Previous Year Paper

DSSSB TGT Natural Science (Female) Official Paper (Held On: 25 Sept, 2021 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2021

200 questions120 minutes
With answers
Free

Paper last updated:

Practise under exam conditions

Take this paper as a timed mock test. Review your answers after you submit.

Attempt timed test

Questions & answers

Read the paper at your pace. Open an explanation when you need it.

General Ability (20 questions)

Question 1

Find the wrong term in the letter-cluster series given below:

UFVE, YJRA, CNNW, GRKS, KVFO

  1. AOption (a)

    YJRA

  2. BOption (b)

    CNNW

  3. COption (c)

    GRKS

  4. DOption (d)

    KVFO

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

GRKS

Why this answer is correct

The logic follows here is:

Clearly, the wrong tern is 'GRKS'.

Hence, the correct answer is "GRKS".

Question 2

Find the missing term in the following letter-cluster series given below:

SAG26, VGP29, YMY35, ?, EYQ56

  1. AOption (a)

    BSH45

  2. BOption (b)

    BTH44

  3. COption (c)

    BSH44

  4. DOption (d)

    CSH44

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

BSH44

Why this answer is correct

The logic follows here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "BSH44".

Question 3

Select the related letters from the given alternatives.

NZP ∶ GMH ∶∶ XTL ∶ ?

  1. AOption (a)

    QME

  2. BOption (b)

    LJF

  3. COption (c)

    JLF

  4. DOption (d)

    JFL

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

LJF

Why this answer is correct

The logic follows here is:

  • (First Part) : (Second Part)

The positional value of the letters in the second part is half of the positional value of the letters in the first part.

  • NZP ∶ GMH

Similalry,

  • XTL ∶ ?

 

Hence, the correct answer is "LJF".

Question 4

Find out the odd word from the given alternatives.

  1. AOption (a)

    Red chilli

  2. BOption (b)

    Salt

  3. COption (c)

    Black Pepper

  4. DOption (d)

    Cinnamon

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Salt

Why this answer is correct

The logic follows here is:

Red chilli, Black Pepper, and Cinnamon are all types of spices.

Whereas, 

Salt is not a spice.

Thus, 'Salt' is the odd term.

Hence, the correct answer is "Salt".

Question 5

If in a certain language, LECTURER is coded as "85329656". How is 'ULCER' coded in that code?

  1. AOption (a)

    38316

  2. BOption (b)

    98321

  3. COption (c)

    98356

  4. DOption (d)

    88316

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

98356

Why this answer is correct

The logic follows here is:

  • LECTURER is coded as "85329656"

Similalry,

  • 'ULCER' is coded as:

 

Hence, the correct answer is "98356".

Question 6

In a class of fifty students, Geeta's rank is thirty-two from the left end. What is her rank from the right end?

  1. AOption (a)

    17

  2. BOption (b)

    18

  3. COption (c)

    19

  4. DOption (d)

    20

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

19

Why this answer is correct

As per the given information: 

In a class of fifty students, Geeta's rank is thirty-two from the left end."

Total students = Position of Geeta from left + Position of  Geeta from right - 1

Position of  Geeta from right =Total students - Position of Geeta from left + 1

= 50 - 32 + 1

= 19

Thus, the position of Geeta from right end is '19'.

Hence, the correct answer is "19".

Question 7

Six friends Aman, Raman, Deepu, Lalit, Aditya and Shivam likes different colors i.e. Pink, Yellow, White, Green, Red and Violet, but not necessarily in the same order. Each of them studies in a different college. i.e. A, B, C, D, E and F, but not necessarily in the same order. Lalit likes Green but does not study in college A or E. Aditya studies in college F but does not like pink. Shivam does not study in college D or E. Deepu likes Violet and studies in college C. Aman studies in college B and likes white. The one who like red and studies in college E.

Who likes red color?

  1. AOption (a)

    Raman

  2. BOption (b)

    Shivam

  3. COption (c)

    Aditya

  4. DOption (d)

    Deepu

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Raman

Why this answer is correct

As per the given information:

Six friends Aman, Raman, Deepu, Lalit, Aditya and Shivam likes different colors i.e. Pink, Yellow, White, Green, Red and Violet, but not necessarily in the same order. Each of them studies in a different college. i.e. A, B, C, D, E and F, but not necessarily in the same order. ​

  • Deepu likes Violet and studies in college C.
  • Aman studies in college B and likes white.
PersonsCollegeColors
AmanBWhite
Raman
DeepuCViolet
Lalit
Aditya
Shivam
  • Aditya studies in college F but does not like pink.
  • Lalit likes Green but does not study in college A or E.
  • Shivam does not study in college D or E.
PersonsCollegeColors
AmanBWhite
Raman
DeepuCViolet
LalitA/EGreen
AdityaFPink
ShivamD/E

 

  • The one who like red and studies in college E.​

Now, according to the given condition, Aditya studies in college F so he will not like Red color. And, Shivam does not study in college E so he will not like the Red colour.

Thus, Red is liked by Raman.

PersonsCollegeColors
AmanBWhite
RamanERed
DeepuCViolet
LalitA/EGreen
AdityaFPink
ShivamD/E

 

​Now,

  • Aditya does not like Pink Color, and only Yellow color is left, thus Aditya likes yellow and shivam likes pink.
  • College A and D are left and Lalit does not study in College A. Thus, Lalit studies in D and Shivam studies in A

Thus, the final arrangement will be:

PersonsCollegeColors
AmanBWhite
RamanERed
DeepuCViolet
LalitDGreen
AdityaFYellow
ShivamAPink

 

Clearly, 'Raman' likes Red color.

Hence, the correct answer is "Raman".

Question 8

Two statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to consider these statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusions logically follow/s from the given statement

Statement:

All gates are farm.

Some farm are not crop.

Conclusions:

(I) No gate is crop.

(II) Some farm are gate.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I follow

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II follows

  3. COption (c)

    Both I and II follow

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither I nor II follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only II follows

Why this answer is correct

Statement:

All gates are farm.

Some farm are not crop.

The least possible diagram for the given statements is as follows:

Conclusions:

(I) No gate is crop. → False (Because there is no direct relation between 'gate' and 'crop', so it is possible but not definite)

(II) Some farm are gate. → True (Because 'Some farm are not crop', so 'Some farm are gate' is definitely true)

Hence, the correct answer is "Only II follows".

Question 9

Three statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to consider these statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusions logically follow/s from the given statement.

Statement:

Atleast some fishes are snake.

Few snakes are crocodile.

Few crocodile are ants.

Conclusions:

(I) Some crocodile are not fish.

(II) Few crocodile are snakes.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I follow

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II follows

  3. COption (c)

    Both I and II follow

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither I nor II follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only II follows

Why this answer is correct

Statement:

Atleast some fishes are snake.

Few snakes are crocodile.

Few crocodile are ants.

The least possible diagram for the given statements is as follows:

Conclusions:

(I) Some crocodile are not fish.​ → False (Because there is no direct relation between 'crocodile' and 'fishes', so it is possible but not definite)

(II) Few crocodile are snakes.​ → True (Because 'Few snakes are crocodile', so 'Few crocodile are snakes' is definitely true)

Hence, the correct answer is "Only II follows".

Question 10

Three statements are followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to consider these statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusions logically follow/s from the given statement.

Statement:

All vehicles are ticket.

Some tickets are metro.

All metro are highway.

Conclusions:

(I) Some highway are metro.

(II) Some ticket are vehicles.

(III) Some metro are highway.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I follow

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II follows

  3. COption (c)

    Only III follows

  4. DOption (d)

    All follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

All follows

Why this answer is correct

Statement:

All vehicles are ticket.

Some tickets are metro.

All metro are highway.

The least possible diagram for the given statements is as follows:

Conclusions:

(I) Some highway are metro.→ True (Because 'All metro are highway', so some highway are metro is definitely true)

(II) Some ticket are vehicles.​​ → True (Because 'All vehicles are ticket.', so 'Some ticket are vehicles' is definitely true)

(III) Some metro are highway. → True (Because 'All metro are highway', so 'Some metro are highway.' is definitely true)

Hence, the correct answer is "All follows".

Question 11

In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

11 ∶ 119 ∶∶ 15 ∶ ?

  1. AOption (a)

    154

  2. BOption (b)

    223

  3. COption (c)

    233

  4. DOption (d)

    152

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

223

Why this answer is correct

The logic follows here is,

(First term) : (Second term)

(First term)2 - 2 = Second term

  • 11 ∶ 119

⇒ (11)2 - 2 

⇒ 121 - 2 = 119 = Second term

Similarly,

  • 15 : ?

⇒ (15)2 - 2 

⇒ 225 - 2 = 223 = Second term

Hence, the correct answer is "223".

Question 12

In the question below, a statement is followed by two conclusions. Study the conclusions and select the correct option as the answer.

Statement:

G > A = N < K ≥ B

Conclusions:

I. B > A

II. A = K

  1. AOption (a)

    Either I or II follows

  2. BOption (b)

    Only I follows

  3. COption (c)

    Both I and II follow

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither I nor II follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Neither I nor II follows

Why this answer is correct

Given statement : G > A = N < K ≥ B

Conclusions :

i) B > A → FALSE (as G > A = N < K ≥ B → clear relationship between A and B cannot be determined).

ii)  A = K → FALSE (as G > A = N < K ≥ B → A < K, thus it is false).

Hence, the correct answer is "Neither I nor II follows".

Question 13

In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

57, 61, 70, ?, 111, 147

  1. AOption (a)

    100

  2. BOption (b)

    94

  3. COption (c)

    105

  4. DOption (d)

    86

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

86

Why this answer is correct

Given: 57, 61, 70, ?, 111, 147

The logic follows here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "86".

Question 14

In the following figure, triangle represents defense sector, circle represents state government exams, pentagon represents railways, rectangle represents aspirants and square represents private company.

What does letter 'F' represents?

  1. AOption (a)

    Aspirants who are preparing for railways and state government exam only   

  2. BOption (b)

    Aspirants who are preparing for defense sector and state government exams only

  3. COption (c)

    Aspirants who are preparing for private company and state government exams only

  4. DOption (d)

    Aspirants who are preparing for state government exams only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Aspirants who are preparing for defense sector and state government exams only

Why this answer is correct

As per the given information,

The shaded part i.e. F represents → Aspirants who are preparing for defense sector and state government exams only

Hence, the correct answer is "option (2)".

Question 15

In the following figure, triangle represents professor, circle represents architect, hexagon represents advocate, rectangle represents entertainer and square represents entrepreneur.

What does letter 'A' represents?

  1. AOption (a)

    Group of professors, architect, advocate and entertainer but not entrepreneur

  2. BOption (b)

    Group of advocate, entrepreneur, professors and entertainer but not architect

  3. COption (c)

    Group of entrepreneur, architect, advocate and entertainer but not professors

  4. DOption (d)

    Group of entrepreneur, architect, professors and entertainer but not advocate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Group of entrepreneur, architect, advocate and entertainer but not professors

Why this answer is correct

As per the given information,

The shaded part i.e. A represents → Group of entrepreneur, architect, advocate and entertainer but not professors

Hence, the correct answer is "option (3)".

Question 16

Select the figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

The logic follows here is:

The given square has three figures which are interchanging their position with each other in a particular manner.

Let the three figures be denoted by A, B, and C, and their positions be denoted by 1, 2, and 3.

Image I to Image II →

The figure A moves to the 3rd position and figures B and C move to positions 1 and 2 respectively.

Image II to Image III →

The figure B moves to the 3rd position and figures C and A move to position 1 and 2 respectively.

Image III to Image IV →

The figure C moves to the 3rd position and figures A and B move to positions 1 and 2 respectively.

Similarly,

Image IV to Image V→

The figure A will move to the 3rd position and figures B and C will move to positions 1 and 2 respectively.

So, the figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series is shown below :

Thus, the figure in option (2) will be the next image for the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is "option (2)".

Question 17

From the given alternatives select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

The logic follows here is :

On close observation, we find that the problem figure is embedded in option (3) as shown below :

Hence, the correct answer is "option (3)".

Question 18

From the given alternatives select the one which is the mirror image of given Question Figure.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

The logic follows here is:

When the mirror is placed on the line AB, the left side and right side changed vice-versa where the top and bottom remain the same.

Thus, the correct mirror image of the given figure will be :

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Additional Information

In Mirror image left side and right side changed vice-versa where top and bottom remain the same.

Reflection of an object into the water is its water image. It appears by inverting an object vertically i.e. upside down.

The water image of the figure looks like mirror image of the figure in case the mirror is horizontally at the bottom of the figure.

Water image is just a reflection where top and bottom part of the images changed where left and right side of the image remain same.

Question 19

Find the number of hexagon in the given figure.

  1. AOption (a)

    8

  2. BOption (b)

    7

  3. COption (c)

    9

  4. DOption (d)

    10

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

10

Why this answer is correct

As per the given question:

The numbers of hexagon in the given figures are:

Thus, there are '10' hexagon in the given figures.

Hence, the correct answer is "10".

Question 20

From the given alternatives select the one that will complete the question figure.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

As per the information:

When the question figure is merged with the figure in option (2), the complete figure can be seen as :

Hence, the correct answer is "option (2)".

General Awareness (20 questions)

Question 21

The paintings at Ajanta depict stories of the _____.

  1. AOption (a)

    Ramayana

  2. BOption (b)

    Mahabharat

  3. COption (c)

    Panchatantra

  4. DOption (d)

    Jatakas

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Jatakas

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Jatakas.

  • The paintings of Ajanta depict stories from the Jatakas.

Key Points

  • Jatakas are regarded as a body of literature, it consists of various narratives of the life of Gautam Budhha taking birth in both human and animal forms.
  • The motive behind Jatakas narrative is to highlight the moral values that he propagated in each of the characters.
  • Theravada Buddhism refers to Jatakas as a commentary to the famous Pali Kanon.
  • Pali Kanon is a collection of Theravadan Buddhist literature.

