Previous Year Paper

DSSSB TGT Natural Science Female 27 Sept 2021 (Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2021

200 questions120 minutes
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General Ability (20 questions)

Question 1

Find the wrong term in the letter-cluster series given below:

TLCN, DVMX, NFWH, XRGR, HZQB

  1. AOption (a)

    DVMX

  2. BOption (b)

    NFWH

  3. COption (c)

    XRGR

  4. DOption (d)

    HZQB

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

XRGR

Why this answer is correct

Logic: 10 is added in each alphabet of each set to get the next set.

So, in the term "XRGR" First 'R' is wrong, P will come at this place. The correct term would be "XPGR".

Hence, the wrong term is "XRGR".

Question 2

Find the missing term in the following letter-cluster series given below:

R9AP, Z17IX, H25QF, ? , X41GV

  1. AOption (a)

    P32VN

  2. BOption (b)

    Q33YM

  3. COption (c)

    P33YN

  4. DOption (d)

    R32YN

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

P33YN

Why this answer is correct

Logic: 8 is added to positional value of each alphabets and also in the number present in the middle of each set.

The required logic is shown as below.

Hence, the missing term is "P33YN".

Question 3

In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.

BACK ∶ DBFV ∶∶ HEAL ∶ ?

  1. AOption (a)

    JGCN

  2. BOption (b)

    PBXJ

  3. COption (c)

    KXJB

  4. DOption (d)

    PJBX

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

PJBX

Why this answer is correct

Logic: Positional value of letters of first set is multiply by 2 to get the letters of second set.

Similarly, HEAL is coded as,

Hence, the correct answer is "PJBX".

Question 4

In the following question, select the related word pair from the given alternatives.

Iraq ∶ Baghdad ∶∶ ? ∶ ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Saudi Arabia ∶ Abu Dhabi

  2. BOption (b)

    United Arab Emirates ∶ Riyadh

  3. COption (c)

    Syria ∶ Damascus

  4. DOption (d)

    Afghanistan ∶ Islamabad

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Syria ∶ Damascus

Why this answer is correct

Given: Iraq ∶ Baghdad ∶∶ ? ∶ ?

The relationship here is that Baghdad is the capital city of Iraq.

Now, we need to find which pair among the options has the same capital-country relationship:

Option 1: Saudi Arabia ∶ Abu Dhabi (Incorrect: The capital of Saudi Arabia is Riyadh, not Abu Dhabi)

Option 2: United Arab Emirates ∶ Riyadh (Incorrect: The capital of United Arab Emirates is Abu Dhabi, not Riyadh)

Option 3: Syria ∶ Damascus (Correct: Damascus is the capital of Syria)

Option 4: Afghanistan ∶ Islamabad (Incorrect: The capital of Afghanistan is Kabul, not Islamabad)

Therefore, the correct answer is (3) Syria ∶ Damascus

Question 5

If in a certain language, TRIANGLE is coded as "34821659". How is 'REALIGN' coded in that code?

  1. AOption (a)

    9425861

  2. BOption (b)

    2946851

  3. COption (c)

    4925816

  4. DOption (d)

    4925861

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

4925861

Why this answer is correct

Logic: To solve this, we need to understand the coding pattern used to convert the word "TRIANGLE" into "34821659". We will do this by mapping each letter in "TRIANGLE" to its corresponding digit in "34821659".

LetterCode
T3
R4
I8
A2
N1
G6
L5
E9

Now, we use the same mappings to code the word "REALIGN":

  • R → 4
  • E → 9
  • A → 2
  • L → 5
  • I → 8
  • G → 6
  • N → 1

Thus, "REALIGN" is coded as "4925861".

Therefore, the code for "REALIGN" is "4925861".

Question 6

In a company, Suresh's position is seventy five from the right end and eleventh from the left end, how many employees are there in that company?

  1. AOption (a)

    82

  2. BOption (b)

    83

  3. COption (c)

    85

  4. DOption (d)

    86

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

85

Why this answer is correct

Given: Suresh's position is seventy five from the right end and eleventh from the left end.

Total employees in the company = (Suresh's position form right end + Suresh's position form left end) - 1

= 75 + 11 - 1 

⇒ 85

Hence, total 85 are in the company.

Question 7

Six persons Rahul, Pankaj, Praveen, Puneet, Rajat and Pawan are sitting in a row of office at different positions, and each got different salary i.e. -20000, 10000, 8000, 50000, 45000 and 30000, but not necessarily in the same order. Rajat got 45000 salary. Praveen has neither got 8000 nor 30000 salary. The one who gets salary 8000 does not sit at the extreme end of the row. Rajat is sitting between Puneet and Pankaj. Praveen is second to the left of Puneet. Rahul is sitting at the left end of the row and got 50000 salary. Pawan sits near Praveen and gets 10000 salary.

How much salary did Pankaj get?

  1. AOption (a)

    30000

  2. BOption (b)

    8000

  3. COption (c)

    20000

  4. DOption (d)

    20000 or 30000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

30000

Why this answer is correct

Six persons Rahul, Pankaj, Praveen, Puneet, Rajat and Pawan are sitting in a row of office at different positions, and each got different salary i.e. -20000, 10000, 8000, 50000, 45000 and 30000.

  • Rajat got 450000 salary.

  • Rajat is sitting between Puneet and Pankaj.

  • Praveen is second to the left of Puneet.

  • Rahul is sitting at the left end of the row and got 50000 salary.

  • Pawan sits near Praveen and gets 10000 salary. He will to the right of Praveen because on the left end Rahul is sitting.

  • Praveen has neither got 8000 nor 30000 salary

  • The one who gets salary 8000 does not sit at the extreme end of the row.

Which means 30000 salaried person will be Puneet. and 8000 salaried person will be Pankaj as Praveen can not have it and it also means that Praveen have 20000 salary.

So, the final arrangement is as follow,

Hence, Pankaj gets 30000 salary.

Question 8

Two statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to consider these statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusions logically follow/s from the given statement.

Statement:

No road is traffic.

Some traffic are licence.

Cnclusions:

(I) Some licence are road.

(II) No licence are road.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I follow

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II follows

  3. COption (c)

    Either I or II follows

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither I nor II follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Either I or II follows

Why this answer is correct

Least possible diagram of the given statement,

Conclusion I: Some licence are road. → False (There is no direct relation between the two elements. Hence, it is indefinite conclusion.)

Conclusion II: No licence is road. → False (There is no direct relation between the two elements. Hence, it is indefinite conclusion.)

But these two conclusion have similar subject and predicate, and have relation of 'some' and 'no'. They are making complimentary pairs. So, they will follow either - or case.

Hence, the correct answer is "Either conclusion I and II follow".

Question 9

Three statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to consider these statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusions logically follow/s from the given statement.

Statement:

No lake are river.

All river are valleys.

Some valley are hills.

Conclusions:

(I) Some hills are rivers

(II) Some rivers are valleys.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I follow

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II follows

  3. COption (c)

    Both I and II follow

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither I nor II follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only II follows

Why this answer is correct

Given Statements:

No lake are river.

All river are valleys.

Some valley are hills.

The least possible Venn diagram is as follows,

Conclusions:

(I) Some hills are rivers. → False

There is no information connecting hills directly to rivers.

(II) Some rivers are valleys. → True

Since all rivers are valleys, some rivers are definitely valleys..

Thus, the correct answer is:

"Only Conclusion II follows."

Question 10

Three statements are followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to consider these statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusions logically follow/s from the given statement.

Statement:

Some radio are moon.

Some moon are sun.

Some sun are ocean

Conclusions:

(I) Some moon are ocean.

(II) No moon are ocean.

(III) Some radio are sun.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I follow

  2. BOption (b)

    Only I and II follows

  3. COption (c)

    Either I or II follows

  4. DOption (d)

    None follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Either I or II follows

Why this answer is correct

Given Statements:

Some radio are moon.

Some moon are sun.

Some sun are ocean.

Conclusions:

(I) Some moon are ocean. → False

Insufficient information to link moon and ocean directly.

(II) No moon are ocean. → False

Insufficient information to assert no connection between moon and ocean.

(III) Some radio are sun. → False

No direct link between radio and sun established.

Complementary Pair:

Conclusions (I) and (II) form a complementary pair and follow the "either/or" case.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Either Conclusion I or Conclusion II follows."

Question 11

Select the set of numbers that is similar to the following set of numbers.

(6, 36, 63)

  1. AOption (a)

    7, 49, 98

  2. BOption (b)

    8, 64, 46

  3. COption (c)

    9, 84, 45

  4. DOption (d)

    11, 111, 84

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

8, 64, 46

Why this answer is correct

The logic follows here:

1st number

2nd number = (1st number)2

3rd number = Digits interchange of 2nd number.

Given:

(6, 36, 63)

1st number = 6

2nd number = (1st number)2 = 62 = 36

3rd number = Digits interchange of 2nd number = 63

Similarly,

In option (2):

(8, 64, 46)

1st number = 8

2nd number = (1st number)2 = 82 = 64

3rd number = Digits interchange of 2nd number = 46

Hence, the correct answer is "8, 64, 46".

Question 12

In the question below, a statement is followed by two conclusions. Study the conclusions and select the correct option as the answer.

Statement:

Q > R > S ≥ P

Conclusions:

I. S > P

II. S = P

  1. AOption (a)

    Either I or II follows

  2. BOption (b)

    Both I and II follow

  3. COption (c)

    Neither I nor II follows

  4. DOption (d)

    Only II follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Either I or II follows

Why this answer is correct

Given statement: Q > R > S ≥ P

Conclusions :

i) S > P → TRUE (as S ≥ P includes the possibility of S being greater than P).

ii) S = P → TRUE (as S ≥ P includes the possibility of S being equal to P).

Hence, the correct answer is "Either I or II follows".

Question 13

In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

48, 24, 36, 90, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    215

  2. BOption (b)

    315

  3. COption (c)

    115

  4. DOption (d)

    415

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

315

Why this answer is correct

Logic: Each number is multiply by a certain number starts from 1/2, 3/2 and so on.

The above logic can be shown as below,

Hence, the next term will be '315'.

Question 14

In the following figure, triangle represents ladies, circle represents traditional outfit, pentagon represents western outfit and square represents sarees.

What does letter 'L' represents?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ladies who prefer western outfit and traditional outfit but not sarees   

  2. BOption (b)

    Ladies who prefer western outfit and sarees but not traditional outfit.

  3. COption (c)

    Ladies who prefer western outfit, sarees and traditional outfit

  4. DOption (d)

    Ladies who prefer traditional outfit and sarees but not western outfit.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Ladies who prefer western outfit and sarees but not traditional outfit.

Why this answer is correct

According to the Venn diagram, L shows the common part of triangle, pentagon and square but not circle.

It's Venn diagram is shown as below,

Hence, the correct answer is "Ladies who prefer western outfit and sarees but not traditional outfit.".

Question 15

In the following figure, triangle represents social gatherings, circle represents weekend parties, pentagon represents college reunion, rectangle represents marriage parties and square represents youngsters.

What does letter 'G' represents?

  1. AOption (a)

    Youngsters who don't like social gatherings, college reunion, but marriage parties and weekend parties

  2. BOption (b)

    Youngsters who like social gatherings, college reunion, marriage parties and weekend parties

  3. COption (c)

    Youngsters who like social gatherings and college reunion but not weekend and marriage parties

  4. DOption (d)

    Youngsters who like social gatherings, college reunion and marriage parties but not weekend parties

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Youngsters who like social gatherings and college reunion but not weekend and marriage parties

Why this answer is correct

According to the Venn diagram, G shows common part of pentagon, triangle and square but not rectangle and circle.

It is shown as below,

Hence, the correct answer is "Youngsters who like social gatherings and college reunion but not weekend and marriage parties".

Question 16

Select the figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

Logic: First half part of the arrow is shaded black and in the next figure, lower half part of the figure is shaded black and so on and it is going downward in each next diagram.

So, in the next figure, lower half of the third arrow will be shaded black.

Hence, the correct answer is "option 2".

Question 17

From the given alternatives select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

Hence, the correct answer is "option 4".

Question 18

From the given alternatives select the one which is the mirror image of given Question Figure.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

The mirror image of the given figure is as follows,

Hence, the correct answer is "option 3".

Question 19

Find the number of rectangle in the given figure.

  1. AOption (a)

    6

  2. BOption (b)

    10

  3. COption (c)

    11

  4. DOption (d)

    9

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

10

Why this answer is correct

The number of rectangle is shown as below,

Hence, there are 10 rectangles in the given figure.

Question 20

From the given alternatives select the one that will complete the question figure.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

The Image which completes the above figure is as follows,

 

Hence, the correct answer is "option 1".

General Awareness (20 questions)

Question 21

Ramman is a religious festival of which state?

  1. AOption (a)

    Jharkhand

  2. BOption (b)

    Uttarakhand

  3. COption (c)

    Bihar

  4. DOption (d)

    Uttar Pradesh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Uttarakhand

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Uttarakhand.

Key Points

  • Ramman
  • It is a religious festival and ritual theatre of the Hindu Community in the Saloor Dungra village of the Chamoli District of Uttrakhand.
  • The Ramman is unique to the village and is neither replicated nor performed anywhere else in the Himalayan region.
  • It is conducted as an offering to the guardian deity of Saloor Dungra, Bhumichetrapal also known as Bhumiyal Deity.
  • It is held in deity's honor every year after Baisakhi, a harvest festival.
  • The festival lasts for ten days during which the local epic of Rama is sung and masked dances depicting different aspects of life.
  • It begins with an invocation to Ganesha, the remover of obstacles followed by the dance of Ganesha and Parvati.
  • The village of Saloor-Dungra is the inheritors, organizers, and finances of the Ramman festival.
  • UNESCO inscribed Ramman on its Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity in 2009.

Question 22

Which of the following monuments are not in the state of Gujarat?

  1. AOption (a)

    Somnath temple

  2. BOption (b)

    Sunehri Mahal

  3. COption (c)

    Palitana

  4. DOption (d)

    Lakhpat

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Sunehri Mahal

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sunehri Mahal.

Key Points

  • Sunehri Mahal
  • Sunheri Mahal, also called Soneri Mahal, is located in Aurangabad, Maharashtra, India. Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.
  • The palace was constructed between 1651 and 1653 AD.
  • Sunheri Mahal currently functions as the Maharashtra State Museum for Aurangabad.
  • It showcases various artifacts and historical items significant to the region.
  • The architecture is Rajput style, constructed using lime and stone materials.
  • A beautiful, well-maintained garden enhances the palace's aesthetic appeal.

Additional Information

  • Somnath Temple, Palitana Jain Temple, and Lakhpat are located in Gujrat.

Question 23

Which of the following festival is also known as Gokulashtami?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ramnavami

  2. BOption (b)

    Guru Nanak Jayanti

  3. COption (c)

    Janmashtami

  4. DOption (d)

    Rakshabandhan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Janmashtami

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Janmashtami.

Key Points

  • Janmashtami
  • ​The birthday of Lord Krishna famous is famous by the name of Janmashtami.
  • Krishna Janmashtami, which translates to "Occasion of the birth of Krishna," is a Hindu festival that honours the birth of Krishna, the eighth manifestation of Vishnu.
  • It is also known as Krishnashtami, Janmashtami, or Gokulashtami. Ashtami, the eighth tithi of the Krishna Paksha (dark fortnight) of Shraavana Masa (according to amanta tradition) or Bhadrapada Masa, is the day on which it is observed in accordance with the Hindu lunisolar calendar (according to the purnimanta tradition).
  • This falls during the Gregorian calendar months of August or September.

Additional Information

  • Particularly in the Hindu Vaishnavism tradition, it is a significant festival.
  • The celebrations of Janmashtami include fasting (upavasa), a night vigil (Ratri Jagaran), devotional singing through the midnight when Krishna was born, dance-drama reenactments of Krishna's life as described in the Bhagavata Purana.

Question 24

The term 'Googly' is used in which sport?

  1. AOption (a)

    Football

  2. BOption (b)

    Baseball

  3. COption (c)

    Hockey

  4. DOption (d)

    Cricket

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Cricket

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Cricket.

Key Points

  • The Googly is a type of bowling delivery in cricket.
  • It is a type of throw or bowl in which the spin of the ball causes it to veer sharply to the leg side of a right-handed batsman.
  • The move was invented by famous English cricketer Bernard Bosanquet and is also sometimes called a Bosey in his remembrance.

Additional Information

SportTerm Related
HockeyAdvantage, Back-stick, Bully, Cary, Centre Forward, Centre, Corner, Dribble, Flick, Free-hit, Goal Line, Blue line, Halfway Line, Hat-trick, Off-side, Red Car, Roll-in, Scoop, Short Corner, Sixteen-yard hit.
CricketBoundary, Bowling, Caught, Chinaman, Cover Drive, Crease, Duck, Duckworth-Lewis, Fine Leg, Follow On, Full Toss, Googly, Gully, Hat-trick, Hit-Wicket, In-swinger, L.B.W., Leg-break, Leg-bye, Leg Glance, late Cut, maiden over, No Ball, Over, over Pitch, Popping Crease, Run Out, Short Pitch, Silly Point, Slip, Square Leg, Straight Drive, Stumped, Short leg, Spin, Swing, Third-man, Yorker.
GolfBogey, Bunker, Caddie, Fairway, Fourball, Greed Holes, Links, Par, Put, Rough, Stymied, Tee.
FootballBend, Dribble, Dummy, Feint, Free Kick, Header, Red Card, Throwins.
ArcheryTarget, Bull’s Eye.
SwimmingBreast Stroke, Crawl, Butterfly, Freestyle, Back Stroke.
FencingAllez, Assault, Black Card, Foil, Saber, Hilt, Jury, Lame.
BasketballDunk, Frontcourt, Held Ball, Lay-Up, Pivot, Rebound.
BilliardsBaulk Line, Break, Bolting, Cannon, Cue, Hazard, In-off, Jigger, Long, Jenny, Pot, Scratch, Screw Back, Spot Stroke, Strike.
BaseballDiamond, Hitter, Home, Pinch, Pitcher Plate, Pullout, Short Stop, Hitter, Batter, Strike, Infield, Outfield, Base, Battery, Bunting, Catcher.
ChessBishop, Capture, Castling, Checkmate, En Passant, Gambit, Grand Master, King, Knight, Pawn, Queen, Rook, Stalemate, Sicilian Defence.
Table TennisFoil, End line, Late control, Flat hit, Block stroke, Service, Penholder grip, Backspin, Centreline, Half Court, Side spin, Swing stroke, Push Stroke, Rally, Let, Reverse, Top Spin, Drop shot, Lob, Chopped return.
Volley BallAntennae, Attack hit, Ace, Base-line, Blocking, Doubling, Foot Fault, Heave, Holding, Jump Set, Lob Pass, Love-All, Point, Quick Smash, Scouting, Service, Spike, Tactical Ball, Volley, Windmill Service.

Question 25

Who was the first Indian to be awarded the 'Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna' award? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Abhinav Bindra

  2. BOption (b)

    Vishwanathan Anand

  3. COption (c)

    Vinesh Phogat

  4. DOption (d)

    Manika Batra

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Vishwanathan Anand

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Vishwanath Anand.

  • The first recipient of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Prize was Chess Grandmaster Viswanathan Anand, who was honoured for the performance in the year 1991–92.

Key Points 

  • The Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna award is the highest sporting honour of the Republic of India.
  • The award is named after Rajiv Gandhi, former Prime Minister of India.
  • It is awarded annually by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi has announced that the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award will now be known as the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award.
  • Dhyan Chand himself has been conferred with several honours, including India’s third highest civilian honour of Padma Bhushan in 1956.
  • In addition to this, the Government of India also celebrates his birthday on August 29 as National Sports Day.
  • The Khel Ratna award is the highest sporting honour in the nation.
  • The prestigious award carries prize money of Rs. 25 lakh.

 

Additional Information

  • Abhinav Bindra won India's 1st individual Olympic gold medal. At the 2008 Summer Olympics, his gold in the 10-meter air rifle event was also India's first Olympic gold medal since 1980.
  • Neeraj Chopra created history by winning a Gold medal in the men's javelin throw (Track and Field event) at Tokyo Olympic 2020.
  • His best throw of 87.58 m in just a second attempt.
  • And India's second-ever individual Olympic gold medalist after shooter Abhinav Bindra.
  • Viswanathan Anand is a former world chess champion and Indian chess grandmaster. In 1988, he became the first Indian Grandmaster.
  • In limited-overs formats from 2007 to 2016 and in test cricket from 2008 to 2014, former Indian international cricketer Mahendra Singh Dhoni captained the Indian national team.
  • Sachin Ramesh Tendulkar is a former international Indian cricketer who served as the Indian national team's captain.

Question 26

Which of the following awards did not get Mahendra Singh Dhoni?

  1. AOption (a)

    Padma Shri

  2. BOption (b)

    Padma Bhushan

  3. COption (c)

    Padma ViBhushan

  4. DOption (d)

    Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Padma ViBhushan

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Padma Vibhushan.

Key Points

  • M S Dhoni is an Indian Cricket player.
  • He is India’s first wicketkeeper to have taken 300 catches.
  • He has led India to victory in the 2011 Cricket World Cup, the 2007 ICC World Twenty20, and the 2013 ICC Champions Trophy, the only captain to win three different limited-overs tournaments.
  • He also led the teams that won the Asia Cup in 2010, and 2016 and was a member of the title-winning squad in 2018.
  • In 2008, Dhoni was awarded India's highest sports honor Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award by the Government of India.
  • He received the fourth-highest civilian award Padma Shri in 2009 and the third-highest civilian award Padma Bhushan in 2018.
  • Second Indian cricketer after Kapil Dev to conferred the honorary rank of Lieutenant Colonel in the Indian Territorial Army.
  • First Indian and fifth overall to hit 200 sixes in One-day internationals.
  • Only keeper to pass 100 stumping in One-day internationals.
  • Biopic:  M.S. Dhoni: The Untold Story.

Question 27

Who was The first Women External Affair Minister of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mrs Indira Gandhi

  2. BOption (b)

    Mrs Pratibha Patil

  3. COption (c)

    Mrs Sonia Gandhi

  4. DOption (d)

    Mrs Jayalalitha

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Mrs Indira Gandhi

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mrs Indira Gandhi.

Key Points

  • She was the first and only female Prime Minister of India.
  • She was the first Women External Affairs Minister of India.
  • Following the recommendation of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi, President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed declared a national emergency on 25 June 1975.
  • Indira Gandhi was awarded Bharat Ratna in 1971.
  • She was the second longest-serving Indian prime minister after her father Jawahar Lal Nehru.
  • She was also awarded "Bangladesh Freedom Honour" in 2011.
  • She was also the President of INC in 1959.
  • She was killed by her Sikh bodyguards Beant Singh and Satwant Singh in the aftermath of Operation Blue Star in 1984.

Question 28

Tsang Yin-hung, recorded "world's fastest ascent of Everest by a woman" in just _____ hours.

  1. AOption (a)

    18 hours

  2. BOption (b)

    26 hours

  3. COption (c)

    22 hours

  4. DOption (d)

    14 hours

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

26 hours

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 26 hours.

Key Points

  • Hong Kong’s Tsang Yin-Hung has set a new record as she scaled Mount Everest in less than 26 hours.
  • Tsang Yin-hung, 44, scaled the 8,848.86-metre mountain in a record time of 25 hours and 50 minutes on 22 May 2021.
  • It is the shortest time taken by any woman after starting from the base camp.
  • She beat the record set by Nepali woman Phunjo Jhangmu Lama in 2017, who climbed Everest in 39 hours and 6 minutes.
  • Climber from the United States Arthur Muir has also set a new record as she became the oldest American to climb the world’s highest peak at 8,848.86-metres (29,031 feet).
  • Muir beat the record set by Bill Burke, who became the oldest American to climb the mountain at the age of 67 in 2009.

Question 29

What was the period of the 11th five-year plan of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    2012 to 2017

  2. BOption (b)

    2007 to 2012

  3. COption (c)

    2002 to 2007

  4. DOption (d)

    2017 to 2022

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2007 to 2012

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2007 to 2012.

Key Points

  • Some important aspects of the 11th Five-year plan (2007-2012).
  • The average annual economic growth rate of 8%.
  • The farm sector grew at an average rate of 3.7% as against the 4% targeted.
  • The industry grew with an annual average growth of 7.2% against the 10% targeted.
  • Objective:-
  • Rapid and inclusive growth.
  • Empowerment through education and skill development.
  • Reduction of gender inequality.
  • Environmental sustainability.

Question 30

_____ is the security which lenders demand against loan.

  1. AOption (a)

    Collateral

  2. BOption (b)

    Cheque

  3. COption (c)

    Draft

  4. DOption (d)

    Letter

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Collateral

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Collateral.

Key Points

  • Credit refers to an agreement in which the lender supplies the borrower with money, goods, or services in return for the promise of future payment.
  • The terms associated with credit are:
  • Interest rate.
  • Collateral.
  • Necessary documents.
  • Every loan(credit) agreement specifies an interest rate which the borrower must pay to the lender along with the repayment of the principal.
  • Lenders may demand collateral (security) against loans.
  • Collateral is an asset that the borrower owns such as land, vehicle, building, or deposits with banks, and uses this as a guarantee to a lender until the loan is repaid.
  • The lender has the right to sell the asset or collateral to obtain payment If the borrower fails to repay the loan.
  • One had to submit necessary valid documents to the bank for the approval of loans.

Question 31

Which of the given options is not included in the state's list?

  1. AOption (a)

    Agriculture

  2. BOption (b)

    Law and Order

  3. COption (c)

    National Defence

  4. DOption (d)

    Education

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

National Defence

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is National Defence.

Key Points

  • National Defence:
  • National Defence is a subject included in the Union List.
  • It is managed by the central government of India.
  • Agriculture:
  • Agriculture is a subject included in the State List.
  • This means it is primarily managed by the state governments.
  • Law and Order:
  • Law and Order is included in the State List.
  • State governments are responsible for maintaining law and order within their territories.
  • Education:
  • Education is included in the Concurrent List.
  • Both state and central governments have jurisdiction over education matters.

Additional Information

  • The Constitution of India divides subjects into three lists: Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.
  • The Union List includes subjects of national importance such as Defence, Atomic Energy, and Foreign Affairs.
  • The State List includes subjects of local or regional importance such as Police, Public Health, and Agriculture.
  • The Concurrent List includes subjects of common interest to both the Union and State governments such as Education, Marriage laws, and Bankruptcy and Insolvency laws.
  • This division helps in defining the powers and responsibilities of the different levels of government.

Question 32

Which is the oldest political party of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Communist Party

  2. BOption (b)

    Bharatiya Janta Party

  3. COption (c)

    Indian National Congress

  4. DOption (d)

    All India Anna Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Indian National Congress

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Indian National Congress.

Key Points 

  • Indian National Congress (INC): Popularly known as the Congress Party.
  • One of the oldest parties in the world.
  • Founded in 1885 and has experienced many splits.
  • Played a dominant role in Indian politics at the national and state level for several decades after India’s Independence.
  • Under the leadership of Jawaharlal Nehru, the party sought to build a modern secular democratic republic in India.
  • The ruling party was at the centre till 1977 and then from 1980 to 1989.
  • After 1989, its support declined, but it continues to be present throughout the country, cutting across social divisions.
  • A centrist party (neither rightist nor leftist) in its ideological orientation, the party espouses secularism and the welfare of weaker sections and minorities.
  • Supports new economic reforms but with a human face.
  • Emerged as the largest party with 145 members in the Lok Sabha elections held in 2004.
  • Currently leads the ruling United Progressive Alliance coalition government at the Centre.

Additional Information

  • Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP): Founded in 1980 by reviving the erstwhile Bharatiya Jana Sangh.
  • Communist Party of India (CPI): Formed in 1925.

Question 33

The mode of nutrition found in mushrooms is ________

  1. AOption (a)

    Parasitic

  2. BOption (b)

    Symbiotic

  3. COption (c)

    Saprophytic

  4. DOption (d)

    Holozoic

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Saprophytic

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Saprophytic

Key Points 

  • Saprophytic nutrition is the mode of nutrition in mushrooms.
  • Organisms that die and decay organic matter are used as food in saprophytic nutrition.
  • Saprophytic nutrition:
  • Saprophytic nutrition is the mode of nutrition in mushrooms.
  • Organisms that die and decay organic matter are used as food in saprophytic nutrition.
  • This process uses components contained in dead and decaying material for cellular needs.
  • Therefore, mushrooms are saprophytic based on some other ingredients like dead and rot for their food.

Additional Information

  • Holozoic
  • Holozoic nutrition is a type of heterotrophic nutrition that is characterized by the internalization and internal processing of liquids or solid food particles.
  • Symbiotic
  • Symbiosis is any type of close and long-term biological interaction between two different biological organisms, be it mutualistic, commensalism, or parasitic.
  • Parasitic
  • Parasitism is a close relationship between species, where one organism, the parasite, lives on or inside another organism, the host, causing it some harm, and is adapted structurally to this way of life.

Question 34

Which one of the following fossil fuels is considered environment friendly?

  1. AOption (a)

    Natural Gas

  2. BOption (b)

    Coal

  3. COption (c)

    Petroleum

  4. DOption (d)

    Kerosene

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Natural Gas

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Natural Gas.

Key Points

  • Natural gas (also called fossil gas; sometimes just gas), is a naturally occurring hydrocarbon gas mixture consisting primarily of methane, but commonly including varying amounts of other higher alkanes, and sometimes a small percentage of carbon dioxide, nitrogen, hydrogen sulfide, or helium.
  • It is formed when layers of decomposing plant and animal matter are exposed to intense heat and pressure under the surface of the Earth over millions of years.
  • The energy that the plants originally obtained from the sun is stored in the form of chemical bonds in the gas.
  • Natural gas is a fossil fuel. It is a non-renewable hydrocarbon used as a source of energy for heating, cooking, and electricity generation.
  • It is also used as a fuel for vehicles and as a chemical feedstock in the manufacture of plastics and other commercially important organic chemicals.

Question 35

The finest quality of iron ore is __________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Siderite

  2. BOption (b)

    Hematite

  3. COption (c)

    Magnetite

  4. DOption (d)

    Limonite

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Magnetite

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Magnetite.

Key Points

  • Magnetite
  • It is the finest iron ore with a very high content of iron up to 70 per cent.
  • It has excellent magnetic qualities, especially valuable in the electrical industry.
  • It is found in Dharwad and Cuddapah systems.
  • Found in Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu and Kerala.

Additional Information

  • Haematite
  • It has 60-70 per cent metallic content.
  • It is Reddish and of the best quality.
  • It is found in Dharwad and Cuddapah rock systems of peninsular India.
  • 80 per cent of haematite reserves are in Odisha, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, and Andhra Pradesh.
  • In the western section, Karnataka, Maharashtra, and Goa have this kind of ore.
  • Hematite ore is the most important industrial iron ore in terms of the quantity used.
  • Limonite 
  • Inferior ore, yellowish, 40 to 60 per cent iron metal.
  • Damuda series in Raniganj coalfield, Garhwal in Uttarakhand, Mirzapur in Uttar Pradesh, and Kangra valley of Himachal Pradesh.
  • Siderite
  • It is inferior in quality.
  • Contains less than 40 percent iron.
  • It contains many impurities.
  • mining is not economically variable.
  • However, it is self-fluxing due to the presence of lime.

