DSSSB TGT Social Studies Female 1 Oct 2021 (Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

The logic follows here is:

When the mirror is held on the shaded line, the left side and right side changed vice-versa where the top and bottom remain the same.

Thus, the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed on the line AB:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

Additional Information

In Mirror image left side and right side changed vice-versa where top and bottom remain the same.

Reflection of an object into the water is its water image. It appears by inverting an object vertically i.e. upside down.

The water image of the figure looks like mirror image of the figure in case the mirror is horizontally at the bottom of the figure.

Water image is just a reflection where top and bottom part of the images changed where left and right side of the image remain same.

The logic follows here is:

• (LT, KU, JV)

1) (NZ, MY, LX)

2) (QW, PX, OY)

Clearly, (QW, PX, OY) follows the same logic as given in the question.

3) (SF, TE, UD)

4) (BD, AE, ZG)

Hence, the correct answer is "(QW, PX, OY)".

According to the given information:

Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the center (not necessarily in the same order).

• Two persons sit between C and D. F sits second to the left of C.

There are two possibilities:

• A sits immediate right of E.
• G sits third to the right of B.

​There are three possibilities:

Here, Case I and Case III will be eliminated as it contradicts the condition.

Therefore, the final arrangement will be:

Clearly, '1' person sit between D and G.

Hence, the correct answer is "1"

The logic follows here is:

Positional values of the letters are written.

• 'COURSES' is written as '315211819519':

Similarly,

• 'DIAGRAM' will be written as:

Hence, the correct answer is "491718113".

The logic follows here is,

1st number A 2nd number B 3^rd number = 4^th number

1st number + ( 2nd number ÷ 3rd number) = 4th number

As per the given question,

• 124 A 80 B 16 = 129

→ 124 + (80 ÷ 15) = 124 + 5 = 129 = 4^th number

• 88 A 96 B 8 = 100

​→ 88 + (96 ÷ 8) = 88 + 12 = 100 = 4th number

Similarly,

• 256 A 45 B 5 = ?

​​**→ 256 + (45 ÷ 5) = 256 + 9 = 265 = 4th number**

Hence, the correct answer is "265".

The logic follows here is:

The sum of the numbers in each row is equals to 40. 

​ROW I [6 9 15 10]

→ 6 + 9 + 15 + 10 

→ 40

​ROW II [12 4 6 18]

→ 12 + 4 + 6 + 18

→ 40

​ROW III [16 8 16 ?]

→ 16 + 8 + 16 + ? = 40

→  40 + ? = 40

→ ​? = 0​

Thus, the missing term is '0'.

Hence, the correct answer is "0".

The logic follows here is:

• BVL : EYP

Similarly,

• XCJ : AFN

Hence, the correct answer is "XCJ : AFN".

The logic follows here is:

All the words Crow, Bat, and The Pigeon are all types of birds.

Whereas,

Bat is a mammal. So, it is different from others.

Hence, the correct answer is "Bat".

Additional Information 

When the mirror is held downside or horizontally at the bottom of the figure then the reflection of the figure in the mirror appears by inverting the figure vertically i.e. upside down.

Thus the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed on the line AB is :

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Additional Information

In Mirror image left side and right side changed vice-versa where top and bottom remain same.

Reflection of an object into the water is its water image. It appears by inverting an object vertically i.e. upside down.

The water image of the figure looks like mirror image of the figure in case the mirror is horizontally at the bottom of the figure.

Water image is just a reflection where top and bottom part of the images changed where left and right side of the image remain same.

Statement:

I. All E are F.

II. Some E are P.

The least possible diagram for the given statements is as follows:

Conclusion:

I. Some F is P → True (Because 'All E are F' and 'Some E are P', so some E that are P are also F, so it is definitely true)

II. Some P is not E → False (Because 'Some E are P', so Some P is not E is possible but not definite, so it is false)

Hence, the correct answer is "Only conclusion I follows".

The logic follows here is:

Thus, the wrong term is 'AY45'.

Hence, the correct answer is "AY45".

Statement:

I. All D are G.

II. No G is F.

III. All F are C.

The least possible diagram for the given statements is as follows:

Conclusion:

I. Some C are not G → True (Because 'No G is F' and 'All F are C', so some C that are F are not G, so it is definitely true)

II. No D is F → True (Because 'All D are G' and 'No G is F', so No D is F is definitely true)

III. No D is C → False (Because there is no direct relation between D and C so it is possible but not definite, so it is false)

Hence, the correct answer is "Both conclusions I and II follow".

As per the question,

Five persons P, Q, R, S and T have different salaries.

• The salary of S is more than the salary of only two persons.

  

-----(1)

• The salary of R is more than the salary of T.
• P's salary is more than Q's salary but less than T's salary.

 

 ------(2)

On combining both (1) and (2) we get:

​Clearly, '4' people's salary is less than the salary of R.

Hence, the correct answer is "4".

The logic follows here is:

Thus, the wrong term is 'Q80'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Q80".

The logic follows here is:

The first figure is made by combining the second figure and the third figure in each row.

1) In the I row, the first figure is made by combining the second figure and the third figure.

2. In the III row, the first figure is made by combining the second figure and the third figure.

Similarly,

3. In the II row, the first figure will be made by combining the second figure and the third figure.

So, the first figure in II Row will be:

Hence, the correct answer is "option 4".

As per the given information,

The shaded by part represents 'uneducated that are not youths' = 29 + 5 = 34

Hence, the correct answer is "34".

As per the question,

A, B, C, D and E are standing in a field facing north.

• A is at a distance of 70 meters to the right of B.

• E is at a distance of 20 meters to the right of A.

• B is 100 meters to the left of D.

• C is 60 meters to the left of E.

​

Clearly, the distance between B and C is '30 meters'.

Hence, the correct answer is "30 meters".

As per the given information,

I. The total number of poets is 191.

→ The shaded part represents 'the total number of poets' 

= 51 + 41 + 71 + 28 

=191

Thus, the given statement is true.

II. The number of the car which is the rat is 41.

→ The shaded part represents 'the number of the car which is the rat'

= 41 + 8 → 49 ≠ 41

Thus, the given statement is not true.

Hence, the correct answer is "Only I".

As per the given question:

Seven games G1, G2, G3, G4, G5, G6 and G7 were played on seven different days of the same week from Monday to Sunday (not necessarily in the same order).

• G3 was played on Tuesday.
• G7 was played on Friday.

 

• Three games were played between G2 and G5.

​There are two possibilities:

 

• Two games were played between G6 and G4.
• G2 was played after G4.

 

• G6 was played after G2.

 

Here, Case II will be eliminated as it contradicts the given condition.

Therefore, the final arrangement will be:

 

 

I. No game was played between G2 and G6 → TRUE

II. G1 was played immediately before G5 → TRUE

Thus, both the given statement is true.

Hence, the correct answer is "Both I and II".

According to the given information:

One morning, a man starts walking towards the sun i.e. towards EAST. He turns to the right. He again turns to the right. He turns to the left. Finally he turns to the right.

Thus, the following diagram can be drawn,

Clearly, the man is facing 'West' direction.

Hence, the correct answer is "West".

The correct answer is Mohenjodaro.