Additional Information

  • Panchatantra was written by Vishnu Sharma.
  • Mahabharata was written by Ved Vyas.
  • Ramayana was written by Valmiki.

Question 22

____________ dance is a solo dance.

  1. AOption (a)

    Kuchipudi

  2. BOption (b)

    OttanThullal

  3. COption (c)

    Odissi

  4. DOption (d)

    Mohiniattam

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Kuchipudi

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kuchipudi.

Key Points

  • Kuchipudi is one of India's eight major classical dances.
  • It originated in the Indian state of Andhra Pradesh, in the village of Kuchipudi.
  • It is a dance-drama performance that derives from the ancient Hindu Sanskrit scripture Natya Shastra.
  • Like many major traditional dances of India, it evolved as a devotional art tied to itinerant bards, temples, and spiritual beliefs.
  • In most cases, a Kuchipudi performance begins with an invocation.
  • Then, each costumed performer is introduced, their function is explained, and they do a little preparatory dance to the music.
  • The act then moves on to pure dancing.
  • This is followed by the performance's expressive element, in which rhythmic hand gestures assist portray the tale.
  • The performance is accompanied by vocal and instrumental Carnatic music in Telugu.
  • The mridangam, cymbals, veena, flute, and tambura are typical musical instruments in Kuchipudi.
  • Kuchipudi is essentially a solo dance.

Additional Information

  • The Raas Leela, also known as Manipuri Dance, is a famous Indian traditional dance genre that originated in the state of Manipur.
  • The dance genre is rooted in Hindu Vaishnavism themes, with magnificent renditions of Radha-love-inspired Krishna's dance play Raas Leela.
  • Kathak developed independently at the courts of north Indian kingdoms and during the Bhakti movement, notably by adding the childhood and legends of the Hindu god Krishna.
  • Kathak is unusual in that it has both Hindu and Muslim Gharanas, as well as cultural influences from each of these Gharanas.
  • Mohiniyattam is an Indian classical dance form that originated and is still widely practised in the state of Kerala.

Question 23

______ is the oldest form of composition of the Hindustani vocal music.

  1. AOption (a)

    Gazal

  2. BOption (b)

    Thumri

  3. COption (c)

    Dhrupad

  4. DOption (d)

    Tappa

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Dhrupad

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Dhrupad.

Key Points

Drupad Music

  • Drupad is a genre in Hindustani Classical music.
  • The Dhrupad is considered one of the oldest forms of Hindustani vocal music.
  • In ancient literature, Natyashastra is considered a source of Drupad.
  • It is a form of devotional music and spiritual music that emphasis maintaining the purity of the Raga.
  • It traces its origin to the ancient text of Samveda
  • A Dhrupad has at least four stanzas, called Sthayi (or Asthayi), Antara, Sanchari, and Abhoga.
  • Drupad music evolved with Sanskrit language scripts in itself.

Hence statement 1 is correct.

Additional Information

Vocal musicCharacteristics
Ghazal- A ghazal is a form of amatory poem or ode, originating in Arabic poetry. - A ghazal may be understood as a poetic expression of both the pain of loss or separation and the beauty of love in spite of that pain. - The ghazal form is ancient, tracing its origins to 7th-century Arabic poetry. - Amir Khusro is believed to be the father of Ghazals in India.​
Thumri- It is originated in Eastern Uttar Pradesh, mainly in Lucknow & Banaras. - It has a romantic lyric on the life of Radha Krishna in Brij Bhasha. - It is usually performed as the last item of a Khayal concert. - There are three main gharanas of thumri are Banaras, Lucknow, and Patiala. - Begum Akhtar is one of the most popular singers of the thumri style
Tappa- Tappa originated from the folk songs of the camel riders in Punjab. - The tappa style of music was refined and introduced to the imperial court of the Mughal Emperor Muhammad Shah. - Later by Mian Ghulam Nabi Shori or Shori Mian, a court singer of Asaf-Ud-Dowlah, Nawab of Awadh.

Question 24

______ was known as the 'Flying Sikh of India'.

  1. AOption (a)

    Fauja Singh

  2. BOption (b)

    Harbhajan Singh

  3. COption (c)

    Budhia Singh

  4. DOption (d)

     Milkha Singh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

 Milkha Singh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Milkha Singh.

Key Points

  • Milkha Singh, known as the Flying Sikh.
  • He was born on October 17, 1935, Lyallpur [now Faisalabad], Pakistan),
  • He was an Indian track-and-field athlete who became the first Indian male to reach the final of an Olympic athletics event when he placed fourth in the 400-meter race at the 1960 Olympic Games in Rome.
  • He wrote: The Race of My Life.

Additional Information

  • The "Flying Sikh" nickname he acquired from General Ayub Khan of Pakistan after defeating Abdul Khaliq in Pakistan in 1960.
  • Milkha Singh is the first person from India to win a Gold medal in Individual athletics at Commonwealth Games.
  • He also won two gold medals in the Asian games during 1958 and 1962.
  • He has represented India in the three Summer Olympics such as the one in 1956 at Melbourne respectively in 1960 at Rome and in 1964 at Tokyo.
  • The Indian government has honoured him by awarding the fourth-highest civilian award Padma Shri for his achievements in sports.
  • Milkha won over Abdul Khaliq, the Pakistani Athlete in 1960 during the Summer Olympics held in Rome.
  • Though Milkha has just missed the third and secured fourth place, this race was long remembered and was appreciated by many.
  • The then General Ayub Khan, commented post-race stating him as Flying Sikh.

Question 25

_____ is the fourth highest civilian award in the Republic of India.

  1. AOption (a)

    Bharat Ratna

  2. BOption (b)

    Padma Vibhushan

  3. COption (c)

    Padma Shri

  4. DOption (d)

    Padma Bhushan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Padma Shri

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Padma Shri

Key Points

  • Padma Shri is the fourth-highest civilian award. This award is conferred to people for achievements in any field including the service rendered by the Government employees.

Question 26

Which woman mountaineer recorded "world's fastest ascent of Everest by a woman"?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tsang Yin-hung

  2. BOption (b)

    Bachendri Pal

  3. COption (c)

    Premlata Agrawal

  4. DOption (d)

    Santosh Yadav

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Tsang Yin-hung

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Tsang Yin-hung

  • Hong Kong’s Tsang Yin-Hung has set a new record as she scaled Mount Everest in less than 26 hours.
  • Tsang Yin-hung, 44, scaled the 8,848.86-metre mountain in a record time of 25 hours and 50 minutes on 22 May 2021.
  • It is the shortest time taken by any woman after starting from the base camp.
  • She beat the record set by Nepali woman Phunjo Jhangmu Lama in 2017, who climbed Everest in 39 hours and 6 minutes.
  • Climber from the United States Arthur Muir has also set a new record as she became the oldest American to climb the world’s highest peak at 8,848.86-metres (29,031 feet).
  • Muir beat the record set by Bill Burke, who became the oldest American to climb the mountain at the age of 67 in 2009.

Question 27

_________ has been conferred with the "Green Urja Award" for being the Leading Public Institution in the Financing Institution for Renewable Energy this year.

  1. AOption (a)

    Larsen & Toubro Limited(LNT)

  2. BOption (b)

    Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Ltd. (IREDA)

  3. COption (c)

    Sálim Ali Centre for Ornithology and Natural History (SACON)

  4. DOption (d)

    Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Ltd. (IREDA)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Ltd. (IREDA)

Key Points

  • IREDA has been conferred with “Green Urja Award” for being the Leading Public Institution in Financing Institution for Renewable Energy this year by Indian Chamber of Commerce (ICC).

Question 28

Which are the two sectors in terms of ownership of assets or services?

  1. AOption (a)

    Public and Private

  2. BOption (b)

    Open and Close

  3. COption (c)

    Direct and Indirect

  4. DOption (d)

    Primary and Secondary

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Public and Private

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the Public and Private Sector.

Key Points

  • On the basis of ownership of enterprises, sectors are classified into:
  • Public sector; and
  • Private sector.
  • In the public sector, most of the assets are owned by the government and provide all the services. Example: Railways
  • In the private sector, private companies or individuals own assets and provide all services. Example: Reliance Industries Limited (RIL)

Additional Information

  • On the basis of economic activities, sectors are classified into
  • Primary sector
  • Secondary sector
  • Tertiary sector
  • On the basis of employment conditions, sectors are divided into
  • Organised sector
  • Unorganised sector

Question 29

Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government on trade is known as _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Globalisation

  2. BOption (b)

    Liberalisation

  3. COption (c)

    Privatisation

  4. DOption (d)

    Arbitration

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Liberalisation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Liberalization'.

Key Points

Let's have a look at the meanings of each term given in the options:-

TermMeaning
LiberalizationRemoving barriers or restrictions set by the Government.
PrivatizationTransferring ownership, management, and control of public sector companies by the government to private entities.
GlobalizationIntegrating a country’s economy with the world economy.
Bilateral AgreementsContracts between two countries.

Thus, Removing barriers or restrictions set by the Government is known as Liberalization.

Hence, the correct answer is Liberalization

Question 30

In ________ Nepal adopted an interim Constitution. 

  1. AOption (a)

    2006

  2. BOption (b)

    2009

  3. COption (c)

    2007

  4. DOption (d)

    2005

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2007

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2007

Key Points

  • The interim Constitution of Nepal was adopted in the year 2007.
  • This constitution came into being after the success of the People's Movement in 2006, which ended the autocratic rule of King Gyanendra.

Question 31

The ______ party's symbol is flowers and grass.

  1. AOption (a)

    Bahujan Samaj Party

  2. BOption (b)

    All India Trinamool Congress

  3. COption (c)

    Communist Party of India

  4. DOption (d)

    Nationalist Congress Party

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

All India Trinamool Congress

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is All India Trinamool Congress.

Key Points

  • All India Trinamool Congress (AITC) was launched on 1 January 1998.
  • It was launched under the leadership of Mamta Banerjee.
  • The party's symbol is flowers and grass.
  • The party is committed to secularism and federalism.

 Thus, we can say that the All India Trinamool Congress's symbol is flowers and grass

Question 32

What is the number of isotopes of hydrogen?

  1. AOption (a)

    1

  2. BOption (b)

    5

  3. COption (c)

    3

  4. DOption (d)

    7

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

3

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • Isotopes of hydrogen are: Protium Deuterium Tritium
  • There is three known isotopes of hydrogen, each possessing an atomic mass 1, 2, 3 respectively. These are named protium, deuterium, and tritium.

Explanation:

Protium:

  • The most common is the ordinary hydrogen usually called protium.
  • It has one proton in the nucleus and an electron revolving around it.
  • Protium is a selective “proton pump inhibitor”, a medicine that reduces the amount of acid produced in your stomach. It is used for treating acid-related diseases of the stomach and intestine.

Deuterium:

  • The second isotope of hydrogen is called heavy hydrogen or deuterium.
  • It consists of one proton and one neutron in the nucleus and electrons revolving around it.
  • Deuterium is not radioactive and does not represent a significant toxicity hazard.
  • Water enriched in molecules that include deuterium instead of protium is called Heavy water.
  • Deuterium and its compounds are used as a non-radioactive label in chemical experiments and in solvents.
  • It is widely used in prototype fusion reactors and has its application in military, industrial and scientific fields.
  • In nuclear fusion reactors, it is used as a tracer and it is responsible to slow down neutrons in heavy water moderated fission reactors.

Tritium:

  • The third isotope of hydrogen is called tritium.
  • It consists of one proton and two neutrons in the nucleus and an electron revolving around it.
  • A trace amount of tritium occurs naturally because of the interaction of cosmic rays with atmospheric gases.
  • Tritium has also been released during nuclear weapon tests.
  • The most common method of producing tritium is by bombarding a natural isotope of lithium, lithium-6 with neutrons in a nuclear reactor.

Question 33

The red color of tomatoes is due to ______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Lycopene

  2. BOption (b)

    Carotene

  3. COption (c)

    Acetone

  4. DOption (d)

    Acetone and Carotene

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Lycopene

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Tomato.

Key Points 

Explanation:

  • Lycopene is a carotenoid pigment that is commonly found in red or pink fruits or vegetables.
  • It gives these foods their characteristic color and is also known for its potential health benefits as an antioxidant.
  • It is also used as a supplement that may have protective effects against prostate cancer and cardiovascular disease.
  • Some examples of fruits and vegetables that are rich in lycopene include:
  • Tomatoes
  • Watermelon
  • Red carrots
  • Papaya
  • Pink guava

Thus, Lycopene pigment is found in tomato.

Question 34

What is the population of rural India as per 2011 Census?

  1. AOption (a)

    About 833 million

  2. BOption (b)

    About 733 million

  3. COption (c)

    About 933 million

  4. DOption (d)

    About 783 million

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

About 833 million

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is About 833 million

Key Points

  • The population of rural India as per Census 2011 is 83.3 crore.
  • Nearly 70 percent of the country’s population lives in rural areas where, for the first time since independence, the overall growth rate of the population has sharply declined, according to the latest Census.
  • Of the 121 crore Indians, 83.3 crores live in rural areas while 37.7 crore stay in urban areas, said the Census of India’s 2011 Provisional Population Totals of Rural-Urban Distribution in the country, released by Union Home Secretary R.K. Singh.

Additional Information

  • For the first time since independence, the absolute increase in population is more in urban areas than in rural areas.
  • The rural-urban distribution is 68.84 percent and 31.16 percent respectively.
  • The level of urbanization increased from 27.81 percent in the 2001 Census to 31.16 percent in the 2011 Census, while the proportion of the rural population declined from 72.19 percent to 68.84 percent.

Question 35

Tidal energy is energy obtained through _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Sunlight

  2. BOption (b)

    Wind

  3. COption (c)

    Oceanic tides

  4. DOption (d)

    Biomass

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Oceanic tides

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Oceanic tides

Key Points

  • The tidal waves of sea can be used to run turbines in under to produce electricity. It is obtained from coastal regions of sea.

Question 36

Monazite sand does not contain _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Thorium

  2. BOption (b)

    lanthanum

  3. COption (c)

    Cerium

  4. DOption (d)

    Actinium

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Actinium

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Actinium.