Question 36

The _____ is a collection of 1,028 hymns divided into 10 mandalas.

  1. AOption (a)

    Samaveda

  2. BOption (b)

    Rigveda

  3. COption (c)

    Yajurveda

  4. DOption (d)

    Atharvaveda

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rigveda

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 10.

Key Points

  • Rig Veda:
  • There are 1028 mantras in the Rigveda which include the unpromising Valakhilia hymns.
  • The Rig Veda consists of 1028 hymns, organised into ten books known as maṇḍalas.
  • They were composed in an archaic language named Vedic that gradually evolved into classical Sanskrit.
  • Each maṇḍala has sūktas (hymns) formed by individual strophes.
  • The Rig Veda is the earliest of the four Vedas and one of the most important texts of the Hindu tradition.
  • It is a large collection of hymns in praise of the gods, which are chanted in various rituals.

Additional Information

  • Samaveda
  • There are 1549 verses (except 75 verses, all have been taken from Rigveda)
  • There are two Upanishads embedded in Samaveda – Chandogya Upanishad and Kena Upanishad
  • The Samaveda is considered the root of Indian classical music and dance
  • It is considered as the storehouse of the melodious chants
  • Though it has lesser verses than Rigveda, however, its texts are larger
  • There are three recensions of the text of the Samaveda – Kauthuma, Raṇayaniya and Jaimaniya
  • Yajurveda
  • Stands to mean ‘Worship Knowledge’, Yajurveda dates back to 1100-800 BCE; corresponding with Samaveda.
  • It compiles ritual-offering mantras/chants.
  • These chants were offered by the priest alongside a person who used to perform a ritual (in most cases yajna fire).
  • Atharvaveda
  • Stands to mean a tatpurusha compound of Atharvan, an ancient sage, and knowledge (atharvan+knowledge), it dates back to 1000-800 BCE.

Question 37

Dr. Annie Besant and Lokmanya Tilak set up the _____ in the country modeled on the Irish movement to spread awareness.

  1. AOption (a)

    Satyagraha

  2. BOption (b)

    Indian National Congress

  3. COption (c)

    Home Rule league

  4. DOption (d)

    Gadar Party

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Home Rule league

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Home Rule league

Key Points

  • Home Rule League:-
  • He was an Indian political organization that campaigned for self-governance for India within the British Empire.
  • It was founded in 1916 by two prominent Indian nationalists, Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Annie Besant.
  • The Home Rule League was active for about two years, and it played a significant role in the Indian independence movement.
  • Annie Besant’s Home Rule League was centered in Madras, India.

Additional Information

  • Annie Besant:-
  • She was a British socialist, theosophist, freemason, women's rights and Home Rule activist, educationist, and campaigner for Indian nationalism.
  • She was an ardent supporter of both Irish and Indian self-rule.
  • She is the First Female President of the Indian National Congress in 1917.

Question 38

The Axis powers of the second world war were Germany, Italy and ______.

  1. AOption (a)

    France

  2. BOption (b)

    Japan

  3. COption (c)

    Poland

  4. DOption (d)

    Austria

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Japan

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Japan.

Key Points

  • World War II was between Allied forces and Axis powers.

  • The main Axis powers were Italy, Japan, and Germany.

  • The Axis alliance was started in September 1940 with the Tripartite Pact.

  • | Country | Leaders | | --- | --- | | Italy | Benito Mussolini | | Japan | Emperor Hirohito | | Germany | Adolf Hitler |

  • Allied powers were Great Britain, The United States, China, and the Soviet Union.

  • | Country | Leaders | | --- | --- | | USA | Franklin Roosevelt | | Great Britain | Winston Churchill | | Soviet Union | Joseph Stalin |

Additional Information

  • The world witnessed the two most devastating wars that had shaken the entire world. World War I lasted from 1914 to 1918. It was also known as the ‘Great War’. It was fought between the Allied powers and Central powers. World War II lasted from 1939 to 1945. The Axis and Allies fought are the two principal belligerents in this war.
  • World War II:
  • Also known as the Second World War.
  • It lasted for six years.
  • Around 3% of the world population was erased because of this bloodshed.
  • The world war ended with the nuclear bombing of two Japanese cities, Nagasaki and Hiroshima.
  • The Cold War finds its birth with the end of World War II.
  • Causes of World War II:
  • Treaty of Versailles
  • Worldwide economic depression
  • The rise of militarism in Germany and Japan
  • Failure of the League of Nations
  • Rise of fascism

Question 39

Name the Padma Shri awardee Dogri writer and poet who passed away recently.

  1. AOption (a)

    Sridhar vembu

  2. BOption (b)

    Padma Sachdev

  3. COption (c)

    Birubala rabha

  4. DOption (d)

    Rangaswamy kashyap

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Padma Sachdev

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Padma Sachdev.

Key Points

  • Legendary Dogri poet and Sahitya Akademi awardee, Padma Sachdev died aged 81 at her home in Mumbai in August 2021.
  • Sachdev was born in the Purmandal area of Jammu in 1940 in the house of Sanskrit Scholar Prof Jai Dev Badu.
  • She also wrote lyrics for Hindi films such as Prem Parbat and Aankhin Dekhi in the 1970s.
  • She received the Padma Shri, the country’s fourth-highest civilian award, in 2001.
  • She was also awarded the Kabir Samman for poetry for 2007-08 by the Madhya Pradesh government.
  • She authored many books in Dogri and Hindi, and her poetry collections, including ‘Meri Kavita Mere Geet’, won her the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1971.

​

Question 40

Who is the present Union Minister for Science & Technology?

  1. AOption (a)

    Harsh Vardhan

  2. BOption (b)

    Smriti Irani

  3. COption (c)

    Piyush goyal

  4. DOption (d)

    Jyotiraditya scindia

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Harsh Vardhan

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Harsh Vardhan.

Key Points

  • Dr. Harsh Vardhan is the Union Minister of Science and Technology, Minister of Health and Family Welfare, and Minister of Earth Sciences.
  • He is a Member of Parliament from Chandni Chowk, Delhi Constituency.

Additional Information

  • Harsimrat Kaur Badal was a former Union Cabinet Minister of Food Processing Industries.
  • Narendra Tomar is the Minister of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare, Minister of Rural Development, and Minister of Food Processing Industries in the Union Cabinet.
  • Uma Bharati was the 15th Chief Minister of Madhya Pradesh.

Arithmetic Ability (20 questions)

Question 41

If a = 225, b = 226 and c = 227, then the value of a3 + b3 + c3 - 3abc is:

  1. AOption (a)

    2934

  2. BOption (b)

    2394

  3. COption (c)

    1956

  4. DOption (d)

    2034

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

2034

Why this answer is correct

Given : a3 + b3 + c3 - 3abc, when a = 225, b = 226, and c = 227 

Formula used :

⇒a3+b3+c3−3abc=12(a+b+c);[(;a−b)2+(b−c;)2+(c−a)2]⇒ {a^3} + {b^3} + {c^3} - 3abc = \frac{1}{2}\left( {a + b + c} \right);\left[ {{{\left( {;a - b} \right)}^2} + {{\left( {b - c;} \right)}^2} + {{\left( {c - a} \right)}^2}} \right]

a3+b3+c3−3abc=12(225+226+227);[(;225−226)2+(226−227)2+(227−225)2]{a^3} + {b^3} + {c^3} - 3abc = \frac{1}{2}\left( {225 + 226 + 227} \right);\left[ {{{\left( {;225 - 226} \right)}^2} + {{\left( {226 - 227} \right)}^2} + {{\left( {227 - 225} \right)}^2}} \right]

⇒ a3+b3+c3−3abc=12(678);[12+12+22]{a^3} + {b^3} + {c^3} - 3abc = \frac{1}{2}\left( {678} \right);\left[ {{1^2} + {1^2} + {2^2}} \right]

a3+b3+c3−3abc=(678)(3){a^3} + {b^3} + {c^3} - 3abc = \left( {678} \right)(3) = 2034

Shortcut Trick

Given:

a=225a = 225, b=226b = 226, c=227c = 227

a,b,ca, b, c are in A.P. (Arithmetic Progression)

Common Difference d=b−a=226−225=1d = b - a = 226 - 225 = 1

Formula Used:

If a,b,ca, b, c are in A.P. with common difference dd, then:

a3+b3+c3−3abc=9bd2a^3 + b^3 + c^3 - 3abc = 9bd^2

Calculations:

a3+b3+c3−3abca^3 + b^3 + c^3 - 3abc

⇒ 9×b×d29 \times b \times d^2

⇒ 9×226×129 \times 226 \times 1^2

⇒ 20342034

∴ The value of a3+b3+c3−3abca^3 + b^3 + c^3 - 3abc is 20342034.

Question 42

What value will come in place of question mark (?) in the following question?

702 × 18 ÷ 81 -441\sqrt{441} = ? percent of 45

  1. AOption (a)

    200

  2. BOption (b)

    150

  3. COption (c)

    400

  4. DOption (d)

    300

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

300

Why this answer is correct

Given:

702 × 18 ÷ 81 -441\sqrt{441} = ? percent of 45

Calculation:

702 × 18 ÷ 81 -441\sqrt{441} = ? percent of 45

⇒ 702 × 18 ÷ 81 - 21 = x% of 45

⇒ 156 - 21 = x% of 45

⇒ 135 = 45x/100

⇒ x%=13545×100=300x\% = \frac{135}{45} \times 100 = 300

So, the value that will come in place of the question mark is 300.

Question 43

What value will come in place of question mark (?) in the following question?

11×11×11+5×5×5(11)2+(5)2−11×5=?\frac{11 \times 11 \times 11+5 \times 5 \times 5}{(11)^2+(5)^2-11 \times 5}=?

  1. AOption (a)

    12

  2. BOption (b)

    13

  3. COption (c)

    15

  4. DOption (d)

    16

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

16

Why this answer is correct

Given:

11×11×11+5×5×5(11)2+(5)2−11×5=?\frac{11 × 11 × 11+5 × 5 × 5}{(11)^2+(5)^2-11 × 5}=?

**Formula Used:**2.

The given denominator is already in the form:

(a3+b3=(a+b)(a2−ab+b2)(a^3 + b^3 = (a + b)(a^2 - ab + b^2)

Calculation:

a = 11 and b = 5

Step 2: Use the sum of cubes formula for the numerator:

a3 + b3 = (113 + 53) = (11 + 5)(112 - 11 × 5 + 52)

Simplify the denominator:

(112 + 52 - 11 × 5)

Divide the simplified numerator by the simplified denominator:

(11 + 5)(112 - 11 × 5 + 52)/(112 + 52 - 11 × 5) = 11 + 5 = 16

 

So, the value that will come in place of the question mark is 16.

Question 44

What is the greatest number that will divide 209 and 347 leaving remainder 5 and 7 respectively?

  1. AOption (a)

    19

  2. BOption (b)

    16

  3. COption (c)

    17

  4. DOption (d)

    23

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

17

Why this answer is correct

HCF of (209 - 5) and (347 - 7)

HCF of (204 and 340)

204 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 17

340 = 2 × 2 × 5 × 17

HCF will be 2 × 2 × 17 = 68, according the option, 17 is the correct answer.

∴ 17 is the greatest number when divide 209 and 347 leaves remainder 5 and 7 respectively.

Question 45

In a survey among some people, it is found that their average protein diet is 60 mg per day. After a suggestion, 30 percent of them doubled their protein diet while the rest tripled their protein diet. The new average of their protein diet is 155 mg/day. What is the earlier average protein diet of 30 percent of them?

  1. AOption (a)

    250/3 mg/day

  2. BOption (b)

    200/3 mg/day

  3. COption (c)

    220/3 mg/day

  4. DOption (d)

    260/3 mg/day

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

250/3 mg/day

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Average protein diet per day = 60 mg

30 percent of people doubled their protein diet.

The rest (70 percent) tripled their protein diet.

New average protein diet = 155 mg/day

Concept Used:

Weighted average and basic algebraic operations.

Calculation:

Let the number of people be N

Let the earlier average protein diet of 30 percent of the people be P mg.

The total earlier protein diet for 30 percent of the people = 0.3N ×  P

The total earlier protein diet for 70 percent of the people = 0.7N × Q, where Q is the earlier average

protein diet of 70 percent of the people.

The total earlier protein diet = 60N mg (since the overall average was 60 mg/day

The new total protein diet for 30 percent of the people = 2 × 0.3N × P

The new total protein diet for 70 percent of the people = 3 × 0.7N × Q

The new total protein diet = 155N mg (since the new overall average is 155 mg/day

Calculate the total earlier protein diet:

60N = 0.3N × P + 0.7N × Q

60 = 0.3P + 0.7Q     ----(1)

Step 2: Calculate the new total protein diet:

155N = 2 × 0.3N × P + 3 × 0.7N × Q

155 = 0.6P + 2.1Q  ----(2)

0.3P + 0.7Q = 60

0.6P + 2.1Q = 155

Multiply the first equation by 2:

0.6P + 1.4Q = 120

Subtract this equation from the second equation:

0.6P + 2.1Q - (0.6P + 1.4Q) = 155 - 120

0.7Q = 35

Q = 50

Substitute Q = 50 into the first equation:

0.3P + 0.7 × 50 = 60

0.3P + 35 = 60

0.3P = 25

P = 25/0.3 = 250/3 mg/day

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Question 46

A person covers a certain distance in 90 steps. If he increases the length of each step by 20 percent, then find the number of steps required to cover the same distance.

  1. AOption (a)

    75

  2. BOption (b)

    80

  3. COption (c)

    60

  4. DOption (d)

    65

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

75

Why this answer is correct

Formula Used:

  1. New step length=Original step length×(1+Percentage increase)\text{New step length} = \text{Original step length} \times (1 + \text{Percentage increase})
  2. Using the inverse proportionality: New number of steps=Original number of stepsFactor of increase in step length \text{New number of steps} = \frac{\text{Original number of steps}}{\text{Factor of increase in step length}}

Calculation:

Step length factor:

New step length factor=1+0.20=1.20 \text{New step length factor} = 1 + 0.20 = 1.20 ( \text{New number of steps} = \frac{90}{1.20} = 75 steps. \)

The new number of steps required to cover the same distance after increasing the step length by 20% is 75.

Question 47

A person spends 35 percent of his total salary in Food, 30 percent he invests in a scheme and remaining amount he saves. If his savings is Rs. 4340 , then how much amount he invests?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 2680

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 4320

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 3720

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 2840

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Rs. 3720

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

To determine how much the person invests, we need to find the total salary first using the given percentages.

Let  S  be the total salary.

According to Question 35% of the salary is spent on food, 30% of the salary is invested and The remaining amount is saved.

Since 35% is spent on food and 30% is invested, the remaining percentage is: 100% - 35% - 30% = 35%

We know the savings amount is Rs. 4340, which is 35% of the total salary.

0.35S = 4340

Solve for S

S = 4340/0.35 = 12400

Now, Calculate the investment:

The investment is 30% of the total salary = 0.30S = 0.30 × 12400 = 3720.

Hence, The Correct Answer is 3720.

Question 48

By selling an article, a shopkeeper incurs a loss of 16 percent but if he increases the selling price by Rs. 140 , there would be a profit of 24 percent. Calculate the cost price of the article.

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 280

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 440

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 610

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 350

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Rs. 350

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A loss of 16% initially, and if the selling price is increased by Rs. 140, there is a profit of 24%.

Calculation:

Set up the relationship between the two selling prices, knowing the difference is Rs. 140:

Selling Price with Profit = Selling Price with Loss + 140

Cost Price × 1.24 = Cost Price × 0.84 + 140

Rearrange to solve for Cost Price:

 1.24CP - 0.84CP = 140 

 0.4CP = 140 

CP = 1400.4\frac{140}{0.4} = 350 

So, the cost price of the article is Rs. 350.

Question 49

Mr. Ganguly purchased 50000 mangoes at 8 each. He found that 20 percent of those were spoilt and hence were found unfit to be sold. At what price should he sell each of the remaining mangoes so as to get an overall profit of 30 percent?

  1. AOption (a)

    12

  2. BOption (b)

    13

  3. COption (c)

    10

  4. DOption (d)

    15

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

13

Why this answer is correct

Concept use:

 selling price = cost price + profit

Calculation:

Determine the total cost of purchasing the mangoes:

Total cost = 50000 × 8  = 400000 Rs

  

Calculate the number of spoiled mangoes:

Number of spoiled mangoes = 20% of  50000 = 0.20 × 50000 = 10000

  

Calculate the number of remaining mangoes:

Number of remaining mangoes = 50000 - 10000 = 40000 

Determine the total cost price of the remaining mangoes:

The total cost remains the same as the initial purchase cost, i.e., 400000 Rs.

Calculate the desired total selling price to achieve a 30% profit:

profit = 30%  of  400000  = 0.30 × 400000 = 120000

 Desired total selling price = Total cost price + Desired profit = 400000 + 120000 = 520000 Rs

Calculate the selling price per remaining mango to achieve the desired total selling price: Selling price per mango = 520000/40000 = 13 Rs per mango

]

Question 50

In a colony, the ratio of two-wheelers to four-wheelers is 11 ∶ 9. Among the four-wheelers, one-fourth are petrol and the remaining 81 are diesel. How many two-wheelers are there in the colony?

  1. AOption (a)

    99

  2. BOption (b)

    88

  3. COption (c)

    132

  4. DOption (d)

    121

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

132

Why this answer is correct

Given:

In a colony, the ratio of two-wheelers to four-wheelers is 11 ∶ 9. Among the four-wheelers, one-fourth are petrol and the remaining 81 are diesel.

Concept Used:

Use the concept of ratios and basic arithmetic operations to find the number of two-wheelers.

Formula Used:

  1. The number of four-wheelers (F) can be expressed as F=81÷(3/4) F = 81 \div (3/4)
  2. The number of two-wheelers (T) can be expressed as T = 119×F\frac{11}{9} × F

Calculation:

Given that three-fourths of the four-wheelers are diesel and that number is 81, we

34×F=81\frac{3}{4} × F = 81

F = 81 × 4/3

F = 108

Use the ratio to find the number of two-wheelers:

The ratio of two-wheelers to four-wheelers is 11:9, thus:

T = 11/9 × 108

T =11×1089 \frac{11 × 108}{9}

T = 132

So, the number of two-wheelers in the colony is 132.

Question 51

Ratio of milk and water in a mixture is 5 ∶ 4 and 45 litres of mixture are taken out and 15 litres water is added. Now, quantity of milk in the mixture becomes 4 litres more than that of water, then what is the initial quantity of mixture?

  1. AOption (a)

    172 litres

  2. BOption (b)

    213 litres

  3. COption (c)

    216 litres

  4. DOption (d)

    190 litres

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

216 litres

Why this answer is correct

Concept Used:

Use the concept of ratios and basic arithmetic operations to find the initial quantity of the mixture.

Calculation:

Let the initial quantity of the mixture be M litres.

The initial quantities of milk and water are:

Milk = 5M/9

Water = 4M/9

When 45 litres of the mixture are taken out, the quantities of milk and water taken out are:

Milk taken out = 59×45=25\frac{5}{9} \times 45 = 25litres

Water taken out =49×45=20 \frac{4}{9} \times 45 = 20 litres

Remaining milk = 59M−25\frac{5}{9} M - 25 litres

Remaining water = 49M−20\frac{4}{9} M - 20litres

After adding 15 litres of water:

New water quantity =49M−20+15=49M−5 \frac{4}{9} M - 20 + 15 = \frac{4}{9} M - 5 litres

According to the problem, the quantity of milk is 4 litres more than that of water:59M−25=49M−5+4\frac{5}{9} M - 25 = \frac{4}{9} M - 5 + 4 ​59M−25=49M−1\frac{5}{9} M - 25 = \frac{4}{9} M - 1 59M−49M=25−1\frac{5}{9} M - \frac{4}{9} M = 25 - 1 19M=24\frac{1}{9} M = 24 M=24×9M = 24 \times 9

M = 216

So, the initial quantity of the mixture is 216 litres.

Question 52

The difference between compound interest (annually) and simple interest on a certain sum at 10 percent per annum for 2 years is Rs. 42. What is the sum?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 5200

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 4200

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 8400

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 2100

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rs. 4200

Why this answer is correct

The difference between CI and SI for 2 years is P(r/100)2

⇒ 42 = P(10/100)2

⇒ 42 = p × 1/00

⇒ P = 4200

∴ The  amount is Rs. 4200.

Question 53

A boat goes 48 km upstream and 56 km downstream in 12 hours. It goes 60 km upstream and 42 km downstream in 13 hours. Find the speed of boat in still water (in kmph)?

  1. AOption (a)

    14

  2. BOption (b)

    10

  3. COption (c)

    20

  4. DOption (d)

    24

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

10

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Let Upstream speed be U and Downstream speed be D.

Case 1: 48/U + 56/D = 12 | Case 2: 60/U + 42/D = 13

By observation/HCF: If D = 14, then 56/14 = 4. So 48/U = 12 − 4 = 8 ⇒ U = 6.

Check in Case 2: 60/6 + 42/14 = 10 + 3 = 13 (Satisfied).

Speed of boat = (D + U) ÷ 2 = (14 + 6) ÷ 2 = 10 kmph.

∴ The correct answer is 10 kmph.

Alternate Method

Given:

Let speed of boat in still water = x kmph and speed of stream = y kmph.

Upstream speed (U) = x − y | Downstream speed (D) = x + y

Calculations:

⇒ 48/U + 56/D = 12 --- (i)

⇒ 60/U + 42/D = 13 --- (ii)

Multiply (i) by 3 and (ii) by 4 to eliminate 1/U:

⇒ 144/U + 168/D = 36

⇒ 240/U + 168/D = 52

Subtracting the equations:

⇒ 96/U = 16 ⇒ U = 96 ÷ 16 = 6 kmph

Substitute U = 6 in (i):

⇒ 48/6 + 56/D = 12 ⇒ 8 + 56/D = 12 ⇒ 56/D = 4 ⇒ D = 14 kmph

⇒ x = (D + U) ÷ 2 = (14 + 6) ÷ 2 = 10 kmph

∴ The correct answer is 10 kmph.

Additional Information

Speed of Boat and Stream

Speed of boat in still water (x) = (Downstream Speed + Upstream Speed) ÷ 2.

Speed of Current

Speed of stream/current (y) = (Downstream Speed − Upstream Speed) ÷ 2.

Relative Speed in Water

Downstream = x + y (with the flow); Upstream = x − y (against the flow).

Question 54

A beats B by 125 m in a kilometer race. Find B's speed if A's speed is 16 m/sec.

  1. AOption (a)

    21 m/sec

  2. BOption (b)

    7 m/sec

  3. COption (c)

    14 m/sec

  4. DOption (d)

    18 m/sec

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

14 m/sec

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Problem to solve: A beats B by 125 m in a kilometer race. Find B's speed if A's speed is 16 m/sec.

Concept Used:

Use the concept of relative speed and distance to calculate B's speed.

Formula Used:

  1. Speed = Distance / Time

Calculation:

Step 1: Identify A's speed and the distance of the race:

A's speed (SA) = 16 m/sec

Distance of the race (D) = 1000 m

Step 2: Calculate the time taken by A to finish the race:

Time taken by A (TA) = D / SA

TA = 1000 m / 16 m/sec

TA = 62.5 sec

Step 3: Determine the distance covered by B when A finishes the race:

Since A beats B by 125 m, the distance covered by B (DB) = 1000 m - 125 m

DB = 875 m

Step 4: Calculate B's speed:

B's speed (SB) = Distance covered by B (DB) / Time taken by A (TA)

SB = 875 m / 62.5 sec

SB = 14 m/sec

So, B's speed is 14 m/sec.

Question 55

Three pipes can fill a tank of 900 liters in 1 hour. The rate of the first pipe is 3 liters per minute and the ratio of the rate of the second pipe to the third pipe is 3 ∶ 1. What is the time to fill an empty tank of 1500 liters when the first pipe and second pipe, work together?

  1. AOption (a)

    125 min

  2. BOption (b)

    80 min

  3. COption (c)

    150 min

  4. DOption (d)

    90 min

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

125 min

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Problem to solve: Three pipes can fill a tank of 900 liters in 1 hour. The rate of the first pipe is 3 liters per minute and the ratio of the rate of the second pipe to the third pipe is 3 ∶ 1. What is the time to fill an empty tank of 1500 liters when the first pipe and second pipe, work together?

Concept Used:

Use the concept of rate and work in basic arithmetic operations.

Formula Used:

  1. Total rate of three pipes = Rate of first pipe + Rate of second pipe + Rate of third pipe
  2. Work done (W) = Rate (R) × Time (T)

Calculation:

Step 1: Identify the rate of the first pipe:

Rate of the first pipe (R1) = 3 liters per minute

Step 2: Calculate the total rate of three pipes:

The tank is filled in 1 hour (60 minutes) and the tank's capacity is 900 liters.

Total rate of three pipes = 900 liters60 minutes900 liters60 minutes

= 15 liters per minute

Step 3: Let the rate of the second pipe be R2 and the rate of the third pipe be R3:

Given the ratio R2 : R3 = 3 : 1

So, R2 = 3R3

Step 4: Set up the equation for the total rate:

R1 + R2 + R3 = 15 liters per minute

3 + 3R3 + R3 = 15

3 + 4R3 = 15

Step 5: Solve for R3:

4R3 = 12

R3 = 3 liters per minute

Step 6: Calculate R2:

R2 = 3R3 = 3 × 3 = 9 liters per minute

Step 7: Determine the combined rate of the first and second pipes:

Combined rate of first and second pipes (R1 + R2) = 3 + 9 = 12 liters per minute

Step 8: Calculate the time to fill the 1500-liter tank:

Time (T) = Work(W)Rate(R)Work(W)Rate(R)

T = 1500 liters12 liters per minute1500 liters12 liters per minute

T = 125 minutes

So, the time to fill an empty tank of 1500 liters when the first pipe and second pipe work together is 125 minutes.

Question 56

If 10 persons can do a job in 20 days. Then 20 persons with the twice efficiency can do the same job in:

  1. AOption (a)

    10 days

  2. BOption (b)

    12 days

  3. COption (c)

    5 days

  4. DOption (d)

    15 days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

5 days

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Problem to solve: If 10 persons can do a job in 20 days. Then 20 persons with twice the efficiency can do the same job in:

Concept Used:

Use the concept of work and efficiency in basic arithmetic operations.

Formula Used:

  1. Work done (W) = Number of persons (P) × Number of days (D) × Efficiency (E)
  2. The total work remains the same; only the number of persons and their efficiency changes.

Calculation:

Step 1: Identify the initial number of persons, days, and efficiency:

Initial number of persons (P1) = 10

Initial number of days (D1) = 20

Initial efficiency (E1) = 1

Step 2: Calculate the total work done (W):

W = P1 × D1 × E1

W = 10 × 20 × 1

W = 200 units of work

Step 3: Identify the new number of persons and their efficiency:

New number of persons (P2) = 20

New efficiency (E2) = 2 (twice the initial efficiency)

Step 4: Let the number of days taken by the new persons be D2.

We know that the total work remains the same (W):

W = P2 × D2 × E2

200 = 20 × D2 × 2

Step 5: Solve for D2:

200 = 40 × D2

D2 = 2004020040

D2 = 5 days

So, 20 persons with twice the efficiency can do the same job in 5 days.

Question 57

If the diameter of the base of a right circular cylinder is reduced by 331333 \frac{1}{3} percent and its height is doubled, then the volume of the cylinder will?

  1. AOption (a)

    Increase by 1191 \frac{1}{9} percent

  2. BOption (b)

    Remain unchanged

  3. COption (c)

    Increase by 111911 \frac{1}{9} percent

  4. DOption (d)

    Decrease by 111911 \frac{1}{9} percent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Decrease by 111911 \frac{1}{9} percent

Why this answer is correct

Explanation -

1. Initial Volume of the Cylinder:

The volume V of a cylinder is given by the formula: V = πr2h

where r is the radius of the base and h is the height of the cylinder.

  1. Change in Diameter:

The diameter is reduced by 3313%33\frac{1}{3} \% .

This fraction in decimal form is:

3313%=33.3333%=1333\frac{1}{3} \% = 33.3333\% = \frac{1}{3}

Therefore, the new diameter is:

new diameter = original diameter ×(1−13) \left(1 - \frac{1}{3}\right)

= original diameter × 2/3

Since the radius is half of the diameter, the new radius rnew  is:

rnew  = new diameter / 2 = (original diameter × 2/3 ) / 2  = r × 2/3

  1. Change in Height:

The height is doubled, so the new height hnew is: hnew = 2h

  1. New Volume of the Cylinder:

Substituting the new radius and height into the volume formula, we get:

Vnew = π(rnew)2hnew=π(r×23)2(2h)π (r_{\text{new}})^2 h_{\text{new}} = π \left(r × \frac{2}{3}\right)^2 (2h)

Simplify the equation:

Vnew=π(23)2r2×2hV_{\text{new}} = π \left(\frac{2}{3}\right)^2 r^2 × 2h

= π49r2×2h=π89r2hπ \frac{4}{9} r^2 × 2h = π \frac{8}{9} r^2 h

Thus, the new volume Vnew is:

Vnew = 8/9 V

where V is the original volume.

  1. Percentage Change in Volume:

The percentage change in volume is given by:

Percentage change =(Vnew−VV)×100% \left(\frac{V_{\text{new}} - V}{V}\right) × 100\%

Substituting Vnew = 8/9 V :

Percentage change =(89V−VV)×100% \left(\frac{\frac{8}{9} V - V}{V}\right) × 100\%

= (89V−99VV)×100%\left(\frac{\frac{8}{9} V - \frac{9}{9} V}{V}\right) × 100\%

Percentage change} = (89V−99VV)×100%\left(\frac{\frac{8}{9} V - \frac{9}{9} V}{V}\right) × 100\%

= (−19VV)×100%\left(\frac{-\frac{1}{9} V}{V}\right) × 100\%

Percentage change} = −19×100%-\frac{1}{9} × 100\%

= - 100/9 % = −1119%-11\frac{1}{9}\%

So, the volume of the cylinder decreases by 1119%11\frac{1}{9}\% .

Therefore, the correct answer is Decrease by 111911 \frac{1}{9} percent.

Question 58

A person wants to make an open silver case for a mobile such that the mobile exactly fits in the case. If the length, breadth, and thickness of the mobile are 10 cm, 4 cm, and 0.5 cm respectively and the rate of the silver sheet used is Rs. 50 per cm2, then what can be the cost of the silver case?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 2700

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 3000

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 2500

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs.3200

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Rs. 2700

Why this answer is correct

Explanation -

  1. Dimensions of the Mobile:

Length (L) = 10 cm

Breadth (B) = 4 cm

Thickness (T) = 0.5 cm

  1. Surface Area of the Open Case:

An open case means it has no top cover. The case will have:

1 base (bottom)

2 sides (left and right)

2 sides (front and back)

Let's calculate the area of each part:

Base:

Area of Base = L × B = 10 x 4 = 40 cm2

Two Sides (left and right):

Area of One Side = L × T = 10 × 0.5 = 5 cm2

Area of Two Sides = 2 × 5  = 10 cm2

Two Sides (front and back): 

Area of One Side = B × T = 4 × 0.5 = 2 cm2

Area of Two Sides = 2 × 2 = 4 cm2

3. Total Surface Area:

Total Surface Area = Area of Base + Area of Two Sides (left and right) + Area of Two Sides (front and back)

Total Surface Area = 40  + 10 + 4  = 54 cm2

  1. Cost of the Silver Sheet:

The rate of the silver sheet is Rs. 50 per cm².