Key Points

• In Mohenjodaro, 'Great Bath' was found.
• ​Mohenjo-Daro was discovered in 1922 by R. D. Bannerjee.
• It is situated on the bank of river Indus in Larkana district of Punjab (Pakistan).
• In Sindhi language, it means “mound of the dead”.
• Important findings are the great bath granary, bronze dancing girl, a seal of Pasupathi Mahadeva, a steatite statue of beard man, a piece of woven cotton.

Important Points

• Kalibangan ​
• It was excavated by Ghose in 1953.
• It was situated on Rajasthan on the bank of Ghaggar river.
• Important findings are fire altar, camel's bones, and wooden plough.
• Lothal
• ​It was excavated by R.Rao in 1953.
• It was situated in Gujarat on Bhogva river near Gulf of Cambay.
• Important findings are first manmade port, dockyard, rice husk, fire altars, chess playing.
• Harappa
• ​It was excavated by Daya Ram Sahni in 1921.
• It is situated on the bank of river Ravi in Montgomery district of Punjab (Pakistan).
• Important findings are sandstone statues of human anatomy, granaries, bullock carts.

The correct answer is option 2

Key Points

• Kaveri
• ​It rises on the Brahmagiri Hill of the Western Ghats in southwestern Karnataka state.
• Harangi, Hemavati, Kabini, Arkavati, Bhavani, Lakshmana Tirtha and Noyyal are the major tributaries of Kaveri River.
• The total length of Kaveri river is about 800 km.
• It flows through the states of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu, and descends the Eastern Ghats in a series of great falls.
• Godavari
• It rises from Trimbakeshwar in the Nashik district of Maharashtra.
• It is also known as the Ganga of South India.
• It is the second-longest river in India.
• It is the largest peninsular river.
• Its length is about 1500 km.
• Due to its length and the area it covers, it is also known as the ‘Dakshin Ganga’.
• Flows through the states of Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh.
• Purna, Pranhita, Indravati, and Sabari rivers are major left-bank tributaries.
• Pravara, Manjira, and Manair rivers are major right bank tributaries.

The correct answer is Only II.

Key Points

Statement 1: Water which is purified and fit for drinking is known as potable water.

• The term "potable" refers to water that is safe to drink or to use for food preparation.
• This water has been treated and purified to remove pathogens, harmful chemicals, and other contaminants that could pose health risks.
• Therefore, this statement is correct.

Statement 2: CO₂ is not a greenhouse gas.

• The greenhouse effect is the process by which radiations from the sun are absorbed by the greenhouse gases and not reflected back into space.
• This insulates the surface of the earth and prevents it from freezing.
• Due to the increased levels of greenhouse gases, the temperature of the earth has increased to a very high level due to various factors.
• This has led to several drastic effects.
• The greenhouse gases are Carbon dioxide (CO₂) methane (CH₄), Nitrous oxide (N₂O), Fluorinated gases, ozone (O₃), water vapour (H₂O).
• The main gas of greenhouse gases is carbon dioxide (CO₂).
• Carbon dioxide enters the atmosphere through burning fossil fuels (coal, natural gas, and oil), solid waste, trees, and other biological materials, and also as a result of certain chemical reactions (e.g., manufacture of cement).
• Carbon dioxide is removed from the atmosphere when it is absorbed by plants as part of the biological carbon cycle.

Additional Information

• Fluorinated gases like hydrofluorocarbons, perfluorocarbons (PFCs), sulfur hexafluoride (SF₆), and nitrogen trifluoride are synthetic, powerful greenhouse gases that are emitted from a variety of industrial processes.
• The Kyoto Protocol was an international treaty which extended the 1992 United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change that commits state parties to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, based on the scientific consensus that global warming is occurring

The correct answer is Rigveda.

Key Points

• Rigveda is the oldest Veda.
• It has 1028 hymns called ‘Suktas’.
• It is a collection of 10 books called ‘Mandalas.’
• It is the oldest form of Veda and the oldest known Vedic Sanskrit text (1800 – 1100 BCE).
• The meaning of the word ‘Rigveda’ is Praise Knowledge.
• It has 10600 verses.
• The meters used to form hymns are Gayatri, Anushtubh, Trishtubh, and Jagati.

Additional Information

• Samaveda
• It is known as the Veda of melodies and chants.
• Samaveda dates back to 1200-800 BCE.
• This Veda is related to public worship.
• There are 1549 verses (except 75 verses, all have been taken from Rigveda).
• There are two Upanishads embedded in Samaveda – Chandogya Upanishad and Kena Upanishad.
• The Samaveda is considered the root of Indian classical music and dance.
• Yajurveda
• It stands to mean ‘Worship Knowledge’.
• It dates back to 1100-800 BCE; corresponding with Samaveda.
• It compiles ritual-offering mantras/chants.
• These chants were offered by the priest alongside a person who used to perform a ritual (in most cases yajna fire.)
• It has two types – Krishna (Black/Dark) & Shukla (White/Bright).
• Atharvaveda
• The daily procedures of life are very well enumerated in this Veda.
• The Atharva Veda is the "knowledge storehouse of atharvaṇas, the procedures for everyday life".
• It has 730 hymns/suktas and 6000 mantras.
• It includes three primary Upanishads – Mundaka Upanishad, the Mandukya Upanishad, and the Prashna Upanishad

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

Key Points

• Meenakshi Amman Temple is located on the Southern Bank of the Vaigai River in the temple city of Madurai, in Tamil Nadu.
• It is also known as Meenakshi-Sundareshwara Temple.
• It was built by King Kulasekara Pandya.
• It is devoted to Thirukamottam Udaya aaludaiya nachiyar Meenakshi (the form of Parvati) and to her consort, Sundareshwar, the form of Shiva.
• The temple is in the centre of the ancient temple town of Madurai mentioned in the Tamil Sangam literature, with the temple goddess mentioned in the texts of the 6th century CE.
• It is a complex made in accordance with the Shilpa Shastra and has 5 main entrances with 14 gateway towers or 'gopurams', golden 'Vimanas', holy sanctums and shrines
• This temple belongs to the Paadal Petra Sthalam.

Additional Information

The correct answer is First amendment.

Key Points

• The Ninth Schedule to the Indian Constitution was added by the first amendment.
• The 12 schedules are as under-

The correct answer is Only II.

Key Points

• Buddha was born in the Shakya clan.
• He was born into the royal family of the Sakya clan who ruled from Kapilvastu, in Lumbini which is situated near the Indo-Nepal Border.
• He was born as Siddhartha Gautama.
• At the age of 29, Gautama left home and rejected his life of riches and embraced a lifestyle of asceticism or extreme self-discipline.
• After 49 consecutive days of meditation, Gautama attained Bodhi (enlightenment) under a pipal tree at Bodhgaya a village in Bihar.
• Buddha gave his first sermon in the village of Sarnath, near the city of Benares in UP.
• He died at the age of 80 in 483 BCE at Kushinagar, Uttar Pradesh. The event is known as Mahaparinibban or Mahaparinirvana.
• He is believed to be the eighth of the ten incarnations of Lord Vishnu (Dashavatar).
• Gautam Buddha taught that the consequences of our activities (karma); regardless of whether positive or negative; influence us in this life and eternity.
• Hence, as per Buddha, Karma has effect on our lives.

The correct answer is Viticulture.

