DSSSB TGT Social Studies Female 9 Oct 2021 (Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

Statements:

I. All P are Q.

II. Some Q are T.

III. No Q is R.

Conclusions:

I. No P is R $\rightarrow$ Follows (There is no relationship between P and R.)

II. Some T are not R $\rightarrow$ Follows (There is no relationship between T and R. Because No Q is R.)

III. Some P are T  $\rightarrow$  Does not Follow (There is no relationship between P and T. Because No Q is R. Because There is also a possibility that some P are not T.)

Hence, Both conclusion I and II follows.

The code for each word is shown below:

• The code for 'I knowledge none' - ! % ₹

 

Hence, ‘! % ₹’ is the correct answer.

The shaded part represents lawyers are man.

The number representing lawyers are man = 28 + 5 = 33

Hence, ‘33’ is the correct answer.

 

Given:

 

Given: P @ Q + D $ B

1) P @ Q                   

P @ Q’ means 'P is the sister of Q''..

2) Q + D

'Q + D' means 'Q is father of D'.

3) D $ B

'D $ B' means  'A is the brother of B'.

Preparing the family tree based on the above condition- 

 so, P is aunt of B.

Hence, 'Option 2' is the correct answer.

Given:

A cube is cut into 125 equal cubes and all the faces are painted yellow.

Formula/ concept used:

The cube is cut into 125 small cubes. Here, n = 5

Number of cubes will have three faces painted = number of corners in cube

Number of cubes will have two faces painted = (n - 2) × number of edges 

Number of cubes will have one faces painted = (n - 2)²  × 6 

Number of cubes will have no faces painted = (n - 2)³

Calculation:

Number of cubes will have three faces painted = 8 (because 8 corners)

Number of cubes will have two faces painted  = (5 - 2) × 12 = 36 

Number of cubes will have one faces painted = (5 - 2)²  × 6 = 54  

Number of cubes will have no faces painted = (5 - 2)³  = 27

Hence, I and  II are true.

According to the sequence in the dictionary:

1. Satisfy 

4. Science 

3. Scissors 

2. Scream 

5. Screw.

Hence, the correct answer is "14325".

Statements:

I. Some N are V.

II. All N are B.

Venn diagram:

Conclusions:

I. All N are B.→ Does not follow → From the given statements 'Some N are V.' & 'All N are B.' which means only some N are B can be possible, therefore,  the conclusion does not follow.

II. Some B are N→ Follow → Since 'All N are B.' we can say that some B are N also possible  so the conclusion follows.

So, "Only conclusion II follows".

Decoding the information, 

 

After replacing the signs from left to right and using the BODMAS rule,

option 1: 8 B 2 D 8 C 4 = 7

= 8  -  2 ÷ 8 x 4 = 7

= 8  -  2 ÷ 8 x 4 = 7

= 8  -  2 ÷ 2 = 7

= 8  -  1 = 7

so, equation is correct.

option 2: 6 A 9 B 18 C 3 A 30 = 9

= 6 + 9 - 18 x 3 + 30 = 9

= 6 + 9 - 6 + 30 = 9

= 15 - 6 + 30 = 9

= 9 + 30 = 9

= 39 ≠ 9

so, equation is not correct.

option 3: 16 A 8 B 24 C 32 D 64 = 12

= 16 + 8 - 24 x 32 ÷ 64 = 12

= 16 + 8 - 24 x 0.5 = 12

= 16 + 8 - 12 = 12

= 24 - 12 = 12

= 12

so, equation is correct.

option 4: 18 C 18 B 18 D 18 A 18 = 341

= 18 x 18 - 18 ÷ 18 + 18 = 341

= 18 x 18 - 1 + 18 = 341

= 324 + 1 + 18 = 341

= 325 + 18 = 341

= 341 = 341

so, equation is correct.

Hence, “Option 2” is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

 

So, the wrong term is UFP.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option (1)'.

The logic followed here is:

${\sqrt{First number}}$ x ${\sqrt{Second number}}$ = Third number

Column 1 : 

= ${\sqrt{49}}$ x ${\sqrt{64}}$

= 7 x 8

= 56

Column 2 : 

= ${\sqrt{144}}$ x ${\sqrt{81}}$

= 12 x 9

= 108

Column 3 :

= ${\sqrt{256}}$ x ${\sqrt{121}}$

= 16 x 11

= 176

Hence, the correct answer is "176".

![Solved] Which letter will be 15^th to the left of 7^th from the left e](https://storage.googleapis.com/yourmocktest-papers/papers/latex/fallback/cf7e3ee0123fd1e31878ed12e67fbb13bf5a41852be7b1dafc48a587766df1e5.png)

The logic follows here is: 

 

Now checking every option one by one,

Option 1: (DW, ZQ, VK)

The logic follows here so option is correct.

Option 2: (PF, LZ, FT)

Option 3: (EX, AR, XL)

Option 4: (LQ, HK, DF)

 

Here, the logic apply only on option 1.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The Logic follows here is:

The Number of sides in each Polygon = The number of arrows in it, and all the arrows are facing in the upward direction in the given question.

So, the image in the  option 4 is similar to the given images.

Hence, the correct answer is "option 4".

Given:

A team of seven members is to be selected among ten members M1, M2, M3, M4, M5, M6, M7, M8, M9 and M10.

Solution: 

(1)  M4 and M8 cannot be selected together. 

(2) M3 and M5 cannot be selected together.

 

(3) M1 and M9 have to be selected together.

(4) M6 and M7 have to be selected together. 

(5)  M2 cannot be selected with M5 or M8. 

• It is possible Only in Case 1.

(6) arrange them in ascending order.

Hence, 'option 1' is the correct answer.

![Solved] Which letter will be 15^th to the left of 7^th from the left e](https://storage.googleapis.com/yourmocktest-papers/papers/latex/fallback/cf7e3ee0123fd1e31878ed12e67fbb13bf5a41852be7b1dafc48a587766df1e5.png)

The logic followed here is:

So, the correct answer is 'JV'.

Drawing the figure according to given information, 

• Raman walks 10 km and Karan walks 15 km.
• Raman turns to the left and walks 6 km.
• Karan also turns to the left and walks 6 km.
• Raman turns to the left and walks 8 km.
• Karan also turn to the left and walks 12 km

As per Pythagoras Theorem,

a² + b² = c²

where,

a = side of right triangle, 

b = side of right triangle,

c = hypotenuse

Therefore, c² = 12² + 5²

c² = 144 + 25

c2 = 169

c = 13

so, Karan is 13 km far now from Raman.

Hence, 'Option 1' is the correct answer.