Key Points

  • Actinoid element, also called actinide element, any of a series of 15 consecutive chemical elements in the periodic table from actinium to lawrencium (atomic numbers 89–103).
  • As a group, they are significant largely because of their radioactivity.
  • Although several members of the group, including uranium (the most familiar), occur naturally, most are man-made.
  • The actinoid elements follow one another in the seventh series of the periodic table.
  • Each has 86 electrons arranged as in the atoms of the noble gas radon (which precedes actinium by three columns in the table), with three more electrons that may be positioned in the 6d and 7s orbitals (the seventh shell is outermost), and with additional electrons packing into inside orbitals.

Question 37

Who founded the Ramakrishna Mission in 1896 to carry on humanitarian relief and social work?

  1. AOption (a)

    Swami Ramakrishna Paramhansa

  2. BOption (b)

    Swami Vivekananda

  3. COption (c)

    Swami Dayanand Saraswati

  4. DOption (d)

    Gopal Krishna Gokhale

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Swami Vivekananda

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Swami Vivekananda

Key Points 

  • Ramakrishna Mission (RKM) is a Hindu religious and spiritual organization that forms the core of a worldwide spiritual movement known as the Ramakrishna Movement or the Vedant.
  • The mission is named after and inspired by the Indian saint Ramakrishna Paramahamsa and founded by Ramakrishna's chief disciple Swami Vivekananda on 1st May 1897. Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.
  • The mission bases its work on the principles of karma yoga, the principle of selfless work done with a dedication to God.
  • The Ramakrishna Mission has centered around the world and publishes many important Hindu texts.
  • It is affiliated with the monastic organization.
  • Vivekananda was greatly influenced by his guru (teacher) Ramakrishna.
  • The motto of the mission is - Atmano mokshartham Jagat hitaya cha (For one’s own salvation and for the welfare of the world).

Additional Information

  • Sri Ramakrishna, a householder saint of Bengal was born at Kamarpukur in 1836.
  • He died in the early hours of August 16, 1886.
  • Shortly after he had left his mortal frame, a monastic order bearing the name of Sri Ramakrishna was organized in 1886, at the Math, Baranagore, about three kilometers North of Calcutta.
  • This monastic order was organized by his Sannyasin disciples headed by Swami Vivekananda.
  • In fact, no one really "founded" this order.
  • It was the master Ramakrishna himself who brought it into being during his illness.
  • He instructed Swami Vivekananda as to how this order was to be organized and conducted

Question 38

During which Viceroy's tenure was the Simon Commission appointed?

  1. AOption (a)

    Lord Wellesley

  2. BOption (b)

    Lord Irwin

  3. COption (c)

    Lord Chelmsford

  4. DOption (d)

    Lord Wellington

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Lord Irwin

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Lord Irwin

Key Points

  • Simon Commission was formed during the tenure of the Governor-General of India Lord Irwin (1926-1931).
  • It was formed in the year 1928 as a statutory committee to look for necessary changes in the Indian Legislative council after Montague-Chelmsford Reforms.
  • It submitted a report its 1930 and that report led to the Government of India Act 1935.
  • Congress Party decided to boycott Commission as there were no Indians in that commission and Slogans Simon Go Back.

Question 39

When was the second battle of Panipat fought?

  1. AOption (a)

    1757

  2. BOption (b)

    1556

  3. COption (c)

    1526

  4. DOption (d)

    1572

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1556

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1556

The first battle of Panipat was fought between the forces of Babur and Ibrahim Lodhi.

  • It marked the beginning of the Mughal empire and the end of The Delhi Sultanate.
  • It resulted in the decisive victory of Babur over Ibrahim Lodhi. Ibrahim was killed in this battle.
BattleFought OnFought Between
First Battle of Panipat21 April 1526Babur and Ibrahim Lodhi
Battle of Plassey23 June 1757Robert Clive and Siraj-Ud-Daula
Battle of Buxar22 October 1764East India Company (Munro) with the combined forces of Mir Qasim (Bengal), Shuja-ud-Daulah (Awadh) and Shah Alam II (Mughal emperor)
Third Battle of Panipat14 January 1761Marathas and Afghans (Ahmad Shah Abdali).

Question 40

Who won the Presidency of the 76th Session of the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA)?

  1. AOption (a)

    Abdulla Samar Abbas

  2. BOption (b)

    Abdulla Moin

  3. COption (c)

    Abdulla Shafiq

  4. DOption (d)

    Abdulla Shahid

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Abdulla Shahid

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Abdulla Shahid

Key Points

  • Abdulla Shahid of the Maldives was the President of the 76th session of the General Assembly.
  • The theme of the 76th session was "A presidency of hope: delivering for people, for the planet and for prosperity".

Arithmetic Ability (20 questions)

Question 41

Find the smallest among 1218,49,512\sqrt[18]{12}, \sqrt[9]{4}, \sqrt[12]{5} and 36\sqrt[6]{3}.

  1. AOption (a)

    1218\sqrt[18]{12}

  2. BOption (b)

    49\sqrt[9]{4}

  3. COption (c)

    512\sqrt[12]{5}

  4. DOption (d)

    36\sqrt[6]{3}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

512\sqrt[12]{5}

Why this answer is correct

Given: 

The given numbers are: 1218,49,512\sqrt[18]{12}, \sqrt[9]{4}, \sqrt[12]{5} and 36\sqrt[6]{3}

Calculation:

The above numbers can be written as:

12118,419,511212^{\frac{1}{18}}, 4^{\frac{1}{9}}, 5^{\frac{1}{12}} and 3163^{\frac{1}{6}}

Take the L.C.M of all denominator values = L.C.M of (18, 9, 12, 6) = 36

Now, take the power of 36 for each number.

⇒ 123618,4369,5361212^{\frac{36}{18}}, 4^{\frac{36}{9}}, 5^{\frac{36}{12}} and 33663^{\frac{36}{6}}

⇒ 122, 44, 53 and 36

It can be written as:

⇒ 144, 256, 125 and 729

Now arrange them in ascending order:

⇒ 125 < 144 < 256 < 729

The corresponding smallest number = 512\sqrt[12]{5} 

Therefore, "512\sqrt[12]{5}" is the required answer.

Question 42

What value will come in place of question mark (?) in the following question?

36×4+2513=104?\frac{36 \times 4+25}{13}=\frac{104}{?}

  1. AOption (a)

    5

  2. BOption (b)

    6

  3. COption (c)

    8

  4. DOption (d)

    9

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

8

Why this answer is correct

Given:

36×4+2513=104?\frac{36 \times 4+25}{13}=\frac{104}{?}

Concept:

Calculation:

According to the question,

⇒ 36×4+2513=104?\frac{36 \times 4+25}{13}=\frac{104}{?}

⇒ 144+2513=104?\frac{144+25}{13}=\frac{104}{?}

⇒ 16913=104?\frac{169}{13}=\frac{104}{?}

⇒ 131=104?\frac{13}{1}=\frac{104}{?}

⇒ ? = 8

Therefore, "8" is the required answer.

Question 43

What value will come in place of question mark (?) in the following question?

3×3×3+5×5×5(3)2+(5)2−3×5=?\frac{3 \times 3 \times 3+5 \times 5 \times 5}{(3)^2+(5)^2-3 \times 5}=?

  1. AOption (a)

    12

  2. BOption (b)

    13

  3. COption (c)

    15

  4. DOption (d)

    8

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

8

Why this answer is correct

Given:

3×3×3+5×5×5(3)2+(5)2−3×5=?\frac{3 \times 3 \times 3+5 \times 5 \times 5}{(3)^2+(5)^2-3 \times 5}=?

Concept used:

  1. (a3 + b3) = (a + b)(a2 + b2 - ab)

Calculation:

According to the question:

⇒ 3×3×3+5×5×5(3)2+(5)2−3×5=?\frac{3 \times 3 \times 3+5 \times 5 \times 5}{(3)^2+(5)^2-3 \times 5}=?

⇒ 33+5332+52−3×5=?\frac{3^3 +5^3}{3^2+5^2-3 \times 5}=?

⇒ (3+5)(32+52−3×5)(32+52−3×5)=?\frac{(3 +5)(3^2+5^2-3 \times 5)}{(3^2+5^2-3 \times 5)}=?

⇒ ? = 8

Therefore, "8" is the required answer.

Question 44

A number 1a2b3c is exactly divisible by 11. What are the possible values for (a, b, c)?

  1. AOption (a)

    (4, 0, 2)

  2. BOption (b)

    (4, 5, 3)

  3. COption (c)

    (5, 2, 7)

  4. DOption (d)

    (5, 3, 6)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(4, 0, 2)

Why this answer is correct

Given: 

The given number is 1a2b3c.

Concept:

The divisibility rule for 11 states that a number is divisible by 11 if the difference between the sum of the digits at odd positions and the sum of the digits at even positions is a multiple of 11 or equal to 0.

Calculation:

According to the question,

Add the digit in odd position = 1 + 2 + 3 = 6

Add the digit in odd position = a + b + c

Now, 

⇒ (a + b + c) - 6 = 0 or 11

First case:

⇒ (a + b + c) - 6 = 0

⇒ (a + b + c) = 6

Second case:

⇒ (a + b + c) - 6 = 11

⇒ (a + b + c) = 17

Only option 1 satisfies the First case:

a = 4, b = 0,  c = 2

Therefore, "(4, 0, 2)" is the required answer.

Additional Information

Concept:

The divisibility rule for 11 states that a number is divisible by 11 if the difference between the sum of the digits at odd positions and the sum of the digits at even positions is a multiple of 11 or equal to 0.

Example: Check 286 divisible by 11 or not.

Add the digits at odd positions (1st, 3rd) = 2 + 6 = 8

Add the digits at even positions (2nd) = 8

Now, find the difference between these two sums:

8 - 8 = 0

The difference is 0. Since 0 is a multiple of 11 (0 = 11 × 0), the number 286 is perfectly divisible by 11.

Question 45

In a six days 20-20 cricket tournament, a player makes different runs on all six days. The average runs scored by him in first five days are 55 and the average runs scored by him in last five days are 66. On sixth day, he scored 50 percent more runs than scored on first day. What are the runs scored by him on sixth day?

  1. AOption (a)

    150

  2. BOption (b)

    165

  3. COption (c)

    140

  4. DOption (d)

    125

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

165

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The average runs scored by him in first five days = 55

The average runs scored by him in last five days = 66 

On sixth day, he scored 50 percent more runs than scored on first day.

Calculation:

Let a, b, c, d, e, and f are the number of runs scored by the player on first, second, third, fourth, fifth and sixth days respectively.

The sum of runs scored by him in first five days = 55 × 5 = 275

⇒ a + b + c + d + e = 275    ---(1)

The sum of runs scored by him in last five days = 66 × 5 = 330

⇒ b + c + d + e + f = 330   ---(2)

On sixth day, he scored 50 percent more runs than scored on first day.

⇒ f = 1.5a

It can be written as:

⇒ a = 23\frac{2}{3}f    ---(3)

Now, substituting the equation (3) in (1), we get,

⇒ 2/3f + b + c + d + e = 275    ---(4)

Now subtracting (4) from (2), we get,

⇒ f/3 = 55

⇒ f = 165

Therefore, '165' is the required answer.

Question 46

Adam purchased 20 percent more chocolates than Baali. The price of each chocolate purchased by Baali is 50 percent more than the price of each chocolate purchased by Adam. Money spends by Baali is what percent more than that of Adam on chocolates?

  1. AOption (a)

    22.5 percent

  2. BOption (b)

    25 percent

  3. COption (c)

    30 percent

  4. DOption (d)

    15 percent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

25 percent

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Adam purchased 20 percent more chocolates than Baali.

The price of each chocolate purchased by Baali is 50 percent more than the price of each chocolate purchased by Adam.

Calculation:

The number of chocolates purchased by Baali = x

The number of chocolates purchased by Adam = (100% + 20%) of x = 120% of x = 1.2x

The price of each chocolate purchased by Adam = y

The price of each chocolate purchased by Baali = (100% + 50%) of y = 150% of y = 1.5y

Now, 

The total money spent by Baali = x × 1.5y = 1.5xy

The total money spent by Adam = 1.2x × y = 1.2xy

The percent of money spent by Adam more than by Baali = 1.5xy−1.2xy1.2xy\frac{1.5xy - 1.2xy}{1.2xy} × 100 = 25%

Money spends by Baali is 25% more than that of Adam on chocolates.

Therefore, "25 percent" is the required answer.

Question 47

The percentage of loss incurred in selling an article for Rs. 6,800 is equal to the percentage of gain earned by selling the same article for Rs.7,450. What could be the selling price of the same article if the profit percentage is 16 percent?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 8,265

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 7,460

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 7,685

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 8,480

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Rs. 8,265

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The percentage of loss incurred in selling an article for Rs. 6,800 is equal to the percentage of gain earned by selling the same article for Rs.7,450.

Formula used:

Gain% = SP - CPCP\frac{\text {SP - CP}}{\text {CP}} × 100

Loss% = CP - SPCP\frac{\text {CP - SP}}{\text {CP}} × 100

Calculation:

Let C be the cost price of the article.

According to the question,

⇒ C−6800C×100=7450−CC×100\frac{C-6800}{C} × 100 = \frac{7450 - C}{C} × 100

⇒ C - 6800 = 7450 - C

⇒ 2C = 7450 + 6800

⇒ 2C = 14250

⇒ C = Rs. 7125

Now, 

Selling price for 16% profit = (100% + 16%) × 7125 = 116% × 7125 = Rs. 8265

Therefore, "Rs. 8265" is the required answer.

Question 48

In a certain store, the profit is 250 percent of the cost price. If the cost price increases by 20 percent but the selling price remains constant, approximately what percentage of the selling price is the profit?

  1. AOption (a)

    75 percent

  2. BOption (b)

    66 percent

  3. COption (c)

    60 percent

  4. DOption (d)

    56 percent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

66 percent

Why this answer is correct

Given:

In a certain store, the profit is 250 percent of the cost price. If the cost price increases by 20 percent but the selling price remains constant.

