (AF)2 = 36 + 64

→ (AF)2 = 100

→ (AF) = 10

Thus, the man is '10 km' far from the starting point.

Hence, the correct answer is "10 km".

Question 2

How many scooters are neither car nor jeep?

  1. AOption (a)

    21

  2. BOption (b)

    15

  3. COption (c)

    6

  4. DOption (d)

    31

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

21

Why this answer is correct

According to the diagram scooters that are neither car nor jeep are highlighted below,

Total number of scooters that are neither car nor jeep = 15 + 4 + 2

= 15 + 6

= 21

Hence, the correct answer is '21'.

Question 3

A team of seven members is to be selected among five boys B1,B2, B3, B4, and B5 and five girls G1, G2, G3, G4, and G5. B4 and G3 have to be selected together. B2 and B3 have to be selected together. G1 and G4 cannot be selected together. G2 and B4 have to be selected together. G5 and B3 have to be selected together. B1 cannot be selected with G1 or G5.

Which of the following members can be selected?

  1. AOption (a)

    G1, G2, G5, B2, B3, B4, B5

  2. BOption (b)

    G2, G3, G4, G5, B3, B4, B5

  3. COption (c)

    G2, G3, G4, G5, B2, B4, B5

  4. DOption (d)

    G1, G2, G3, G5, B2, B3, B4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

G1, G2, G3, G5, B2, B3, B4

Why this answer is correct

According to the given information,

A team of seven members is to be selected among five boys B1,B2, B3, B4, and B5 and five girls G1, G2, G3, G4, and G5.

Case A:

  • B4 and G3 have to be selected together.
  • B2 and B3 have to be selected together.

 

Possible cases:

Case ICase IICase III
B4 G3B2 B3B4 G3 B2 B3

 

Case B:

  • G5 and B3 have to be selected together.
  • G2 and B4 have to be selected together.

Possible cases:

Case ICase IICase III
B4 G3 G2B2 B3 G5B4 G3 B2 B3 G5 G2

 

Case C:

  • G1 and G4 cannot be selected together.
  • B1 cannot be selected with G1 or G5.

Possible cases:

Case ICase IICase III
ABABAB
B4 G3 G2 G1B4 G3 G2 G4 B1B2 B3 G5 G1B2 B3 G5 G4B4 G3 B2 B3 G5 G2 G1B4 G3 B2 B3 G5 G2 G4

 

Now, Case III 'A' and Case III 'B' has a team of seven members.

Case III 'A' → B4 G3 B2 B3 G5 G2 G1 or G1, G2, G3, G5, B2, B3, B4

Case III 'B' → B4 G3 B2 B3 G5 G2 G4 or G2, G3, G4, G5, B2, B3, B4

Clearly, according to the given options team members **'**G1, G2, G3, G5, B2, B3, B4' can be selected.

Hence, the correct answer is "G1, G2, G3, G5, B2, B3, B4".

Question 4

In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives. 

DF ∶ FE ∶∶ PT ∶ ?

  1. AOption (a)

    QS

  2. BOption (b)

    QU

  3. COption (c)

    RU

  4. DOption (d)

    RS

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

RS

Why this answer is correct

positional values 

Alphabet positional value:

In DF : FE

sum of DF = 4 + 6 = 10

sum of FE = 6 + 5 = 11

According to this the logic is: Sum of positional values of second alphabet pair = Sum of positional values of first alphabet pair + 1

Now sum of PT = 16 + 20 = 36

so that must be 37,

Option 1) QS = 17 + 19 = 36

Option 2**) QU** = 17 + 21 = 38

Option 3**) RU** = 18 + 21 = 39

Option 4) RS = 18 + 19 = 37

Therefore, the correct answer is 'RS'.

Question 5

In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions based on those statements. Taking the given statement to be true even if they seem to be variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the follows the given statements.

Statements:

|. All A are C .  

ll. No A is Q .  

Conclusions:  

|. Some Q are not C .  

Il. Some C are not Q .

  1. AOption (a)

    Both conclusion I and Il follows 

  2. BOption (b)

    Only conclusion II follows  

  3. COption (c)

    Only conclusion I follows  

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither conclusion follows  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only conclusion II follows  

Why this answer is correct

Statements:

I. All A are C.

II. No A is Q.

The least possible diagram for the given statements:

Conclusions:

I. Some Q are not C → False (It seems to not follow the statements as it is never stated whether some Q are C or not.)

II**.** Some C are not Q  → True (It follows the given statements as All A are C and No A is Q thus It means that some C are not Q.)

hence, 'Only Conclusion II follows.'

Question 6

A man starts walking towards the east and walks 15 metre. He turns to the right and walks 10 metre. He turns towards north and walks 20 metre. He turns to the left and walks 25 metre. He turns towards east and walks 13 metre. Finally, he turns to the right and walks 6 metre. How far and in which direction is he now from the starting point?

  1. AOption (a)

    5 metres North-East  

  2. BOption (b)

    10 metres North-East

  3. COption (c)

    5 metres South-West

  4. DOption (d)

    10 metres South-West

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

5 metres North-East  

Why this answer is correct

According to the given information:

  • ​​A man starts walking towards the east and walks 15 metre.
  • He turns to the right and walks 10 metre. He turns towards north and walks 20 metre.
  • He turns to the left and walks 25 metres.
  • He turns towards east and walks 13 metres.
  • Finally, he turns to the right and walks 6 metre.

Now, the Distance between the Start point and the End point is given by:

Now,

Distance between AG is calculated by using Pythagoras theorem:

→ (AG)2 = (AH)2 + (HG)2 

→ (AG)2 = (3)2 + (4)2 

→ (AG)2 = 9 + 16

→ (AG)2 = 25

→ (AG) = 5

Clearly, the man is '5 metres North-East' far from the starting point.

Hence, the correct answer is "5 metres North-East".

Question 7

If 'P × Q' means 'P is the son of Q', 'P = Q' means 'P is the brother of Q', 'P < Q' means 'P is the mother of Q' and 'P > Q' means 'P is the daughter of Q', then in the given expression D = C > F > G, how is D related to F?

  1. AOption (a)

    Son

  2. BOption (b)

    Uncle

  3. COption (c)

    Husband

  4. DOption (d)

    Father

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Son

Why this answer is correct

According to the question,

P x QP is the son of Q.
P = QP is the brother of Q.
P < QP is the mother of Q.
P > QP is the daughter of Q.

Now,

D = C > F > G

  • D is the brother of C

  • C is the daughter of F

  • F is the daughter of G

  • As, the gender of G is not mentioned, thus G can be either male or female.

Thus, D is son of F.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Son'.

Question 8

In the following question, select the related word pair from the given alternatives.  

Race ∶ Track ∶ ∶ ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ground ∶ Hockey

  2. BOption (b)

    Ring : Boxing

  3. COption (c)

    Tennis ∶ Court

  4. DOption (d)

    Pitch ∶ Cricket

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Tennis ∶ Court

Why this answer is correct

In the given question, 

Race ∶ Track 

The logic here is: Race is a game and Track is a facility build to do race.

means Game : Facility

In the given options,

Option 1) Ground ∶ Hockey  

Here 1st relation is Facility and 2nd relation is Game thus not in the logic provided by question.

Option 2) Boxing ∶ Rink  

Here 1st relation is Facility and 2nd relation is Game thus not in the logic provided by question.

Option 4) Pitch ∶ Cricket  

Here 1st relation is Facility and 2nd relation is Game thus not in the logic provided by question.

Option 3) Tennis ∶ Court

It confirms the logic of the question that is Game : Facility.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Tennis ∶ Court'.

Question 9

Based on the given venn diagram, which of the following statement is correct?  

I. The number of factory which are not school is 73.  

Il. The number of school which are office is 30.  

  1. AOption (a)

    Both I and II  

  2. BOption (b)

    Only I

  3. COption (c)

    Only II

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither I nor II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only I

Why this answer is correct

Statement I. The number of factory which are not school is 73. 

According to the diagram,

Total number of factory which are not school = 31 + 42 

= 73

 

Hence, 'The statement I is correct'.

Statement II. The number of school which are office is 30.

According to the diagram,

Total number of school which are office = 41

Thus, 'Statement II is not correct'.

Hence, only 'statement I is correct'.

Question 10

In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions based on those statements. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements.

Statements:

I. Some A are D.

II. Some D are B.

II. No B is C.

Conclusions:

I. Some A are B.

II. Some D are not C.

III. Some C are not D.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only conclusion II follows

  2. BOption (b)

    Only conclusion I follows

  3. COption (c)

    Both conclusion ll and lIl follows

  4. DOption (d)

    Only conclusion III follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only conclusion II follows

Why this answer is correct

In the given question,

Statements:

I. Some A are D.

II. Some D are B.

II. No B is C.

The least possible diagram for the given statements is as follows :

Conclusions:

I. Some A are B → False (Because no direct relation between A and B, so it is possible but not definite)

II. Some D are not C → True (Because 'Some D are B' and 'No B is C', so some D that are B are not C, thus it is definitely true)

III. Some C are not D → False (Because no direct relation between C and D, so it is possible but not definite)

Hence, the correct answer is "Only conclusion II follows".

Question 11

By folding the given paper, which of the following cube can be made?  

  1. AOption (a)

    I, ll, Ill and  IV

  2. BOption (b)

    I, ll, and III

  3. COption (c)

    l and Ill

  4. DOption (d)

    l, Il and  IV

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

I, ll, and III

Why this answer is correct

According to the given information, the logic here is,

As Two opposite faces are never together or adjacent to each other,

Thus,

There is a pattern in which unfolded dice occur opposite to each other.

FaceOpposite
43
62
51

Now,

option (1) → 5, 6, and 4 are adjacent. Thus it is can be made.

option (2) → 3, 6, and 1 are adjacent. Thus it is can be made.

option (3) → 3, 2, and 1 are adjacent. Thus it is can be made.

option (4) → 2, 3, and 5 are adjacent, but here 5 should be the bottom side of 2 for forming the cube. So, this cube can't be formed.

Thus, 'I, ll, and III' cubes can be made.

Hence, the correct answer is "I, ll, and  III".

Mistake Points 5 can not be placed at the right side of 2 in the cube, so Cube IV can not be made from the given open dice.

Question 12

In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.  

  1. AOption (a)

    Orange

  2. BOption (b)

    Mango

  3. COption (c)

    Pomegranate

  4. DOption (d)

    Ladyfinger

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Ladyfinger

Why this answer is correct

Let us check each option:

  1. Orange = A fruit.

  2. Mango = A fruit.

  3. Pomegranate = A fruit.

  4. Ladyfinger = A Vegetable.

Thus, Ladyfinger is an odd word as others are fruit but it is a vegetable.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Question 13

Seven girls G1, G2, G3, G4, G5, G6 and G7 sit around a circular table facing towards the centre (not necessarily in the same order). Two girls sit between G1 and G3. G1 sits third to the right of G5. G7 sits second to the left of G2. One girl sits between G3 and G6.

Which of the following statement is correct?

I. Two girls sit bet ween G5 and G7.

II. G3 sits to the immediate left of G4.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only Il

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither I nor II

  3. COption (c)

    Only I

  4. DOption (d)

    Both l and II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Neither I nor II

Why this answer is correct

As per the given information,

Seven girls G1, G2, G3, G4, G5, G6 and G7 sit around a circular table facing towards the center (not necessarily in the same order).

1. Two girls sit between G1 and G3.

There are two possibilities:

2. G1 sits third to the right of G5.

Here, Case II will be eliminated as it contradicts the given statement.

3. G7 sits second to the left of G2.

  • One girl sits between G3 and G6.

Now,

I. Two girls sit between G5 and G7. → False (because only one girl sits between G5 and G7)

II. G3 sits to the immediate left of G4. → False (because G3 sits to the immediate right of G4)

Hence, the correct answer is "Neither I nor II".

Question 14

A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.  

GDV, ?, CLJ, APD, YTX

  1. AOption (a)

    EHO

  2. BOption (b)

    EHP

  3. COption (c)

    FHP

  4. DOption (d)

    EIP

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

EHP

Why this answer is correct

The logic follows here is : 

Thus, the missing term is 'EHP'.

Hence, the correct answer is "EHP".

Question 15

In a certain code language, ‘QUENAS'’ is written as ‘PDKHRT’. What is the code for ‘RADIUM’ in that code language?   

  1. AOption (a)

    JXFGXU

  2. BOption (b)

    IXFGWU

  3. COption (c)

    JWFGXU

  4. DOption (d)

    JXEGXU

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

JXFGXU

Why this answer is correct

The logic follows here is : 

  • ‘QUENAS'’ is written as ‘PDKHRT’

Similarly,

  • ‘RADIUM’ will be written as:

Hence, the correct answer is "JXFGXU".

Question 16

If ‘-’ means ‘÷’, ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘÷’ means ‘-’ and ‘×’ means ‘+’, then which of the following equation is not correct?  

  1. AOption (a)

    80 ÷ 16 × 84 + 4 - 12 = 82

  2. BOption (b)

    120 × 36 ÷ 25 - 15 + 45 = 81

  3. COption (c)

    60 - 12 + 25 × 16 ÷ 8 = 133

  4. DOption (d)

    60 + 16 - 24 ÷ 48 × 96 = 88

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

80 ÷ 16 × 84 + 4 - 12 = 82

Why this answer is correct

Decoding the given information :

Sign-+÷×
Means÷×-+

On checking each option and replacing the sign from left to right and using the BODMAS rule, we get:

1) 80 ÷ 16 × 84 + 4 - 12 = 82  

⇒ 80 - 16 + 84 × 4 ÷ 12 = 82

⇒ 80 - 16 + 28 = 82

⇒ 108 - 16 = 82

⇒ 92 ≠ 82

2) 120 × 36 ÷ 25 - 15 + 45 = 81  

⇒ 120 + 36 - 25 ÷ 15 × 45 = 81

⇒ 120 + 36 - 75 = 81

⇒ 156 - 75 = 81

⇒ 81 = 81

3) 60 - 12 + 25 × 16 ÷ 8 = 133  

⇒ 60 ÷ 12 × 25 + 16 - 8 = 133  

⇒ 5 × 25 + 16 - 8 = 133  

⇒ 125 + 16 - 8 = 133  

⇒ 141 - 8 = 133 

⇒ 133 = 133 

4) 60 + 16 - 24 ÷ 48 × 96 = 88 

⇒ 60 × 16 ÷ 24 - 48 + 96 = 88 

⇒ 40 - 48 + 96 = 88 

⇒ 136 - 48 = 88

⇒ 88 = 88

Hence, the correct answer is Option (1).

Question 17

In the following question, select the figure which can be placed at the sign of question mark (?) from the given alternatives. 

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

The logic follows here is :

A new symbol (letter, number or sign) is added to the left of the previous symbol in each successive figure.

Figure A to Figure B→

Figure A has a 'P' letter at the bottom left corner.

In Figure B a new symbol, 'O' is added to the left of 'P'.

Figure B to Figure C→

Figure B has two letters 'O' and 'P'.

In Figure C a new symbol, '=' is added to the left of 'O'.

Figure E→

Figure E has five symbols 'O', 'P', '=', '3', and a 'triangle' symbol which means the previous figure i.e.Figure E will have '3' as a new symbol.

Similarly,

Figure C to Figure D→

Figure C has three symbols 'O', 'P', and '='.

In Figure D a new symbol, '3' will be added to the left of '=' and the 'P' symbol will move vertically upwards.

So, the figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series is shown below :

Hence, the correct answer is "option 1".

Question 18

Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

  1. GAGERS
  2. GADFLY
  3. GABLED
  4. GAINER
  5. GALAHS
  1. AOption (a)

    32145

  2. BOption (b)

    32154

  3. COption (c)

    31245

  4. DOption (d)

    31254

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

32145

Why this answer is correct

The arrangement of all the given words in the order in which they appear in an English dictionary is as shown below:

The two letters G and A are common in the given words, so we will start arranging the word from the third letter in alphabetical order.

  1. GABLED
  2. GADFLY
  3. GAGERS
  4. GAINER
  5. GALAHS

Hence, the correct answer is "32145".

Question 19

Three positions of a dice are given below. If ‘6’ is on the bottom face, then what can come on the top face?  

  1. AOption (a)

    4

  2. BOption (b)

    2

  3. COption (c)

    1

  4. DOption (d)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

4

Why this answer is correct

According to the given information,​

  • From figures 2nd and 3rd, '6' is common.

Now, when we take the clockwise direction from '6' in figures 2nd and 3rd respectively, we get

  1. In figure 2nd, moving in the clockwise direction from 6 we have '2' and '1' respectively.
  2. In figure 3rd, moving in the clockwise direction from 6 we have '3' and '5' respectively.

​Therefore, we have

Figure 2ndFigure 3rd
66
23
15

Thus,

  • 4 is opposite to 6.
  • 2 is opposite to 3.
  • 1 is opposite to 5.

​

As 4 is the opposite of 6.

Hence, the correct answer is "4".

Question 20

In the following question, select the number which can be placed at the sign of question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

16466
22368
362?
  1. AOption (a)

    72

  2. BOption (b)

    75

  3. COption (c)

    74

  4. DOption (d)

    78

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

74

Why this answer is correct

The logic follows in the given problem is:

In a Row:

  • (First number × Second number)  + 2 = Third number

​Row I [16 4 66]

→ (16 × 4) + 2 = 64 + 2 = 66 = Third number

​Row II [22 3 68]

→ (22 × 3) + 2 = 66 + 2 = 68 = Third number

​Row III [36 2 ?]

→ (36 × 2) + 2 = 72 + 2 = 74 = Third number

​Thus, the missing term is '74'.

Hence, the correct answer is "74".

General Awareness (20 questions)

Question 21

Which of the following statement is correct ?

I. Bhimtal is a natural lake.

II. Gobind Sagar is a not a natural lake.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only II

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither I nor ll

  3. COption (c)

    Only I

  4. DOption (d)

    Both I and II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both I and II

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

  • Rainwater causes lakes to form naturally, which then dry up over the summer and such lakes are known as natural lakes.
  • Natural lakes offer an important source of water for drinking, farming, fishing, and leisure activities.
  • They are commonly found in mountainous regions, rift zones, and glacial regions.
  • Bhimtal Lake located in the Bhimtal town of Nainital city is a natural lake in India and is also the largest lake in the Kumaon region.
  • It got its name with reference to the Bhima of the epic Mahabharata.
  • Bhimtal Lake is at an elevation of 4,511 feet (or 1,375 m) and has a gross water storage capacity of 4.63 million cubic meters.
  • Some other natural lakes in India are Dal Lake, Chilika Lake, Pushkar Lake, Loktok Lake, and Vembanad Lake.

Additional Information

  • Artificial lakes are commonly known as reservoirs and refer to lakes artificially made by humans.
  • In order to create artificial lakes, a portion of a river is frequently diverted and then the water is stored in a reservoir behind a dam.
  • Gobind Sagar Lake, located in Bilaspur, Himachal Pradesh is not a natural lake but an artificial lake.
  • The Gobind Sagar Lake on the Sutlej River is named in honour of Gobind Singh, the Tenth Sikh Guru, and was created by the enormous hydroelectric dam at Bhakra.
  • The Gobind Sagar Lake is associated with the river valley project named Bhakra Nangal Project.
  • This reservoir protects damage from monsoon floods by holding back extra water during the monsoon, allowing a controlled release throughout the year, and keeping the dam from overflowing.
  • Some other artificial lakes in India are Bhojtal Lake, Hussain Sagar Lake, Jaisamand Lake, and Chembarambakkam Lake.

Question 22

“Makaravilakku” festival is celebrated in which state of India?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Kerala

  2. BOption (b)

    Tamil Nadu 

  3. COption (c)

    Andhra Pradesh 

  4. DOption (d)

    Karnataka

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Kerala

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

  • The annual Makaravilakku celebration takes place at the Sabarimala shrine in Kerala, India, on Makara Sankranti.
  • The Thiruvabharanam procession and a gathering at Sabarimala's hill shrine are also part of the celebration.
  • At the Sabarimala Temple in Kerala, on the 14th of January, Makara Sankranti, the star known as Makara Jyothi is venerated by throngs of pilgrims. It is thought that the god Ayyappan manifests as Makara Jyothi to bless his followers.
  • On the Ponnambalamedu hill, four kilometres from the temple, a light known as Makaravilakku makes three appearances.
  • So, makara jyothi refers to the sirius star while makaravilakku refers to the arathi performed on makara sankranthi.

Additional Information

  • Makara is an Indian astrological star sign, referred equivalent to the zodiac sign, Capricorn. Also, the Sanskrit word "Jyothi" means  "light" in English.
  • So, Makara Jyoti, literally means "Light of Capricorn":
  • Formerly, tribesmen would do a pooja at Ponnambalamedu hill on the day of the makarajyothi. Currently, the Travancore Devosom Board and the Forest Department assist the Kerala government in carrying it out.
  • According to the beliefs, it is said that on the day of Makara Vilakku, Lord Dharmasasta ceases his tapas to bless his followers and to see this procedure in person on this day, an estimated 500,000 worshippers travel to Sabarimala each year.

Question 23

Which of the following statement is correct?

I. 5-8 percent solution of acetic acid in water is called vinegar.

II. Ethane has 6 covalent bonds.

  1. AOption (a)

    Neither I nor ll

  2. BOption (b)

    Both l and II

  3. COption (c)

    Only I

  4. DOption (d)

    Only II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only I

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only I.

Key Points

  • The pH value of vinegar, a mild acid, is about 2.6.
  • Vinegar is an aqueous form of acetic acid that includes 5-8% acetic acid.
  • As vinegar is a compound that dissolves between 5% and 8% of acetic acid in water, vinegar is an aqueous solution of acetic acid.
  • In the presence of the acetobacter enzyme, ethyl alcohol is fermented to produce vinegar. In the food industry, ethanoic acid is used to make vinegar.
  • Vinegar has various purposes around the house, including cleaning, cooking, and laundry. In order to prevent the growth of bacteria and fungi in silage, farmers typically spray acetic acid on it.

Additional Information

  • Seven covalent bonds make up the chemical structure of ethane (C2H6C_{2}H_{6}): 6 bonds between C and H, and one bond between C and C.
  • In order to create six carbon-hydrogen covalent bonds, each of the six hydrogen atoms will share one electron with carbon.
  • To create a covalent bond between the two carbon atoms, each will share its single electron.
  • In order to make ethanol, acetaldehyde, and acetic acid, which are used in paints, varnishes, adhesives, plastics, etc., ethane is required.
  • Ethane is used as the most precise  for the study of lipid peroxidation, it is also utilised to make ethylene used in making antifreeze, plastics, and to ripen fruits.

Question 24

There are ___________  Fundamental Rights in constitution of India.

  1. AOption (a)

    6

  2. BOption (b)

    11

  3. COption (c)

    5

  4. DOption (d)

    8

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

6

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 6.

Key Points

  • Fundamental rights are the fundamental human rights that are guaranteed to every citizen of India and are enshrined in the Indian Constitution.
  • They are applied without regard to factors such as ethnicity, religion, or gender.
  • There are six fundamental rights: Right to Equality, Right to Freedom, Right Against Exploitation, Right to Freedom of Religion, Cultural and Educational Rights, Right to Constitutional Remedies.
  • Under some circumstances, courts can enforce fundamental rights. During a national emergency, fundamental rights may be suspended. However, Articles 20 and 21's guarantees of rights are unalterable.
  • Sections of the Indian Constitution known as "Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles of State Policy, and Fundamental Duties" outline the fundamental duties and rights of citizens towards the state as well as the fundamental obligations of states to their citizens.

Additional Information

  • The moral duties that all people have to sustain India's unity and foster a sense of patriotism are known as the Fundamental Duties.
  • Both people and the country are affected by the fundamental duties outlined in Section IV-A of the Constitution. They are not enforceable by courts unless parliamentary law makes them so, similar to the Directive Principles.
  • There are a total of 11 fundamental duties listed in the Constitution of India.
  • In response to the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee, which was established by the government, the 42nd Amendment to the constitution was passed in 1976, adding the Fundamental Duties of the citizens to Indian Constitution.

Question 25

Which country will host the Asian Games in 2026?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Japan  

  2. BOption (b)

    indonesia

  3. COption (c)

    China

  4. DOption (d)

    India

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Japan  

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Japan.

Key Points

  • A continental multi-sport competition between athletes from all over Asia is conducted every four years and is referred to as the Asian Games or Asiad.
  • From the first games in New Delhi, India, until the Games in 1978, the Games were governed by the Asian Games Federation (AGF).
  • Following the dissolution of the Asian Games Federation, they have been organized since the 1982 Games by the Olympic Council of Asia (OCA).
  • The Asian Games are regarded as the second-largest multi-sport event after the Olympic Games and are recognized by the International Olympic Committee (IOC).
  • Participation in the Games is open to all 45 members of the Olympic Council of Asia (OCA).
  • The next Asian Games in 2026 will be hosted by Japan.
  • Japan hosted the third and twelfth Asian Games, at Tokyo in 1958 and Hiroshima in1994, respectively.
  • Japan  will host the Asian Games tournament for the third time when the 20th Asian Games will take place in Aichi-Nagoya in 2026.

Additional Information

  • The 2018 Asian Games, often referred to as Jakarta-Palembang 2018 or Indonesia 2018, were a continental multi-sport competition that took place in Jakarta and Palembang from August 18 to September 2, 2018. They were officially known as the 18th Asian Games.
  • For the first time, two regions jointly hosted the Summer Asian Games: Palembang, the capital of South Sumatra state, and Jakarta, the Indonesian capital.
  • The COVID-19 epidemic has forced the postponement of the 2022 Asian Games, which were scheduled to be held in Hangzhou, China, from September 10 to 25.
  • The Asian Games 2023 will be held at Hanzhou, China, between September 23, 2023, to October 8, 2023.
  • The Asian Games have already been held twice in India at New Delhi. India hosted the first Asian Games in 1951 and the second time was in 1982.
  • For the first Asian Games, which took place in 1951, India served as the host country.

Question 26

Which of the following is correct regarding monopolistic competition? 

I. There are large number of firms.

II. Good produced by the firms are not homogenous.

  1. AOption (a)

    Neither I nor II

  2. BOption (b)

    Only lI

  3. COption (c)

    Only l

  4. DOption (d)

    Both I and II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both I and II

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both I and II​

Key PointsMonopolistic Competition

  • Large number of firms
  • This is correct.
  • Monopolistic competition involves many firms producing goods.
  • The biscuit market example shows numerous firms with different brands and slightly different products.
  • Free entry and exit of firms
  • This is correct.
  • Firms can easily enter or leave the market in monopolistic competition.
  • New biscuit brands can enter the market, and existing ones can exit without major barriers.
  • Products are not homogeneous
  • This is correct.
  • In monopolistic competition, products are differentiated.
  • Biscuit brands differ in taste, packaging, and brand loyalty among consumers.

Additional Information

  • Brand loyalty affects consumer choices
  • Consumers may prefer a particular brand and not switch unless there is a significant price difference.
  • However, if the price difference becomes large, consumers might switch to another brand.
  • The degree of brand loyalty varies among consumers.
  • Impact of price changes
  • If the price of a particular brand is lowered, some consumers will switch to that brand.
  • Further price reductions will lead to more consumers switching.

Question 27

In February 2021, which of the following state has launched a campaign to make state "Begar - Free"?

  1. AOption (a)

    Uttar Pradesh

  2. BOption (b)

    ​Bihar

  3. COption (c)

    Rajasthan

  4. DOption (d)

    ​Maharashtra

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Rajasthan

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Rajasthan.

Key Points

  • In February 2021, Rajasthan has launched a campaign to make the state "Begar - Free".
  • Beggars were rehabilitated in Jaipur as part of a drive for a "beggar-free" Rajasthan, which has been launched by the Sopan Institute of Science, Technology and Management and Rajasthan Skill and Livelihoods Development Corporation (RSLDC).
  • About 43 beggars from various states, including Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, and Odisha, who were previously living in Jaipur, have been given access to a shelter home where yoga, sports, and computer classes are being provided to them.
  • The government of Rajasthan has also agreed to give them 215 rupees every day, which they can save and use to fund their future business ambitions.

Additional Information

  • The Bihar government ha d implemented programmes to give employment to beggars in the state by enticing them to stop begging and start businesses or serve as advocates for state government projects as part of the Bhikshavriti Nivaran Yojana, which is run by the state society for the extremely poor and aims to rid the state of beggars.
  • The programme "Beggars Corporation" was conceptualised by Common Man Trust, a Varanasi NGO, in February 2021, and it was implemented in July. This organisation wants to make Varanasi a beggar-free city by 2023 by putting an emphasis on investment rather than philanthropy.
  • Plans were made since 2018 to make Maharshtra 'Beggar free' state by the Charity Commissioner, Shivkumar Dige on rehabilitating about one lakh beggars in the state by providing employment and housing and thus, making the state 'beggar free'.

Question 28

As on 15 July 2021, who is present deputy chairman of Rajya Sabha?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Harivansh Narayan Singh  

  2. BOption (b)

    Mallikarjun Kharge  

  3. COption (c)

    Anand Sharma

  4. DOption (d)

    D. M.Venkaih Naidu  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Harivansh Narayan Singh  

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Harivansh Narayan Singh.

Key Points

  • The Rajya Sabha, also known as the Council of States according to Indian law, is the upper house of the country's bicameral parliament.
  • It can have a maximum of 245 members as of 2022, 233 of whom are elected by state and territorial legislatures using single transferable votes in open elections, and 12 of whom may be appointed by the president in recognition of their contributions to the arts, sciences, literature, and social services.
  • Article 80 of the Indian Constitution specifies that the Rajya Sabha has a maximum seating capacity of 245.
  • Members of the Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution, in contrast to the Lok Sabha, as it is a continuing chamber. However, the president has the authority to adjourn the Rajya Sabha, just like the Lok Sabha.
  • The members of Rajya Sabha are elected to serve for six years and elections are held every second year.
  • Since, 11 August 2022, the Vice President of India, Jagdeep Dhankar is the ex-officio chairman of Rajya Sabha.
  • Since, 9 August 2018, the present deputy chairman of Rajya Sabha is Harivansh Narayan Singh.

Additional Information

  • The President, Lok Sabha or the Lower House, and Rajya Sabha or the Upper House, make up the Indian Parliament. The House of People refers to the Lok Sabha, whereas the Council of States refers to the Rajya Sabha.
  • The Indian Parliament adopted the names "Lok Sabha" and "Rajya Sabha" in 1954. In the Indian Constitution, the Indian Parliament is covered by Articles 79–122.
  • Mallikarjun Kharge is the current leader of opposition in Rajya Sabha and has assumed office from 17 December 2022.
  • Anand Sharma was the deputy leader of the opposition in Rajya Sabha till 2 April 2022.
  • D. M.Venkaih Naidu was the 13th Vice President of India and also served as the ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha from 11 August 2017.

Question 29

Which of the following is correct for the speed of sound?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Speed = wavelength × frequency  

  2. BOption (b)

    Speed = frequency / wavelength  

  3. COption (c)

    Speed × frequency = wavelength  

  4. DOption (d)

    Speed = wavelength / frequency  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Speed = wavelength × frequency  

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Speed = wavelength × frequency.