Given:

Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F work on six different days of a same week from Sunday to Friday (not necessarily in the same order).

Solution:

(1) E works on Monday. 

(2) Three persons work between A and F.

(3) C works after D, but before F.

• It is possible only in case 1.

(4) Two persons work between B and D.

So here,

I. B works on Friday.

II. C works on Wednesday. 

Hence, 'Both I and II' are the correct answer.

The shaded part represents girls which are only cars.

 

l The number representing girls which are only cars = 43

ll The total number of books  = 21 + 33 + 45 = 99

Hence, ‘Both I and II’ is the correct answer.

Given:

Dimensions of cuboid = 2 cm × 6 cm × 8 cm

Formula used:

Volume of cuboid = l × b × h

Volume of cube = (side)3

Total number of small cubes = $Volume:of:cuboid\over Volume :of:cube$

Calculation:

Volume of cuboid = 2 × 6 × 8 = 96

Volume of cube = 2³ = 8

Total number of small cubes = ${96\over8 } = 12$

Hence, '12' is the correct answer.

Pyramid :

Cube:

Sphere:

Rhombus:

Here, Rhombus is the odd one out, as all of the others are solid 3D figures (width, height and depth), while a rhombus is a 2D figure (width and height only).

Hence, 'option 4' is the correct answer.

Given,

A boy is facing towards south. He rotates 75 degree in the anti-clockwise direction. So, we get,

Now, he rotates 145 degree in the clockwise direction. So, we get,

Now, he rotates 180 degree in the clockwise direction. So, we get,

Now, he rotates 270 degree in the anti-clockwise direction. So, we get,

Now, he rotates 135 degree in anti-clockwise direction. So, we get,

Now, he rotates 45 degree in clockwise direction. So, we get,

Now, he rotates 190 degree in the clockwise direction. So, we get finally,

So, the boy is facing South-West.

The correct answer is Only II.

Key Points

• The Bumchu festival is celebrated at Tashiding Monastery, West Sikkim on the 15^th day of the first month of the Lunar calendar corresponding to the month of February/March.
• The opening of the vessel containing the holy water is the major highlight of the festival.
• This festival is dedicated to Ganesh and Hanuman.​
• The literal meaning of Bumchu is a "sacred pot".
• Bumchu is a Buddhist festival that is celebrated at Tashiding Monastery in Sikkim.
• Each year, the vessel is opened to verify the level of water in it.
• It follows that if the water level is higher or lower then it signifies ill fortune such as droughts, diseases and natural calamities.

Additional Information

• Saga Dawa festival
• Saga means “the fourth” and Dawa refers to “month” in Tibetan.
• This festival is celebrated for whole month and is one of the most significant festivals celebrated in Tibet.
• The fifteenth day of the month is very special as Sakyamuni was born, attained Nirvana (enlightenment), stepped into Parinirvana (death).
• The main activities involve going to temples, raising a tall prayer pole called the Tarboche Prayer Flagpole, and lighting a lot of butter lamps for the occasion.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• Khadar soil is richer than Bangar as it gets renewed by new layers of soil each year during storm floods.
• Khadar soils also have lower concentrations of kankar nodules and a high concentration of finer particles hence it is also considered to be more fertile than Bangar soils.
• Alluvial soil is the most widely spread and important soil. In fact, the entire northern plains are made of alluvial soil.
• These have been deposited bv three important Himalayan river systems- **the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra.**​

​

Additional Information

• Alluvial soil
• It is exist in  the Indo-Gangetic floodplain.
• It is called khadar and is extremely fertile and uniform in texture.
• Conversely, the old alluvium on the slightly elevated terraces, termed bhangar.
• It  carries patches of alkaline efflorescences, called usar, rendering some areas infertile.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• Mahavira abandoned all worldly possessions at the age of about 30 and left home in pursuit of spiritual awakening, becoming an ascetic.
• Mahavira practiced intense meditation and severe austerities for twelve and a half years, after which he attained Kevala Jnana (omniscience).
• Bodh Gaya is understood to be the site of the enlightenment, or “great awakening” (Sanskrit, mahabodhi), of Siddhartha Gautama, the Buddha.
• It was here that Siddhartha Gautama sat in meditation under the Bodhi tree, having renounced his princely life to wander and practice asceticism.

Additional Information

• Mahavira
• He is also known as Vardhaman, was the 24^th tirthankara of Jainism.
• He was the spiritual successor of the 23^rd tirthankara Parshvanatha.
• Mahavira did not believe in any God.
• He considered it less important than the Jina (the conqueror). He opined that man himself creates his destiny.
• Siddhartha Gautama
• It was the first person to reach this state of enlightenment and was, and is still today, known as the Buddha.
• Buddhists do not believe in any kind of deity or god.
• Although there are supernatural figures who can help or hinder people on the path towards enlightenment.
• Siddhartha Gautama, the founder of Buddhism who later became known as “the Buddha,”

The correct answer is Srilanka.

Key Points

• Sri Lanka does not share land boundary with India.
• Sri Lanka is an island nation south of India in the Indian Ocean.
• The Island was formerly known as Ceylon.
• Sri Lanka shares maritime borders with Maldives and India.
• India and Sri Lanka held maritime boundary agreements in 1974 and 1976 that defined the international maritime boundary between the two states.

 Additional Information 

• Durand Line
• It is the Boundary between Afghanistan and India.
• The Durand Line was established in the year of  1893 as the international border between India and the  Afghanistan by Mortimer Durand.
• He is the British diplomat of the Indian Civil Service.
• The McMahon Line 
• India shares 3488 km of border with China .
• It  runs along the states of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Uttarakhand and Arunachal Pradesh.
• Indo- Bhutan border
• Myanmar shares a long land border of over 1600 Km with India.
• Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur and Mizoram states share their borders with Myanmar

The correct answer is Brazil.

Key Points

• Dr. Carolina Araujo has been awarded for her outstanding work in algebraic geometry.
• She is a Brazilian mathematician who specializes in algebraic geometry, including foliations, birational geometry, and fano varieties.
• She is the Vice President of the Committee for Women in Mathematics at the International Mathematical Union.
• The work area of Carolina focuses on birational geometry which aims at classifying and describing the structure of the algebraic varieties.

Additional Information

• Ramanujan prize
• The prize is awarded annually to a researcher from a developing country funded by the Department of Science and Technology in association with ICTP(International Centre for Theoretical Physics), and the International Mathematical Union (IMU).
• The candidates for Young Mathematics should be less than 45 years of age.
• The candidates must also be conducting outstanding research in a developing country.Srinivasa Ramanujan was an Indian mathematician.
• Ramanujan made great contributions in number theory, continued fractions, and infinite series, despite not having any formal education in math.
• He was a self-taught mathematician.