Formula used:

Selling Price = (100% + Profit%) of Cost Price

Calculation:

Let the cost price = Rs. 100

First Case:

Selling price = (100% + 250%) of Rs. 100 = 350% of Rs. 100 = Rs. 350

Second Case:

Increased cost price = (100% + 20%) of Rs. 100 = Rs. 120

Selling Price = Rs. 350

Profit = Rs. 350 - Rs. 120 = Rs. 230

According to the question:

The required percentage = 230350×100\frac{230}{350} \times 100 ≈ 66%

Therefore, "66%" is the required answer.

Question 49

By selling 45 laddus for Rs. 40 , a man loses 20 percent. How many laddus should he sell for Rs. 24 to gain 20 percent?

  1. AOption (a)

    16

  2. BOption (b)

    20

  3. COption (c)

    18

  4. DOption (d)

    15

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

18

Why this answer is correct

Given:

By selling 45 laddus for Rs. 40, a man loses 20 percent.

Formula used:

Selling Price = (100% - Loss%) of Cost Price

Calculation:

Let C be the cost price of one laddu

First Case:

Selling price of 45 laddus = Rs. 40

Selling price of 1 laddus = Rs. 4045\frac{40}{45}

Now,

⇒ 4045\frac{40}{45} = (100% - 20%) of C

⇒ 4045\frac{40}{45} = 80% of C

⇒ C = Rs. 50/45

Second Case:

To gain 20%.

Selling price of each laddu = (100% + 20%) of 50/45 = Rs. 4/3

Now, the number of laddus to be sold for Rs 24 = 2443\frac{24}{\frac{4}{3}} = 18

Therefore, "18" is the required answer.

Question 50

There were 46 students in a boys hostel. Due to the admission of eight new students the expenses of the hostel mess were increased by Rs. 42 per day while the average expenditure per head diminished by Rs 1. What was the original expenditure of the hostel mess?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 572

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs.544

  3. COption (c)

    Rs.552

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 652

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Rs.552

Why this answer is correct

Given:

There were 46 students in a boys hostel.

Due to the admission of eight new students the expenses of the hostel mess were increased by Rs. 42 per day while the average expenditure per head diminished by Rs 1.

Calculation:

Let 'x' be the original expenditure of the hostel mess in rupees per day.

Case 1:

The total number of students = 46

The average expenditure per head = Rs. x46\frac{x}{46} per day

Case 2: When 8 new students are admitted

The total number student = 46 + 8 = 54

The new average expenditure per head = Rs. x+4254\frac{x+42}{54} per day

According to the problem,

The average expenditure per head diminished by Rs 1, 

Therefore, 

⇒ x46−x+4254\frac{x}{46} - \frac{x+42}{54} = 1

⇒ 54x−46x−(46×42)46×54\frac{54x - 46x-(46 × 42)}{46 × 54} = 1

⇒ 8x = (46 × 54) + (46 × 42)

⇒ 8x = 46 × (54 + 42)

⇒ x = 46 × 12

⇒ x = Rs. 552

The original expenditure of the mess = Rs. 552

Therefore, "Rs. 552" is the required answer.

Question 51

The ratio of the ages of Dev's and his son is 4 ∶ 1 respectively. After 11 years, their ages will be in the ratio 13 ∶ 6 respectively. What was Dev's age when his son was born?

  1. AOption (a)

    25 years

  2. BOption (b)

    21 years

  3. COption (c)

    24 years

  4. DOption (d)

    23 years

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

21 years

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Present Age: The ratio of the ages of Dev's and his son is 4 ∶ 1 respectively.

After 11 years, their ages will be in the ratio 13 ∶ 6 respectively.

Calculation:

Case 1: Present Age:

Age of Dev = 4x

Age of his son = x

Case 2: After 11 years:

Age of Dev = 4x + 11

Age of his son = x + 11

According to the question,

⇒ 4x+11x+11=136\frac{4x + 11}{x + 11} = \frac{13}{6}

⇒ 6(4x + 11) = 13(x + 11)

⇒ 24x + 66 = 13x + 143

⇒ 11x = 77

⇒ x = 7

The present age of Dev = 4 × 7 = 28

The present age of his son = x = 7

Now, 

The age of Dev at the time when his son was born = 28 - 7 = 21

Therefore, "21 years" is the required answer.

Question 52

What is the difference between simple interest and compound interest on a sum of Rs. 1200 for one year at 10 percent per annum, compounded half yearly?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 30

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 3

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 60

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 6

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rs. 3

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Principal = Rs. 1200

Rate = 10% per annum

Time = 1 year

Formula used:

1. Simple Interest (SI):

SI=PRT100SI = \frac{PRT}{100}

Where:

SI is the Simple Interest.

P is the principal amount (the initial amount of money).

R is the rate of interest per period (usually per year).

T is the time the money is invested or borrowed for (in years).

2. Compound Interest (CI):

A=P(1+Rn×100)nTA = P \left ( 1 + \frac{R}{n \times 100}\right)^{nT}

Where:

A is the amount of money accumulated after n years, including interest.

P is the principal amount (the initial amount of money).

R is the annual interest rate 

n is the number of times that interest is compounded per year.

T is the time the money is invested or borrowed for (in years).

3. Compound Interest = Amount - Principal

Calculation:

Case 1: Simple Interest:

⇒ S.I = 1200×10×1100\frac{1200 \times 10 \times 1}{100} = Rs. 120

Case 2: Compound Interest:

Since the interest is compounded half-yearly, 

Therefore, 

n = 2

Now,

⇒ A=1200×(1+102×100)2×1A = 1200 \times \left ( 1 + \frac{10}{2 \times 100} \right )^{2 \times 1}

⇒ A=1200×(1+120)2A = 1200 \times \left ( 1 + \frac{1}{20} \right )^2

⇒ A=1200×(2120)2A = 1200 \times \left ( \frac{21}{20} \right )^2 = Rs. 1323

Now, C.I = Rs. 1323 - Rs. 1200 = Rs. 123

Now, the required difference = Rs. 123 - Rs. 120 = Rs. 3

Therefore, "Rs. 3" is the required answer.

Question 53

A boat can cover 84 km upstream and 252 km downstream in 15 hours. If the speed of the boat in still water is thrice the speed of stream, then find the time taken by the boat to cover 126 km upstream.

  1. AOption (a)

    7 hours

  2. BOption (b)

    8 hours

  3. COption (c)

    9 hours

  4. DOption (d)

    6 hours

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

9 hours

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A boat can cover 84 km upstream and 252 km downstream in 15 hours.

If the speed of the boat in still water is thrice the speed of stream.

Formula used:

  1. Upstream speed = u - v
  2. Downstream speed = u + v

Where, 

u = speed of the boat in still water

v = speed of the stream

  1. Total time of Journey = Time of travel in Downstream + Time of travel in Upstream

Total time of Journey = xu+v+yu−v\frac{x}{u+v} + \frac{y}{u-v}

Where,

x = distance covered in downstream 

y = distance covered in upstream

Calculation:

Let the speed of the stream = x 

The speed of the boat in still water = 3x

According to the question,

⇒ 843x−x+2523x+x=15\frac{84}{3x - x} + \frac{252}{3x + x} = 15

⇒ 842x+2524x=15\frac{84}{2x} + \frac{252}{4x} = 15

⇒ 42x+63x=15\frac{42}{x} + \frac{63}{x} = 15

⇒ 105 = 15x

⇒ x = 7

Let the speed of the stream = 7 km/hr

The speed of the boat in still water = 3 × 7 = 21 km\hr

Again according to the question,

The time taken by the boat to cover 126 km upstream = 12621−7\frac{126}{21-7} = 9 hours

Therefore, "9 hours" is the required answer.

Question 54

In how much time will a car cover a distance of 9000 meter with a speed of 90 kmph.?

  1. AOption (a)

    0.1 Hour

  2. BOption (b)

    0.2 Hour

  3. COption (c)

    0.3 Hour

  4. DOption (d)

    0.4 Hour

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

0.1 Hour

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Distance = 9000 m = 9 km

Speed = 90 kmph

Formula used:

Time = DistanceSpeed\frac{\text{Distance}}{\text{Speed}}

Calculation:

According to the question,

Time required = 990\frac{9}{90} = 0.1 hour

In 0.1 hour a car cover a distance of 9000 meter with a speed of 90 kmph.

Therefore, "0.1 hour" is the required answer.

Question 55

Arihant starts doing a certain work. After 4 days, Arun who is half efficient as Arihant starts working on the same work. As a result, the work gets completed in 9 more days. What is the time to complete the work if Arun does it alone?

  1. AOption (a)

    32 days

  2. BOption (b)

    35 days

  3. COption (c)

    38 days

  4. DOption (d)

    39 days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

35 days

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Efficiency ratio of Arihant : Arun = 2 : 1 (since Arun is half efficient).

Total work = (Arihant total days × efficiency) + (Arun total days × efficiency)

Total work = (13 × 2) + (9 × 1) = 26 + 9 = 35 units.

Time for Arun alone = 35 units ÷ 1 unit/day = 35 days.

∴ The correct answer is 35 days.

Alternate Method

Given:

⇒ Arihant worked for 4 days alone + 9 days with Arun = 13 days.

⇒ Arun worked for 9 days total.

⇒ Efficiency of Arun = 1/2 of Arihant efficiency.

Formula Used:

⇒ Total Work = (Efficiency × Time)

⇒ Time = Total Work ÷ Efficiency

Calculations:

⇒ Let Arun efficiency = 1 unit/day, then Arihant efficiency = 2 units/day.

PersonTotal Days WorkedEfficiencyWork Done (Units)
Arihant13226
Arun919
Total Work--35

⇒ Total work performed = 26 + 9 = 35 units.

⇒ Time taken by Arun alone = Total Work ÷ Arun efficiency

⇒ Time = 35 ÷ 1 = 35 days.

∴ The correct answer is 35 days.

Additional Information

Efficiency-Time Relationship

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken to complete a task. If efficiency ratio is a : b, the time ratio is b : a.

Combined Work Rule

When individuals work together, their daily efficiencies are added (Etotal = E1 + E2 + ... + En) to find the total rate of work.

Work Constant Formula

For the same piece of work, M1 × D1 × E1 = M2 × D2 × E2, where M is number of workers, D is days, and E is efficiency.

Question 56

A, B and C can do a work in 6, 8 and 12 days respectively. Doing that work together they get an amount of total Rs. 1350, the share of B in that amount is:

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 450

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 440

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 400

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 430

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Rs. 450

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A, B and C can do a work in 6, 8 and 12 days respectively.

Doing that work together they get an amount of total Rs. 1350.

Concept/ Formula:

  1. The total amount of work done = L.C.M (a, b, c) units

Where, 

a, b, c are the time taken by A, B and C to do the work.

  1. The wages divided among the workers is directly proportional to amount of work done.

If they work for the same number of days, then the amount of wages is directly proportional to their efficiency.

Calculation:

The total amount of work done = L.C.M (6, 8, 12) = 24 units

Efficiency of A = 24/6 = 4 units a day

Efficiency of B = 24/8 = 3 units a day

Efficiency of C = 24/12 = 2 units a day

Since they work for the same number of days,

Therefore the amount of wages is directly proportional to their efficiency.

Therefore, the ratio in which wage is divided among A, B and C = 4 : 3 : 2

The share for B = 13504+3+2×3\frac{1350}{4+3+2} \times 3 = Rs. 450

Therefore, "Rs. 450" is the required answer.

Question 57

Find the cost of painting the total surface area of the hemisphere of radius 14 m at the rate of Rs. 5/m2.

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 9240

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs.9080

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 9170

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 9360

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Rs. 9240

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Radius of the hemisphere = 14 m

The cost of painting = Rs. 5 per m2

Formula used:

Total surface area of hemisphere = 3πr2

Where, 

r = radius of hemisphere

Calculation:

According to the question,

The total surface area of hemisphere = 3 × 227\frac{22}{7} × 14 × 14 = 1848 sq m

The cost of painting = 1848 × 5 = Rs. 9240

Therefore, "Rs. 9240" is the required answer.

Question 58

A chessboard contains 64 equal squares and the area of each square is 2.56 cm2. Find the length of the side of the chessboard.

  1. AOption (a)

    3.5 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    4 cm

  3. COption (c)

    12.8 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    8 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

12.8 cm

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A chessboard contains 64 equal squares.

The area of each square is 2.56 cm2.

Concept used:

Area of square = a2

Where, a is the side length of the square

Calculation:

Since the chess board contains 64 equal squares,

Therefore, the number of squares formed horizontally and vertically are 8.

It can be written as:

The number of small squares in horizontal direction = 8

The number of small squares in vertical direction = 8

Now, 

Let the side length of the small square = a

Area of each small square = a2 =  2.56 cm2

⇒ a2 = 2.56

⇒ a = 1.6 cm

Now, the length of chess board = 8 × 1.6 = 12.8 cm

Therefore, "12.8 cm" is the required answer.

Question 59

The given table shows the number of workers in various departments with different age groups in a company.

Department21-25 (age in years)26-30 (age in years)31-35 (age in years)36-40 (age in years)
Production250300210150
Marketing120856075
Logistic70658095
Finance203540150
Sales406055115

Which age group has the highest average number of workers in various departments?

  1. AOption (a)

    26-30

  2. BOption (b)

    31-35

  3. COption (c)

    36-40

  4. DOption (d)

    21-25

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

36-40

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The given table shows the number of workers in various departments with different age groups in a company.

Calculation:

According to the question,

The average number of workers in 21-25 age groups in all groups = 250+120+70+20+405=5005\frac{250+120+70+20+40}{5}=\frac{500}{5} = 100

The average number of workers in 26-30 age groups in all groups = 300+85+65+35+605=5455\frac{300+85+65+35+60}{5}=\frac{545}{5} = 109

The average number of workers in 31-35 age groups in all groups = 210+60+80+40+555=4455\frac{210+60+80+40+55}{5}=\frac{445}{5} = 89

The average number of workers in 36-40 age groups in all groups = 150+75+95+150+1155=5855\frac{150+75+95+150+115}{5}=\frac{585}{5} = 117

∴ 36-40 age group has the highest average number of workers in various departments.