Key Points

  • The distance that a point on a sound wave, like a compression or a rarefaction, travels in one unit of time is known as the speed of sound.
  • Under identical physical circumstances, the speed of sound is constant across all frequencies in a particular medium.
  • For all waves, the connection between a wave's frequency, wavelength, and speed is the same.
  • The formula for the speed of sound can be given as: Speed = wavelength × frequency
  • The separation between neighboring compressions or rarefactions is known as the wavelength of a sound.
  • The frequency is the number of waves passing a spot in a given amount of time, and it is the same as the source's frequency.
  • The speed of sound in dry air at a temperature of 20° C is found to be 343 m/s.

Additional Information

  • Speed is defined as the ratio of distance to the amount of time it took to cover that distance. Due to its lack of magnitude and having only direction, speed is a scalar quantity.
  • "The distance between the two subsequent crests or troughs of the light wave" is how wavelength of light is described. Hence, the wavelength is defined as the distance between one wave's crest or trough and the following wave.
  • The number of full wave cycles that pass a point in a unit of time is described as frequency. The frequency in SI units is measured in Hertz (Hz).
  • The number of full oscillations made by any wave element in a sinusoidal wave in unit time is its frequency.

Question 30

In which year the Indian National Congress passed the Purna Swaraj resolution?

  1. AOption (a)

    1932

  2. BOption (b)

    1929

  3. COption (c)

    1928

  4. DOption (d)

    1927

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1929

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1929.

Key Points

  • In 1929, the Indian National Congress (INC) passed the Purna Swaraj resolution.
  • The term, Purna Swaraj is made of two sanskrit words, "Purna" meaning "Complete" and "Swaraj" meaning "Self-rule or Sovereignity".
  • The Indian National Congress, on December 19, 1929, passed the historic "Purna Swaraj" (complete independence) resolution at its Lahore session in response to the discontent of the Indian masses with the British offer of Dominion Status to India.
  • The Indian National Congress issued it as a resolution committing both the Congress and Indian nationalists to the fight for Purna Swaraj, or absolute independence from British control.
  • On January 26, 1930, the Congress Party released a formal declaration, urging Indians to observe the day as "Independence Day".

Additional Information

  • The first national political movement in India with the intention of increasing Indian participation in national governance was the Indian National Congress (INC).
  • A.O. Hume, a retired civil official living in Shimla after his retirement, founded the INC in 1885. The "Indian National Union" was established when he invited numerous Indian leaders to discuss the Indian cause and was later renamed the "Indian National Congress" at Dadabhai Naoroji's proposal.
  • The proposed location for the INC's inaugural meeting was Poona, but due to a plague outbreak there, the location was changed to Bombay.
  • Only 72 delegates attended the first session, which was presided over by Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee and held at the "Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit Pathshala" in Bombay.
  • Subsequently, INC's goal was increased to total independence, and once the country gained independence, INC grew into a significant political force.

Question 31

According to 2011 census, which of the following state of India has lowest population density?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sikkim

  2. BOption (b)

    Mizoram

  3. COption (c)

    Nagaland

  4. DOption (d)

    Arunachal Pradesh 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Arunachal Pradesh 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Arunachal Pradesh.

Key Points

  • The number of people in a given area of land is called the population density.
  • According to India's 2011 population density statistics, the number of people per square kilometer increased from 324 to 382.
  • The state with the highest population density is Bihar (1106 people/sq km), followed by West Bengal (1028 people/sq km) and Kerala (860 people/sq km).
  • The state having the lowest population density according to 2011 census is Arunachal Pradesh (17 people/ sq km).
  • Between 2001 and 2011, the population density grew at a 17.54 percent annual pace.

Additional Information

  • According to the 2011 census:
  • Sikkim has a population density of 86 people/sq km.
  • Mizoram has a population density of 52 people/sq km.
  • Nagaland has a population density of 119 people/sq km.
  • The term "population density" refers to the quantity of people living in a given region, commonly expressed as "per square kilometre" or "per square mile", and which may or may not take glaciers or water bodies into account. Often, a country, city, nation, another area, or the entire world is computed in this way.
  • As of 2021, India has had 16 decennial censuses. The first comprehensive census was done in 1881, while it had been conducted every ten years since 1872, when British Viceroy Lord Mayo began the custom. Since 1949, it has been carried out by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India under the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
  • The 1948 Census of India Act, which predates the Indian Constitution, has been used to conduct all censuses since 1951. The Union Government is not required by the 1948 Census of India Act to carry out the Census on a specific date or to make the results available within a specified time frame.

Question 32

Which company has launched a new app “Shopsy” for online business in July 2021?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Facebook

  2. BOption (b)

    Amazon

  3. COption (c)

    Flipkart

  4. DOption (d)

    Grofers

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Flipkart

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Flipkart.

Key Points

  • Flipkart has launched a new app "Shopsy" for online business in July 2021.
  • Shopsy is an app that enables Indians to create their online enterprises with no financial outlay.
  • Users of Shopsy are able to share product catalogues from a huge selection of 15 crore products offered by Flipkart sellers with potential customers via well-known social media and messaging apps, giving them the chance to influence their local network and realise their aspirations.
  • These products range across fashion, beauty, mobiles, electronics, and home, among other categories.
  • Flipkart is an Indian e-commerce business with its main office in Bangalore and was established in Singapore as a private limited company. The business began by concentrating on online book sales before branching out into other product categories like consumer electronics, clothing, accessories, consumables, and lifestyle goods.

Additional Information

  • Facebook:
  • The social networking site Facebook was first introduced on October 28, 2003, under the name FaceMash.
  • On February 4, 2004, the name was changed to Facebook.
  • Facebook is a social networking service that makes it simple to communicate and share content with loved ones online.
  • Amazon:
  • On July 5, 1994, Jeff Bezos launched Amazon in his Bellevue, Washington, garage.
  • Digital streaming, cloud computing, online advertising, and artificial intelligence are the main areas of interest for Amazon, a multinational technology business based in the United States.
  • Grofers:
  • Instant delivery company Blinkit, formerly known as Grofers, was established in India in December 2013.
  • The ease of daily buying has never been greater thanks to Blinkit, an online marketplace.
  • It enables clients to shop at their preferred local retailers and obtain prompt delivery.

Question 33

How many players are there in each team of Rugby?  

  1. AOption (a)

    11

  2. BOption (b)

    9

  3. COption (c)

    10

  4. DOption (d)

    15

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

15

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 15.

Key Points

  • Rugby union or rugby, as it is more generally known, is a close-contact team sport that was developed at Rugby School in the first half of the 19th century.
  • The game of rugby is often played with an oval-shaped ball on a rectangular area known as a pitch between two teams of 15 players each.
  • There will be H-shaped goalposts located at each end of the field.
  • People of different sexes, ages, and sizes participate in rugby union, which is a well-liked sport worldwide.
  • The purpose of the game is to get the ball into the area known as the in-goal area by putting it on the ground behind the try line of the opposition.
  • Rugby is a sport that can be played with the ball in the hand or by kicking it. The ball can only be thrown or passed backwards when it is in hand, though.

Additional Information

  • Sports having 11 team players:
  • Football, sometimes known as soccer, is a team sport in which two teams of 11 players compete against one another.
  • In this game, the players use their feet to kick the ball around a rectangular surface known as a pitch.
  • The aim of the football game is to score more goals than the opposing team by getting the ball past the goal line and into a goal with a rectangular frame that is being defended by the other team.
  • Rugby and football have extremely different game-playing rules. Football only allows 11 players to enter the field while rugby allows for 15 players.
  • In contrast to rugby, which uses a 23-player team and prohibits substitutes from reentering the field, football allows substitutions at any moment.
  • Baseball is a sport played between two teams of nine players each using a bat, a ball, and gloves on a field with four white bases set up in a diamond.
  • Lacrosse is a team sport that is played using a lacrosse ball and stick. Each team has ten players: three attackmen, three midfielders, three defenders, and one goalkeeper and each player also has a lacrosse stick in their possession.

Question 34

Which of the following pair of monument - state is NOT correct?

I. Se’ Cathedral - Goa

Il. Sikandra Fort - Rajasthan

  1. AOption (a)

    11

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither I nor Il  

  3. COption (c)

    Only II

  4. DOption (d)

    Only I

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only II

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only II.

Key Points

  • The Mausoleum of Akbar is another name for Sikandra Fort.
  • Sikandra, a little town close to Agra, Uttar Pradesh is where the Sikandra Fort is located. That is where the enormous Mughal Emperor's Mausoleum is located.
  • The Sikandra Fort is 13 miles from the Agra Fort and  is on 119 acres of land in Sikandra and was constructed by Jahangir between the years of 1605 and 1613.
  • Sikandra Fort got its name with reference to Sikander Lodhi.
  • The fort is five storeyed and boasts magnificent architecture, is composed of red sandstone, and is also known as the crypt of Akbar.
  • The Sé Catedral de Santa Catarina, also referred to as Se Cathedral, serves as both the Patriarch of the East Indies' residence and the cathedral for the Latin Church Archdiocese of Goa and Daman.
  • Se Cathedral is located at Goa.
  • The Se Cathedral was constructed to honour the Portuguese under Afonso de Albuquerque's leadership's triumph over a Muslim army, which resulted in the conquest of Goa in 1510.
  • Since the day of the triumph fell on Saint Catherine's Day, the cathedral was named in her honour.

Additional Information

  • The Agra Fort, sometimes referred to as the Red Fort, is a historic fort in the Indian city of Agra.
  • Akbar, the Mughal emperor, began construction in 1565 and finished it in 1573.
  • Until the capital was moved from Agra to Delhi in 1638, Agra Fort was the main home of the Mughal emperors.
  • The "Lal-Qila", "Fort Rouge", or "Qila-i-Akbari" were some other names of Agra Fort.
  • The Marathas were the last Indian kings to rule it before the British took it over.
  • The Agra fort was officially recognised by UNESCO in 1983 as a World Heritage Site.
  • Portuguese general, admiral, and statesman Afonso de Albuquerque served as the first Duke of Goa.
  • From 1509 to 1515, he was viceroy of Portuguese India, a position he held for six years. During this time, he increased Portuguese authority throughout the Indian Ocean and developed a reputation as a fearless and capable military leader.
  • By creating a Portuguese Asian empire, Albuquerque furthered the Portuguese people's three-pronged grand strategy of battling Islam, promoting Christianity, and protecting the trade in spices.

Question 35

Which of the following is correct regarding socialist society? 

I. The government decides how the goods are produced

II. The government decides how the goods are distributed

  1. AOption (a)

    Only II

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither I nor lI

  3. COption (c)

    Only I

  4. DOption (d)

    Both I and Il

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both I and Il

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

  • Modern societies that are classified as socialist societies have some loose formal parallels in their political, property, and production regimes.
  • A socialist economy is a kind of economic organization where the state controls and owns the means of production.
  • The state (government), under the guidance of the planning commission, is responsible for the production and distribution of goods and manufacturing inputs.
  • The major features of socialist societies are public ownership, definite objectives, central planning, freedom of consumption, planning and pricing process, and equality of income distribution.

Additional Information

  • A society is a group of people engaged in ongoing social interaction or a sizable social group occupying the same physical or social territory and typically under the control of the same governmental authority and prevailing cultural expectations.
  • Socialism is a political theory and movement that embraces a variety of economic and social structures that are distinguished by social ownership of the means of production rather than private ownership.
  • The meaning of Socialism as a phrase covers the ideologies and movements in the fields of economics, politics, and society that are connected to the adoption of such systems. Social ownership might be employee, public, community, collective, or cooperative.

Question 36

Mount Dhaulagiri lies in __________ .

  1. AOption (a)

    Pakistan

  2. BOption (b)

    Nepal

  3. COption (c)

    Bhutan

  4. DOption (d)

    India

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Nepal

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Nepal.

Key Points

  • Mount Dhaulagiri is located in the west-central Nepal.
  • Mount Dhaulagiri, at 8,167 metres (26,795 feet) above sea level, is the seventh-highest mountain in the world and the tallest mountain that is entirely contained inside one nation's borders (Nepal).
  • Around 40 miles (65 km) northwest of Annapurna, it is located on the western side of the vast Kali (Kali Gandak) River valley.
  • The majority of the Himalayas, the highest mountain range in the world, are found in Nepal. The nation is home to eight of the fourteen eight-thousanders, either entirely or in part by way of a shared border with China or India.
  • Mount Everest, the tallest mountain in the world, and 1,310 other peaks that rise beyond 6,000 metres are both found in Nepal.

Additional Information

  • The majority of Pakistan’s highest mountains are located in the Karakoram Range, primarily in Gilgit-Baltistan (PoK). The tallest of these peaks is K2 (8,611 metres), the second-highest mountain in the world. Other notable high mountains include those in the Himalaya, such as Nanga Parbat (8,126 metres), the ninth-highest globally, located in the Diamer District of Gilgit-Baltistan. In the Hindu Kush range, the highest peak is Tirich Mir (7,708 metres), ranked 33rd in the world, situated in Khyber Pakhtunkhwa.
  • The third-highest mountain peak in the world, Kanchenjunga, is the highest mountain peak in India at 8,586 metres (28,169 ft). In Sikkim, it is located in the Himalayan range close to the boundary between India and Nepal. The Western Ghats' tallest peak, Anamudi, is also the highest peak in South India.
  • The Great Himalaya, the Lower Himalayan Range (or Inner Himalaya), and the Sub-Himalayan Range are Bhutan's three primary geographic regions. The snow-capped Great Himalaya in the north stretches along the Bhutan-Tibet border, rising to altitudes of roughly 5,500 metres (18,000 feet) and reaching summits exceeding 7,500 metres (24,600 feet).

Question 37

In which year the Child Marriage Restraint Act was passed?

  1. AOption (a)

    1932

  2. BOption (b)

    1925

  3. COption (c)

    1927

  4. DOption (d)

    1929

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1929

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1929.

Key Points

  • The Imperial Legislative Council of India passed the Child Marriage Restriction Act, 1929, setting the marriage age for girls at 14 and for boys at 18.
  • The Child Marriage Restriction Act was enacted on September 28, 1929. It was changed in 1949, following India's independence, to 15 for females, and again in 1978 to 18 for girls and 21 for boys.
  • The act is commonly referred to as the Sarda Act, named for its supporter Harbilas Sharda.
  • The Child Marriage Restrction Act, which was a part of the social reform movement in India, got enforced six months later on 1 April 1930 after it was passed.
  • The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006, which had the same minimum age restrictions, succeeded the 1929 Act. The Prohibition of Child Marriage (Amendment) Bill, 2021 aims to raise the legal age of consent for female marriage from 18 to 21.

Additional Information

  • Since girls who are married before the age of 18 are more likely to endure domestic violence or lose their lives to difficulties during pregnancy and childbirth, UNICEF defines child marriage as a formal marriage or informal union that occurs before the age of 18.
  • UN Women contends that child marriage should be considered a forced union because young children cannot give a legally binding consent.
  • India last amended the definition of child marriage with its The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act of 2006, which is applicable to all Indians with the exception of the state of Jammu and Kashmir and the former residents of the union territory of Puducherry.
  • The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act of 2006 defines "child marriage" as a marriage or a marriage that is about to be solemnised in which one or both of the contracting parties is a child. A child for marriage purposes is defined based on the person's gender: for a male, the limiting age is 21 years while for a female it is 18 years of age.

Question 38

From which country's constitution the concept of 'Judicial Review' in Indian constitution has been taken?

  1. AOption (a)

    United States of America

  2. BOption (b)

    Russia

  3. COption (c)

    South Africa

  4. DOption (d)

    Canada

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

United States of America

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is United States of America.

Key Points

  • The US Constitution provided the model for the judicial review system that the Indian constitution has adopted.
  • The powers of the parliament are not absolute and are split between the federal government and the states.
  • The supreme court have the authority to evaluate legislation passed by both the national and state legislatures. As a result, the courts are given more authority and a tool for judicial review.
  • Fundamental rights, judicial independence, the roles of the president and vice president, removal of supreme court and high court judges, and the ability to impeach the president are some further aspects that India has taken from the constitution of United States of America (USA).
  • The United States Constitution is the only valid legal document in the country of USA. In 1789, it replaced the country's original constitution, the Articles of Confederation. The US constitution defines the national framework and governmental restraints and originally included seven articles.

Additional Information

  • The USSR (now Russia) Constitution served as a model for the Preamble's fundamental duties and the Ideals of justice (social, economic, and political).
  • Federation with a strong Center, the vesting of residuary powers in the Center, the appointment of state governors by the Center, and advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court are characteristics of the Indian Constitution that are modelled after those of the Constitution of Canada.
  • The South African Constitution served as a model for the Indian Constitution's amendment procedure and the election of Rajya Sabha members.
  • These elements—parliamentary government, the rule of law, legislative process, single citizenship, the cabinet system, prerogative writs, parliamentary privileges, and bicameralism—are all taken directly from the UK Constitution.

Question 39

Which of the following statement is correct?

I. In 1764, the Spinning Jenny was invented by John Kaye.

II. The first cotton mill in India was set up in Bombay.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II

  3. COption (c)

    Neither I nor ll

  4. DOption (d)

    Both l and Il

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only II

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only II.

Key Points

  • The invention of the spinning jenny by James Hargreaves in 1764 enhanced the output of the conventional spindles.
  • John Kaye invented the spinning frame in the year 1767.
  • A single worker could run a spinning jenny, a machine with numerous spindles on which thread was spun, and as the wheel was turned, all the spindles rotated.
  • One of the major advancements in the early Industrial Revolution's industrialization of textile production was the multi-spindle spinning frame known as the spinning jenny. With the ability to work eight or more spools at simultaneously, this equipment lowered the amount of labour required to create cloth.
  • On 7 July 1854 at Tardeo, Cowasjee Nanabhoy Davar founded Bombay Spinning and Weaving Company, the city's first cotton mill (1815-73).
  • Sir William Fairbaim created the design for the Bombay Spinning and Weaving Company, and this mill started operating on February 7, 1856, under the direction of British engineers and expert cotton workers.

Additional Information

  • John Kay was the inventor of spinning frame (fllying shuttle) while Samuel Crompton was the inventor of spinning mule.
  • The spinning jenny invented by James Hargreaves in 1764 is a significant invention of the industrial revolution.
  • The transition to new industrial techniques that took place in Great Britain, continental Europe, and the United States between roughly 1760 and about 1820–1840 is known as the Industrial Revolution.
  • This shift featured the switch from manual to machine production methods, the invention of machine tools, the creation of the mechanised factory system, new ways for producing chemicals and iron, an increase in the use of water and steam power, and new methods for producing chemicals and iron.
  • Cowasjee Nanabhai Davar is known for his pioneering efforts in laying the foundation of the cotton industry in India. He established multiple cotton mills in India. The first was Bombay Spinning and Weaving Company, and another was the Bombay Throstle mill company in Bombay.

Question 40

Which of the following is NOT a fish?

  1. AOption (a)

    Lion fish

  2. BOption (b)

    Mandarian fish

  3. COption (c)

    Jelly fish

  4. DOption (d)

    Dog fish

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Jelly fish

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Jelly fish.

Key Points

  • With umbrella-shaped bells and trailing tentacles, jellyfish are primarily free-swimming marine organisms, however some are fixed to the seabed by stalks.
  • The bell can pulse to produce propulsion for incredibly effective movement.
  • The tentacles can be utilised to catch animals and fight off predators as they are equipped with stinging cells. Humans can get hurt by jellyfish stinging cells that are employed to subdue their food.
  • Jelly fish have an intricate life cycle, with the medusa typically being the sexual phase. During this time, planula larvae are produced, which disperse far and enter a sedentary polyp phase before becoming sexually mature.
  • Since the anatomy of a fish is concentrated on its backbone, whereas that of a jellyfish is shaped like a dome, jellyfish are not actually fish.

Additional Information

  • Lion fish:
  • The Indo-Pacific is home to the genus Pterois of venomous marine fish, also referred to as lion fish.
  • It may be identified by its showy dorsal fins, which are tipped with venomous spines, and its warning colouring with red or black bands.
  • Mandarin fish:
  • The mandarin fish, sometimes known as a mandarin dragonet, is a small, colourful member of the dragonet family that is well-liked in the saltwater aquarium industry.
  • The mandarinfish is a Pacific native, with a range roughly from the Ryukyu Islands south to Australia.
  • Dog fish:
  • The northern Pacific and Atlantic coasts are home to small, bottom-dwelling dogfish sharks. They may travel great distances, and their habitat can vary from shallow seas with plenty of sunshine to 3,000-foot-deep gloomy waters.
  • The lion fish, mandarian fish, and dog fish comes under the category of fish.

Arithmetic Ability (20 questions)

Question 41

The table given below shows the number of students passed in examination in five different schools for three different years.

SchoolYears
Y1Y2Y3
S1200700600
S2300800900
S3400320200
S4550400650
S5600500720

 

J1 = The average number of passed student in school S1 in all three years

J2 = The difference between the total number of passed student in all years together in school S2 and S3

What is the value of (J2 - J1)?

  1. AOption (a)

    500

  2. BOption (b)

    620

  3. COption (c)

    550

  4. DOption (d)

    580

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

580

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

Average = sum of all observations ÷ number of observations

Calculation:

Students passed from school S1 in year Y1, Y2 and Y3 are respectively are 200, 700 and 600.

average students passed from school S1 each year = (200 + 700 + 600) ÷ 3

⇒ Average = 1500 ÷ 3 = 500 (this is J1)

Total students passed from S2 is 300 + 800 + 900 = 2000

Total students passed from S3 is 400 + 320 + 200 = 920

⇒ Difference = 2000 - 920 = 1080 (this is J2)

⇒ J2 - J1 = 1080 - 500 = 580

Hence, J2 - J1 = 580.

Question 42

If 25 is subtracted from a number, then number becomes 95 percent of it self. What is the number?

  1. AOption (a)

    500

  2. BOption (b)

    450

  3. COption (c)

    550

  4. DOption (d)

    555

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

500

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Reduction in value = 25

Reduction in percentage = 100% − 95% = 5%

∴ 5% of the number = 25

Original number (100%) = (25 ÷ 5) × 100 = 500

∴ The correct answer is 500.

Alternate Method

Given: A number minus 25 equals 95% of itself.

Formula: Value = (Percentage ÷ 100) × Number

0% 95% 100% Result (95% of x) 5% = 25

Let the original number be x.

⇒ x − 25 = 95% of x

⇒ x − 25 = 0.95x

⇒ x − 0.95x = 25

⇒ 0.05x = 25

⇒ x = 25 ÷ 0.05

⇒ x = 500

∴ The correct answer is 500.

Additional Information

Percentage Base Rule

In percentage problems, the original or reference value is always considered 100% unless specified otherwise.

Fraction Equivalents

Converting percentages to fractions simplifies calculations: 5% = 1/20, 25% = 1/4, 95% = 19/20.

Percentage Change Formula

Percentage Change = (Difference ÷ Original Value) × 100. In this case, 5 = (25 ÷ x) × 100.

Question 43

What is the unit digit of 724 × 476?  

  1. AOption (a)

    4

  2. BOption (b)

    8

  3. COption (c)

    6

  4. DOption (d)

    2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

4

Why this answer is correct

Concept Used:

The unit digit of the multiplication of two numbers is the same as the unit digit of the multiplication of unit digits of the two numbers.

Calculation:

For 724 × 476;

unit digit of 724 is 4 and unit digit of 476 is 6.

Then unit digit of the product of both is the same as unit digit of the product of their unit digit.

i.e., 4 × 6 = 24

Hence, unit digit of 724 × 476 is 4.

Question 44

If N = (√8 + 2) (√8 - 2). then what is the value of 1/N?  

  1. AOption (a)

    4

  2. BOption (b)

    1/4

  3. COption (c)

    2

  4. DOption (d)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1/4

Why this answer is correct

Formula Used:

(a + b)(a - b) = a2 - b2

Calculation:

N = (√8 + 2) (√8 - 2) = (√8)2 - 22

⇒ N = 8 - 4 = 4

Thus, 1/N = 1/4.

Question 45

What is the value of (6763)2×(6763)−1×(6763)−2×(6367)\left( {\frac{{67}}{{63}}} \right)^2 \times \left( {\frac{{67}}{{63}}} \right)^{-1} \times \left( {\frac{{67}}{{63}}} \right)^{-2} \times \left( {\frac{{63}}{{67}}} \right)

  1. AOption (a)

    39694489\frac{3969}{4489}

  2. BOption (b)

    38294562\frac{3829}{4562}

  3. COption (c)

    32514295\frac{3251}{4295}

  4. DOption (d)

    39214629\frac{3921}{4629}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

39694489\frac{3969}{4489}

Why this answer is correct

Concept Used:

am × an = am + n

and am = (1/a)-m

Calculation:

(6763)2×(6763)−1×(6763)−2×(6367)\left( {\frac{{67}}{{63}}} \right)^2 \times \left( {\frac{{67}}{{63}}} \right)^{-1} \times \left( {\frac{{67}}{{63}}} \right)^{-2} \times \left( {\frac{{63}}{{67}}} \right)

⇒(6763)2×(6763)−1×(6763)−2×(6763)−1 ⇒ \left( {\frac{{67}}{{63}}} \right)^2 \times \left( {\frac{{67}}{{63}}} \right)^{-1} \times \left( {\frac{{67}}{{63}}} \right)^{-2} \times \left( {\frac{{67}}{{63}}} \right)^{-1}  [x-m = 1/xm and 1/x-m = xm]

⇒(6763)2−1−2−1=(6763)−2=(6367)2 ⇒ \left( {\frac{{67}}{{63}}} \right)^{2-1-2-1} = \left( {\frac{{67}}{{63}}} \right)^{-2}= \left( {\frac{{63}}{{67}}} \right)^{2}

⇒(632672)=39694489 ⇒ \left(\frac{63^2}{67^2} \right) = \frac{3969}{4489}

Question 46

If a number A1 is 50 percent less than another number A2 and A2 is 50 percent more than 1500, then what is the value of A1?

  1. AOption (a)

    1225

  2. BOption (b)

    1500

  3. COption (c)

    1450

  4. DOption (d)

    1125

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1125

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Value of A2 = 1500 × 1.5 = 2250

Value of A1 = 2250 × 0.5 = 1125

Direct Calculation: 1500 × (150/100) × (50/100) = 1500 × 3/2 × 1/2 = 375 × 3 = 1125

∴ The correct answer is 1125.

Alternate Method

Given:

Number A2 is 50% more than 1500.

Number A1 is 50% less than A2.

Calculations:

⇒ A2 = 1500 + (50% of 1500)

⇒ A2 = 1500 + (50/100 × 1500) = 1500 + 750

⇒ A2 = 2250

⇒ A1 = A2 − (50% of A2)

⇒ A1 = 2250 − (50/100 × 2250) = 2250 − 1125

⇒ A1 = 1125

∴ The correct answer is 1125.

Additional Information

Percentage Increase/Decrease

To increase a number by x%, multiply by (1 + x/100). To decrease by x%, multiply by (1 − x/100).

Successive Percentage Change

If a value changes by a% and then b%, the net effective change is (a + b + ab/100)%.

Base Change Property

If A is x% more than B, then B is [x/(100+x)] × 100% less than A.

Question 47

A and B enter into a partnership such that 5 times of A's investment is equal to 6 times of B's investment. If the total profit is Rs. 11000, then what is the share of A?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 5000

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 9000

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 4000

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 6000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Rs. 6000

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

Let's assume that A invests x rupees.

Then, according to question B invests 5x/6 rupees.

So, the total investment is x + 5x/6 = 11x/6 rupees.

A's share of investment in the ratio of the total is x÷(11x/6) = 6/11

i.e., For 11 Rupees invested 6 rupees are invested by A.

Hence, the Profit's share of A must be in the same ratio.

Therefore, A's share of the profit is  6/11 of the total profit.

So, A's share is 6 ÷ 11 × 11000 = 6000 rupees.

Hence, the Profit share of A is Rs. 6000.

Question 48

The line chart given below shows the expenditure and savings of six companies.

Income = Expenditure + Saving

What is the sum of income of company P and Q?

  1. AOption (a)

    1100

  2. BOption (b)

    1300

  3. COption (c)

    1200

  4. DOption (d)

    1400

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1300

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

Expenditure of company P = 500

Savings of company P = 300

Thus, Income of company P = 500 + 300 = 800

Expenditure of company Q = 300 

Savings of company Q = 200

Thus, Income of company Q = 300 + 200 = 500

Total income of P and Q = 800 + 500 = 1300

Hence, the sum of income of companies P and Q is 1300.

Question 49

For what value of X, 176 X will be a perfect square?  

  1. AOption (a)

    6

  2. BOption (b)

    1

  3. COption (c)

    4

  4. DOption (d)

    9

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

4

Why this answer is correct

Concept Used:

0, 1, 4, 5, 6, 9  can only be the unit digit of perfect square numbers.

Calculation:

0 can be neglected as it is not in the options.

For X to be 1.

1761 = 3 × 587

Which is not a perfect square number.

1764 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 7 × 7 = 22 × 32 × 72

As every prime came exactly twice in the expansion of prime factorization, 

Hence, 1764 is a perfect square.

Question 50

The cost price of an article is Rs. 480. if the profit is 30 percent, then what is the value of the profit?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 136

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 150

  3. COption (c)

    Rs.144

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 156

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Rs.144

Why this answer is correct

Formula Used:

The profit on the article is calculated as a percentage of the cost price. To find the value of the profit, we use the following formula:

Profit = (Profit Percentage ÷ 100) × Cost Price

Calculation:

In this case, the profit percentage is 30, so the value of the profit is:

Profit = (30 / 100) × 480 = 144

So, the profit on the article is Rs. 144.

Question 51

How many positive factors of 112 are there?

  1. AOption (a)

    14

  2. BOption (b)

    10

  3. COption (c)

    16

  4. DOption (d)

    12

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

10

Why this answer is correct

Concept Used:

The formula to find the total number of divisors of a positive integer "n" is given by:

n = p1e1 × p2e2 × ... × pkek

where p1, p2, ..., pk are the prime factors of "n" and e1, e2, ..., ek are their corresponding exponants. 

The total number of divisors is given by (e1 + 1) × (e2 + 1) × ... × (ek + 1).

Calculation:

We know, 112 = 24 × 71

Number of divisors of 112 = (4 + 1) × (1 + 1) = 5 × 2 = 10

Hence, there are 10 positive factors of 112.

Question 52

Speed of a train is 10 percent more than the speed of a car. Both start from point C at the same time and reach point D at the same time. C and D are 220 km apart from each other. On the way train stops for 40 minutes at a station. What is the speed of the train?

  1. AOption (a)

    36 km/hr

  2. BOption (b)

    30 km/hr

  3. COption (c)

    39 km/hr

  4. DOption (d)

    33 km/hr

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

33 km/hr

Why this answer is correct

Formula Used:

Speed = Distance ÷ Time

⇒ Distance = Speed × Time

Calculation:

Let's call the speed of the car "c".

The speed of the train is 10% more than the speed of the car, so the speed of the train can be expressed as c + (10/100)c = 1.1c.

Since both the car and the train cover the same distance in the same amount of time, we can use the following equation to find the speed of the car:

c × t = 220 km . . . (i)

where t is the total time taken by the car to cover the distance.

The train stops for 40 minutes, so the total time taken by the train to cover the distance is t - (40/60) hours = t - 2/3 hours.

Using the speed of the train, we can write the following equation:

(1.1c) × (t - 2/3) = 220

Dividing both sides of the equation by 1.1, we get:

c × (t - 2/3) = 200

⇒ c × t - 2c/3 = 200

⇒ 220 - 2c/3 = 200

⇒ 2c/3 = 20

⇒ c = 30

So the speed of the car is c = 30 km/hr.