Key Points

• Cultivation of grapes is called Viticulture.
• It is ​with a focus on growth and production.
• When the grapes are being used specifically for wine production, the study of grapes can also be called viniculture.
• Both viticulture and viniculture fall under the umbrella of horticulture.
• The most common grapevine-Vitis vinifera has been cultivated and fermented by humans since the neolithic era.

Additional Information

• Pisciculture is the artificial reproduction, rearing, and transplantation of fish. It is also known as fish farming. 
• It is the principal form of aquaculture whereas other methods can be considered as the framework of marine culture.
• In this process, the commercial production of fish in tanks or enclosures is done and pisciculture takes place typically for food.
• Various fish species like cabbage, tilapia catfish, salmon, etc. are cultured in this way.
• Sericulture
• It is the known form of reproduction and nourishment of silkworms which is done typically for the production of silk which is used in the textile manufacturing industry.
• Horticulture is a science, as well as, an art of production, utilisation and improvement of horticultural crops, such as fruits and vegetables, spices and condiments, ornamental, plantation, medicinal and aromatic plants.
• Horticultural crops require intense care in planting, carrying out intercultural operations, manipulation of growth, harvesting, packaging, marketing, storage and processing.

The correct answer is 1996.

Key Points

• In 1996, Leander Paes won the bronze medal in the Olympics.
• Leander Paes
• ​He is an Indian former professional tennis player.
• He holds the record for the most doubles wins in the Davis Cup.
• He won eight men's doubles and ten mixed doubles Grand Slam titles.
• He won a bronze medal for India in men's singles at the 1996 Atlanta Olympic Games. He competed in consecutive Olympics from 1992 to 2016.
• It made him the first Indian and the only tennis player to compete in seven Olympic Games.
• Awards won by him-
• Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna award, India's highest sporting honor, in 1996–97
• the Arjuna Award in 1990
• the Padma Shri award in 2001
• the Padma Bhushan prize in January 2014

The correct answer is Weightlifting.

Key Points

• Karnam Malleswari is an Indian weightlifter.
• Karnam has won 29 medals in international events. Her four sisters also practise weight lifting
• During her ten years career, she has won 11 gold and three silver medals besides the prestigious Olympic bronze.
• The Delhi government has appointed Olympic medallist Karnam Malleswari as the first Vice Chancellor of Delhi Sports University.
• Malleswari is the first Indian woman weightlifter to bring home an Olympic medal.
• She created history at the Sydney Olympics in 2000 by lifting 110 kilogram and 130 kilogram in the ''snatch'' and ''clean and jerk'' categories.

Additional Information

Important Indian weightlifters:

The correct answer is Punjab.

Key Points

• Tappa folk music
• It is a form of semi-classical music.
• Tappa is originated from the folk songs of the camel riders in Punjab.
• Its style of music was introduced to the imperial court of the Mughal Emperor.
• Tappe was sung by songstresses, which is known as baigees.
• It is a speciality of Gwalior Gharana.
• Tappa is believed to be originated from the musical talent of Ghulam Nabi Shori.
• The special feature of Tappa is the energetic Taan and uneven rhythmic accent.

Additional Information

• Punjab (Dec 2022)
• Capital: Chandigarh
• Chief Minister: Bhagwant Mann
• Governor: Banwarilal Purohit
• State Bird: Baaz
• State Animal: Blackbuck
• State Tree: Sheesham
• State Flower: Gladiolus
• Some of the other folk music of Punjab:
• Jugni
• Mahia
• Sadda
• Jhokan

The correct answer is NITI Aayog.

Key Points

• NITI Aayog and Piramal Foundation have launched 'Surakshit Hum Surakshit Tum Abhiyaan' in 112 aspirational districts.
• They will assist district administrations in providing home-care support to COVID-19 patients who are asymptomatic or having mild symptoms.
• It will be led by district magistrates in partnership with over 1000 local NGOs, which will enlist and train over 1 lakh volunteers.

Important Points

• NITI Aayog:
• NITI Aayog is not a constitutional body.
• It was established on January 1, 2015.
• It is formed in place of the Planning Commission.
• The ex-officio president of this is the Prime Minister.
• It is the premier policy ‘Think Tank’ of the Government of India, providing both directional and policy inputs.
• Formed On: 1 January 2015.
• Headquarters: New Delhi.
• Chairperson: Narendra Modi.

Additional Information

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is India's central bank and regulatory body and is responsible for the issue and supply of the Indian rupee and the regulation of the Indian banking system.
• It also manages the country's main payment systems and works to promote its economic development.
• Bharatiya Reserve Bank Note Mudran is one of the specialised divisions of RBI through which it mints Indian bank notes and coins.
• Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India:-
• It is a statutory body formed under an Act of Parliament, i.e., Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 1999 (IRDAI Act 1999) for overall supervision and development of the Insurance sector in India.
• The key objective includes the promotion of competition so as to enhance customer satisfaction through increased consumer choice and fair premiums while ensuring the financial security of the Insurance market.
• State Bank of India is an Indian multinational, public sector banking and financial services statutory body.
• It is headquartered in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
• SBI is the 43rd largest bank in the world and ranked 236th in the Fortune Global 500 list of the world's biggest corporations of 2019.

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh.

Key Points

• As per the census 2011, Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state in India with a population of 19.98 Crores.
• The 15th Census of India was started on 1st April 2010 with a slogan of "Our Census Our Future".
• The total population of India as per the Census 2011 is 1210.19 million.
• The Census was first started under British Viceroy Lord Mayo in 1872.

Additional Information

Key Highlights of the Census 2011:

This is correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• Kilowatt-hour (kWh) and joules (J) are units of energy.

1 kW = 1000 W

1 watt(W) = 1 J/sec

Therefore, 1 kW = 1000 J/sec

 And, 1 hour = 3600 sec

So, 1 kWh = (1000 J/sc) × 3600 sec

= 3.6 × 106 J.

• The SI unit of electric current is 'ampere'  (A) Ampere is a fundamental unit in the S.I system. The ampere is defined on the basis of the force acting between two current-carrying, parallel conductors.
• If Charge (Q) = 1 coulomb (C) , t = 1 second (s) ,  then i = 1 ampere (A) , thus

1 ampere = 1 coulomb / second

1A = 1 Cs^-1

<sup>

Additional Information</sup>

• Electric current: The flow of charge in a conductor under a potential difference maintained between the ends of the conductor constitutes an 'electric current' in the conductor. In other words, The rate of flow of charge is called 'electric current.
• Thus, if in an electric circuit, an amount of charge Q flows in t second then the electric current (I) in the circuit is given by:

I = Q/t

• We know that in metals the electric current is the flow of electrons. 1 electron carries 1.6 ×  10^-19 C of charge. Hence for 1 C of charge, 1/ (1.6 × 10^-19) = 6.25 × 10¹⁸ electrons should flow in 1 second.
• Thus 1 ampere = 6.25 × 10¹⁸ electrons per second.

The corrrect answer is Directive Principles of State Policy.

Key Points

• Part IV of the Constitution of India deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy.
• The DPSP is mentioned in Part IV of the Constitution of India (Article 36–51).
• The concept of DPSP had been taken from the Irish Constitution.
• It is non-enforceable by the court and it is non-justiciable in nature.
• Some important provisions of the DPSP are: Living Wage etc for workers (Article 43), Equal justice and free legal aid (Article 39A), Promotion of international peace and security (Article 51), uniform civil code for citizens (Article 44), protection of forests and wildlife (Article 48A) etc.