The correct answer is II.

Key Points

• Part-II, Article-5 to Article-11, contains provisions related to citizenship in India.
• Article-11 of constitution authorizes parliament to make any provision with respect to acquisition and termination of citizenship and all other matters related to it.
• Based on this parliament passed citizenship (acquisition and termination) act, 1955.

Additional Information

• Part III of the Constitution
• It deal with Fundamental Rights.
• These are: Right to equality, including equality before law, prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth, and equality of opportunity in matters of employment.
• Part IV of the Constitution of India
• It says that the State shall, within the limits of its economic capacity and development.
• It make effective provision for securing the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement, and in other cases of undeserved caste.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• The magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid-carrying current is the same at all points.
• It is because the magnetic field in the solenoid is constant because the lines are completely parallel to each other.
• A solenoid is a long coil of circular loops of insulated copper wire.
• Magnetic field lines are produced around the solenoid when a current is allowed to flow through it.
• The magnetic field produced by it is similar to the magnetic field of a bar magnet.

Additional Information

• ​ An electric field line
• It is defined as an imaginary line or curve drawn through a region of empty space.
• so that its tangent at any point is in the direction of the electric field vector at that point.
• Solenoid
• Field lines produced by a solenoid with that produced by a bar magnet.
• we observe that they are very much identical. Thus, a solenoid acts as a bar magnet when current is passed through it.

The correct answer is Barbora Krejcikova.

Key Points

• Barbora Krejcikova  is a Czech professional tennis player.
• She has a career-high singles ranking of world No. 2, achieved on 28 February 2022, and on 22 October 2018, she became world No. 1 in doubles.
• Winners across 15 events depart Paris triumphant, from Novak Djokovic to Barbora Krejcikova.
• World No. 1 Novak Djokovic recovers from two sets down to beat fifth seed Stefanos Tsitsipas and became the first man in the Open Era to win all four Grand Slam titles at least twice.​​
• Krejcikova started her 2023 season at 2023 Adelaide International 2.
• Having struggled with a left wrist injury since Fort Worth.
• she lost in the second round to Daria Kasatkina. She won her first tournament of the season at the 2023 Dubai Tennis Championships defeating five seeds in a row and four top-10 players

Additional Information 

• Sofia Kenin:
• ​She was the 2020 WTA Player of the Year.
• an award she earned by winning the 2020 Australian Open and finishing runner-up at the 2020 French Open**.**
• Anastasia Sergeyevna:
• ​Anastasia Sergeyevna "Nastia" Pavlyuchenkova is a Russian professional tennis player.
• A junior prodigy, Pavlyuchenkova won three Grand Slam titles and became the junior world No. 1, in January 2006, at the age of 14
• Elise Mertens:

Elise Mertens is a Belgian professional tennis player. She is a former world No. 1 in doubles.

Mertens is a three-time Grand Slam champion in doubles

.It ishaving won the 2019 US Open and 2021 Australian Open partnering Aryna Sabalenka, and the 2021 Wimbledon Championships

The correct answer is Shehnai.

Key Points

• A reed is a thin strip of material that vibrates to produce a sound on a musical instrument.
• Reeds are used in many wind instruments.
• Some of the most common are shehnai, clarinet, saxophone, oboe, and bassoon.
• In flutes, the airstream is directed against a sharp edgeButin reeds, the air column in the tube is caused to vibrate between beating parts of a multiple reed or between a beating single reed and a mouthpiece.​

Additional Information

• **Alingya **drums have the animal hide fixed to a wooden round frame and are embraced or held close to the body with one hand while the other hand is used for playing on the instrument.
• The veena, also spelled vina, comprises various  instruments from the Indian subcontinent.
• Tabla is the most famous percussion instrument of North India.

The correct answer is Banabhatta.

Key Points

• The Harshacharita (Sanskrit: हर्षचरित, Harṣacarita) (The deeds of Harsha), is the biography of Indian emperor Harsha by Banabhatta,.
• He is also known as Bana.
• He was a Sanskrit writer of seventh-century CE India.
• He was the Asthana Kavi, meaning Court Poet, of Harsha.

Additional Information

• Kalidasa:
• ​He has become the archetype for Sanskrit literary composition.
• In drama, his Abhijnanashakuntala is the most famous and is usually judged the best Indian literary effort of any period.
• Jaydev  is most known for his epic poem Gita Govinda which concentrates on Krishna's love with the gopi, Radha, in a rite of spring.
• Ashvaghosha, philosopher and poet who is considered India's greatest poet before Kalidasa (5^th century) and the father of Sanskrit drama; he popularized the style of Sanskrit poetry known as kavya.

The correct answer is Dr. Rajiv Kumar.

Key Points

• The Planning Commission which has a legacy of 65 years has been replaced by the NITI Aayog.
• The utility and significance of the Planning Commission had been questioned for a longer period.
• The replacement seems to be more relevant and responsive to the present economic needs and scenario in the country.
• Dr. Rajiv Kumar (September 2017 – present) is the current Vice Chairman of the NITI Aayog.

Additional Information

• Vinod Kumar Paul is an Indian pediatrician and physician scientist currently serving as Member, NITI Aayog.
• Vijay Kumar Saraswat is an Indian scientist who formerly served as the Director General of the Defence Research and Development Organisation and the Chief Scientific Advisor to the Indian Minister of Defence.
• Raja Rao Inderjit Singh Yadav is an Scion of erstwhile state of Rewari Indian politician and a Minister of State in the Government of India.

The correct answer is 4.

Key Points

• A polo team is comprised of four players.
• The object of the game is to move the polo ball down the field, hitting the ball through the goal posts to score.
• The teams then change direction after each goal to compensate for field and wind conditions.
• Polo is a ball game played on horseback, a traditional field sport and one of the world's oldest known team sports.
• The game is played by two opposing teams with the objective of scoring using a long-handled wooden mallet to hit a small hard ball through the opposing team's goal.

Additional Information

• Polo was first played in England by the 10^th Hussars in 1869.
• The British are credited with spreading polo worldwide in the late 19^th century and the early 20^th century at the height of its empire.
• Military officers imported the game to Britain in the 1860s.

The correct answer is Oligopoly.