Since the speed of the train is 1.1 times the speed of the car, the speed of the train is:

1.1 × 30 km/hr = 33 km/hr.

Hence, the speed of the train is 33 km/hr.

Question 53

The marked price of a cycle is Rs. 8800. If 25 percent discount is given, then what will be the selling price of the cycle?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 5500

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 7000

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 7500

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 6600

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Rs. 6600

Why this answer is correct

Formula Used:

Price after a% discount on Marked price of X is given by X - a% of X

Calculation:

Marked Price = Rs. 8800

Discount Percentage = 25 %

Selling Price = 8800 - 25% of 8800

⇒ Selling Price = 8800 - 25÷100 × 8800 = 8800 - 2200 = 6600

Hence, Selling Price after 25% discount is Rs. 6600.

Question 54

The bar graph given below shows the percentage of marks obtained by a student in six subjects.

Which of the following statement is correct?

I. If the maximum marks of subject S4 is 200, then the marks obtained by the student in subject S4 is 140.

II. If the maximum marks of subject S2 and S3 are 100 and 150 respectively, then the average marks obtained by the student in subject S2 and S3 are 37.5.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only II

  2. BOption (b)

    Only I

  3. COption (c)

    Nether I nor II

  4. DOption (d)

    Both I and II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Nether I nor II

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

Statement I:  If the maximum mark of subject S4 is 200, then the marks obtained by the student in subject S4 is 140.

 Marks obtained by S4 is 50%,

⇒ 50% of 200 = (50/100) × 200 = 100

But given marks obtained by student in S4 is 140, 

Hence, statement I is false.

Statement II: If the maximum marks of subject S2 and S3 are 100 and 150 respectively, then the average marks obtained by the student in subject S2 and S3 are 37.5. 

Marks obtained in S2 is 60% and marks obtained in S3 is 30 %.

Maximum marks of S2 is 100.

⇒ Marks obtained in S2 = 60% of 100 = 60

Maximum marks of S3 is 150.

⇒ Marks obtained in S3 = 30% of 150 = 30 ÷ 100 × 150 = 45

Average = (60 + 45) ÷ 2 = 105 ÷ 2 = 52.5

But given average marks is 37.5.

Hence statement II is also false.

Thus, both statement I and statement II are false.

Question 55

Sum of the areas of four identical circles is equal to the total surface area of a sphere. If radius of circle is 10 cm, then what is the radius of the sphere?

  1. AOption (a)

    40 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    10 cm

  3. COption (c)

    20 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    5 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

10 cm

Why this answer is correct

Formula Used:

The surface area of a sphere is given by the formula 4πr2,

and the area of a circle is given by the formula πr2.

where r is the radius of sphere and circle respectively.

Calculation:

Let's call the radius of the sphere "r".

Since the sum of the areas of four identical circles is equal to the total surface area of a sphere, we can write the following equation:

i.e., 4× π(10)2 = 4πr2

⇒ 400π = 4πr2

⇒ r2 = 100

⇒ r = 10 cm

So the radius of the sphere is 10 cm.

Question 56

30 men can do a work in 16 days while 6 boys can do the same work in 120 days. In how many days 12 boys and 8 men together will complete the same work?

  1. AOption (a)

    30 days

  2. BOption (b)

    45 days

  3. COption (c)

    40 days

  4. DOption (d)

    60 days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

30 days

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

Let one man can finish the work in x days and one boy can finish the work in y days.

Thus, one day work of one man be 1/x part and one day work of one boy be 1/y part.

30 men can do work in one day is 30/x part

And given is one day work of 30 men is 1/16 part

⇒ 30/x = 1/16

⇒ x = 16×30 = 480 days

Again, one day work of 6 boys in 6/y part.

and given is one day work of 6 boys is 1/120.

⇒ 6/y = 1/120

⇒ y = 120 × 6 = 720 days

Thus, one day work of 12 boys is 12/720 = 1/60 parts

and one day work of 8 men is 8/480 = 1/60 parts

Total one day work = 1/60 + 1/60 = 1/30

Hence, together they will finish the work in 30 days.

Question 57

The difference between the simple interest on a certain sum at the annual rate of 13 percent for 10 years and 11 years is Rs. 52. What is the sum?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 500

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 450

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 400

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 410

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Rs. 400

Why this answer is correct

Concept Used:

The simple interest can be calculated using the formula, SI = P × r × t,

where P is the principle amount, r is the interest rate as a decimal and t is the time in years.

Calculation:

Let's call the sum "P".

The difference in the interest between 10 years and 11 years is Rs. 52, so we can write the following equation:

⇒ P × 0.13 × 11 - P × 0.13 × 10  = 52

⇒ 1.43P - 1.3P = 52

⇒ 0.13P = 52

⇒ P = 52 ÷ 0.13 = 400

So the sum is Rs. 400.

Question 58

Marks of two candidates A and B are the in ratio of 3 ∶ 8. If the marks of A are 135, then what will be the marks of B?

  1. AOption (a)

    360

  2. BOption (b)

    260

  3. COption (c)

    380

  4. DOption (d)

    400

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

360

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

Let's call the marks of candidate B "x".

Since the marks of the two candidates are in a ratio of 3 : 8, we have:

3 : 8 = 135 : x

Cross multiplying and solving for x, we get:

3x = 8 × 135

⇒ 3x = 1080

⇒ x = 1080 ÷ 3 = 360

So the marks of candidate B are 360.

Question 59

Balram covers 2/5 part of the total distance by bus and the remaining 60 km by car.

What is the total distance of his journey?

  1. AOption (a)

    125 km

  2. BOption (b)

    100 km

  3. COption (c)

    75 km

  4. DOption (d)

    150 km

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

100 km

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

Let the total distance be x Km.

then the distance traveled by bus is 2x/5 

Remaining is x - 2x/5 = 3x/5

Thus, the distance traveled by car is 3x/5

⇒ 3x/5 = 60

⇒ 3x = 300

⇒ x = 100

Hence, the total traveled distance is 100 km.

Question 60

Which of the following statement is correct?

I. If area of a circle is 61600 cm2, the diameter of this circle is 140 cm.

II. If area of an equilateral triangle is 400√3 cm2, then side of this triangle is 40 cm.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither I nor ll

  3. COption (c)

    Only II

  4. DOption (d)

    Both I and Il

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only II

Why this answer is correct

Formula Used: 

The area of a circle with radius "r" is given by the formula:

A = πr2

The area of an equilateral triangle with side length "s" is given by the formula:

A = (√3/4)s2

Calculation:

Statement 1: If the area of a circle is 61600 cm2, the diameter of this circle is 140 cm.

⇒ πr2 = 61600

⇒ (22/7)r2 = 61600

⇒ r2 = 61600 × (7/22)

⇒ r2 =  19600

⇒ r =  140

Hence, the diameter is 2×140 = 280

Thus, a statement I is false.

Statement II: If the area of an equilateral triangle is 400√3 cm2, then the side of this triangle is 40 cm.

⇒ (√3/4)s2 = 400√3 

⇒ s2 = 400√3 × (4/√3)

⇒ s2 = 1600

⇒ s = 40

Thus, statement II is true.

Hence, only statement II is true.

General English (20 questions)

Question 61

Choose the word that can substitute the given sentence.

Beginning at and continuing since birth

  1. AOption (a)

    Lapidist

  2. BOption (b)

    Congenital

  3. COption (c)

    Shunpike

  4. DOption (d)

    Equestrian

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Congenital

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Congenital"

Key Points

  • In the above question we have to choose the word that can substitute the given sentence.
  • Let's understand the given words.
  • A lapidist is a person who cuts, shapes, and polishes precious stones, such as diamonds or gemstones.
  • Congenital refers to something that is present at or before birth, typically used to describe a condition or characteristic that is inherited or acquired during fetal development.
  • A Shunpike is a road or route that is taken in order to avoid a highway or main road, often used as a more scenic or less-traveled alternative.
  • Equestrian refers to the practice of horse riding, or any activity related to horseback riding, such as horse shows or horse racing.
  • Thus, from the above explanation the correct answer is "Congenital"

Correct answer: Congenital

Question 62

In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.

To burn the candle at both ends

  1. AOption (a)

    To sleep before midnight

  2. BOption (b)

    To exhaust oneself by working too much

  3. COption (c)

    To be humiliated

  4. DOption (d)

    In the same condition

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

To exhaust oneself by working too much

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "To exhaust oneself by working too much"

Key Points

​

  • The idiom "to burn the candle at both ends" means to overwork oneself by staying up late and getting up early, or by doing too many things at once. It suggests that one is using up their energy and time too quickly, and that they will eventually become exhausted.
  • Examples:
  • "I have been burning the candle at both ends lately, working late and getting up early to work on my startup"
  • "I have got to stop burning the candle at both ends if I want to be able to keep up this pace, I'm exhausted"
  • Thus, as per the above explanation the correct answer is "To burn the candle at both ends"

***Correct answer: "***To burn the candle at both ends"

Question 63

Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order.

Avocados were first

P: before the Spanish conquest

Q: domesticated in tropical America,

R:where they were cultivated as

S: individual seedling trees

  1. AOption (a)

    QRSP

  2. BOption (b)

    QSPR

  3. COption (c)

    RQPS

  4. DOption (d)

    PSRQ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

QRSP

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "QRSP"

Key Points 

  • The correct order of the sentence is Q: Domesticated in tropical America, R: Where they were cultivated as, S: Individual seedling trees, P: Before the Spanish conquest.
  • The sentence is talking about the origin of avocados, and how they were domesticated and cultivated
  • The sentence starts with Q: Domesticated in tropical America, which tells us the place where avocados were first domesticated, Next
  • R: Where they were cultivated as, refers to the place where avocados were grown,
  • S: Individual seedling trees, gives us information about the method of cultivation, which is grown as individual seedling trees.
  • Finally, P: Before the Spanish conquest, is the time frame when avocados were first domesticated.

Correct arrangement: Avocados were first domesticated in tropical America, where they were cultivated as, Individual seedling trees  before the Spanish conquest.

Question 64

Rearrange the parts of the sentence in the correct order.

P: of water purification has made

Q: the city has taken measures to

R: decrease air pollution, and a system

S: tap water safe for drinking

  1. AOption (a)

    QRPS

  2. BOption (b)

    QSPR

  3. COption (c)

    SPQR

  4. DOption (d)

    QRSP

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

QRPS

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "​QRPS"

Key Points

  • The correct order of the sentence is: Q: the city has taken measures to, R: decrease air pollution, and a system, P: of water purification has made, S: tap water safe for drinking.
  • The sentence is talking about the measures that the city has taken to decrease air pollution, and also has installed a system of water purification which has made tap water safe for drinking.
  • Q: the city has taken measures to is the starting point of the sentence, which refers to the actions taken by the city, which is followed by
  • R: decrease air pollution, which is the first measure that city has taken. Then it mentions the second measure that city has taken, which is
  • P: of water purification has made, this is a system that city has installed to purify water, and
  • S: tap water safe for drinking, is the result or outcome of the water purification system, which is safe for drinking.

Correct arrangement: The city has taken measures to, decrease air pollution, and a system, of water purification, has made, tap water safe for drinking.

Question 65

Find the part of the given sentence that has an error in it. If there is no error, choose 'No error'.

You don't have to (1)/ look hardly to see uncivil (2)/ behavior these days (3)/.No error (4)

  1. AOption (a)

    3

  2. BOption (b)

    4

  3. COption (c)

    1

  4. DOption (d)

    2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "2"

Key Points

  • The error lies in the second part of the sentence.
  • The phrase "look hardly" is incorrect. It should be "look hard" as "hardly" is an adverb which means "scarcely" or "barely" and doesn't fit in the context.
  • First part is grammatically correct.
  • Third part is also grammatically correct.

Correct sentence: You don't have to look hard to see uncivil behavior these days.

Question 66

In the given question, four words are given out of which one word is correctly spelt. Choose the correctly spelt word.

  1. AOption (a)

    Forign

  2. BOption (b)

    Foriegn

  3. COption (c)

    Foreign

  4. DOption (d)

    Forin

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Foreign

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Foreign"

Key Points

 

  • The word "Foreign" means relating to or coming from a country or nation other than one's own. It can also be used to describe something that is unfamiliar or not native to a particular place.
  • Examples:
  • He's a foreign student from Germany studying at our university.
  • We bought a foreign car from Japan.
  • The company is interested in foreign markets.
  • The foreign culture and customs were very different from what she was used to.
  • The plant is a foreign species that was introduced to the area.
  • Thus, the correctly spelt word is "Foreign"

Correct answer: Foreign

Question 67

Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the given word.

Forsake

  1. AOption (a)

    Abjure

  2. BOption (b)

    Abject

  3. COption (c)

    Sanction

  4. DOption (d)

    Observe

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Sanction

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Sanction"

Key Points

  • Let's understand the meaning of the given words with examples.
  • Forsake: To abandon or renounce something, or to leave someone or something behind(त्यागना).
  • Examples:
  • She decided to forsake her old life and start over in a new city.
  • He promised to never forsake his family.
  • Abjure: To reject or renounce something, usually a belief or principle, in a formal and public manner(त्यागना).
  • Examples:
  • She publicly abjured her former political beliefs.
  • He had to abjure his faith in order to save his life.
  • Abject: Despicable, miserable, or characterized by extreme poverty, hopelessness, or degradation(दीन).
  • Examples:
  • The refugee camp was an abject place, with poor living conditions and no hope for the future.
  • His abject apologies did not excuse his behavior.
  • Sanction: An action taken by a government or other authority to enforce compliance or to punish a violation of a law or rule(प्रतिबंध).
  • Examples:
  • The country imposed economic sanctions against the regime.
  • The company was given a warning and a fine as a sanction for breaking the safety regulations.
  • Observe: To watch or pay attention to something, or to comply with a rule or custom(निरीक्षण करना).
  • Examples:
  • The scientists observed the behavior of the animals in their natural habitat.
  • He observed the speed limit on the way home.
  • Thus, as per the above explanation the meaning opposite to the meaning of the given word is "Sanction"

Correct answer: Sanction

Question 68

Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If no substitution is required, select 'No improvement' as your answer.

There were five handsome large 20 year old boys in the football team.

  1. AOption (a)

    five large and handsome 20 year old boys

  2. BOption (b)

    large five 20 year old handsome boys

  3. COption (c)

    handsome 20 year old large five boys

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

No improvement

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '1) five large and handsome 20 year old boys.'

Key Points

  • The original sentence's adjectives were out of order.
  • English typically follows the Royal Order of Adjectives: Quantity, Quality, Size, Age, Shape, Color, Proper adjective, and Purpose.
  • So, "five handsome large 20 year old" should be revised as "five large and handsome 20 year old."
  • We add "and" between "large" and "handsome" to better connect these adjectives.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Additional Information

  • Following the Royal Order of Adjectives ensures clarity and comprehension in English sentences.

Question 69

In the given question, four words are given out of which one word is correctly spelt.

Choose the correctly spelt word.

  1. AOption (a)

    Que

  2. BOption (b)

    Qeu

  3. COption (c)

    Kewue

  4. DOption (d)

    Queue

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Queue

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Queue"

Key Points

  • The word "queue" typically refers to a line or sequence of people or vehicles waiting for something, such as service, a turn, or entrance to a place. It can also refer to a waiting list for something, such as a reservation or a ticket.

Examples:

The queue for the concert stretched around the block.

We had to queue for an hour to get into the theme park.

The restaurant has a queue system for reservations.

The bank teller asked everyone to form a queue.

The computer system uses a queue to manage the processing of tasks.

I put my name on the queue for the next available appointment.

  • Thus, the correct spelling is "Queue"

Correct answer: Queue

Question 70

A sentence has been given with a blank to be filled with an appropriate word. Choose the correct alternative.

The government has come __________ with a new policy.

  1. AOption (a)

    upon

  2. BOption (b)

    on

  3. COption (c)

    in

  4. DOption (d)

    up

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

up

Why this answer is correct

The correct nswer is "up"

Key Points 

  • The correct answer is option 4) "up" in this context. The phrase "come up with" means to think of or invent something and it fits the context of the sentence, which is that the government has introduced a new policy.
  • Option 1) "upon" is not a common phrase in this context and does not convey the same meaning.
  • Option 2) "on" is used to indicate that something has happened or been implemented, but it would not fit the context of the sentence.
  • Option 3) "in" also doesn't convey the same meaning and does not fit the context.
  • Thus, the correct answer is "up"

Correct sentence: The government has come up with a new policy

Question 71

Find the part of the given sentence that has an error in it. If there is no error, choose 'No error'.

Dense mangrove forests about (1)/Florida's southwest coast form a protective (2)/barrier that absorbs storm surge from hurricanes (3)/.No error (4)

  1. AOption (a)

    3

  2. BOption (b)

    2

  3. COption (c)

    1

  4. DOption (d)

    4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "1"

Key Points

  • The error lies in the first part of the sentence "Dense mangrove forests about"
  • The error in this option is "about" should be "in" to indicate the position of the mangrove forests around Florida's southwest coast.
  • Second and third part are grammatically correct.

​Correct sentence: Dense mangrove forests in Florida's southwest coast form a protective barrier that absorbs storm surge from hurricanes.

Question 72

Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If no substitution is required, select 'No improvement' as your answer.

Ramesh wrote slow in his exam.

  1. AOption (a)

    wrote slowly

  2. BOption (b)

    write slow

  3. COption (c)

    No improvement

  4. DOption (d)

    written slowly

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

wrote slowly

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "wrote slowly"

Key Points 

  • The correct answer is 1) wrote slowly. The underlined segment "wrote slow" should be replaced with "wrote slowly" to indicate that Ramesh wrote at a slow pace, and also the sentence is in past tense, so it should be in past participle form.
  • Option 2) write slow is incorrect because it is in present tense and it is not the same as the original sentence.
  • Option 3) No improvement is incorrect because the original sentence is incorrect and needs improvement.
  • Option 4) written slowly is incorrect because it is the past participle form of the verb, it should be in past participle form if it is used in passive voice, but in this sentence it is not in passive voice, it is in active voice, so it should be in past participle form.

Question 73

A sentence has been given with a blank to be filled with an appropriate word. Choose the correct alternative.

She was upset because of his ________ comments.

  1. AOption (a)

    lousy

  2. BOption (b)

    bloomy

  3. COption (c)

    shrewd

  4. DOption (d)

    jovial

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

lousy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "lousy"

Key Points 

  • The correct answer is 1) lousy. The blank should be filled with "lousy" as it means bad or of poor quality, which fits the context of the sentence. She was upset because of his bad comments.
  • Option 2) bloomy is incorrect because it means full of blooms or flowers, which does not fit the context of the sentence.
  • Option 3) shrewd is incorrect because it means having or showing sharp powers of judgement, which does not fit the context of the sentence.
  • Option 4) jovial is incorrect because it means in a good mood, cheerful and lively, which does not fit the context of the sentence.

Correct sentence: She was upset because of his lousy comments.

Question 74

In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the ldiom/Phrase.

Pull the plug

  1. AOption (a)

    Disciplined and controlled

  2. BOption (b)

    To pamper a person

  3. COption (c)

    Prevent something from happening

  4. DOption (d)

    To be too lenient on somebody

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Prevent something from happening

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Prevent something from happening"

Key Points

  • The idiom "pull the plug" means to end something abruptly or prematurely. It often refers to ending a business, project, or relationship or to prevent something from happening"
  • For example:
  • "The company decided to pull the plug on the project after months of delays and budget overruns."
  • "After the argument, she decided to pull the plug on their relationship."
  • "The band's record label pulled the plug on their contract, so they had to find a new way to release their music."
  • In all these examples, the phrase "pull the plug" is used to describe a decision to end something before it is completed or before it has reached its natural conclusion. It implies that something is being stopped abruptly and prematurely.
  • Thus, as per the above explanation the correct answer is "Prevent something from happening"

Correct answer: Prevent something from happening

Question 75

the word that means the same as the given word.

Fleeting

  1. AOption (a)

    Shipping

  2. BOption (b)

    Ephemeral

  3. COption (c)

    Stagnant

  4. DOption (d)

    Fecund

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Ephemeral

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Ephemeral"

Key Points 

  • Fleeting: The adjective fleeting means lasting for a very short time, temporary, or transitory(क्षणभंगुर).
  • Example: "The summer was fleeting, and before we knew it, autumn was upon us."
  • Shipping: The noun shipping refers to the transportation of goods, cargo, or freight by sea or air(ढोने वाली).
  • Example: "The company specializes in international shipping, handling the logistics of moving goods across borders."
  • Stagnant: The adjective stagnant means not moving or flowing and often refers to water, it also means dull, inactive and unproductive(सुस्त).
  • Example: "The stagnant water in the pond had become a breeding ground for mosquitoes."
  • Ephemeral: is an adjective that means lasting for a very short time or having a very short life. It can also refer to something that is fleeting or transistor(अल्पकालिक)y.
  • *Examples:*The fireworks display was an ephemeral display of color and light.
  • Fecund: The adjective fecund means fertile, productive, and capable of producing abundant growth or development. It can also refer to the ability to produce offspring or new ideas(उपजाऊ).
  • Example: "The soil was fecund, and the farmer's crops flourished"
  • Thus, as per the above explanation, the word the means the same as the given word is "Ephemeral"

Correct answer: Ephemeral

Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Vitamin D deficiency may often go unrecognized, and many who see their doctor for aches, pains and fatigue end up being misdiagnosed as suffering from fibromyalgia. Actually, vitamin D deficiency retards calcium incorporation into the skeletal collagen matrix, resulting in aching bones. Chronic pain and muscle weakness may actually be very subtle, especially in the beginning. Remarkably, symptoms are being relieved when Vitamin D is given as doctors are beginning to take notice. Vitamin D receptors are found all over the body, including the immune cells. Consequently, vitamin D deficiency leads to lower immunity and a higher susceptibility to the flu. High blood pressure and depression are also linked to vitamin D deficiency, and maintaining normal to optimal levels of vitamin D is becoming part of the treatment regimens for these common medical conditions. The skin produces 90 percent of the body's vitamin D needs, under ultraviolet-B radiation from sunlight. Hence, inadequate sunlight exposure or insufficient absorption of UV-B rays by the skin lead to deficiency. In India, inadequate exposure to sunlight results from indoor lifestyle in urban areas and wearing head coverings. Besides, our darker skin contains more melanin pigment, which reduces the skin's ability to make vitamin D. In addition, air pollution contributes by reducing the amount of solar UV-B rays that reach the earth's surface, apart from deterring people from being outdoors. An Indian study confirmed that inhabitants of polluted areas are at a higher risk of deficiency.

Light skinned individuals require 20 minutes of exposure to direct sunlight three to four times a week in order to enable the skin to make adequate Vitamin D whereas those with darker skin (more melanin pigment) require 30-to-40 minute exposure three to four times a week. It is recommended to expose 18 percent of the body, that is arms without long sleeves and face without sunscreen. The ideal exposure time is between 11:00 am and 2:00 pm. However, in order to make vitamin D from sunlight, well-functioning liver and kidneys are essential. If the function of these organs is compromised, as happens with ageing, additional vitamin D supplements may be needed under a doctor's supervision

Question 76

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What is the ideal exposure time to take sunlight?

  1. AOption (a)

    Between 10:00 am and 2:00 pm

  2. BOption (b)

    Between 11:00 am and 1:00 pm

  3. COption (c)

    Between 11:00 pm and 2:00 am

  4. DOption (d)

    Between 11:00 am and 2:00 pm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Between 11:00 am and 2:00 pm

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Between 11:00 am and 2:00 pm"

Key Points

  • Refer to the line: The ideal exposure time is between 11:00 am and 2:00 pm. However, in order to make vitamin D from sunlight, well-functioning liver and kidneys are essential.
  • The the ideal exposure time to take sunlight is between 11:00 am and 2:00 pm.

Correct answer: "Between 11:00 am and 2:00 pm"

Question 77

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Identify the correct antonym of the word ‘encourage’ from the given passage? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Adequate

  2. BOption (b)

    Subtle

  3. COption (c)

    Deter

  4. DOption (d)

    Relieve

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Deter

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Deter"

Key Points

  • Let's understand the meaning of the given words.
  • Encourage: The verb encourage means to give support, confidence, or hope to someone, to motivate them to do something.
  • Example: "The coach encouraged the team to keep playing even when they were losing."
  • Adequate: The adjective adequate means sufficient, or enough to meet a particular need or requirement.
  • Example: "We have adequate supplies to last us through the winter."
  • Subtle: The adjective subtle means delicate or slight, not easily noticed or obvious, delicate in meaning or intent.
  • Example: "The subtle differences in color and texture are what make this painting so unique."
  • Deter: The verb deter means to prevent someone from doing something by making them think it is too difficult, dangerous, or unwise.
  • Example: "The high cost of tuition deterred many students from applying to the university."
  • Relieve: The verb relieve means to make something less severe or intense, to free someone from pain, discomfort, or distress.
  • Example: "The pain reliever helped to relieve the headache."
  • Thus, as per the above explanation the correct antonym of the word "encourage" is "Deter"

Correct answer: Deter

Question 78

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following is NOT the consequence of Vitamin D deficiency?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Darker skin  

  2. BOption (b)

    Lower immunity 

  3. COption (c)

    High blood pressure  

  4. DOption (d)

    Aching bones  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Darker skin  

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Darker skin"

Key Points

  • Refer to the lines: Vitamin D deficiency may often go unrecognized, and many who see their doctor for aches, pains and fatigue end up being misdiagnosed as suffering from fibromyalgia and  Consequently, vitamin D deficiency leads to lower immunity and a higher susceptibility to the flu. High blood pressure and depression are also linked to vitamin D deficiency
  • The passage suggents the consequence of Vitamin D deficiency are Lower immunity, High blood pressure, Arching Bones.
  • It does not suggests darker skin is the consequence of the deficiency of Vitamin D.

Correct answer: Darker skin

Question 79

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Why people with darker skin are not able to make Vitamin D?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Darker skin contains no melanin pigment, which reduces skin ability to make Vitamin D. 

  2. BOption (b)

    Darker skin is very dry, which increases the skin ability to make UV rays.  

  3. COption (c)

    Darker skin contains more melanin pigment, which reduces skin ability to make Vitamin D. 

  4. DOption (d)

    Darker skin contains no melanin pigment, which increases the skin ability to make more Vitamin D. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Darker skin contains more melanin pigment, which reduces skin ability to make Vitamin D. 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Darker skin contains more melanin pigment, which reduces skin ability to make Vitamin D."

Key Points

  • Refer to the line: Besides, our darker skin contains more melanin pigment, which reduces the skin's ability to make vitamin D.
  • The people with darker skin are not able to make Vitamin D because darker skin contains more melanin pigment, which reduces skin ability to make VItamin D.

Correct answer: Darker skin contains more melanin pigment, which reduces skin ability to make Vitamin D.

Question 80

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What can be the suitable title for the given passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    UV rays good or not? 

  2. BOption (b)

     "Vitamin D Deficiency, its Symptoms and Causes

  3. COption (c)

    Vitamin D and its disadvantage

  4. DOption (d)

    Perks of eating vitamin D supplements

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

 "Vitamin D Deficiency, its Symptoms and Causes

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  "Vitamin D Deficiency,  its Symptoms and Cause​"

Key Points

  • The most suitable title for this passage would be "Vitamin D Deficiency, its Symptoms and Causes" as it describes the effects of vitamin D deficiency on the body and discusses the factors that contribute to it.
  • *Thus, the most suitable title for this passage is "*Vitamin D Deficiency, its Symptoms, and Causes"

Correct answer: Vitamin D Deficiency, its Symptoms and Causes

General Hindi (20 questions)

Question 81

निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में दिए गए चार विकल्पों में से, उस विकल्प का चयन करें जो दिए गए मुहावरे के अर्थ को सर्वश्रेष्ठ रूप से व्यक्त करता है।

नारद मोह होना

  1. AOption (a)

    शान-शौकत दिखाना

  2. BOption (b)

    अमीरी पर गर्व करना

  3. COption (c)

    दौलत का अभिमान करना

  4. DOption (d)

    माया में पड़ना

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

माया में पड़ना

Why this answer is correct

'नारद मोह होना' मुहावरे का उचित अर्थ- 'माया में पड़ना' है।

Key Points 

मुहावराअर्थवाक्‍य प्रयोग
नारद मोह होनामाया में पड़नारमेश को तो नारद मोह हो गया है तभी वह हर समय गुम-सुम सा रहता है।

Important Pointsअन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प- 

मुहावराअर्थवाक्‍य प्रयोग
शान-शौकत दिखानाव्यर्थ बड़ाई करनामेरा दोस्त हमेशा अपने भाई की शान-शौकत दिखाता रहता है।
अमीरी पर गर्व करनाघमंड करनाराम को एक लॉटरी क्‍या लग गई अपनी अमीरी पर गर्व करता है।
दौलत का अभिमान करनारुपए/पैसे का घमंड करनामुकेश की सरकारी नौकरी जब से लगी है, तब से दौलत का अभिमान करने लगा है।

Additional Information 

मुहावराउदाहरण
मुहावरा का शाब्दिक अर्थ 'अभ्‍यास' है। मुहावरा शब्‍द अरबी भाषा का शब्‍द है। हिंदी में ऐसे वाक्‍यांशों को मुहावरा कहा जाता है। जो अपने साधारण अर्थ को छोड़कर विशेष अर्थ को व्‍यक्‍त करते हैं।अपनी खिचड़ी अलग पकाना-अर्थ- सबसे पृथक् काम करना।
वाक्य प्रयोग-वह अपनी खिचड़ी अलग पकाता है

Question 82

दिए गए वाक्य में उपयुक्त विराम चिह्न का चयन कीजिए।

हम किसी भी मनुष्य को भला बुरा कह देते हैं।

  1. AOption (a)

     ;

  2. BOption (b)

     " "

  3. COption (c)

     o

  4. DOption (d)

     -

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

 -

Why this answer is correct

'हम किसी भी मनुष्‍य को भला बुरा कह देते हैं।' इस वाक्‍य में योजक (-) चिह्न का प्रयोग होगा। 

Key Points

  • योजक चिह्न युक्‍त वाक्‍य- 'हम किसी भी मनुष्‍य को भला-बुरा कह देते हैं।'
चिह्नपरिभाषाउदाहरण
योजक (-)जब एक ही शब्‍द दोहराया जाता है अथवा समस्‍त शब्‍द के दोनों शब्‍द पृथक्-पृथक् दिखाने होते हैं तब योजक चिह्न का प्रयोग किया जाता है।माता-पिता, भाई-बहन

Important Points 

चिह्नपरिभाषाउदाहरण
अर्ध्‍द विराम (;)अर्ध या अर्ध्‍द का अर्थ है 'आधा'। जब पूर्ण विराम से कम तथा अल्‍प विराम से अधिक ठहरना पड़े तो वहॉं अर्ध्‍द विराम का प्रयोग किया जाता है।निरंतर प्रयत्नशील रहो; रुकना कायरता है।
दोहरा (युगल) उध्‍दरण  (" ")किसी व्‍यक्ति या विद्वान तथा पुस्‍तक के अवतरण या वाक्‍य को ज्‍यों का त्‍यों उध्‍दृत किया जाए, तो वहॉं दोहरा उध्‍दरण चिह्न का प्रयोग किया जाता है।"स्‍वतंत्रता हमारा जन्‍मसिध्‍द अधिकार है।"
लाघव (o)बड़े अंश को संक्षिप्‍त रूप में लिखने के लिए लाघव चिह्न का प्रयोग किया जाता है।अo बo योo - अल्‍प बचत योजना।

Question 83

दिए गए वाक्य में उपयुक्त शब्द का चयन करके रिक्त स्थान की पूर्ति कीजिए।

वस्तुतः _______ मनुष्य वही है जो मानवता का आदर करता है।

  1. AOption (a)

    सम्पूर्ण

  2. BOption (b)

    सहायता

  3. COption (c)

    सच्चा

  4. DOption (d)

    चरित्रवान

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

सच्चा

Why this answer is correct

रिक्‍त स्‍थान की पूर्ति के लिए सर्वाधिक उपयुक्‍त शब्‍द 'सच्‍चा' है। अन्‍य विकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

  • सम्‍पूर्ण वाक्‍य- "वस्‍तुत: सच्‍चा मनुष्‍य वही है जो मानवता का आदर करता है।"
  • सच्‍चा शब्‍द का अर्थ- सच बोलने वाला, सत्‍यवादी।
  • सच्‍चा का विलोम- झूठा।

अन्‍य विकल्‍प- 

शब्‍दअर्थ
सम्‍पूर्णजो पूर्ण रूप में हो
सहायतासहाय होने की अवस्था, मदद
चरित्रवानउत्तम चरित्रवाला, सदाचारी

Additional Information

  • उदयशंकर भट्ट हिन्‍दी साहित्‍य के प्रमुख नाटककार है।
  • उन्‍होंने अपना यज्ञ यथाविधि सम्‍पन्‍न किया।
  • जहॉं सफाई है वहॉं स्‍वास्‍थ्‍य है।

Question 84

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा शब्द देशज शब्द है?