Additional Information 

The correct answer is a Combination Reaction. Explanation:

• The combustion of coal is an example of a Combination Reaction.
• A combination reaction is a reaction where two or more elements or compounds combine to form a single compound. Such reactions are represented by equations of the following form: 
• X + Y → XY.
• The combination of two or more elements to form one compound is called a combination reaction.

Additional Information 

Other types of Chemical Reactions:

• Decomposition reaction:
• The opposite of a combination reaction, a complex molecule breaks down to make simpler ones. Such reactions are represented by equations of the following form: AB → A + B.
• Precipitation reaction: 
• Two solutions of soluble salts are mixed resulting in an insoluble solid (precipitate) forming. Such reactions are represented by equations of the following form: A + Soluble salt B  → Precipitate + soluble salt C.
• Neutralization reaction: 
• An acid and a base react with each other. Generally, the product of this reaction is salt and water. Such reactions are represented by equations of the following form: Acid + Base → Salt + Water.
• Combustion reaction: 
• Oxygen combines with a compound to form carbon dioxide and water. These reactions are exothermic, meaning they give off heat. Such reactions are represented by equations of the following form: A + O2 → H2O + CO2.
• Displacement reaction: 
• One element takes place with another element in the compound. Such reactions are represented by equations of the following form: A + BC → AC + B.
• Double displacement reaction:
• Double displacement reactions occur when a part of two ionic compounds is exchanged and makes two new components.
• Double displacement reactions take place mostly in aqueous solutions wherein the ions precipitate and exchange of ions takes place.

The correct answer is Italy.

Key Points

• The first G20 Culture Ministers Meeting was held in Rome, Italy.
• This was a major two-day event that took place during the Italian G20 presidency.
• The Colosseum and Palazzo Barberini hosted the G20 Summit in Rome.
• Meenakashi Lekhi, the Minister of State for Culture of India participated in the G20 Culture Ministers’ Meeting on behalf of the Government of India.
• The main topic of discussion were:
• Protection of Cultural Heritage;
• Addressing the Climate Crisis through Culture;
• Building Capacity through Training and Education;
• Digital Transition and New Technologies for Culture;
• Culture and Creative Sectors as drivers for growth.

Additional Information

• G20 is an international forum for global economic cooperation.
• It has 20 members, and these countries are as follows-
• Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Republic of Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, Turkey, United Kingdom, United States, and the European Union.
• G20 members account for 85 per cent of the world economy, 75 per cent of global trade, and two-thirds of the world's population.
• G20 was formed in 1999 and its present chairman is Joko Widodo.
• Canadian finance minister Paul Martin was chosen as the first chairman and German finance minister Hans Eichel hosted the inaugural meeting.

The correct answer is Sun Temple, Konark.

Key Points

• Sun Temple, Konark is the reverse side of the Mahatma Gandhi (New) series of Rs 10.
• The Reserve Bank of India will shortly issue ₹ 10 denomination banknotes in the Mahatma Gandhi (New) Series, bearing signature of Dr. Urjit R. Patel, Governor, Reserve Bank of India.
• The new denomination has motif of Sun Temple, Konark on the reverse, depicting the country's cultural heritage.
• The base colour of the note is Chocolate Brown.
• The note has other designs, geometric patterns aligning with the overall colour scheme, both at the obverse and reverse.

Additional Information 

The correct answer is Personal Income - Personal Tax Payment - Non-Tax Payment

Key Points

• Personal disposable income(DPI):
• It is the amount of money that an individual or household has to spend or save after income taxes have been deducted.
• It is also known as disposable income.
• At the macro level, disposable personal income is closely monitored as one of the key economic indicators used to gauge the overall state of the economy.
• Formula:
• Personal disposable income = personal income – personal tax payment – non-tax payment

Additional Information

• Significance:
• Disposable income is the portion of income available to an income earner after all income taxes are deducted.
• It is used by analysts to measure consumer spending, payment ability, probable future savings, and the overall health of a nation’s economy.
• Disposable income can be used to determine the financial reserves of households and the money available to be spent on goods and services.

The correct answer is Neither I nor II.

Key Points

List of Padma Awardees 2021:

• Padma Vibhushan- 7
• Padma Bhushan -10
• Padma Shri Awardees -102
• Of these, 29 of the awardees are women, 16 Posthumous awardees and 1 transgender awardee

Additional Information

​Padma Awards

• The Padma Awards are one of the highest civilian honors of India announced annually on the eve of Republic Day.
• The Awards are given in three categories:
• Padma Vibhushan (for exceptional and distinguished service)
• Padma Bhushan (distinguished service of higher order) and
• Padma Shri (distinguished service)
• The award seeks to recognize achievements in all fields of activities or disciplines where an element of public service is involved.

Given:

 

Formula Used:

Expenditure = Revenue - Savings

Average = sum of observations/total number of observations

Calculation:

 

1) Average Expenditure:

Average = sum of observations/total number of observations

⇒ (100 + 100 + 250 + 600 + 450 + 150)/6 = 1650/6 = 275

The average expenditure of all the companies is 275.

2) Ratio of expenditure of company P to that of company U:

$\begin{matrix} & &Company;P & &Company;U \ \ &Expenditure\rightarrow &100 &: &150\ &\Rightarrow &2 &: &3\ \end{matrix}\\ \text{}$

The ratio of expenditure of company P to that of company U is 2 : 3.

So, Case 1 is correct but case 2 is incorrect.

Given:

Ratio of A, B, C = 5 : 4 : 3

Calculation:

Let, 

A = 5x 

B = 4x 

C = 3x

According to question,

Value of C = (A + B) - 18

⇒ 3x = (5x + 4x) - 18

⇒ 3x = 9x - 18

x = 3

∴ The value of B = 4 × 3 = 12

Given:

Radius of Cone = 28 cm

Height of cone =  14 cm

Diameter of Ball = 7 cm

Formula Used:

Volume of Cone = n × Volume of sphere

1/3πr²h = n ×  4/3πR³

Calculation:

Volume of Cone = n × Volume of sphere

1/3πr2h = n ×  4/3πR3

⇒ 1/3 × 22/7 × 28 × 28 × 14 = n × 4/3 × 22/7 × 7/2 × 7/2 × 7/2

⇒ (22 × 28 × 28 × 2) = n × (11 × 7 × 7)/3

⇒ n = (22 × 28 × 28 × 2)/(11 × 7 × 7) = 2 × 4 × 4 × 2 = 64

So, 64 solid balls can be made.

Given:

20% of the selling price of a table is equal to 1/5 of the cost price of the table.

Formula Used:

Loss% = (CP - SP)/CP × 100

Calculation:

Let, Selling Price = SP

Cost Price = CP

According to Question:-

SP × 20% = CP × 1/5

SP × 20/100 = CP × 1/5

SP × 1/5 = CP × 1/5

SP = CP 

Loss % = (SP - CP)/CP × 100 = (CP - CP)/CP × 100 = 0/CP × 100 = 0%

∴ Loss% is 0%

Given:

Selling Price = 2720 Rs.