Cost = Total Surface Area × Rate per cm2 

= 54  × 50 

= 2700 Rs

So, the cost of the silver case is Rs. 2700.

Question 59

The given table shows the rate of compound interest given by six banks on fixed deposits.

BankRs.10000 to Rs.99999Rs.100000 to Rs.499999Rs.500000 to Rs.999999Rs.1000000 or more
A5%5.5%6%6.5%
B5.2%6%6.3%7%
C4%4.2%5%5.8%
D6%7%8%9%
E6%6.5%7%8%
F5%6%6.5%7%

If a person deposits Rs. 600000 in fixed deposits for 2 years in bank C and Rs. 200000 in fixed deposits for 2 years in bank F, then what is the total interest earned by him from both banks?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 84280

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 90210

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 86220

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 80440

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Rs. 86220

Why this answer is correct

Explanation -

Bank C Calculation

  1. Principal Amount: P = 600,000  
  2. Rate of Interest: For 500,000 to 999,999 , the rate is 5% per annum.
  3. Time: n = 2 years

The formula for compound interest is: A=P(1+r100)nA = P \left(1 + \frac{r}{100}\right)^n

For Bank C:

AC=600,000(1+5100)2A_C = 600,000 \left(1 + \frac{5}{100}\right)^2

AC=600,000(1.05)2A_C = 600,000 \left(1.05\right)^2

AC = 600,000 ×  1.1025

AC = 661,500

The interest earned from Bank C is: InterestC = AC - P 

= 661,500 - 600,000 = 61,500

Bank F Calculation

  1. Principal Amount: P = 200,000  
  2. Rate of Interest: For 100,000 to 499,999 , the rate is 6% per annum.
  3. Time: n = 2 years

For Bank F:

AF=200,000(1+6100)2A_F = 200,000 \left(1 + \frac{6}{100}\right)^2

AF=200,000(1.06)2A_F = 200,000 \left(1.06\right)^2

AF = 200,000 × 1.1236 = 2,24,720

The interest earned from Bank F is:

InterestF = AF - P 

= 224,720 - 200,000 = 24,720 

Total Interest Earned

Total Interest = InterestC + InterestF 

Total Interest = 61,500 + 24,720 = 86,220 

Therefore, the total interest earned from both banks is 86,220.

Question 60

The following bar graph shows the total number of news paper readers (in thousands) in a city during 6 months and percentage of Hindi news paper readers.

Note: Total readers = Hindi news paper readers + English news paper readers

What is the difference between Hindi news paper readers during January, February and March together and English news paper readers during April, May and June together?

  1. AOption (a)

    175600

  2. BOption (b)

    154500

  3. COption (c)

    164200

  4. DOption (d)

    138700

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

154500

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

Hindi news paper readers during January = (140 × 65)/100 = 91

Hindi news paper readers during February = (150 × 70)/100 = 105

Hindi news paper readers during March = (130 × 40)/100 = 52

English news paper readers during April = 90 - [(90 × 75)/100 = 67.5] = 22.5

English news paper readers during May = 110 - [(110 × 50)/100 = 55] = 55

English news paper readers during May = 80 - [(80 × 80)/100 = 64] =16

Hindi news paper readers during January, February and March together = 91 + 105 + 52 = 248

English news paper readers during April, May and June together = 22.5 + 55+ 16 = 93.5

Difference = 248 - 93.5 = 154.5 = 154.5 × 1000 = 154500

General English (20 questions)

Question 61

One part of the sentence below may contain an error. Identify the part. If there is no error, choose 'No error'.

The Delhi Government and the students has contended that the single judge's decision was based on incorrect facts.

  1. AOption (a)

    The Delhi Government and the students has

  2. BOption (b)

    contended that the single judge's decision

  3. COption (c)

    was based on incorrect facts

  4. DOption (d)

    No error

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The Delhi Government and the students has

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "The Delhi Government and the students has". 

Key Points

  • Subject-verb agreement means the subject and verb must agree in number.
  • This means if the subject of the sentence is singular, then the verb must also be singular.
  • Conversely, if the subject is plural, the verb should also be plural.
  • In the sentence given, the subject is actually plural: "The Delhi Government and the students".
  • Here, we have two entities, "The Delhi Government" and "the students", combined by the conjunction "and", that are acting in the same way, so the verb that follows should adhere to the rule of plural subject agreement.
  • The verb provided in the sentence is "has", which is singular.
  • This creates disagreement in the sentence, violating the rule of subject-verb agreement.
  • The correct verb to use here is "have", which is plural and agrees with the plural nature of our compound subject.
  • The corrected sentence should read: "The Delhi Government and the students have contended that the single judge's decision was based on incorrect facts."

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 62

One part of the sentence below may contain an error. Identify the part. If there is no error, choose 'No error'.

A quick analysis suggests that the sources that contribute to poor urban air quality are constant.

  1. AOption (a)

    A quick analysis suggests that

  2. BOption (b)

    The sources that contribute to poor

  3. COption (c)

    Urban air-quality are constant

  4. DOption (d)

    No error

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

No error

Why this answer is correct

The correct sentence is "No Error". 

Key Points

  • The sentence "A quick analysis suggests that the sources that contribute to poor urban air quality are constant." appears to be grammatically correct.
  • Within this sentence:
  • "A quick analysis suggests that" sets up a claim that is being asserted based on a brief examination.
  • "The sources that contribute to poor" provides more information on what this analysis pertains to, i.e., the origins contributing to a negative aspect.
  • "Urban air quality are constant." completes the claim made at the beginning of the sentence, implying that the contributing factors to poor urban air quality remain the same and are persistent.
  • "Air quality" is a commonly used compound noun, and it's used correctly in this sentence.
  • After analyzing the above information it is clear that the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 63

Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute the underlined segment, select 'No improvement'.

The sun rises two hours earliest in Arunachal Pradesh as compared to Gujarat.

  1. AOption (a)

    two hours earlier

  2. BOption (b)

    two hours' early

  3. COption (c)

    two hours early

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

two hours earlier

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "two hours earlier". 

Key Points

  • The error in the sentence is in the usage of the word 'earliest.'
  • When comparing two entities – in this case, the time of sunrise in Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat – the correct comparative form of 'early' should be 'earlier,' not 'earliest.'
  • 'Earliest' is the superlative form of 'early' and is used when comparing more than two entities.
  • However, in this context, we are only comparing two regions: Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat.
  • Taking this into account, the correct sentence should be: "The sun rises two hours earlier in Arunachal Pradesh as compared to Gujarat."

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 64

Select the most appropriate option to substitute the bracketed part in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute the bracketed part, select 'No improvement'.

I gave the countryman (what few money I had) in my pocket, for the timely assistance he had afforded me.

  1. AOption (a)

    the few money I had

  2. BOption (b)

    what less money I had

  3. COption (c)

    what little money I had

  4. DOption (d)

    No Improvement.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

what little money I had

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "what little money I had". 

Key Points

  • The phrase in brackets, "what few money I had," is incorrect because "few" is used with countable nouns, while "money" is an uncountable noun.
  • Looking at the options:
  • "The few money I had" - As mentioned above, "few" is used with countable nouns, so this option is incorrect.
  • "What less money I had" - While "less" is used with uncountable nouns, the phrasing "what less money I had" is awkward and not grammatically correct in standard English.
  • "What little money I had" - This phrasing is correct. "Little" is used with singular uncountable nouns when the amount is low, which fits in this case.
  • Therefore, the correct sentence should read: "I gave the countryman what little money I had in my pocket for the timely assistance he had afforded me."

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 65

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Emperors need more resources _____ kings because empires are larger than kingdoms.

  1. AOption (a)

    of

  2. BOption (b)

    than

  3. COption (c)

    as

  4. DOption (d)

    for

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

than

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "than". 

Key Points

  • The sentence is making a comparison between the resources needed by emperors and kings.
  • Whenever a comparison is made between two entities in English, we use the conjunction 'than'.
  • The use of 'than' is appropriate in this context because it correctly sets up a comparison between the resources of the two distinct entities, emperors and kings.
  • The conjunction 'than' is used to introduce the second part of an unequal comparison.
  • For example, 'I am taller than you'.
  • In this case, saying 'Emperors need more resources than kings' rightly communicates that emperors require more resources in comparison to what kings require.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2".

 Additional Information

  • Let's break it down:
  • 'of' - The preposition 'of' is usually used to indicate a relationship or possession between two entities.
  • For example, 'the color of the sky'.
  • So, in this context, saying 'Emperors need more resources of kings', wouldn't make sense as it can confuse the reader, making it look like emperors possessions belonging to kings.
  • 'as' - The conjunction 'as' is usually used for making comparisons of equality.
  • For example, 'He is as tall as his brother'.
  • Saying 'Emperors need more resources as kings', would be incorrect because 'as' should be used to equate things, not when one thing is more than another.
  • 'for' - The preposition 'for' is used to indicate a purpose or a reason.
  • Saying 'Emperors need more resources for kings', would change the meaning of the sentence, implying that the resources for Emperors are actually meant for kings.

Question 66

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

The higher faculty is a ________ insight or intuition that ________ us experience the ocean of Consciousness.

  1. AOption (a)

    deep, help

  2. BOption (b)

    deeply, helping

  3. COption (c)

    deep, helps

  4. DOption (d)

    deeply, helps

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

deep, helps

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "deep, helps'.

Key Points

  • The correct answer to the sentence "The higher faculty is a ________ insight or intuition that ________ us experience the ocean of Consciousness" is "deep, helps".
  • Let's break down the sentence and the options:
  • First, we are looking for a word to fill in the first blank.
  • This word needs to be an adjective to describe 'insight'.
  • The adjective 'deep' in option 3 is suitable because it effectively describes the kind of insight or understanding the sentence is talking about i.e., profound or intense.
  • The second blank requires a verb to link 'insight' and 'us', and moreover, this verb needs to agree with a singular subject.
  • The verb 'helps' in option 3 does exactly this.
  • When 'that' is used as a relative pronoun referring back to a singular noun, it requires a singular verb.
  • Here, 'that' refers back to 'insight or intuition', considered as a single conceptual entity, and so the singular verb 'helps' is required.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Additional Information

  • Now, let's examine the other options:
  • 'Deep, help': While 'deep' is correct, 'help' is in its plural form, so it doesn’t match with the singular subject 'that'.
  • 'Deeply, helping': 'Deeply' is an adverb which is incorrect as we need an adjective 'deep' to describe the noun 'insight'.
  • ​The use of present participle 'helping' is also inappropriate in this context.
  • 'Deeply, helps': Again, 'deeply' is incorrect as we need the adjective 'deep'.
  • ​Although the verb 'helps' is correct, the incorrect use of the adverb 'deeply' instead of the adjective 'deep' means this option is wrong.

Question 67

Baroque temple ______ by the Scottish architect

  1. AOption (a)

    designed

  2. BOption (b)

    conducted

  3. COption (c)

    rewarded

  4. DOption (d)

    crowded

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

designed

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "designed". 

Key Points

  • The sentence in question is: "Baroque temple ______ by the Scottish architect."
  • The phrase requires a verb that accurately represents an action that a Scottish architect could perform concerning a Baroque temple.
  • In architectural contexts, 'design' refers to the process of creating detailed plans or drawings for constructing a building or structure.
  • Architects are primarily responsible for designing buildings.
  • Therefore, 'designed' represents an appropriate and plausible action that a Scottish architect could take regarding a Baroque temple.

Thus, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Additional Information

  • 'conducted' - This verb is often used in the context of conducting a meeting, a survey, or a group of musicians, etc.
  • It doesn't fit properly in this context, as architects do not 'conduct' temples.
  • 'rewarded' - This verb is used when someone is given something in return for effort, achievement or hard work.
  • An architect cannot 'reward' a temple because a temple is an inanimate structure and cannot receive rewards.
  • 'crowded' - This verb is used to express a large number of people being gathered closely together.
  • An architect does not 'crowd' temples.

Question 68

In the following question, there are six sentences marked S1, S6, P, Q, R, and S. The positions of S1 and S6 are fixed. You are required to choose one of the four alternatives which would be the most logical sequence of the sentence in the passage.

S1. Jeff is an excellent dancer

P. who always tries new dance steps

Q. while the rest of the class struggles

R. that are demonstrated

S. and masters them quickly

S6. to move their bodies on the tunes.

  1. AOption (a)

    RPQS

  2. BOption (b)

    SQPR

  3. COption (c)

    QRPS

  4. DOption (d)

    PRSQ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

PRSQ

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "PRSQ".

Key Points

  • The most logical sequence of the sentences in the passage is:
  • S1. Jeff is an excellent dancer P. who always tries new dance steps R. that are demonstrated S. and masters them quickly Q. while the rest of the class struggles S6. to move their bodies on the tunes.
  • So, the correct sequence of the sentences is PRSQ, which corresponds to answer option 4.
  • Here's the reasoning behind that:
  • P (who always tries new dance steps) elaborates on S1 (Jeff is an excellent dancer) by explaining what Jeff does (trying new dance steps).
  • Then, R (that are demonstrated) adds to P, specifying what dance steps Jeff tries (the ones that are demonstrated).
  • S (and masters them quickly) continues the flow by describing how adeptly Jeff does this (he masters them quickly).
  • Finally, Q (while the rest of the class struggles) contrasts Jeff's skill with the rest of the class before concluding with S6 (to move their bodies on the tunes).
  • This "PRSQ" the correct and most logical sequence.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 69

Select the most appropriate synonym for the given word.

Grim

  1. AOption (a)

    Cheerful

  2. BOption (b)

    Gloomy

  3. COption (c)

    Bluff

  4. DOption (d)

    Peevish

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Gloomy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Gloomy.

Key Points

  • The word "grim" means very serious or gloomy. (विकट, गंभीर)
  • Example: The news of the disaster painted a grim picture of the future.
  • "Gloomy" means dark or poorly lit, especially so as to appear depressing or frightening. (उदास, अंधकारमय)
  • Example: It was a gloomy day with dark clouds and rain.

Therefore, the most appropriate synonym for "grim" is Option 2 i.e. Gloomy.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and why they are not suitable:

  • Cheerful (प्रसन्न): Noticeably happy and optimistic.
  • Example: She has a cheerful personality that brightens up the room.
  • Bluff (धोखा देना): An attempt to deceive someone into believing that one can or will do something.
  • Example: It was just a bluff; he didn't actually have any proof.
  • Peevish (चिड़चिड़ा): Easily irritated, especially by unimportant things.
  • Example: Her peevish nature was well-known among her colleagues.

Question 70

Select the most appropriate antonym for the given word.

Grumble

  1. AOption (a)

    Complain

  2. BOption (b)

    Compliment

  3. COption (c)

    Dangle

  4. DOption (d)

    Calamity

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Compliment

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Compliment". 

Key Points

  • Grumble means to complain or protest about something in a bad-tempered but typically muted way. (बड़बड़ाना)
  • Example: She often grumbles about her work environment being too stressful.
  • The correct antonym, compliment, refers to a polite expression of praise or admiration. (प्रशंसा)
  • Example: He received a compliment from his boss for his excellent performance.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Additional Information

  • Complain (शिकायत करना): Express dissatisfaction or annoyance about something.
  • Example: The customers complain about the poor service at the restaurant.
  • Dangle (लटकना): Hang or swing loosely.
  • Example: The earrings dangled from her ears.
  • Calamity (आपदा): An event causing great and often sudden damage or distress; a disaster.
  • Example: The earthquake was a great calamity for the city.

Question 71

Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

  1. AOption (a)

    Pageant

  2. BOption (b)

    Pamphlet

  3. COption (c)

    Persevere

  4. DOption (d)

    Potraite

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Potraite

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Potraite".

Key Points

  • Let's look at the options:
  • "Pageant": This is correctly spelled.
  • A pageant is a public entertainment consisting of a procession of people in elaborate, colorful costumes, or an outdoor performance of a historical scene.
  • "Pamphlet": This is also correctly spelled.
  • A pamphlet is a small booklet or brochure that provides information or arguments about a single subject.
  • "Persevere": This, too, is correctly spelled.
  • To persevere means to continue in a course of action even in the face of difficulty or with little or no prospect of success.
  • "Potraite": This word is spelled incorrectly.
  • The correct spelling is "Portrait", which refers to a painting, drawing, photograph, or engraving of a person, often capturing the face and its expression.
  • So, among these 4 options, the word "Potraite" is incorrectly spelled, and the correct spelling is "Portrait".

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 72

Select the CORRECTLY spelt word.

  1. AOption (a)

    Administratur

  2. BOption (b)

    Administrater

  3. COption (c)

    Administrator

  4. DOption (d)

    Aministretor

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Administrator

Why this answer is correct

The correctly spelled word among the given options is "Administrator".

Key Points

  • Let's us look at the options:
  • "Administratur": This word is incorrectly spelled.
  • The correct spelling is "Administrator", describing a person responsible for running a business, organization, etc.
  • "Administrater": This spelling is also incorrect.
  • The correct form of the word is "Administrator".
  • "Administrator": This spelling is correct.
  • An administrator is a person who manages and organizes the affairs of a business, institution or other organization.
  • "Aministretor": This is not a correctly spelled word.
  • The correct spelling should be "Administrator".
  • So, among these 4 options, the correctly spelled word is "Administrator".

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 73

In the following question, out of the four given options, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

Once in a blue moon.

  1. AOption (a)

    Occasionally

  2. BOption (b)

    Very rarely

  3. COption (c)

    Frequently

  4. DOption (d)

    Incessantly

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Very rarely

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "very rarely". 

Key Points

  • "Very rarely": This term is the best fit for "Once in a blue moon."
  • ​A blue moon is an event that happens infrequently, so the idiom "Once in a blue moon" is typically used to describe something that occurs very rarely.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Additional Information

  • "Occasionally": While this term does mean something happening infrequently, "Once in a blue moon" is used for something that happens even less frequently than what is generally considered occasional.
  • "Frequently": This is the opposite of what "Once in a blue moon" means.
  • Frequent events happen often, while a blue moon is a rare occurrence.
  • "Incessantly": This term, which means without interruption or constantly, is also opposite to "Once in a blue moon."

Question 74

In the following question, out of the four given options, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

An eye opener

  1. AOption (a)

    A shocking revelation

  2. BOption (b)

    A small opening

  3. COption (c)

    A difficult task

  4. DOption (d)

    A tough decision

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A shocking revelation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "A shocking revelation".

Key Points

  • "A shocking revelation": This phrase is the best fit for "An eye opener."
  • ​When something is an 'eye opener,' it provides you with a new, surprising insight or perspective that you were previously unaware of.
  • Therefore, it can be considered a shocking or surprising revelation.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Additional Information

  • "A small opening": This is not the correct interpretation of the idiom.
  • Even though the idiom contains the word 'opening,' in this context it does not refer to a physical opening but to a metaphorical one – a new understanding or realization.
  • "A difficult task": This option does not fit the meaning of "An eye opener."
  • The idiom doesn't typically relate to the difficulty of a task.
  • "A tough decision": While tough decisions might sometimes lead to an 'eye-opening' moment, the phrase "an eye opener" doesn't specifically refer to decision-making scenarios.

Question 75

Select the word which means the same as the following group of the words.

Open refusal to obey orders.

  1. AOption (a)

    Obedience

  2. BOption (b)

    Adherence

  3. COption (c)

    Defiance

  4. DOption (d)

    Compliance

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Defiance

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Defiance". 

Key Points

  • The phrase "Open refusal to obey orders" is synonymous with the word "Defiance".
  • Defiance means boldly resisting or challenging authority, and so it reflects the same concept as "Open refusal to obey orders".

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Additional Information

  • "Obedience": This word is the opposite of the given phrase.
  • Obedience means to comply with someone's orders or commands.
  • "Adherence": This is another word that is the opposite of the given phrase.
  • Adherence means sticking to a plan, path, or set of rules.
  • "Compliance": This word, like obedience and adherence, is also the opposite of the given phrase.
  • Compliance means conforming to a rule, standard, or law.

Read the following passage and answer the questions below.

Arthur Christopher Orme Plummer was a Canadian actor. His career spanned seven decades, gaining recognition for his performances in film, television and theatre. He made his Broadway debut in 1954 and continued to act in leading roles on stage playing Cyrano de Bergerac in Cyrano (1974), Iago in Othello, as well as playing the titular roles in Hamlet at Elsinore (1964), Macbeth, King Lear, and Barrymore. Plummer performed in stage productions, including J.B., No Man's Land and Inherit the Wind. Plummer was born in Toronto, Ontario, and grew up in Senneville, Quebec.

After appearing on stage, he made his film debut in Stage Struck (1958), landed his first starring role that same year in Wind Across the Everglades and won great acclaim for his performance as Captain Georg von Trapp in the musical film The Sound of Music (1965) alongside Julie Andrews. Plummer played numerous major historical figures, including Commodus in The Fall of the Roman Empire (1964), Arthur Wellesley, 1st Duke of Wellington in Waterloo (1970), Rudyard Kipling in The Man Who Would Be King (1975), Mike Wallace in The Insider (1999), Leo Tolstoy in The Last Station (2009), Inside Man (2006), Kaiser Wilhelm II in The Exception (2016), and J. Paul Getty in All the Money in the World (2017). Other films including Malcolm X (1992), A Beautiful Mind (2001), The New World (2005), The Girl with the Dragon Tattoo (2011), and Knives Out (2019).

Plummer received various awards for his work, including an Academy Award, two Primetime Emmy Awards, two Tony Awards, a Golden Globe Award, a Screen Actors Guild Award, and a British Academy Film Award. He is one of the few performers to have received the Triple Crown of Acting, and the only Canadian. He won the Academy Award for Best Supporting Actor at the age of 82 for Beginners (2010), becoming the oldest person to win an acting award (a distinction he held until being supplanted by 83-year-old Anthony Hopkins in 2021), and he received a nomination at the age of 88 for All the Money in the World, making him the oldest person to be nominated in an acting category.

Question 76

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the given passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Plummer won a Screen Actors Guild Award.

  2. BOption (b)

    Plummer won a Golden Globe Award.

  3. COption (c)

    Plummer won the Academy Award for Best Supporting Actor at the age of 82.

  4. DOption (d)

    Plummer never won the Triple Crown of Acting.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Plummer never won the Triple Crown of Acting.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Plummer never won the Triple Crown of Acting."

Key Points

  • The passage provides information about the various awards Arthur Plummer received.
  • According to the passage, it states that Plummer won various awards for his work, which included an Academy Award, two Primetime Emmy Awards, two Tony Awards, a Golden Globe Award, a Screen Actors Guild Award, and a British Academy Film Award.
  • It also states that he is one of the few performers to have received the Triple Crown of Acting.
  • Given these details, the incorrect statement according to the passage is: Plummer never won the Triple Crown of Acting.
  • This statement is the opposite of what is explicitly mentioned in the text, where Arthur Plummer is described as one of the few performers to have received the Triple Crown of Acting.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 77

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

According to the given passage, the character Arthur Wellesley belongs to?

  1. AOption (a)

    Waterloo

  2. BOption (b)

    The Exception

  3. COption (c)

    The New World

  4. DOption (d)

    A Beautiful Mind

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Waterloo

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Waterloo". 

Key Points

  • The answer to the question "The character Arthur Wellesley belongs to which movie?" can be found within the text.
  • It states that Arthur Plummer played the role of Arthur Wellesley, 1st Duke of Wellington in the movie titled "Waterloo."
  • So, the correct option is: Waterloo

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Additional Information

  • This chosen option nullifies the other ones including "The Exception," "The New World," and "A Beautiful Mind."
  • According to the text, Arthur Plummer did not play the role of Arthur Wellesley in these films, hence these choices are incorrect.
  • 'Waterloo' is the film in which this character has been portrayed by Plummer, as stated in the passage.

Question 78

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Arthur Plummer was born in Canada but he grew up in -

  1. AOption (a)

    Mongolia

  2. BOption (b)

    Quebec

  3. COption (c)

    Toronto

  4. DOption (d)

    Hong Kong

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Quebec

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Quebec". 

Key Points 

  • The answer to the question "Arthur Plummer was born in Canada but he grew up in" is provided in the passage where it clearly states that Plummer was born in Toronto, Ontario, Canada, and grew up in Senneville, Quebec.
  • So, the correct option is: Quebec

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Additional Information

  • This information invalidates the remaining options.
  • "Mongolia", "Toronto", and "Hong Kong" are incorrect as they do not match the information provided in the text.
  • Specifically, the passage does not specify any association of Plummer growing up in "Mongolia" or "Hong Kong".
  • And even though Toronto is mentioned as his birthplace, it's not where he grew up, hence option 3 "Toronto" is not correct as well.

Question 79

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Mr. Arthur Plummer played many historical characters. In which movie he played the role of Commodus?

  1. AOption (a)

    The Fall of the Roman Empire.

  2. BOption (b)

    The Man Who Would Be King.

  3. COption (c)

    The Insider.

  4. DOption (d)

    All the Money in the World.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The Fall of the Roman Empire.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "The Fall of the Roman Empire". 

 Key Points

  • The answer to the question: "In which movie Mr. Arthur Plummer played the role of Commodus?" is provided in the passage.
  • It states that Plummer played the role of Commodus in the movie titled "The Fall of the Roman Empire."
  • So, the correct option is: The Fall of the Roman Empire.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Additional Information

  • The rest of the options: "The Man Who Would Be King," "The Insider," and "All the Money in the World" are incorrect.
  • Although Arthur Plummer did play in these movies, he portrayed different characters: Rudyard Kipling in "The Man Who Would Be King," Mike Wallace in "The Insider," and J. Paul Getty in "All the Money in the World," respectively.
  • They do not correlate with the character of Commodus that Mr. Arthur Plummer played.

Question 80

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Arthur Christopher Orme Plummer was a person whose career spanned-

  1. AOption (a)

    Five decades.

  2. BOption (b)

    Seven decades.

  3. COption (c)

    Six decades.

  4. DOption (d)

    Four decades.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Seven decades.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Seven decades". 

Key Points

  • Here's the explanation:
  • The first sentence of the passage clearly states, "Arthur Christopher Orme Plummer was a Canadian actor. His career spanned seven decades, gaining recognition for his performances in film, television and theatre."
  • The term "spanned seven decades" clearly indicates that the duration of Arthur Christopher Orme Plummer's career was over a period of seven decades.
  • Thus, the answer to the question "Arthur Christopher Orme Plummer was a person whose career spanned - " is option 2: "Seven decades".

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2".

General Hindi (20 questions)

Question 81

निम्नलिखित में से "गिरहकट" में कौन-सा समास है?

  1. AOption (a)

    कर्मधारय समास

  2. BOption (b)

    द्वंद्व समास

  3. COption (c)

    तत्पुरुष समास

  4. DOption (d)

    द्विगु समास

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

तत्पुरुष समास

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है - तत्पुरुष समास। 

Key Points

  • ‘गिरहकट’ का समास-विग्रह है ‘गिरह को काटने वाला’
  • यहाँ तत्पुरुष समास है।

Additional Information

तत्पुरुष समास: जिस समास में उत्तरपद प्रधान हो तथा समास करने के उपरांत विभक्ति(कारक चिन्ह) का लोप हो, तत्पुरुष समास कहलाता है।  जैसे: राम का अनुज= रामानुज, धर्म का ग्रन्थ = धर्मग्रन्थ, तुलसीदास द्वारा कृत = तुलसीदासकृत आदि। तत्पुरुष समास के छः भेद होते हैं-
समासपरिभाषाउदाहरण
कर्म तत्पुरुष समासजहां कर्म कारक चिन्ह (को) का लोप होगिरहकट = गिरह को काटने वाला
करण तत्पुरुष समासजहां करण कारक चिन्ह (से) का लोप होगुणहीन = गुणों से हीन
संप्रदान तत्पुरुष समासजहां संप्रदान कारक चिन्ह (के लिए, को) का लोप होहथकड़ी = हाथ के लिए कड़ी
अपादान तत्पुरुष समासजहां अपादान कारक चिन्ह (से, अलग होने के संबंध में ) का लोप होधनहीन = धन से हीन
संबंध तत्पुरुष समासजहां संबंध कारक (का, की के) का लोप होप्रेम सागर = प्रेम का सागर
अधिकरण तत्पुरुष समासजहां अधिकरण कारक (में , पर) का लोप होनीतिनिपुण = नीति में निपुण

Question 82

निम्नलिखित में से तद्भव शब्द का चयन कीजिए-

  1. AOption (a)

    चैत

  2. BOption (b)

    चौरिका

  3. COption (c)

    चतुष्क

  4. DOption (d)

    चणक

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

चैत

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है - चैत। 

 Key Points

  • चैत तद्भव शब्द है।
  • इसका तत्सम शब्द है चैत्र।
  • चैत्र हिंदी माह का नाम है।

Important Pointsअन्य विकल्प:-

तत्समतद्भव
चौरिकाचोरी
चतुष्कचौक
चणकचना

Additional Information

शब्दपरिभाषाउदाहरण
तत्समऐसे शब्द जो संस्कृत से ज्यों के त्यों लिए गए, तत्सम होते हैं।कूप, उष्ट्र, पंचम आदि
तद्भवसंस्कृत से हिंदी में आने पर जिन शब्दों का रूप बदल गया हो, तद्भव कहलाते हैं।आग, काम, पाँच आदि।

Question 83

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा शब्द प्रत्यय का प्रयोग कर बनाया गया है?

  1. AOption (a)

    अधकचरा

  2. BOption (b)

    राजपूतानी

  3. COption (c)

    पराकाष्ठा

  4. DOption (d)

    विदेश

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

राजपूतानी

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है - राजपूत।  

Key Points

  • राजपूत+आनी = राजपूतानी।
  • राजपूतानी का अर्थ:- राजपूत स्त्री।

Additional Informationप्रत्यय:- 

  • प्रत्यय शब्द को अक्सर अन्य शब्दों के अंत में जोड़कर इस्तेमाल किया जाता है। इससे वाक्य का अर्थ भी स्पष्ट हो जाता है। प्रत्यय में समय, कारक, लिंग, वचन, उपसर्ग, प्रत्यय आदि शामिल होते हैं। ये शब्द अक्सर नाम, क्रिया, विशेषण आदि शब्दों के साथ मिलकर अनेक अर्थों को बयां करते हैं।
  • उदाहरण- 'समाज' शब्द में 'इक' प्रत्यय जोड़कर 'सामाजिक' शब्द बनाया जा सकता है।

Question 84

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा शब्द द्रव्यवाचक संज्ञा शब्द का उदाहरण है?