Key Points

• Oligopoly is a market structure with a small number of firms, none of which can keep the others from having a significant influence.
• A monopoly is one firm, the duopoly is two firms and oligopoly is two or more firms.
• There is no precise upper limit to the number of firms in an oligopoly, but the number must be low enough that the actions of one firm significantly influence the others.
• Throughout history, there have been oligopolies in many different industries, including steel manufacturing, oil, railroads, tire manufacturing, grocery store chains, and wireless carriers.
• Raised barriers to entry, price-making power, non-price competition, the interdependence of firms, and product differentiation are all oligopoly characteristics.

Additional Information

• Monopolistic competition exists when many companies offer competing products or services that are similar, but not perfect, substitutes.
• Monopsony: In economics, a monopsony is a market structure in which a single buyer substantially controls the market as the major purchaser of goods and services offered by many would-be sellers.
• A monopoly is a market structure where a single seller or producer assumes a dominant position in an industry or a sector.

The correct answer is Only I.

Key Points

• CPI measures changes in the price level of a weighted average market basket of consumer goods and services purchased by households.
• Households also consume imported goods.
• The Bureau of Labor Statistics samples 80,000 prices monthly to calculate the CPI, weighing the index for each product or service in proportion to its share of recent consumer spending to calculate the overall change in prices.
• The annual change in the CPI was 6.4% for the 12-month period ending January 2023. This was a 0.5% increase from the previous month.

Additional Information

• The CPI measures the rate of inflation, which is one of the greatest threats to a healthy economy.
• Inflation eats away at your standard of living if your income doesn't keep pace with rising prices—your cost of living increases over time.
• A high inflation rate can hurt the economy.

The correct answer is 1867.

Key Points

• The Prarthana Samaj was founded in 1867.
• It was founded by Atmaram Pandurang.
• Prarthana Samaj played a very important role in the Maharashtra renaissance.
• It focused on religious and social reform in Maharashtra.
• The mouthpiece called 'Subodh-Patrika' was run by the Prarthana Samaj.
• Veeresalingam Pantulu was the Telugu reformer who encouraged the Prarthana Samaj in South India.

Additional Information

• The two main planks of the Samaj were worship and social reforms.

(I) Ranade was a revivalist, who pointed that most of the prevailing evil customs ran counter to the practices observed in earlier times.

(II) Ranade also launched a Purity Movement comprising anti-dancing and temperance agitation, admission of converts from other faiths and reduction in extravagant marriage expenses.

The correct answer is 42^nd Amendment Act.

Key Points

• 42^nd Constitutional Amendment Act added the Fundamental duties in the constitution.
• 42^nd Constitutional Amendment Act came in 1976 and it added 10 Fundamental duties in the constitution.
• The Fundamental Duties were recommended by the Swaran Singh committee in the year 1976.
• The 42^nd amendment act is also known as the “Mini-Constitution” because of the enormous number of amendments it has made to the Indian Constitution.
• It attempted to alter the basic structure of the Indian Constitution.
• The 42^nd Amendment Act 1976 is a contentious constitutional amendment because it attempted to limit Supreme Court's and the High Court's power while curtailing several other socio-political rights.
• It also tried to transfer more power to the central government.

Additional Information

• 56^th Amendment Act of the Indian Constitution-

According to an Indian government proposal, the areas included in the Union territory of Goa, Daman, and Diu's .Goa District would become the State of  Goa. The areas included in the Daman and Diu districts would become the new Union territory of Daman and Diu.

• 78^th amendment of the constitution

​  It is about the inclusion of land laws of certain states in the ninth schedule of the Indian constitution in order to escape from being sued in the court of law.

• (73^rd Amendment) Act

  It was passed in 1992 and it came into effect on 24 April 1993. The Act empowered state governments to take the necessary steps that would lead to the formalisation of the gram panchayats and help them operate as units of self-governance.

The correct answer is Cholera.

Key Points

• Cholera spreads through water.
• The bacterium that causes cholera spreads from one person to another if the water has been contaminated by the faeces of an infected person.
• It is commonly encountered in poor countries or calamity and war-torn areas.
• Cholera is a bacterial disease usually spread through contaminated water.
• Cholera causes severe diarrhea and dehydration.
• Left untreated, cholera can be fatal within hours, even in previously healthy people.

Additional Information

• Tuberculosis
• ​ It is spread through the air from one person to another.
• TB germs are passed through the air when someone who is sick with TB disease of the lungs or throat coughs, speaks, laughs, sings, or sneezes.
• Pneumonia
• It is contagious, meaning it spreads from person to person.
• Pneumonia is mostly spread when people infected cough, sneeze or talk, sending respiratory droplets into the air.
• Common Cold
• A cold virus enters your body through your mouth, eyes or nose.
• The virus can spread through droplets in the air when someone who is sick coughs, sneezes or talks.

The correct answer is India.

Key Points

• The leading world jute production countries are India, Bangladesh, China, and Thailand.
• India is the world's largest producer of raw jute and iute goods.
• It is contributing to over 50 percent and 40 percent respectively of global production.
• For the successful cultivation of jute temperature 25^o C and relative humidity of 70 % to 90 % are favorable.
• West Bengal in India is the largest producer of Jute in India followed Bihar, Assam, Orissa, Andhra Pradesh, Tripura, and Meghalaya.

Additional Information

• The suitable climate for growing jute is a warm and wet climate.
• It is offered by the monsoon climate during the fall season, immediately followed by summer.
• Temperatures ranging to more than25 °C and relative humidity of 70%–90% are favorable for successful cultivation.
• Jute fibers accounted for 37 billion Indian rupees in the Indian economy in fiscal year 2020.
• This variety of fibers made up nearly five percent of the sector that year.

The correct answer is Ministry of AYUSH.

Key Points

• 'Namaste Yoga', a mobile application was launched on 11 June 2021 in the curtain-raiser event for the 7 th International Day of Yoga.
• The event was organised by the Ministry of Ayush in association with the Morarji Desai National Institute of Yoga.
• The app aims to raise awareness about yoga and make it accessible to the larger community.
• The Ministry of Ayush was formed on the 9 ^th of November 2014 with a vision of reviving the profound knowledge of our ancient systems of medicine and ensuring the optimal development and propagation of the Ayush systems of healthcare.
• AYUSH is an acronym for Ayurveda, Yoga and Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha and Homeopathy.

Additional Information

• Ministry of Civil Aviation:
• Ministry of civil aviation in India is the nodal ministry responsible for the formulation of national policies and programmes for the development and regulation of civil aviation.
• Ministry of Health and Family welfare:
• ​The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare is an Indian government ministry charged with health policy in India. It is also responsible for all government programs relating to family planning in India.
• Ministry of women and child development
• ​​The Ministry of Women and Child Development, a branch of the Government of India, is an apex body for formulation and administration of the rules and regulations and laws relating to women and child development in India.