Discount% = 15%

Formula Used:

Marked Price = Selling Price/(100 - discount) × 100 

Calculation:

Marked Price = Selling Price/(100 - discount) × 100 

⇒ 2720/(100 - 15) × 100 = 2720/85 × 100 = 2720 × 20/17

⇒ 160 × 20 = Rs 3200

∴ Marked Price is Rs 3200

35/√Given:

$\frac{(7√5+2√5)\times(5√7+2√7)}{√{140}}$

Calculation:

$\frac{(7√5+2√5)\times(5√7+2√7)}{√{140}}$

⇒ (7√5 + 2√5) × (5√7 + 2√7)/√140

⇒ √5(7 + 2) × √7 (5 + 2)/√140

⇒ 63√35/√140 = 63/√4 = 63/2

∴ $\frac{(7√5+2√5)\times(5√7+2√7)}{√{140}}$ = 63/2  is correct answer.

Shortcut Trick

Total Work = LCM(30, 48) = 240 units.

Efficiency of X = 240/30 = 8; Efficiency of Y = 240/48 = 5.

Work in 1 cycle (2 days) = 8 + 5 = 13 units.

In 18 cycles (36 days), Work = 18 × 13 = 234 units; Remaining = 240 − 234 = 6 units.

Time for remaining work (by X) = 6/8 = 3/4 days.

Total time = 36 + 3/4 = 147/4 days.

∴ The correct answer is 147/4 days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by X = 30 days

Time taken by Y = 48 days

Formula used: Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time

Combined efficiency of X + Y = 13 units/2-days

⇒ Total work to be done = 240 units

⇒ Work done in 18 cycles (36 days) = 18 × 13 = 234 units

⇒ Remaining work = 240 − 234 = 6 units

⇒ X will work on the 37th day

⇒ Time taken by X = Remaining Work ÷ Efficiency of X = 6 ÷ 8 = 3/4 day

⇒ Total time = 36 + 3/4 = 147/4 days

∴ The correct answer is 147/4 days.

Additional Information

Alternate Day Work

In alternate work, tasks are done in cycles. If A starts on day 1 and B on day 2, one cycle represents the sum of their efficiencies over 2 days.

Time and Efficiency

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken to complete a task. Total Work = Time × Efficiency.

Remaining Work Calculation

Time for remaining work = Remaining Units ÷ Efficiency of the person whose turn it is to work.

Given:

The ratio of copper and zinc in brass is 15 : 10.

Quantity of brass = 250 kg

Concept Used:

If any amount M is divided in a:b then,

I part = M × a/(a + b)

II part = M  × b/(a + b)

Calculation:

Quantity of copper in Brass :-

M × a/(a + b) = 250 × 15/(15 + 10) = 250 × 15/25 = 150 kg

∴ The quantity of copper in the brass = 150 kg.

Shortcut Trick

Assume the number is the LCM of the denominators 3 and 5, which is 15 units.

Correct Value = 15 × (3/5) = 9 units.

Incorrect Value = 15 ÷ (3/5) = 15 × (5/3) = 25 units.

Difference in units = 25 − 9 = 16 units.

Given: 16 units = 576 ⇒ 1 unit = 576 ÷ 16 = 36.

Original Number = 15 units = 15 × 36 = 540.

∴ The correct answer is 540.

Alternate Method

Given:

Multiplier factor = 3/5

Mistaken operation = Division by 3/5

Difference in result = 576

Formula Used:

Division by a fraction is equivalent to multiplication by its reciprocal. If the number is x, Error = |(x × reciprocal) − (x × factor)|.

Correct Result (3/5x)

Incorrect Result (5/3x)

Difference = 576 Total Number (x) = 540

Calculations:

⇒ Let the required number be x.

⇒ Correct result = x × (3/5) = 3x/5

⇒ Incorrect result = x ÷ (3/5) = x × (5/3) = 5x/3

⇒ According to the question: 5x/3 − 3x/5 = 576

⇒ Take LCM of 3 and 5 (which is 15): (25x − 9x) / 15 = 576

⇒ 16x / 15 = 576

⇒ 16x = 576 × 15

⇒ x = (576 × 15) ÷ 16

⇒ x = 36 × 15

⇒ x = 540

∴ The correct answer is 540.

Additional Information

Error Percentage Calculation

To find the percentage error, use the formula: Error % = (Difference / Correct Value) × 100.

Reciprocal Rule

Dividing any number by a fraction a/b is mathematically identical to multiplying that number by its reciprocal b/a.

LCM Method for Fractions

Assuming the unknown variable as the LCM of denominators avoids complex decimal or fraction calculations in competitive exams.

Given:

√0.0196

Calculation:

⇒ √0.0196 = √196 × 10^-4 

⇒ 14 × 10^-2 = 0.14

∴ √0.0196 = 0.14 is correct answer.

Formula Used:

Selling Price = Cost Price - Loss

Average = Sum of all observations/total number of observations

Calculation:

Average SP of A1, A5 and A8 = (600 + 400 + 200)/3 = 400

∴ Average selling price of A1, A5 and A8 is Rs. 400

Given:

M = 120

N = 150

Formula Used:

Less% = (N - M)/N × 100%

Calculation:

Less% = (N - M)/N × 100%

⇒ (150 - 120)/150 × 100%

⇒ 30/150 × 100%

⇒ 100/5% = 20%

Given:

Number 8686A5 is divisible by 11.

Formula Used:

Divisibility rule of 11: 

Difference of sum of odd places and even places is divisible by 11 or 0.

Calculation:

Sum of odd place digits = 8 + 8 + A = 16 + A

Sum of even place digits = 6 + 6 + 5 = 17

If we put  A = 1 in given number then difference even and odd places digit will be zero.

∴  A = 1 is correct answer.

Given:

Distance = 1152 km

Time = 16 hours

Formula Used:

Speed = Distance/time

kmph = 5/18 m/sec

Calculation:

Speed = Distance/time = 1152/16 = 72kmph

⇒ 72 × 5/18m/sec 

⇒ 4 × 5 m/sec = 20m/s

Given:

The radius of a circle is increased by 20 percent.

Formula Used:

Area of Circle = πr²

calculation:

Let Initial radius of circle = r

Increment in radius = 20%

New radius = 120r/100 = 6r/5

Initial Area = πr²

New area = π(6r/5)² = π36r²/25

% increase in area = (π36r²/25 - πr²)/πr² × 100% 

⇒ [πr²(36 - 25)/25]/πr²  × 100%  = 11/25  × 100%  = 44%

∴ Area of circle will increase 44%.

Formula Used:

Average = sum of all observation/total number of observations

Calculation:

Total Bikes manufactured = 15 + 50 + 75 + 105 + 60 + 75 +45 + 120 = 545

Total cars manufactured = 30 + 75 + 60 + 90 + 45 +120 +105 +15 = 540

⇒ T1 = Difference between total bikes and cars = 545 - 540 = 5 

T2 = Average of production of bike and car by company P

Average = sum of all observation/total number of observations = (105 + 45)/2 =150/2 = 75

T2/T1 = 75/5 = 15

∴ The value of T2/T1 is 15.

Given:

384221

Concept Used:

Unit digit of 4 

Unit digit for power of 4,

⇒ 6 if power is even and 4 if power is odd

Calculation:

Here, in 384²²¹ power is odd.

∴ The unit digit will be 4.

Given:

A certain sum of money doubles itself in 7 years 4 months at simple interest.