  1. AOption (a)

    आतिशबाजी

  2. BOption (b)

    गड़बड़

  3. COption (c)

    आवारा

  4. DOption (d)

    अफ़सोस

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

गड़बड़

Why this answer is correct

'गड़बड़' देशज शब्‍द है। अन्‍य विकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

  • 'गड़बड़' देशज शब्‍द है।
  • गड़बड़ का अर्थ - अस्त-व्यस्त।

अन्‍य विकल्‍प- 

शब्‍दअर्थविदेशज
आतिशबाजीबारूद या गंधक भरकर बनाए गए खिलौने।फारसी
आवारानिरर्थक इधर-उधर घूमने वाला, निकम्‍मा।फारसी
अफ़सोसदु:ख, खेद।फारसी

Additional Information

शब्‍दपरिभाषाउदाहरण
देशजऐसे शब्‍द जो देश की अन्‍य या क्षेत्रीय भाषा से हिंदी में सम्मिलित हुए है, देशज शब्‍द कहलाते हैं।लोटा, थैला, कपास, गली आदि।
विदेशजअन्‍य देश की भाषा से आये हुए शब्‍द जो हिंदी भाषा में सम्मिलित हुए हैं, इन विदेशी भाषाओं में मुख्‍यत: फारसी, तुर्की, अरबी, उर्दू, अंग्रेजी और पुर्तगाली शामिल हैं।अदालत, औसत, कुश्‍ती, तलाश आदि।

Question 85

निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में से सरल वाक्य ज्ञात कीजिए।

  1. AOption (a)

    यदि ठंड ज़्यादा होती तो मैं बाहर नहीं जाता।

  2. BOption (b)

    ठंड बहुत ज़्यादा होने के कारण मैं बाहर नहीं गया।

  3. COption (c)

    ठंड बहुत ज्यादा था इसलिए मैं बाहर नहीं गया।

  4. DOption (d)

    जब ठंड बहुत ज़्यादा थी तब मैं बाहर नहीं गया।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

ठंड बहुत ज़्यादा होने के कारण मैं बाहर नहीं गया।

Why this answer is correct

'ठंड बहुत ज्‍़यादा होने के कारण मैं बाहर नहीं गया।' यह सरल वाक्‍य का उदाहरण है। 

Key Points

  • व्‍याकरण की दृष्टि से सरल वाक्‍य है- 'ठंड बहुत ज्‍़यादा होने के कारण मैं बाहर नहीं गया।'
  • अन्‍य सभी व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं।

Important Pointsअन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प- 

वाक्‍यप्रकार
यदि ठंड ज़्यादा होती तो मैं बाहर नहीं जाता।मिश्र वाक्‍य
ठंड बहुत ज्यादा था इसलिए मैं बाहर नहीं गया।वर्तनी संबंधी अशुध्दि।
जब ठंड बहुत ज़्यादा थी तब मैं बाहर नहीं गया।संयुक्‍त वाक्‍य

Additional Informationरचना के आधार पर वाक्‍य के तीन भेद हैं- 

वाक्‍यपरिभाषाउदाहरण
सरल वाक्‍यऐसा वाक्य जिसमे एक ही क्रिया एवं एक ही कर्ता होता है। या जिस वाक्य में एक ही उद्देश्य एवं एक ही विधेय होता है, वे वाक्य सरल वाक्य कहलाते हैं।स्‍कूल बंद होने पर लड़के घर जाने लगे।
संयुक्‍त वाक्‍यजिस वाक्य में दो या दो से अधिक स्वतंत्र या मुख्य उपवाक्य समानाधिकरण योजक से जुड़े हों, वह संयुक्त वाक्य कहलाता है। योजक शब्द − और, परंतु, इसलिए, तब आदि।राम आया और मोहन गया।
जटिल या मिश्र वाक्‍यजिस वाक्‍य में एक प्रधान उपवाक्‍य हो और शेष उपवाक्‍य उस पर आश्रित हों, उसे जटिल या मिश्र वाक्‍य कहा जाता है।अमित ने वह घर खरीदा जो उसके चाचा का था।

Question 86

निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में, दिए गए चार विकल्पों में से, उस विकल्प का चयन करें जो दिए गए मुहावरे के अर्थ को सर्वश्रेष्ठ रूप से व्यक्त करता है।

अंगारे उगलना

  1. AOption (a)

    अपशब्द कहना

  2. BOption (b)

    दुत्कारना

  3. COption (c)

    क्रोध में कठोर वचन बोलना

  4. DOption (d)

    आलोचना करना

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

क्रोध में कठोर वचन बोलना

Why this answer is correct

अंगारे उगलना मुहावरे का उचित अर्थ 'क्रोध में कठोर वचन बोलना' है। 

Key Points 

मुहावराअर्थवाक्‍य प्रयोग
अंगारे उगलनाक्रोध में कठोर वचन बोलना।पिताजी के मना करने के बाद भी रमेश खेलने चला गया यह जान पिता जी अंगारे उगलने लगे।

Important Pointsअन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प- 

मुहावराअर्थवाक्‍य प्रयोग
अपशब्‍द कहनागाली बकनावह आधे घंटे से गाली दे रहा है।
दुत्‍कारनाअपमानपूर्वक फटकारनाराम ने भिक्षुक को भीख मांगने पर भिक्षुक को दुत्‍कारना शुरू कर दिया।
आलोचना करनादोष निकालनाराम का स्‍वभाव ही ऐसा है, जब उसे क्रोध आता है तो वह सबकी आलोचना करने लगता है।

Additional Information 

मुहावराउदाहरण
मुहावरा का शाब्दिक अर्थ 'अभ्‍यास' है। मुहावरा शब्‍द अरबी भाषा का शब्‍द है। हिंदी में ऐसे वाक्‍यांशों को मुहावरा कहा जाता है। जो अपने साधारण अर्थ को छोड़कर विशेष अर्थ को व्‍यक्‍त करते हैं।अपनी खिचड़ी अलग पकाना-अर्थ- सबसे पृथक् काम करना।
वाक्य प्रयोग-वह अपनी खिचड़ी अलग पकाता है

Question 87

दिए गए शब्द युग्म का सही शब्द युग्म ज्ञात कीजिए।

अंधकारि ∶ अंधकारी

  1. AOption (a)

    अहंकार ∶ एक कंद

  2. BOption (b)

    समुद्र ∶ धृष्टता

  3. COption (c)

    धृष्टता ∶ महादेव

  4. DOption (d)

    महादेव ∶ भैरव राग

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

महादेव ∶ भैरव राग

Why this answer is correct

'अंधकारि : अंधकारी' शब्‍द का सही युग्‍म शब्‍द "महादेव : भैरव राग" है।  

Key Points

  • अंधकारि शब्‍द का अर्थ- महादेव
  • अंधकारी शब्‍द का अर्थ- भैरव राग
  • अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प अनुचित उत्तर हैं।

अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प- 

शब्‍दअर्थ
अहंकारघमंड
एक कंदशकरकंद
समुद्रसागर
धृष्टताउद्दंडता

Additional Information 

परिभाषाउदाहरण
शब्‍द-युग्‍म- हिंदी में बहुत से ऐसे शब्‍दों का प्रयोग होता है, जिनका उच्‍चारण प्राय: समान होता है। कुछ ऐसे शब्‍द होते हैं जो उच्‍चारण की दृष्टि से असमान होते हुए भी समानता का भ्रम उत्‍पन्‍न करते हैं। ऐसे शब्‍दों को शब्‍द-युग्‍म या समरूपी भिन्‍नार्थक शब्‍द कहते हैं।अभय- निर्भय   उभय- दोनों

Question 88

दिए गए शब्दों में शुद्ध वर्तनी का चयन कीजिए।

  1. AOption (a)

    भिच्छु

  2. BOption (b)

    भिष्क्षु

  3. COption (c)

    भिच्चु

  4. DOption (d)

    भिक्षु

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

भिक्षु

Why this answer is correct

'भिक्षु' शब्‍द की वर्तनी शुध्‍द है।

Key Points

  • वर्तनी की दृष्टि से शुध्‍द शब्‍द 'भिक्षु' है।
  • भिक्षु का अर्थ- भिखमंगा, साधु-संन्यासी।
  • भिक्षु शब्‍द के पर्यायवाची- भिखारी, संन्यासी, साधु, भिक्षुक, भिखमंगा आदि।
  • भिक्षु का व‍िलोम शब्‍द- दाता।
  • अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍पों की वर्तनी अशुध्‍द हैं।

Important Points 

अशुध्‍द शब्‍दशुध्‍द शब्‍द
महत्‍वमहत्त्व
उज्‍जवलउज्‍ज्‍वल
कवियित्रीक‍वयित्री
रसायणरसायन

Additional Information 

वर्तनी- किसी शब्‍द में आए हुए अक्षरों को मात्राओं सहित कहने या लिखने की रीति को वर्तनी कहते है। वर्तनी का सम्‍बन्‍ध उच्‍चारण से होता है।

Question 89

दिए गए शब्द की संधि विच्छेद कीजिए।

अब्धि

  1. AOption (a)

    अप् + धि

  2. BOption (b)

    अव + धि

  3. COption (c)

    अप् + धी

  4. DOption (d)

    अब + धी

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

अप् + धि

Why this answer is correct

'अप् + धि = अब्धि' सही संधि विच्‍छेद है। अन्‍य विकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

  • अब्धि = अप् + धि।
  • अब्धि शब्‍द में व्‍यंजन संधि है।
संधिपरिभाषाउदाहरण
व्‍यंजनएक व्‍यंजन से दूसरे व्‍यंजन या स्‍वर के मेल से विकार उत्‍पन्‍न होता है।अहम् + कार = अहंकार।

Additional Information

संधि- दो शब्‍दों के मेल से जो विकार (परिवर्तन) होता है उसे संधि कहते है। संधि के तीन प्रकार हैं-
स्‍वर संधिस्‍वर वर्ण के साथ स्‍वर वर्ण के मेल से विकार उत्‍पन्‍न होता है। जैसे- विद्या +अर्थी = विद्यार्थी, महा + ईश = महेश।
व्‍यंजन संधिएक व्‍यंजन से दूसरे व्‍यंजन या स्‍वर के मेल से  विकार उत्‍पन्‍न होता है। जैसे- अहम् + कार = अहंकार, उत् + लास = उल्‍लास।
विसर्ग संधिविसर्ग के साथ स्‍वर या व्‍यंजन के मेल से विकार उत्‍पन्‍न होता है। जैसे - दु: + आत्‍मा = दुरात्‍मा, नि: + कपट = निष्‍कपट।

Question 90

निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में से सरल वाक्य ज्ञात कीजिए।

  1. AOption (a)

    माली ने पौधे लगा दिए और वह चला गया।

  2. BOption (b)

    जब माली ने पौधे लगा दिए, तब वह चला गया।

  3. COption (c)

    माली ने पौधे लगा दिए इसलिए वह चला गया।

  4. DOption (d)

    माली पौधे लगाते ही चला गया।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

माली पौधे लगाते ही चला गया।

Why this answer is correct

'माली पौधे लगाते ही चला गया।' वाक्‍य सरल वाक्‍य का उदाहरण है। 

Key Points

  • व्‍याकरण की दृष्टि से सरल वाक्‍य है- 'माली पौधे लगाते ही चला गया।'
  • अन्‍य सभी व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं।

Important Pointsअन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प- 

वाक्‍यप्रकार
माली ने पौधे लगा दिए और वह चला गया।संयुक्‍त वाक्‍य
जब माली ने पौधे लगा दिए, तब वह चला गया।संयुक्‍त वाक्‍य
माली ने पौधे लगा दिए इसलिए वह चला गया।संयुक्‍त वाक्‍य

Additional Informationरचना के आधार पर वाक्‍य के तीन भेद हैं- 

वाक्‍यपरिभाषाउदाहरण
सरल वाक्‍यऐसा वाक्य जिसमे एक ही क्रिया एवं एक ही कर्ता होता है। या जिस वाक्य में एक ही उद्देश्य एवं एक ही विधेय होता है, वे वाक्य सरल वाक्य कहलाते हैं।स्‍कूल बंद होने पर लड़के घर जाने लगे।
संयुक्‍त वाक्‍यजिस वाक्य में दो या दो से अधिक स्वतंत्र या मुख्य उपवाक्य समानाधिकरण योजक से जुड़े हों, वह संयुक्त वाक्य कहलाता है। योजक शब्द − और, परंतु, इसलिए, तब आदि।राम आया और मोहन गया।
जटिल या मिश्र वाक्‍यजिस वाक्‍य में एक प्रधान उपवाक्‍य हो और शेष उपवाक्‍य उस पर आश्रित हों, उसे जटिल या मिश्र वाक्‍य कहा जाता है।अमित ने वह घर खरीदा जो उसके चाचा का था।

Question 91

निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में से संयुक्त वाक्य ज्ञात कीजिए।

  1. AOption (a)

    राम, सीता के घर किताबे देने गया था।

  2. BOption (b)

    "रमा, सीता के घर गई है और उसे किताबें दी ।"

  3. COption (c)

    रमा, सीता के घर गयी जब उसे किताबे देनी थी।

  4. DOption (d)

    जब वह उसके घर गई थी तब उसे किताबे देनी थी।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

"रमा, सीता के घर गई है और उसे किताबें दी ।"

Why this answer is correct

"रमा, सीता के घर गई है और उसे किताबें दी" ।संयुक्‍त वाक्‍य का उदाहरण है। 

Key Points

  • संयुक्‍त वाक्‍य- "रमा, सीता के घर गई है और उसे किताबें दी ।"
वाक्‍यपरिभाषाउदाहरण
संयुक्‍तजिस वाक्य में दो या दो से अधिक स्वतंत्र या मुख्य उपवाक्य समानाधिकरण योजक से जुड़े हों, वह संयुक्त वाक्य कहलाता है। योजक शब्द− और, क्‍योंकि, परंतु, इसलिए आदि।राम आया और मोहन गया।

अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प- 

वाक्‍यप्रकार
राम, सीता के घर किताबे देने गया था।सरल वाक्‍य
रमा, सीता के घर गयी जब उसे किताबे देनी थी।मिश्र वाक्‍य
जब वह उसके घर गई थी तब उसे किताबे देनी थी।मिश्र वाक्‍य

Additional Information रचना के आधार पर वाक्‍य के तीन भेद हैं- 

वाक्‍यपरिभाषाउदाहरण
सरल वाक्‍यऐसा वाक्य जिसमे एक ही क्रिया एवं एक ही कर्ता होता है। या जिस वाक्य में एक ही उद्देश्य एवं एक ही विधेय होता है, वे वाक्य सरल वाक्य कहलाते हैं।स्‍कूल बंद होने पर लड़के घर जाने लगे।
संयुक्‍त वाक्‍यजिस वाक्य में दो या दो से अधिक स्वतंत्र या मुख्य उपवाक्य समानाधिकरण योजक से जुड़े हों, वह संयुक्त वाक्य कहलाता है। योजक शब्द − और, परंतु, इसलिए आदि।राम आया और मोहन गया।
जटिल या मिश्र वाक्‍यजिस वाक्‍य में एक प्रधान उपवाक्‍य हो और शेष उपवाक्‍य उस पर आश्रित हों, उसे जटिल या मिश्र वाक्‍य कहा जाता है।अमित ने वह घर खरीदा जो उसके चाचा का था।

Question 92

दिए गए शब्द का प्रत्यय ज्ञात कीजिए।

लेखक

  1. AOption (a)

    अक

  2. BOption (b)

    खेक

  3. COption (c)

    लेख

  4. DOption (d)

    खक

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

अक

Why this answer is correct

लेखक शब्‍द में 'अक' प्रत्‍यय है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

  • लेखक = लेख + अक।
  • लेखक शब्‍द में 'लेख' मूल शब्‍द और 'अक' प्रत्‍यय है।
  • लेखक का अर्थ- लेखन कार्य करनेवाला।
  • लेखक का विलोम शब्‍द- लेखिका।

Additional Information 

परिभाषाउदाहरण
प्रत्‍यय-  जब कोई शब्‍दांश किसी भी मूल शब्‍द के अंत में जुड़ कर और उसके अर्थ में पूरी तरीके से प‍रिवर्तन कर देता है, तो इसे हम प्रत्‍यय कहते हैं।सफल + ता = सफलता अच्छा + ई = अच्छाई

Question 93

दिए गए वाक्य में उपयुक्त विराम चिह्न का चयन कीजिए ।

मोहन इधर आओ।

  1. AOption (a)

     -

  2. BOption (b)

    :-

  3. COption (c)

    o

  4. DOption (d)

    !

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

!

Why this answer is correct

'मोहन इधर आओ।' वाक्‍य में (!) विस्‍मयादिबोधक चिह्न का प्रयोग होगा। 

Key Points

  • विस्‍मयादिबोधक चिह्न युक्‍त वाक्‍य- 'मोहन! इधर आओ।'
चिह्नपरिभाषाउदाहरण
विस्‍मयादिबोधक (!)जब वाक्‍य में हर्ष, विषाद, विस्‍मय, घृणा, आश्चर्य, करुणा, भय इत्‍यादि का भाव व्‍यक्‍त हो तो वहॉं विस्‍मयादिबोधक (!) चिह्न का प्रयोग किया जाता है।मोहन! इधर आओ।

Important Pointsअन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प- 

चिह्नपरिभाषाउदाहरण
योजक संयोजक (-)जब एक ही शब्‍द दोहराया जाता है अथवा समस्‍त शब्‍द के दोनों शब्‍द पृथक्-पृथक् दिखाने होते हैं तब योजक चिह्न का प्रयोग किया जाता है।माता-पिता, भाई-बहन
विवरण (:-)इस चिह्न का प्रयोग वाक्‍यांश में जानकारी, सूचना या निर्देश आदि को दर्शाने या विवरण देने के लिए किया जाता है।कृपया निम्‍नलिखित नियमों का पालन करें :-
लाघव (o)बड़े अंश को संक्षिप्‍त रूप में लिखने के लिए लाघव चिह्न का प्रयोग किया जाता है।अo बo योo - अल्‍प बचत योजना।

Question 94

दिए गए वाक्‍य का काल ज्ञात कीजिए।

भारत 15 अगस्त 1947 को आज़ाद हुआ था।

  1. AOption (a)

    संदिग्ध भूतकाल

  2. BOption (b)

    अपूर्ण भूतकाल

  3. COption (c)

    पूर्ण भूतकाल

  4. DOption (d)

    समयकालीन भूतकाल

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

पूर्ण भूतकाल

Why this answer is correct

'भारत 15 अगस्त 1947 को आज़ाद हुआ था।' यह वाक्‍य 'पूर्ण भूतकाल' का है। 

Key Points'भारत 15 अगस्त 1947 को आज़ाद हुआ था।' वाक्‍य का काल- पूर्ण भूतकाल है। 

कालपरिभाषाउदाहरण
पूर्ण भूतकालक्रिया के जिस रूप से यह पता चलता है की कार्य निश्चित किये गये समय से पहले ही पूरा हो चुका था उसे पूर्ण भूतकाल कहते हैं।भारत 15 अगस्त 1947 को आज़ाद हुआ था।

Additional Information 

भूतकाल- भूतकाल का अर्थ होता है बिता हुआ। क्रिया के जिस रूप से बीते हुए समय का पता चले उसे भूतकाल कहते हैं। अर्थात् जिस क्रिया से कार्य के समाप्त होने का पता चले उसे भूतकाल कहते हैं।

भूतकाल के 6 भेद हैं- 

कालपरिभाषाउदाहरण
सामान्‍य भूतकालजिस क्रिया के भूतकाल में क्रिया के सामान्य रूप से बीते समय में पूरा होने का संकेत मिले उसे सामान्य भूतकाल कहते हैं।मनोज घर गया।
आसन्न भूतकालआसन्न का अर्थ होता है, निकट। जिस क्रिया के अभी-अभी या निकट के भूतकाल में पूरा होने का पता चले उसे आसन्न भूतकाल कहते हैं।मैं अभी सोकर उठा हूँ।
पूर्ण भूतकालक्रिया के जिस रूप से यह पता चलता है की कार्य निश्चित किये गये समय से पहले ही पूरा हो चुका था उसे पूर्ण भूतकाल कहते हैं।अर्जुन ने कर्ण को मारा था।
अपूर्ण भूतकालक्रिया के जिस रूप से यह पता चलता है कि कार्य भूतकाल में पूरा नहीं हुआ था अपितु नियमित रूप से जारी रहा उसे अपूर्ण भूतकाल कहते हैं।वह हॉकी खेल रहा था।
संदिग्‍ध भूतकालक्रिया के जिस रूप से अतीत में हुए या करे हुए कार्य पर संदेह प्रकट किया जाये उसे संदिग��ध भूतकाल कहते हैं।बस छूट गई होगी।
हेतुहेतुमद् भूतकालक्रिया के जिस रूप से यह पता चले कि कार्य हो सकता था लेकिन दूसरे कार्य की वजह से हुआ नहीं उसे हेतुहेतुमद् भूतकाल कहते हैं।यदि मैं आता तो वह चला जाता।

Question 95

दिए गए शब्द का पर्यायवाची शब्द ज्ञात कीजिए।

मेघ

  1. AOption (a)

    कुंभ 

  2. BOption (b)

    वारिद

  3. COption (c)

    मदकल

  4. DOption (d)

    सहचर

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

वारिद

Why this answer is correct

मेघ शब्‍द का उचित पर्यायवाची शब्‍द 'वारिद' है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points 

शब्‍दपर्यायवाची
मेघघन, जलधर, जलद, नीरद, पयोद, पयोधर, अम्बुद, धराधर, वारिवाह, वारिधर, बादल आदि।

Important Points अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प- 

शब्‍दपर्यायवाची
कुंभकलश, घड़ा, घट, गागर आदि।
मदकलमतवाला, बावला, मस्त, पागल, मदोन्मत्त आदि।
सहचरदोस्त, भीत, सुह्रद, मित्र, सखा आदि।

Additional Information 

शब्‍दपरिभाषाउदाहरण
पर्यायवाची या  समानार्थीजिन शब्‍दों से समान अथवा आंशिक समान अर्थ का बोध होता है, उसे पर्यायवाची शब्‍द कहते है। 'पर्यायवाची' शब्‍द को 'समानार्थी' शब्‍द भी कहा जाता है।यमुना-अर्कजा, रविजा, सूर्यजा आदि।

एक गद्यांश दिया गया है। गद्यांश के आधार पर पाँच प्रश्न दिए गए हैं। गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़ें तथा प्रत्येक प्रश्न में चार विकल्पों में से सही विकल्प चुने ।

मनुष्य और पर्यावरण इन दोनों का संबंध सबसे पुराना है। मनुष्य को इस पर्यावरण अन्य प्रकार चीज़ उपलब्ध होती हैं। प्रकृति यह मानवी जीवन को मिली हुई एक देन हैं। इसके कारण इस धरती पर मनुष्य और सभी सजीव सृष्टि यानि पशु-पक्षी, जानवर आदि निवास करते हैं। मनुष्य को इस प्रकृति के द्वारा जंगल, पहाड़, पर्वत, नदी यह सभी चीज़े उपहार के रूप में दी हैं। इन सभी के बिना कोई भी मनुष्य या वन्य जीव अपने जीवन की कल्पना नहीं कर सकते हैं। इस पर्यावरण में अन्य प्रकार के वन्य जीव रहते हैं। जिनका आकार, रंग-रूप, उनकी जीवन शैली तथा राहणीमान अलग-अलग हैं। वन्य जीवों के कारण इस प्रकृति की शोभा और बढ़ जाती हैं। वन्य जीव वातावरण के सुंदरता को बनाये रखने के लिए महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका निभाते हैं। मानव अपनी सुख-सुविधाओं के लिए वनों की कटाई करने लगा हैं क्योंकि वनों से मनुष्य को विविध प्रकार की साधन संपत्ति मिलती हैं। उसका उपयोग मनुष्य अपने जीवन में करता हैं। मनुष्य उस वनों को नष्ट करके वन्य जीवों का घर उजाड़ते हैं। इसके कारण पर्यावरण का संतुलन बिगड़ने लगा हैं। धरती पर अन्य प्रकार की आपदाएं भी आने लगी हैं। इसके कारण मनुष्य से लेकर पूरे वन्य जीवों को भी बहुत नुकसान पहुँच रहा हैं। इसके कारण वन्य जीवों की प्रजाति नष्ट होने लगी हैं। मनुष्य को अपना अस्तित्व बनाकर रखने के लिए पर्यावरण का संरक्षण करना आवयश्क है। मनुष्य को वन्य जीवों को बचाकर रखना हैं, तो उन्हें अन्य प्रकार के प्रदूषण और जंगलो की कटाई पर प्रतिबंध लगाना होगा।

Question 96

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

मनुष्य अपनी सुख-सुविधाओं के लिए क्या करता है?

  1. AOption (a)

    जीवों को बचाना

  2. BOption (b)

    पर्यावरण का संरक्षण

  3. COption (c)

    वनों की कटाई

  4. DOption (d)

    वातावरण की सुन्दरता

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

वनों की कटाई

Why this answer is correct

मनुष्य अपनी सुख-सुविधाओं के लिए वनों की कटाई करता है।

  • गद्यांश के अनुसार-
  • वन्य जीव वातावरण के सुंदरता को बनाये रखने के लिए महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका निभाते हैं।
  • मानव अपनी सुख-सुविधाओं के लिए वनों की कटाई करने लगा हैं,
  • क्योंकि वनों से मनुष्य को विविध प्रकार की साधन संपत्ति मिलती हैं। ​

Key Points

  • वन- जंगल, कानन, बीहड़, विटप, विपिन।

Additional Informationपर्यावरण-

  • चारों ओर से घेरे हुए।

संरक्षण-

  • रक्षा करने की क्रिया या भाव, पूरी देख-रेख।

सुन्दरता-

  • सुंदर होने का भाव।

Question 97

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

मनुष्य को वनों की कटाई करने से क्या प्राप्त होता है?

  1. AOption (a)

    साधन संपत्ति

  2. BOption (b)

    आरामदायक जीवन

  3. COption (c)

    पर्यावरण का संरक्षण

  4. DOption (d)

    सजीव सृष्टि

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

साधन संपत्ति

Why this answer is correct

मनुष्य को वनों की कटाई करने से साधन संपत्ति प्राप्त होता है।

  • गद्यांश के अनुसार-
  • ​मानव अपनी सुख-सुविधाओं के लिए वनों की कटाई करने लगा हैं
  • क्योंकि वनों से मनुष्य को विविध प्रकार की साधन संपत्ति मिलती हैं।
  • उसका उपयोग मनुष्य अपने जीवन में करता हैं।

Key Points

  • साधन- किसी कार्य को पूर्ण करने का ज़रिया या माध्यम।
  • संपत्ति- धन दौलत, जायदाद।

Additional Informationआरामदायक-

  • आराम और सुकून देने वाला।

संरक्षण-

  • रक्षा करने की क्रिया या भाव, पूरी देख-रेख।

सजीव-

  • जिसमें जीवन या प्राण हो।

सृष्टि-

  • एक साथ उत्पत्ति या आविर्भाव।

Question 98

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

मनुष्य को उपहार के रूप में क्या दिया है?

  1. AOption (a)

    प्रकृति

  2. BOption (b)

    प्रदूषण

  3. COption (c)

    आपदाएं

  4. DOption (d)

    संतुलन बिगड़ना

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

प्रकृति

Why this answer is correct

मनुष्य को उपहार के रूप में प्रकृति दिया है।

  • गद्यांश के अनुसार-
  • मनुष्य को इस पर्यावरण अन्य प्रकार चीज़ उपलब्ध होती हैं।
  • प्रकृति यह मानवी जीवन को मिली हुई एक देन हैं।
  • इसके कारण इस धरती पर मनुष्य और सभी सजीव सृष्टि यानि पशु- पक्षी, जानवर आदि निवास करते हैं।

Key Points

  • प्रकृति- कुदरत, स्वभाव, शील, तासीर, मिजाज।

Additional Informationप्रदूषण-

  • वायु, जल, मिट्टी आदि का अवांछित द्रव्यों से दूषित होना।

आपदा-

  • विपदा, संकट, आफ़त, मुसीबत।

संतुलन-

  • सभी पक्षों का यथा स्थान होना।

एक गद्यांश दिया गया है। गद्यांश के आधार पर पाँच प्रश्न दिए गए हैं। गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़ें तथा प्रत्येक प्रश्न में चार विकल्पों में से सही विकल्प चुने ।

मनुष्य और पर्यावरण इन दोनों का संबंध सबसे पुराना है। मनुष्य को इस पर्यावरण अन्य प्रकार चीज़ उपलब्ध होती हैं। प्रकृति यह मानवी जीवन को मिली हुई एक देन हैं। इसके कारण इस धरती पर मनुष्य और सभी सजीव सृष्टि यानि पशु-पक्षी, जानवर आदि निवास करते हैं। मनुष्य को इस प्रकृति के द्वारा जंगल, पहाड़, पर्वत, नदी यह सभी चीज़े उपहार के रूप में दी हैं। इन सभी के बिना कोई भी मनुष्य या वन्य जीव अपने जीवन की कल्पना नहीं कर सकते हैं। इस पर्यावरण में अन्य प्रकार के वन्य जीव रहते हैं। जिनका आकार, रंग-रूप, उनकी जीवन शैली तथा राहणीमान अलग-अलग हैं। वन्य जीवों के कारण इस प्रकृति की शोभा और बढ़ जाती हैं। वन्य जीव वा��ावरण के सुंदरता को बनाये रखने के लिए महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका निभाते हैं। मानव अपनी सुख-सुविधाओं के लिए वनों की कटाई करने लगा हैं क्योंकि वनों से मनुष्य को विविध प्रकार की साधन संपत्ति मिलती हैं। उसका उपयोग मनुष्य अपने जीवन में करता हैं। मनुष्य उस वनों को नष्ट करके वन्य जीवों का घर उजाड़ते हैं। इसके कारण पर्यावरण का संतुलन बिगड़ने लगा हैं। धरती पर अन्य प्रकार की आपदाएं भी आने लगी हैं। इसके कारण मनुष्य से लेकर पूरे वन्य जीवों को भी बहुत नुकसान पहुँच रहा हैं। इसके कारण वन्य जीवों की प्रजाति नष्ट होने लगी हैं। मनुष्य को अपना अस्तित्व बनाकर रखने के लिए पर्यावरण का संरक्षण करना आवयश्क है। मनुष्य को वन्य जीवों को बचाकर रखना हैं, तो उन्हें अन्य प्रकार के प्रदूषण और जंगलो की कटाई पर प्रतिबंध लगाना होगा।

Question 99

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

वातावरण की सुन्दरता बनाये रखने के लिए कौन महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका निभाते है?