  1. AOption (a)

    सेना

  2. BOption (b)

    कुज

  3. COption (c)

    लोहा

  4. DOption (d)

    घबराहट

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

लोहा

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है - लोहा। 

Key Points 

द्रव्यवाचक संज्ञाजो शब्द किसी धातु या द्रव्य का बोध करते हैं, द्रव्यवाचक संज्ञा कहलाते हैं।  जैसे- कोयला, पानी, तेल, घी आदि।

 

Important Points 

संज्ञाकिसी जाति, द्रव्य, गुण, भाव, व्यक्ति, स्थान और क्रिया आदि के नाम को संज्ञा कहते हैं। जैसे - पशु (जाति), सुंदरता (गुण), व्यथा (भाव), मोहन (व्यक्ति), दिल्ली (स्थान), मारना (क्रिया)।

Additional Information

संज्ञा के प्रकार
व्यक्तिवाचकजो शब्द केवल एक व्यक्ति, वस्तु या स्थान का बोध कराते हैं उन शब्दों को व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा कहते हैं।राम, गंगा, पटना
जातिवाचकजो संज्ञा एक ही प्रकार की वस्तुओं का (पूरी जाति का) बोध कराती है।नदी, पर्वत, लड़की
द्रव्यवाचकजिस संज्ञा शब्द से उस सामग्री या पदार्थ का बोध होता है जिससे कोई वस्तु बनी है।सोना, चाँदी, पानी
समूहवाचकजो संज्ञा शब्द किसी एक व्यक्ति का वाचक न होकर पूरे समूह या समुदाय का वाचक हो।वर्ग, सभा
भाववाचकजो संज्ञा किसी भाव, गुण, दशा आदि का बोध कराती है।क्रोध, मिठास, यौवन

Question 85

निम्नलिखित में से "अन्त:पुर" का पर्यायवाची शब्द कौन-सा नहीं है?

  1. AOption (a)

    मिमिस्रा

  2. BOption (b)

    रनिवास

  3. COption (c)

    भोगपुर

  4. DOption (d)

    जनानखाना

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

मिमिस्रा

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है - मिमिस्त्रा। 

Key Points

  • अन्तःपुर का अर्थ:- महल के भीतर स्त्रियों के रहने की जगह।
  • अंतःपुर के पर्यायवाची शब्द:-
  • जनानखाना, रनिवास, भोगपुर, हरमखाना

Additional Information

शब्दपरिभाषाउदाहरण
पर्यायवाचीजो विभिन्न शब्द एक ही अर्थ का बोध कराएं, उन्हें पर्यायवाची शब्द कहते हैं। सामान्य भाषा में इनको समानार्थक शब्द भी कहते हैं।अक्षर- वर्ण, हर्फ़ आज्ञा- आदेश, हुक्म, निर्देश

Question 86

निम्नलिखित में से शब्द-युग्म के सही अर्थ-भेद का चयन कीजिए-

वात - बात

  1. AOption (a)

    दस - सौ

  2. BOption (b)

    दस - कांच

  3. COption (c)

    वायु - बातचीत

  4. DOption (d)

    काटना - दाँत

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

वायु - बातचीत

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है - वायु - बातचीत। 

Key Points

  • बात का अर्थ - वचन, बातचीत
  • वात  का अर्थ - हवा, वायु

Additional Information

समश्रुत शब्द भिन्नार्थककुछ शब्द ऐसे होते हैं जिनमें स्वर, मात्रा अथवा व्यंजन में थोड़ा-सा अन्तर होता है। वे बोलचाल में लगभग एक जैसे लगते हैं, परन्तु उनके अर्थ में भिन्नता होती है। ऐसे शब्द 'समश्रुत/श्रुतिसम भिन्नार्थक शब्द' कहलाते हैं।
उदाहरणजैसे- घन और धन दोनों के उच्चारण में कोई खास अन्तर महसूस नहीं होता परन्तु अर्थ में भिन्नता है। घन-बादल, धन-सम्पत्ति

Question 87

निम्नलिखित में से "रूदन" का विलोम शब्द कौन-सा है?

  1. AOption (a)

    कला

  2. BOption (b)

    हास्य

  3. COption (c)

    संध्या

  4. DOption (d)

    विश्वास

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

हास्य

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है - हास्य।  

Key Points

  • रूदन का अर्थ है - रोना या विलाप करना।
  • हास्य का अर्थ है - हंसने योग्य या हंसी-मज़ाक।
  • अतः दोनों एक दूसरे के विपरीतार्थक शब्द हैं।

Question 88

दिए गए वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द का चयन कीजिए-

विवाहित स्त्री से उत्पन्न पुत्र

  1. AOption (a)

    किंवदन्ति 

  2. BOption (b)

    उदन्त

  3. COption (c)

    औरस

  4. DOption (d)

    आमूलचूल

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

औरस

Why this answer is correct

दिए गए विकल्पों में से सही उत्तर**"औरस**" है। 

Key Points

  • विवाहित स्त्री से उत्पन्न पुत्र:औरस

अन्य विकल्प:​

वाक्यांशएक शब्द
"वह बात जो जनसाधारण में चलती आ रही है"किंवदन्ति
"जिसके दाँत न जन्मे हों"उदन्त
एड़ी से चोटी तक या जड़ से लेकर शिखा तकआमूलचूल

Additional Information 

वाक्यांशभाषा को सुंदर, आकर्षक और प्रभावशाली बनाने के लिए अनेक शब्दों के स्थान पर एक शब्द का प्रयोग किया जाता है तो वह वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द कहलाता है।

Question 89

नीचे दिए गए वाक्य में किस कारक की विभक्ति का प्रयोग किया गया है?

ओ लड़को! खेलना बन्द करो।

  1. AOption (a)

    करण कारक

  2. BOption (b)

    सम्बोधन कारक

  3. COption (c)

    अपादान कारक

  4. DOption (d)

    सम्प्रदान कारक

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

सम्बोधन कारक

Why this answer is correct

इसका सही उत्तर "सम्बोधन कारक" है।  

Key Points 

  • वाक्य "ओ लड़को! खेलना बन्द करो" में सम्बोधन कारक की विभक्ति का प्रयोग किया गया है।
  • सम्बोधन कारक का प्रयोग तब होता है जब हम किसी व्यक्ति, स्थान या वस्तु का सम्बोधन करते हैं।
  • जैसे कि इस वाक्य में "ओ लड़को!" के माध्यम से लड़कों को संबोधित किया गया है।

Additional Information 

कारककारक का अर्थ होता है किसी कार्य को करने वाला। यानी जो भी क्रिया को करने में भूमिका निभाता है, वह कारक कहलाता है।इसे परसर्ग भी कहते हैं, इसके निम्न भेद हैं -वह रोज़ सुबह गंगा किनारे जाता है।
भेदपरिभाषाविभक्ति
कर्ता कारकजो वाक्य में कार्य को करता है, वह कर्ता कहलाता है। कर्ता वाक्य का वह रूप होता अहि जिसमे कार्य को करने वाले का पता चलता है।ने
कर्म कारकवह वस्तु या व्यक्ति जिस पर वाक्य में की गयी क्रिया का प्रभाव पड़ता है वह कर्म कहलाता है।को
करण कारकवह साधन जिससे क्रिया होती है, वह करण कहलाता है। यानि, जिसकी सहायता से किसी काम को अंजाम दिया जाता वह करण कारक कहलाता है।से, के द्वारा
सम्प्रदान कारकजब वाक्य में किसी को कुछ दिया जाए या किसी के लिए कुछ किया जाए तो वहां पर सम्प्रदान कारक होता है।के लिए
अपादान कारकजब संज्ञा या सर्वनाम के किसी रूप से किन्हीं दो वस्तुओं के अलग होने का बोध होता है, तब वहां अपादान कारक होता है।से (अलग होना)
संबंध कारकसंज्ञा या सर्वनाम का वह रूप जो हमें किन्हीं दो वस्तुओं के बीच संबंध का बोध कराता है, वह संबंध कारक कहलाता है।का, के, की
अधिकरण कारकसंज्ञा का वह रूप जिससे क्रिया के आधार का बोध हो उसे अधिकरण कारक कहते हैं।में, पर
संबोधन कारकसंज्ञा या सर्वनाम का वह रूप जिससे किसी को बुलाने, पुकारने या बोलने का बोध होता है, तो वह सम्बोधन कारक कहलाता है।हे!, अरे!

Question 90

निम्नलिखित में से स्त्रीलिंग शब्द का चयन कीजिए-

  1. AOption (a)

    विद्वान

  2. BOption (b)

    आम

  3. COption (c)

    गौरव

  4. DOption (d)

    सुन्दरता

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

सुन्दरता

Why this answer is correct

"सुन्दरता" स्‍त्रीलिंग शब्‍द है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

  • सुन्दरता स्‍त्रीलिंग शब्‍द है।
  • सुन्दरता का अर्थ- किसी व्यक्ति या वस्तु का गुण या गुणों का समूह जो इंद्रियों या मन को आनंद देता है।
  • विद्वान और आम शब्‍द पुल्लिंग है।

Additional Information कुछ अन्‍य पुल्लिंग और स्‍त्रीलिंग शब्‍द- 

पुल्लिंगस्‍त्रीलिंग
विद्वानविदुषी
कपूरयमुना
पन्‍नारोहिणी
पुष्‍पघाटी
समुद्रपृथ्‍वी
घीचाय
पॉंवजीभ
जौमूँग
अशोकनारंगी
दहीसब्‍जी

Important Points 

लिंग- शब्‍द के जिस रूप से यह जाना जाय कि वह पुरूष जाति के लिए आया है या स्‍त्री जाति के लिए, उसे व्‍याकरण में लिंग कहते हैं। जैसे- माता, पिता, शेर, शेरनी आदि।

हिंदी में दो प्रकार के लिंग है। 

लिंगपरिभाषाउदाहरण
पुल्लिंगऐसे शब्‍द जिनसे पुरूष जाति का बोध होता है, उसे पुल्लिंंग कहते हैं।लड़का, बूढ़ा, शेर, युवक, गधा आदि।
स्‍त्रीलिंगऐसे शब्‍द जिनसे स्‍त्री जाति का बोध हो, उसे स्‍त्रीलिंग कहते हैं।लड़की, शेरनी, युवती, बुढ़‍िया आदि।

Question 91

निम्नलिखित में से सरल वाक्य का चयन कीजिए-

  1. AOption (a)

    आप बताएँ कि आपकी समस्या क्या है?

  2. BOption (b)

    राजकुमार ने भाई को मार डाला और स्वयं राजा बन गया।

  3. COption (c)

    उसने गलत कार्य करके अपयश कमाया।

  4. DOption (d)

    जो व्यक्ति बुद्धिमान है वह किसी से झगड़ा नहीं करता है।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

उसने गलत कार्य करके अपयश कमाया।

Why this answer is correct

इसका सही उत्तर "**उसने गलत कार्य करके अपयश कमाया"**है।

Key Points 

  • सरल वाक्य है - उसने गलत कार्य करके अपयश कमाया।

सरल वाक्य:-

  • ऐसा वाक्य जिसमे एक ही क्रिया एवं एक ही कर्ता होता है या जिस वाक्य में एक ही उद्देश्य एवं एक ही विधेय होता है, वे वाक्य सरल वाक्य कहलाते हैं।

उदाहरण-

  • मीना नाचती है।
  • अमित खाना खाता है।

अन्य विकल्प :

  • आप बताएँ किआपकी समस्या क्या है? (मिश्र वाक्य)
  • राजकुमार ने भाई को मार डाला और स्वयं राजा बन गया। (सयुंक्त वाक्य)
  • जो व्यक्ति बुद्धिमान है वह किसी से झगड़ा नहीं करता है। (मिश्र वाक्य)

Additional Information

सयुंक्त वाक्य:- - ऐसा वाक्य जिसमे दो या दो से अधिक उपवाक्य हो एवं सभी उपवाक्य प्रधान हों, ऐसे वाक्य को सयुंक्त वाक्य कहते हैं। - पहचान के लिए- और, एवं, तथा, या, अथवा, इसलिए, अतः, फिर भी, तो, नहीं तो, किन्तु, परन्तु, लेकिन, पर आदि का प्रयोग करके जोड़ा जाता है। उदाहरण- - प्रिय बोलो पर असत्य नहीं। - मैं आया और वह गया। - मैंने बहुत परिश्रम किया फिर भी सफल नहीं हो सका। मिश्र वाक्य:- - ऐसे वाक्य जिनमें सरल वाक्य के साथ-साथ कोई दूसरा उपवाक्य भी हो, वे वाक्य मिश्र वाक्य कहलाते हैं। - पहचान के लिए- कि’; ‘जो’; ‘क्योंकि’; ‘जितना’; ‘उतना’; ‘जैसा’; ‘वैसा’; ‘जब’; ‘तब’; ‘जहाँ’; ‘वहाँ’; ‘जिधर’; ‘उधर’; ‘अगर/यदि’; ‘तो’; ‘यद्यपि’; ‘तथापि’; आदि का प्रयोग किया जाता है। उदाहरण- - यदि परिश्रम करोगे तो उत्तीर्ण हो जाओगे। - मैं जानता हूँ कि तुम्हारे अक्षर अच्छे नहीं बनते। - यह वही भारत देश है जिसे पहले सोने की चिड़िया कहा जाता था।

Question 92

निम्नलिखित विकल्पों में से कौ-सा वाक्य भाववाच्य का सही उदाहरण है?

  1. AOption (a)

    माँ से बैठा नहीं जाता।

  2. BOption (b)

    संगीता देख नहीं सकती।

  3. COption (c)

    रेखा कहानी सुनाती है।

  4. DOption (d)

    वे यह दृश्य देख नहीं सकते।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

माँ से बैठा नहीं जाता।

Why this answer is correct

इसका सही उत्तर " माँ से बैठा नहीं जाता" हैं। अन्य विकल्प असंगत हैं।

Key Points

  • माँ से बैठा नहीं जाता।यह वाक्य भाववाच्य का उदाहरण है।
  • अन्य सभी विकल्प कर्मवाच्य के उदाहरण हैं।

Additional Information 

वाच्य- क्रिया के जिस रूपांतर से यह जाना जाता है कि क्रिया का विधान कर्ता, कर्म या भाव में से किससे या किसके विषय में किया गया है, वाच्य कहलाता है। हिंदी में वाच्य तीन प्रकार के होते हैं-
कर्तृवाच्यइस वाच्य में कर्ता के लिंग, वचन और पुरुष के अनुसार क्रिया का प्रयोग होता है।रमेश केला खाता है। लड़का पुस्तक पढ़ता है।
कर्मवाच्यइस वाच्य में कर्म के लिंग, वचन और क्रिया के अनुसार प्रयोग हुआ है।रोगी को दवा दी गई। उसके द्वारा पुस्तक पढ़ी गई।
भाववाच्यक्रिया के जिस रूप में न तो कर्ता की प्रधानता हो न कर्म की बल्कि क्रिया का भाव ही प्रधान हो, वहाँ भाववाच्य होता है।राम से रेत में दौड़ा भी नहीं जाता। मुझसे उठा नहीं जाता।

Question 93

निम्नलिखित में से मुहावरा "दाल जूतियों में बँटना" का क्या अर्थ है?

  1. AOption (a)

    जल्दी मरने वाला।

  2. BOption (b)

    प्रयास करते रहना।

  3. COption (c)

    अनबन होना।

  4. DOption (d)

    धन संग्रह की चिंता में पड़ना।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

अनबन होना।

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर ‘अनबन होना​’ होगा। अन्य विकल्प इसके गलत उत्तर हैं।

Key Points 

  • मुहावरा- जूतियों से दाल बांटना
  • अर्थ– अनबन होना।
  • वाक्य प्रयोग– पड़ोसी से पहले खूब गई-गलौज हुआ फिर जूतियों से दाल बंटनी शुरू हुई।

Additional Informationअन्य:

अर्थमुहावरा
औकात से बाहर होनासींग-पूंछ निकालना
लज्जित कर देनासिर नीचा कर देना
निमंत्रण देनासुपारी बांटना

 

Important Points

  • मुहावरा का शाब्दिक अर्थ ‘अभ्यास’ है।
  • मुहावरा शब्द अरबी भाषा का शब्द है।
  • हिन्दी में ऐसे वाक्यांशों को मुहावरा कहा जाता है, जो अपने साधारण अर्थ को छोडकर विशेष अर्थ को व्यक्त करते हैं।

Question 94

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा लोकोक्ति का प्रचलित/सही रूप है?

  1. AOption (a)

    जाके पैर न फटे बिवाई वह क्या जाने नीर पसाई।

  2. BOption (b)

    जोके पैर न फुटे बिवाई वो क्या जाने पीर नहाई।

  3. COption (c)

    जाके पैर न सटे बिवाई वह क्या जाने चीर पराई।

  4. DOption (d)

    जाके पैर न फटे बिवाई वह क्या जाने पीर पराई।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

जाके पैर न फटे बिवाई वह क्या जाने पीर पराई।

Why this answer is correct

"जाके पैर न फटे बिवाई वह क्या जाने पीर पराई" लोकोक्ति का प्रचलित/सही रूप है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points 

लोकोक्तिअर्थवाक्‍य प्रयोग
जाके पैर न फटे बिवाई वह क्या जाने पीर पराई।जिस मनुष्य पर कभी दुःख न पड़ा हो, वह दूसरों का दुःख क्या समझे।दादी ने मुझसे कहा – बेटा, तुम पुरुष हो। नारी के दुःख को तुम कभी समझ ही न सकोगे। 'जाके पांव न फटी बिवाई, वो क्या जाने पीर पराई'।

Additional Information कुछ महत्‍वपूर्ण लोकोक्ति- 

लोकोक्तिअर्थवाक्य प्रयोग
आठ कनौजिये नौ चूल्हे।अलगाव की स्थिति।पूँजीवादी व्यवस्था में समाज इतना स्वार्थी हो गया है कि आठ कनौजिये नौ चूल्हे वाली स्थिति दिखाई देती है।
उद्योगिन्न पुरुषसिंहनुपैति लक्ष्मी।उद्योगी को ही धन मिलता है।सच कहा है किसी ने उद्योगिन्न पुरुषसिंहनुपैति लक्ष्मी अर्थात कर्मयोगी को ही सफलता मिलती है।
ऊधो का लेना न माधो का देना।केवल अपने काम से काम रखना।प्रोफेसर साहब तो बस अध्ययन और अध्यापन में लगे रहते हैं। गुटबन्दी से उन्हें कोई लेना-देना नहीं- ऊधो का लेना न माधो का देना।
एकै साधे सब सधे, सब साधे सब जाय।किसी कार्य को संपन्न कराने के लिए किसी एक समर्थ व्यक्ति का सहारा लेना अच्छा है बजाए अनेक लोगों के पीछे भागने के।अगर प्रमोशन चाहिए तो मंत्रीजी को पकड़ लो, इन अधिकारियों के पीछे भागने से कोई लाभ नहीं। किसी ने ठीक कहा है एकै साधे सब सधे, सब साधे सब जाय'।

Important Points 

परिभाषाउदाहरण
लोकोक्ति'लोकोक्ति' शब्द 'लोक + उक्ति' शब्दों से मिलकर बना है जिसका अर्थ है- लोक में प्रचलित उक्ति या कथन'। संस्कृत में 'लोकोक्ति' अलंकार का एक भेद भी है तथा सामान्य अर्थ में लोकोक्ति को 'कहावत' कहा जाता है।अंधा सिपाही कानी घोड़ी, विधि ने खूब मिलाई जोड़ी: जहां दो व्यक्ति हों और दोनों ही एक समान मूर्ख, दुष्ट या अवगुणी हों वहां ऐसा कहते हैं।

Question 95

निम्नलिखित में से किस वाक्य में योजक चिन्ह का प्रयोग नहीं किया गया है?

  1. AOption (a)

    हम सभी को माता-पिता की सेवा अवश्य करनी चाहिए।

  2. BOption (b)

    "रघुकुल रीति सदा चली आई। प्राण जाय पर वचन न जाई॥"

  3. COption (c)

    आकाश में काले - काले बादल छा गए; बिजली चमकने लगी; बादल गरजने लगे और वर्षा की बूंदे टप - टप धरती पर गिरने लगीं।

  4. DOption (d)

    कम-से-कम, ज्यादा-से-ज्यादा।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

"रघुकुल रीति सदा चली आई। प्राण जाय पर वचन न जाई॥"

Why this answer is correct

दिए गए विकल्पों में से  **"रघुकुल रीति सदा चली आई। प्राण जाय पर वचन न जाई॥"**वाक्य में योजक चिन्ह का प्रयोग नहीं किया गया है।

Key Points

  • सही वाक्य - "रघुकुल रीति सदा चली आई। प्राण जाय पर वचन न जाई॥"
  • योजक चिन्ह का चिन्ह (-) होता है।
  • हिंदी में अल्प विराम चिन्ह के बाद योजक चिह्न का प्रयोग सबसे अधिक किया जाता है।
  • योजक का अर्थ मिलाने वाला या जोड़ने वाला होता है।
  • अतः दो शब्दों के मध्य अर्थ में स्पष्टता लाने के लिए योजक चिन्ह का प्रयोग किया जाता है।
  • इस वाक्य में योजक चिन्ह की आवश्यकता नहीं है।

Additional Information 

  • हिंदी व्याकरण में विराम चिन्हों से तात्पर्य है- ठहराव, रुकना, गति में मंदता अथवा विश्राम।

 वाक्यों को लिखते समय उनके ठहराव को दर्शाने के लिए हम कुछ विशेष चिन्हों का प्रयोग करते है, जिन्हें विराम चिन्हों के नाम से जाना जाता है।

  • यदि विराम चिन्ह का प्रयोग सही स्थान पर ना किया जाये तो वाक्य अर्थहीन हो जाते है, 

उनके भाव में विपरीत अर्थ प्रयुक्त हो जाते है, वे अर्थहीन तथा अस्पष्ट प्रतीत होने लग जाते है।

  • विराम चिन्हों के प्रकार
  • अल्प विराम – (,)
  • अर्द्ध विराम – (;)
  • पूर्ण विराम – ( ),(.)
  • उप विराम – (:)
  • विस्मयादिबोधक चिन्ह – (!)
  • प्रश्न वाचक चिन्ह – (?)
  • कोष्ठक – ( )
  • योजक चिन्ह – (-)
  • अवतरण चिन्ह या उद्धरण चिन्ह – (” ”)
  • लाघव चिन्ह – (०)
  • आदेश चिन्ह – (:-)
  • रेखांकन चिन्ह – (_)
  • लोप चिन्ह – (………..)
  • पुनरुक्ति सूचक चिन्ह – (,,)
  • विस्मरण चिन्ह – ( )
  • दीर्घ उच्चारण चिन्ह – (s)
  • तुल्यता सूचक चिन्ह – (=)
  • निर्देशक चिन्ह – (-)

निम्नलिखित गद्यांश का ध्यानपूर्वक अध्ययन कर प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए-

सच्चे वीर अपने प्रेम के जोर से लोगों को सदा के लिए बांध देते हैं। वीरता की अभिव्यक्ति कई प्रकार से होती है, कभी लड़ने-मरने से, खून बहाने से, तो तोप तलवार के सामने बलिदान करने से होती है, तो कभी जीवन के गूढ़ तत्व और सत्य की तलाश में बुद्ध जेसे राजा विरक्त होकर वीर हो जाते हैं। वीरता एक प्रकार की अंत: प्रेरणा है जब कभी उसका विकास हुआ तभी एक रोनक, एक रंग, एक बहार संसार में छा गई। वीरता हमेशा निराली और नई होती है। वीरों को बनाने के कारखाने नहीं होते। वे तो देवदार के वृक्ष की भांति जीवन रूपी वन में स्वयं पैदा होते हैं और बिना किसी के पानी दिए, बिना किसी के दूध पिलाए बढ़ते हैं। “जीवन के केंद्र में निवास करो और सत्य की चट्टान पर दृढ़ता से खड़े हो जाओ। बाहर की सतह छोड़कर जीवन के अंदर की तहों में पहुंचे तब नए रंग खिलेंगे।" यही वीरता का संदेश है।

Question 96

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

उपर्युक्त गद्यांश में वीरों की तुलना किस वृक्ष के भांति की गई है?

  1. AOption (a)

    पतझड़ के वृक्ष।

  2. BOption (b)

    नीम के वृक्ष

  3. COption (c)

    देवदार के वृक्ष

  4. DOption (d)

    पीपल के वृक्ष

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

देवदार के वृक्ष

Why this answer is correct

इसका सही उत्तर **"देवदार के वृक्ष"**है। 

Key Points गद्यांश के अनुसार ,

  • "वीरों को बनाने के कारखाने नहीं होते।
  • वे तो देवदार के वृक्ष की भांति जीवन रूपी वन में स्वयं पैदा होते हैं और बिना किसी के पानी दिए, बिना किसी के दूध पिलाए बढ़ते हैं"।

Additional Information अन्य विकल्प:

पतझड़ के वृक्ष:

  • यह ऐसे वृक्ष होते हैं जो मौसम बदलने पर अपने पत्ते गिरा देते हैं। गद्यांश में इनका कोई उल्लेख नहीं है।

नीम के वृक्ष:

  • नीम के वृक्ष का उपयोग भारतीय समाज में औषधीय गुणों के लिए किया जाता है, परन्तु गद्यांश में वीरों की तुलना इस वृक्ष से नहीं की गई है।

पीपल के वृक्ष:

  • पीपल धार्मिक और आध्यात्मिक महत्व रखता है, लेकिन वीरों की प्रतीकात्मकता के लिए इसका उपयोग उपर्युक्त गद्यांश में नहीं किया गया है।

Question 97

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

उपर्युक्त गद्यांश के अनुसार, वीरता एक प्रकार की अंत: प्रेरणा है जब कभी उसका विकास हुआ तभी संसार में छा गई। 

  1. AOption (a)

    एक रोनक

  2. BOption (b)

    एक रंग

  3. COption (c)

    एक बहार

  4. DOption (d)

    एक रोनक, एक रंग, एक बहार

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

एक रोनक, एक रंग, एक बहार

Why this answer is correct

इसका सही उत्तर "एक रोनक, एक रंग, एक बहार" है। 

Key Points 

गद्यांश के अनुसार,

  • वीरता के विकास से संसार में एक अनूठी उल्लास, सौंदर्य और समृद्धि की भावना आती है,
  • जिसका संकेत एक रोनक, एक रंग, एक बहार के शब्दों से होता है।

Additional Information व्यापक प्रभाव:

  • वीरता का प्रस्फुटन सिर्फ एक प्रकार के भाव या उल्लास तक सीमित नहीं होता,
  • बल्कि यह संसार में व्यापक रूप से खुशहाली, सौंदर्य और नई जीवंतता लेकर आता है,
  • जिसे "एक रोनक, एक रंग, एक बहार" के शब्दों द्वारा अभिव्यक्ति दी गई है।

Question 98

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

उपर्युक्त गद्यांश के अनुसार, वीरता की अभिव्यक्ति निम्न में से किस प्रकार से होती है?

  1. AOption (a)

    लड़ने-मरने से

  2. BOption (b)

    खून बहाने से

  3. COption (c)

    तोप तलवार के सामने बलिदान करने से

  4. DOption (d)

    कभी लड़ने-मरने से, खून बहाने से, तो तोप तलवार के सामने बलिदान करने से होती है।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

कभी लड़ने-मरने से, खून बहाने से, तो तोप तलवार के सामने बलिदान करने से होती है।

Why this answer is correct

इसका सही उत्तर "कभी लड़ने-मरने से, खून बहाने से, तो तोप तलवार के सामने बलिदान करने से होती है" होगा।

Key Points गद्यांश के अनुसार ,

  • वीरता की अभिव्यक्ति के प्रकार के विषय में, यह स्पष्ट है कि वीरता का आविर्भाव विभिन्न परिस्थितियों और क्रियाओं के माध्यम से होता है।

बहुआयामी अभिव्यक्ति:

  • वीरता केवल एक ही प्रकार की क्रिया या परिस्थिति में सीमित नहीं होती;
  • इसकी अभिव्यक्ति लड़ने-मरने, खून बहाने, और तोप तलवार के सामने बलिदान देने जैसी विभिन्न क्रियाओं के माध्यम से होती है।

गहन समझ और विकास:

  • वीरता की इन अभिव्यक्तियों का आधार भौतिक कार्यों में होता है
  • लेकिन इसके पीछे गहरे आत्म-त्याग, समर्पण और आदर्शों के प्रति जीवन की गहन समझ और विकास झलकता है।
  • इस प्रकार, वीरता की ये अभिव्यक्तियाँ सिर्फ बाहरी कार्रव��इयों तक सीमित नहीं हैं;
  • ये एक गहन आंतरिक प्रक्रिया और विकास का परिणाम होती हैं,जो समाज में गहरे प्रभाव छोड़ती हैं।

Question 99

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

उपर्युक्त गद्यांश के अनुसार, निम्न में से कौन-सा कथन सत्य नहीं है?

  1. AOption (a)

    वीरता हमेशा निराली और नई होती है।

  2. BOption (b)

    वीर जीवन रूपी वन में स्वयं पैदा होते हैं और बिना किसी के पानी दिए, बिना किसी के दूध पिलाए बढ़ते हैं।

  3. COption (c)

    वीरों को बनाने के कारखाने होते है।

  4. DOption (d)

    सच्चे वीर अपने प्रेम के जोर से लोगों को सदा के लिए बांध देते हैं।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

वीरों को बनाने के कारखाने होते है।

Why this answer is correct

इसका सही उत्तर "**वीरों को बनाने के कारखाने होते है"**होगा।

Key Points 

गद्यांश के अनुसार,

सत्य नहीं है विकल्प:वीरों को बनाने के कारखाने होते हैं।

  • गद्यांश में स्पष्ट रूप से कहा गया है कि "वीरों को बनाने के कारखाने नहीं होते।"
  • इससे सिद्ध होता है कि वीर स्वाभाविक रूप से उनके गुणों और कर्मों के आधार पर विकसित और पहचाने जाते हैं,
  • किसी मानवनिर्मित प्रक्रिया या संस्था के द्वारा नहीं।

Additional Information अन्य विकल्प:

  • वीरता हमेशा निराली और नई होती है। गद्यांश में कहा गया है कि वीरता हमेशा निराली और नई होती है, जो व्यक्ति की अंतरात्मा से आती है।
  • वीर जीवन रूपी वन में स्वयं पैदा होते हैं और बिना किसी के पानी दिए, बिना किसी के दूध पिलाए बढ़ते हैं। यह बताता है कि वीरता स्वाभाविक रूप से आती है, कृत्रिम रूप से नहीं।
  • सच्चे वीर अपने प्रेम के जोर से लोगों को सदा के लिए बांध देते हैं। गद्यांश की पहली पंक्ति में इस विचार को व्यक्त किया गया है, यह दर्शाता है कि वीरता केवल युद्ध क्षेत्र में ही नहीं, बल्कि अपने अटूट प्रेम और संबंधों के माध्यम से भी प्रकट होती है।

Question 100

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

उपर्युक्त गद्यांश का सर्वाधिक उचित शीर्षक निम्न में से कौन-सा है?