Formula Used;

If sum of money becomes n times of itself in T years at simpe interest, then the annual rate of interest will be R% = ( n - 1)/T × 100%

Calculation:

R% = (n - 1)/T × 100%

T = 7 + 1/3 years = 22/3

⇒ (2 -1)/(22/3) × 100% = 3/22 × 100% = 300/22% 

⇒ 13.6363% ⇒ 13.64%

∴ 13.64% is correct answer.

Given:

A boat covers 25 km in 5 hours in still water. It can cover 45 km downstream and 10 km against the stream in 15 hours.

Formula Used:

Total time taken by boat = d1/(Y + X) = d2/(Y - X)

Calculation:

Total time taken by boat = T

Distance covered in downstream (d1) = 45 km

Distance covered in upstream (d2) = 10 km

Speed of boat in still water (Y) = 25/5 = 5 kmph

Let speed of stream (X) = x kmph

Total time taken by boat =  d1/(Y + X) = d2/(Y - X)

⇒ 15 = 45/(5 + x) + 10/(5 - x)

​⇒ 3 = 9/(5 + x) + 2/(5 - x)

​⇒ 3 = [9(5 - x) + 2(5 + x)/(5 + x) (5 - x)]

​⇒ 3 = (45 - 9x + 10 + 2x)/(25 - x²)

​⇒ 75 - 3x² = (-7x + 55)

​⇒ 3x² - 7x + 55 - 75 = 0

​⇒ 3x2 - 7x - 20 = 0

​⇒ 3x2 - 12x + 5x - 20 = 0

​⇒ 3x(x - 4) + 5(x - 4) = 0

​⇒ (3x + 5)(x - 4) = 0

​⇒ x = 4, -5/3​

As speed can not be negative so x = 4 is correct.

∴ Speed of the stream is 4 kmph.

Shortcut Trick

Area = Length × Breadth

Given: Area = 6 × Length

∴ Breadth = 6 cm

Since Length is 2 cm more than Breadth, Length = 6 + 2 = 8 cm

Area = 8 × 6 = 48 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 48 cm².

Alternate Method

Given:

Area of Rectangle (A) = 6 × Length (L)

Length (L) = Width (W) + 2

Formula Used:

Area of Rectangle = Length × Width

Calculations:

⇒ L × W = 6 × L

⇒ W = 6 cm

⇒ L = W + 2 = 6 + 2 = 8 cm

⇒ Area = L × W = 8 × 6

⇒ Area = 48 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 48 cm².

Additional Information

Perimeter of Rectangle

The total boundary length is given by the formula P = 2 × (L + W).

Diagonal of Rectangle

The distance between opposite corners is d = √(L² + W²).

Square Properties

A square is a special rectangle where L = W; Area = Side² and Perimeter = 4 × Side.

The correct answer is "3".

Key Points

• The error lies in the use of "womens".
• The possessive form of "women" is "women's", so the correct sentence is "to women's careers".
• The apostrophe shows the possessive relationship between "women" and "careers".
• Thus, **"**to womens careers " has an error.

Correct Sentence: An avoidance response can do real damage to women's careers.

The correct answer is "Respect"

Key Points

• The correctly spelt word is "Respect".
• Respect is a noun that refers to a feeling of admiration or esteem for someone or something. It involves recognizing the worth or value of a person, entity, or idea and treating it accordingly**(मान सम्मान).**
• Respect can also refer to a specific instance of being honored, such as showing respect for someone's opinions or achievements. In a broader sense, respect can also refer to the idea of treating others with dignity and tolerance, regardless of differences.
• Thus, the correct spelling is "Respect"

Correct answer: Respect

The correct answer is "1"

Key Points

• The error lies in the part "The food supply chain rely"
• The subject of the sentence, "the food supply chain," is plural, so the verb "relies" should be in the third-person plural form to match.

Correct Sentence: The food supply chain relies on a complex web of interconnected infrastructure.

The correct answer is "Evadable"

Key Points

• In the above sentence we have to choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the word "Inevitable".
• Inevitable refers to something that cannot be avoided or prevented from happening. It implies that the outcome is certain and cannot be changed.(अपरिहार्य)
• For example, death is an inevitable event for all living beings. No one can escape it, and it is certain to happen at some point.
• Evadable refers to something that can be avoided, sidestepped, or escaped from. It suggests that there is a choice to be made, and the outcome is not predetermined(
  

टालने योग्य).

• For example, getting a traffic ticket can be evadable if you obey the speed limit and follow traffic laws.
• As per the above explanation, the correct answer is "Evadable".

Correct answer: Evadable

Additional Information

• Fated refers to something that is believed to be predetermined by fate, destiny, or a higher power. It suggests that the outcome is inevitable and cannot be changed by human action(भाग्य).
• For example, some people believe that their future is fated and that they cannot change the course of their lives, no matter what they do.
• Obligatory refers to something that is required or necessary, often by moral or ethical standards, social norms, or legal obligations. It suggests that there is a duty or responsibility to fulfill(अनिवार्य).
• For example, paying taxes is an obligatory responsibility for all citizens. It is required by law, and there is a moral and ethical duty to fulfill this obligation.
• Voluntary refers to something that is done by choice, without coercion or obligation. It suggests that the action is freely undertaken and that there is a choice to participate or not(स्वैच्छिक).
• For example, donating to charity is a voluntary act. No one is obligated to do so, and it is a choice that is freely made.

The correct answer is "dance than the"

Key Points

• The use of "when" is wrong in the above sentence.
• The general rule is that when using the phrase "no sooner," you should use "than" to connect the two clauses in the sentence.
• "No sooner" is used to indicate that something happened immediately after something else, so using "than" helps to emphasize the quick succession of events. This construction conveys a sense of immediacy and is often used to express surprise or amazement.

Correct Sentence: No sooner had she finished her dance than the audience clapped.

The correct answer is "superficial"

Key Points

• In the above sentence we have to choose the most appropriate word to complete the sentence.
• The most appropriate word to fill in is "superficial".
• A "superficial" business plan lacks a deep understanding, meaning that it only covers the surface level details and doesn't delve into the complexities of the business( सतही​).
• Thus, the correct answer is "superficial"

Correct Sentence: Your business plan is superficial and lacks a deep understanding.

Additional Information

• Explicit" means clear and straightforward, and does not convey the meaning of lacking a deep understanding**(स्पष्ट).**
• "Superior" means better or of higher quality, and does not accurately convey the idea that the business plan is shallow and lacks understanding(श्रेष्ठ).
• "Logical" means reasonable and based on sound reasoning, and does not accurately convey the meaning of lacking a deep understanding(तार्किक).

The correct answer is "Tomorrow"

Key Points

• The correct spelling of the word is "Tomorrow".
• Tomorrow is a noun that refers to the day after today. It is used to talk about a future time period, usually the next 24-hour day**(कल)**.
• It is often used in phrases like "see you tomorrow" or "what are you doing tomorrow?" to indicate a future event or plan.
• The word "tomorrow" is important in making plans and organizing our time, as it provides a way to describe a specific future time period.

Correct answer: Tomorrow

The correct answer is "Mankind"

Key Points

• Let's understand the meaning of the given word.
• Humanity refers to the qualities of being human, such as kindness, compassion, and empathy(मानवता).
• ]Example: "The disaster brought out the best in humanity as people from all over the world came together to help those in need."
• Mankind is a term used to refer to all of human beings collectively(मानवता).
• Example: "The advancement of science and technology has greatly improved the lives of mankind."
• Thus, as per the above explanation, the correct answer is "Mankind"

Correct answer: Mankind.