  1. AOption (a)

    रंग-रूप

  2. BOption (b)

    वन्य जीव

  3. COption (c)

    प्रतिबंध

  4. DOption (d)

    जीवन शैली

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

वन्य जीव

Why this answer is correct

वातावरण की सुन्दरता बनाये रखने के लिए वन्य जीव महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका निभाते है।

  • गद्यांश के अनुसार-​
  • वन्य जीवों के कारण इस प्रकृति की शोभा और बढ़ जाती हैं।
  • वन्य जीव वातावरण के सुंदरता को बनाये रखने के लिए महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका निभाते हैं।
  • मानव अपनी सुख-सुविधाओं के लिए वनों की कटाई करने लगा हैं
  • क्योंकि वनों से मनुष्य को विविध प्रकार की साधन संपत्ति मिलती हैं।

Key Points

  • वन्य- वन में उत्पन्न होनेवाला, जंगली।

Additional Informationप्रतिबंध-

  • बाँधने की क्रिया, बंधन।

शैली-

  • ढंग, तरीका, रीति।

Question 100

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

उपर्युक्त गद्यांश का उपयुक्त शीर्षक क्या होगा?

  1. AOption (a)

    वन्य जीव संरक्षण

  2. BOption (b)

    जीवन की कल्पना

  3. COption (c)

    सुख-सुविधाएं

  4. DOption (d)

    जंगलों की कटाई

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

वन्य जीव संरक्षण

Why this answer is correct

उपर्युक्त गद्यांश का उपयुक्त शीर्षक होगा- वन्य जीव संरक्षण

  • गद्यांश के अनुसार-
  • ​पेड़-पौधे और जानवरों की प्रजातियों को विलुप्त होने से बचाने के लिए किए वन्यजीव संरक्षण की आवश्यकताओं का उल्लेख किया गया है।

Key Points

  • वन्य- वन में उत्पन्न होनेवाला, जंगली।
  • संरक्षण- रक्षा करने की क्रिया या भाव।

Additional Informationकल्पना-

  • मन की वह शक्ति जो अप्रत्यक्ष विषयों का रूप, चित्र उसके सामने ला देती है।

जंगल-

  • विपिन, कानन, वन, अरण्य, गहन, अख्य, कान्तार।

Discipline 1 (20 questions)

Question 101

Who was the chairman of the Simon Commission?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sir Albert Simon

  2. BOption (b)

    Sir Munroe Wilson

  3. COption (c)

    Sir John Simon

  4. DOption (d)

    Sir Cole Simon

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Sir John Simon

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sir John Simon.

Key Points

  • The Simon Commission was a group appointed in Novemeber 1927 by the British Conservative government.
  • It was appointed under Stanley Baldwin to report on the working of the Indian Constitution established by the Government of India Act of 1919.
  • It was a group of seven members of parliament under the chairmanship of Sir John Simon.
  • The Simon Commission was also known as the Indian Statutory Commission.
  • The commission was boycotted by the Indian National Congress and other Indian political parties.

 Thus, we can say that the chairman of the Simon Commission was Sir John Simon.

Question 102

Who brought the strife between Swarajists and no changers to an end on November 6, 1924?

  1. AOption (a)

    Anil Baran Roy

  2. BOption (b)

    Motilal Nehru

  3. COption (c)

    Mahatma Gandhi

  4. DOption (d)

    S. C. Mitra

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Mahatma Gandhi

Why this answer is correct

  • Swarajists were led by CR Das and Motilal Nehru and believed that Counsils to be used as a tool to register their Protest against Colonial Government and its Policies.
  • No Changers were led by Rajendra Prasad and Vallabh Bhai Patel and advocated Council Entry and focussed on Constructive Work in the Country.
  • Gandhiji was angered by the government crackdown on revolutionary terrorists and Swarajists towards end of 1924. He decided to show his solidarity with the Swarajists by surrendering to their wishes.
  • On 6 November 1924, Gandhiji brought the strife between the Swarajists and no-changers to an end by signing a joint statement with Das and Motilal that the Swarajist Party would carry on work in the legislatures on behalf of the Congress and as an integral part of the Congress.
  • This decision was endorsed in December at the Belgaum session of the Congress over which Gandhiji presided.
  • He also gave the Swarajists a majority of seats on his Working Committee.

Question 103

The important political tendency at the time of the 1917 Russian Revolution was _______.

I. Populists and Socialist Revolutionaries.

II. Liberals and the Social Democrats

  1. AOption (a)

    Neither I nor II

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II

  3. COption (c)

    Only I

  4. DOption (d)

    Both I and II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both I and II

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

  • Russian Revolution of 1917 was one of the most explosive events of the 20th century.
  • The series of events involved firstly, the overthrow of the autocracy, then the overthrow of the liberal Provisional government (Duma).
  • It resulted in the establishment of the Soviet power under the control of the Bolshevik party.
  • The Socialist Revolutionaries were agrarian socialists and supporters of a democratic socialist Russian Republic.
  • Populism is a name given to the Russian intelligentsia who opposed the Tsarist regime and industrialisation.
  • Immediately after the February Revolution, the defeat of the right-wing monarchist parties and political groups took place, the struggle between the socialist parties (Social Revolutionaries, Bolsheviks, Mensheviks) and liberals on one hand and the struggle between moderate socialists and radicals.

 Thus, we can say that the important political tendency at the time of the 1917 Russian Revolution was Populists and Socialist-Revolutionaries as well as Liberals and Social Democrats.

Question 104

In context of French Revolution, which of the following statements is correct regarding the declaration of Rights of Man and Citizen?

I. It was declared on August 26, 1789.

II. It has universal principles.

III. It was written by Thomas Jefferson.

  1. AOption (a)

    II and III

  2. BOption (b)

    I and III

  3. COption (c)

    I and II

  4. DOption (d)

    Only I

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

I and II

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is I and II.

Key Points

  • Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizen was one of the most basic charters of human liberties, containing the principles that inspired the French revolution.
  • The Declaration was declared on August 26, 1789.
  • The basic principle of the Declaration was that "all men are born and remain free and equal in rights".
  • It was drafted by the Abbe Seiyes and Marquis de Lafayette, in consultation with Thomas Jefferson.
  • It is a human civil rights document and was set by France's National Constituent Assembly in 1789.

 Thus, we can say that in the context of the French Revolution, the Declaration of Rights of Man and Citizen was declared on August 26, 1789, and it includes universal rights.

Confusion Points

  • It was drafted by the Abbe Seiyes and Marquis de Lafayette, in consultation with Thomas Jefferson and not written by Thomas Jefferson himself.

Question 105

The French revolution took place for the establishment of _______.

I. Egalitarian Society

II. Feudalism

  1. AOption (a)

    Neither I nor II

  2. BOption (b)

    Both I and II

  3. COption (c)

    Only II

  4. DOption (d)

    Only I

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Only I

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only I.

Key Points

  • In an egalitarian society, all are considered equal regardless of gender, age, race or religion.
  • French Revolution brought about the enlightenment principles and democracy, creating a rational and egalitarian society.
  • The French Revolution was a watershed event in modern European history that started in 1789 and ended in 1799.
  • The Revolution took place for the establishment of an Egalitarian Society.
  • It put an end to the French monarchy, feudalism, and brought new ideas of liberty and freedom for the people.

Thus, we can say that the French revolution took place for the establishment of an Egalitarian Society.

Question 106

Which of the following pairs of 'Event - Year' is NOT correct?

I. Simon Commission - 1931

II. Butler Commission - 1927

III. Muddiman Committee - 1924

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I

  2. BOption (b)

    I and III

  3. COption (c)

    I and II

  4. DOption (d)

    II and III

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only I

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only I.

Key Points

  • The Indian Statutory Commission is also known as the Simon Commission arrived in India in 1928.
  • It was appointed in November 1927 by the British Conservative Government to report on the working of the Indian Constitution.
  • The Harcourt Butler Commission was appointed in 1927 to investigate the relationship between the paramount power of the British Raj and rulers of Princely states.
  • The Muddiman Commission (1924) was organized by the British and Indian governments to meet the demands of Indian leaders.

 Thus, we can say that Simon Commission arrived in India in 1928.

Additional Information

  • Simon Commission was appointed in 1927 but arrived in India in 1928.

Question 107

Which of the following feelings is NOT associated with the French Revolution?

  1. AOption (a)

    Modern Nationalism

  2. BOption (b)

    Sovereignty of nation

  3. COption (c)

    Marxism

  4. DOption (d)

    Duties of Citizenship

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Marxism

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Marxism.

Key Points

  • French Revolution 'Liberty, Equality, Fraternity' as their main slogan.
  • French nationalism became a powerful movement after the French Revolution in 1789.
  • Popular sovereignty is an idea that the governments get their authority from the consent and support of the people.
  • It was based in part on the idea of a 'social contract' between individuals and their government, a concept advanced by writers like John Locke and Jean Jaques Rousseau.
  • The Declaration of the Rights of Man and of Citizen is a fundamental document of the French Revolution.
  • Modern nationalism, the sovereignty of the nation and duties of citizenship are feelings and ideas associated with the French Revolution.

 Thus, we can say that Marxism is not associated with the French Revolution.

Additional Information

  • Marxism is a social, economic and political philosophy named after Karl Marx that focuses on the struggle capitalists and the working class.

Question 108

Who among the following was Congress Swarajist?

  1. AOption (a)

    Shaukat Ali

  2. BOption (b)

    Motilal Nehru

  3. COption (c)

    Subhash Chandra Bose

  4. DOption (d)

    Mohammad Jinnah

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Motilal Nehru

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Motilal Nehru.

Key Points

  • Swaraj Party was established in late 1922 and early 1923.
  • It was established by Motilal Nehru and Chitta Ranjan Das.
  • These politicians of the Indian National Congress opposed Mahatma Gandhi's suspension of all civil resistance in response to the Chauri Chaura incident.
  • The party's name was taken from the term 'swaraj' meaning self-rule.
  • It was named the Congress-Khilafat Swaraj Party in 1922.

 Thus, we can say that Motilal Nehru was a Congress Swarajist.

Question 109

Which of the following personalities assisted Mahatma Gandhi in the Champaran Satyagraha?

I. J. B. Kriplani

II. Babu Rajendra Prasad

III. Babu Brajkishore Prasad

  1. AOption (a)

    I, II and III

  2. BOption (b)

    II and III

  3. COption (c)

    I and II

  4. DOption (d)

    Only I

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

I, II and III

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is I, II and III.

Key Points

  • The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was India's first Civil Disobedience movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi.
  • The protest was against the injustice to the tenant farmers in the Champaran district of Bihar.
  • It was an uprising in which farmers protested against having to grow indigo with barely any payment for it.
  • Gandhiji was accompanied by J.B. Kriplani, Rajkumar Shukla, Rajendra Prasad, N Parekh, M Desai, Brajkishore Prasad and Mazhar-ul-Haq to the district of Champaran.
  • The Champaran Satyagraha gave direction to India's youth and freedom struggle.

 Thus, we can say that J.B. Kriplani, Babu Rajendra Prasad and Babu Brajkishore Prasad assisted Mahatma Gandhi in the Champaran Satyagraha.

Question 110

Marie Antoinette was stuck in which affair in 1785?

  1. AOption (a)

    Diamond Necklace

  2. BOption (b)

    Sapphire Necklace

  3. COption (c)

    Emerald Necklace

  4. DOption (d)

    Ruby Necklace

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Diamond Necklace

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is a diamond necklace.

Key Points

  • Marie Antoinette was the last queen of France before the French revolution.
  • She was the queen consort of the French King, Louis XVI.
  • Affair of the Diamond Necklace was the scandal at the court of Louis XVI in 1785 that discredited the French monarchy on the eve of the French Revolution.
  • It was an incident from 1784 to 1785 at the court of King Louis XVI of France that involved his wife, Marie Antoinette.
  • Marie's reputation was ruined by the false implication that she had participated in the crime to defraud the Crown's jewellers in acquiring an expensive diamond necklace, which she then refused to pay for.

 Thus, we can say that Marie Antoinette was stuck in the Diamond Necklace Affair in 1785.

Question 111

Which of the following statement is correct regarding the Revolt of 1857 of India?

I. One of the reason of its failure was disunity among the Indians.

II. The revolt of 1857 ended the rule of East India Company in India.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both I and II

  2. BOption (b)

    Only I

  3. COption (c)

    Neither I nor II

  4. DOption (d)

    Only II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both I and II

Why this answer is correct

Key Points 

Reason for failure of 1857

  • The Revolt of 1857 was localized and poorly organized.
  • Due to a lack of communication facilities, the sepoys of the widely dispersed cantonments could not act simultaneously in a concerted manner.
  • The sepoys lacked a common ideal before them.
  • The sepoys at Delhi decided to recover the glory of the Mughal.
  • At Gwalior and Kanpur, Nana Sahib was proclaimed a Peshwa.
  • Rani Lakhmi Bai fought for her Jhansi.
  • The orthodox section among the Hindus and the Muslims was concerned with their religions.
  • There was no unity among the Hindus and the Muslims.
  • Some of the reasons for the failure of the 1857 revolt were:
  • Lack of effective leadership.
  • Poor organization due to lack of common goal.
  • The rebels fought with old-fashioned weapons while the British used all modern weapons.
  • In many places, the people were scared by the cruelty of the rebels.
  • But, there was a major reason for the failure of the 1857 Revolt. Many rulers did not participate. Eg. Scindia of Gwalior, Holkar of Indore, rulers of Patiala, Sind, and Sikhs. Hence, statement 1st is correct.

Important Points

The British Parliament passed a new Act in 1858 and transferred the powers of the East India Company to the British Crown in order to ensure more responsible management of Indian affairs.

  • A member of the British Cabinet was appointed Secretary of State for India and made responsible for all matters related to the governance of India.
  • He was given a council to advise him, called the India Council.
  • The Governor-General of India was given the title of Viceroy, that is, a personal representative of the Crown.
  • Through these measures, the British government accepted direct responsibility for ruling India.
  • Thus, we can conclude that after the revolt of 1857, the British pass a new act in 1858 transferring the powers of East Company to the British crown. Hence, statement 2 is also correct.

Question 112

During the revolt of 1857 in India, which food item was used to convey messages about the revolt from village to village?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rice

  2. BOption (b)

    Lentils

  3. COption (c)

    Sweets

  4. DOption (d)

    Chapati

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Chapati

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Chapati.

Key Points

  • In 1857, tensions in India were at an all-time high due and discontented Indians were planning a rebellion.
  • Thousands of unmarked Chapatis were circulated to homes and police outposts throughout India by runners at night, and the people who accepted the offerings would make more batches and pass them on.
  • It was known as the Chapati movement.
  • This movement was uncovered by Mark Thornhill, a magistrate of the town of Mathura.

 Thus, we can say that during the revolt of 1857, Chapati was used to convey messages about the revolt from village to village.

Question 113

During Russian revolution, on 9 January 1905, a huge crowd of workers, led by a priest, Father Gapon, marched towards _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Spring Palace

  2. BOption (b)

    Autumn Palace

  3. COption (c)

    Summer Palace

  4. DOption (d)

    Winter Palace

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Winter Palace

Why this answer is correct

From 1732 to 1917, the Winter Palace in Saint Petersburg served as the official home of the Russian rulers.

Important Points

  • Bloody Sunday, also known as Red Sunday, was a day in 1905 in St. Petersburg, Russia, when unarmed protestors led by Father Georgy Gapon were fired upon by Imperial Guard soldiers as they marched towards the Winter Palace to submit a petition to Tsar Nicholas II of Russia.

Additional Information

  • Spring Palace, Bucharest- The house was initially built in 1930 by Gheorghe Gheorghiu-Dej and subsequently taken over by Ceausescu, who turned it into his personal residence.
  • Summer Palace, Beijing- The Summer Palace in Beijing is a sprawling complex of lakes, gardens, and palaces. During the Qing period, it served as an imperial garden.​

Hence, during the Russian revolution, on 9 January 1905, a huge crowd of workers, led by a priest, Father Gapon, marched towards Winter Palace.

Question 114

When was Annie Besant's Home Rule League inaugurated?

  1. AOption (a)

    1917

  2. BOption (b)

    1918

  3. COption (c)

    1916

  4. DOption (d)

    1915

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1916

Why this answer is correct

Annie Besant was a writer, orator, educator, and philanthropist who was a socialist, theosophist, women's rights campaigner, and philanthropist. She was a staunch advocate of both Irish and Indian self-rule and was seen as a defender of human liberty.

Important Points

  • What is Home Rule? 
  • The governing of a colony, dependent country, or territory by its own population is known as home rule.
  • Its goal is to use constitutional methods to establish a government of councils. During British rule, it aims to achieve self-government by having members elected by the people.
  • Home Rule League: 
  • Annie Besant founded the All India Home Rule League in 1916.
  • This was the first Indian faction to call for total independence. Throughout the year, the league attempted to establish a network of local chapters and organize agitations.

Additional Information

  • When World War I broke out in 1914, Britain recruited the help of its colonies to fight its foes. The way in which the support was enlisted was a separate topic of discussion. However, Annie Besant believed that here was where India's potential resided.
  • For her efforts, the colonial authorities placed her under house arrest. If she is not released, other political groups have warned of additional unrest.
  • As a consequence, the administration was forced to make some compromises. One of them was that after the war, the prospect of self-rule would be examined.
  • In September 1917, Annie Besant was set free. She was elected for a one-year term as president of the Indian National Congress in December of the same year.

Hence, Annie Besant's Home Rule League was inaugurated in 1916.

Question 115

The first global economic depression occurred in _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    1870

  2. BOption (b)

    1871

  3. COption (c)

    1872

  4. DOption (d)

    1873

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1873

Why this answer is correct

Depression is a lengthy and severe drop in economic activity.

  • Depression is typically described in economics as a serious recession that lasts three or more years or results in a real gross domestic product (GDP) loss of at least 10% in a given year.
  • Depressions are less common than lighter recessions, and they are characterized by high unemployment and low inflation.

Important Points

  • The Panic of 1873 was a financial crisis that caused an economic collapse in Europe and North America, lasting from 1873 to 1877 or 1879 in France and 1879 in the United Kingdom.
  • The Panic began a two-decade period of stagnation in Britain known as the "Long Depression," which weakened the country's economic leadership.
  • The Panic was dubbed the "Great Depression" in the United States until the events of 1929 and the early 1930s established a new norm. Financial failures in Vienna, Austria-capital, Hungary's were the first signs of the crisis, which spread to the rest of Europe and North America by 1873.

Additional InformationEconomic historians argue the relative relevance of numerous underlying factors for the Panic of 1873 and the ensuing downturn.

  • Inflation in the United States,
  • rampant speculative investments (mostly in railroads),
  • demonetization of silver in Germany and the United States,
  • ripples from economic dislocation in Europe caused by the Franco-Prussian War (1870–1871), and
  • major property losses in the Great Chicago Fire (1871) and
  • the Great Boston Fire (1872)

-all contributed to a massive strain on bank reserves, which fell from 50millionto50 million to 17 million in New York City between September and October.                                                                                              Hence, the first global economic depression occurred in 1873.

Question 116

The February Revolution of Russia resulted in _______.

I. Strengthening of Autocracy

II. Formation of provisional government.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only II

  2. BOption (b)

    Both I and II

  3. COption (c)

    Neither I nor II

  4. DOption (d)

    Only I

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only II

Why this answer is correct

The February Revolution, also known as the February Bourgeois Democratic Revolution or the March Revolution in Soviet history, was the first of two revolutions that occurred in Russia in 1917.

Important Points

  • The Provisional Government would prove unpopular, and the Petrograd Soviet was obliged to share power with it.
  • Alexander Kerensky became Prime Minister after the July Days when the government slaughtered hundreds of demonstrators.
  • He failed to address Russia's urgent challenges, such as major unemployment and food shortages, and instead chose to maintain Russia in an increasingly unpopular war.
  • The Provisional Government's shortcomings prompted the Communist Bolsheviks to stage the October Revolution later that year.

Additional Information

  • The revolution's primary events occurred in and around Petrograd (now Saint Petersburg), Russia's then-capital, where long-standing anger with the Tsar exploded into large protests over food rationing on February 23, 1917.

​Hence, the February Revolution of Russia resulted in the formation of a provisional government.

Question 117

Which five year plans of India is also known as the Mahalanobis Plan?

  1. AOption (a)

    Fifth

  2. BOption (b)

    First

  3. COption (c)

    Third

  4. DOption (d)

    Second

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Second

Why this answer is correct

A five-year plan is a specified objective to be achieved in the following years, with a planned strategy and budget allocation, as well as an assessment of revenue and costs, produced in an official way and submitted to the government for guidance.

Important Points

  • Professor Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis proposed the Mahalanobis Plan, India's second five-year plan (1956-61).
  • This strategy prioritised investment products, which were critical for India's continued economic progress.
  • The plan looks at how investment is distributed across the economy's various sectors. Its principal goal was to promote the country's industrial growth.
  • Hydroelectric power projects and five steel power plants have been built at Durgapur, Rourkela, and Bhilai. On March 1, 1958, the Department of Atomic Energy established the Atomic Energy Commission.

Additional Information

  • First Five Years Plan: The Harrod-Domar model was used to create it. Its primary goal was to promote the country's agricultural growth
  • Third Five Years Plan: The plan was also known as the 'Gadgil Yojna.' The primary goal of this strategy is to move the economy into a self-sustaining stage of development and expansion in the country.
  • Fifth Five Years Plan: This strategy had two key objectives: expansion with stability and gradual self-sufficiency. Indira Gandhi used the slogan "Garibi Hatao" during the 1971 elections as part of this plan.

Hence, the Second Five Years Plan of India is also called the Mahalanobis Plan.

Question 118

The decision for the attainment of complete independence was taken in which of the following session of the Indian National Congress?

  1. AOption (a)

    1915

  2. BOption (b)

    1920

  3. COption (c)

    1929

  4. DOption (d)

    1930

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1929

Why this answer is correct

The Indian National Congress, sometimes known as the Congress Party or just Congress, is a broad-based political party in India. It was the first modern nationalist movement in the British Empire's Asia and Africa, having been founded in 1885.  

Important Points

  • The 1929 Lahore session, presided over by Jawaharlal Nehru, is noteworthy because it was at this session that the INC announced "Purna Swaraj" (full independence) as its goal.

Additional Information

  • "Purna Swaraj Diwas" was observed on January 26, 1930.
  • In 1915, the INC session was organised in Bombay presided by Satyendra Prasanna Sinha.
  • In 1920, the INC session was organised in Nagpur presided by C Vijayaraghavachariar.

​Hence the decision for the attainment of complete independence was taken in the 1929 Lahore session of the Indian National Congress.

Question 119

The Russian Social Democratic Labour Party was established in _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    1898

  2. BOption (b)

    1891

  3. COption (c)

    1905

  4. DOption (d)

    1901

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1898

Why this answer is correct

The RSDLP was founded in 1903 to bring together the various revolutionary organisations of the Russian Empire into one party. In 1903, it split into two factions: the Bolsheviks ("majority") and the Mensheviks ("minority"), with the Bolshevik faction, eventually becoming the Communist Party of the Soviet Union. 

Important Points

The Russian Social Democratic Labour Party (RSDLP) was a socialist political party formed in Minsk in 1898. It was also known as the Russian Social Democratic Workers' Party or the Russian Social Democratic Party (then part of the Russian Empire, present-day Belarus).

Additional Information There was a rise of popular resentment all over Russia against the monarchy in the face of an economic crisis. The first February revolution occurred in 1905. It was followed by the establishment of Kerensky's provisional government and later the November revolution.   

Hence, the Russian Social Democratic Party was established in 1898.

Question 120

Russian emperors were also known as _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Tsars

  2. BOption (b)

    King

  3. COption (c)

    Znast

  4. DOption (d)

    Kral

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Tsars

Why this answer is correct

The Russian Empire, sometimes known as Imperial Russia, was a historical empire that spanned Eurasia after the Treaty of Nystad concluded the Great Northern War in 1721, succeeding the Tsardom of Russia.

  • The Empire existed until the Provisional Government, which came to power following the February Revolution of 1917, declared the Republic.
  • The region was controlled by an aristocratic class known as the boyars from the 10th to the 17th centuries, with a tsar who subsequently became an emperor ruling above them.

Hence, Russian emperors were also known as Tsars.

Discipline 2 (20 questions)

Question 121

Which pressure belt is located between 5 degree N and 5 degree S latitudes?

  1. AOption (a)

    Polar high pressure belt

  2. BOption (b)

    Equatorial low pressure belt

  3. COption (c)

    Sub-polar low pressure belt

  4. DOption (d)

    Sub-tropical high pressure belt

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Equatorial low pressure belt

Why this answer is correct

The worldwide horizontal distribution of pressure refers to the distribution of atmospheric pressure across latitudes. Its most distinguishing aspect is its zonal nature, which is referred to as pressure bands. 

Important Points

  • There are seven pressure bands on the earth's surface: The Equatorial Low, two Subtropical Highs, two Subpolar Lows, and two Polar Highs comprise the four.
  • The others, with the exception of the Equatorial low, form matching pairs in the Northern and Southern Hemispheres.
  • Over the world, there is a pattern of alternate high and low-pressure bands. This is related to the earth's spherical form, which causes uneven heating in different places of the globe.
  • e year, the Equatorial area recThroughout theives a lot of heat. The air in the Equator rises because warm air is light, resulting in low pressure.
  • From 0 to 5 degrees north and south of the Equator, this low-pressure band exists.
  • There is a lot of heat here because of the sun's vertical beams. As a result of the convection current, the air expands and rises, causing low pressure to occur here. As it is a zone of complete quiet with no breeze, this low-pressure belt is also known as the doldrums.

​

Additional Information

  • Polar high-Pressure belts: Temperatures are always exceptionally low between 70° and 90° North and South at the North and South Poles.
  • Sub-Polar Low-Pressure Belts: are belts that run between 60° and 70° in each hemisphere.
  • Sub-tropical high-Pressure belt: The location where the rising equatorial air currents drop is located around 30° North and South of the Equator. As a result, this is a high-pressure zone. The Horse latitude is another name for it.

Hence Equatorial low-pressure belt is located between 5 degrees N and 5 degree S latitudes.

Question 122

He became Chancellor of Germany in 1933, but soon destroyed democracy and established his dictatorship. The given line is referring to which of the following personalities?

  1. AOption (a)

    Adolf Hitler

  2. BOption (b)

    Heinrich Himmler

  3. COption (c)

    Reinhard Heydrich

  4. DOption (d)

    Adolf Eichmann

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Adolf Hitler

Why this answer is correct

Fascism is a far-right, authoritarian ultranationalism that grew to popularity in early twentieth-century Europe, marked by dictatorial control, brutal repression of dissent, and heavy regimentation of society and the economy.  

Important Points

  • Adolf Hitler was a German politician born in Austria who ruled Germany from 1933 until his death in 1945.
  • He ascended to prominence as the head of the Nazi Party, rising to the position of chancellor in 1933 and then Fuhrer in 1934.
  • He started World War II in Europe during his rule by invading Poland on September 1, 1939.
  • Throughout the war, he was intimately involved in military operations and played a key role in the Holocaust, the killing of about six million Jews and millions of other victims.

Additional Information

  • Heinrich Luitpold Himmler was the Protection Squadron of Schutz Staffeln and a key member of the Nazi Party (NSDAP) of Germany. Himmler was one of Nazi Germany's most prominent figures and a key architect of the Holocaust.
  • During the Nazi era, Reinhard Tristan Eugen Heydrich was a high-ranking German SS and police officer who was a key architect of the Holocaust. He was the Reich Security Main Office's head.
  • Otto Adolf Eichmann was a German-Austrian SS-Obersturmbannführer who was a key organiser of the Holocaust, also known as the "Final Solution to the Jewish Question" in Nazi jargon.

Hence, "He became Chancellor of Germany in 1933, but soon destroyed democracy and established his dictatorship." is in reference to Adolf Hitler.

Question 123

Fascist believes in the 'survival of the fittest' theory and this was propounded by _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Charles Darwin

  2. BOption (b)

    Antoine Lavoisier

  3. COption (c)

    Werner Heisenberg

  4. DOption (d)

    Alfred Wegener

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Charles Darwin

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

  • ‘Survival of the fittest’ is a phrase that comes from the principle of natural selection which was given by Charles Darwin.
  • The phrase was actually used first by Herbert Spencer after reading Darwin’s book ‘On the Origin of Species’.
  • It originated from the Darwinian Evolutionary theory and reproductive success is the biological concept of it.
  • In simpler terms, it means, that the form which will leave the most copies of itself in the successive generations will survive.

Hence, Charles Darwin propounded the theory of 'survival of the fittest' which was believed by the fanciest.

Question 124

Which of the following pairs of 'Discontinuities in earth's interior - Zones of the earth' is correct?

I. Repetti Discontinuity - Upper and lower mantle

II. Moho Discontinuity - Upper and lower crust

III. Guttenberg Discontinuity - Outer and inner core

  1. AOption (a)

    Only III

  2. BOption (b)

    I and II

  3. COption (c)

    Only I

  4. DOption (d)

    I, II and III

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only I

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only I.

Key Points

  • Discontinuities Inside the Earth - 
  • Conrad Discontinuity:  Transition zone between SIAL and SIMA layers of crust. Hence, pair 2 is incorrectly matched.
  • Mohorovicic Discontinuity:  Transition zone between the Crust and Mantle. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
  • Repiti Discontinuity: Transition zone between Outer mantle and Inner mantle.
  • Gutenberg Discontinuity: Transition zone between Mantle and Core.
  • Lehman Discontinuity: Transition zone between Outer core and Inner core.

Important Points

  • Layers of the earth - 
  • The Crust - It is the outermost solid part of the earth. It is brittle in nature. The thickness of the crust varies under the oceanic and continental areas. Oceanic crust is thinner as compared to continental crust.
  • The Mantle - The portion of the interior beyond the crust is called the mantle. The mantle extends from Moho’s discontinuity to a depth of 2,900 km. The upper portion of the mantle is called the asthenosphere.
  • The core - The core-mantle boundary is located at the depth of 2,900 km. The outer core is in a liquid state while the inner core is in a solid-state. The density of material at the mantle core boundary is around 5 g/cm3 and at the center of the earth at 6,300 km, the density value is around 13g/cm3. The core is made up of very heavy material mostly constituted by nickel and iron. It is sometimes.

Question 125

In the context of World War I, which of the following statements is correct?