  1. AOption (a)

    देवदार के वृक्ष एवं वीर।

  2. BOption (b)

    वीरता का संस्मरण

  3. COption (c)

    वीरों का देश-प्रेम।

  4. DOption (d)

    सच्ची वीरता।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

सच्ची वीरता।

Why this answer is correct

इसका सही उत्तर "सच्ची वीरता" होगा।

Key Points गद्यांश के अनुसार ,

वीरता के व्यापक आयाम:

  • गद्यांश में वीरता के उन व्यापक आयामों को दर्शाया गया है जो केवल युद्ध क्षेत्र तक सीमित नहीं हैं।
  • वीरता की अभिव्यक्ति खून बहाने, लड़ाई, और तोप-तलवार के सामने बलिदान जैसे कार्यों में नहीं,
  • बल्कि सत्य, आत्म-सम्मान, और आदर्शों के प्रति दृढ़ता में भी होती है।

सच्चाई और गहराई की सार्थकता:

  • "सच्ची वीरता" के अभिधान में उस गहराई और सार्थकता को समेटा गया है जिसे गद्यांश उजागर करता है।
  • यह सिर्फ बाहरी वीरता की पहचान नहीं, बल्कि आत्मिक और नैतिक वीरता की महत्ता को भी दर्शाता है।

Additional Information अन्य विकल्प:

देवदार के वृक्ष एवं वीर :

  • यह शीर्षक विषय वस्तु को सीधे तौर पर संदर्भित नहीं करता है, क्योंकि गद्यांश वीरता के बारे में है, न कि प्राकृतिक तत्वों के बारे में।

वीरता का संस्मरण :

  • यह शीर्षक यद्यपि वीरता से जुड़ा हुआ है, लेकिन इसमें गद्यांश की व्यापकता और सच्चाई को पूर्ण रूप से दर्शाने की गहराई की कमी है।

वीरों का देश-प्रेम :

  • हालांकि वीरता और देशप्रेम अक्सर एक-दूसरे से जुड़े होते हैं, गद्यांश का प्रमुख फोकस देशप्रेम पर नहीं बल्कि वीरता के सार्वभौमिक सिद्धांतों पर है।

Discipline 1 (20 questions)

Question 101

A rifle having a mass of 8 kg fires a bullet at a speed of 300 ms-1. If the rifle recoil with a velocity of 1.5 ms-1 then find the mass of the bullet.

  1. AOption (a)

    35 g

  2. BOption (b)

    25 g

  3. COption (c)

    30 g

  4. DOption (d)

    40 g

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

40 g

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Law of Conservation of Linear Momentum: If no external force acts on a system (called isolated) of constant mass, the total momentum of the system remains constant with time.

According to the law of conservation of momentum:

m1u1 + m2u2 = m1v1 + m2v2 

Where m1,m2 = Masses of two bodies, u1, u2 = Initial velocities of the bodies, v1, v2 = Final velocities of the bodies

Calculation:

Given:

m1 = 8 kg, m2 = ?, u1 = 1.5 ms-1, u2 =  300 ms-1 

Total momentum should be conserved,

∴ m1u1 = m2u2 

8 × 1.5 = m2 × 300

u2 = 0.04 kg

u2 = 40 g

Question 102

Which of the following represents the critical angle of a medium(θc), for light going from the medium to the air? (Given μ2 = 1 and μ1 = μ)

  1. AOption (a)

    θc = sin (1/μ)

  2. BOption (b)

    θc = cos-1 (1/μ)

  3. COption (c)

    θc = sin-1 μ

  4. DOption (d)

    θc = sin-1 (1/μ)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

θc = sin-1 (1/μ)

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Critical angle:

  • When the light rays pass from denser to rarer medium and due to a certain angle of incidence, the angle of refraction becomes 90o.This angle of incidence is called the Critical angle.

Calculation:

Given, 

The critical angle of the medium is θc

μ2 = 1 and μ1 = μ

We know that, 

According to Snell's law,

Sin θc \ Sin 90o = μ2\μ1

Sin θc  = μ2\μ1

θc  = Sin -1(μ2\μ1)

θc  = Sin -1(1\ μ )

Thus, the correct answer is *θc  = Sin -1(1* μ ).

Question 103

An optical fibre is a very thin fibre made of  ______

  1. Glass
  2. Copper
  3. Plastic
  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 only

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

Concept: 

Optical Fiber:

  • In an optical fiber, the information is passed through light, which must not escape outside of it.
  • This phenomenon of confining the light inside the optical fiber is termed Total internal reflection.
  • For this, the construction and material are used to ensure that the total internal reflection of light takes place to prevent its escape of it.
  • In any type of optical fiber, the refractive index of the core is always greater than the refractive index of the cladding.
  • It is this property of core and cladding which makes light propagate inside the fiber.
  • Thus, In a step-index, the optical fibre refractive index of the core is higher than the cladding.
  • Glass and plastic are used to make it.

Principle:

  • When light travels from a high refractive index medium to a low-refractive-index medium, it is refracted away from the normal as shown:

          

  • At a certain angle θi, there is no refracted wave and the wave is totally internally reflected  (θr = 90°).
  • This angle is called a critical angle.
  • Inside an optical fiber, we have a high refractive index core (n1) and low refractive index cladding (n2).
  • This results in the propagation of waves inside a fiber through total internal reflection phenomenon.

Question 104

Who of the following devised barometer?

  1. AOption (a)

    Archimedes

  2. BOption (b)

    Bernouli

  3. COption (c)

    Torricelli

  4. DOption (d)

    Pascal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Torricelli

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

A Barometer is an instrument that measures atmospheric pressure. It is invented by Torricelli.

The function of a Barometer:

  • A barometer is a scientific instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure, also called barometric pressure.
  • The atmosphere is the layers of air wrapped around the Earth.
  • That air has a weight and presses against everything it touches as gravity pulls it to Earth.
  • Barometers measure this pressure.
  • A barometer measures atmospheric pressure in units of measurement called atmospheres or bars.
  • An atmosphere (atm) is a unit of measurement equal to the average air pressure at sea level at a temperature of 15 degrees Celsius (59 degrees Fahrenheit).

Confusion Points

  • Air temperature is measured with thermometers
  • A spirometer is an apparatus for measuring the volume of air inspired and expired by the lungs.

Question 105

Which of the following law/principle has/have been applied to form the principle of hydraulic lift used to raise heavy loads?

  1. AOption (a)

    Both pascal's law and Archimedes principle

  2. BOption (b)

    Pascal's law

  3. COption (c)

    Newton's third law of motion

  4. DOption (d)

    Archimedes principle

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Pascal's law

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Pascal’s Law: it is the principle of transmission of fluid-pressure. It says that "a pressure exerted anywhere in a point of the confined fluid is transmitted equally in all directions throughout the fluid”.

i.e., the pressure exerted by the fluid on an object at a certain height will be the same in all direction and hence it can be expressed as

Pa=Pb=pc⇒FaAa=FbAb=FcAc{P_a} = {P_b} = {p_c} \Rightarrow \frac{{{F_a}}}{{{A_a}}} = \frac{{{F_b}}}{{{A_b}}} = \frac{{{F_c}}}{{{A_c}}}

  • The force against area within a fluid at rest will always experience pressure perpendicular to their surface area, and the object will experience equal pressure throughout the surface.
  • There are a number of devices, such as hydraulic lift and hydraulic brakes, are based on Pascal’s law.
  • These devices used fluids for transmitting pressure.

Hydraulic lift: In a hydraulic lift, as shown in the figure below, two pistons are separated by the space filled with a liquid

Now as Pascal suggested both that the platform will have some pressure although the platform has a different surface area hence the force exerted on surface 2 will be much greater than on force one

i.e.,;P1=P2⇒F1A1=F2A2i.e.,;{P_1} = {P_2} \Rightarrow \frac{{{F_1}}}{{{A_1}}} = \frac{{{F_2}}}{{{A_2}}}

 

Additional Information

Archimedes principle: It is used to explain law of flotation or upward thrust experienced when immersed in a fluid

  • the principle of Archimedes states “When a body is immersed in a liquid, an upward thrust, equal to the weight of the liquid displaced, acts on it.”

i.e., weight of an object = Upward thrust

Here,

F1, F2 = force exerted on area A1 and A2 respectively

P1, P2 = Pressure exerted on area A1 and A2 respectively

Question 106

The curvature of the lens of an eye is altered by __________

  1. AOption (a)

    vitreous humour

  2. BOption (b)

    Ciliary muscle

  3. COption (c)

    Retina

  4. DOption (d)

    Cornea

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Ciliary muscle

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

  • The lens, in the human eye, is a translucent structure that focuses light entering the eye on the retina.
  • It is located behind the iris of the eye.
  • The lens is made up of rare elongated cells that receive nutrients from the surrounding fluids, mostly the aqueous humor that bathes the lens's front.
  • A single layer of epithelial cells and a membrane that surrounds the whole organ make up the lens's outer edge.
  • The lens is biconvex and ellipsoid in form.
  • An ellipsoid is a sphere that has been extended out like an olive,
  • It is biconvex, meaning it has been rounded outward on both sides.
  • It is biconvex so that, the light rays entering the eye are fine-tuned and converged at a single point on the retina and a clear image is formed.
  • The lens concentrates the light rays that move through it (and onto the retina) to produce transparent images of objects at different distances.
  • Ciliary muscles regulate the curvature of the lens, which is flexible.

Power of accommodation - 

  • Accommodation is the tendency of the eye lens to change its focal length.
  • The lens shrinks and thins as the muscles relax; as a result, its focal length increases in this position, allowing us to see distant objects clearly.
  • When you look at an object that is closer to your eye, the ciliary muscles contract, causing the curvature of the eye lens to increase. The focal length of the eye lens shortens in this situation, allowing us to see surrounding objects clearly.
  • The near point of the human eye is 25 cm and The farthest point has no limit; the human eye can see things that are infinite in sizes, such as the moon and stars.

Additional Information

Some of the defects of the human eye are - 

MYOPIA- Nearsightedness - Image is formed before the retina. - Corrected by using a concave lens in spectacles. - Faraway objects appear blurry. - the far point is nearer than infinity.
HYPERMETROPIA- Farsightedness. - Image is formed after retina. - Corrected by using convex en in spectacles. - Near objects appear blurry. - near point is farther from 25 cm
PRESBYOPIA- Gradual weakening of ciliary muscles and flexibility in the eye lens is seen. - Bifocal lenses are used(both convex and concave lenses are used).
ASTIGMATISM- Astigmatism is a refractive defect in which light is not focused uniformly on the retina by the eye. At any distance, this causes blurry or blurred vision. - Imperfection in the eye's curvature is seen.

Question 107

Which of the following is/are the law/s of reflection in case of a light ray reflected by a smooth surface?

  1. The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection
  2. The incident ray and the reflected ray are not co-planar
  3. The incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal to the reflecting surface at the point of incidence are co-planar
  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 only

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Reflection: 

  • The phenomenon in which light ray is sent back into the same medium from which it is coming, on interaction with boundary, is called reflection.

Laws of reflection:

  • The angle of reflection equals the angle of incidence.

  • The incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal lie in the same plane i.e coplanar.

  • When light rays strikes on a smooth plane surface then the reflection is called regular reflection.

  • When light reflects at many angles after the incidence on the surface, such a reflection is called as diffuse reflection.

  • Light rays are not parallel to each other after irregular reflection, but they obeys laws of reflection at each point of reflection.

  • In case of room, due to diffused reflection, the light gets spread in whole room and the room gets light.

  • The laws of reflection are followed by both- regular reflection as well as diffused reflection.

  • The law of reflection is also valid for all curved and spherical surface

Question 108

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

  1. AOption (a)

    DC of same voltage as AC is more dangerous because in DC direction of flow of current doesn't change.

  2. BOption (b)

    Devices like electric motor that work on DC (Direct Current) are stronger than those that use AC.

  3. COption (c)

     Major portion of AC flows through the upper portion of a wire.

  4. DOption (d)

    AC (Alternating Current) is transmitted from electricity generation centers to houses and industries through high voltage transformer (step up transformers) at very high voltage.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Devices like electric motor that work on DC (Direct Current) are stronger than those that use AC.

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Current-

  • Electric Current is the rate of flow of electrons in a conductor.
  • It is the amount of charge flowing through a particular area in unit time.
  • A continuous and closed path of an electric current is called an electric circuit.
  • The direction of the current is taken opposite to the direction of the flow of electrons.
  • The electric current is expressed by a unit called ampere (A).
  • An instrument called ammeter measures electric current in a circuit.

Explanation:

Alternating Current (AC) 

  • is a current which reverses its magnitude and direction with time.
  • The current in our home main line is alternating current because it can be transported over long distances at high voltage and low current.

Direct current (DC)

  • is a current of constant magnitude flowing in one direction with time.
  • A battery and electronic devices like TV, Computers, etc provide DC.
  • A typical battery supplies around 1.5v of DC.
  • People who accidentally come in contact with AC are flung afar because AC has high voltage and experience an electric shock.
  • A motor is a device that converts electrical energy into mechanical energy.

​An electric motor works on DC but AC is stronger than DC.

DC of the same voltage as AC is more dangerous because in DC direction of flow of current doesn't change - Correct

Devices like an electric motor that works on DC (Direct Current) are stronger than those that use AC - Incorrect

A major portion of AC flows through the upper portion of a wire - Correct

AC is transmitted from electricity generation centres to houses and industries through high voltage transformers (step-up transformers) at very high voltage - Correct

Hence we can conclude that the incorrect statement is that devices like an electric motor that works on DC are stronger than those that use AC.

Question 109

Which of the following rules is used to determine the direction of force in the electric motor? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Fleming's Right-Hand Rule

  2. BOption (b)

    Palmer's Right-Hand Rule

  3. COption (c)

    Palmer's Left-Hand Rule

  4. DOption (d)

    Fleming's Left-Hand Rule

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Fleming's Left-Hand Rule

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • Fleming's Left-hand rule gives the force experienced by a charged particle moving in a magnetic field or a current-carrying wire placed in a magnetic field.
  • It states that "stretch the thumb, the forefinger, and the central finger of the left hand so that they are mutually perpendicular to each other.
  • If the forefinger points in the direction of the magnetic field, the central finger points in the direction of motion of charge, then the thumb points in the direction of force experienced by positively charged particles."

Explanation:

  • According to Flemings rule, if we must take our thumb, forefinger, and center finger in such a way that each one is perpendicular to others.
  • Then if the center finger points the direction of current and forefinger points towards the direction of force field then thumb can represent the direction of force.

Question 110

If we hang a bar-magnet with a string, it will always rest in the direction of -

  1. AOption (a)

    West-South

  2. BOption (b)

    North-South

  3. COption (c)

    East-West

  4. DOption (d)

    North-East

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

North-South

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • Magnets are materials that can produce a magnetic field around them.
  • A magnetic field line moves from the North Pole to the South Pole of Magnet.
  • The arrows indicate the magnetic lines of the direction of the force.
  • The lines are dense around the poles, representing the magnetic field's strength, which is greatest at the poles.
  • The lines are far apart in the middle of the Magnet, representing the weak magnetic field around the magnet's centre in comparison to the poles.

Explanation:

Bar magnet

  • A Bar Magnet, like other Magnets, has two poles, namely the North Pole and the South Pole.
  • A Bar Magnet will always have two poles, no matter how many times it is broken or how small or large it is.
  • The magnetic force of a bar magnet is stronger at the poles and weaker at the centre of the magnet.

Hence bar magnet rests in the North-South direction

Additional Information

  • A horseshoe magnet is a ​permanent magnet.
  • The shape of the magnet varies depending on its application, and the name of the magnet is given after its shape.
  • Because both poles of the horseshoe magnet point in the same direction it produces a strong magnetic field between the poles.
  • This is the reason for making a magnet in the shape of a horseshoe, as the poles are brought close enough together to create a strong magnetic field.

Question 111

Sun radiates about ________ joule of energy every second.

  1. AOption (a)

    3.92 × 1030

  2. BOption (b)

    3.92 × 1026

  3. COption (c)

    3.92 × 1028

  4. DOption (d)

    3.92 × 1032

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

3.92 × 1026

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • The equation that relates the mass and energy is given by Albert Einstein.
  • According to the equation, the mass can be converted into equivalent energy and vice-versa.
  • Einstein's equation,
  • E = mc2
  • Where, E= energy, m=mass, c= speed of light
  • The sun generates energy from a process called nuclear fusion,

Calculation:

We know that,

Mass of the sun  = 1.989 ×  1030Kg

Speed of light = 3 ×  108 m\s

E = mc2

E = 1.989 ×  1030 ×  ( 3 ×  108)2

E = 3.92× 1026joule

Thus, the sun radiates about 3.92× 1026jouleof energy every second.

Question 112

Which of the following statements is/are true?

  1. If a body does not change its position as time passes it is at rest.
  2. There is no meaning of rest or motion without the viewer.

Choose the correct code.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both 1 and 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither 1 nor 2

  3. COption (c)

    Only 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • Motion is a change of position.
  • The motion of an object could be uniform or non-uniform depending on whether its velocity is constant or changing.
  • Newton's first law states that an object continues to be in a state of rest or of uniform motion along a straight line unless acted upon by an unbalanced force.
  • The natural tendency of the object to resist a change in its state of rest or of uniform motion is called Inertia.
  • Therefore, Newton's 1st law is also the called Law of Inertia.

Explanation:

  • Rest refers to an object being stationary relative to a particular frame of reference or another object.
  • When the position of a body with respect to its surroundings does not change with the passage of time, it is said to be at rest.
  • Rest and motion are relative terms because they depend on the Viewer's frame of reference.
  • If an observer is at rest in his or her own frame of reference but he may be moving in another observer's frame of reference.

Thus, the correct answer is both 1 and 2.

Additional Information 

  • Second law of motion states that the rate of change of momentum of an object is proportional to the applied unbalanced force in the direction of the force.
  • Third law of motion states that to every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction and they act on two different bodies.

Question 113

A wave of wavelength 0.50 cm is produced in air and it travels at a speed of 250 ms-1. What will be the frequency of the sound?

  1. AOption (a)

    60000 Hz

  2. BOption (b)

    50000 Hz

  3. COption (c)

    70000 Hz

  4. DOption (d)

    40000 Hz

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

50000 Hz

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

  • Frequency (which is the number of wave repetitions per second, often given in Hertz, or Hz) and
  • The wave speed (which is the speed the wave travels in meters per sec),
  • Then we can find the wavelength using the equation

c = ν λ 

Where, ν = Frequency, λ = Wavelength, c = Speed.

​Calculation:

Given:

λ = 0.5 cm = 0.005 m, v = 250 ms-1  

U sing, c = ν λ  

ν=2500.005ν = \frac {250}{0.005}

ν = 50000 Hz

Question 114

The dimension of speed is-

  1. AOption (a)

    LT

  2. BOption (b)

    LT-1

  3. COption (c)

    LT-2

  4. DOption (d)

    LT-3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

LT-1

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • ​Fundamental quantity: A quantity that can be measured is called a physical quantity. Fundamental quantities are those which cannot be expressed or measured in terms of other physical quantities.
  • The seven fundamental quantities along with their dimensions are as follows:
Fundamental quantityDimension
TimeT
MassM
Electric currentA
Thermodynamic temperatureK
Amount of substancemol
Luminous intensitycd
LengthL

Explanation:

Speed is defined as the rate of change of distance i.e.,

⇒Speed(v)=Distance(d)time(t)\Rightarrow Speed (v) = \frac{Distance (d)}{time (t)}

As we know, the dimension formula of distance (d) = [L]

The dimension formula of time (t) = [T]

∴ The dimension formula of speed is 

⇒v=[L][T]=[M0LT−1]\Rightarrow v =\frac{[L]}{[T]}=[M^0LT^{-1}]

i.e. [LT-1]

Question 115

The waves with the frequency below the audible range are called -

  1. AOption (a)

    Hypersonic waves

  2. BOption (b)

    Infrasonic waves

  3. COption (c)

    Ultrasonic waves

  4. DOption (d)

    Supersonic waves

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Infrasonic waves

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Frequency**:** 

  • The number of waves that pass a fixed point in unit time. The unit of frequency is Hertz (Hz).
  • Infrasonic sounds have a frequency of less than 20 Hz and these are generally produced by sources of a bigger size such as earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, etc.
  • Sound waves with frequencies below the audible range are called infrasonic.
  • Audible sounds have the frequency of 20-20000 Hz since these are sensitive to the human ears.
  • And if the frequency is greater or less than audible frequency, the human ear won't be able to sense it
  • Ultrasonic sounds have a frequency greater than 20000 Hz and certain creatures such as dogs, cats, a bats can hear this kind of sound.

EXPLANATION:

  • Human ears are capable of here 20 Hz to 20000 Hz.
  • Bats are capable of here sound above 20 kHz (ultrasound).
  • Elephants are capable of here sound below 20 Hz (infrasound).

The most appropriate answer of all the given options is infrasonic.

Question 116

A current of 1.0 A was passed through the filament of a bulb for a time equal to one-fourth of an hour. Calculate the electric charge flowing through the circuit.

  1. AOption (a)

    720 C

  2. BOption (b)

    810 C

  3. COption (c)

    900 C

  4. DOption (d)

    960 C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

900 C

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • Electric charge: The amount of the charge transferred in one second.
  • It can mathematically be represented as Q = I×t

Calculation:

Charge = current × time

  • A charge is represented as Q in the column
  • Current is represented as I in the ampere
  • Time is represented in as t in the seconds

​Given:

  • Current = 1.0 A
  • time = 1 fourth of 60 minutes = 15 min
  • time in second = 15 × 60 sec
  • Current = 1 × 15 × 60 = 900 C

Hence the electric charge flows through the circuit is 900 C

Question 117

How much time will take a 4 kW immersion rod to raise the temperature of 1 litre of water from 30°C to 60°C

(Take Specific heat of water c = 4.18 x 103 J kg °C-1)

  1. AOption (a)

    62.7 s

  2. BOption (b)

    31.35 s

  3. COption (c)

    45.25 s

  4. DOption (d)

    26.71 s

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

31.35 s

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • Heat is a form of energy that flows from a relatively warmer object to a relatively cooler object.
  • Specific Heat: The amount of heat required to increase the temperature of a unit mass by one unit °C is called the specific heat of the material.

The heat required or lost to change the temperature of mass:

Q = mcΔT

where Q is the heat required, m is the mass of the object, and c is the specific heat of the material, and ΔT is the change in temperature.

Also, Power (P) = Wt\frac W t

For water 1 Litre = 1 kg

Calculation:

Given:

m = 1 L = 1 kg, ΔT = 60° - 30° = 30 ° C, P = 4 kW = 4000 W, c = 4.18 x 103 J kg °C-1

Using, Q = mcΔT

Q = 1 × 4.18 x 103 × 30

Q = 125.4 x 103 J

Now, P = Wt\frac W t

4000 = 125.4×103t\frac {125.4 \times 10^3}{t}

t = 31.35 s

Mistake PointsDont forgot to convert kW to W.

Question 118

SI unit of power of lens is:

  1. AOption (a)

    m-3

  2. BOption (b)

    m-1

  3. COption (c)

    m-2

  4. DOption (d)

    m

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

m-1

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Power of lens: It is defined as the property of lens to bend the light fall on it.

  • The power of the lens is measured in Dioptre.​
  • The power of the lens is defined as inversely proportional to the Focal length.

P = 1/f (where f is focal length)

  • The S.I unit of power is m-1 or Dioptre.
  • When a lens is immersed in water, the focal length of the lens increases.
  • This is so because when light enters from a denser medium to a rarer medium, it bends away from the normal.
  • As water is a denser medium than air, the bending of light will be less in water.
  • As a consequence focal length in water will be more as compared to focal length in air.

Additional Information

The images formed by a convex lens.

Question 119

For an object moving along a straight line without changing its direction the-

  1. AOption (a)

    distance travelled > displacement

  2. BOption (b)

    distance travelled = displacement

  3. COption (c)

    distance travelled < displacement 

  4. DOption (d)

    distance is not zero but displacement is zero

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

distance travelled = displacement

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

  • Displacement: The shortest or minimum distance between two points is known as displacement. It is a vector quantity.
  • Displacement = shortest distance = minimum distance between the start point and finish point.
  • Distance: Total length travelled by an object is known as distance. It is a scalar quantity.
  • Distance = total distance travelled = total circumference of the radius of the path.

Hence, when an object moves along a straight line without changing its direction then,

Distance travelled = Displacement

Question 120

Which of the following statements is/are true?

  1. The intermolecular forces are less in liquids in comparison to solids.
  2. The shape of liquid can easily be changed.
  3. The volume of a given mass of liquid can easily be changed.
  4. The volume of a given mass of liquid is not so easy to change.
  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1 and 4

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 1, 2 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    Only 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 1, 2 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Only 1, 2 and 4

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • Matter is anything that has mass and volume.
  • There are 3 types of matter-
  • Solid- The matter in which the particles are closely paced together.
  • Liquid - The matter in which the particles are less closely packed than solid and more than gas.
  • Gases - In this state of matter, the constituent particles are free for random movement in all directions.

Explanation:

  • The intermolecular forces of attraction are strong in solid because the constituent particles are closely packed. So, the shape and size of the solids do not easily change.
  • In liquid, the intermolecular forces of attraction in between the molecules are weaker than in solid because the constituent particles are less closely packed. So, the shape and size of the liquids are easily changed.
  • The shape of the liquid can be changed easily but the volume of a given mass of liquid is not easy to change and it takes a lot of effort to change the density of the liquid.

Thus, the correct statements are 1, 2, and 4.

Important Points

SolidsLiquidsGases
1. Highly strong intermolecular forces between the molecules.The intermolecular forces are strongest than gases but weaker than solids.The intermolecular forces are practically non-existent.
2. Have a definite shape to them.Do not have a definite shape.Do not have a definite shape.
3. The intermolecular spaces between solid are absent.The intermolecular spaces are moderate but present.The intermolecular spaces are free-flowing and large.
4. Solids are incompressible.Liquids cannot be compressed.Gases can be compressed.

Discipline 2 (20 questions)

Question 121

For generating wind energy, the wind speed should be higher than ________ to maintain the required speed of the turbine.

  1. AOption (a)

    5 km/h

  2. BOption (b)

    10 km/h

  3. COption (c)

    8 km/h

  4. DOption (d)

    15 km/h

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

15 km/h

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

  • Wind power generating is the conversion of wind energy into electric energy.
  • Wind power plant operation is more complicated than simply constructing wind turbines in a windy location..
  • The capacity and operating characteristics of wind electricity generation are affected by wind speed fluctuations.
  • A minimum wind speed of 12-15 km/h (~4 to 5 m/s) to begin turning and generating electricity.
  • Strong winds of 40-60 km/h (~12 to14 m/s) to generate at full capacity and winds of less than 90 km/h (25 m/s).
  • The optimal range of wind speeds for wind power generation lies between (~4 to12 m/s)
  • The device which measures the average daily wind speed is an anemometer.

Thus, The optimal range of wind speeds for wind power generation should be higher than the 15 Km/hr

Additional Information 

 In 2020, the top five nations in terms of wind electricity generation and their respective shares of global wind electricity generation were:

  • ​China–30%
  • United States–21%
  • Germany–8%
  • United Kingdom–5%
  • India–4%

Question 122

The melting point of ice is:

  1. AOption (a)

    473.15 K

  2. BOption (b)

    373 K

  3. COption (c)

    237.51 K

  4. DOption (d)

    273.15 K

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

273.15 K

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 273.15 K.

Key Points

  • Melting Point of Ice
  • The temperature of the reverse change from liquid to solid is called the freezing point or crystallization point.
  • For most substances the melting point and freezing points are equal.
  • For ice, the melting point is 0°C or 273.15 K. The melting point is the temperature at which a solid turns into a liquid. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
  • The melting point at which ice a solid turns to water a liquid is 32*°F (0°*C).
  • The melting point of a solid is defined as the temperature at which solid changes into a liquid. The melting point of a solid indicates the strength of the force of attraction between the particles of the solid. On heating a solid, its molecules absorb energy in the form of heat, and their kinetic energy increases.
  • As the kinetic energy increases, the temperature of the solid increases. As a result, the force of attraction between the molecules decreases, and the molecules become more and more separated.  This increases the potential energy of the molecule and the particles leave their fixed positions and start moving more freely.
  • At a particular temperature, the separation of the molecules increases by a large amount, and the solid melts and converts into liquid. This particular temperature is the melting point of that solid. The melting point of a pure substance is always higher than the melting point of that substance when a small amount of an impurity is present. Pressure also affects the melting point of a substance. As the pressure on the substance increases, the melting point decreases.

Mistake Points To change from °C to K we have to add 273.15, not 273. 

Additional Information

Melting points of some common substances

SubstanceMelting point (°C)
Ice0
Mercury-39
Hydrogen-259
Oxygen-219
Helium-272
Glucose146
Iron1535
Silver961
Gold1063

Question 123

Which of the following is known as the law of definite proportions as stated by Proust?

  1. AOption (a)

    In a chemical substance the elements are always present in definite proportions by volume.

  2. BOption (b)

    In a chemical substance the elements are always present in definite proportions by density

  3. COption (c)

    in a chemical substance the elements are always present in definite proportions by mass.

  4. DOption (d)

    In a chemical substance the elements are always present in definite proportions by heat.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

in a chemical substance the elements are always present in definite proportions by mass.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is in a chemical substance the elements are always present in definite proportions by mass.

Explanation:

  • This law was stated by Proust as “In a chemical substance the elements are always present in definite proportions by mass”.
  • And the law of definite proportion does not depend on its source and preparation method.
  • For example, in a compound such as water, the ratio of the mass of hydrogen to the mass of oxygen is always 1:8, whatever the source of water.
  • Thus, if 9 g of water is decomposed, 1 g of hydrogen and 8 g of oxygen are always obtained.
  • Similarly, nitrogen and hydrogen are always present in the 14:3 mass ratio in ammonia,  whatever the preparation method or the source from which it is produced.
  • This led to the law of constant proportions, often known as the law of definite proportions.

Question 124

Which of the following is not a postulate of Dalton’s atomic theory?

  1. AOption (a)

    The relative number and kinds of atoms are constant in a given compound.

  2. BOption (b)

    All matter is made of very tiny particles called atoms.

  3. COption (c)

    Atoms of a given element are identical in mass and chemical properties.

  4. DOption (d)

    Atoms combine in the ratio of small real numbers to form compounds.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Atoms combine in the ratio of small real numbers to form compounds.

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

In 1808, John Dalton first proposed an atomic theory of matter and he named it Dalton's atomic theory. Dalton’s atomic theory was able to explain the law of conservation of mass, law of constant composition, and law of multiple proportions very successfully.

Dalton’s Atomic Theory:

  • The smallest indivisible particle of matter is called an atom. The theory states that all the matter is composed of indestructible and indivisible building blocks called atoms.
  • All atoms of a specific element are identical in mass, size, and other properties. However, atoms of different elements exhibit different properties and vary in mass and size.
  • Atoms can neither be created nor destroyed. Furthermore, atoms cannot be divided into smaller particles.
  • Atoms of different elements can combine with each other in fixed whole-number ratios in order to form compounds.
  • Atoms can be rearranged, combined, or separated in chemical reactions.​

Additional Information

  • Law of conservation of mass:
  • According to the law, mass can neither be destroyed nor be created in any chemical reaction.
  • Law of constant proportion/ definite proportion:
  • The laws state that in a chemical substance, the elements are always present in certain proportions by mass.
  • For example:
  • Oxygen & Hydrogen are present in water in a ratio of 8:1.
  • So we will obtain 1g of hydrogen and 8g of oxygen if we decompose 9g of water.
  • Atom:
  • An atom is the smallest invisible unit of matter that constitutes a chemical element.
  • Every plasma, solid, gas & liquid, is composed of ionized or neutral atoms.
  • Around 100 picometers across, atoms are extremely small.