Additional Information

• The notion is a concept, idea, or belief(धारणा).
• Example: "The notion that all animals are equal is a central tenet of animal rights activism."
• Apathy is a lack of interest, enthusiasm, or concern(उदासीनता).
• Example: "The constant news of war and conflict has led to a general feeling of apathy among the population."
• Adulation is excessive admiration or praise(प्रशंसा).
• Example: "The singer received adulation from fans for their powerful performance."

The correct answer is "​PQRS".

Key Points

• The first sentence must be a general statement, a fact, and that best starts the paragaph.
• P will be the first statement because this sentence provides the context that the Mongol Empire reached its largest size at some point in its history.
• Q follows P, as this sentence further gives an estimate of the size of the Mongol Empire at its largest.
• R follows Q, as connects the Q and tells us about  the size of the Mongol Empire is significant and noteworthy.
• S follows R, as this sentence provides the historical context for the significance of the size of the Mongol Empire, namely that it is the largest contiguous land empire in world history.
• Thus, The correct arrangement of the sentence is "PQRS".

Correct arrangement:  At its peak, the Mongol Empire covered some 9 million square miles of territory, making it the largest contiguous land empire in world history.

The correct answer is "between"

Key Points

• In the above question, we have to choose the most appropriate preposition.
• The most appropriate preposition to fill in the blank is "between"
• Between" is the correct preposition to use here, as it expresses the relationship between two distinct entities, in this case plastic bag reuse and income or political leaning.
• "In" would suggest a relationship within a single entity, which is not the case here.
• "Before" and "among" are not appropriate prepositions for this context as they do not express a relationship between two things.
• Thus, the correct answer is "between"

Correct Sentence: I did not find a correlation between plastic bag reuse and income or political leaning.

The correct answer is "To have a medical operation"

Key Points

• Go under the knife is an idiom that means **"undergoing surgery or medical operation"(**एक चिकित्सा ऑपरेशन करने के लिए).
• Example: I am very afraid of going under the knife.
• Thus, the meaning that best expresses the given idiom is "To have a medical operation".

Correct answer: To have a medical operation

The correct answer is "​RQSP".

Key Points

• The first statement must be that best connects the given starting of the sentence.
• R will come next to the starting of the para as this sentence is the main idea of the paragraph and it provides the reason for the success of the Aramaic script and language.
• Q follows R, as this sentence explains the cause of the success of the Aramaic script and language, which was due to both its efficiency and the actions of the Aramaeans.
• S follows Q, as this sentence provides additional details on the actions of the Aramaeans that contributed to the success of the Aramaic script and language.
• P follows S, as this sentence provides the historical context for the success of the Aramaic script and language, specifying that it happened in the millennia preceding the Common Era.
• The correct arrangement of the sentence is "RQSP"

Correct arrangement: Never sponsored by great political power, the Aramaic script and language succeeded through inherent efficiency and because the Aramaeans were vigorous traders and extensive travelers in the millennium preceding the Common Era.

The correct answer is "To leave quickly"

Key Points

• "To beat a retreat" is an idiom meaning to retreat, withdraw, or abandon a plan or position, often in the face of opposition or difficulty(जल्दी निकल जाना).
• Example: The company decided to beat a retreat on their plans to expand into new markets due to economic uncertainties.
• Thus, the meaning of the given idiom is "To leave quickly"

Correct answer: To leave quickly

The correct answer is "Ecology"

Key Points

• Let's understand the given one words.
• Environment: Refers to the natural and man-made surroundings in which people, animals and plants live and interact(पर्यावरण).
• Example: The environment is being polluted by the release of toxic chemicals from factories.
• Ecology: The scientific study of the relationships between living organisms and their environment(पारिस्थितिकी).
• Example: The ecology of the Amazon rainforest is complex and interdependent.
• Biotech: Refers to the application of biological sciences, particularly genetics and biochemistry, to the development of technology and products(जैव प्रौद्योगिकी).
• Example: Biotech companies are working on developing new drugs and therapies to treat diseases.
• Biology: The scientific study of living organisms and their processes, including behavior, growth, reproduction, and evolution.(जीव विज्ञान)
• Example: Biology is the study of life, including the study of cells, genes, and ecosystems.
• Thus, from the above explanation it is clear that the most appropriate word for the given group of words is "Ecology".

Correct answer: Ecology

The correct answer is "Many well-known"

Key Points

• In the above sentence the use of "Much" is wrong.
• "Much" is a non-countable noun, and is not appropriate to use with countable nouns like "writers".
• "Many" is a countable noun, and is a more appropriate word to use with countable nouns like "writers".
• So, here "Many" should be used instead of "Much"

Correct Sentence: Many well-known writers in regional languages got their works translated.

 

​

The correct answer is "For setting the intellectual agenda of contemporary philosophers of education."

Key Points

• Refer to the lines: The history of philosophy of education is an important source of concerns and issues-as is the history of education itself-for setting the intellectual agenda of contemporary philosophers of education. Equally relevant is the range of contemporary approaches to the subject.
• The passage suggests the history of philosophy of education is an important source of concerns and issues for setting the intellectual agenda of contemporary philosophers of education.

Correct answer: For setting the intellectual agenda of contemporary philosophers of education

The correct answer is "​Having different faces for different approaches".

Key Points

• Let's consider the following statements from the passage. 
• ​The philosophy of education is Janus-faced, looking both inward to the parent discipline of philosophy and outward to educational practice. (In this respect it is like other areas of "applied" philosophy, such as the philosophy of law, the philosophy of science, and the philosophy of medicine, including bioethics).
• From the above statement it is clear that the phrase "janus-face" implies here is "Having different faces for different approaches"

Correct answer: Having different faces for different approaches.

The correct answer is "Only I"

Key Points

• Let's consider the following statements from the passage.
• In addressing these many issues and problems, the philosopher of education strives for conceptual clarity, argumentative rigour, and informed valuation.
• The Western philosophical tradition began in ancient Greece, and the philosophy of education began with it.
• From the above statements, it is clear that the statement I is true, as The philosophy of education began with the western philosophical tradition which began in ancient Greece. and Statement II is false as, according to the passage the philosopher of education strives for conceptual clarity.
• Thus, the correct answer is Only I.

The correct answer is "Philosophy of education"

Key Points

• The most suitable title is "Philosophy of education".
• The most appropriate title of the passage is "Philosophy of Education". This is because the main focus and content of the passage is about the concept of philosophy of education and its history, aims, and problems. The passage also briefly touches on the relationship between philosophy and education, as well as the importance of reasoning in education.

Correct answer: Philosophy of education

The correct answer is "Precision"

Key Points

• Let's understand the meaning of the given words.
• Rigour: Strictness, severity, or meticulous attention to detail(कठोरता).
• Example: "The math exam was marked with rigour to ensure accuracy."
• Precision: Exactness, accuracy, or meticulous attention to detail(शुद्धता,कठोरता).
• Example: "The surgeon performed the operation with precision."
• Thus, as per the above explanation the correct synonym of the word "Rigour" is "Precision".