I. It started with the assassination of the Archduke Francis Ferdinand.

II. Germany was an allied Partner with France and Russia.

III. Britain was an ally of Austria-Hungary.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only II

  2. BOption (b)

    II and III

  3. COption (c)

    Only I

  4. DOption (d)

    I and III

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only I

Why this answer is correct

World War I, often known as the First World War or the Great War, was an international war that started on July 28, 1914 and ended on November 11, 1918. 

Important Points

  • The assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand of Austria-Hungary was the direct cause of World War I, which brought the following components alliances, imperialism, militarism, and nationalism into play.
  • Germany declared war on Russia as it began mobilizing as a result of its alliance with Serbia.

Additional Information

  • The Allied Powers were mostly founded to defend against German and Central Power's aggression. They were also known as the Entente Powers because they sprang from the Triple Entente, an alliance comprising France, Britain, and Russia.
  • In May 1882, Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Italy created the Triple Alliance, which was renewed on a regular basis until World War I.

​Hence only the statement "It started with the assassination of Archduke Francis Ferdinand" is a correct statement in the context of the World War I.

Question 126

______ thinkers demanded the abolition of class distinctions.

  1. AOption (a)

    Fascist

  2. BOption (b)

    Capitalist

  3. COption (c)

    Socialist

  4. DOption (d)

    Distributismist

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Socialist

Why this answer is correct

A violent confrontation between various social groups, particularly (in Marxist philosophy) the conflict of interests between workers and the ruling class in a capitalist society is called Class Struggle. 

Important Points

  • Socialist: a political and economic theory of social organization that argues for the community as a whole to own or manage the means of production, distribution, and trade is called Socialism and one who follows it is called socialism.
  • Socialists generally aim to achieve greater equality in decision-making and economic affairs, grant workers greater control of the means of production and their workplace, and eliminate exploitation by directing the surplus value to employees.
  • it is an objective fact that the law of supply and demand does operate in a socialist society.

Additional Information

  • Fascist: a right-wing authoritarian and nationalistic administration and social organization are called Fascism and one who follows fascism is called a fascist.
  • Capitalist: an economic and political system in which private proprietors, rather than the government, manage a country's commerce and industries for profit. These private owners are called capitalists.
  • Distributismist: Based on late 19th-century Catholic teachings on economic and social justice, a socioeconomic theory and system supporting broad ownership of private property and the means of production is called Distributism. The owners are called Distributismist.

​Hence Socialist thinkers demanded the abolition of class distinctions.

Question 127

The concept of 'invisible hand' was introduced by _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Alfred Marshall

  2. BOption (b)

    David Ricardo

  3. COption (c)

    Adam Smith

  4. DOption (d)

    Jeremy Bentham

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Adam Smith

Why this answer is correct

Adam Smith, a Scottish economist and philosopher, was a forerunner in the field of political economics. He was also recognised as "The Father of Economics" or "The Father of Capitalism" since he produced The Wealth of Nations, the first modern treatise of economics. 

Important Points

  • Adam Smith, a Scottish Enlightenment theorist, created the notion of the "invisible hand." It refers to the unseen market force that, through the activities of self-interested individuals, brings a free market to equilibrium with levels of supply and demand.

  • The invisible hand is an economic concept that describes the unintended greater social benefits and public good brought about by individuals acting in their own self-interests.

  • The invisible hand is a metaphor for the unseen forces that move the free market economy.

Additional Information

  • In 1890, Alfred Marshall (1842-1924) published Principles of Economics. He described economics as "the study of men engaged in the daily business of life" in it.
  • An English classical economist named David Ricardo proposed a hypothesis to explain the genesis and nature of economic rent. He defined rent as "that share of the earth's output that is paid to the landlord in exchange for the use of the soil's inherent and indestructible qualities."
  • Bentham developed the theory of utility, which asserts that utility is defined as the presence of enjoyment and the absence of suffering.

Hence the concept of 'Invisible Hand' was introduced by Adam Smith.

Question 128

Red sea records the highest salinity because of very high evaporation. It is located in which ocean?

  1. AOption (a)

    Atlantic ocean

  2. BOption (b)

    Pacific ocean

  3. COption (c)

    Arctic ocean

  4. DOption (d)

    Indian ocean

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Indian ocean

Why this answer is correct

Due to significant evaporation and minimal freshwater intake, the Red Sea and the Persian Gulf area have the saltiest ocean water (about 40).

Important Points

  • The Red Sea, commonly known as the Erythraean Sea, is an Indian Ocean saltwater inlet located between Africa and Asia.
  • The Red Sea is connected to the ocean in the south by the Bab el Mandeb strait and the Gulf of Aden, while the Sinai Peninsula, the Gulf of Aqaba, and the Gulf of Suez are located to the north.
  • The Red Sea is an inlet of the Indian Ocean between Africa and Asia.
  • The connection to the ocean is in the south through the Bab el Mandeb sound and the Gulf of Aden.
  • In the north are the Sinai Peninsula, the Gulf of Aqaba or the Gulf of Eilat, and the Gulf of Suez (leading to the Suez Canal).

Additional Information

  • The Atlantic Ocean is a long, S-shaped basin that runs longitudinally from Europe and Africa to the Americas.
  • The Pacific Ocean is the world's biggest and deepest oceanic division. It stretches from the Arctic Ocean in the north to the Southern Ocean (or, depending on definition, Antarctica) in the south, bordered on the west by Asia and Australia and the east by the Americas.
  • The Arctic Ocean is bounded by Eurasia and North America, with the Bering Strait on the Pacific side and the Greenland Scotland Ridge on the Atlantic side forming the boundary.

Hence the Red Sea is located in the Indian Ocean.

Question 129

In 1832, the word 'socialism' was first seen in print in a French periodical called _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Dio Franch

  2. BOption (b)

    Le Globe

  3. COption (c)

    Dio Garto

  4. DOption (d)

    Revo Le Garto

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Le Globe

Why this answer is correct

A political and economic theory of social organization that argues for the community as a whole to own or manage the means of production, distribution, and trade.

Important Points

  • Between 1824 and 1832, Le Globe was a French journal produced in Paris by the Bureau du Globe with the objective of publishing Romantic works.
  • It was founded by Pierre Leroux and Alexandre Lachevardière, a printer.
  • After 1828, the paper's tone shifted to one of politics and liberalism.

Additional Information

  • Dio Franch, Dio Garto, and Revo Le Garto were not the first French periodical to print the term 'socialism'.

Hence Le Globe was the first French periodical to print the word 'socialism' in 1832.

Question 130

The Brundtland Report of 1987 spoke about _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    sustainable development

  2. BOption (b)

    unemployment

  3. COption (c)

    social justice

  4. DOption (d)

    free trade

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

sustainable development

Why this answer is correct

The World Committee on Environment and Development (WCED), often known as the Brundtland Commission after its chairman, Norwegian physician Gro Harlem Brundtland, was an international commission that debated and proposed solutions for environmental protection and sustainable development.

 Important Points

  • The Brundtland Report, also known as Our Common Future, was a 1987 publication by the World Commission on Environment and Development (WCED) that presented the idea of sustainable development and detailed how it could be accomplished.
  • The Brundtland Commission’s characterization of ‘sustainable development’ is the development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.

The prominence given to ‘needs’ reflects a concern to eradicate poverty and meet basic human needs, broadly understood.

The concept of sustainable development-focused attention on finding strategies to promote economic and social development in ways that avoided environmental degradation, over-exploitation, or pollution, and sidelined less productive debates about whether to prioritize development or the environment.

Additional Information

  • The Brundtland Report of 1987 strictly focuses on the question of sustainable development and does not aim at studying unemployment, social justice, and free trade.

Hence, the Brundtland Report of 1987 spoke about sustainable development.

Question 131

The jet streams are characterised by which of the following properties?

I. Their circulation path is wavy.

II. They are found in the upper troposphere.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only II

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither I nor II

  3. COption (c)

    Both I and II

  4. DOption (d)

    Only I

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both I and II

Why this answer is correct

A small ring of very strong, mostly westerly air currents encircles the globe many miles above the surface. In both the northern and southern hemispheres, there are usually two or three jet streams.  

Important Points

  • Large patches of powerful wind that move from west to east over the globe are known as jet streams.
  • They affect the weather, air transport, and a variety of other aspects of the environment.
  • Flows at a height of 20,000 to 50,000 feet.
  • When the air of various temperatures and air masses meet, jet streams occur.
  • As a result, the location of the Jet Stream is generally determined by surface temperatures.
  • The speed of the wind within the jet stream is proportional to the temperature difference.
  • In both hemispheres, jet streams extend from 20 degrees latitude to the poles.
  • The circulation path of Jet streams is wavy.
  • They are found in the troposphere of the atmosphere.

​Hence both statements I and II are characteristics of the jet streams.

Question 132

Which of the following volcano is NOT found in the Circum-Pacific belt?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mount Pinatubo

  2. BOption (b)

    Mount Kilavea

  3. COption (c)

    Mount Visuvious

  4. DOption (d)

    Mount Saint Helens

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Mount Visuvious

Why this answer is correct

The ring of fire is a line that runs along the pacific ocean's rim and is marked by active volcanoes and earthquakes. The Circum-Pacific Belt is sometimes known as the Circum-Pacific Seismic Belt. 

Important Points

  • Mount Vesuvius is a somma-stratovolcano in the Gulf of Naples in Campania, Italy, about 9 kilometres east of Naples and close to the coast.
  • The Campanian volcanic arc is made up of many volcanoes.
  • Vesuvius is made up of a huge cone partially ringed by the steep rim of a top crater, which was formed by the collapse of a previous, much higher edifice.

 Additional Information

  • Mount Pinatubo is located in Luzon, Philippines and is one of the active volcanoes of the Philippines.
  • Mount Kilauea is a Hawaiian shield volcano that is currently active. It is historically the most active of the five volcanoes that make up Hawai'i's Big Island.
  • Mount St. Helens is an active stratovolcano in Skamania County, Washington, in the United States' Pacific Northwest area. The Cascade Volcanic Arc, which is part of the Pacific Ring of Fire, includes the volcano.

Therefore, Mount Visuvious is not found in the Circum-Pacific belt.

Question 133

Which of the following statement is correct?

I. The Economic Crisis of 1929 played an important role in the emergence of Fascism in Italy.

II. Fascists denounced the Jewish community as inferior and characterized the Aryan race as a superior caste.

  1. AOption (a)

    Neither I nor II

  2. BOption (b)

    Both I and II

  3. COption (c)

    Only II

  4. DOption (d)

    Only I

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Neither I nor II

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both I and II

Explanation:

Adolf Hitler, once in power, transformed Germany into a fascist state. The term "fascist" was first used to characterise the Italian regime of Benito Mussolini. Mussolini's fascist one-party dictatorship encouraged patriotism, national unity, anti-communism, military ideals adulation, and blind obedience. Mussolini's Italy had a strong impact on Hitler, and his Germany had many of the same features.

Important PointsFascism gained its power over Europe around 1920s. In Italy and Germany, the rise of fascism can be attributed to the following few reasons of many other socio-economic and political reasons:

  • Imposition of war reparation on Germany through treaty of Versailles left a negative mark on the national pride and left the general crowd thirsty for revenge.
  • Occupation of Ruhr of Germany by France and Belgium.
  • Decline of the economic situation from 1922 onwards and rising inflation
  • The Great Depression of 1929 played an important role in rise of Fascism in Italy and **Germany. **​

Additional Information

  • The word "caste" is derived from the Portuguese word "lineage."
  • Varna, which means "colour" or "class," and jati, which means "birth," are the closest Indian terminology. The caste system is commonly referred to as the former.
  • Fascists favoured Aryan race against the Jewish community.
  • Fascism's extreme authoritarianism and nationalism often manifest as a belief in racial purity or a master race, usually blended with some variant of racism or discrimination against a demonized "Other", such as Jews, homosexuals, ethnic minorities or immigrants.

​Hence both statements are  correct.

Question 134

The lines drawn on maps joining the places of equal temperature reduced to sea level are called _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Isoplat

  2. BOption (b)

    Isotherms

  3. COption (c)

    Isotim

  4. DOption (d)

    Isotac

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Isotherms

Why this answer is correct

Maps can have imaginary lines connecting different quantifiable elements of the same range like temperature, atmospheric pressure and so on.

Important Points

  • Isotherms: are imaginary lines drawn on maps joining the places of the same temperature across the map, reduced to sea level.
  • The Greek word isos means ''equal to'' or ''the same as''.
  • The Greek word therme means ''heat''.
  • It is also in the word ''thermometer'', which is a device used to measure temperature.

Additional Information

  • Isotim: A line that connects places with similar transportation costs.
  • Isotac: On a map or graphic, an equiglacial line connects sites where ice melts at the same time in the spring.

​Hence Isotherms are lines drawn on maps joining the places of equal temperature reduced to sea level.

Question 135

Bering strait is the gateway between _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Indian Ocean and Pacific Ocean

  2. BOption (b)

    Arctic Ocean and Atlantic Ocena

  3. COption (c)

    Indian Ocean and Atlantic Ocean

  4. DOption (d)

    Pacific Ocean and Arctic Ocean

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Pacific Ocean and Arctic Ocean

Why this answer is correct

A small waterway that connects two seas or other major bodies of water. 

Important Points

  • The Bering Strait, which runs between Alaska and Russia, is the sole maritime crossing between the cold Arctic and the Pacific Ocean.
  • The strait is barely 55 miles wide at its narrowest point.
  • Bering Strait, linking the Arctic Ocean with the Bering Sea and separating the continents of Asia and North America at their closest point.

Additional Information

  • The Malacca Strait connects the Indian and Pacific Oceans.
  • The Fram Strait in the Arctic and Atlantic Oceans' sole deep link.
  • On the east, the Drake Passage and the Strait of Magellan connect the Pacific Ocean with the Atlantic Ocean.

Hence Bering Strait is the gateway between the Pacific Ocean and the Arctic Ocean.

Question 136

In a climograph, _______ is plotted on X-axis whereas _______ is plotted on Y-axis.

  1. AOption (a)

    rainfall, relative humidity

  2. BOption (b)

    relative humidity, wet bulb temperature

  3. COption (c)

    rainfall, wet bulb temperature

  4. DOption (d)

    wet bulb temperature, relative humidity

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

relative humidity, wet bulb temperature

Why this answer is correct

A climograph is a graphical depiction of the underlying climate of an area. Climographs provide data for two variables: average monthly temperature and average monthly precipitation. These are excellent tools for rapidly describing the climate of an area.

Important Point

  • Relative Humidity:
  • The amount of water vapour in the air as a percentage of the amount required for saturation at the same temperature.
  • Wet bulb temperature:
  • The temperature shown by a wet-bulb thermometer is close to the genuine (thermodynamic) wet-bulb temperature.
  • The wet-bulb temperature is the lowest temperature that can be achieved solely by evaporation of water under current ambient conditions.
  • ​In a climograph X-axis denotes the relative humidity and the Y-axis denotes wet bulb temperature.

Additional InformationThe other combinations:

Rainfall, Relative Humidity; Rainfall,Wet bulb temperatue; and Wet bulb temperature , Relative Humidity- do not represent the X- axis and Y-axis, respectively, on a Climograph.

Therefore, In a Climograph, Relative Humidity is plotted on X-axis whereas wet bulb temperature is plotted on Y-axis.

Question 137

The moon takes approximately how many days to move around the earth once?

  1. AOption (a)

    40

  2. BOption (b)

    15

  3. COption (c)

    55

  4. DOption (d)

    27

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

27

Why this answer is correct

The moon is Earth's natural satellite.

Important Points

  • Moving around once own axis is called rotation while rotating in an orbit is called revolution.
  • Moon's revolution around the Earth takes 27 days.​
  • It always see the same side of the Moon, the Moon is spinning.
  • It's just spinning at exactly the same rate as its orbit – one revolution every 27 days.

Additional Information

  • Moon's revolution around the Earth does not take 40, 15, or 55 days.

Hence the moon takes approximately 27 days to move around the Earth once.

Question 138

What is the shape of a lopolith rock?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mushroom shape

  2. BOption (b)

    Dome shape

  3. COption (c)

    Bowl shape

  4. DOption (d)

    Fan shape

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Bowl shape

Why this answer is correct

Lopolith is a lenticular-shaped igneous intrusion with a central depression. This igneous rock mass formed as a result of magma does not reach the surface, but instead spreads laterally into a lenticular body, causing underlying strata to bulge higher.

Important Points

  • A lopolith is a massive, layered igneous intrusion with a convex-downward bowl form on its floor and a flat or convex-downward bowl shape on its top.
  • Lopolith, igneous intrusion associated with a structural basin, with contacts that are parallel to the bedding of the enclosing rocks.
  • A lopolith is a large igneous intrusion that is lenticular in shape with a depressed central region.
  • Lopoliths are generally concordant with the intruded strata with a dike or funnel-shaped feeder bodies below the body.
  • The term was first defined and used by Frank Fitch Grout during the early 1900s in describing the Duluth gabbro complex in northern Minnesota and adjacent to Ontario.

Additional Information

  • A mushroom rock, also known as a rock pedestal or a pedestal rock, is a naturally formed rock that resembles a mushroom in shape. The rocks can be distorted in a variety of ways, including erosion and weathering, glacial activity, and unexpected disturbances.
  • A dome-shaped rock: Erosion wears away the outer layers of the mountain over time, exposing the dome-shaped cooled magma of tougher rock.
  • Fan shaped formations can be fluvial depositions of alluvial soil and there consequent solidification.

​Hence the shape of a lopolith is Bowl-shaped.

Question 139

What are the goals of the United nations?

I. Develop friendly Bi-lateral relationships between nations.

II. Resolving international problems in one forum.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II

  3. COption (c)

    Neither I nor II

  4. DOption (d)

    Both I and II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only II

Why this answer is correct

Following World War II, the United Nations was founded with the goal of avoiding future hostilities, following the unsuccessful League of Nations.

Important PointsThe United States (UN) is an intergovernmental organisation whose mission is to promote:

  • international peace and security,(develop friendly multi-lateral relationships between nations)
  • foster cordial relations among nations, (resolving international problems in one forum)
  • foster international collaboration,
  • and serve as a focal point for nations' activities to be harmonised.

It is the largest and most well-known international organisation in the world.

Hence, only II statement is correct about United Nations.

Question 140

_______ guaranteed to provide all possible aid to Poland in World War II.

  1. AOption (a)

    Britain and France

  2. BOption (b)

    Russia and Britain

  3. COption (c)

    USA and Japan

  4. DOption (d)

    USA and Russia

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Britain and France

Why this answer is correct

World War II, often known as the Second World War and shortened as WWII or WW2, was a global conflict that took place between 1939 and 1945. 

Important Points

  • The vast majority of countries in the globe, including all of the great powers, formed two competing military alliances: the Allies and the Axis forces.
  • The invasion of Poland by Nazi Germany, led by Adolf Hitler, is widely seen as the start of World War II.
  • On September 3, the United Kingdom and France declared war on Germany.

Additional Information

  • Japan allied with Germany and Italy by signing the tripartite pact on 27th September 1940.
  • The USA joined the war after the Pearl Harbour incident on 11th December 1941.
  • When Poland was invaded, Russia was allied with Germany by the Molotov-Ribbentrop pact

​Hence Britain and France guaranteed to provide all possible aid to Poland in World War II.

Discipline 3 (20 questions)

Question 141

Which states are collectively known as the 'Cotton basket of India'?

  1. AOption (a)

    Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, Uttar Pradesh and Bihar

  2. BOption (b)

    Maharashtra, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana

  3. COption (c)

    Maharashtra, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan

  4. DOption (d)

    Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh and Bihar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Maharashtra, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana

Why this answer is correct

Cotton is a shrub that grows in tropical and subtropical climates all over the world, including the Americas, Africa, Egypt, and India.

Important Points

  • In India, cotton is grown as a Kharif and cash crop.
  • The temperature should be between 20 and 30 degrees Celsius.
  • At least 210 days without frost.
  • Rainfall during and after the planting season, as well as warm/dry weather following blooming.
  • In the Deccan trap, black soil / Regur soil is optimal for cotton farming.
  • Maharashtra, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana experience similar geographical conditions, thus favouring the growth of Cotton.

Additional Information

  • Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan do not experience geographical conditions favourable for the growth of cotton (the soil type, the temperature is higher, rainfall).
  • Karnataka has similar conditions but together with the other states in the given combination it is not referred to as the "cotton basket of India"

Hence, Maharashtra, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana are collectively known as the 'Cotton basket of India'.

Question 142

In which of the following forests, Sundarban delta is found?

  1. AOption (a)

    Alpine forest

  2. BOption (b)

    Mangrove forest

  3. COption (c)

    Himalayan moist forest

  4. DOption (d)

    Dry deciduous forest

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Mangrove forest

Why this answer is correct

The Sundarbans are a mangrove tract in the Bay of Bengal delta formed by the confluence of the Ganges, Brahmaputra, and Meghna Rivers. 

Important Points

  • The Sundarban deltaic region experiences a climate that is favorable to the growth of Tidal vegetation.
  • Tidal vegetation includes Sundari trees after which Sundarbans were named and other Mangroves.
  • The tidal or mangrove forests grow by the side of the coast and on the edges of the deltas.
  • The fertile deltas of the Cauvery, Krishna, Mahanadi, Godavari, and Ganga are comprised of mangrove forests.
  • In the state of West Bengal, these forests are known as ‘Sundarbans the name after the largest delta. ’.
  • The ‘Sundari’ is the most abundant tree in these forests.
  • The vital trees of the tidal forests are Hogla, Garan, Pasur, etc.

Additional Information

  • Alpine and Himalayan forests are limited to mountains. Himalayan forests are limited to the Himalayan mountains.
  • Deciduous forest grow in a condition of prolonged high temperature and heavy rain. These seasonally shed leaves and do not grow in pure stands.

Hence Mangrove forest is found in Sundarban delta

Question 143

The river Tapi rises from the _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Vindhya hills

  2. BOption (b)

    Ananthagiri hills

  3. COption (c)

    Maikal hills

  4. DOption (d)

    Satpura hills

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Satpura hills

Why this answer is correct

The west-flowing rivers drain into the Arabian Sea, accounting for 23% of the country's drainage area. The Indus, Narmada, Tapi, Sabarmati, Mahi, Ghagghar, Luni, Saravati, Pumba, Periyar, Bharatpuja, and a huge number of fast-flowing western coast rivers descending from the Sahyadris are only a few examples.

Important Points

  • Satpura range arises parallel to Narmada and Tapi and is a source to both rivers.
  • It is one of the major rivers of peninsular India with a length of around 724 km.
  • Tapti River, river in central India, rising in the Gawilgarh Hills of the central Deccan plateau in south-central Madhya Pradesh state.
  • It flows westward between two spurs of the Satpura Range, across the Jalgaon plateau region in Maharashtra state, and through the plain of Surat in Gujarat state to the Gulf of Khambhat.

Additional Information

  • Ananthagiri Hills is the starting place of the Musi river, which used to be Hyderabad's main supply of water.
  • The Vindhyas are the source of several Ganga-Yamuna tributaries. Chambal, Betwa, Dhasan, Ken, Tamsa, Kali Sindh, and Parbati are among them.
  • In Amarkantak, the Narmada, Son, and Johila rivers rise from the Maikal mountains (are an eastern extension of Satpura range)

Hence the river Tapi rises from Satpura hills.

Question 144

Which country has the largest postal network in the world?

  1. AOption (a)

    Indonesia

  2. BOption (b)

    France

  3. COption (c)

    China

  4. DOption (d)

    India

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

India

Why this answer is correct

The postal service is a mechanism for sending and receiving communications through the mail. 

Important Points

  • Including 154,965 Post Offices (as of 31.03.2017), India has the world's biggest postal network, with 139,067 in rural regions.
  • There were 23,344 Post Offices in the country at the time of independence, mostly in metropolitan areas.
CountryNumber of post offices, 2015
India (as per 2011)161,193
China (Peoples Rep.)53,646
Indonesia42,656
Russian Federation41,301
United States of America30,529
Germany27,600
France26,337
Japan24,452
Canada21,740
Iran (Islamic Rep.)16,551

Additional Information

  • Indonesia, France and China are fast growing postal chains but do not posses the largest postal networks in the world.

Hence India has the largest postal network in the world.

Question 145

Which of the following is the youngest series of the Lower Gondwana System?

  1. AOption (a)

    Panchet series

  2. BOption (b)

    Damuda series

  3. COption (c)

    Talcher series

  4. DOption (d)

    Papaghani series

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Panchet series

Why this answer is correct

The Gondwana System takes its name from the Kingdom of the Gonds, Andhra Pradesh's most primitive tribe. It is also relevant to the Gond area of Madhya Pradesh, where these rocks were discovered for the first time. Sandstones with some shales and clays make up the Gondwanas.  

Important Points

  • Panchet Series:
  • The youngest series in the Lower Gondwana System, named after a hill south of Raniganj with the same name.
  • Greenish sandstone and shales make up the series.
  • It does not, however, have any coal seams.
  • The iron-ore shales of the Lower Gondwana System are particularly well developed in the Raniganj coalfield of West Bengal; they contain lower quality iron ore, such as siderite and limonite, and are thus rarely mined for iron.
  • The Gondwana System of rocks contributes over 95% of India's coal.

Additional Information

  • ​Damuda Series:
  • The Gondwana System's most major series, highly developed in Jharkhand and West Bengal, and recognised for high-quality coal seams.
  • The Damuda series includes the Raniganj and Jharia coal seams.
  • Talcher Series:
  • It is the Gondwana Systems series, named for the Orissa districts of Talcher and Dhenkanal.
  • It is situated on a glaciated boulder bed of igneous rocks and is well-known for its coal resources, which supply the Raurkela and Jamshedpur Steel Plants.
  • Papaghani series:
  • A part of the Cuddapah system Magma intrudes the series in the form of dykes and sills, transforming limestone into marble, talc, slate, and serpentine.
  • The Papaghani River (Andhra Pradesh) is called after the valley where these rocks were revealed.
  • Quartzites, sandstones, shales, slates, limestones, and marbles make up the rock.

​Hence Panchet Series is the youngest series of the Lower Gondwana System.

Question 146

Natural growth of the population is expressed as _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Life expectancy rate - Birth rate

  2. BOption (b)

    Birth rate - Migration

  3. COption (c)

    Migration - death rate

  4. DOption (d)

    Birth rate - Death rate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Birth rate - Death rate

Why this answer is correct

Population growth of a specific given region can be affected by various natural- biological or socially induced reasons. 

Important Points

  • The natural population growth rate is the pace at which a country's population may expand at a reasonable rate, i.e., one or two children per family or pair of parents by the event of birth and the population may shrink by the event of natural death.
  • Natural population increase is a positive natural change when the number of live births is larger than the number of deaths during the time period considered.
  • Natural population decrease is the opposite, a negative natural change when the number of deaths exceeds the number of births.

Additional Information

  • Migration out of a place reduces the overall population and migration to a place increases the population but not naturally. People migrate for various reasons like education, better job opportunities, and marriage
  • The life expectancy rate- is a fictitious figure. It is assumed that the age-specific death rates for the year in question will apply to those born in that year for the rest of their lives.

​Hence, the natural growth of the population is expressed as Birth rate- the death rate

Question 147

Which of the following is NOT one of the sides of the Golden Quadrilateral Corridor?

  1. AOption (a)

    Delhi-Mumbai

  2. BOption (b)

    Mumbai-Chennai

  3. COption (c)

    Srinagar-Kolkata

  4. DOption (d)

    Kolkata-Chennai

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Srinagar-Kolkata

Why this answer is correct

The Golden Quadrilateral is a national highway system in India that connects the majority of the country's main economic, agricultural, and cultural centres.

Important Points

  • This project includes the North-South corridor connecting Srinagar (Jammu and Kashmir) and Kanyakumari (Tamil Nadu), as well as the East-West corridor connecting Silchar (Assam) and Porbandar (Gujarat).
  • These do not form part of the sides of the Quadrilateral.

Additional Information

  • It connects India's four largest metro cities, namely Delhi (north), Kolkata (east), Mumbai (west), and Chennai (south). These form the four side of the quadrilateral.

​Hence, Srinagar-Kolkata is not one of the sides of the Golden Quadrilateral Corridor.

Question 148

Which lake has been formed due to the silting action of Mahanadi river?

  1. AOption (a)

    Chillika lake

  2. BOption (b)

    Dal lake

  3. COption (c)

    Kaliveli lake

  4. DOption (d)

    Pushkar lake

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Chillika lake

Why this answer is correct

A lake is a body of water surrounded by land and located in a basin, separate from any river or other outlet that feeds or drains the lake.

Important Points

  • Chilika Lake is a brackish water lagoon that spans the districts of Puri, Khurda, and Ganjam in Odisha state on India's east coast, near the mouth of the Daya River (a tributary of Mahanadi), which flows into the Bay of Bengal, and spans about 1,100 kilometers.
  • It is India's largest body of water.

 Additional Information

  • Dal is a lake in Srinagar, the summer capital of the Indian state of Jammu and Kashmir. It is the second biggest urban lake in the union territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
  • Kaliveli Lake, also known as Kaliveli Lagoon, is a coastal lake and lagoon with wetlands located in Tamil Nadu's Viluppuram District in eastern South India. This lake is located near the Bay of Bengal on the Coromandel Coast.
  • Pushkar Lake, also known as Pushkar Sarovar, is located in the town of Pushkar in the Rajasthan state in western India's Ajmer district.

​Hence Chilika Lake has been formed due to the silting action of the Mahanadi river.

Question 149

Post which year, India reached to the second stage of the demographic transition?

  1. AOption (a)

    1935

  2. BOption (b)

    1915

  3. COption (c)

    1950

  4. DOption (d)

    1920

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1920

Why this answer is correct

The demographic transition idea is based on current population patterns in advanced nations across the world. Every country, according to this notion, goes through three stages of population expansion. The birth and mortality rates are high in the first stage, and the population growth rate is slow. 

Important Points

First Phase: 

  • When death rates began to decline in India in the late 1920s and early 1930s, the process of demographic transition was believed to have begun.
  • Prior to it, India's population was in its infancy, with extremely high birth and death rates.
  • The death rate varied from year to year, and as a result, the population size stayed nearly constant.
  • The population of the country entered the second stage of transition when mortality rates began to drop.

Additional Information 

  • Second Phase:  The fall in mortality rates, on the other hand, boosted the country's population growth rates, particularly between 1921 and 1951.
  • Third Phase: Since 1971, India has been through the third stage of its demographic change. During the 1970s, the country's mortality rate fell at about the same pace as its birth rate, resulting in a population growth plateau in the 1960s and 1970s. During the 1980s and 1990s, the birth rate fell faster than the mortality rate, a trend that has continued to the current day.
  • Fourth Phase: According to the Office of the Registrar General of India, India will reach the fourth stage of demographic change around 2026.

Hence, post-1920 India reached the Second Stage of the demographic transition.

Question 150

Which of the following statement is correct regarding the India's National Programme for Family Planning?

I. India was the first country in the world to have launched such a programme.

II. This programme was launched in 1952.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I

  2. BOption (b)

    Both I and II

  3. COption (c)

    Only II

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither I nor II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both I and II

Why this answer is correct

Family planning is a must Individuals and couples' capacity to predict and achieve their intended number of children, as well as the spacing and timing of their births. It is accomplished by using contraceptive techniques and treating involuntary infertility.