The correct answer is Zn>Pb>Cu>Ag.

Key Points

• A series in which metals are arranged in the decreasing order of their reactivity is called reactivity series.
• The reactivity of metal depends upon their ability to form a cation.
• So, metal has a more electropositive nature and also more reactivity..
• In the periodic table, moving from left to right the reactivity of the element decreases, and moving from top to bottom reactivity increases.
• 

Additional Information

• The reactivity series of metals depends on the reactivity of metals which is dependent on the atomic radius, nuclear charge, sublevel electrons arrangement and shielding effect.
• Metals tend to readily lose electrons and form cations.
• Most of them react with atmospheric oxygen to form metal oxides. However, different metals have different reactivities towards oxygen (unreactive metals such as gold and platinum do not readily form oxides when exposed to air).

Given:

The diameter of a circle is 70 cm.

Concept:

The area of a circle with a radius r unit is $\pi r^2$ square unit.

Diameter = 2[Radius]

Solution:

The diameter is given as 70 cm.

Radius = 35 cm

The area of the circle with a radius 35 cm will be,

$\pi r^2 = \frac{22}{7} \times 35 \times35=110 \times 35=3850 \ cm^2$

Hence, option 4 is correct.

Shortcut Trick

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Required Time = (K ÷ 4) ÷ Speed_before = K ÷ (4 × 34)

We know K = Speed_after × Time_after = 68 × 8 = 544

Required Time = 544 ÷ 136

Required Time = 4

∴ The correct answer is 4 hours.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed of the bus after repairing = 68 km/hr

Time taken after repairing = 8 hours

Speed of the bus before repairing = 34 km/hr

Formula Used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

After Repair: Distance = K Speed = 68 km/hr | Time = 8 hours

Distance = K/4 Speed = 34 km/hr | Time = ?

Calculations:

⇒ Distance covered after repairing (K) = Speed × Time

⇒ K = 68 × 8 = 544 km

⇒ Distance to be covered before repairing = K ÷ 4

⇒ Distance before repairing = 544 ÷ 4 = 136 km

⇒ Time taken before repairing = Distance ÷ Speed

⇒ Time taken = 136 ÷ 34

⇒ Time taken = 4 hours

∴ The correct answer is 4 hours.

Additional Information

Proportionality in Speed and Distance

When distance is constant, Speed is inversely proportional to Time (S ∝ 1 ÷ T). When time is constant, Distance is directly proportional to Speed (D ∝ S).

Average Speed

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time. If equal distances are covered at speeds S₁ and S₂, Average Speed = (2 × S₁ × S₂) ÷ (S₁ + S₂).

Relative Speed

For two bodies moving in opposite directions, Relative Speed = S₁ + S₂. For bodies moving in the same direction, Relative Speed = S₁ − S₂.

Given:

If 37 is subtracted from 38 percent of a number, then the result is 153.

Solution:

As per the question, 

Let us assume the number is X.

38% of X will be $\frac{38}{100}\times X$

37 is subtracted from 38% of X, 

$\frac{38}{100}\times X-37=153$

$\frac{38}{100}\times X=153+37=190$

$X=500$

Hence, option 3 is correct.

Given:

The table given below shows the number of workers in six different companies for 3 years.

 

Concept:

The average of any given data is $\frac{\text {Sum of the data}}{\text {Number of the data}}$

Solution:

As per the statement - I

The average number of workers in company A for three years is 170.

The number of workers in Y1, Y2, and Y3 is 90, 120, and 300 respectively.

The average of the workers will be,

 $\frac{\text {Sum of the data}}{\text {Number of the data}}= \frac{90+120+300}{3}=\frac{510}{3}=170$

Statement - I is correct.

As per statement - II

The sum of the number of workers in company D for all three years is 1290.

The number of workers in Y1, Y2, and Y3 is 270, 400, and 520 respectively.

The sum of the workers will be 270 + 400 + 520 = 1190

Statement - II is incorrect.

Hence, option 3 is correct.

Given:

The bar graph given below shows the number of boys and girls in five different states.

Concept:

The ratio of X and Y is X : Y or $\frac{X}{Y}$

Solution:

As per the data given in the graph.

The number of boys and girls in state N is 500 and 700 respectively.

The ratio of the number of boys and girls in state N will 500 : 700 = 5 : 7

Hence, option 4 is correct.

Shortcut Trick

Take the square root of each decimal term directly:

⇒ Numerator roots: √0.81 = 0.9, √4.84 = 2.2

⇒ Denominator roots: √6.25 = 2.5, √0.0064 = 0.08, √0.09 = 0.3

⇒ Expression = (0.9 × 2.2) ÷ (2.5 × 0.08 × 0.3)

⇒ Expression = 1.98 ÷ 0.06 = 33

∴ The correct answer is 33.

Alternate Method

Given:

[(0.81 × 4.84) ÷ (6.25 × 0.0064 × 0.09)]^1/2

Calculation:

⇒ The total number of decimal places in the numerator is 2 + 2 = 4.

⇒ The total number of decimal places in the denominator is 2 + 4 + 2 = 8.

⇒ Multiply the numerator and the denominator by 10⁸ to remove decimals.

⇒ Numerator = 81 × 484 × 10000

⇒ Denominator = 625 × 64 × 9

⇒ Expression = [(81 × 484 × 10000) ÷ (625 × 64 × 9)]^1/2

⇒ Applying the square root to each term:

⇒ = (√81 × √484 × √10000) ÷ (√625 × √64 × √9)

⇒ = (9 × 22 × 100) ÷ (25 × 8 × 3)

⇒ = (198 × 100) ÷ 600

⇒ = 19800 ÷ 600

⇒ = 33

∴ The correct answer is 33.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

BODMAS stands for Brackets, Orders (powers and roots), Division, Multiplication, Addition, and Subtraction. It dictates the correct order of operations to solve any mathematical expression.

Indices and Roots Rules

When taking the root of a product or fraction, the root can be distributed over multiplication and division: √(a × b) = √a × √b and √(a ÷ b) = √a ÷ √b.

Decimal Shift Rule

To convert decimals to integers in a fraction, count the maximum decimal places in the numerator or denominator and multiply both by 10ⁿ, where n is that maximum number.

Given:

The line chart given below shows the production of trucks by two companies in six different years.

Concept:

The ratio of the value X to the value Y is $\frac{X}{Y} \ or \ X:Y$

The value of a% of a number N is $\frac{a}{100} \times N$

Solution:

As per the data provided above,

Statement - I,

The ratio of the production of trucks by company L in year Y1 to the production of trucks by company M in year Y3 is 1 ∶ 8.