Therefore, "36-40" is the required answer.

Question 60

The following line graph represents the sale of the number of Burgers at a shop for the seven days.

On which day, the number of burgers sold is equal to the average number of burgers sold by the shopkeeper during the given period?

  1. AOption (a)

    Friday

  2. BOption (b)

    Saturday

  3. COption (c)

    Wednesday

  4. DOption (d)

    Monday

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Wednesday

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The following line graph represents the sale of the number of Burgers at a shop for the seven days.

Calculation:

The number of burger sold on Monday = 172

The number of burger sold on Tuesday = 140

The number of burger sold on Wednesday = 185

The number of burger sold on Thursday = 156

The number of burger sold on Friday = 192

The number of burger sold on Saturday = 210

The number of burer sold on Sunday = 240

The average number of burger sold over of the week = 172+140+185+156+192+210+2407=12957\frac{172+140+185+156+192+210+240}{7}=\frac{1295}{7} = 185

On Wednesday day, the number of burgers sold is equal to the average number of burgers sold by the shopkeeper during the given period.

Therefore, "Wednesday" is the required answer.

General English (20 questions)

Question 61

One part of the sentence below may contain an error. Identify the part. If there is no error, choose 'No error'.

If we release the fishes on the water surface, they will being eaten by bigger fishes.

  1. AOption (a)

    If we release the

  2. BOption (b)

    fishes on the water surface

  3. COption (c)

    they will being eaten by bigger fishes

  4. DOption (d)

    No error

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

they will being eaten by bigger fishes

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'they will being eaten by bigger fishes'

Key Points

  • The phrase 'they will being eaten by bigger fishes' is grammatically incorrect.
  • The incorrect part is the usage of 'being eaten' after 'will'.
  • 'will' is a modal verb that requires the base form of a verb to follow it.
  • The corrected segment of the sentence would be 'they will be eaten by bigger fishes'.
  • Here, 'be eaten' is in the passive voice, which is the correct form to use when the subject of the sentence is the recipient of the action.
  • The correct usage of 'will' followed by 'be' and then the past participle of the verb (in this case 'eaten') forms the future passive voice.
  • This voice is used when the focus is on the action that will happen to the subject in the future, not who or what will perform the action.
  • One important rule in English grammar is ensuring the correct use of verb tenses and forms.
  • In this case, the transformative nature of the sentence from active to passive requires a specific verb form.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Question 62

One part of the sentence below may contain an error. Identify the part. If there is no error, choose 'No error'.

How can the governments achieve a state of a clean environment in cities in future?

  1. AOption (a)

    How can the governments achieve

  2. BOption (b)

    a state of a clean environment

  3. COption (c)

    in cities in future

  4. DOption (d)

    No error

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

No error

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'No error'

 Key Points

  • The sentence "How can the governments achieve a state of a clean environment in cities in future?" is grammatically correct.
  • All words and phrases are used properly, and the sentence construction follows standard English syntax rules.
  • The use of 'can' is appropriate as it is used to express possibility or capability.
  • "The governments" correctly refers to multiple governing bodies that may be involved in the improvement of the environment.
  • The phrase 'a state of a clean environment' is a grammatically correct use of 'a state of', which is referring to a condition or way of being, in this case being 'clean' or pollution-free.
  • The phrase 'in cities in future' correctly uses 'in' as a preposition denoting location (cities) and time (future).

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Question 63

Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute the underlined segment, select 'No improvement'.

A well-known animal living in the polar regions are a penguins.

  1. AOption (a)

    are penguin

  2. BOption (b)

    penguin

  3. COption (c)

    is the penguin

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

is the penguin

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'is the penguin'

 Key Points

  • The underlined segment 'are a penguins' is incorrect due to a disagreement in number between the verb 'are' and the singular noun 'a penguin'.
  • The verb 'are' is used for plural subjects, while 'is' is used for singular subjects.
  • Thus, 'is' should be used since the noun 'penguin' is singular in this context.
  • The use of the indefinite article 'a' before 'penguins' is also incorrect due to the mismatch in number.
  • The definite article 'the' should be used referring to a specific category of animals.
  • In sum, the correct substitute for the underlined segment should be 'is the penguin', which maintains the subject-verb agreement and corrects the usage of articles.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Question 64

Select the most appropriate option to substitute the bracketed part in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute the bracketed part, select 'No improvement'.

The teacher asked me to (do away) my assignment and submit it to her before the weekend.

  1. AOption (a)

    do up

  2. BOption (b)

    do over

  3. COption (c)

    do away with

  4. DOption (d)

    No Improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

do over

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'do over'

 Key Points

  • The phrase 'do away' is not appropriate in this context.
  • 'Do away' typically means 'to get rid of something' or 'to dispose of', and isn't accurate when speaking about completing an assignment.
  • 'Do over' is an idiomatic expression meaning 'to redo or start again', which fits the context appropriately.
  • The teacher is asking the student to redo the assignment and then submit it.
  • It's important to note that idiomatic expressions vary in meaning depending on context, so it's crucial to select the expression that best fits the intended message.
  • The use of prepositions (in this case 'over') can also significantly alter the meaning of a verb, hence changing 'do away' to 'do over' drastically changes the meaning of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 Additional Information

  • 'do up' generally means making something tidy or presentable, inappropriate in this context.
  • 'do away with' means to get rid of or eliminate, matching the context but still incomplete.
  • 'Do over': A phrase indicating that an action or task should be completed again, typically to improve upon it.

Question 65

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Different strategies have been used to ________ awareness about education.

  1. AOption (a)

    spreading

  2. BOption (b)

    had spread

  3. COption (c)

    have spread

  4. DOption (d)

    spread

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

spread

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'spread'

 Key Points

  • In this context, 'spread' is the best fit to complete the sentence.
  • The verb 'spread' is commonly used when discussing the distribution or dissemination of information or awareness.
  • The sentence is in the passive voice and the verb 'used' clearly indicates past actions.
  • Hence, the verb that follows should also be in its base form (spread), conveying an action that is a result of the strategies.
  • Using 'spread' maintains the coherence of the sentence by indicating that the strategies have helped distribute (spread) awareness.
  • 'spreading', 'had spread', and 'have spread' are grammatically incorrect in this context as these forms do not align with the sentence structure set by 'have been used to'.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Question 66

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

To _______ over past misfortunes can only bring sadness.

  1. AOption (a)

    dwell

  2. BOption (b)

    dwelt

  3. COption (c)

    dwelling

  4. DOption (d)

    dwelled

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

dwell

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'dwell'

 Key Points

  • 'Dwell' is the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. In this context, it means to think, speak, or write at length about (a particular subject, especially something unpleasant or problematic).
  • 'Dwell' is an infinitive verb in this sentence, in that it follows 'to' and expresses a certain action. Since the sentence describes an ongoing, continuous activity (going over past misfortunes), 'dwell' is suitable.
  • Using the simple base form of the verb after 'To' is a standard grammar rule.
  • The word 'dwell' follows this rule, making it the correct option.
  • The verb 'dwell' accurately captures the tone of the sentence, which suggests overstaying or lingering on past issues, resulting in sadness.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Question 67

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

Remember to _______ from making any negative remarks about the project.

  1. AOption (a)

    abstain

  2. BOption (b)

    refrain

  3. COption (c)

    keep up

  4. DOption (d)

    going

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

refrain

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'refrain'

 Key Points

  • The verb 'refrain' is the best fit for this sentence.
  • 'Refrain' means to stop oneself from doing something, aligning perfectly with the context: preventing oneself from making negative remarks.
  • Using 'refrain' communicates a clear and polite directive as it is often used in formal language to indicate abstaining from a certain action.
  • The verb 'refrain' must be followed by 'from' and a gerund (-ing form of a verb) as per standard English language usage.
  • The choice of the word 'refrain' emphasizes self-discipline and control over one’s response, which is the main drive of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 Additional Information

  • 'abstain' implies a formal act of voluntarily abstaining, which is overly formal for this context.
  • 'keep up' means to maintain or sustain a certain level or pace, not fitting in this context.
  • 'going' is incorrect because it does not follow the grammatical structure set by 'to'

Question 68

The question consists of four statements labelled P, Q, R, and S which when logically arranged form a coherent passage. Choose the option that represents the most logical order.

P. with advanced tool and technology,

Q. unlike today's simpler and easier life

R. the early human beings lived differently

S. making best gadgets and facilities available easily

  1. AOption (a)

    PQRS

  2. BOption (b)

    RQPS

  3. COption (c)

    RSPQ

  4. DOption (d)

    RPSQ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

RQPS

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'RQPS'

 Key Points

  • The logical flow of ideas should start by setting the context, which is 'R: the early human beings lived differently'.
  • Then, the comparison introduced in statement 'R' can be expanded using 'Q: unlike today's simpler and easier life', explaining in what way early human beings lived differently.
  • After this comparison, we can bring in 'P: with advanced tool and technology', which is referring to today's life mentioned in 'Q'.
  • Finally, we can conclude the sequence with 'S: making best gadgets and facilities available easily'. This adds detail to the idea introduced in 'P', providing specific examples of how technology has made life simpler and easier.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Question 69

Select the most appropriate synonym for the given word.

Ease

  1. AOption (a)

    Demean

  2. BOption (b)

    Expression

  3. COption (c)

    Soften

  4. DOption (d)

    Assault

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Soften

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Soften.'

 Key Points

  • Ease refers to alleviating, making something less trying or severe, or managing something without difficulty. (किसी चीज को कम कठिनाई या गंभीरता से संभालने, या सहजता से किसी चीज को संभालने के लिए।)
  • Synonyms: Alleviate, Mitigate, Reduce, Lessen.
  • Example Sentence: Regular exercise can ease the symptoms of depression.
  • Soften means to make or become less severe, harsh, extreme, or firm. (कम कठोर या दृढ़ बनाना ।)
  • Example Sentence: The government is expected to soften its stance on immigration.
  • Hence, the option 'Soften' is similar in meaning to the given word 'Ease' and is the most appropriate synonym.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

​ Additional Information 

  • Demean means to cause a lessening of respect or esteem; debase. (सम्मान की कमी का कारण बनना; नीचा करना।)
  • Expression refers to the process of making one's thoughts or feelings known. (अपने विचारों या भावनाओं को ज्ञात करने की प्रक्रिया।)
  • Assault refers to a sudden violent attack. (एक अचानक हिंसात्मक हमला।)

Question 70

Select the most appropriate antonym for the given word.

Dogma

  1. AOption (a)

    Principle

  2. BOption (b)

    Doubt

  3. COption (c)

    Justice

  4. DOption (d)

    Optional

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Doubt

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Doubt.'

 Key Points

  • Dogma refers to a principle or set of principles laid down by an authority as incontrovertibly true. (एक सिद्धांत या सेट जिसे किसी प्राधिकरण द्वारा असंशयतः सच मान दिया गया हो।)
  • Synonyms: Doctrine, Creed, Tenet, Precept.
  • Example Sentence: It's a dogma of modern economics that free trade benefits all nations.
  • Doubt means to consider questionable or unlikely; hesitate to believe. (संदेह या असंभाव्य का विचार करें; विश्वास करने में हिचकिचाएँ।)
  • Example Sentence: The scientist doubted the claims about the new drug's effectiveness.
  • Hence, the option 'Doubt' is opposite in meaning to the given word 'Dogma,' making it the most appropriate antonym.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 Additional Information

  • Principle refers to a fundamental truth or proposition that serves as the foundation for a system of belief or behavior. (एक मूल सत्य या प्रस्ताव जो विश्वास या व्यवहार के एक प्रणाली के लिए आधार के रूप में कार्य करता है।)
  • Justice refers to the quality of being just or fair. (न्याय या निष्पक्ष होने की गुणवत्ता।)
  • Optional means that something is not compulsory but is available as a choice. (कुछ अनिवार्य नहीं है, लेकिन विकल्प के रूप में उपलब्ध है।)

Question 71

Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

  1. AOption (a)

    Amateur

  2. BOption (b)

    Harrasment

  3. COption (c)

    Climactic

  4. DOption (d)

    Definitely

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Harrasment

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Harrasment.'

 Key Points

  • Amateur is correctly spelled and refers to a person who engages in a pursuit, study, science, or sport as a pastime rather than as a profession. (एक व्यक्ति जो पेशेवर के बजाय पुर्सुकून के रूप में किसी पीलीवी, अध्ययन, विज्ञान, या खेल में रुचि लेता है।)
  • Example Sentence: The painting was not that excellent; it must be the work of an amateur.
  • Harrasment is the incorrect spelling of the word 'harassment.'The correct spelling, 'harassment,' means the act of systematic and/or continued unwanted and annoying actions of one party or a group. (एक पक्ष या समूह की अनचाहे और परेशान करने वाले क्रियाओं का नियमित और/या निरंतर कर्म।)
  • Example Sentence: He filed a complaint about harassment at work to his manager.
  • Climactic is correctly spelled and refers to forming a climax, which means the most intense or highest point of something. ( किसी चीज की सबसे तीव्र या सबसे उच्च बिंदु।)
  • Example Sentence: The movie’s climactic chase scene was filled with astonishing special effects.
  • Definitely is correctly spelled and means without doubt or categorically. 
  • Example Sentence: I will definitely be at the airport to meet you.
  • Hence, the option 'Harrasment' is the incorrectly spelled word.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Question 72

Select the CORRECTLY spelt word.

  1. AOption (a)

    Piognant

  2. BOption (b)

    Poignant

  3. COption (c)

    Poegnant

  4. DOption (d)

    Poignent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Poignant

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Poignant.'

 Key Points

  • Piognant is an incorrect spelling.
  • Poignant is the correctly spelled word and refers to something that deeply touches one’s feelings or emotions usually in a sorrowful or regretful manner. (कुछ जो गहरी भावना में किसी की भावनाओं को छूने वाली होती है, आमतौर पर एक दुःखद या पछतावे के ढंग से।)
  • Example Sentence: The photograph was a poignant reminder of her childhood.
  • Poegnant is an incorrect spelling.
  • Poignent is an incorrect spelling.
  • Hence, the option 'Poignant' is spelled correctly.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Question 73

In the following question, out of the four given options, select the one that best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

In the heat of the moment.