Question 125

Which of the following gases makes 75 percent of bio-gas?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ammonia

  2. BOption (b)

    Methane

  3. COption (c)

    Urea

  4. DOption (d)

    Butane

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Methane

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Methane.

Key Points

  • Biogas 
  • It is a mixture of gases produced by the anaerobic decomposition of organic matter like biomass waste, municipal waste, plant residue, etc.
  • Biogas is composed mostly of methane (CH4), the same compound in natural gas, and carbon dioxide (CO2). Hence, Option 1 is correct.
  • The methane content of biogas may vary from 60%–80%, with CO2 making up most of the remainder along with small amounts of water vapor and other gases.
  • It mainly consists of Methane, Carbon Dioxide, Hydrogen, and a small amount of Hydrogen Sulphide and moisture.
  • The government of India is implementing Galvanising Organic Bio Agro Resources Dhan or GOBAR-Dhan scheme for Biogas production.
  • Compressed Bio-Gas is exactly similar to the commercially available natural gas in its composition and energy potential.
  • Sustainable Alternative Towards Affordable Transportation (SATAT) is an effort of GOI is aimed to enhance Compressed Biogas in the country.
  • Difference between Biogas and Natural Gas
BiogasNatural Gas
- Obtained from biomass i.e farm waste, animal waste, etc.- Obtained in natural form
- Limited in quantity- Not limited
- Used mostly in rural areas- Used as a raw material in Petrochemical Industries

Question 126

Which of the following have a tendency to maintain their shape when subjected to outside force?

  1. AOption (a)

    Gases

  2. BOption (b)

    Aerosols

  3. COption (c)

    Solids

  4. DOption (d)

    Liquids

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Solids

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Solids.

Explanation:

  • Solids, unlike liquids and gases, have a tendency to maintain their shape when subjected to outside force.

  • Solids may break when force is applied, but changing their shape is difficult, hence they are rigid.

  • Rigidity is the property of matter that allows it to maintain its shape even when subjected to external forces, and solids exhibit this property. Rigidity is the property that solids possess that allows them to maintain their shape.

  • The intermolecular forces of attraction between particles in a solid are strong. As a result, they are forced to be closer together.

  • When an external or outside force is applied to the solid, the particles do not move from their respective positions and do not change their positions due to the strong intermolecular force of attraction between them.

Thus, solids have a tendency to maintain their shape when subjected to outside force.

Question 127

Which of the following is true?

  1. The rate of diffusion of liquids is higher than that of solids.
  2. Gases are highly compressible as compared to solids and liquids.

Choose the correct code.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 2

  3. COption (c)

    Neither 1 nor 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Both 1 and 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Explanation:

  • The rate of diffusion of liquids is higher than that of solids. This is due to the fact that particles in the liquid state move freely and have greater space between each other than particles in the solid-state. Hence, statement 1 is true.
  • Solids have a definite shape, distinct boundaries, and fixed volumes, implying that their compressibility is negligible.
  • Because there is no space between the particles in a solid, no compression is possible.
  • Gases are highly compressible as compared to solids and liquids.
  • Gases are compressible because their intermolecular space is large, whereas liquids are not compressible because their intermolecular space is small. Hence, statement 2 is true.

So both statements are correct.

Question 128

It was found that the Law of Octaves was applicable only upto ______

  1. AOption (a)

    Magnesium

  2. BOption (b)

    Calcium

  3. COption (c)

    Nitrogen

  4. DOption (d)

    Iron

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Calcium

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

  • The law of octaves found to be applicable up to the element Calcium (Ca).
  • In 1866, John Newlands, an English scientist, arranged the then known elements in the order of increasing atomic masses.
  • He started with the element having the lowest atomic mass (hydrogen) and ended at thorium which was the 56th element.
  • He found that every eighth element has properties similar to that of the first.
  • He compared this to the octaves found in music.
  • Therefore, he called it the ‘Law of Octaves’ and hence it is known as ‘Newlands’ Law of Octaves’.
  • It was found that the Law of Octaves was applicable only upto calcium, as after calcium every eighth element did not possess properties similar to that of the first.​

Additional Information

  • The periodic table was discovered by Dimitri Ivanovich Mendeleev.
  • The periodic table of Mendeleev was based on the increasing order of atomic mass.
  • Dmitri Mendeleev is also known as the father of the periodic table.
  • The modern periodic table was discovered by Henry Mosely.
  • Moseley is known as the father of the modern periodic table.
  • The periodic table of Mosley was based on increasing the order of atomic numbers.
  • The periodic table is based on Atomic numbers.

Question 129

Which of the following is emitted when hydrogen is burned?

  1. AOption (a)

    Both methane and water-vapour

  2. BOption (b)

    Methane

  3. COption (c)

    Carbon dioxide

  4. DOption (d)

    Water vapour

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Water vapour

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Water vapour.

Explanation:

  • Hydrogen is a chemical element with the symbol 'H,' atomic number 1, and an atomic mass of 1.008. Hydrogen is the lightest element in the periodic table.
  • When hydrogen is burned, it goes through a chemical reaction. In this chemical reaction, hydrogen combines with oxygen to form water, releasing a significant amount of energy.

2H2 + O2 → 2H2O + energy

  • When hydrogen burns, it produces a lot of energy. And the majority of the energy is released as heat. Gases expand as a result of the heat.
  • And the reaction produces hydrogen, oxygen, and water vapour as a gaseous mixture.
  • Although water vapour is the most abundant greenhouse gas in the atmosphere, other greenhouse gases also exist (such as carbon dioxide and methane).
  • The heat emitted by the Earth's surface is absorbed by water vapour molecules in the lower atmosphere.

Thus, water vapour is emitted when hydrogen is burned.

Question 130

Which of the following statements is incorrect about bio fuel?

  1. It is an important fuel produced from leftover food products like vegetable oils and animal fats.
  2. It can be made when large amounts of crops high in sugar or starch content are grown, and then fermented with yeast to produce ethyl alcohol or ethanol.

Choose the correct code.

  1. AOption (a)

    Neither 1 nor 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Both 1 and 2

  3. COption (c)

    Only 1

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Neither 1 nor 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2.

Explanation:

  • Biofuel is any fuel derived from biomass, such as plant or algae waste or animal waste.
  • Biofuel is considered a renewable energy source, as opposed to fossil fuels such as coal, petroleum, and natural gas because such feedstock material can be easily replenished.
  • Thus, Biofuel is an important fuel produced from leftover food products like vegetable oils and animal fats. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Examples of biofuels are biodiesel, ethanol (derived from liquid animal fats and vegetable oils), biogas (derived from raw materials such as manure and agricultural waste).
  • Biofuels are energy sources derived from food crops grown on arable land. Yeast fermentation is used to convert the crop's sugar, starch, or oil content into biodiesel or ethanol.
  • Thus, It can be made when large amounts of crops high in sugar or starch content are grown and then fermented with yeast to produce ethyl alcohol or ethanol. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Question 131

According to Thomson's model of an atom:

  1. An atom consists of a positively charged sphere and the electrons are embedded in it.
  2. The negative and positive charges are not always equal in magnitude. So, the atom as a whole is not always electrically neutral.

Choose the correct code:

  1. AOption (a)

    Both 1 and 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither 1 nor 2

  3. COption (c)

    Only 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Only 1

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

J.J. Thomson (1856- 1940), a British physicist, was born in Cheetham Hill, a suburb of Manchester, on 18 December 1856.

Thomson's model of an atom

  • Thomson proposed the model of an atom to be similar to that of a Christmas pudding.
  • The electrons, in a sphere of positive charge, were like currants (dry fruits) in a spherical Christmas pudding.
  • One can also think of a watermelon, the positive charge in the atom is spread all over like the red edible part of the watermelon, while the electrons are studded in the positively charged sphere, like the seeds in watermelon.
  • Thomson proposed that:
  • An atom consists of a positively charged sphere evenly distributed all over the atom and the electrons are embedded in it.
  • The negative and positive charges are equal in magnitude. So, the atom as a whole is electrically neutral.
  • Although Thomson’s model explained that atoms are electrically neutral, the results of experiments carried out by other scientists could not be explained by this model.

Hence, according to the Thomson model of the atom, the positive charge is evenly distributed all over the atom.

Additional Information

  • Rutherford Model of atom:-
  • There is a positively charged center in an atom called the nucleus.
  • Nearly all the mass of an atom resides in the nucleus.
  • The electrons revolve around the nucleus in well-defined orbits.
  • Rutherford's model of the atom is also called the Nuclear model of the atom.

Question 132

Which of the following countries is known as the country of the ‘winds’?

  1. AOption (a)

    Germany

  2. BOption (b)

    India

  3. COption (c)

    France

  4. DOption (d)

    Denmark

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Denmark

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Denmark.

Key Points

  • Country of winds:
  • Denmark is called 'Country of Winds' as it has the highest proportion of wind power in the world.
  • It has the highest proportion of wind power in the world.
  • Wind dominated, with 47% of the green energy coming from wind turbines.
  • Denmark fulfill 50% of its power requirements from renewable energy

Question 133

Solid carbon dioxide is known as dry ice because:

  1. It is stored under extreme low pressure to solidify it.
  2. It gets converted directly to gaseous state on decrease of pressure to 1 atm without coming into liquid state.

Choose the correct code:

  1. AOption (a)

    Neither 1 nor 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Both 1 and 2

  3. COption (c)

    Only 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only 2

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

  • Dry Ice is the common name for solid carbon dioxide.
  • It is used primarily as a cooling agent, but is also used in fog machines at theatres for dramatic effects.
  • When dry ice is heated then it changes directly into a gas.
  • It is stored under high pressure.
  • Dry ice is solid Carbon dioxide.
  • It skips the melting process and sublimates directly into carbon dioxide gas when it reaches room temperature and pressure and expands.
  • Dry Ice is manufactured by compressing and cooling gaseous CO2 under high pressure to initially produce liquid CO2.
  • It is often used as an alternative to refrigeration for foodstuffs and medical supplies.

Question 134

The number of atoms constituting a molecule is known as its:

  1. AOption (a)

    Atomic mass

  2. BOption (b)

    Atomicity

  3. COption (c)

    Atomic weight

  4. DOption (d)

    Atomic number

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Atomicity

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:  

  • Atomicity: 
  • the present number of atoms in any molecule of an element is called its atomicity.
  • For example, oxygen is diatomic & helium is monoatomic.
  • Types of Atomicity: 
  • Monoatomic: when an element consists of a single atom. Example – all kinds of metals in nature.
  • Diatomic: The element which consists of two atoms. Example – all types of gases.
  • Triatomic: The element which consists of three atoms.
  • Tetra-atomic: The element, consists of four atoms.
  • Poly-atomic: The element consists of more than two atoms.

The following table shows the Atomicity of some Elements. 

Atomicity of Some Elements
NameAtomicityFormula
ArgonMonoatomicAr
OxygenDiatomicO2
NitrogenDiatomicN2
PhosphorousTetra – atomicP4
SulfurPoly – atomicS8

Question 135

The plasma state of matter consists of :

  1. AOption (a)

    Extremely stable particles of a liquid and charged particles of a noble gas under extremely low temperature

  2. BOption (b)

    Extremely charged particles of gases under very low temperature

  3. COption (c)

    Extremely energetic and excited form of ionised gases

  4. DOption (d)

    Extremely stable and uncharged neutrons of several gases

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Extremely energetic and excited form of ionised gases

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

States of Matter: There are five states of matter.

  1. Solid
  2. Liquid
  3. Gas
  4. Plasma
  5. Bose-Eienstein Condensate(BEC)

Plasma state:

It is a mixture of free electrons and ions.

  • The state is consists of super excited and super energetic particles that are present in form of ionized gases.
  • Plasma is made by heating a gas to a very high temperature so that gas molecules lose all their electrons.
  • It does not have a definite shape and volume.
  • Example: This state is mostly observed in stars.

 

The given image shows a plasma shot from the sun

Bose-Einstein Condensate(BEC): 

  • Gases at extremely low density are cooled to extremely low-temperature therefore atoms are unable to move at all and collapsed into a single quantum state. As atoms become indistinguishable they behave as a super-atom. They are super-fluids and super-conductors. Example: Helium below temperature 2.17 K.

Additional Information

  • Solid: Particles of matter are bounded very tightly so that it has very low kinetic energy (almost negligible) that's why it has a definite shape and volume and cannot be compressed. Example: Iron sheet, aluminium foil.
  • Liquid: particles of matter are bounded loosely so that it has low kinetic energy. The particles can move freely and randomly throughout liquid but do not break the boundaries. It has a definite volume and cannot be compressed. Example: milk, water.
  • Gas: particles are not bounded so that it has high kinetic energy. The particles can move freely and randomly anywhere. It does not have a definite shape and volume. It is highly compressible.  Example: Water vapor, oxygen, hydrogen.

Question 136

Which of the following types of coal has the highest calorific value?

  1. AOption (a)

    Subbituminous

  2. BOption (b)

    Peat

  3. COption (c)

    Lignite

  4. DOption (d)

    Anthracite

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Anthracite

Why this answer is correct

Key PointsCalorific value: The calorific value or heating value or energy value of a substance, usually a fuel or food (see food energy), is the amount of heat released during the combustion of a specified amount of it.

Coal:

  • Coal is a fossil fuel.
  • It is has been formed from dead remains of trees. Millions of years are taken in the formation of fossil fuels.
  • Fossils are formed when the dead remains of living beings undergo high pressure and temperature for millions of years.,
  • Petroleum is another fossil fuel formed by dead remains of organic components of the ocean ecosystem.
  • Coal is categorized on different types based on the amount of carbon present in them.
  • More the carbon content more is the calorific value of a coal.
CoalPercentage of Carbon
Peat60 %
Lignite67 %
Bituminous80 %
Anthracite97 - 98 %

Anthracite has a maximum carbon content that is 98%. Hence, anthracite has the maximum calorific value. 

So, it is the correct option. 

Additional Information

  • Anthracite is coal with maximum carbon content.
  • Anthracite accounts for about 1% of global coal reserves. Other terms which refer to anthracite are black coal, hard coal, stone coal.
  • Chemically, anthracite may be considered as a transition stage between ordinary bituminous coal and graphite, produced by the more or less complete elimination of the volatile constituents of the former, and it is found most abundantly in areas that have been subjected to considerable stresses and pressures, such as the flanks of great mountain ranges.

Question 137

The commonly used unit of power, Horse-power is equal to

  1. AOption (a)

    746 W

  2. BOption (b)

    760 W

  3. COption (c)

    440 W

  4. DOption (d)

    842 W

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

746 W

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Horsepower: Horsepower is a popular imperial unit of power of an engine. It is defined as the work done by a person or machine per unit amount of time. This term of Horsepower was invented by James Watt.

  • It is a unit of power that compares the power of a machine to the muscle power of the horse.
  • In earlier days it was used to measure steam engine power output was compared to the power of draft horses. But later on, its usage was expanded to different types of piston engines, electric motors, turbines, and other machinery.

One mechanical horsepower of 550 foot-pounds per second is equivalent to 745.7 watts.

⇒ 1 Hp = 550 Foot pound per second

⇒ 1 Pound = 4044822 Newtons

⇒ 1 Foot is 0.3.48 meters

⇒ 1 Hp = 550 × 4.44822 × 0.3048 meters

⇒ 1Hp = 745.69 newton meter per second = 746 watt

Question 138

Mendeleev's Periodic Law states that:

  1. AOption (a)

    The properties of elements are the periodic function of their atomicity.

  2. BOption (b)

    The properties of elements are the periodic function of their atomic masses.

  3. COption (c)

    The properties of elements are the periodic function of their atomic numbers.

  4. DOption (d)

    The properties of elements are the periodic function of their ions.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The properties of elements are the periodic function of their atomic masses.

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

  • One of the most important contributors to the early construction of the periodic table was Russian scientist Dmitri Ivanovich Mendeléev.
  • Mendeleev Periodic Table was introduced in 1869, following the rejection of Newlands Octave Law.
  • Elements were arranged in Mendeleev's periodic chart according to their fundamental property, atomic mass, and chemical characteristics.
  • Only 63 elements were known at Mendeleev's time.
  • Mendeleev discovered that the properties of elements are the periodic function of their atomic mass in a periodic pattern after analysing their qualities.
  • He ordered the elements in the periodic table so that those with comparable properties were in the same vertical columns.
  • He developed a periodic law based on this finding, which states:- “The periodic function of an element's atomic mass is its property.”
  • Demerits -  
  1. He couldn't find hydrogen in the periodic chart.
  2. Moving from one element to the next caused an irregular increase in atomic mass. As a result, the amount of elements that have yet to be identified is unpredictable.
  3. Isotopes were not considered. Later on, isotopes of elements that defied Mendeleev's periodic law were discovered.​

Additional Information

Mendeleev left places for undiscovered elements. 

  • scandium, gallium and germanium, discovered later, have properties similar to Eka–boron, Eka–aluminium and Eka–silicon, respectively. So undiscovered elements were named also by Mendeleevs.
  • It was not very strictly based on increasing order of atomic mass.  For example, cobalt (atomic mass 58.9) appeared before nickel (atomic mass 58.7) based on periodic properties.
  • Noble gases can easily get adjusted in Mendeleev periodic table even they were discovered after the periodic table.

Question 139

What is the atomic radius of hydrogen atom?

  1. AOption (a)

    53 pm

  2. BOption (b)

    23 nm

  3. COption (c)

    47 mm

  4. DOption (d)

    37 nm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

53 pm

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

  • The atomic radius is the distance between the nucleus's centre and the boundary of the electrons that surround it.
  • The atomic number of hydrogen is 1 and its standard atomic weight is 1.008.
  • It has an atomic radius of 53 pm, which stands for picometer measurement.
  • Or we can say that the range of atomic size or radius of hydrogen falls in 10-12 m.​

Additional Information According to Bohr Model

  • The stationary states for electron are numbered n = 1,2,3.......... These integral numbers (Section 2.6.2) are known as Principal quantum numbers.
  • The radii of the stationary states are expressed as:

rn = n2a0

a0 = 52.9 m

  • The radius of the first stationary state (n = 1), called the Bohr orbit, is 52.9 pm.
  • The electrons revolve around a given energy level associated with the principle quantum number.

https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/kech102.pdf

Page number 19

Question 140

In 1961 for a universally accepted atomic mass unit, _____ isotope was chosen as the standard reference for measuring atomic masses.

  1. AOption (a)

    carbon-1

  2. BOption (b)

    oxygen-6

  3. COption (c)

    carbon-12

  4. DOption (d)

    hydrogen-2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

carbon-12

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

  • An Atomic Mass Unit is defined as accurately 1/12 the mass of a carbon-12 atom.
  • Atomic mass is calculated by the sum of no. of Protons and Neutrons in the nucleus.
  • The carbon-12 atom has six Neutrons and six Protons in its nucleus and thus represented as C12.
  • The atomic unit mass is denoted as 'amu' and 1 amu = 1.67377 x 10-24 gram.
  • Atomic no. of C12 atom is 6 and it belongs to the 2nd Period and 14th Group in the periodic table.
  • Atomic Mass: 
  • The Atomic Theory of Dalton suggested that each element has a unique atomic mass.
  • The law of constant proportions could be explained easily by the implementation of Dalton's theory.
  • As the size of an atom is relatively small, it is quite difficult to determine the mass of an atom.
  • That's why the scientists started evaluating the mass of an atom by differentiating it with the mass of a standard atom.
  • The atomic mass is 12u (12 atomic mass units).
  • Thus it states that 1 atomic mass unit = Mass of 1/12 the mass of a carbon-12 atom.

The following table shows the list of elements with the respective atomic masses. 

ElementsAtomic Mass
Hydrogen1 µ
Carbon12 µ
Nitrogen14 µ
Oxygen16 µ
Magnesium24 µ
Sodium23 µ
Calcium40 µ

Discipline 3 (20 questions)

Question 141

Scurvy is caused due to deficiency of:

  1. AOption (a)

    Vitamin B

  2. BOption (b)

    Vitamin C

  3. COption (c)

    Vitamin A

  4. DOption (d)

    Vitamin D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Vitamin C

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Vitamin C. 

Concept:

  • Vitamins are organic substances that we need in sufficient quantities to maintain good health.
  • Our body, however, cannot synthesise them. Therefore, we need to consume natural sources such as fruits and vegetables. Vitamins are divided into two groups– water-soluble vitamins (Vitamins of B group and Vitamin C) and fat-soluble vitamins (Vitamins A, D, E, and K).

Explanation:

  • Scurvy is caused due to deficiency of Vitamin C.
  • Scurvy causes gum disease, general weakness, skin haemorrhages, and anaemia.
  • The sources of Vitamin C are citrus fruits and vegetables.
  • Diseases that occur due to lack of nutrients over a long period are called deficiency diseases.
  • Each vitamin has a specific function and its deficiency leads to a particular deficiency disease.

Some diseases caused by deficiency of vitamins:

VitaminDeficiency diseaseSymptoms
Vitamin BSkin diseases, retarded growth, beriberiTiredness or fatigue, weakness, constipation, numbness and tingling in the hands and feet, loss of appetite.
Vitamin CScurvyBleeding gums, wounds take a longer time to heal
Vitamin ALoss of visionPoor vision, loss of vision in darkness (night), sometimes complete loss of vision
Vitamin DRicketsBones become soft and bent

Question 142

Goitre is caused due to deficiency of:

  1. AOption (a)

    Iron

  2. BOption (b)

    Iodine

  3. COption (c)

    Fluorine

  4. DOption (d)

    Vitamin K

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Iodine

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Iodine.

Explanation:

  • Goitre is a deficiency disease caused due to deficiency of iodine in our diet.
  • Iodine is commonly consumed in the form of iodized salt in the diet.
  • Goitre is an enlargement of the thyroid gland, also known as goitre. The thyroid gland is a small butterfly-shaped gland in the neck just below Adam's Apple.
  • It causes the endocrine gland to enlarge, which is directly involved in the secretion that leads to goitre.
  • Iodine is required for the normal rate of hormone synthesis in the thyroid gland.
  • Not all goitres are symptomatic. Swelling and coughing are two possible symptoms.

Additional Information

  • Iron:
  • Iron deficiency is a common cause of anaemia (having too few healthy red blood cells).
  • Iron deficiency in a pregnant woman puts the baby at risk of developmental delays.
  • Fluorine:
  • The deficiency of fluorine can lead to tooth and bone weakness.
  • The majority of fluorine in the body is found in bones and teeth.
  • Fluorine is required for bone and tooth formation.
  • Vitamin K:
  • Vitamin K is a fat-soluble vitamin.
  • The deficiency of vitamin K can lead to osteoporosis, significant bleeding, and an increased risk of cardiovascular disease.

Question 143

Which of the following reacts vigorously with water to produce slaked lime releasing a large amount of heat?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sulfuric Acid

  2. BOption (b)

    Calcium

  3. COption (c)

    Calcium Bromide

  4. DOption (d)

    Calcium oxide

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Calcium oxide

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Calcium oxide.

Explanation:

  • Calcium oxide reacts vigorously with water to produce slaked lime (calcium hydroxide) releasing a large amount of heat.

CaO (s) + H2O (l) → Ca(OH)2 (aq) + Heat

  • In the above reaction, calcium oxide and water combine to form a single product, calcium hydroxide. Such a reaction in which a single product is formed from two or more reactants is known as a combination reaction.
  • The reaction produces a slaked lime solution, which is used to whitewash walls. Calcium hydroxide slowly reacts with carbon dioxide in the air, forming a thin layer of calcium carbonate on the walls. After two to three days of whitewashing, calcium carbonate forms and gives the walls a shiny finish.

Ca(OH)2 (aq) + CO2 (g) → CaCO3 (s) + H2O (l)

Question 144

Which of the following is the correctly balanced equation for Fe + H2O → Fe3O4 + H2?

  1. AOption (a)

    Fe + 4H2O → Fe3O4 + H2

  2. BOption (b)

    3Fe + H2O → Fe3O4 + H2

  3. COption (c)

    3Fe + 4H2O → Fe3O4 + H2

  4. DOption (d)

    3Fe + 4H2O → Fe3O4 + 4H2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

3Fe + 4H2O → Fe3O4 + 4H2

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:-

Chemical Equation: A symbolic representation of a chemical reaction that follows different laws of chemical combinations is called a chemical equation.

Balanced Chemical Equation: Chemical equations are mostly balanced which means that the number of atoms for each element in the reactant side is always equal to that of the product side.

Steps to balance a chemical equation:

  • Counting each kind of atom of different elements from both the reactant and product side.
  • Place coefficients, as needed, in front of the symbols or formulas to increase the number of atoms or molecules of the given substances present in the reaction.
  • Simultaneously, repeat the previous steps to get a balanced chemical equation.

Example: 3Fe + 4H2O → Fe3O4 + 4H2

ElementReactant sideProduct side
Iron(Fe)33
Hydrogen(H)88
Oxygen(O)44

Question 145

Which of the following bound products consists of a mixture of potassium chlorate and antimony of trisulphide bound together by glue?

  1. AOption (a)

    Detergents

  2. BOption (b)

    Matchstick heads

  3. COption (c)

    Candles

  4. DOption (d)

    Soaps

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Matchstick heads

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Matchstick heads.

Explanation:

  • The modern safety match was developed only about two centuries ago.
  • On the head of a suitable wood match, a mixture of antimony trisulphide, potassium chlorate, and white phosphorus, along with some glue and starch, was applied.
  • The heat of friction ignited white phosphorus when it was struck against a rough surface.
  • This started the combustion of the match.
  • White phosphorus, on the other hand, proved to be hazardous to both workers in the match industry and users.
  • Nowadays, the head of a safety match is made up of only antimony trisulphide and potassium chlorate.
  • The rubbing surface contains powdered glass and a trace of red phosphorus (which is much less dangerous).
  • Some red phosphorus is converted to white phosphorus when the match is struck against the rubbing surface.
  • This immediately reacts with potassium chlorate in the matchstick head, producing enough heat to ignite antimony trisulphide and begin the combustion.

Question 146

Acetic acid (CH3COOH) has a melting point of:

  1. AOption (a)

    290 K

  2. BOption (b)

    90 K

  3. COption (c)

    209 K

  4. DOption (d)

    156 K

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

290 K

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 290 K.

Explanation:

  • Acetic acid is an organic compound that belongs to a group of acids called carboxylic acids.
  • The formula of acetic acid is CH3COOH with a methyl group is attached to a carboxyl functional group.
  • The melting point of acetic acid is 290 K or 16.5°C and hence it often freezes during winter in cold climates.
  • The IUPAC name of acetic acid is ethanoic acid. Acetic acid is the main component of vinegar.
  • 5-8% solution of acetic acid in water is called vinegar and is used widely as a preservative in pickles.
  • Vinegar's sour taste and pungent smell are due to the presence of acetic acid.
  • Uses of Acetic Acid:
  • Acetic acid is used in the production of a wide range of dyes, rayons, silk, and perfumes.
  • Acetic acid is also used in the production of rubber.
  • It is mostly used in a pickle preservative as vinegar.
  • It is injected directly into the tumour during cancer treatment.
  • Structure of acetic acid:

Additional Information

Melting points and boiling points of some compounds of carbon:

CompoundMelting point (K)Boiling point (K)
Acetic acid (CH3COOH)290391
Chloroform (CHCl3)209334
Ethanol (CH3CH2OH)156351
Methane (CH4)90111

Question 147

The ______ of elements is explained as their tendency to attain a completely filled outer shell.

  1. AOption (a)

    reactivity

  2. BOption (b)

    density

  3. COption (c)

    pressure

  4. DOption (d)

    weight

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

reactivity

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is reactivity.

Explanation:

  • The reactivity of elements is explained as their tendency to attain a completely filled outer shell.
  • The octet rule describes how atoms prefer to have eight electrons in their valence shell.
  • The tendency of an element with two or more shells to achieve eight electrons in its valence shell by gaining, losing, or sharing electrons is referred to as the octet rule.
  • Reactivity is measured on a scale, with fluorine being the most reactive element and helium being the least reactive.
  • Reactivity refers to how easily an atom gains or loses the required number of electrons to form a complete outer shell.
  • Noble gases have low reactivity because their electron shells are complete.
  • Halogens are highly reactive as they rapidly gain an electron to fill their outermost shell.

Thus, the reactivity of elements is explained as their tendency to attain a completely filled outer shell.

Question 148

Which of the following is an incorrect option regarding universal rules of nomenclature?

  1. AOption (a)

    Both the words in a biological name, when handwritten, are separately underlined

  2. BOption (b)

    First word denoting the genus starts with a small letter while the specific epithet starts with a capital letter

  3. COption (c)

    Biological names are generally in Latin and written in italics

  4. DOption (d)

    The first word in a biological name represents the genus

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

First word denoting the genus starts with a small letter while the specific epithet starts with a capital letter

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is First word denoting the genus starts with a small letter while the specific epithet starts with a capital letter.

Key Points

  • Nomenclature is the system of naming living organisms in a way that a particular organism is known by the same name all over the world.
  • Universal rules of nomenclature are:
  • Both the words in a biological name, when handwritten, are separately underlined or printed in italics to indicate their Latin origin. Thus, statement 1 is correct.
  • The first word denoting the genus starts with a capital letter while the specific epithet starts with a small letter e.g., Mangifera indica. In this name, Mangifera represents the genus while indica, is a particular species, or a specific epithet. Thus, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Biological names are generally in Latin and written in italics. They are Latinised or derived from Latin irrespective of their origin. Thus, statement 3 is correct.
  • The first word in a biological name represents the genus while the second component denotes the specific epithet. Thus, statement 4 is correct.

Binomial nomenclature of some common plants and animals:

Common NamesBinomial Nomenclature
PeaPisum sativum
OnionAllium cepa
MangoMangifera indica
WheatTriticum aestivum
BanyanFicus benghalensis
Indian frogRana tigrina
CatFelis catus
CobraNaja naja
HumansHomo sapiens

Question 149

Which of the following products is available from Hevea brasiliensis?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rayon

  2. BOption (b)

    Nylon

  3. COption (c)

    PET

  4. DOption (d)

    Natural rubber

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Natural rubber

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  Natural rubber.

Key Points

  • Hevea brasiliensis, also known as the rubber tree, seringueira and sharinga tree, and most commonly, the rubber tree or rubber plant,
  • It is a flowering plant that belongs to the family Euphorbiaceae.
  • The latex collected from the tree is the primary source of natural rubber, making it the most economically important member of the genus Hevea.
  • Latex contains amino acids, proteins, and other natural compounds, as well as latex polymers, all of which are useful in modern life.
  • Hevea brasiliensis is a tall deciduous tree that grows to a height of up to 30 - 40m (141 ft) in the wild, but cultivated trees are usually much smaller because drawing off the latex restricts the tree's growth.
  • The natural rubber tree takes seven to ten years to produce its first harvest.
  • Rubber is an important component of many products used in people's daily lives.

Additional Information

  • Polyethylene terephthalate is a polyester that is formed through the transesterification of ethylene glycol and dimethyl terephthalate.
  • Rayon is a man-made fibre made from cellulose, which is derived from wood pulp.
  • Nylon is a synthetic plastic material that can be melt-processed into fibres, films, or shapes. It is typically derived from petroleum.