The production of trucks by company L in year Y1 is 10.

The production of trucks by company M in year Y3 is 80.

The ratio will 10 : 80 = 1 : 8

Therefore, statement - I is correct.

Statement - II,

The number of trucks produced by company L in year Y6 is 25 percent of the number of trucks produced by company M in year Y1.

The number of trucks produced by company L in year Y6 is 50.

The number of trucks produced by company M in year Y1 is 20.

50 is greater than 20.

Since a larger value can be more than 100% of a smaller value.

Therefore, statement - II is incorrect.

Hence, option 2 is correct.

Given:

I. Length of a rectangle is 10 cm more than double its breadth. If the length is 40 cm, then the area of the rectangle is 800 cm2.

II. Side of a rhombus is 20 cm. If the length of one of its diagonals is 32 cm, then the area of the rhombus is 384 cm2. 

Concept:

The area of a rectangle with length L and breadth B is [L x B] square units.

The area of a rhombus with diagonals as D₁ and D₂ is $\frac{1}{2}\times D_1\times D_2$ square units.

The diagonals of a rhombus bisect each other perpendicularly.

Also,

$[side \ of \ rhombus]^2={[\frac{D_1}{2}]}^2 + {[\frac{D_2}{2}]}^2$

Solution:

As per the data given above,

Case 1,

The length of a rectangle is 10 cm more than double its breadth. If the length is 40 cm, then the area of the rectangle is 800 cm2.

L = 2B + 10

40 = 2B + 10

B = 15 cm

Area = L x B = 40 x 15 = 600 cm².

Therefore, Case 1 is incorrect.

Case 2,

Side of a rhombus is 20 cm. If the length of one of its diagonals is 32 cm, then the area of the rhombus is 384 cm2. 

Side of a rhombus = 20 cm

Diagonal D₁ = 32 cm

Let the other diagonal be D₂.

Since,

$[side \ of \ rhombus]^2={[\frac{D_1}{2}]}^2 + {[\frac{D_2}{2}]}^2$

$[20]^2={[\frac{32}{2}]}^2 + {[\frac{D_2}{2}]}^2$

${[\frac{D_2}{2}]}^2=400-256=144$

${[\frac{D_2}{2}]}=12\ D_2=24 \ cm$

Area of the rhombus,

 $\frac{1}{2}\times D_1\times D_2=\frac{1}{2}\times 32\times 24=384 \ cm^2$

Therefore, Only II is correct.

Given:

2 men or 3 boys can complete a work in 96 days.

Concept:

If a human completes a work in N days, then work done by the human in one day will be $\frac{1}{N}$

The time required to complete work with an efficiency of $\frac{1}{N}$ per day will be $\frac{1}{1/N}=N$ days.

Solution:

As per the question,

2 men or 3 boys can complete a work in 96 days.

The work done by 2 men in a day = $\frac{1}{96}$

The work done by 1 man in a day = $\frac{1/96}{2}=\frac{1}{192}$

The work done by 6 men in a day = $6 \times\frac{1}{192}=\frac{1}{32}$

The work done by 3 boys in a day = $\frac{1}{96}$

The work done by 1 boy in a day = $\frac{1/96}{3}=\frac{1}{288}$

The work done by 7 boys in a day = $7 \times\frac{1}{288}=\frac{7}{288}$

Now,

The work done by 6 men and 7 boys together in a day,

  $\frac{1}{32}+\frac{7}{288}=\frac{1}{18}$

The total time required by 6 men and 7 boys together to finish the work is as follows,

$\frac{1}{1/18}=18$

Hence, option 2 is correct.

Given:

The simple interest received on a sum is 16/25 of the sum. The number of years is equal to the annual rate of interest.

Concept:

The simple interest I on a sum of P for a period of T years at a rate of R% annually is as follows,

$I=\frac{P \times R \times T}{100}$

Solution:

According to the question,

The simple interest received on a sum is 16/25 of the sum.

$I=\frac{16}{25}P$

The number of years is equal to the annual rate of interest.

T = R

Since,

The simple interest I on a sum of P for a period of T years at a rate of R% annually is as follows,

$I=\frac{P \times R \times T}{100}$

$\frac{16}{25}P=\frac{P \times R \times R}{100}$

$\frac{16}{25}=\frac{R^2}{100}$

R = 8%

Hence, option 1 is correct.

Shortcut Trick

Speed = 36 × 5/18 = 10 m/s

Distance = 7/10 km = 700 m

Time = 700 / 10 = 70 seconds

∴ The correct answer is 70 seconds.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed of the train = 36 km/hr

Distance to cover = 7/10 km

Formula Used:

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

1 km/hr = 5/18 m/s

Point A Point B

Distance = 7/10 km = 700 m

Speed = 36 km/hr Time = 700 / 10 = 70 s

Calculations:

⇒ Distance in meters = 7/10 × 1000 = 700 m

⇒ Speed in m/s = 36 × (5/18)

⇒ Speed = 2 × 5 = 10 m/s

⇒ Time taken = Distance ÷ Speed

⇒ Time = 700 ÷ 10

⇒ Time = 70 seconds

∴ The correct answer is 70 seconds.

Additional Information

Unit Conversion

To convert km/hr to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18/5.

Average Speed

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time. If a journey is split into two equal distances with speeds x and y, Average Speed = 2xy/(x + y).

Relative Speed

For objects moving in the same direction, relative speed = s₁ − s₂. For opposite directions, relative speed = s₁ + s₂.

Given:

A boy added all natural numbers from 1 to 10, however, he added one number twice due to which the sum became 57.

Concept:

The sum of the first n natural numbers is $\frac{n(n+1)}{2}$

Solution:

As per the question,

A boy added all natural numbers from 1 to 10 which means the sum of the first 10 natural numbers.

So, the sum is supposed to be,

$\frac{n(n+1)}{2}=\frac{10\times 11}{2}=55$

Since, he added one number twice due to which the sum became 57.

Extra value = 57 - 55 = 2

Therefore, the boy has added the number 2 twice.

Given:

The largest three-digit number is divided by 11.

Concept:

Euclid's division lemma states that,

Dividend = Divisor x Quotient + Remainder

Solution:

As per the question,

The largest three-digit number is divided by 11.

The largest three-digit number is 999.

999 when divided by 11 will give 90 as the Quotient and 9 as the Remainder.

Hence, option 4 is correct.

Given:

The squares of the first 15 natural numbers.

Concept:

The sum of the squares of the first n natural numbers is $\frac{n(n+1)(2n+1)}{6}$

Solution:

As per the question,

We have the squares of the first 15 natural numbers.