  1. AOption (a)

    Overwhelmed by what is happening in the moment.

  2. BOption (b)

    Keep something away.

  3. COption (c)

    To share information that was previously concealed.

  4. DOption (d)

    In a confused or befuddled state of mind.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Overwhelmed by what is happening in the moment.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Overwhelmed by what is happening in the moment.'

 Key Points

  • The phrase "In the heat of the moment" is an idiom that refers to the state of being swept up or carried away by a circumstance's gravity or intensity.
  • Example: "things said in the heat of the moment"
  • It often depicts scenarios where someone may react quickly without thoroughly thinking through their actions.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 Additional Information

  • Keep something away: This generally means to prevent something or someone from coming near or interfering.
  • To share information that was previously concealed: This would mean to disclose or reveal something that was previously hidden.
  • In a confused or befuddled state of mind: This signifies a state of mental disorientation or lack of clarity.

Question 74

In the following question, out of the four given options, select the one that best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

Zip up your lip.

  1. AOption (a)

    To reveal a secret.

  2. BOption (b)

    To be quiet.

  3. COption (c)

    To be friendly.

  4. DOption (d)

    To hold grudges.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

To be quiet.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'To be quiet.'

 Key Points

  • "Zip up your lip" is a colloquial phrase used to tell someone to stop talking or to keep silent.
  • This phrase can be used in a range of scenarios such as when someone is talking excessively, revealing secrets, or speaking inappropriately.
  • Example: I zipped my lip at yesterday's meeting, as there was no point in saying anything.
  • This idiom usually has a sense of urgency or sternness, implying that the person should stop speaking immediately.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 Additional Information

  • To reveal a secret: This means to disclose information that was meant to be kept confidential.
  • To be friendly: This usually refers to being kind and approachable to others.
  • To hold grudges: This means to harbor feelings of resentment or anger towards someone due to past wrongs.

Question 75

Select the word which means the same as the following group of the words.

Power of reading others' thoughts.

  1. AOption (a)

    Teleportation

  2. BOption (b)

    Telekinesis

  3. COption (c)

    Telepathy

  4. DOption (d)

    Antipathy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Telepathy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Telepathy.'

 Key Points

  • Telepathy refers to the supposed communication of thoughts or ideas by means other than the known senses.
  • The term comes from the Greek words "tele," meaning "distant," and "pathos or patheia," meaning "feeling, perception, passion, affliction, experience."
  • This term is commonly used in science fiction and paranormal literature to refer to the ability of characters to communicate mentally.
  • Although the concept is widely popular in fictional works, there is no scientific evidence that supports the existence of telepathy in the real world.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 Additional Information

  • Teleportation: This means instantaneously moving from one location to another without physically traversing the space in between.
  • Telekinesis: This refers to the supposed ability to move objects at a distance by mental power or other nonphysical means.
  • Antipathy: This signifies a deep-seated feeling of dislike or aversion.

Read the following passage and answer the questions below.

Alfonso Cuarón is a Mexican film director, producer, screenwriter, cinematographer and editor. Cuarón is the first Mexico-born filmmaker to win the Academy Award for Best Director. He has been nominated for Academy Awards in six different categories, a record he shares with Walt Disney and George Clooney. Cuarón has received 11 Academy Award nominations, winning four including Best Director for Gravity (2013) and Roma (2018), Best Film Editing for Gravity, and Best Cinematography for Roma. His other notable films from a variety of genres include the family drama A Little Princess (1995), the romantic drama Great Expectations (1998), the coming of age road film Y tu mamá también (2001), the fantasy film Harry Potter and the Prisoner of Azkaban (2004), and the science fiction dystopian thriller Children of Men (2006). Alfonso Cuarón Orozco was born in Mexico City, the son of Alfredo Cuarón, a doctor specializing in nuclear medicine, and Cristina Orozco, a pharmaceutical biochemist.

He has two brothers, Carlos, also a filmmaker, and Alfredo, a conservation biologist. He studied philosophy and filmmaking. There he met the director Carlos Marcovich and cinematographer Emmanuel Lubezki, and they made what would be his first short film, Vengeance Is Mine.). In addition to writing, producing and directing, Cuarón co-edited the film with Luis Patlán. The film, which also starred singer, Astrid Hadad and model/actress Claudia Ramírez (with whom Cuarón was linked between 1989 and 1993) was a big hit in Mexico. After this success, director Sydney Pollack hired Cuarón to direct an episode of Fallen Angels, a series of neo-noir stories produced for the Showtime premium cable network in 1993; other directors who worked on the series included Steven Soderbergh, Jonathan Kaplan, Peter Bogdanovich, and Tom Hanks. In 1995, Cuarón released his first feature film produced in the United States, A Little Princess, an adaptation of Frances Hodgson Burnett's classic novel.

Question 76

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following statements is NOT correct, according to the given passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Alfonso has also been part of Harry Potter.

  2. BOption (b)

    Alfonso is the first Mexico-born filmmaker to win the Academy Award for Best Director.

  3. COption (c)

    Alfonso has been nominated for Academy Awards in six different categories.

  4. DOption (d)

    Alfonso studied both psychology and filmmaking.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Alfonso studied both psychology and filmmaking.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Alfonso studied both psychology and filmmaking.'

Key Points

  • According to the given passage, Alfonso Cuarón studied philosophy and filmmaking, not psychology and filmmaking.
  • The passage specifies this information when it details his background, highlighting his subjects of study.
  • It is crucial to note the accuracy in academic background as it forms a critical part of individual's training and is reflective of their interests and educational journey.
  • Hence, it is important to stress here that he studied philosophy, a subject concerned with the study of fundamental questions about existence, reason, knowledge and ethics - which is significantly different from psychology, the study of mind and behavior.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Question 77

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which one of the following is the first short film of Alfonso Cuaron?

  1. AOption (a)

    Fallen Angels

  2. BOption (b)

    Sólo con tu pareja

  3. COption (c)

    A Little Princess

  4. DOption (d)

    Vengeance Is Mine

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Vengeance Is Mine

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Vengeance Is Mine.'

Key Points

  • The passage clearly states that 'Vengeance Is Mine' was the first short film that Alfonso Cuaron made.
  • This milestone occurred while he was studying filmmaking and had met director Carlos Marcovich and cinematographer Emmanuel Lubezki.
  • 'Vengeance Is Mine' was not only his debut in short films, but, as noted in the text, it was also a substantial hit in Mexico.
  • This point in Cuaron's career was pivotal as it was the start of his journey into short film making.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Question 78

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Director Sydney Pollack hired Cuarón to direct an episode of Fallen Angels, a series of neo-noir stories produced for the Showtime premium cable network in 1993. The following were the co-directors in the series, except...

  1. AOption (a)

    Steven Soderbergh

  2. BOption (b)

    Claudia Ramírez

  3. COption (c)

    Peter Bogdanovich

  4. DOption (d)

    Jonathan Kaplan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Claudia Ramírez

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Claudia Ramírez.'

Key Points

  • In the given passage, Claudia Ramírez is mentioned as an actress and model, with whom Cuarón had a relationship.
  • However, the text does not credit Ramirez as a co-director of the series 'Fallen Angels.'
  • The co-directors of 'Fallen Angels', according to the passage, include Steven Soderbergh, Jonathan Kaplan, Peter Bogdanovich, and Tom Hanks. These names are specifically mentioned in the context of directors for this series.
  • Thus, Claudia Ramírez was not a co-director for the series 'Fallen Angels' as per the information in the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Question 79

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

According to the given passage, Alfonso has been nominated for Academy Awards in six different categories. Who else has made this record except Alfonso?

  1. AOption (a)

    Barlos Marcovich

  2. BOption (b)

    Emmanuel Lubezki

  3. COption (c)

    George Clooney

  4. DOption (d)

    Alfredo Cuarón

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

George Clooney

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'George Clooney.'

Key Points

  • The passage mentions that Alfonso Cuarón has been nominated for Academy Awards across six different categories, a record he shares with Walt Disney and George Clooney.
  • This denotes that George Clooney, like Cuarón and Walt Disney, has been recognized across a range of award categories, highlighting their versatile capabilities in the film industry.
  • There is no mention of Barlos Marcovich, Emmanuel Lubezki, or Alfredo Cuarón achieving the same record according to the passage.
  • The specifics about these shared records represent the expansive and multi-faceted contributions of these individuals to the landscape of cinema.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Question 80

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

According to the given passage, the film 'Children of Men' falls in which genre?

  1. AOption (a)

    Romantic drama

  2. BOption (b)

    Science fiction

  3. COption (c)

    Family drama

  4. DOption (d)

    Action thriller

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Science fiction

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Science fiction.'

Key Points

  • The movie 'Children of Men' is mentioned in the passage as being part of the science fiction genre.
  • The context in the passage where this is mentioned details Alfonso's notable works from a variety of genres.
  • Science fiction typically features imaginative and futuristic concepts, and given the narrative of 'Children of Men,' it is an appropriate genre classification.
  • Understanding the genre of a film is often essential to understanding its storytelling style, themes, and narrative complexities.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

General Hindi (20 questions)

Question 81

निम्नलिखित में से "साहित्येतर" का सही संधि विच्छेद कौन-सा है?

  1. AOption (a)

    ​साहित्य + येत्तर

  2. BOption (b)

    साहित्ये + अतर

  3. COption (c)

    साहित्य + इतर

  4. DOption (d)

    साहित्य: + र

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

साहित्य + इतर

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है - साहित्य+इतर।  

Key Points

  • साहित्य+इतर = साहित्येतर।
  • यहाँ अ+इ स्वरों का मेल है।
  • अतः यहाँ गुण स्वर संधि है।

 Important Points

  • साहित्येतर का अर्थ:- साहित्य से भिन्न।

Additional Informationस्वर संधि के पांच प्रकार होते हैं- 

संधिपरिभाषाउदाहरण
दीर्घ संधिदो समान स्वर मिलकर दीर्घ हो जाते हैं। जब अ,आ के साथ अ,आ हो तो “आ”बनता है जब इ,ई के साथ इ,ई हो तो “ई” बनता है जब उ,ऊ के साथ उ,ऊ हो तो “ऊ”बनता हैपुस्तक +आलय- पुस्तकालय विद्या+अर्थी-विद्यार्थी
गुण संधियदि ‘अ’ या ‘आ’ के बाद इ/ई  आए तो ‘ए’ ; ऊ/ऊ आए तो ‘ओ’ और ‘ऋ’ आए तो ‘अर’ हो  जाता हैनर+इंद्र-नरेंद्र ज्ञान+उपदेश-ज्ञानोपदेश
वृद्धि संधियदि ‘अ’ या ‘आ’ के बाद ए/ऐ रहे तो ‘ऐ’ और ओ/औ  रहे तो ‘औ’ बन जाता है।मत+एकता-मतैकता सदा+एव- सदैव
यण संधियदि इ/ई, उ/ऊ और ऋ के बाद भिन्न स्वर आए तो इ/ई का ‘य’ उ/ऊ का ‘व’ और ऋ का ‘र’ हो जाता है।इति + आदि- इत्यादि अनु+अय- अन्वय
अयादि संधियदि ए, ऐ, ओं और औ के बाद भिन्न स्वर आये तो ‘ए’ का अय ‘ऐ’ का आय, ‘ओ’ का अव और ‘औ’ का आव हो जाता है।ने+अन- नयन नौ+ इक- नाविक

Question 82

निम्नलिखित में से तत्सम शब्द का चयन कीजिए-

  1. AOption (a)

    सजाना

  2. BOption (b)

    सज्जापन    

  3. COption (c)

    सतहत्तर

  4. DOption (d)

    सकना

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

सज्जापन    

Why this answer is correct

सही विकल्प सज्जापन है।अन्य विकल्प असंगत है। 

Key Points

  • 'सज्जापन' तत्सम शब्द है।
  • इसका तद्भव शब्द सजावट होता है।
  • सजावट के पर्यायवाची सजाना,निखारना आदि होते है।

अन्य विकल्प -

तत्समतद्भव
सप्तसप्ततिःसतहत्तर
शक्नोतिसकना

Additional Information

शब्दपरिभाषाउदाहरण
तत्सम शब्दऐसे शब्द जो संस्कृत से ज्यों के त्यों लिए गए, तत्सम होते हैं।(Trick-तत्सम के 'स' से संस्कृत याद रखें)कूप, उष्ट्र, पंचम आदि
तद्भव शब्दसंस्कृत से हिंदी में आने पर जिन शब्दों का रूप बदल गया हो, तद्भव कहलाते हैं।आग, काम, पाँच आदि।

Important Points  कुछ महत्वपूर्ण तत्सम व तद्भव शब्द 

तत्समतद्भव
कृषककिसान
हस्तहाथ
अकार्यअकाज
अग्निआग
चित्रकचीता
चरणचरन

Question 83

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक उपसर्ग नहीं है?

  1. AOption (a)

    डबल

  2. BOption (b)

    परि

  3. COption (c)

    खुश

  4. DOption (d)

    बाज

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

बाज

Why this answer is correct

सही विकल्प बाज है। अन्य विकल्प असंगत है।  

Key Pointsबाज एक प्रत्यय है। 

उदाहरण-दगाबाज, कबूतरबाज, नशेबाज। 

अन्य विकल्प-

उपसर्गनया शब्द
डबलडबलरोटी ,डबल शतक ,डबल खुराक
परिपरिकल्पना ,परिजन ,परिक्रमा
खुशखुशहाली ,खुशबू खुशखबरी

Additional Information

उपसर्गप्रत्यय
परिभाषाउपसर्ग ऐसे शब्दांश है जो किसी शब्द के पूर्व जुड़ कर उसके अर्थ में परिवर्तन कर देते हैं या उसके अर्थ में विशेषता ला देते है।प्रत्यय वे शब्द हैं जो दूसरे शब्दों के अन्त में जुड़कर, अपनी प्रकृति के अनुसार, शब्द के अर्थ में परिवर्तन कर देते हैं।
उदाहरणअनु +चर= अनुचर अनु+शासन = अनुशासनलुट+एरा = लुटेरा चाचा+एरा= चचेरा
अर्थउप (समीप)+ सर्ग(सृष्टिकरना)= उपसर्गप्रति(साथ मे पर बाद में)+ अय(चलने वाला)= प्रत्यय

Question 84

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा शब्द द्विगु समास का उदाहरण है?