Important Points

  • In 1952, India became the first country in the world to implement a nationwide family planning programme.
  • In India, family planning has mostly been a result of government initiatives.
  • From its early days, when the focus was on a clinical approach, to today, when the focus is on reproductive health and the lowering of mother and newborn mortality rates, as well as child mortality and morbidity, the programme has experienced a major transition.
  • The National Population Policy (NPP) introduced in 2000 has aided in the lowering of fertility.
  • The government established several clinics for reproductive health and family planning as part of the programme.
  • There is also a lot of knowledge about family planning, the need for spacing between children, and having fewer children per marriage thanks to different media.
  • For promoting the Two-Child Norm, the government has promoted the phrase "Hum Do, Humare Do."
  • There are additional penalties, such as not being able to work for the government if you have more than two children, and so on. However, in other cases, they may have backfired, resulting in more sex-selective abortions, etc.

Hence both statement I and II are correct.

Question 151

Which country is the largest producer of maize in 2019?

  1. AOption (a)

    China

  2. BOption (b)

    United States of America

  3. COption (c)

    Mexico

  4. DOption (d)

    Indonesia

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

United States of America

Why this answer is correct

The optimal environment for maize has been determined to be winter, with a mean temperature range of 18° to 23°C and 100 mm of rainfall per month over the crop growth season, except for the last month. 4.

Important Points

  • The U.S.A. is the largest producer of corn in the world.
  • The ultimate estimate of maize output in the United States during the years 1950 to 1959 is three billion bushels, while in subsequent years, nine billion bushels have been produced per year.
  • West north centre Iowa and east central Illinois are the leading corn producers.

Additional Information

  • In the previous two decades, China's maize output has surged by 125 percent. In China, maize has taken the position of rice as the most important crop. The tremendous increase in meat intake among Chinese people is the cause of this massive increase. Maize is mostly utilised in animal feed for meat production in China.
  • Mexico produces 27 million metric tonnes of corn every year, accounting for 3% of world corn production.
  • Among the ASEAN Economic Community nations, Indonesia is the biggest corn producer.

​Hence the USA was the largest producer of corn in the year 2019.

Question 152

The direction of landslides down the slope can be _______.

I. Vertical

II. Lateral

  1. AOption (a)

    Neither I nor II

  2. BOption (b)

    Both I and II

  3. COption (c)

    Only II

  4. DOption (d)

    Only I

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both I and II

Why this answer is correct

A landslide is defined as the movement of a mass of rock, rubble, or dirt down a slope.

 Important Points

  • Landslides are a type of mass waste that occurs when rock and soil flow downslope under the direct impact of gravity.
  • Topples falls, spreads, slides, and flows are five types of slope movement included under the term landslide.
  • Landslides down the slope can be vertical or lateral depending on the path of the tectonic force but slide down because of the gravity.

Hence, the direction of landslides down the slope can be both vertical and lateral.

Question 153

Which of the following is a long duration hazard?

  1. AOption (a)

    Landslide

  2. BOption (b)

    Avalanche

  3. COption (c)

    Tornado

  4. DOption (d)

    Drought

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Drought

Why this answer is correct

A hazard is a source or condition that has the potential to cause harm to humans in the form of injury or illness, property damage, environmental damage, or a combination of these.  

Important Points

  • A drought is defined as a period of protracted water scarcity, whether it is due to atmospheric (below-average precipitation), surface water, or groundwater limitations.
  • Droughts can last months or years, although they can be proclaimed in as little as 15 days.
  • It has the potential to have a significant influence on the afflicted region's ecology and agriculture, as well as hurt the local economy.
  • In the tropics, annual dry seasons dramatically increase the risk of drought and consequent bushfires.
  • Heatwaves can exacerbate drought conditions by hastening the evaporation of water vapour.

Additional Information

  • ​ A landslide is defined as the movement of a mass of rock, rubble, or dirt down a slope.
  • A tornado is a fast-moving, destructive vortex of furiously spinning winds that resembles a funnel cloud and moves beneath a big storm system.
  • A mass of snow, ice, and boulders sliding swiftly down a hillside is known as an avalanche.

​Hence, a Drought is a long duration hazard.

Question 154

Which of the following factors affect the ocean currents?

I. Wind stress

II. Pressure gradient

III. Coastal topography and bottom reliefs

IV. Salinity

  1. AOption (a)

    I, II, III and IV

  2. BOption (b)

    Only III

  3. COption (c)

    I and II

  4. DOption (d)

    I, III and IV

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

I, II, III and IV

Why this answer is correct

Gravity, wind, and water density all contribute to the horizontal flow of saltwater. Ocean currents have a significant effect in determining the climate of coastal areas. 

Important PointsThe factors that affect the ocean currents are:

  • Stress caused by the wind
  • The gradient of pressure in the atmosphere
  • Coastal topography and reliefs at the bottom of the ocean
  • The salinity of ocean water depends on latitude and exposure to rays of sun, vertical or slanting.

Hence, all the factors wind stress, pressure gradient, the salinity of ocean water and Coastal topography and bottom reliefs affect the Ocean current.

Question 155

Which of the following pairs of 'River - Tributary' is correct?

I. Indus - Jhelum

II. Yamuna - Gomti

III. Krishna - Penganga

  1. AOption (a)

    I, II and III

  2. BOption (b)

    II and III

  3. COption (c)

    Only I

  4. DOption (d)

    I and II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only I

Why this answer is correct

A tributary, also known as an affluent, is a stream or river that feeds into a bigger stream, river, or lake. A tributary does not flow into a sea or ocean immediately. 

Important Points

  • The west-flowing river Jhelum is one of five important tributaries, including the Satluj, Beas, Ravi Chenab, and Jhelum, which eventually merge with the Indus in Pakistan.
  • Jhelum River, is a river of northwestern India and northern and eastern Pakistan.
  • It constitutes the westernmost of the five rivers of the Punjab region that merge with the Indus River in eastern Pakistan.
  • The Jhelum rises from a deep spring at Vernag, in western Jammu and Kashmir union territory, in the Indian-administered portion of the Kashmir region.
  • The river meanders northwestward from the northern slope of the Pir Panjal Range through the Vale of Kashmir to Wular Lake at Srinagar, which controls its flow.
  • Emerging from the lake, the Jhelum flows westward and crosses the Pir Panjal in a gorge some 7,000 feet (2,100 meters) deep with almost perpendicular sides.

Additional Information

  • The Gomti, also known as the Gumti or Gomati River, is a Ganges tributary.
  • The Penganga River is a tributary of the Wardha River, which is a tributary of the Pranhita River, which flows into the Godavari.

​Hence Jhelum-Indus 'River- tributary' pair is correct.

Question 156

Which of the following geographical conditions is required for the cultivation of wheat?

I. Bright sunshine is required at the time of ripening.

II. Heavy soil with good drainage is suitable for wheat cultivation under dry conditions.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I

  2. BOption (b)

    Both I and II

  3. COption (c)

    Neither I nor II

  4. DOption (d)

    Only II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both I and II

Why this answer is correct

Wheat is a grass that is commonly farmed for its seed, a cereal grain that is a staple diet all over the world. 

Important Points

The conditions required for cultivation of Wheat are:

  • It is mostly planted on flat alluvial soil, such as plains, as well as undulating topography, which offers enough drainage while also allowing for machine usage. (as given in statement II)
  • Wheat requires a temperature of roughly 15.5°C during the growth season. During the early phases of growth, the weather should be warm and wet, while in the later stages, it should be bright and dry. The warmest month's average temperature should not surpass 20°C. A 100-day frost-free time is normally necessary, however certain fast-ripening types may only take 90 days to mature. (as given in statement I)
  • Wheat requires a cold environment with moderate rainfall of 30 to 80 cm, flat and well-drained plain lands, fertile friable loam.
  • It requires large inputs such as irrigation, HYV seeds, fertilisers, and automation.

​Hence, both statement I and II are correct about geographical conditions required for cultivation of wheat.

Question 157

Suppose 100 units of solar radiation enters the earth's atmosphere. Based on this information, which of the following statements is absolutely correct?

I. Radiation lost to space through scattering will be higher than reflected by the clouds.

II. Approximately 20 units of radiation will be received by the earth's surface.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II

  3. COption (c)

    Neither I nor II

  4. DOption (d)

    Both I and II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Neither I nor II

Why this answer is correct

The word "solar radiation" refers to the electromagnetic radiation (radiant energy) released by the sun. 

Important Points

  • The incident solar radiation on an item is referred to as insolation.
  • It is a measurement of the solar energy that is incident on a certain region over a specific time period.
  • Water vapor, dust, and ozone absorb around 23% of incoming solar energy in the atmosphere, whereas the remaining 48% travels through the atmosphere and is absorbed by the earth.
  • As a result, the Earth system absorbs around 71 percent of total solar energy.

Hence, neither statement I nor II is correct.

Question 158

For a fertiliser industry, the basic raw materials are ________.

I. Sulphur

II. Rock phosphate

  1. AOption (a)

    Both I and II

  2. BOption (b)

    Only I

  3. COption (c)

    Neither I nor II

  4. DOption (d)

    Only II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both I and II

Why this answer is correct

Fertilizer is a material that is given to soil to help plants grow and produce more. 

Important Points

  • Fertilizer technology advanced greatly when the chemical demands of growing plants were recognised.
  • Modern synthetic fertilisers are primarily made up of nitrogen, sulphur, phosphorous, and potassium compounds, with some additional nutrients thrown in for good measure.
  • Synthetic fertilizers have considerably enhanced the quality and quantity of food available today, while environmentalists are divided on its long-term usage.

Hence, for a fertiliser industry, the basic raw materials are Sulphur and Rock Phosphate.

Question 159

On the basis of historical seismicity and strong ground motions, India is divided into _______ damage risk zones.

  1. AOption (a)

    Four

  2. BOption (b)

    Six

  3. COption (c)

    Three

  4. DOption (d)

    Two

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Four

Why this answer is correct

The majority of earthquakes occur in the earthquake zone, which is defined as the area on the earth's surface where the majority of earthquakes occur. The seismic zone, or earthquake belts, is another name for it.

Important Points

  • The Bureau of Indian Standards divided the nation into four seismic zones based on previous seismic activity:
  • Zone II (low intensity zone-  or less),
  • Zone III(moderate intensity zone-7),
  • Zone IV(severe intensity zone-8), and
  • Zone V(very severe intensity zone- 9 and above).
  • Zone-V is the most seismically active of the four zones, whereas Zone-II is the least.

​Hence, on the basis of historical seismicity and strong ground motions, India is divided into four damage risk zones.

Question 160

Which of the following is a plantation crop?

I. Coconut

II. Rubber

III. Tea

  1. AOption (a)

    I and II

  2. BOption (b)

    I, II and III

  3. COption (c)

    II and III

  4. DOption (d)

    I and III

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

I, II and III

Why this answer is correct

Plantation crops are crops that are produced over a vast region as an agricultural and industrial interface. It serves as a source of raw materials for several industries.

  • Rubber:
  • In 1877, a rubber plantation was established in Malaysia. The seedlings were first taken from the Amazon Basin and planted on an experimental basis there.
  • Coconut:
  • As the coconut is a plant that is heavily reliant on the presence and usage of water, it is planted during the start of the rainy season (April–May).
  • Coconut is propagated primarily through seedlings that are produced and fostered in a nursery.
  • Tea:
  • A tea plantation is a farm dedicated to the cultivation of camellia sinensis, the plant known as tea all over the world.
  • Cultivation, harvesting, processing, and selling are all common phases in the tea production process.
  • Plantations may keep all of the operations going beyond the growing and harvesting stages, or they may sell the leaves to be processed by other enterprises.

​Hence Rubber, Coconut and Tea are all plantation crops.

Discipline 4 (20 questions)

Question 161

The fixed interest rate at which the Reserve Bank of India absorbs liquidity, on an overnight basis from banks is called _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Bank rate

  2. BOption (b)

    Reverse repo rate

  3. COption (c)

    Repo rate

  4. DOption (d)

    Exchange rate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Reverse repo rate

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Reverse repo rate

Key Points

Reverse Repo Rate:

  • Reverse Repo Rate is when the RBI borrows money from banks when there is excess liquidity in the market.
  • The banks benefit from it by receiving interest for their holdings with the central bank.
  • The interest rate at which the Reserve Bank absorbs liquidity from banks against the collateral of eligible government securities under the LAF.
  • The Reverse Repo Rate helps the RBI get money from the banks when it needs.
  • The Reverse Repo Rate is decided by the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC), headed by the RBI Governor.
  • The decision is taken in the bi-monthly meeting of the Committee.

Additional Information

  • Repo rate: The interest rate at which the Reserve Bank provides liquidity under the liquidity adjustment facility (LAF) to all LAF participants against the collateral of government and other approved securities. This ultimately reduces the money supply in the economy and thus helps in arresting inflation.
  • Bank Rate- A bank rate is the interest rate a nation's central bank charges to its domestic banks to borrow money. The rates central banks charge are set to stabilize the economy.
  • Exchange Rate- The exchange rate, is the price of a country’s money in relation to another country’s money. An exchange rate is “fixed” when countries use gold or another agreed-upon standard, and each currency is worth a specific measure of the metal or other standard.

Hence, the fixed interest rate at which the Reserve Bank of India absorbs liquidity, on an overnight basis from banks is called Reverse Repo Rate.**

Question 162

Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding division of powers in India?

I. The Indian constitution lays down an elaborate division of legislative powers between the union and the state government in the seventh schedule.

II. There are two lists in seventh schedule of Indian constitution.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I

  2. BOption (b)

    Both I and II

  3. COption (c)

    Only II

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither I nor II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only II

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

I. The Indian constitution lays down an elaborate division of legislative powers between the union and the state government in the seventh schedule.

  • The constitutional provisions in India on the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States are defined under several articles; the most important in this regard is specifically under articles 245 & 246 of the Constitution of India.
  • Originally there were 97 subjects in the union list but now it is 100 subjects in the union list.
  • And in the state list, there were 66 subjects but now it is 61 subjects.
  • And in the concurrent list, there were 47 subjects but now it is 52 subjects in the concurrent list. as of 1st November 2021.  Hence statement 1 is correct.

II. There are three lists in the seventh schedule of the Indian constitution.

  • The Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India defines and specifies the allocation of powers and functions between the Union & States.
  • It contains three lists; i.e. 1) Union List, 2) State List and 3) Concurrent List. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

Hence, only the statement- The Indian constitution lays down an elaborate division of legislative powers between the union and the state government in the seventh schedule is correct.

Question 163

At the time of Independence, Indian Economy was _______.

I. underdeveloped

II. independent economy

  1. AOption (a)

    Neither I nor II

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II

  3. COption (c)

    Only I

  4. DOption (d)

    Both I and II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only I

Why this answer is correct

Key PointsAt the time of Independence, the Indian Economy was

  • On the eve of independence, the Indian economy was underdeveloped. Low per capita income and low national income were the reasons behind widespread poverty.
  • The distribution of national income was not equitable and hence the gap between the wealthy and poor was high.
  • A handful of rich persons, who were serving in the British government or owned some industry, were enjoying a relatively larger share of the national income while the majority of the poor were getting a relatively smaller share of it.
  • Inequalities in income distribution were observed both in the rural and urban sectors of the economy.
  • Most of the population was dependent on agriculture for occupation.

Therefore, the above discussion makes it obvious that the Indian economy during the time of independence was underdeveloped and not independent. Hence, the correct answer is that only I is correct.

Question 164

Which of the following factors contribute to enhancing the 'net production' of food grains?

I. Method of cultivation

II. Storage of food grains

  1. AOption (a)

    Both I and II

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither I nor II

  3. COption (c)

    Only II

  4. DOption (d)

    Only I

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both I and II

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

  • The food production systems are highly fragmented and dependent on a large number of small-scale producers.
  • During the Green Revolution, the use of high-yielding seeds together with chemical-intensive agriculture that uses massive quantities of fertilizer and pesticides created diverse effects on soil and environmental contamination.
  • Along with the use of High Yielding Variety of seeds, the methods of cultivation were one of the critical inputs given during the Green Revolution.
  • Modern methods of irrigation like the use of sprinklers, drip systems, and others.
  • There is a sufficient amount of protection used from weeds included in the modern methods of cultivation.
  • Storage of produce is an important task.
  • If the harvested grains are to be kept for a longer time, they should be safe from moisture, insects, rats, and microorganisms.
  • Harvested grains have more moisture.
  • If freshly harvested grains (seeds) are stored without drying, they may get spoilt or attacked by organisms, making them unfit for use or for germination.

Hence, both the methods of cultivation and storage of food grains are important factors for increasing the net production of food grains.

Question 165

Which of the following statement is correct regarding the representative democracy?

I. It is an indirect form of democracy.

II. Presidential democracy is a type of representative democracy

III. There are more presidential democracies around the world than parliamentary democracies.

  1. AOption (a)

    II and III

  2. BOption (b)

    I and III

  3. COption (c)

    I and II

  4. DOption (d)

    I, II and III

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

I and II

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

 Representative Democracy:

  • In a representative democracy, the people elect officials to create and vote on laws, policies, and other matters of government on their behalf.
  • In this manner, representative democracy is the opposite of direct democracy, in which the people themselves vote on every law or policy considered at every level of government.
  • Representative democracy is typically employed in larger countries where the sheer number of citizens involved would make direct democracy unmanageable.
  • Elected representatives may also have the power to select other government leaders, such as a prime minister or president.
  • Most democracies in the world today use the parliamentary system as opposed to a presidential system like that used in the United States.
  • A few examples among the many parliamentary democracies are Canada, Great Britain, Italy, Japan, Latvia, the Netherlands, and New Zealand.

From the above discussion, it can be concluded that only It is an indirect form of democracy and Presidential democracy is a type of representative democracy are correct.

Question 166

Which of the following pair of article - constituents is correct regarding constitution of India?

I. 327 - Power of Parliament to make provision with respect to election of legislatures.

II. 329 - Ban to interference by courts in electoral matters.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both I and II

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither I nor II

  3. COption (c)

    Only I

  4. DOption (d)

    Only II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both I and II

Why this answer is correct

Key Points327 - Power of Parliament to make provision with respect to the election of legislatures.

  • Subject to the provisions of this Constitution, Parliament may from time to time by law make provision with respect to all matters relating to, or in connection with, elections to either House of Parliament or to the House or either House of the Legislature of a State including the preparation of electoral rolls, the delimitation of constituencies and all other matters necessary for securing the due constitution of such House or Houses.

329 - Ban interference by courts in electoral matters.

  • The validity of any law relating to the delimitation of constituencies or the allotment of seats to such constituencies made or purporting to be made under article 327 or article 328, shall not be called in question in any court;
  • No election to either House of Parliament or to the House or either House of the Legislature of a State shall be called in question except by an election petition presented to such authority and in such manner as may be provided for by or under any law made by the appropriate Legislature.

Hence, both the pairs are accurately matched. The correct answer is Both I and II are correct.

Question 167

Which of the following is the quantitative technique of credit control?

I. Bank rate

II. Open market operations

  1. AOption (a)

    Neither I nor II

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II

  3. COption (c)

    Only I

  4. DOption (d)

    Both I and II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both I and II

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

 Qualitative Technique of credit control:

Bank Rate- 

  • The bank rate or the discount rate is the rate at which a central bank is prepared to discount the first class bills of exchange.
  • The rate of interest which the central bank charges from the commercial banks for rediscounting the bills is called bank rate.
  • Bank rate policy influences- (a) the cost and availability of credit to the commercial banks, (b) interest rates and money supply in the economy, and (c) the level of economic activity of the economy.
  • A rise in the bank rate makes the credit costlier, reduces the volume of credit, discourages economic activity and brings down the price level in the economy.

Open Market Operations- 

  • Open market operations refer to the deliberate and direct buying and selling of securities in the money market by the central bank.
  • In the narrow sense, open market operations refer to the purchase and sale by the central bank of government securities in the money market. In the broad sense, open market operations imply the purchase and sale by the central bank of any kind of eligible paper, like, government securities, bills and securities of private concerns, etc.

Variable Cash Reserve Ratio-

  • The method of variable cash reserve ratio or changing minimum cash reserves to be kept with the central bank by the commercial banks is comparatively new method of credit control used by the central banks.
  • Changes in the cash reserve ratio are a powerful method for influencing not only the volume of excess reserves with the commercial banks, but also the credit multiplier of the banking system.
  • The significance of this method lies in the fact that increase in the minimum cash reserve ratio, by reducing (or increasing) the base of the cash reserves of the commercial banks decreases their potential credit creation capacity.

Hence, both bank rate and open market operations are techniques of quantitative credit control.

Question 168

Which article of Indian constitution is related to the adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-state rivers or river valleys?

  1. AOption (a)

    Article 261

  2. BOption (b)

    Article 260

  3. COption (c)

    Article 259

  4. DOption (d)

    Article 262

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Article 262

Why this answer is correct

India has a federal government, yet it leans more toward a unitary government. Because it includes elements of both a federal and a unitary system, it is frequently referred to as a quasi-federal system. 'India, that is Bharat, shall be a union of states,' says Article 1 of the Indian Constitution.

Important Points

Art 262:

  • Article 262 of the Indian Constitution of 1949. 262.
  • Disputes involving inter-state rivers or river valleys are adjudicated.
  • (1) Parliament may legislate by legislation for the resolution of any dispute or complaint involving the usage, distribution, or control of the waters of any interstate river or river valley.

Additional Information

  • Article 259:
  • Article 259 of the Indian Constitution - July 22, 2016, Armed Forces in States in Part B of the First Schedule of the Indian Constitution Rep by the Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956, S 29 and Schedule.
  • Article 260:
  • The Union's Jurisdiction in Relation to Territories Outside India, any executive, legislative, or judicial functions vested in the Government of any territory not part of India's territory may be undertaken by the Government of India by agreement with the Government of such territory, but any such agreement shall be subject to and governed by any law relating to the exercise of the foreign jurisdiction in force at the time.
  • Article 261:
  • Article 261 of the Indian Constitution of 1949. Acts of the public, documents, and judicial processes. The Union and each State's public acts, documents, and judicial processes should be granted full faith and credit across India's territory.

Hence, Article 262 is the article of the Indian constitution that is related to the adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-state rivers or river valleys.

Question 169

Which of the following parties was NOT a part of the group of parties that formed Janata Party in 1977?

  1. AOption (a)

    Lok Dal

  2. BOption (b)

    Congress for Democracy

  3. COption (c)

    Bharatiya Jana Sangh

  4. DOption (d)

    Swatantra Party

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Swatantra Party

Why this answer is correct

The Janata Party (abbreviated as JP, lit. People's Party) was a political party created in 1975 as an amalgamation of Indian political groups hostile to Prime Minister Indira Gandhi of the Indian National Congress's Emergency, which was implemented from 1975 and 1977.

Important Points

  • On the 11th of October 1988, on the birth anniversary of Jayaprakash Narayan, the Janata Dal ("People's Party") was created by the merging of Janata Party divisions, the Lok Dal, Indian National Congress (Jagjivan), and the Jan Morcha. It was led by V. P. Singh.
  • It first came to power in 1989, after allegations of corruption, known as the Bofors scandal, caused Rajiv Gandhi's Congress (I) to lose the elections.
  • The National Front coalition that was formed consisted of the Janata Dal and a few smaller parties in the government and had outside support from the Left Front and the Bharatiya Janata Party. V. P. Singh was the prime minister.

Additional Information

  • Congress for democracy, Bharatiya Jana Sangh, and Lok Dal  were a part of the group of parties that formed the Janata Party in 1977.

Question 170

The 61st Amendment Act, 1989 of Indian constitution is associated with which of the following provisions?

  1. AOption (a)

    Minimum voting age increased to 21 years

  2. BOption (b)

    Maximum voting age increased to 65 years

  3. COption (c)

    Maximum voting age prescribed to 61 years

  4. DOption (d)

    Minimum voting age reduced to 18 years

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Minimum voting age reduced to 18 years

Why this answer is correct

9As of December 2021, there are 104 amendment acts in the Indian Constitution that have been passed over time. All of these revisions have had a substantial impact on Indian politics. 

Important Points

  • Elections to the Houses and State Legislative Assemblies on the basis of universal adult suffrage are governed under Article 326 of the Indian Constitution.
  • Before the 61st Amendment, any citizen of India who is 21 years of age or older and is not disqualified for any other reason, such as non-residence, criminality, corrupt or unlawful actions, or unsoundness of mind, was entitled to vote in an election.
  • The proposal to lower the voting age to 18 years was made in order to encourage young involvement in the country's electoral process.​

**Hence, the 61st **Amendment Act, 1989 of the Indian constitution is associated with lowering the Minimum voting age reduced to 18 years.

Question 171

Which of the following monetary aggregates captures the complete balance sheet of the banking sector?

  1. AOption (a)

    M2

  2. BOption (b)

    M1

  3. COption (c)

    M3

  4. DOption (d)

    M4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

M3

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

  • M1-  CU (currency (notes plus coins) held by the public) + DD (net demand deposits held by commercial banks.)
  • M2- M1 + Savings deposits with Post Office savings banks
  • M3- M1 + Net time deposits of commercial banks
  • M4- M3 + Total deposits with Post Office savings organizations (excluding National Savings Certificates)

Thus, M3 is the monetary aggregate that captures the actual balance sheet of the banking sector because it shows the net time deposits of the commercial banks plus all the savings and currency notes.

Additional Information

  • M1 and M2 are known as narrow money. M3 and M4 are known as broad money.
  • M1 is the most liquid and easiest for transactions whereas M4 is the least liquid of all.
  • M3 is the most commonly used measure of the money supply. It is also known as aggregate monetary resources.

Hence, the M3 is the aggregate that is reflected in the balance sheet of the banking sector.

Question 172

Which of the following parties was established by Mamta Banerjee?

  1. AOption (a)

    All India Forward Bloc

  2. BOption (b)

    Akhil Bharatiya Gorkha League

  3. COption (c)

    All India Trinamool Congress

  4. DOption (d)

    Amra Bangalee

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

All India Trinamool Congress

Why this answer is correct

Mamata Banerjee is an Indian politician who has been the ninth and current chief minister of West Bengal, India, since May 20, 2011, making her the first woman to occupy the position. 

Important Points

  • Mamata Banerjee, who had previously served in the Union Cabinet, was elected Chief Minister of West Bengal for the first time in 2011.
  • After splitting from the Indian National Congress in 1998, she created the All India Trinamool Congress (AITC or TMC) and served as its first chairman.
  • 'Didi' is a nickname for her (meaning elder sister in Bengali).

Additional Information

  • All India Forward Bloc: The AIFB (All India Forward Bloc) is an Indian left-wing nationalist political party. It was founded in 1939 as a section of the Indian National Congress, led by Subhas Chandra Bose. Following India's independence, the party was re-established as an independent political party.
  • Akhil Bharatiya Gorkha League: The Akhil Bharatiya Gorkha League is a political party active in Darjeeling District, West Bengal, India, among the Nepali-speaking community. Damber Singh Gurung formed the party in 1943.
  • Amra Bangalee: Amra Bangali is an Indian political party founded in response to anti-Bengali sentiments in Northeast India. The party is based on Prabhat Ranjan Sarkar's socio-economic and political theory Progressive Utilization Theory

​Hence, All India Trinamool Congress was established by Mamata Banerjee.

Question 173

________ has the power to withhold assent to a bill in state legislature and reserve it for the President's assent.

  1. AOption (a)

    Governor

  2. BOption (b)

    Speaker of the house of people

  3. COption (c)

    Prime Minister

  4. DOption (d)

    Chairman of the council of states

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Governor

Why this answer is correct

The President of India appoints the Governor of a State. He is not chosen by a direct vote of the people, nor by an indirect vote of a specially formed Electoral College, as the President is. He is a central government appointee. 

Important Points

  • A measure enacted by the Legislative Assembly in a unicameral legislature is forwarded straight to the Governor for his signature.
  • In a bicameral state legislature, a measure is delivered to the Governor following passage in the second chamber.
  • For governor, there are four options:
  • He has the option of signing the bill;
  • He has the option of refusing to sign the bill;
  • President may send the bill back to the House or houses for reconsideration; and
  • He may place the measure on the President's desk for consideration.​

Additional Information

Speaker of the house of people, Prime Minister are both part of the voting members in the process of a bill becoming a law. 

The Chairman of the Council of states: is the person who conducts the business of the house.

Hence, the Governor has the power to withhold assent to a bill in state legislature and reserve it for the President's assent.

Question 174

Which of the following is a non-economic factor influencing economic development?

I. Governance

II. Soil and Terrain

  1. AOption (a)

    Only II

  2. BOption (b)

    Only I

  3. COption (c)

    Both I and II

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither I nor II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only I

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

 Non-economic factors influencing economic development:

  1. Human Resources: Human resources is called human capital because of its power to increase productivity and thereby national income. There is a circular relationship between human development and economic growth. A healthy, educated and skilled labour force is the most important productive asset. Human capital formation is the process of increasing knowledge, skills, and the productive capacity of people. It includes expenditure on health, education, and social services.
  2. Technical Know-how: As scientific and technological knowledge advances, more and more sophisticated techniques steadily raise the productivity levels in all sectors. Schumpeter attributed the cause of economic development to innovation.
  3. Political Freedom: The process of development is linked with political freedom. Dadabhai Naoroji explained in his classic work ‘Poverty and Un-British Rule in India’ that the drain of wealth from India under British rule was the major cause of the increase in poverty in India.
  4. Social Organization: People show interest in the development activity only when they feel that the fruits of development will be fairly distributed. Mass participation in development programs is a pre-condition for accelerating the development process. Whenever the defective social organization allows some groups to appropriate the benefits of growth. majority of the poor people do not participate in the process of development. This is called crony capitalism.
  5. Governance: Corruption is a negative factor in the growth process. Unless the countries root out corruption in their administrative system, the crony capitalists and traders will continue to exploit national resources. Tax evasion tends to breed corruption and hamper economic progress.
  6. The desire for development: The pace of economic growth in any country depends to a great extent on people’s desire for development. If in some countries, the level of consciousness is low and the general mass of people has accepted poverty as its fate, then there will be little scope for development.
  7. Moral, ethical and social values: These determine the efficiency of the market, according to Douglas C. North. If people are not honest, the market cannot function.

Hence, only governance is the non-economic factor influencing economic development.

Question 175

Which of the following characteristics of organised sector is correct?

I. Terms of employment are regular

II. Not registered by the government

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither I nor II

  3. COption (c)

    Only II

  4. DOption (d)

    Both I and II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only I

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

 Organized Sector:

  • The organized sector comprises employees who work under fixed terms and timings. For example- If a person is working for a factory or employed in a government job, then it will fall under the organized sector.
  • Employers in the organized sectors follow the government rules and Acts applicable to them. They have assured jobs with job security.
  • The Factory Act, PF Act, and Minimum Wages Act provisions would apply to them. They have to report to the authorities confirming their adherence to the applicable laws of the land.
  • Employers in the organized sector have set procedures that are followed to relieve employees of their duties. Employees are eligible for benefits like overtime, provident fund, medical benefits and other perquisites provided by their employer.
  • Employers in the unorganized sector do not fall under the radar of government laws and statutes.

Hence, under an organized sector, the terms of employment are regular.

Question 176

Which of the following is NOT one of the major factors responsible for producing tsunami?

  1. AOption (a)

    Collision of convergent destructive plates.

  2. BOption (b)

    Massive cloud burst in a region.

  3. COption (c)

    Explosive volcanic eruptions in the sea floor.