The sum of the squares of the first 15 natural numbers is as follows,

 $\frac{n(n+1)(2n+1)}{6}=\frac{15(15+1)(2\times 15+1)}{6}$

$\frac{15(16)(31)}{6}=1240$

Given:

The marked price of the book is Rs. 5000 and it is sold for Rs. 2900.

Concept:

Discount = Marked Price - Selling Price

Discount % = $\frac{Discount}{Marked \ Price}\times 100$

Solution:

As per the question,

The marked price of the book is Rs. 5000 and it is sold for Rs. 2900.

Discount = Marked Price - Selling Price

Discount = 5000 - 2900 = 2100

Discount % = $\frac{Discount}{Marked \ Price}\times 100$

Discount % = $\frac{2100}{5000}\times 100$

Discount % = 42%

Given:

The ratio of the selling price to the cost price is 11 ∶ 12.

Concept:

Loss = Cost Price - Selling Price

Loss % = $\frac{Loss}{Cost \ Price}\times 100$

Solution:

As per the question,

The ratio of the selling price to the cost price is 11 ∶ 12.

Let the selling price and the cost price be 11x and 12x respectively.

Loss = Cost Price - Selling Price

Loss = 12x - 11x = x

Loss % = $\frac{Loss}{Cost \ Price}\times 100$

Loss % = $\frac{x}{12x}\times 100$

Loss % = 8.33%

Given:

The sugar of Rs. 25 per kg mixed with the sugar of Rs. 35 per kg.

Concept:

From the formula for allegations,

$\frac{\text {Quantity of higher price}}{\text {Quantity of lesser price}}= \frac{\text {Higher price - Average price}}{\text {Average price - Lesser price}}$

Solution:

As per the question,

The sugar of Rs. 25 per kg mixed with the sugar of Rs. 35 per kg.

The mixture is worth Rs. 28 per kg i.e., the average price is Rs. 28.

Now,

The ratio of sugar of Rs. 25 per kg should be mixed with sugar of Rs. 35 per kg so that the mixture is worth Rs. 28 per kg will be,

$\frac{\text {Quantity of higher price}}{\text {Quantity of lesser price}}= \frac{\text {Higher price - Average price}}{\text {Average price - Lesser price}}$

$\frac{\text {Quantity of lesser price}}{\text {Quantity of higher price}}= \frac{\text {35-28}}{\text {28-25}}=\frac{7}{3}$

The required ratio is 7 : 3.

Given:

25 percent of 480 + 20 percent of 240.

Concept:

The value of a % of a number X is $\frac{a}{100}\times X$

Solution:

The data given in the question is as follows,

25 percent of 480 + 20 percent of 240

25 percent of 480 = $\frac{25}{100}\times 480 = 120$

20 percent of 240 = $\frac{20}{100}\times 240 = 48$

The value of 25 percent of 480 + 20 percent of 240 = 120 + 48 = 168

Hence, option 1 is correct.

Given:

The sum of the square of some numbers is 62 + 82 + 102 + 122 - 142 - 112 

Concept:

The square of a number is the product of the number by itself.

Solution:

As per the question,

The sum of the square of some numbers is 62 + 82 + 102 + 122 - 142 - 112 

36 + 64 + 100 + 144 - 196 - 121 = 344 - 317 = 27

Given:

x ∶ y = 2 ∶ 3 and y ∶ z = 2 ∶ 1

Concept:

An equivalent fraction is a fraction that is evaluated by multiplying the numerator and denominator of a given fraction with the same number.

Solution:

The ratio given in the question is as follows,

 x ∶ y = 2 ∶ 3

$\frac{x}{y}=\frac{2}{3}=\frac{4}{6}$

x : y = 4 : 6      [Using equivalent fraction]

 y ∶ z = 2 ∶ 1

$\frac{y}{z}=\frac{2}{1}=\frac{6}{3}$

y : z = 6 : 3      [Using equivalent fraction]

Now,

x : y

     y : z

4 : 6

     6 : 3

4 : 6 : 3

The value of x ∶ y ∶ z = 4 : 6 : 3

The correct answer is "To cause commotion"

Key Points

• Let's understand the meaning of the given idiom with examples.
• To set by the ears" is an idiomatic expression that means to cause a conflict or argument between two or more people or groups. It can also refer to a situation where people are already in conflict, or to cause commotion.
• For example,
• "The new policy set the employees by the ears and caused a lot of tension in the office."
• "When the two rival gangs met, it set them by the ears and a fight broke out."
• "The announcement of the merger set the shareholders by the ears, with some opposing it and others supporting it."

Correct answer: To cause commotion.

The correct answer is "1''.

Key Points

• The error is in part (1) of the sentence.
• The phrase "enough not has been" is grammatically incorrect; the correct order should be "not enough has been."
• "Enough" is an adverb modifying the verb "has been done." Generally, adverbs come before the main verb they modify.
• The phrase "not enough" indicates an insufficient amount or quantity.

Correct sentence:  "The report card revealed that not enough has been done yet to reverse the ecological damage from years of misdirected water management."

The correct answer is "My friends and I"

Key Points 

• The phrase "Me and My friends" is incorrect because it should be in the subject form "I" and the object form "my friends". The correct version would be "My friends and I"
• Option 1 is correct because it correctly uses the subject form "I" and the object form "my friends"
• Option 2 is incorrect because there is an error in the original sentence that needs to be corrected.
• Option 3 is incorrect because it is same as the incorrect version in the original sentence.
• Option 4 is incorrect because the word "I" should come first
• It is a common mistake to use "Me and My friends" instead of "My friends and I" when the subject of the sentence is "I" and "my friends" is the object of the sentence. This is because "I" is an object pronoun and "me" is a subject pronoun, so people often get confused.

Correct sentence: My friends and I went for shopping

The correct answer is 'too"

Key Points 

• The sentence is saying that the person being spoken to might not be physically strong enough for the work. "Too" means "excessively" or "more than necessary" and fits in the blank in the sentence, suggesting that the person may not be strong enough for the work.
• Option 1 "some" is incorrect because it doesn't convey the idea of the person not being strong enough.
• Option 2 "few" is incorrect because it is not appropriate in this context as it doesn't convey the idea of the person not being strong enough.
• Option 3 "too" is correct because it conveys the idea that the person is not strong enough for the work
• Option 4 "very" is incorrect because it doesn't convey the idea of the person not being strong enough.
• It is important to note that, "too" is used to indicate that something is more than necessary, whereas "very" is used to indicate that something is intense or extreme.