  1. AOption (a)

    रामकृष्ण 

  2. BOption (b)

    नवरत्न

  3. COption (c)

    मतदाता

  4. DOption (d)

    नीतिनिपुण

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

नवरत्न

Why this answer is correct

सही विकल्प नवरत्न है।अन्य विकल्प असंगत है। 

Key Points

समास विग्रहद्विगु समास की परिभाषाद्विगु समास के अन्य उदाहरण
नौ रत्नों का समूहजिस समास का पहला पद संख्यावाची विशेषण होता है तथा समस्तपद किसी समूह या फिर किसी समाहार का बोध करता है तो वह द्विगु समास कहलाता है।सप्ताह त्रिफला नवग्रह त्रिभुवन त्रिवेणी

अन्य विकल्प-

शब्दसमास
रामकृष्णद्वन्द्व समास
मतदातासम्बन्ध तत्पुरुष समास
नीतिनिपुणअधिकरण तत्पुरुष समास

 

Additional Information 

समासपरिभाषा
द्वन्द्व समाससमास का वह रूप जिसमें प्रथम और द्वितीय दोनों पद प्रधान होते हैं उसे द्वन्द्व समास कहते हैं। नीचे-ऊपर, दूध-रोटी
तत्पुरुष समासवह समास, जिसका उत्तरपद या अंतिम पद प्रधान हो। अर्थात् प्रथम पद गौण हो और उत्तरपद की प्रधानता हो। तत्पुरुष समास 7 प्रकार के होते है स्वर्गप्राप्त = स्वर्ग को प्राप्त दिल तोड़ = दिल को तोड़ने वाला

Question 85

निम्नलिखित में से "क्षीण" का पर्यायवाची शब्द कौन-सा नहीं है?

  1. AOption (a)

    दुर्बल

  2. BOption (b)

    कमजोर

  3. COption (c)

    कठोर

  4. DOption (d)

    बलहीन

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

कठोर

Why this answer is correct

सही विकल्प कठोर होगा। अन्य विकल्प असंगत है। 

Key Points

पर्यायवाची शब्दक्षीण' के पर्यायवाचीकठोर के पर्यायवाची
एक ही शब्द के एक से ज्यादा अर्थ निकले उसे पर्यायवाची शब्द कहते हैदुर्बल,कमजोर,बलहीन, दुबला, तनु, निर्बलकड़ा, निष्ठुर, ठोस, दयाहीन, सख़्त

Additional Informationअन्य महत्वपूर्ण पर्यायवाची शब्द-

शब्दपर्यायवाची
अतिथिमेहमान ,पाहुन ,आगंतुक, अभ्यागत।
अश्वघोड़ा, आशुविमानक, तुरंग, घोटक, हय, तुरंगम, वाजि, सैंधव, रविपुत्र।
अधर्मपाप, अनाचार, अनीत, अन्याय, अपकर्म, जुल्म।
अचलअडिग ,अटल, स्थिर ,दृढ, अविचल।
अनुपमअनोखा, अनूठा, अपूर्व, अद्भुत, अद्वितीय, अतुल।
अमृतमधु, सुधा, पीयूष ,अमी, सोम ,सुरभोग।

Question 86

निम्नलिखित में से अशुद्ध वर्तनी वाले शब्द का चयन कीजिए-

  1. AOption (a)

    परिमार्जत

  2. BOption (b)

    द्वारका

  3. COption (c)

    युधिष्ठिर

  4. DOption (d)

    रचयिता

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

परिमार्जत

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है - परिमार्जत।  

Key Points

  • परिमार्जत अशुद्ध शब्द है।
  • इसका शुद्ध रूप परिमार्जित होगा।
  • परिमार्जित का अर्थ है - धोया या माँजा हुआ , साफ किया हुआ, परिष्कृत।

Question 87

निम्नलिखित में से "महीन" का विलोम शब्द कौन-सा है?

  1. AOption (a)

    कमजोर

  2. BOption (b)

    मोटा

  3. COption (c)

    भग्न

  4. DOption (d)

    दुर्बल

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

मोटा

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है - मोटा। 

 Key Points

  • महीन शब्द का अर्थ होता है पतला या बारीक।
  • इसका विपरीतार्थक शब्द होगा मोटा।

 Important Pointsअन्य विकल्प:-

  • कमज़ोर - ताकतवर, शक्तिशाली।
  • भग्न - साबुत।
  • दुर्बल - सबल।

Question 88

दिए गए वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द का चयन कीजिए-

फल की आकांक्षा वाला-

  1. AOption (a)

    फलाहारी

  2. BOption (b)

    फलधारी

  3. COption (c)

    फलाशीष

  4. DOption (d)

    फलासक्त

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

फलासक्त

Why this answer is correct

सही विकल्प फलासक्त है। अन्य विकल्प असंगत है।  

 Key Points

शब्दअर्थवाक्य प्रयोग
फलासक्तफल की इच्छा रखने वाला।दिनेश परीक्षा परिणाम के लिए फलसक्त है।

फलासक्त का समास विग्रह होगा 'फल में आसक्त'।  

 Important Pointsअन्य विकल्प -

विकल्पअर्थ
फलाहारीअन्न से रहित
फलाशीषफल रूपी आशीष
फलधारीफल को धारण करने वाला

Additional Informationवाक्यांश-

  • भाषा को सुंदर, आकर्षक और प्रभावशाली बनाने के लिए अनेक शब्दों के स्थान पर एक शब्द का प्रयोग किया जाता है।
  • तो वह वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द कहलाता है।
वाक्यएक शब्द
जिसका भाषा द्वारा वर्णन असंभव होअनिर्वचनीय
आगे का विचार न कर सकने वालाअदूरदर्शी
जो आज तक से सम्बन्ध रखता हैअद्यतन
कठिनाई से प्राप्त होने वालादुर्लभ
किसी पद का उम्मीदवारप्रत्याशी

Question 89

निम्नलिखित में से दिया गया वाक्य किस काल का उदाहरण है?

प्रेरणा खाना खा चुकी है।

  1. AOption (a)

    हेतुहेतुमद भूतकाल

  2. BOption (b)

    आसन्न भूतकाल

  3. COption (c)

    पूर्ण भूतकाल

  4. DOption (d)

    संदिग्ध वर्तमान काल

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

आसन्न भूतकाल

Why this answer is correct

सही विकल्प आसन्न भूतकाल है।अन्य विकल्प असंगत है।  

Key Points

कालपरिभाषाउदाहरण
आसन्न भूतकालक्रिया के जिस रूप से कार्य व्यापार की निकट समय में समाप्ति का पता चले उसे आसन्न भूतकाल  कहते हैं।मैं अभी हिसार से आया हूँ।

अन्य विकल्प-

कालपरिभाषाउदाहरण
हेतुहेतुमद भूतकालयदि भूतकाल में एक क्रिया के होने या ना होने पर दूसरी क्रिया का होना या ना होना निर्भर करता हो वह क्रिया हेतुहेतुमद भूतकाल की क्रिया होती है।यदि महमूद ने निमंत्रण दिया होता तो मैं उसकी शादी में अवश्य चलता
पूर्ण भूतकालऐसी क्रिया जिसमें किसी भी कार्य को खत्म हुए काफी वक्त बीत चु��ा हो, वह पूर्ण भूतकाल के अंतर्गत आता है।अंग्रेजों ने भारत पर राज किया था।
संदिग्ध वर्तमान कालजिस क्रिया में वर्तमान समय में पूर्ण होने में संदेह हो वह संदिग्ध वर्तमान काल कहलाता है।मां खाना बना रही होगी।

Additional Information

कालपरिभाषाउदाहरण
वर्तमानकालक्रिया के जिस रूप से वर्तमान में चल रहे समय का पता चले, उसे वर्तमान काल कहते है।वह तेज आवाज में गाना सुन रहा है। मेरा मन चाय पीने का कर रहा है।
भूतकालक्रिया के जिस रूप से बीते हुए समय का पता चले, उसे भूतकाल कहते है।मैंने पूरा खाना खा लिया था। हेमंत को घर छोड़ दिया था।
भविष्यतकालक्रिया के जिस रूप से भविष्य में होने वाली क्रिया का पता चले उसे भविष्यतकाल की क्रिया कहते है।वह सब उठा ले जाएगा। कल उसका बोरिया-बिस्तर यहाँ से उठ जाएगा।

Question 90

निम्नलिखित में से अशुद्ध वर्तनी वाले वाक्य का चयन कीजिए-

  1. AOption (a)

    सभी विद्यार्थियों में राहुल श्रेष्ठ है।

  2. BOption (b)

    मुझसे यह काम सम्भव नहीं हो सकता।

  3. COption (c)

    यह दवा रोग को समूल नष्ट कर देगी।

  4. DOption (d)

    कृपया मेरा प्रार्थना-पत्र स्वीकार करें।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

मुझसे यह काम सम्भव नहीं हो सकता।

Why this answer is correct

सही विकल्प 'मुझसे यह काम सम्भव नहीं हो सकता' होगा। अन्य विकल्प असंगत है। 

Key Points

अशुद्ध वाक्यशुद्ध वाक्य
मुझसे यह काम सम्भव नहीं हो सकता।मुझसे यह काम नहीं हो सकेगा।

दिए गए वाक्य में संभव शब्द अनावश्यक है। ​

Additional Information

अशुद्धियों के प्रकारउदाहरणसही शब्द
संज्ञा संबंधी अशुद्धियाँमुझे मजा आती हैआता
सर्वनाम संबंधी अशुद्धियाँमेरे को यह बात पसंद नहीं।मुझे
विशेषण संबंधी अशुद्धियाँउसे भारी प्यास लगी  है।बहुत
क्रिया संबंधी अशुद्धियाँवह कुर्ता डालकर गया है।पहनकर
अव्वय संबंधी अशुद्धियाँयह पत्र आपके अनुसार है।अनुरूप
पदक्रम संबंधी अशुद्धियाँआप जाएंगे क्या?क्या आप जाएंगे?
पुनरुक्ति संबंधी अशुद्धियाँमेरे मना करने के बावजूद  भी वह चल गया।बावजूद
शब्द ज्ञान संबंधी अशुद्धियाँचिडियाँ गा रही है।चहक

Question 91

निम्नलिखित में से मिश्रवाक्य का चयन कीजिए-

  1. AOption (a)

    पानी न बरसने पर सूखा पड़ जाएगा।

  2. BOption (b)

    वह पुस्तक खो गई थी परन्तु मुझे मिल गई है।

  3. COption (c)

    आपके कार्य का सामान यहा नहीं है।

  4. DOption (d)

    ज्यों ही मैं वहाँ पहुँचा त्यों ही घण्टा बजा।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

ज्यों ही मैं वहाँ पहुँचा त्यों ही घण्टा बजा।

Why this answer is correct

सही विकल्प 'ज्यों ही मैं वहाँ पहुँचा त्यों ही घण्टा बजा' है। अन्य विकल्प असंगत है। 

 Key Points

दिए गए वाक्य मे त्यों समुच्चयबोधक अव्यय का उपयोग करके मिश्र वाक्य का निर्माण हुआ है।

वाक्यपरिभाषापहचान
मिश्र वाक्यऐसे वाक्य जिनमें सरल वाक्य के साथ साथ कोई भी दूसरा उपवाक्य शामिल हो, उन वाक्य को मिश्र वाक्य कहा जाता है। मिश्र वाक्य का निर्माण एक से अधिक साधारण वाक्य से होता है, जिनमें एक प्रधान वाक्य होता है और दूसरा वाक्य आश्रित होता है और इसी वजह से मिश्र वाक्य की पहचान भी होती है।मिश्र वाक्य के उपवाक्य प्रायः कि, जो, जब, जहाँ, जिसने, ज्योंही, जिधर -उधर, जैसे- वैसे, जितना उतना, क्योंकि, यदि तो, ताकि, यद्यपि – तथापि, अर्थात् मानो आदि व्यधिकरण समुच्चयबोधक अव्यय से जुड़े होते हैं।

Additional Informationरचना की दृष्टि से वाक्य के तीन भेद है-

सरल वाक्यजिस वाक्य में एक क्रिया होती है और एक कर्ता होता है, उसे सरल वाक्य कहते हैं।राजू पानी लाया।
मिश्र वाक्यजिस वाक्य में एक साधारण वाक्य के अतिरिक्त उसके अधीन कोई दूसरा उपवाक्य हो, उसे मिश्र वाक्य कहते हैं।राम उस मकान में रहता है जहां पहले कभी श्याम रहता था।
संयुक्त वाक्यजिस वाक्य में साधारण अथवा मिश्र वाक्यों का मेल संयोजक अवयवों द्वारा होता है, उसे संयुक्त वाक्य कहते हैं।दान करना अच्छी चीज है, दान लेना एक मजबूरी।

Question 92

निम्नलिखित में से वाच्य के प्रकार का चयन कीजिए-

कोहली द्वारा शतक लगाया गया।

  1. AOption (a)

    कर्मवाच्य

  2. BOption (b)

    भाववाच्य

  3. COption (c)

    कर्तृवाच्य

  4. DOption (d)

    अकर्मवाच्य

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

कर्मवाच्य

Why this answer is correct

कोहली द्वारा शतक लगाया गया। -यह वाक्य कर्मवाच्य का उदाहरण है।

Key Points

  • जिन वाक्यों में कर्म की प्रधानता रहती है उन्हें कर्मवाच्य कहते है।
  • कर्मवाच्य में क्रिया सदैव कर्म के अनुसार चलती है।
  • चिट्ठी भेजी गयी, वाक्य में क्रिया कर्म अनुसार चली है, अतः कर्मवाच्य वाक्य होगा।

Additional Information 

वाच्य - क्रिया के उस परिवर्तन को वाच्य कहते हैं, जिसके द्वारा इस बात का बोध होता है कि वाक्य के अन्तर्गत कर्ता, कर्म या भाव में से किसकी प्रधानता है।
वाच्य के भेद
वाच्यपरिभाषाउदाहरण
कर्तृवाच्यक्रिया के जिस रूप में कर्ता प्रधान हो, उसे कर्तृवाच्य कहते हैं।सीता पुस्तक पढ़ती है।
कर्मवाच्यक्रिया के जिस रूप में कर्म प्रधान हो, उसे कर्मवाच्य कहते हैं।उससे पुस्तक पढ़ी गई।
भाववाच्यक्रिया के जिस रूप में न तो कर्ता की प्रधानता हो न कर्म की, बल्कि क्रिया का भाव ही प्रधान हो, वहाँ भाववाच्य होता है।मुझसे उठा नहीं जाता।

Question 93

निम्नलिखित में से मुहावरा "जीती मक्खी निगलना" का क्या अर्थ है?