Correct answer: Precision

Additional Information 

• Benign: Gentle, kind, or harmless.(सौम्य)
• Example: "The old man had a benign smile on his face."
• Laxity: Looseness, carelessness, or neglect(ढिलाई).
• Example: "The coach was concerned about the laxity in the team's defense."
• Omission: Failure to include or act on something, or leaving something out(चूक).
• Example: "The editor's job was to catch any omissions in the manuscript before publication."

अलि : आली शब्द युग्म का सही शब्द युग्म का विकल्प भौंरा : सखी होगा।

• अलि के अन्य अर्थ - भँवरा, भृंग, मिलिंद, मधुप, मधुकर, चंचरीक, शिलीमुख आदि।
• आली के अन्य अर्थ -सहेली, सहचरी, संगिनी, आली आदि।

Key Pointsअन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण -

सुषमा आकर चली गई वाक्य सरल वाक्य का सही विकल्प होगा। 

• सरल वाक्य - ऐसे वाक्य जिसमे एक क्रिया और एक ही कर्ता होता है, उसे सरल वाक्य या साधारण वाक्य कहते है।

Key Pointsअन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण -

• सुषमा आई तो वह चली गई थी - मिश्र वाक्य।
• सुषमा आई और चली गई - मिश्र वाक्य।
• जब सुषमा आई, वह चली गई - मिश्र वाक्य।

Additional Informationरचना के आधार पर वाक्य तीन प्रकार के होते है -

वाक्य मे विस्मयादिबोधक विराम चिह्न (!) का प्रयोग होगा।

• अतः वाक्य निम्न प्रकार होगा -
• अरे! भाई तुम यहाँ बैठ जाओ।
• विस्मयादिबोधक विराम चिह्न (!) - हर्ष, शोक, घृणा, भय, विस्मय आदि भावों के सूचक शब्दों या वाक्यों के अंत में इसका प्रयोग किया जाता है।

Key Pointsअन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण -

Additional Informationविराम चिह्न - विराम शब्द का शाब्दिक अर्थ होता है ठहराव।

अपनी बात कहने के लिए उसे समझाने के लिए, किसी कथन पर बल देने के लिए आश्चर्य आदि भावों की अभिव्यक्ति के लिए, कहीं कम समय के लिए तो कहीं अधिक समय के लिए ठहरने के लिए इसका प्रयोग किया जाता है। 

हिन्दी में निम्न विराम चिह्न प्रयुक्त होते है -

• अल्प विराम (,)
• अर्द्ध विराम (;)
• अपूर्ण विराम (:)
• पूर्ण विराम (।)
• प्रश्न सूचक चिह्न (?)
• सम्बोधन चिह्न (!)
• विस्मय सूचक चिह्न (!)
• अवतरण चिह्न/उद्धरण चिह्न/उपरिविराम – (i) इकहरा (‘ ’ )(ii) दुहरा (‘‘ ’’)
• योजक चिह्न/समासचिह्न (–)
• निदेशक (——-)
• विवरण चिह्न (:——)
• हंसपद/विस्मरण चिह्न (ˆ)
• संक्षेपण/लाघव चिह्न (0)
• तुल्यता सूचक/समता सूचक (=)
• कोष्ठक ( ) { } [ ]
• लोप चिह्न (…….)
• इतिश्री/समाप्ति सूचक चिह्न -(0- — —)
• विकल्प चिह्न( /)
• पुनरुक्ति चिह्न (’’ ’’)
• संकेत चिह्न(*)

वाक्य मे से परिसर्ग रिक्त स्थान की पूर्ति करेगा 

• अतः वाक्य निम्न प्रकार होगा -
• लोटा छत से गिरा।
• वाक्य मे अपादान कारक का प्रयोग हो रहा है।

Key Pointsअन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण -

निम्न शब्दों मे कारक -

• मे - अधिकरण कारक
• को - कर्म कारक
• के लिए - सम्प्रदान कारक

धन शब्द का पर्यायवाची रत्नवती नहीं है।

• रत्नवती धरती का पर्यायवाची है।
• रत्नवती के अन्य पर्यायवाची शब्द - धरा, धरती, पृथ्वी, भू, भूमि, धरणी, वसुंधरा, अचला, मही, वसुधा, ज़मीन आदि।

Key Pointsअन्य विकल्प दौलत, संपत्ति तथा सम्पदा ये सभी धन के पर्यायवाची है। 

• पर्यायवाची - पर्यायवाची शब्द दो शब्दों से मिलकर बना है – पर्याय + वाची।
• यहाँ पर पर्याय का अर्थ होता है – समान और वाची का अर्थ होता है – बोले जाने वाले।
• अर्थात् जिन शब्दों का अर्थ एक जैसा होता है, पर्यायवाची शब्द कहलाते है।

कुछ पर्यायवाची शब्दों के उदाहरण -

श्मशान शब्द शुद्ध वर्तनी शब्द का सही विकल्प है। 

• श्मशान का अर्थ - शव या मुर्दे जलाने का स्थान।

Key Points

• वर्तनी की परिभाषा -  वर्तनी का दूसरा नाम वर्ण -विन्यास भी होता है।
• सार्थक ध्वनियों का वो समूह होता है, वह शब्द कहलाता है।
• शब्द में प्रयुक्त ध्वनियों को जिस क्रम से उच्चारित किया जाता है, लिखने में भी उसी क्रम से विन्यस्त करने का नाम वर्तनी या वर्ण विन्यास है।

वाक्य मे विराम चिह्न का सही विकल्प - ? होगा।

• अतः वाक्य निम्न प्रकार से होगा -
• तुम बैठे-बैठे क्यों रो रहे हो?
• योजक चिह्न (-)  - दो शब्दों को जोड़ने के लिए इसका प्रयोग किया जाता है।
• प्रश्नवाचक चिह्न (?) - प्रश्न सूचक वाक्यों के अन्त में इसका प्रयोग किया जाता है।

Key Points अन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण -  

Additional Information

विराम चिह्न - विराम शब्द का शाब्दिक अर्थ होता है ठहराव।

अपनी बात कहने के लिए उसे समझाने के लिए, किसी कथन पर बल देने के लिए आश्चर्य आदि भावों की अभिव्यक्ति के लिए, कहीं कम समय के लिए तो कहीं अधिक समय के लिए ठहरने के लिए इसका प्रयोग किया जाता है। 

हिन्दी में निम्न विराम चिह्न प्रयुक्त होते है -

• अल्प विराम (,)
• अर्द्ध विराम (;)
• अपूर्ण विराम (:)
• पूर्ण विराम (।)
• प्रश्न सूचक चिह्न (?)
• सम्बोधन चिह्न (!)
• विस्मय सूचक चिह्न (!)
• अवतरण चिह्न/उद्धरण चिह्न/उपरिविराम – (i) इकहरा (‘ ’ )(ii) दुहरा (‘‘ ’’)
• योजक चिह्न/समासचिह्न (–)
• निदेशक (——-)
• विवरण चिह्न (:——)
• हंसपद/विस्मरण चिह्न (ˆ)
• संक्षेपण/लाघव चिह्न (0)
• तुल्यता सूचक/समता सूचक (=)
• कोष्ठक ( ) { } [ ]
• लोप चिह्न (…….)
• इतिश्री/समाप्ति सूचक चिह्न -(0- — —)
• विकल्प चिह्न( /)
• पुनरुक्ति चिह्न (’’ ’’)
• संकेत चिह्न(*)