Correct sentence: May be you are too fragile for this work.

The correct answer is "1"

Key Points 

• The error in the sentence is in the first part of the sentence "Having reviewed dozen of" it should be "Having reviewed dozens of" because "dozen" means 12 and it doesn't match with the context of the sentence.
• The correct version would be "Having reviewed dozens of professional trainings, I find this messaging somewhat confusing."
• First part is incorrect because "dozen" should be "dozens"
• It is important to note that the word "dozens" means a large number, whereas "dozen" means 12.

Correct sentence; Having reviewed dozens of professional trainings, I find this messaging somewhat understandable.

The correct answer is "No improvement"

Key Points 

• The correct answer is: "C) No improvement"
• The phrase "is that" is correct, it is used to express the reason or cause of something.
• The original sentence, "His tragedy is that he rarely finds a butterfly," is grammatically correct and effectively conveys the intended meaning.
• There is no need to make any changes or substitutions in this case.

Correct sentence: His tragedy is that he rarely finds a butterfly.

The correct answer is "Establish"

Key Points

• Let's understand the meaning of the given words with examples>
• Abrogate: To officially cancel or abolish a law or agreement(अभिनिषेध करना).
• Example: The government decided to abrogate the treaty with the neighboring country.
• Establish: To set up or create something permanently, such as an institution or organization(स्थापित करना).
• Example: The company established a new branch in the city.
• Stupidity: The quality or state of being stupid; lack of intelligence or common sense(मूर्खता).
• Example: The stupidity of his decision cost him his job.
• Retile: To replace old tiles with new tiles.
• Example: The kitchen needs to be retiled before it can be used again.
• Forsake: To renounce or give up something or someone, such as a possession or a person(त्यागना).
• Example: He decided to forsake his career in law to become an artist.
• Thus, as per the above explanation, the word that is opposite in meaning to the given word is "Establish"

Correct answer: Establish

The correct answer is "QSRP"

Key Points

• Q: "Most of the parks and gardens of the" - This phrase sets the stage for the rest of the sentence by establishing that the focus is on the parks and gardens in the city.
• R: "modern central city are on" - This phrase continues the thought begun in Q, and establishes that the parks and gardens are located in the modern central city. It also implies that the parks and gardens are a significant feature of the modern central city.
• S: "land that formerly was reserved for the" - This phrase provides background information on the land that the parks and gardens now occupy. It tells us that the land was previously reserved for something or someone.
• P: "kings on the old city's outskirts" - This phrase completes the thought begun in S and gives us a clear idea of what the land was originally reserved for: the kings on the old city's outskirts. It also helps to set the scene of the old city's outskirts in contrast to the modern central city where the parks and gardens are located now.
• Thus, the correct order is "QRSP"

Correct arrangement: Most of the parks and gardens of the modern central city are on land that formerly was reserved for the kings on the old city's outskirts.

The correct answer is "fulfil"

Key Points

• "Fulfil" is a verb that means to carry out or complete an obligation or promise, to achieve a goal or objective, or to satisfy a need or desire. It can also mean to bring something to completion or to make something happen.
• It is important to note that "fulfil" is a British English spelling and "fulfill" is a American English spelling, both are considered correct.

Correct answer: fulfil

The correct answer is "indelible"

Key Points

• In the above question we have to choose the correct word to fill in the blanks.
• The correct answer is: "2) Indelible"
• The sentence is talking about people who leave marks that cannot be removed or erased. "Indelible" means "impossible to remove or forget" which fits in the blank in the sentence, suggesting that the marks that people leave are permanent and unforgettable.
• Option 1"indirect" is incorrect because it doesn't convey the idea of the marks that people leave are permanent and unforgettable.
• Option 2"indelible" is correct because it conveys the idea that the marks that people leave are permanent and unforgettable.
• Option 3"illegal" is incorrect because it doesn't convey the idea of the marks that people leave are permanent and unforgettable.
• Option 4 "inedible" is incorrect because it doesn't convey the idea of the marks that people leave are permanent and unforgettable.
• It is important to note that "indelible" means "impossible to remove or forget" and it is often used to describe something that is permanent or unforgettable.

Correct sentence: There are a few people in our lives who leave indelible marks.

The correct answer is "Voyage".

Key Points

• The word that can substitute the given sentence is "Voyage"
• Let's understand the meaning of the given words
• Voyage: A long journey, especially by sea or in space.
• Example: The ship's voyage took three months to cross the Atlantic.
• Sojourn: A temporary stay in a place, a short period of time spent in a place.
• Example: He made a sojourn in the city before continuing his journey.
• Elegy: A poem or song written in memory of someone who has died, especially one that expresses sorrow or mourning.
• Example: He wrote an elegy for his late wife.
• Safari: A journey or expedition, especially in Africa, for hunting, exploration, or scientific research.
• Example: The family went on safari to see the wildlife in the savanna.
• It is important to note that "voyage" is a long journey, "sojourn" is a short stay, "elegy" is a poem or song written to mourn someone who passed away, and "safari" usually refers to a journey or expedition in Africa for hunting, exploration or scientific research.
• Correct answer: Voyage

The correct answer is "SRQP"

Key Points 

• S: "Mosses are distributed throughout the" - This phrase sets the stage for the rest of the sentence by establishing that the focus is on the distribution of mosses.
• R: "world except in salt water." - This phrase continues the thought begun in S, and establishes that mosses are found throughout the world with the exception of salt water environments. It also provides a general overview of the scope of mosses distribution
• Q: "and are commonly found in" - This phrase adds more information to the previous sentence and it specifies that mosses are commonly found in some specific places
• P: "moist shady locations." - This phrase completes the thought begun in Q and gives us a clear idea of what kind of places mosses are commonly found in, which are moist and shady locations, it also help to understand the preference of mosses.
• Thus, the correct order is "SRQP"

Correct arrangement: Mosses are distributed throughout the world except in salt water and are commonly found in moist shady locations.

The correct answer is "To live within one's means"

Key Points 

• To cut one's coat according to one's cloth" is an idiomatic expression that means to live within one's means, to plan and budget according to one's financial resources or to be realistic about what one can afford.
• For example,
• "In order to save money, he decided to cut his coat according to his cloth and live on a tight budget."
• "She knew she couldn't afford a luxury car, so she cut her coat according to her cloth and bought a used one."
• "When planning the wedding, they decided to cut their coat according to their cloth and have a small, intimate ceremony."
• It is important to note that the idiomatic expression comes from the literal meaning of cutting a coat according to the size of the cloth you have, and it means to be practical and not to waste resources.

Correct answer: "To live within one's means"