Question 150

Which of the following is the most ductile metal?

  1. AOption (a)

    Gold

  2. BOption (b)

    Copper

  3. COption (c)

    Platinum

  4. DOption (d)

    Silver

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Gold

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Gold.

Explanation:

  • Gold is the most ductile metal.
  • Ductility refers to a metal's ability to be drawn into thin wires.
  • The ductility of the metals decreases as their temperature rises because metals weaken as their temperature rises.
  • One gram of gold can be used to make a wire that is about 2 kilometres long.
  • Metals can be shaped into various shapes depending on our needs due to their malleability and ductility.
  • Gold is also a good conductor of heat and electricity, that is unaffected by air and most reagents.

Thus, gold is the most ductile metal.

Additional Information

  • Copper, Platinum, and Silver are typical ductile metals.
  • Gold and platinum are the most ductile metals on the planet, but gold is significantly more ductile than platinum.

Question 151

Acid + Metal → Salt + ________

Which of the following is needed to complete the reaction above?

  1. AOption (a)

    Hydrogen gas

  2. BOption (b)

    Nitrogen gas

  3. COption (c)

    Oxygen gas

  4. DOption (d)

    Ozone gas

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Hydrogen gas

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Hydrogen gas.

Explanation:

  • When an acid reacts with a metal, salt and hydrogen gas are formed.
  • The reaction between an acid and a metal has the following general word equation:

Acid + Metal → Salt + Hydrogen.

  • In the above reaction, metal displaces hydrogen atoms from acids as hydrogen gas, resulting in the formation of salt.
  • For example:Mg + 2HCl = MgCl2 + H2

​Magnesium + hydrochloric acid = magnesium chloride + hydrogen gas

  • In the above reaction, Metal (Zn) displaces hydrogen atoms from the acid (NaOH) as hydrogen gas (H2) and forms a compound called sodium zincate salt (Na2ZnO2).

Important Points

Hydrogen gas is not formed when a metal reacts with dilute nitric acid because nitric acid is a strong oxidizing agent.

Question 152

Which of the following is false?

  1. AOption (a)

    Water of crystallisation is the fixed number of water molecules present in one formula unit of a salt.

  2. BOption (b)

    Acidic nature of a substance is due to the formation of OH (aq) ions in solution 

  3. COption (c)

    Acidic solutions in water conduct electricity because they produce hydrogen ions.

  4. DOption (d)

    When a base reacts with a metal, the salt formed has a negative ion composed of the metal.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Acidic nature of a substance is due to the formation of OH (aq) ions in solution 

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:-

Water:

  • Water is known as the universal solvent.
  • It is reactive towards other chemical compounds.
  • Water is less toxic in nature.
  • Water is non-flammable.
  • It has the property of viscosity.
  • Water is a compound that is found in solid, liquid and gaseous states.
  • Water has the property of surface tension.
  • It shows the heat of vaporization.
  • Water is used to determine the acidic and basic properties of a given compound.
  • Ions of water are used to determine the pH value of a substance.

Additional Information

  • Water on crystalization can form one unit of salt.
  • Acidic solutions of water are good conductors of heat and electricity.
  • Bases react with metals to form a salt.

Question 153

Compounds of carbon, which are linked by only single bonds between the carbon atoms are called _______ compunds.

  1. AOption (a)

    Saturated

  2. BOption (b)

    Neutral

  3. COption (c)

    Unstable

  4. DOption (d)

    Unsaturated

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Saturated

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:-

Carbon Compounds:

  • Carbon has a unique property of catenation.
  • It is the ability of one carbon atom to link with another with different kinds of bonds.
  • Carbon compounds have covalent bonding between them.
  • There are three types of covalent bonding - single bond, double bond and triple bond.
  1. Alkanes: Carbon compounds having a single bond between two successive carbon atoms are called Alkanes. It has a sigma bond.
  2. Alkenes:- The carbon compounds having double bonds between the carbon atoms are called Alkenes. It has one sigma and one pi bond.
  3. Alkynes:- The carbon compounds which have a triple bond between the carbon atoms are called Alkynes. It has one sigma and two pi bonds.
  • The carbon compounds can be said as more reactive or unstable and have a pi covalent bond in their structure.
  • Carbon also forms many complexes and organometallic complexes.

Example: 

  1. Organic Compound: Protein (C,H,O,N), Carbohydrate (C,H,O), Chloroform (C,H,Cl).
  2. Inorganic Compound: Silica (Si, O), Marble (Ca, C, O), Bauxite (Al, O).

Additional Information

  • Saturated Carbon Compounds:- Saturated compounds of carbon are stable and have a sigma covalent bond only.
  • Unsaturated Carbon Compounds:- They are compounds of carbon that have at least one pi covalent bond which makes them unstable and highly reactive.

Question 154

Outer solid crust of earth is known as-

  1. AOption (a)

    Stratosphere

  2. BOption (b)

    Hydroshere

  3. COption (c)

    Lithosphere

  4. DOption (d)

    Mesosphere

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Lithosphere

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:-

Lithosphere:- It is the rigid outer layer of the earth's crust which serves as land, plains, plateaus and mountains. It is the rocky outer surface that covers the landmass.

Structure of Earth:-  

  • Earth is divided into three main portions- crust, mantle and core.
  • The innermost layer of the earth is called the Core.
  • The middle supportive layer of the earth is Mantle.
  • The outer extended layer of the earth is known as Crust.

Additional InformationDomains of Earth:- There are four major domains of earth -  hydrosphere, biosphere, atmosphere and lithosphere. 

  • Hydrosphere:-  The area of earth's land covered by water is called Hydrosphere.
  • Biosphere:- The area of earth's land where life exists is called Biosphere.
  • Atmosphere:- The area of earth's land covered by air is called Atmosphere.
  • Lithosphere:- The area of earth's land which covered by landmass is called Lithosphere.

Layers of Atmosphere:-   There are five layers of atmosphere. From the down to the top - Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere and Exosphere.

Question 155

Which of the following is an example of conventional non-renewable energy sources?

  1. AOption (a)

    Solar energy

  2. BOption (b)

    Geothermal energy

  3. COption (c)

    Biogas

  4. DOption (d)

    Natural gas

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Natural gas

Why this answer is correct

Non-renewable resources:

  • Non-renewable resources are those which have limited stock.
  • Once the stocks are exhausted it may take thousands of years to be renewed or replenished.
  • Since this period is much more than human life spans, such resources are considered non-renewable.
  • Coal, petroleum, and natural gas are some examples.

Key Points

Natural Gas:

  • The mixture of hydrocarbon gases with methane being the primary component is called natural gas.
  • Hydrogen, hydrogen sulphide, nitrogen, carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide are other gases that are present in minute traces.
  • Natural gas is formed as fossil fuel from the decaying remains of pre-historic plant and animal life.
  • Methane is an odourless gas that is colourless and easily inflammable.
  • It is also known as methyl hydride or marsh gas.
  • Since its a fossil fuel, it is a finite fuel.

Important Points

There are basically two sources of energy:  

Renewable resources or Non-ConventionalNon-Renewable resources or Conventional
The resources can renew themselves or can be used again and again.The sources cannot be replaced or reused once they are destroyed.
Renewable resources are replenished naturally and over relatively short periods of time. It is present in unlimited quantityThese are limited resources and consume millions of years to make. So these are used limitedly.
It has low carbon emission and is hence is environment friendly.These are not environmentally friendly because the amount of carbon emission is high.
The cost is low.The cost of these resources is high.
A large land area is required for the installation of these plants.Less land requirement of installation of these plants.
They require high maintenance costs.They require low maintenance costs.
Example: soil, water bodies, sun (solar energy), wind, tidal energy, atomic energy, geothermal, forest, mountains, biogas, wildlife, atmospheric resources.Example: coal, oil, nuclear energy, petroleum, natural gas, LPG, batteries, shale gas, soil and phosphate are some examples.

Thus, natural gas is an example of a conventional non-renewable energy source.

Question 156

Which of the following general properties for ionic compounds is true?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ionic compounds have higher melting and boiling points.

  2. BOption (b)

    Ionic compounds conduct electricity in solid state.

  3. COption (c)

    Ionic compounds are easily soluble in solvents like kerosene and petrol.

  4. DOption (d)

    Ionic compounds are very flexible and never break easily when pressure is applied. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Ionic compounds have higher melting and boiling points.

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:-

Ionic Compounds:-

  • The compounds which have ionic bonds between them can be said as ionic compounds.
  • Ionic compounds are mostly formed by ions.
  • Ionic compounds have high electronegativity and are more reactive.
  • An ionic bond is the strongest possible bond.
  • In ionic compounds, one ion has a partial positive and another has a partial negative charge on them.
  • Ionic compounds are polar in nature.
  • They are easily dissolved in water.
  • Due to the strength of ionic bonds, ionic compounds have high melting and boiling points.

Example:-

Question 157

An alkali is a base which is -

  1. AOption (a)

    soluble in water

  2. BOption (b)

    highly basic in pH

  3. COption (c)

    highly reactive

  4. DOption (d)

    never stable

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

soluble in water

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:-

Alkali:-  Alkali is a soluble basic salt that is mostly soluble in water.

Alkalinity:- The property which explains the capacity of water to resist acidification. 

Basicity:- The property to measure an absolute pH value of the given substance. 

Additional Information

  • Acid:- The substances which can turn blue litmus paper red. Acids are donors which give away hydrogen ions easily.
  • Base:- The substances which can turn red litmus paper blue. Bases are received which give away hydroxide ions easily.
  • Salt:-  The neutral substances which are neither acidic nor basic in nature. Mostly, they have 7 as their pH value.

Question 158

Which of the following is also known as Crooke's glass?

  1. AOption (a)

    Flint or optical glass

  2. BOption (b)

    Fibre glass

  3. COption (c)

    Hard glass

  4. DOption (d)

    Borosilicate glass

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Flint or optical glass

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:-

Crooke's Glass:-

  • Crooke's glass is made of cerium oxide which absorbs the ultraviolet rays from the sun.
  • It also has silica and some silica gels in it.
  • Mostly, Crooke's glasses are used for making sunglasses and eye-protective lenses.

Additional Information

  • Fibreglass:- They are very flexible and thus are commonly used in the making of automobile parts and also used in aerospace and defence services.
  • Hard glass:- Hard glass is used to make hard glass laboratory tools. They are also used in making cameras, spectacles, microscopes, telescopes and other optical devices.
  • Borosilicate glass:- It is mainly used to make high-quality beverage glassware.

Question 159

Which of the following is not an example of exothermic reaction?

  1. AOption (a)

    Burning of natural gas

  2. BOption (b)

     Ammonium chloride dissolves in water

  3. COption (c)

    Respiration

  4. DOption (d)

    Decomposition of vegetable matter into compost

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

 Ammonium chloride dissolves in water

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:-

  • Energy is conserved in chemical reactions. The total energy of the system is the same before and after a reaction.

Exothermic Reaction:- The chemical reaction in which a large amount of heat energy is evolved is known as an exothermic reaction. The exothermic reaction is hotter than the surroundings.

Example: 

C + O2 → CO2 + Heat

Endothermic Reaction:-  The chemical reaction which requires energy or absorbs energy to form products is called an endothermic reaction. The endothermic reaction is cooler than the surroundings.

Example:

N2 + O2 + Heat → 2NO 

Additional Information

  • Respiration:- The process of breakdown of glucose(food) in the presence or absence or lack of oxygen is called respiration.
  • Combustion:- The chemical reaction in which anything is burnt in the presence of oxygen with the help of a fuel is called combustion. The burning of natural gas is an example of combustion.
  • Decomposition:- The breakdown reaction in which a compound or substance is converted to many. Compositing is an example of a decomposition reaction.

Question 160

All metals except __________ exist as solids at room temperature.

  1. AOption (a)

    Gallium

  2. BOption (b)

    Caesium

  3. COption (c)

    Iodine

  4. DOption (d)

    Mercury

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Mercury

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:-

Metallic Properties:- 

  • Metals are good conductors of heat and electricity.
  • Metals are malleable, which means they can be easily converted into thin sheets.
  • Metals are ductile, which means they can be drawn into wires.
  • They produce a ringing sound, which is why they are called sonorous.
  • They have a very high density.
  • Metals have high melting points.
  • Metals are rigid solids.
  • Most of the metals react with oxygen to form metal oxides.
  • This is one of the reasons that metals get corroded.

Important Points

  • Gallium:-  Gallium is found in a liquid state at 2000 degrees celsius.
  • Caesium:- Caesium is a solid at room temperature.
  • Iodine:-  Iodine is a solid element found to be black in colour.
  • Mercury:- Mercury is a liquid at room temperature.

Discipline 4 (20 questions)

Question 161

If one wants to donate his/her eye, them after how much time after death, eyes should be removed from body?

  1. AOption (a)

    4-6 hrs

  2. BOption (b)

    7-8 hrs

  3. COption (c)

    6-12 hrs

  4. DOption (d)

    12-24 hrs

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

4-6 hrs

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

  • The eye tissue is surgically removed shortly after death to ensure that the tissue is in the best possible condition for transplant.
  • Only after death can eyes be donated.
  • Within 4 to 6 hours of death, the eyes must be removed.
  • Only a licenced medical professional can remove your eyes.
  • To remove the eyes, the eye bank personnel will go to the deceased's home or the hospital.
  • The removal of the eyes does not cause a delay in the funeral because the complete surgery takes approximately 20-30 minutes.
  • To rule out communicable diseases, a little amount of blood will be obtained.
  • The removal of an eye does not result in deformity.
  • Both the donor and the recipient's identities are kept private.

Question 162

Mark the correct statement regarding sex chromosomes?

  1. Women have a perfect pair of sex chromosomes, both called X
  2. Men have a mismatched pair in which one is a normal-sized X while the other is a long one called Y
  1. AOption (a)

    2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither 1 nor 2

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    1 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1 only

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

  • Each cell in the human body has 23 pairs of chromosomes, for a total of 46.
  • Twenty-two of these pairings, referred to as autosomes, are identical in males and females.
  • Males and females have different sex chromosomes, the 23rd pair.
  • Males have one X and one Y chromosome, while females have two copies of the X chromosome.
  • Men have a **mismatched set of sex chromosomes, with one being a normal-sized X and the other being a short Y, resulting in XY.**An X and a Y chromosome are found on the 23rd pair in males.
  • The 23rd pair of X chromosomes in females has two of them. Girls have a perfect sex chromosomal pair as a result.

Question 163

Movement in plants that occurs in response to light intensity is known as -

  1. AOption (a)

    Photo philia

  2. BOption (b)

    Photo motorism

  3. COption (c)

    Photo sensitivity

  4. DOption (d)

    Photonasty

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Photonasty

Why this answer is correct

Concept-

  • Nastic movement is the movement of a plant part in response to an external stimulus in which the direction of reaction is not dictated by the stimulus direction.
  • Photonasty movement is the non-directional movement of a plant part in response to light, usually in the petals of flowers.
  • Light is the stimulus in Photonasty.
  • In reaction to the strength of light, many flower petals open during the day and close at night.
  • This is an example of Photonastic movement and a growing movement in plants.
  • Dandelion flower, Moonflower, Cestrum Nocturnum flower, and more are examples.

Additional Information

  • Photophilic are plants that thrive in open areas and can't handle being in the shadow for long periods of time. Photophilic plants require a lot of sunlight or artificial light to thrive normally. This sort of plant requires more light as an adult than a younger one.
  • Extreme sensitivity to ultraviolet (UV) rays from the sun and other light sources is known as photosensitivity. When exposed to the sun for an extended period of time, the majority of people are in danger of being sunburned.

Question 164

Which of the following should not be included in Volatile organic compounds (VOCs)?

  1. AOption (a)

    Benzene

  2. BOption (b)

    Toulene

  3. COption (c)

    Glycerol

  4. DOption (d)

    Methane

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Glycerol

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:-

Volatile Organic Compounds:-

  • The chemical compounds which have high vapour pressure with low water solubility are known as volatile organic compounds.
  • ​VOCs are carbon-containing chemicals released by petrol and diesel vehicles.
  • They are extensively used in the industries.
  • Examples - trichloroethylene, chloroform and methyl-tert-butyl-ether(MTBE).
  • They have components of petroleum, paint thinners, hydraulic fluids etc.
  • Common volatile organic compounds are benzene, formaldehyde, methylene chloride, xylene, toluene, butadiene, methane etc.
  • Glycerol is not a Volatile organic compound.

So, Glycerol should not be included in Volatile organic compounds (VOCs).

Question 165

Which of the following organs if get damaged will cause visual impairment?

  1. Pupil
  2. Retina
  3. Optic nerve
  1. AOption (a)

    2 and 3 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1, 2 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1, 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

Concept-

  • Experts use the term "visual impairment" to describe any type of vision loss, whether someone can't see at all or has partial vision loss.
  • Some people are entirely blind, while others suffer from what is known as legal blindness.

Key Points

  • There is a slew of illnesses that can wreak havoc on your vision. The capacity of light to move from the eye to the brain is frequently hampered by these diseases.

  • Many of these diseases can be avoided or corrected with the help of healthcare practitioners.

  • The following are some of the conditions that can damage your vision:

  • Ageing: As you get older, your chances of developing vision problems rise.

  • Cataracts (clouding of the eye lens) and age-related macular degeneration (AMD), a condition that causes vision loss or distortion, are two common conditions.

  • Damage: A detached retina or a clouding of the cornea or lens may result after an injury.

  • This injury can cause vision loss by obstructing light from going through your eye.

  • Disorders of development:

  • Amblyopia (lazy eye) is a vision issue that occurs when one or both eyes develop improperly throughout childhood.

  • Glaucoma (increased fluid pressure in the eye) is one disease that can damage the optic nerve. As a result, the brain's ability to convert electrical signals into visuals is harmed.

  • Infections can impact your ability to see in any region of the eye.

  • Refractive errors occur when your eye does not bend light properly, causing vision issues. This problem may limit your eye's ability to concentrate, resulting in blurry vision.

  • Corrective lenses, such as glasses or contact lenses, can help you see clearly more often.

Question 166

If the tails of mice are removed by surgery in each generation, do these tailless mice have tailless progeny?

  1. AOption (a)

    Yes, there will be change in sex chromosomes

  2. BOption (b)

    No, because removal of the tail cannot change the genes of the germ cells of the mice.

  3. COption (c)

    The length of the tail reduces with each generation and eventually gets lost.

  4. DOption (d)

    Yes, because removal of the tail can change the genes of the germ cells of the mice

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

No, because removal of the tail cannot change the genes of the germ cells of the mice.

Why this answer is correct

Concept-

Acquired Traits-

  • An acquired particularity is a personality particularity that develops in a person as a result of environmental influences.
  • These characteristics aren't decoded by a living organism's DNA and therefore can not be passed down to unborn generations.

Inherited Traits-

  • An inherited particularity is one that's genetically determined. Inherited traits are passed from parent to seed according to the rules of Mendelian genetics.
  • Utmost traits aren't rigorously determined by genes, but rather are told by both genes and terrain.

Key Points

  • The descendants of mice would not be tailless because only those traits that beget changes in the inheritable law of the species or inheritable cells are passed down to unborn generations.
  • Because removing the tail with surgery causes no change in the genetics, there will be no change in the tails of posterior generations of the same mice.
  • The junking of the tail has no effect on the genes of the mice's origin cells.
  • It is a physical change that only affects the deconstruction of the body.
  • It is a learned gesture.
  • Only inheritable variations are passed down to the coming generation.
  • They are appertained to as inherited characteristics.

Question 167

Why presbyopia occurs?

  1. Due to gradual weakening of ciliary muscles
  2. Diminishing flexibility of eye lens
  1. AOption (a)

    Neither 1 nor 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Both 1 and 2

  3. COption (c)

    Only 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

Concept-

  • The gradual loss of your eye's ability to focus on nearby objects is known as presbyopia.
  • It's a normal, if sometimes vexing, part of the ageing process.
  • Presbyopia usually manifests itself in your early to mid-40s and worsens until you reach the age of 65.

Key Points

  • The lens in your eye is relatively flexible and elastic while you're young i.e ciliary muscles. With the help of a ring of tiny muscles that surrounds it, it can modify its length or shape. It becomes weak gradually.
  • Your eye's muscles can readily reshape and adapt your lens to accommodate both close and distant sights.
  • As you become older, your lens loses flexibility and stiffens. As a result, your lens loses its ability to alter shape and constricts, making it difficult to focus on close objects.
  • Your eye eventually loses its capacity to focus light directly onto your retina as your lens hardens.

Question 168

What is the temperature at which the water vapour begins to change into water drops?

  1. AOption (a)

    Freezing point

  2. BOption (b)

    Crystallisation point

  3. COption (c)

    Dew point

  4. DOption (d)

    Frost point

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Dew point

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Dew Point:

  • The minimum temperature for air to get cooled is to be saturated with water vapour at constant air pressure.
  • Dew point is an important attribute to measure the relative humidity of a region.
  • The 50s or lower values are considered to be good dew points for better weather conditions.

Additional Information

  • Freezing point:- The minimum temperature at which any liquids starts freezing or solidifying is called the freezing point.
  • Crystallization point:- The temperature at which a solid phase starts forming crystals out of the resulting mixture of the solid is called crystallization point.
  • Frost point:-  In an ice surface, the temperature at which the water vapour starts to saturate with the air.

Question 169

The ability of the eyes lens to adjust its focal length is called ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Power

  2. BOption (b)

    Refraction

  3. COption (c)

    Reflection

  4. DOption (d)

    Accommodation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Accommodation

Why this answer is correct

Concept-

The ability of the eye lens to modify its focal length is referred to as accommodation.

  • The action of ciliary muscles is responsible for the entire process.
  • The focal length of the eye lens is altered.
  • For a crisp picture of adjacent objects, the ciliary muscles strain and contract the lens, whereas, for distant objects, it relaxes and returns to its flatter shape.
  • The "dioptre" is a unit of lens power.
  • The maximum variation or change in its power for focusing on nearby as well as far things is known as power of accommodation.
  • The power accommodation for a normal individual is roughly 4 dioptres.

Additional Information

  • The reciprocal of the focal length is called power of lens. Dioptres are a unit of measurement for lens power (D). Because convergent (convex) lenses have positive focal lengths, their power values are also positive. Diverging (concave) lenses have negative focal lengths, hence their power values are negative.
  • The bending of light beams as they move through one object to another is known as refraction. Light rays are bent (refracted) by the cornea and lens to focus on the retina. When the shape of the eye changes, the way light rays bend and focus changes as well, which can result in hazy vision.
  • When a ray of light strikes a polished, smooth, or glossy item, the light from that object reflects back to our eyes, which is known as "Reflection" or "Reflection of Light."This phenomenon is what allows us to see the world through our eyes.

Question 170

Fusion of gametes is not involved in -

  1. AOption (a)

    asexual reproduction

  2. BOption (b)

    isogamy

  3. COption (c)

    amphimixis

  4. DOption (d)

    sexual reproduction

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

asexual reproduction

Why this answer is correct

Concept-

The technique of reproduction used in the creation of offspring by a single parent is asexual reproduction.

Example-

  • Binary Fission
  • Budding
  • Fragmentation
  • Vegetative Propagation
  • Sporogenesis

Key Points

  1. Asexual reproduction is a type of reproduction in which a single parent produces a new progeny.
  2. The new individuals produced are genetically and physically similar to one another, implying that they are clones of their parents.
  3. Both multicellular and unicellular species exhibit asexual reproduction.
  4. There will be no gamete fusion, and the number of chromosomes will not alter as a result of this procedure.
  5. It will inherit the same genes as the parent, with the exception of a few circumstances where a rare mutation may occur.
  6. The following are the key characteristics of asexual reproduction:
  7. There is a single parent involved.
  • There is no fertilisation of gamete formation.
  • This reproduction procedure takes place in a very short amount of time.
  • The creatures reproduce and expand at a rapid rate.
  • Genetically, the offspring are similar.

Additional Information

  • Isogamy is a type of sexual reproduction observed in most unicellular organisms that involve gametes with identical morphology (usually comparable in shape and size). Because both gametes have the same appearance, they are unable to be categorised as male or female.
  • The development of new organisms by combining the genetic information of two individuals of different sexes is known as sexual reproduction.
  • Sexual reproduction involving the fusion of two different gametes to form a zygote is termed amphimixis.

Question 171

Oxygen is found in the elemental form in the atmosphere to the extent of:

  1. AOption (a)

    33 percent

  2. BOption (b)

    80 percent

  3. COption (c)

    21 percent

  4. DOption (d)

    96 percent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

21 percent

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

  • At ordinary temperatures and pressures, elemental oxygen exists as a gas, most typically in the form of O2.
  • This vital element is a major component of cellular respiration and is required for life on this planet.
  • The majority of a living organism's mass is made up of oxygen, which is found in molecules like nucleic acids, proteins, and lipids.
  • Plants, cyanobacteria, and algae are the primary producers of O2, which keep atmospheric O2 at a constant 20.8 per cent.
  • Hyperoxia and hypoxia are the causes of O2 toxicity.
  • In hyperoxia, reactive oxygen species cause harmful consequences.

Question 172

The upward and downward growth of shoots and roots, respectively, in response to the pull of earth or gravity is known as:

  1. AOption (a)

    geotropism

  2. BOption (b)

    phototropism

  3. COption (c)

    hydrotropism

  4. DOption (d)

    chemotropism

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

geotropism

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

  • The shoots grow upwards and away from the earth, while the roots grow downwards.
  • Geotropism refers to the upward and downward growth of shoots and roots in response to the earth's gravitational pull.
  • Positive geotropism, or growth with gravity, is shown in the roots, whereas negative geotropism, or growth against gravity, is seen in the stem.
  • Because distinct portions of a plant have different purposes, they develop in separate directions.
  • The plant's roots must develop into the earth to offer support as well as access to water and nutrients.
  • The plant's stem must grow upward towards the sun in order for it to photosynthesize, or create nourishment from light.

Additional Information

  • The growth of an organism in response to light from sun is known as phototropism. Phototropism is most common in plants, but it can also be seen in other species like fungi. A hormone called auxin is found in the plant's cells that are farthest from the light and reacts when phototropism occurs.
  • Hydrotropism is a plant's response to a stimulus or gradient in water concentration that determines the direction of growth. A plant root growing in humid air bending toward a greater relative humidity level is a common example.
  • Chemotropism is defined as an organism's growth guided by chemical stimuli from outside the organism. Bacteria, plants, and fungi have all been found to have it. A chemical gradient can have a favourable or detrimental impact on an organism's growth.

Question 173

Which of the following is a fodder crop?

  1. AOption (a)

    Castor

  2. BOption (b)

    Sesame

  3. COption (c)

    Lentil

  4. DOption (d)

    Oats

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Oats

Why this answer is correct

Concept-

Fodder crops are crops grown primarily for the purpose of animal feed. Natural grasslands and pastures, whether cultivated or not, are included by extension.

Key Points

  • During the rabi season, both irrigated and rainfed conditions can be used to successfully cultivate oat (Avena sativa) for fodder.
  • Oat fodder is high in nutrients, with an average of 7.6% crude protein at 50% flowering and roughly 14.6 per cent at the very early stages of growth. Starting in January, when green fodder is limited, it may provide three cuttings under proper watered conditions.
  • Oats are a very significant cereal and fodder crop.
  • The cultivation of oats is comparable to that of wheat.
  • Temperate and subtropical regions are the best places to cultivate it.
  • It may also survive at great altitudes in the tropics. Because of their health benefits, they are extremely popular.
  • Oatmeal is a well-known food. Protein and fibre are abundant in oats.
  • They also help in building immune system.

Additional Information

  • Castor is a crop grown during the Kharif season. Its cultivation has now been expanded to the rabi and summer seasons as well, thanks to the introduction of new, early and high yielding varieties and hybrids. Castor seed is the primary source of castor oil, which has a wide range of applications.
  • Sesame, also known as Til or Gingelly, is one of the oldest crops and a significant oil-producing crop with an oil content of 40-50 per cent. As a flavouring agent, sesame seeds powder and oil are used in a variety of Indian recipes. In India, the sesame crop is grown in the summer or Kharif.
  • Lentil also gives a farm family the following advantages: increased grain and dry fodder harvest through the usage of winter fallow fields. Because lentil is a high-value cash crop, it increases family income.

Question 174

Wings of a bats are skin folds stretched mainly between elongated fingers. But the wings of birds are a feathery covering all along the arm. the designs of the two wings, their structure and components, are thus very different. They look similar because they have a common use for flying, but their origins are not common. Which type of characteristic/s is this?

  1. Homologous characteristics
  2. Analogous characteristics
  1. AOption (a)

    2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    Either 1 or 2

  3. COption (c)

    1 only

  4. DOption (d)

    Both 1 and 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

2 only

Why this answer is correct

Concept-

  • Analogous Organs are organs from different species that have a similar structure but serve the same function.
  • These organs are the result of Convergent Evolution, which means that these creatures' ancestors were not related, but they are currently evolving in the same ecological niche as the other animals.

Key Points

  • Bat wings are mostly made up of skin folds stretched between elongated fingers. Birds' wings are a feathery covering that runs the length of the arm.
  • As a result, the two wings' designs, as well as their construction and components, are vastly different. They appear to be the same because they are both used for flying, yet their origins are not the same.
  • This makes them analogous rather than homologous in nature.
  • The occurrence of equivalent organs in diverse animals demonstrates that these animals did not emerge from a common ancestor, but rather evolved to survive in the environment by adopting similar functional organs.

Additional Information

  • Homologous organs are organs that have the same anatomical structure as one another but perform different functions. The following are some examples of homologous organs:
  • Cockroach, honey bee, and butterfly mouthpart.
  • Man's forelimb, whale's forelimb, bat's forelimb, cheetah's forelimb.
  • Bougainvillea thorns and Curcurbita tendril.

Question 175

Ganga action plan was initiated to reduce:

  1. AOption (a)

    Flooding

  2. BOption (b)

    Pollution load

  3. COption (c)

    Construction of dams

  4. DOption (d)

    Oil exploration

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Pollution load

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

  • The unveiling of the Ganga Action Plan is linked to the preservation of natural resources. With Prime Minister Shri Rajeev Gandhi introducing the Ganga Action Plan, it has now been merged with the NRCP.
  • The Ganga Action Plan was launched on January 14, 1985.
  • Its principal objective was to reduce pollution and improve water quality in the Ganga River by diverting and treating residential sewage and hazardous waste from known pollution sources.
  • The Ganga Action Plan, often known as the Void, was divided into two phases: Phase I and Phase II.
  • The GAP's main goals were as follows:
  • To prevent sewage from flowing into the river by intercepting and redirecting it.
  • The implementation of sewage treatment makes things easier.
  • Offering low-cost housing to communities and individuals sanitization.
  • Afforestation. -Public awareness. -Riverfront development
  • The GAP phase-1 was revised in three states: Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, and West Bengal. Phase 2 of the GAP was merged with the National River Conservation Plan in 1996.
  • The NRCP covers 152 municipalities along 27 interstate rivers in 16 states.
  • There have been 215 pollution control measures approved.
  • Several additional plants, such as the Yamuna Action Plan (YAP), as well as GAP, have been implemented.
  • The NRCP protects a total of 33 rivers.
  • Waterborne diseases such as cholera, typhoid, and other diseases can spread through water if there isn't enough of it. The presence of toxic chemicals such as mercury, arsenic, and cadmium can induce Minamata illness, black foot disease, and itai itai.