  4. DOption (d)

    Undersea massive landslides caused by sudden tectonic movements.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Massive cloud burst in a region.

Why this answer is correct

Tsunamis are massive waves that occur under the sea as a result of earthquakes or volcanic eruptions. Tsunami waves do not grow in height as they go further into the ocean.  

Important Point

  • Cloudburst occurs when a large volume of precipitation falls in a short length of time across a limited geographic area.
  • Cloudburst is a sudden, very heavy rainfall, usually local in nature and of brief duration.
  • Most so-called cloudbursts occur in connection with thunderstorms.
  • In these storms, there are violent uprushes of air, which at times prevent the condensing raindrops from falling to the ground.

Additional Information

These are few causes of Tsunami:

  • Convergence of destructive plates
  • Volcanic eruptions under the sea
  • Undersea landslides.

​Hence cloud bursts are not one of the major factors responsible for producing a tsunami.

Question 177

Which of the following political leaders is associated with Bahujan Samaj Party?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mayawati

  2. BOption (b)

    Sonia Gandhi

  3. COption (c)

    Uma Bharti

  4. DOption (d)

    Supriya Shrinate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Mayawati

Why this answer is correct

The Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) is an Indian political party founded to support Bahujans (meaning "community in the majority"), a term that refers to Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes (OBC), as well as religious minorities.  

Important Points

  • Mayawati is an Indian politician and social reformer who was born on January 15, 1956.
  • She has served as Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh four times.
  • She is the national president of the Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP), which advocates for Bahujans, also known as Other Backward Castes, Scheduled Castes, and Scheduled Tribes, as well as converted minorities from these castes, via a platform of social transformation.

Additional Information

  • Sonia Gandhi: is part of Congress.
  • Uma Bharti: is part of BJP.
  • Supriya Shrinate: is part of Congress.

Hence Mayawati is associated with Bahujan Samaj party.

Question 178

Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the economic growth?

  1. AOption (a)

    Economic growth is both quantitative and qualitative.

  2. BOption (b)

    Economic growth is single dimensional.

  3. COption (c)

    Economic growth refers to a rise in national or per capita income.

  4. DOption (d)

    It provides solution to the problems of developed countries.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Economic growth is both quantitative and qualitative.

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

 Features of Economic Development:

Economic Development is a continuous process-

  • Every developing economy tries to put in place economic plans and programs for economic growth and economic development.
  • It is not a one-time deal but a continuous process for the long term as it will lead to better use of financial and human resources.

Economic Development boosts national income: An important characteristic of economic development is that it will help to raise per capita income which will result in a boost of national income.

Economic Development improves the standard of living:

  • A rise in per capita income will lead to an increase in the purchasing power of a person.
  • An important characteristic of economic development is that better consumption of products and services will be reflected in a better quality of life.

Economic Development helps to utilize national resource property: An economy that believes in economic development is one that will exploit national resource property to its fullest and keep up with the world economies.

Economic Development Results in Structural Changes: An important characteristic of economic development is that the process will help in structural changes and more opportunities from agriculture to manufacturing to the service sector. 

Hence, economic growth is only measurable in quantitative terms and not in qualitative terms. So, the first statement is incorrect.

Question 179

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the commercial paper?

I. It is unsecured money market instrument issued in the form of a promissory note.

II. It was introduced in India in 1990.

III. They are issued by the Reserve Bank of India.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I

  2. BOption (b)

    I, II and III

  3. COption (c)

    I and II

  4. DOption (d)

    Only III

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

I and II

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

 Commercial Paper:

  • Commercial Paper (CP) is an unsecured money market instrument issued in the form of a promissory note.
  • Commercial Paper was introduced in India in 1990 with a view to enabling highly rated corporate borrowers to diversify their sources of short-term borrowings and to provide an additional instrument to investors.
  • Commercial Papers are issued by corporates, Primary Dealers and the all-India financial institutions (FIs) that have been permitted to raise short-term resources under the umbrella limit fixed by the Reserve Bank of India are eligible to issue CP.
  • Highly rated corporate borrowers, primary dealers, satellite dealers, an all-India financial institutions which have been permitted to raise resources through money market instruments under the umbrella limit fixed by the Reserve Bank of India are eligible to issue Commercial Papers.

Hence, statement III- They are issued by the Reserve Bank of India, is incorrect. Thus, only Statements I and II are correct.

Question 180

In which of the following year, was the Sarkaria Commission for center-state relations appointed by the central government?

  1. AOption (a)

    1983

  2. BOption (b)

    1999

  3. COption (c)

    1974

  4. DOption (d)

    1977

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1983

Why this answer is correct

A government-appointed commission is a group of persons charged with carrying out a specified duty or goal. It might be long-term or specific to accomplish a short-term goal. Permanent commissions are long-term commissions. Ad-hoc commissions are those that have been charged with completing a specific assignment.  

Important Points

  • In 1983, the Parliament recommended appointing a committee, which would be chaired by R.S. Sarkaria, a retired Supreme Court judge.
  • The panel was established in June 1983 when the Ministry of Home Affairs issued a notification.
  • Members of the commission were selected by Shri B. Sivaraman and Dr. S. R. Sen.
  • The commission was tasked with examining and evaluating the effectiveness of current arrangements between the Union and States in terms of authorities, functions, and duties in all areas, as well as proposing reforms to improve cooperation between the **centre and the states. **​

Additional Information

There were no commissions in the years 1974,1977 and 1999.

Hence, Sarkaria Commission was formed in the year 1983.

Discipline 5 (10 questions)

Question 181

In which of the following years, democracy was introduced in the post-independent India?

  1. AOption (a)

    1958

  2. BOption (b)

    1951

  3. COption (c)

    1950

  4. DOption (d)

    1948

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1950

Why this answer is correct

The aims, date of adoption, and other significant aspects of an Indian Constitution are defined in the Preamble. 

Important Points

  • The Preamble was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on November 26, 1949, and it went into force on January 26, 1 950.
  • Individuals' basic rights are at least safeguarded in a democracy.
  • Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, and Republic are the five principles that govern India's democracy.

Hence, democracy was introduced in 1950.

Question 182

Which constitutional amendment act added fundamental duties in the Indian constitution?

  1. AOption (a)

    47th

  2. BOption (b)

    32nd

  3. COption (c)

    42nd

  4. DOption (d)

    74th

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

42nd

Why this answer is correct

Legislative or constitutional procedure for changing or revising a law or document (such as in the constitution). 

Important Points

  • One of the most significant revisions to the Indian Constitution is the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976.
  • The Indian National Congress, led by Indira Gandhi, passed it at the time.
  • This legislation is also known as the 'Mini-Constitution' because of the enormous number of revisions it has made to the Indian Constitution.
  • The Fundamental Duties were added to the constitution under this amendment.

Additional Information

  • The 47th Amendment brought changes to the ninth schedule of the constitution.
  • The 32nd Amendment brought changes to article 371 of the Constitution and added articles 371D and 371E into the constitution.
  • The 74th Amendment offers a foundation for the decentralisation of powers and authority to municipal entities at various levels.

​Hence, 42nd Amendment added fundamental duties in the Indian constitution.

Question 183

Which schedule of the Indian constitution provides the provisions as to disqualification on ground of defection?

  1. AOption (a)

    Eleventh

  2. BOption (b)

    Tenth

  3. COption (c)

    Fourth

  4. DOption (d)

    Second

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Tenth

Why this answer is correct

In India's Constitution, there are 12 Schedules. The Government of India Act, 1935, included one of the earliest references to Schedules. The Indian Constitution had eight schedules when it was approved in 1949. There are now 12 Schedules in the Indian Constitution, thanks to changes. 

Important Points Tenth Schedule: 

  • It contains provisions relating to members of Parliament and state legislatures being disqualified for defection.
  • The Anti-defection Law, commonly known as the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985, included this schedule.

Additional Information

  • Eleventh Schedule: It comprises provisions that define Panchayats' powers, authority, and obligations. There are 29 issues in all. The 73rd Amendment Act of 1992 adds this schedule.
  • Fourth Schedule: It comprises laws relating to the allotment of seats in the Rajya Sabha to States and Union Territories.
  • Second Schedule: The provisions governing the allowances, privileges, and emoluments of the President, Speaker, Chief Justice of India as well as those of other key officials from the legislative, executive, and judicial branches.

Hence, the 10th Schedule provides the provisions as to disqualification on the ground of defection.

Question 184

Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the fundamental rights in the Indian constitution?

  1. AOption (a)

    They are completely absolute.

  2. BOption (b)

    These rights are justiciable.

  3. COption (c)

    Right to property is not a fundamental right.

  4. DOption (d)

    Cultural and educational rights are fundamental rights.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

They are completely absolute.

Why this answer is correct

Fundamental rights are the core human rights guaranteed to all people of India as established in the Indian Constitution. 

Important Points

  • Fundamental rights are not absolute since they can be curtailed and are subject to reasonable limitations for the sake of the public good.
  • They are applied without regard for race, religion, gender, or other factors.
  • Fundamental rights, in particular, are enforceable by the courts, subject to specific restrictions.
  • All parts of the Constitution, including basic rights, can be amended, according to the Supreme Court.

Additional Information

  • They are legally enforceable (enforceable by courts) that is in the event of a violation, a person may seek justice in a court of law.
  • The 44th Constitutional Amendment eliminated the Right to Property from the list of essential rights. This was due to the fact that this privilege proven to be a barrier to achieving socialism's aim of dispersing wealth (property) evenly among the people. It is now a legal right and not a fundamental one.
  • Article 29 of the Indian Constitution guarantees such minorities' basic right to safeguard their language and culture. Article 30 guarantees everyone the right to education.

​Hence, the statement "They are completely absolute."  is NOT correct regarding the fundamental rights in the Indian constitution.

Question 185

Which of the following states in India does NOT have Panchayat Raj system?

  1. AOption (a)

    Nagaland

  2. BOption (b)

    Arunachal Pradesh

  3. COption (c)

    Manipur

  4. DOption (d)

    Sikkim

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Nagaland

Why this answer is correct

Panchayati Raj is a three-tiered Indian administrative organization for rural development. The Panchayati Raj is a system of local self-government in India that aims to establish local self-government in districts, zones, and villages.  

Important Points

  • The Panchayati Raj System is not applicable in some locations.
  • According to Article 243 M of the Indian constitution, save for Nagaland, Meghalaya, and Mizoram, and all Union Territories except Delhi, the Panchayati Raj system exists in all states and Union Territories.

Additional Information

  • The Panchayati Raj System is applicable in Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur and  Sikkim.

​Hence Panchayat Raj System is NOT applicable in Nagaland.

Question 186

Which of the following articles does NOT come under the Right to Equality of Indian constitution?

  1. AOption (a)

    Article 13

  2. BOption (b)

    Article 17

  3. COption (c)

    Article 15

  4. DOption (d)

    Article 18

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Article 13

Why this answer is correct

Fundamental rights are the core human rights guaranteed to all people of India as established in the Indian Constitution. They are applied without regard for race, religion, gender, or other factors. Fundamental rights, in particular, are enforceable by the courts, subject to specific restrictions. 

Important Points

The right to equality ensures that everyone has equal rights, regardless of religion, gender, caste, ethnicity, or place of birth. It is summarised in the following articles of the Indian Constitution:

  • Article 14: On the basis of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth, the State must not deny any individual within the territory of India equality before the law or equal protection under the law.
  • Article 15:The State shall not discriminate against any citizen solely on the basis of religion, race, caste, sex, birthplace, or any combination of these factors.
  • **Article 16:**In areas pertaining to employment or appointment to any position under the State, all citizens shall have equal opportunity.
  • **Article 17:**Untoucability abolition
  • Article 18: All titles, save military and academic, are abolished.

Hence article 13 does NOT come under the Right to Equality of the Indian constitution.

Question 187

Which of the following was the aftermath of the civil war in Britain in the 17th century?

  1. AOption (a)

    Royal absolution ended

  2. BOption (b)

    Women got voting rights

  3. COption (c)

    Capitalistic society was created

  4. DOption (d)

    Slavery was abolished

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Royal absolution ended

Why this answer is correct

The English Civil War (1642–1651) was a series of civil conflicts and political manoeuverings mostly over the style of England's rule between Parliamentarians ("Roundheads") and Royalists ("Cavaliers"). 

Important Points

The aftermath of the British Civil War saw the following consequences:

  • Charles I (1649) was tried and executed.
  • Charles II (1651) son of Charles I was sent to exile.
  • English monarchy was replaced with the Commonwealth of England, which unified the British Isles under the personal rule of Oliver Cromwell (1653–1658) and briefly his son Richard (1658–1659) from 1653 (as the Commonwealth of England, Scotland, and Ireland).

Additional Information

  • The Representation of the People Act of 1918 permitted women over the age of 30 who satisfied certain property ownership requirements to vote.
  • The proto capitalist society was created during the industrial revolution in 18th century England.
  • Slavery was abolished legally in1838 in England.
  • None of the above historical landmarks were direct consequences of abolition of Monarchy in England.

Hence end of Royal absolution was the aftermath of the civil war in Britain in the 17th century.

Question 188

The constitution of India came into force on _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    25 November, 1950

  2. BOption (b)

    26 January, 1950

  3. COption (c)

    26 November, 1949

  4. DOption (d)

    15 August, 1950

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

26 January, 1950

Why this answer is correct

The Constituent Assembly is the drafting committe of the Indian constitution that was formed by the Cabinet mission plan. 

Important Points

  • The draft was released in January 1948, and the people of the country were given eight months to provide criticism and suggestions.
  • The final session took place from November 14 to November 26, 1949.
  • On January 26, 1950, the constitution went into effect (which is celebrated as Republic Day).

Additional Information

  • On November 26, 1949, the legislature voted and ratified the constitution.
  • On 15th August India became Independent but not in 1950.

​Hence, the Constitution of India came into force on 26th January 1950

Question 189

Which of the following statement regarding the rise of Maoists in Nepal is correct?

I. 'Peoples Movement' was launched by them in 1986.

II. The Maoists hand not set up 'people's government in any districts of Nepal until 2000.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I

  2. BOption (b)

    Both I and II

  3. COption (c)

    Neither I nor II

  4. DOption (d)

    Only II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Neither I nor II

Why this answer is correct

The 1990 People's Movement in Nepal was a multiparty movement that ended the absolute monarchy and established a constitutional monarchy. The Panchayat system was also abolished.

Key Points

  • On the18th February 1990 the 'People's Movement' was launched by the Maoists in Nepal.
  • There were Maoist governments in around 32 or more districts in Nepal but in the 2000s peace talks between the Maoists and the government were going on.
  • The Nepalese Civil War was a protracted armed conflict that took place in Nepal between the Communist Party of Nepal (Maoist) and the Government of Nepal from 1996 to 2006.
  • The rebellion was launched by the CPN-M on 13 February 1996 with the stated purpose of overthrowing the Nepalese monarchy and establishing a people's republic.
  • It ended with the signing of the Comprehensive Peace Accord on 21 November 2006.
  • The conflict was characterized by summary executions, massacres, purges, kidnappings, and other war crimes and crimes against humanity.

Hence, both statements I and II are incorrect about the rise of Maoists in Nepal.

Question 190

The panchayat system in Nepal was established by ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    King Tribhuvan

  2. BOption (b)

    King Birendra

  3. COption (c)

    King Gyanendra

  4. DOption (d)

    King Mahendra

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

King Mahendra

Why this answer is correct

The new constitution of December 16, 1962, was adopted on the second anniversary of the breakup of the government and established a four-tier Nepali panchayat system.

Important Points

  • On the 15th of December 1960 AD, King Mahendra established a partyless political system by dismissing the Nepali Congress administration of B. P. Koirala.
  • On January 5, 1961, he established the non-partisan Panchayat system. King Mahendra exercised his emergency powers in 1960.
  • In December 1959, King Mahendra proclaimed a new constitution, creating a party-free Panchayat system, as a "exercise of the sovereign authority and prerogatives inherent in us."
  • In December 1959, a new constitution was adopted, incorporating a Partyless Panchayat System.

Additional Information

  • King Tribhuvan- Prithvi Bir Bikram Shah and Queen Divyeshwari Lakshmi Devi Shah gave birth to King Tribhuvan on June 30, 1906. Tribhuvan Bir Birkarm Shah assumed the throne on December 11, 1911, at the age of five, following the death of his father.
  • King Birendra- After King Mahendra Bir Bikram Shah Dev's death in 1972, King Birendra Bir Bikram Shah Dev became the 11th King of Nepal. He was King Mahendra's eldest son.
  • King Gyanendra- From 2001 to 2008, Gyanendra Bir Bikram Shah Dev was the King of Nepal. After his elder brother, Monarch Birendra, was slain in a shooting incident that killed most of his family members, he became Nepal's 12th king.

Hence Panchayat system in Nepal was established by King Mahendra.

Teaching Methodology (10 questions)

Question 191

Which factor affects the inclusive Education?

I. Evaluation system

II. Preparedness of Teacher

III. Diversity among the learners

  1. AOption (a)

    I, II and III

  2. BOption (b)

    I and II

  3. COption (c)

    II and III

  4. DOption (d)

    Only II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

I, II and III

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

Inclusive Education:

Evaluation system:

  • The evaluation system followed by the school is also a contributing factor.
  • A diversified evaluation system is required to evaluate diverse learners.
  • The evaluation system followed in countries like India is still a barrier to inclusion.
  • The school can develop a diversified evaluation system that fits all learners with different styles and abilities.

Readiness of the teacher:

  • The readiness to work with all children, especially those with disabilities is reflected in the attitude of the teacher towards inclusive education, and greatly affects the social interaction of students with special needs in the school.
  • The attitude of a teacher is the driving force behind the learning environment.
  • When the teacher possesses a positive attitude towards all learners and their inclusion process, students feel welcomed and motivated to be a part of such a learning environment automatically.

Learner’s attitude:

  • The attitude of a child towards receiving education in the general classes is a contributing factor to placement in inclusive education.
  • Children with disabilities often carry the burden of stigmatization and discrimination which develops a negative attitude towards being in the midst of normal people.
  • So, the educational choices of such children are often limited to special schools where they can receive education along with children who are disabled as well.

Hence, the evaluation system, preparedness of teachers as well diversity among the learners influence the inclusive education of students.

Evaluation system

The evaluation system followed by the school is also a contributing factor. Diversifiedevaluation system is required to evaluate diverse learners. The evaluation system followed incountry like India is still a barrier to inclusion. The school can develop diversified evaluationsystem that fits all learners with different styles and abilities. 

Evaluation system

The evaluation system followed by the school is also a contributing factor. Diversifiedevaluation system is required to evaluate diverse learners. The evaluation system followed incountry like India is still a barrier to inclusion. The school can develop diversified evaluationsystem that fits all learners with different styles and abilities. 

Evaluation system

The evaluation system followed by the school is also a contributing factor. Diversifiedevaluation system is required to evaluate diverse learners. The evaluation system followed incountry like India is still a barrier to inclusion. The school can develop diversified evaluationsystem that fits all learners with different styles and abilities. 

Evaluation system

The evaluation system followed by the school is also a contributing factor. Diversifiedevaluation system is required to evaluate diverse learners. The evaluation system followed incountry like India is still a barrier to inclusion. The school can develop diversified evaluationsystem that fits all learners with different styles and abilities.

Question 192

"The needs of children with special needs will vary from child to child depending on the disability he/she has." With respect to this given statement, which of the following statement is correct?

I. A child with mental retardation will not need concrete material but will need repeated instruction to understand a concept.

II. A child with motor disabilities will need physician support depending on the need.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither I nor II

  3. COption (c)

    Only II

  4. DOption (d)

    Both I and II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only II

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

I. A child with mental retardation will not need concrete material but will need repeated instruction to understand a concept.

  • Children with learning disabilities show greater learning when techniques like task analysis, peer teaching, cooperative learning, learning corners, and multisensory approach are used. The following strategies would be helpful to both the parents and teachers when trying to teach such children
  • Creating a social climate conducive to writing development. Teachers need to be encouraging in a non-threatening environment and should try to develop a sense of community by promoting student sharing and collaboration.
  • Integrate writing with subjects such as language and arts so as to stimulate writing skills.
  • It is not only instruction that is required for children with special needs, in fact, but concrete materials also enhance the learning speed and efficiency.

II. A child with motor disabilities will need physician support depending on the need.

  • Motor impairment is the partial or total loss of function of a body part, usually a limb or limb.  This may result in muscle weakness, poor stamina, lack of muscle control, or total paralysis. Motor impairment is often evident in neurological conditions such as cerebral palsy, Parkinson’s disease, stroke, and multiple sclerosis.
  • A child with motor disabilities requires special attention and often needs a physician's support.

Hence, A child with motor disabilities will need physician support depending on the need is correct.

Question 193

________ are the types of dances.

I. Folk dance

II. Creative dance

III. Classical dance

  1. AOption (a)

    II and III

  2. BOption (b)

    I, II and III

  3. COption (c)

    I and II

  4. DOption (d)

    I and III

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

I, II and III

Why this answer is correct

A rhythmic movement of one's body, generally in response to music. 

Important Points

  • Folk Dance- is a popular dance that is regarded to be part of a certain people's or region's tradition.
  • Creative dance- is a form of dance that mixes creative expression with movement. It does not need substantial training and focuses on the development of physical skills as well as emotional expression. People that practice creative dance don't require any prior experience, and it's frequently a stepping stone to a more structured genre later.
  • Classical dance- is a kind of dance that incorporates a variety of techniques and movements.

​Hence Folk dance, creative dance and classical dance are all types of dances.

Question 194

To make social science interesting, teacher uses several resources which act as tools for learning. 'Map' is one of the essential tools. Which of the following is NOT an element of the Map?

I. Direction Indicator

II. Scale of a Map

III. Title of the Map

  1. AOption (a)

    Only III

  2. BOption (b)

    I, II and III

  3. COption (c)

    Only II

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither I nor II nor III

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Neither I nor II nor III

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is: 4) Neither I nor II nor III

Key Points

  • Direction Indicator:
  • This statement is correct.
  • The direction indicator, commonly known as the compass rose, is a fundamental element of a map that shows the cardinal directions (north, south, east, west).
  • Scale of a Map:
  • This statement is correct.
  • The scale of a map is essential for understanding the relationship between distances on the map and the actual distances on the ground. It indicates how much the real world has been reduced to fit on the map.
  • Title of the Map:
  • This statement is correct.
  • The title of the map provides a brief explanation of the map's content or the area it represents. It helps users understand what the map depicts.

Additional Information

  • Elements of a Map:
  • A legend or key explains the symbols used on the map.
  • A grid uses lines of latitude and longitude to pinpoint specific locations.
  • The source indicates where the data on the map comes from.
  • The projection method used affects the representation of the area on a flat surface.
  • Purpose of a Map:
  • Maps are used for navigation, planning, and understanding geographical relationships.
  • They help in visualizing spatial information for analysis and decision-making.

Question 195

Learning can be considered as _______.

I. the relatively permanent modification of behaviour

II. the relatively permanent change in personality

  1. AOption (a)

    Neither I nor II

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II

  3. COption (c)

    Both I and II

  4. DOption (d)

    Only I

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both I and II

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

 Learning:

  • Learning has taken place if an individual behaves, reacts, and responds in a way taken from others as a result of experiences.
  • Learning can be defined as the relatively permanent change in behavior potentiality that results from reinforced practice or experience. It can change our behavior.
  • By birth, every people learned from his environment.
  • On the other hand, knowledge or skill gained through schooling or study is also called learning.
  • Learning involves change. Change may sound good or bad from an organizational point of view.
  • People can learn unfavorable behaviors to hold prejudices or to restrict their output.
  • The change must be ingrained. Temporary changes may be only reflexive and may not represent learning.
  • Therefore the requirement that learning must be relatively permanent.
  • Some form of experience is necessary for learning. Experience may be acquired directly through observation or practice, or it may be acquired indirectly through reading.
  • Learning involves concentration and participation. It usually is quicker and long-lasting when the learner participates actively. As a result of participation, people learn more quickly and retain that learning longer.

Hence, learning can be considered as a permanent change in personality or behavior.

Question 196

Which of the following are the Literacy devices?

I. Metaphor

II. Irony

III. Rhyme

  1. AOption (a)

    II and III

  2. BOption (b)

    I and III

  3. COption (c)

    I, II and III

  4. DOption (d)

    Only II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

I, II and III

Why this answer is correct

Key Points Metaphor-  A metaphor is a figure of speech that makes a comparison between two non-similar things. As a literary device, metaphor creates implicit comparisons without the express use of “like” or “as.” Metaphor is a means of asserting that two things are identical in comparison rather than just similar. This is useful in literature for using specific images or concepts to state abstract truths.

Irony- Irony is a literary device in which contradictory statements or situations reveal a reality that is different from what appears to be true. There are many forms of irony featured in literature. The effectiveness of irony as a literary device depends on the reader’s expectations and understanding of the disparity between what “should” happen and what “actually” happens in a literary work. This can be in the form of an unforeseen outcome of an event, a character’s unanticipated behavior, or something incongruous that is said.

Rhyme- Rhyme is a literary device, featured particularly in poetry, in which identical or similar concluding syllables in different words are repeated. Rhyme most often occurs at the ends of poetic lines. In addition, rhyme is principally a function of sound rather than spelling. Rhyme is therefore predominantly independent of the way words look or are spelled. Writers use rhymes as a way to create sound patterns in order to emphasize certain words and their relationships with others in an artistic manner.

Hence, Metaphor, Irony as well Rhyme are literary devices.

Question 197

Which of the following suggestions cannot help you make teaching-learning process participatory in social science?

  1. AOption (a)

    Link the school to the community at large

  2. BOption (b)

    Teach students how to cooperate with each other

  3. COption (c)

    Create a classroom that excludes group workspaces where resources are shared

  4. DOption (d)

    Arrange debate/discussions on emerging social issues such as dowry, population growth etc

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Create a classroom that excludes group workspaces where resources are shared

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

 Participatory learning process:

  • Participatory learning is founded on the idea that everyone deserves to learn and everyone deserves an education that supports their potential.
  • Every student has a right to succeed. Participatory learning is structured for student success and empowerment, which means including our students in the learning process.
  • Finally, participatory learning reinforces a self-reflective method by engaging students in metacognition, a process that tasks learners with critically reexamining traditional modes of teaching and learning.

Additional Information

  • Link the school to the community at large- It is an excellent method of encouraging students to participate actively in the community. Since a hands-on experience helps in getting the students to take active participation, thereby enhancing the participatory learning process.
  • Teach students how to cooperate with each other- Teaching students to cooperate within themselves helps in ultimately making them aware of the needs of other people. This encourages understanding the needs of society.
  • Create a classroom that excludes group workspaces where resources are shared-  This is a negative thing to do, as it encourages division and social exclusion among the students. It will not only make the students selfish but also never let them be aware of participatory behavior.
  • Arrange debate/discussions on emerging social issues such as dowry, population growth, etc- This instills among the students critical thinking as to why these social evils are bad for the society at large. This will also encourage them to take any steps if it ever happens in real life.

Hence, 'Create a classroom that excludes group workspaces where resources are shared' does not encourage participatory learning behaviors.

Question 198

Which of the following is not the guideline to enhance questioning skills among children in classroom?

  1. AOption (a)

    Appreciate questions that are appropriate to the development level

  2. BOption (b)

    Do not stop the discussion with the right answer

  3. COption (c)

    Never respond in an encouraging way

  4. DOption (d)

    Develop sensitive listening techniques

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Never respond in an encouraging way

Why this answer is correct

Questioning skills are the ability to ask questions for accessing the students during the learning process. 

Key Points

  • Questioning skills are essential to good teaching.
  • Teachers often use questions to ensure that students are attentive and engaged and to assess students’ understanding. But it is equally important for the students to generate questioning skills amongst themselves.
  • These skills help in enhancing the higher-order thinking skills among the students and encourage critical thinking.

Important Points

  • ​ Appreciate questions that are appropriate to the development level- This is good as it encourages the students to ask more and more questions, as the teachers appreciate the questions. The students will get to ask more questions that relate to their development level of the students.
  • Do not stop the discussion with the right answer- A teachers should always encourage discussion among the students as it leads to collaborative learning. The more the children communicate with each other, the better are the skills encouraged among them.
  • Never respond in an encouraging way- This is a negative thing to do with respect to questioning skills. If the teacher does not encourage all the questions that are asked by the students- they will never be able to ask the correct question. The students will feel that since the teacher might not like the questions asked or may get angry if the question is irrelevant.
  • Develop sensitive listening techniques- The direct impact that questioning skills have on the students is the development of listening techniques. It is said that more the students listen, the more will they be able to learn.

Hence, " Never respond in an encouraging way" does not enhance questioning skills among the students.

Question 199

Gender discrimination begins from the family and extends to various places. Which of the following are those places?

I. Police stations

II. Appointment to Jobs

III. Work place

  1. AOption (a)

    Only II

  2. BOption (b)

    I and III

  3. COption (c)

    I, II and III

  4. DOption (d)

    II and III

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

I, II and III

Why this answer is correct

Gender discrimination is when a person or a group of people is treated unfairly or unfairly because of their gender.  

Important Points

  • The feminist approach towards the way the society works primarily addresses the unreal imagined difference between a public and a private space when it comes to gender discrimination or violence.
  • The incidence of discrimination be it in a domestic space or in the outer world has a continued impact on the survivor.
  • The given list of places-Police stations, Appointment to jobs and work places- are all in the outer world and none of them are free from gender discriminations entirely.

​Hence, Gender discrimination begins from the family and extends to various places such as Police stations, Appointments to Jobs and Work place.

Question 200

Which of the following are the quantitative methods of Evaluation?

I. Psychometric Tests

II. Experiments

III. Case studies

IV. Interviews

  1. AOption (a)

    II and III

  2. BOption (b)

    I and II

  3. COption (c)

    I and IV

  4. DOption (d)

    I, III and IV

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

I and II

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

 Quantitative Methods of Evaluation:

Quantitative data measure the depth and breadth of implementation for example- the number of people who participated, the number of people who completed the program. Quantitative data collected before and after an intervention can show its outcomes and impact. The strengths of quantitative data for evaluation purposes include their generalizability (if the sample represents the population), the ease of analysis, and their consistency and precision.

Psychometric tests- Psychometric tests are a standard and scientific method used to measure an individual's mental capabilities and behavioral style. Psychometric tests are designed to measure candidates' suitability for a role based on the required personality characteristics and aptitude (or cognitive abilities). They identify the extent to which candidates' personalities and cognitive abilities match those required to perform the role.

Experiments- The concepts of cause and effect are critical to the field of program evaluation. Experimentally-designed evaluations—those that randomized to treatment and control groups—offer a convincing means for establishing a causal connection between a program and its effects. Experimental Evaluation Design for Program Improvement considers a range of impact evaluation questions, particularly those questions that focus on the impact of specific aspects of a program

Additional Information

  • Qualitative Method of evaluation: Analyses of qualitative data include examining, comparing and contrasting, and interpreting patterns.
  • The analysis will likely include the identification of themes, coding, clustering similar data, and reducing data to meaningful and important points, such as in grounded theory-building or other approaches to qualitative analysis.
  • Observations may help explain behaviors as well as social context and meanings because the evaluator sees what is actually happening.
  • Interviews may be conducted with individuals alone or with groups of people and are especially useful for exploring complex issues. Interviews may be structured and conducted under controlled conditions, or they may be conducted with a loose set of questions asked in an open-ended manner.

Hence, psychometric tests and experiments are quantitative methods of evaluation.

200 questions in the full paper