Question 176

The roots of plants have an important role in preventing:

  1. AOption (a)

    soil erosion

  2. BOption (b)

    humidity

  3. COption (c)

    earthquake

  4. DOption (d)

    pests

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

soil erosion

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

The roots of a plant serve a variety of purposes-

  • The plant's roots hold it in place, resisting the pressures of wind, water, and mudflow.
  • The root system absorbs oxygen, water, and nutrients from the soil and transports them to the stems, leaves, and blossoms of the plant.
  • The energies created by the plant through photosynthesis are frequently stored in the roots and made available to the plant as needed.
  • Plant roots also encourage and support soil microorganisms that are beneficial to plant growth.
  • Plant roots help to avoid soil erosion, feed the growth of food and beauty, and offer us direct nutrition.
  • Carrots, turnips, beets, and a variety of other root vegetables are great examples of roots that store plant-produced energy.
  • We frequently sow crops in order to rehabilitate deficient soils in preparation for future crop production.

Question 177

Which of the following organism reproduces asexually by spore formation?

  1. Mucor
  2. Penicillium

Choose the correct code -

  1. AOption (a)

    Both 1 and 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither 1 nor 2

  3. COption (c)

    Only 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

Concept-

  • Spore Formation is an Asexual Reproduction technique. Sporangia are sacs that hold a large number of spores.
  • Sporangia produce minute single-celled, thin or thick-walled objects known as spores when they explode. They grow into a new Plant if the conditions are right.

Key Points

Spores are single-celled minute entities that can be motile in some cases but not in others.

These can be of numerous forms, such as- 

  1. Zoospores have mobility due to the presence of flagella but do not have a proper cell wall. Chlamydomonas, algae, and Albugo fungus are two examples.
  2. Aplanospore- These spores are generated from a portion of a vegetative cell and do not have motility. Haematococcus and vaucheria are two examples of lower fungus and algae.

These Aplanospores are further classified into two types:

  1. Conidia, which form at the body's tip, and aplanospores, which form at the base of the body. Conidia are formed by several conidiophores. Consider the penicillium.
  2. Oidia- These are likewise created at the body's tip but in the presence of too much food. Agaricus, for example.

Mucor reproduces asexually by producing asexual spores such as oidia, chlamydospore, and sporangiospores. In most cases, spores reproduce asexually under unfavourable environmental conditions.

Question 178

What do the plants convert the nitrates and nitrites into after they fix the atmospheric nitrogen?

  1. AOption (a)

    Urea

  2. BOption (b)

    Amino acid

  3. COption (c)

    Nitric acid

  4. DOption (d)

    Methane

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Amino acid

Why this answer is correct

Concept-

The nitrogen cycle is a biogeochemical process that converts inert nitrogen in the atmosphere into a form that can be used by living organisms.

Key Points

  • The nitrogen cycle begins with this phase.
  • Atmospheric nitrogen (N2), which is predominantly available in an inert form, is transformed to the useful form -ammonia- in this process (NH3).
  • The inert form of nitrogen gas is deposited into soils from the atmosphere and surface waters during the nitrogen fixation process, primarily by precipitation.
  • Later, the nitrogen undergoes a series of modifications that result in the separation of two nitrogen atoms, which mix with hydrogen to produce ammonia (NH4+).
  • The entire nitrogen fixation process is finished by symbiotic bacteria known as Diazotrophs.
  • Azotobacter and Rhizobium are other important players in this process.
  • The nitrogenase enzyme in these bacteria is capable of combining gaseous nitrogen with hydrogen to produce ammonia.
  • Nitrogen fixation can take place in two ways: through atmospheric fixation, which includes lightening, or through industrial fixation, which requires the production of ammonia at high temperatures and pressures.
  • Man-made operations, especially industrial ones that produce ammonia and nitrogen-rich fertilisers, can also help.

​

Question 179

Mark the incorrect statement regarding Autotrophic nutrition.

  1. Carbon and energy requirements of the autotrophic organism are fulfilled by photosynthesis
  2. It is process by which autotrophs take in substances from the outside and convert them into stored forms of energy.
  3. Substances are taken in the form of carbon dioxide and methane which is converted into fats in the presence of sunlight and chlorophyll.
  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 3 only

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 3

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only 3

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

  • Photosynthesis meets the carbon and energy requirements of autotrophic organisms. It is a process in which autotrophic organisms convert carbon dioxide and water into carbohydrates, the energy source, in the presence of sunshine and chlorophyll. They are at the very beginning of the food chain.
  • Photosynthesis is the process by which autotrophs transform inorganic chemicals found in the environment into organic molecules that can be stored as energy. Plants convert carbon dioxide and water into simple sugars, which are a source of energy, using light energy from the sun.
  • Photosynthesis is the conversion of light energy into chemical energy by green plants and other organisms. Light energy is collected and utilised by green plants during photosynthesis to convert water, carbon dioxide, and minerals into oxygen and energy-rich organic molecules.

Question 180

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

  1. AOption (a)

    Earthworms are a major contributor to formation of humus.

  2. BOption (b)

    Fertilizers and pesticides can destroy the soil structure.

  3. COption (c)

    The biodiversity in an area is determined by the equality of topsoil largely.

  4. DOption (d)

    Humus causes the soil to become less porous.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Humus causes the soil to become less porous.

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

  • Earthworms aid in the decomposition and assimilation of organic elements into the soil, which helps to build soil. Earthworms devour leaves and decaying roots that are found on or near the surface of the soil. These microbes eat organic matter and convert it to humus.
  • Pesticides can remain in the soil for years or decades after application, causing further harm to soil health. Impacts on soil organisms were found in the examined research, ranging from increased mortality to reduced reproduction, growth, cellular processes, and even reduced overall species diversity.
  • A teaspoon of topsoil typically includes up to 6 billion microorganisms and a diverse spectrum of species. Soil is home to a diverse group of organisms that interact and contribute to a number of world cycles, including the carbon and nitrogen cycles.
  • One of the most essential roles of humus is that it improves soil aeration, infiltration, and drainage by making the soil more porous. Humus may also hold the equivalent of 80 to 90% of its weight in moisture, increasing the soil's ability to survive drought.

Discipline 5 (10 questions)

Question 181

Bos Indicus is a/an-

  1. AOption (a)

    Indian cow

  2. BOption (b)

    Indian hen

  3. COption (c)

    Indian buffalo

  4. DOption (d)

    Indian honeybee

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Indian cow

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

  • The zebu (Bos indicus or Bos taurus indicus), often known as indicine cattle or humped cattle, is a domestic cattle species or subspecies native to the Indian subcontinent. Zebu has a fatty hump on their shoulders, a huge dewlap, and occasionally drooping ears.
  • They are highly adapted to high temperatures and are farmed in tropical climates as pure zebu or hybrids with taurine cattle, the other principal kind of domestic cattle.
  • Zebu is used as draught and riding animals, dairy and meat cattle, and byproducts such as hides and dung for fuel and manure.
  • Some small breeds, like miniature zebu, are kept as pets as well.
  • Zebu is utilised as draught and riding animals, dairy cattle, and byproducts like hides, dung for fuel and manure, horn for knife handles and other uses.
  • Zebu is kept as pets, mostly small zebu.
  • In 1998, India's draught cattle population was projected to be 65.7 million head.
  • Milk output in Zebu cows is often low.
  • They do not produce milk until later in life, and then only in little amounts.
  • Milk output often increases when zebus are crossed with taurine cattle.

Question 182

Which of the following has the highest percentage of fats?

  1. AOption (a)

    Egg

  2. BOption (b)

    Fish

  3. COption (c)

    Meat

  4. DOption (d)

    Milk (Cow)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Egg

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

  • Shellfish and finfish are two types of fish. The nutritional makeup of fish changes based on the season and maturity of the species. Most fish, on the other hand, include 15 to 24 per cent protein, 2.5 per cent fat, and 0.8 to 2% minerals.
  • Cow milk: The solid content of cow milk is approximately 3 to 4% fat, 4 per cent protein, and 5% lactose, however the gross chemical composition of cow milk varies depending on the breed. The fat content of Bos indicus, for example, is usually higher than that of B.
  • Eggs are a relatively low-calorie food for as many nutrients as they contain. A large egg contains only 71 calories. There are no carbohydrates or sugars, and the fat content is only 12 g (7 per cent of your daily recommended intake).
  • Meats are typically 21.10 per cent protein, 3.60 per cent fat, and 74.20 per cent water.

Question 183

Apis Florae is a type of ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Cow

  2. BOption (b)

    Bee

  3. COption (c)

    Flower

  4. DOption (d)

    Hen

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Bee

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

  • Due to its diminutive size in comparison to other honeybees, Apis Florea is known as the dwarf honey bee.
  • A worker's body length is normally 7–10 mm, and its overall colouring is red-brown.
  • A colony normally constructs a single exposed comb on tree branches or plants.
  • Honey is produced by Apis Florea, which is gathered and consumed in Thailand and Cambodia.
  • They are great pollinators, thus they play a vital ecological role in the areas where they live.
  • The basitarsus, which runs two-thirds of the length of the tibia, is a thumb-like bifurcation carried by drones.
  • Apis Florea's fimbriate lobe features three protrusions that sting with two stylet barbs.
  • The open-comb branch location is used by Apis Florea as a foraging information hub.
  • The branch platforms are used by bees to dance and communicate critical foraging information to other bees.
  • They are frequently found browsing near tiny plants and trees.
  • Pollen and nectar are their primary food sources, as well as water and protection from predators.
  • Their great degree of mobility is demonstrated by their frequent foraging and extended migration range.

Question 184

Cerocen and Agrocen are used for -

  1. AOption (a)

    increasing the soil-fertility

  2. BOption (b)

    treatment of seeds

  3. COption (c)

    growth hormones in cattle

  4. DOption (d)

    eliminating weeds

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

treatment of seeds

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

The word "seed treatment" encompasses both products and techniques. One of the following types of seed treatment can be used-

  • Seed dressing is the most prevalent seed treatment procedure. The seed is dressed with a dry formulation or a slurry or liquid formulation if it is wet treated. Dressings can be used on the farm as well as in the workplace. Pesticides can be blended with seed in low-cost earthen pots, or seed can be placed on a polythene sheet and the needed amount of chemical dusted over the seed lot and mixed mechanically by farmers. Farmers treat seeds by immersing them in chains of agrocene and cerocene.
  • Seed coating is to improve adherence to the seed, a specific binder is used with the formulation. Coatings necessitate modern treatment technologies on the part of the industry.
  • Seed pelleting is the most advanced Seed Treatment Technology, resulting in the physical shape of a seed being changed to improve palatability and handling.

Additional Information Advantages of seed treatment-

  • Protects germinating seeds and seedlings against infections and insects carried by the soil and seeds.
  • Enhancement of seed germination.
  • Early and consistent establishment and growth are essential.
  • Improves legume crop nodulation.
  • It's preferable to soil and foliar application.
  • Even in difficult conditions (low/high moisture), the crop stands uniformly.

Question 185

When boiled water is allowed to cool, heavy impurities collect at the bottom and dissolved salts form a thin layer on the surface called -

  1. AOption (a)

    Waste

  2. BOption (b)

    Impurities

  3. COption (c)

    Slug

  4. DOption (d)

    Scum

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Scum

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Scum: The dirty unwanted layer of chemicals and dust over the surface of liquids are called scum.

Additional Information

  • Waste:  Anything which is unwanted and unusable is a waste.
  • Impurities: Impurities are chemicals that may be harmful. They can be found inside substances found to be solid, liquid or gas.
  • Slug: Slug is slow-moving high viscous fluid.

Question 186

Which of the following is a Zaid crop?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tobacco

  2. BOption (b)

    Bottle gourd

  3. COption (c)

    lahi

  4. DOption (d)

    Pigeon pea

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Bottle gourd

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

  • Zaid crops are grown during the summer months.
  • They only grow for many months between the Kharif and Rabi crops, primarily from March to June.
  • These crops are primarily grown throughout the summer, during what's known as the Zaid crop season.
  • They need warm, dry conditions for the utmost of their growing span, as well as a long day duration for flowering.
  • It's necessary to work during the warm months and during the stormy season.
  • These shops also reach maturity beforehand.
  • During the summer months, between the Rabi and Kharif seasons, there's a short period known as the Zaid season. Watermelon, muskmelon, cucumber, bitter gourd vegetables, and fodder crops are among the crops grown during the Zaid season.
  • It takes roughly a time for sugarcane to mature.

Question 187

Why is dwarfness desired in cereals?

  1. AOption (a)

    Its quality is enhanced.

  2. BOption (b)

    Less nutrients are consumed.

  3. COption (c)

    It required less sunlight.

  4. DOption (d)

    These crop-varieties are very tasty.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Less nutrients are consumed.

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

  • Cereals make up a significant portion of our diet.
  • Carbohydrates included in cereals provide the majority of the body's energy requirements.
  • They are critical for us because they protect us from cancer and colour abnormalities.
  • They also help to keep blood sugar levels in check.
  • They are used to feed the domesticated animals that produce milk, eggs, and other products for mankind.
  • Aside from that, they're utilised for a variety of other things.
  • They're employed to make glucose, adhesives, and alcohols, among other things.
  • Cereals are also used to make edible oils and corn syrup. The key character that is wanted in cereals is dwarfism. This is because the plants require fewer nutrients when the yield is tiny.
  • For their growth and development, they require less energy.
  • They put their energy into producing a great quantity of grains.
  • These grains have a lot of nutrients in them. Dwarf cereal crops are preferred over tall cereal crops because they consume fewer nutrients for growth and development.
  • A large portion of the nutrients is employed to boost grain yields.
  • A tall, weak-stemmed crop will lodge more easily than a semi-dwarf variety with a stiffer straw.

Question 188

Which of the following is the practice of controlling the establishment, growth, composition, health, and quality of tree to meet diverse needs and values?

  1. AOption (a)

    Silviculture

  2. BOption (b)

    Afforestation

  3. COption (c)

    Reforestation

  4. DOption (d)

    Horticulture

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Silviculture

Why this answer is correct

Concept-

  • Silviculture is the art and science of managing forest and woodland establishment, growth, composition, health, and quality in order to meet the different demands and values of landowners and society, such as wildlife habitat, timber, water resources, restoration, and recreation, on a long-term basis.

Explanation:

  • Different forms of silvicultural treatments, including thinning, harvesting, planting, pruning, prescribed burning, and site preparation, are used to achieve this.
  • After establishment or regeneration and before final harvest, intermediate treatments (thinning) are used to improve the stand's growth, quality, vigour, and composition.
  • In order to establish a new age class of trees, regeneration treatments (harvesting) are performed to mature stands.
  • Coppice, even-aged, two-aged, and uneven-aged regeneration procedures are divided into four types.
  • A silvicultural prescription is required for all vegetation actions, including prescribed fire, wildlife habitat improvement, timber harvesting, and tree cutting in campgrounds for human safety.
  • A silvicultural prescription is a document that outlines a sequence of treatments that will transform a stand's current structure and composition into one that meets management objectives.
  • The prescription usually takes into account environmental, economic, and societal goals and limits.
  • Before a project or treatment is implemented, a certified silviculturist prepares or reviews silvicultural prescriptions for the Forest Service.

Additional Information

  • The formation of a forest or stand of trees (forestation) in an area where there was previously no tree cover is known as afforestation. Afforestation is becoming a more popular strategy for combating climate change because it is known to improve soil quality and organic carbon levels in the soil, preventing desertification.
  • The natural or planned replenishing of existing forests and woods (forestation) that have been depleted, mainly through deforestation but often after clearcutting, is known as reforestation (or reafforestation).
  • Horticulture is the practice of raising plants in gardens for the purpose of producing food and medicinal substances, as well as for aesthetic and comfort reasons.
  • Horticulturists cultivate flowers, fruits and nuts, vegetables and herbs, as well as ornamental trees and lawns, as well as ornamental trees and lawns.

Question 189

Which of the following problems arise if excessive fertilisers are used?

  1. Water pollution
  2. Destruction of soil fertility

Choose the correct code.

  1. AOption (a)

    Neither 1 nor 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 2

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Fertilizers are absorbed by plants through the soil and can enter the food chain. As a result, fertiliser pollutes the water, soil, and air.

Explanation: Too much fertilizer can be harmful. They lead to-

  • Reduce the organic matter in the soil, leading to soil acidification.
  • Deplete the soil of key minerals(decrease soil fertility), resulting in lower vitamin and mineral content in food crops.
  • Release the greenhouse gas nitrous oxide into the air.
  • As a result of heavy nitrogen fertiliser use, the amount of nitrate in drinking water(water pollution) and rivers may rise.
  • Increased availability of nutrients, notably N and P, increases the number of plants and algae in a lake, pond, or other water body.
  • Manure has enough nitrogen and phosphorus to be utilised as a fertiliser for agricultural growth, and it will have a similar impact on algae and aquatic plants.

So, both water pollution and destruction of soil fertility problems arise if excessive fertilisers are used.

Question 190

Which of the following fish varieties is not a marine fish variety?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tuna

  2. BOption (b)

    Mackerel

  3. COption (c)

    Pomphret

  4. DOption (d)

    Catla

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Catla

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

  • Catla (Labeo catla), often known as the main South Asian carp is a commercially important South Asian freshwater fish in the Cyprinidae family.
  • It is native to northern India, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Nepal, and Pakistan, but it has also been imported to other parts of South Asia and is widely farmed.
  • It is known as Bhakura in Nepal and neighbouring Indian states up to Odisha.
  • Catla is a huge, broad-headed fish with a large, protruding lower jaw and an upturned mouth.
  • On its dorsal side, it has huge grey scales, while on its belly, it has whitish scales.
  • It grows up to 182 cm (6.0 ft) in length and weighs 38.6 kg (85 lb).
  • Catla feeds on the surface and in the middle of the water column.
  • It is one of South Asia's most important aquacultured freshwater species.
  • It is raised in ponds with other carp-like fish, especially the Roho Labeo (Labeo rohita) and mrigal carp.
  • During the 2000s, reported production climbed dramatically, reaching around 2.8 million tonnes per year in 2012.

Additional Information

  • Fish that dwell in ocean water are known as saltwater fish or marine fish.
  • Fish in saltwater can swim and live alone or in a large group known as a school.
  • Aquariums with saltwater fish are quite popular for amusement.
  • Many saltwater fish are harvested for consumption or aquaculture.Ex- Tuna, Pomphret, Macakrel etc.

Teaching Methodology (10 questions)

Question 191

Which of the following types of home-assignment can be given to the students?

  1. Informational
  2. Study type

Choose the correct code.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both 1 and 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 2

  3. COption (c)

    Only 1

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

The belief that learning takes place only in the classroom is wrong because learning takes place everywhere whenever the student collects experience. 

Key Points

  • Students should be given interesting home assignments so that they will be in touch with the concept which they have learnt in the classroom.
  • The home assignments should be informational because information gathering is also one of the aspects of learning the more information they gather the more they learn.
  • So giving informational home assignments to the children increase their knowledge regarding the particular concept and make them continuous learner even in the absence of a teacher also.
  • Study-type home assignments are also equally important with informational ones because these help them to reach the next level of acquiring knowledge compared to the current level.

​Hence, it is concluded that both informational and study-type home-assignment can be given to the students.

Question 192

Which of the following sections of the Right to Education Act, 2009 provides for the Right to transfer to other school?

  1. AOption (a)

    6

  2. BOption (b)

    5

  3. COption (c)

    7

  4. DOption (d)

    8

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

5

Why this answer is correct

Section 5 -Right of transfer to other school: Where in a school, there is no provision for completion of elementary education, a child shall have a right to seek transfer to any other school. 

Key Points

Section 5 provides children the right to seek transfer from a Government or Government aided school to another such school in order to complete elementary education and for immediate issue of Transfer Certificate to a child seeking admission to another school. It provides that delay in producing Transfer Certificate shall not be a reason for denying or delaying admission to another school. This provision should lead to States instituting reform to remove procedural barriers to obtaining Transfer Certificates.

  • Where a child is required to move from one school to another, either within a State or outside, for any reason whatsoever, such child shall have a right to seek transfer to any other school.
  • For seeking admission in such other school, the Head-teacher or in-charge of the school where such child was last admitted, shall immediately issue the transfer certificate.
  • Provided that delay in producing transfer certificate shall not be a ground for either delaying or denying admission in such other school.
  • Provided further that the Head-teacher or in-charge of the school delaying issuance of transfer certificate shall be liable for disciplinary action under the service rules applicable to him or her.

Hence, it is concluded that section 5 of the Right to Education Act, 2009 provides for the Right to transfer to other school.

Additional Information

  • Section 6: The rationale of this provision is to provide all children access to elementary education. Universal access requires schooling facilities within reasonable reach of all children.
  • Section 7(1) – (5) provides for financial and other responsibilities of the Central Government and the State Governments for carrying out the provisions of the proposed Act.
  • Section 7(6) provides for the formulation of a National Curriculum Framework. The Central Government has notified the NCERT as the designated authority for this purpose.
  • Section 8 assigns duties to the appropriate Government to ensure that it provides free and compulsory elementary education to every child, in a neighborhood school.

Question 193

In which of the following stages should science be introduced as separate disciplines with emphasis on experiments/ technology and problem solving?

  1. AOption (a)

    Secondary stage

  2. BOption (b)

    Upper primary stage

  3. COption (c)

    Higher secondary stage

  4. DOption (d)

    Primary stage

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Higher secondary stage

Why this answer is correct

Science is a vast subject that involves different disciplines in it like biology, physics, and chemistry which again have many experiments and theoretical concepts in them. But at the primary level science is taught as a single subject and a single discipline and as the students don't have the cognitive maturity to understand if it is taught in different disciplines. 

Key Points

  • It is suggested to teach science subjects by differentiating is its disciplines which have experiments and problem-solving in the higher secondary stage because here the students will have the minimum cognitive maturity and ability to understand the concepts of different disciplines.
  • The students of the higher secondary stage can understand the difference between all the disciplines which are related to the same subject that is science.
  • Also, there is a less chance that students of the higher secondary stage get confused between separate disciplines as they belong to the same subject science.
  • As the cognitive ability of higher secondary students is high, they expect some challenging tasks and interesting experiments in learning which are available if science is taught as different disciplines.

​Hence, it is concluded that science should be introduced as separate disciplines with emphasis on experiments/ technology and problem-solving in higher secondary stage.

Question 194

The average nutritional intake of women in India is estimated to be -

  1. AOption (a)

    1400 calories daily

  2. BOption (b)

    1800 calories daily

  3. COption (c)

    2000 calories daily

  4. DOption (d)

    2500 calories daily

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1400 calories daily

Why this answer is correct

It is important to know what food to eat in order to stay healthy. The science of food and nutrients and their action on our health is called Nutrition. Food items, such as cereals, pulses, vegetables, milk, oil, sugar, etc., together provide these needed calories.

Key Points

  • A balanced diet is one that includes a variety of foods in adequate amounts and correct proportions to meet the day’s requirements of all essential nutrients such as proteins, carbohydrates, fats, vitamins, minerals, water, and fibre.
  • The calorie needs vary depending on age, sex, and the type of work that a person does.
  • The accepted average calorie requirement in India is 2400 calories per person per day in rural areas and 2100 calories per person per day in urban areas.
  • As the calorie intake also depends upon gender the average nutritional intake of women in India is estimated to be 1400.

Hence, it is concluded that The average nutritional intake of women in India is estimated to be 1400.

Question 195

What is the full-form of CCE?

  1. AOption (a)

    Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation

  2. BOption (b)

    Continuous and Cumulative Evaluation

  3. COption (c)

    Complete and Comprehensive Education

  4. DOption (d)

    Continuous and Cumulative Education

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation

Why this answer is correct

CCE (Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation) is a process of ensuring learning performance of students through both formative and summative evaluation in different areas such as cognitive, affective and psycho-motor to promote all round development of the students. 

Key Points

  • The term ‘continuous’ emphasizes that evaluation of identified aspects of student’s growth and development is a continuous process rather than an event, built into the total learning-teaching process and spread over the entire span of the academic session.
  • It means regularity of assessment, frequency of unit testing, diagnosis of learning gaps, use of corrective measures, retesting, and feedback of evidence to teachers and students for their self-evaluation.
  • The term ‘comprehensive’ means that this process attempts to cover both the scholastic and the co-scholastic aspects of the student’s growth and development.
  • Since abilities, interest, attitudes, and aptitudes are manifested in different forms and activities, the term implies application of variety of tools and techniques (both testing and non-testing)and aims at assessing a student’s development in areas of learning, like: Knowing, Understanding, Applying, Analysing, Evaluating, Creating, and Innovating, etc.

Hence, it is concluded that the full form of CCE is Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation.

Question 196

In which age can a child generally start to name colours?

  1. AOption (a)

    2 years

  2. BOption (b)

    7-8 years

  3. COption (c)

    4-5 years

  4. DOption (d)

    3 years

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

3 years

Why this answer is correct

Early childhood is the phase of life from birth till 8 years of age, and children develop different abilities in different ages like recognizing shapes, drawing circles, naming colors, etc. 

Key Points

  • Children in childhood generally start recognizing and naming colors between  3 years because here they get that cognitive ability to remember the color along with its name and also recognize colors.
  • A teacher needs to focus more on providing interesting and stimulating opportunities for children to learn new things, experience natural phenomena, provide ample opportunities for a variety of experiences like physical, language, social-emotional, and other learning experiences.
  • The focus is on enhancing creative expression and exploration, although these aspects are equally important in the earlier years too.
  • A child's interest in colors, music, imitation, and drama should also be taken into consideration and given importance.

Hence, it is concluded that at 3 years of age a child generally starts naming colors.

Question 197

In which of the following teaching methods the whole class is divided into different homogeneous small sections on the basis of abilities so that teacher can remove their difficulties by giving them individual guidance?

  1. AOption (a)

    Lecture method

  2. BOption (b)

    Question-answer method

  3. COption (c)

    Tutorial method

  4. DOption (d)

    Demonstration method

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Tutorial method

Why this answer is correct

The teaching method is a way to put theory into practice. It generally describes the pedagogy of children, general principles, and management strategies that are to be used through the whole teaching-learning process. 

Key Points

  • The term 'tutorial' is very often used in educational parlance, specially in the context of remedial teaching or small group teaching.
  • The purpose of the tutorial is to take stock of each student's progress, to provide remediation wherever necessary, and to provide opportunities to the students to teach their peers as well as to learn from them.
  • Its major purpose is to take stock of the progress of each student separately and, if necessary, provide remediation. The remediation provided in this manner is likely to prove more effective as it is individual-specific as well as deficiency specific.
  • A tutorial group may comprise three-four students working on similar assignments. The students making a presentation of their work shall have the advantage of obtaining feedback not only from teacher but also from peers.
  • One way of forming tutorial groups is to place the students having similar learning difficulties in curricular areas. However such groups cannot be permanent in nature.

Hence, it is concluded that in the tutorial method the whole class is divided into different homogeneous small sections on the basis of abilities so that teacher can remove their difficulties by giving them individual guidance.

Additional Information

Lecture methodThis is a traditional and teacher-centered method where the teacher will be active delivering the lecture and students passively receiving the knowledge.
Question-answer methodHere the teaching-learning process progresses in an interactive way in the form of question and answers.
Demonstration methodHere in addition to lecture the teacher also demonstrates the concept using appropriate tools.

Question 198

In which year was EDUSAT launched?

  1. AOption (a)

    2007

  2. BOption (b)

    2001

  3. COption (c)

    2000

  4. DOption (d)

    2004

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

2004

Why this answer is correct

EDUSAT is the first Indian Satellite built exclusively for serving the educational sector. It was launched in September 2004 by the ISRO. The satellite based distance education system enables virtual classrooms at rural and remote locations across the country. 

Key Points

  • It is the first Indian satellite exclusively for the educational sector.
  • Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) set up a nationwide multi-user educational network in its EDUSAT national Ku-band.
  • Currently, 25 States are covered by the footprint of EDUSAT with more than 55,000 EDUSAT classrooms.
  • It is primarily meant for providing connectivity to school, college, and higher levels of education for better academic outcomes.
  • It was the first dedicated "Educational Satellite" that provides the country with satellite-based two-way communication to the classroom for delivering educational materials.

Hence, it is concluded that EDUSAT was launched in 2004.

Question 199

Who has said, "Scientific method consists of systematic observation, classification and interpretation of data"?

  1. AOption (a)

    Jobs

  2. BOption (b)

    Koils

  3. COption (c)

    Pearson

  4. DOption (d)

    Lundberg

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Lundberg

Why this answer is correct

Scientific method is a method of solving problem scientifically. Training in the method is more important than the acquisition of information. Once the student is trained in method they will approach all the problems in the same way, even if they are put in a situation which they are quite ignorant of. 

Key Points

Many definitions were given by different persons for the scientific method:-

  • According to Lundberg “Scientific method consists of systematic observation, classification, and interpretation of data”.
  • Carl Pearson says “The scientific method is marked by the following features: Careful and accurate classification of facts, observation of their co-relation and sequence, and discovery of scientific laws with the aid of creative imagination and their self-criticism. The scientific method involves reflective thinking, and reasoning, and results from the achievement of certain abilities, skills, and attitudes. It needs continuous training.
  • To follow this method instead of giving direct answer to his question, the teacher should suggest and provide situations where the student can find out the solution by themselves to the problems.

Hence, it is concluded that the definition "Scientific method consists of systematic observation, classification and interpretation of data" was given by Lundberg.

Question 200

Who out of the following had developed the theory of trial and error learning?

  1. AOption (a)

    J. B. Watson

  2. BOption (b)

    E. C. Tolman

  3. COption (c)

    E. L. Thorndike

  4. DOption (d)

    B. F. Skinner

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

E. L. Thorndike

Why this answer is correct

The theory of trial and error learning was developed by the American psychologist E.L.Thorndike as early as 1913 through a series of experiments conducted on different animals, mostly on cats. 

Key Points

  • One of his famous experiments to illustrate the method of trial and error learning involved placing a hungry cat inside a cage and dangling a fish outside the cage.
  • The cat had to press a lever and come out from the cage to grab the fish.
  • In the initial attempts the cat made several unnecessary movements before pressing the lever of the cage.
  • In subsequent trials, the random movements were gradually reduced and finally, the cat could directly approach the lever, pressed it, and escaped the cage.

Hence, it is concluded that the theory of trial and error learning was developed by E.L Thorndike.

Additional Information

B. F. SkinnerB.F. Skinner is considered as the most influential psychologist advocating the role of operant conditioning in learning. He developed an experimental chamber (called Skinner Box) to study learning process in rats.
J. B. WatsonThe father of behaviorism J. B. Watson emphasized on objective analysis of behavior. He advocated that behavior is largely governed by the association between stimulus and response and the behavior can be shaped in the desired direction by manipulating this association.
E. C. TolmanTolman believed individuals do more than merely respond to stimuli; they act on beliefs, attitudes, changing conditions, and they strive toward goals.

200 questions in the full paper