  1. AOption (a)

    बहुत कंजूस होना।

  2. BOption (b)

    दिवाला निकलना।

  3. COption (c)

    जान बूझकर अन्याय सहना।

  4. DOption (d)

    व्यवधान डालना।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

जान बूझकर अन्याय सहना।

Why this answer is correct

सही विकल्प 'जान बूझकर अन्याय सहना' है। अन्य विकल्प असंगत है। 

Key Points

मुहावरा-अर्थउदाहरण-
जीती मक्खी निगलनाजान बूझकर अन्याय सहना।उस गुंडे ने सरेआम सरपंचों का अपमान किया, पर उनके सामने 'जीती मक्खी निगलने' के अलावा कोई चारा नहीं था।

अन्य विकल्प-

विकल्पमुहावरा
बहुत कंजूस होनाचमड़ी जाए पर दमड़ी न जाय
दिवाला निकलना(मुहावरा)(उदाहरण)जुआ खेलने की बुरी आदत और व्यापार में घाटा होने के कारण उसका दिवाला निकल गया।
व्यवधान डालनाबाधा डालना

Additional Information

| मुहावरे | अर्थ | वाक्य प्रयोग | | --- | --- | --- | | थूककर चाटना | त्यक्त वस्तु को पुनः ग्रहण करना, कही हुई बात पर अमल न करना। | पहले तो आवेश में तुमने नौकरी से त्यागपत्र दे दिया। अब उसके लिए पुनः आवेदन-पत्र देकर थूककर चाटते क्यों हो? | | कान खाना | निरन्तर बातें करके परेशान करना। | यद्यपि उस समय उसकी बात सुनने की मेरी कोई इच्छा नहीं थी, तथापि उसने मेरे कान खाकर मुझे परेशान कर दिया। | | दंग रह जाना | आश्चर्यचकित होना। | बाबा के चमत्कारों को देखकर मैं तो दंग रह गया। | | दाँत खट्टे करना | हरा देना। | भारतीय सैनिकों ने कारगिल युद्ध में पाकिस्तानी सैनिकों के दाँत खट्टे कर दिए। |मुहावरेअर्थवाक्य प्रयोगथूककर चाटनात्यक्त वस्तु को पुनः ग्रहण करना, कही हुई बात पर अमल न करना।पहले तो आवेश में तुमने नौकरी से त्यागपत्र दे दिया। अब उसके लिए पुनः आवेदन-पत्र देकर थूककर चाटते क्यों हो?कान खानानिरन्तर बातें करके परेशान करना।यद्यपि उस समय उसकी बात सुनने की मेरी कोई इच्छा नहीं थी, तथापि उसने मेरे कान खाकर मुझे परेशान कर दिया।दंग रह जानाआश्चर्यचकित होना।बाबा के चमत्कारों को देखकर मैं तो दंग रह गया।दाँत खट्टे करनाहरा देना।भारतीय सैनिकों ने कारगिल युद्ध में पाकिस्तानी सैनिकों के दाँत खट्टे कर दिए।
मुहावरेअर्थवाक्य प्रयोग
थूककर चाटनात्यक्त वस्तु को पुनः ग्रहण करना, कही हुई बात पर अमल न करना।पहले तो आवेश में तुमने नौकरी से त्यागपत्र दे दिया। अब उसके लिए पुनः आवेदन-पत्र देकर थूककर चाटते क्यों हो?
कान खानानिरन्तर बातें करके परेशान करना।यद्यपि उस समय उसकी बात सुनने की मेरी कोई इच्छा नहीं थी, तथापि उसने मेरे कान खाकर मुझे परेशान कर दिया।
दंग रह जानाआश्चर्यचकित होना।बाबा के चमत्कारों को देखकर मैं तो दंग रह गया।
दाँत खट्टे करनाहरा देना।भारतीय सैनिकों ने कारगिल युद्ध में पाकिस्तानी सैनिकों के दाँत खट्टे कर दिए।

Question 94

निम्नलिखित में से लोकोक्ति "घोड़े की दुम बढ़ेगी तो अपनी ही मक्खियाँ उड़ाएगा" का क्या अर्थ है?

  1. AOption (a)

    किसी आदमी की प्रतिष्ठा अपने निवास स्थान पर कम होती है।

  2. BOption (b)

    उन्नति करके आदमी अपना ही भला करता है।

  3. COption (c)

    निर्लज्ज पर उपदेशों का असर नहीं पड़ता।

  4. DOption (d)

    दुष्ट से कठोरता का और सज्जन से नम्रता का व्यवहार करें।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

उन्नति करके आदमी अपना ही भला करता है।

Why this answer is correct

सही विकल्प 'उन्नति करके आदमी अपना ही भला करता है' है।अन्य विकल्प असंगत है। 

Key Points

लोकोक्तिअर्थवाक्य प्रयोग
घोड़े की दुम बढ़ेगी तो अपनी ही मक्खियाँ उड़ाएगाउन्नति करके आदमी अपना ही भला करता है।अगर वह आज  अच्छे से अध्ययन करेगा तो कल घोड़े की दुम बढ़ेगी तो अपनी ही मक्खियाँ उड़ाएगा

अन्य विकल्प-

लोकोक्तिअर्थवाक्य प्रयोग
घर की मुर्गी दाल बराबरकिसी आदमी की प्रतिष्ठा अपने निवास स्थान पर कम होती है।राजेश इंजीनियर है फिर भी मित्र के लिए वह घर की मुर्गी दाल बराबर है।

Important Points

लोकोक्तिअर्थवाक्य प्रयोग
अन्धों में काना राजामूर्खो में कुछ पढ़ा-लिखा व्यक्तिमेरे गाँव में कोई पढ़ा-लिखा व्यक्ति तो है नही; इसलिए गाँववाले पण्डित अनोखेराम को ही सब कुछ समझते हैं। ठीक ही कहा गया है, अन्धों में काना राजा।
अकेला चना भाड़ नहीं फोड़ सकताअकेला आदमी बिना दूसरों के सहयोग के कोई बड़ा काम नहीं कर सकता।मैं जानता हूँ कि 'अकेला चना भाड़ नहीं फोड़ सकता' फिर भी जो काम अपने करने का है, वह जरूर करूँगा।
अधजल गगरी छलकत जायजिसके पास थोड़ा ज्ञान होता हैं, वह उसका प्रदर्शन या आडम्बर करता है।रमेश बारहवीं पास करके स्वयं को बहुत बड़ा विद्वान समझ रहा है। ये तो वही बात हुई कि अधजल गगरी छलकत जाय।

Additional Informationमुहावरे और लोकोक्तियों में अंतर-

मुहावरेलोकोक्तियाँ
मुहावरे वाक्यांश होते हैं, पूर्ण वाक्य नहीं; जब वाक्य में इनका प्रयोग होता तब ये संरचनागत पूर्णता प्राप्त करती है।लोकोक्तियाँ पूर्ण वाक्य होती हैं। इनमें कुछ घटाया-बढ़ाया नहीं जा सकता। भाषा में प्रयोग की दृष्टि से विद्यमान रहती है;
जैसे- अपना उल्लू सीधा करना, कलम तोड़ना आदि।जैसे- चार दिन की चाँदनी फेर अँधेरी रात।
मुहावरा वाक्य का अंश होता है, इसलिए उनका स्वतंत्र प्रयोग संभव नहीं है; उनका प्रयोग वाक्यों के अंतर्गत ही संभव है।लोकोक्ति एक पूरे वाक्य के रूप में होती है, इसलिए उनका स्वतंत्र प्रयोग संभव है।
मुहावरे शब्दों के लाक्षणिक या व्यंजनात्मक प्रयोग हैं।लोकोक्तियाँ वाक्यों के लाक्षणिक या व्यंजनात्मक प्रयोग हैं।
मुहावरे किसी क्रिया को पूरा करने का काम करते हैं।लोकोक्ति का प्रयोग किसी कथन के खंडन या मंडन में प्रयुक्त किया जाता है।

Question 95

निम्नलिखित में से चिन्ह ( ; ) का सही नाम बताइए-

  1. AOption (a)

    अवतरण चिन्ह

  2. BOption (b)

    उद्धरण चिन्ह

  3. COption (c)

    अल्पविराम चिन्ह

  4. DOption (d)

    अर्द्धविराम चिन्ह

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

अर्द्धविराम चिन्ह

Why this answer is correct

(;) यह अर्द्ध विराम चिह्न हैं। शेष विकल्प असंगत हैं। सही विकल्प 'अर्द्ध विराम' है। 

Key Points

अन्य विकल्प -

  • अर्द्ध विराम चिह्न - ;
  • अवतरण चिन्ह - ‘….’ “…”
  • अल्प विराम चिह्न - ,
  • हंस पद चिह्न - ^

Additional Information

विशेष - आवश्यक विराम चिह्नों का विवरण निम्नलिखित है -

विराम चिन्ह  – भाषा के लिखित रूप में विशेष स्थानों पर रुकने का संकेत करने वाले चिन्हों को विराम चिन्ह कहते हैं। विराम चिन्ह के भेद –
विराम चिन्ह का नामउदाहरणविराम  - चिन्ह
पूर्ण विरामबाजार खुल गया।।
अर्द्ध विराम चिन्हमुख्य अतिथि आ गए हैं; वह शीघ्र चले जाएंगे।;
अल्प विराम चिह्नराकेश, मोहन, शीतल और पंकज ने यह चित्र बनाया है।,
प्रश्न सूचक चिन्हतुम्हारी माताजी का नाम क्या है ??
विस्मय सूचक या आश्चर्य चिह्नवाह ! कितना सुंदर दृश्य है।!
संयोजक या योजक चिन्हमैं दिन–रात यही सोचता रहा।-
निर्देशक चिन्हश्री जितेंद्र जी ने कहा _ सत्य के मार्ग पर चलना चाहिए।_
अवतरण चिन्ह या उद्धरण चिन्हगांधी जी ने कहाँ था "अहिंसा परम धर्म है”‘….’ “…”
कोष्ठक चिन्हदशहरे के दिन दशानन (रावण) का दहन किया जाता है।[ {()} ]
उप विराम (अपूर्ण विराम)विज्ञान: वरदान या अभिशाप:
विवरण चिन्हनिम्नलिखित प्रश्नों का उत्तर दीजिये :-:-
पुनरुक्ति सूचक चिन्ह„ „
लाघव चिन्हडॉक्टर – डॉ०, प्रोफेसर – प्रो००
हंसपद या त्रुटिपूरक चिन्हआगरा राम कल ^  जायेगा।^
लोप चिन्हमैं पास तो आ जाऊँगा…… लेकिन साथ नहीं चलूँगा।……
दीर्घ उच्चारण चिन्हS
तुल्यता सूचक चिन्ह4 + 4 = 8=
समाप्ति सूचक चिन्ह- , o

निम्नलिखित गद्यांश का ध्यानपूर्वक अध्ययन कर प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए-

श्रद्धा एक सामाजिक भाव है, इससे अपनी श्रद्धा के बदले में हम श्रद्धेय से अपने लिए कोई बात नहीं चाहते। श्रद्धा धारण करते हुए अपने को उस समाज में समझते हैं जिसके किसी अंश पर-चाहे हम व्यष्टि रूप में उनके अंतर्गत ना भी हो- जानबूझकर उसने कोई शुभ प्रभाव डाला। श्रद्धा स्वयं ऐसे कर्मों के प्रतिकार में होती है जिनका शुभ प्रभाव अकेले हम पर नहीं बल्कि सारे मनुष्य समाज पर पड़ सकता है। श्रद्धा एक ऐसी आनंदपूर्ण कृतज्ञता है जिसे हम केवल समाज के प्रतिनिधिरूप में प्रकट करते हैं। सदाचार पर श्रद्धा और अत्याचार पर क्रोध या घृणा प्रकट करने के लिए समाज में प्रत्येक व्यक्ति को प्रतिनिधित्व प्रदान कर रखा है। यह काम उसने इतना भारी समझा है कि उसका भार सारे मनुष्यों को बांट दिया है, दो-चार माननीय लोगों के ही सर पर नहीं छोड़ रखा है। जिस समाज में सदाचार पर श्रद्धा और अत्याचार पर क्रोध प्रकट करने के लिए जितने भी अधिक लोग तत्पर पाये जायेंगे उतना ही वह समाज जागृत समझा जायेगा। श्रद्धा की सामाजिक विशेषता एक इसी बात से समझ लीजिए कि जिस पर हम श्रद्धा रखते हैं उस पर चाहते हैं कि और लोग भी श्रद्धा रखें, पर जिस पर हमारा प्रेम होता है, उससे और दस-पांच आदमी प्रेम रखें- इसकी हमें परवाह क्या इच्छा ही नहीं होती; क्योंकि हम प्रिया पर लोभवश एक प्रकार का अनन्य अधिकार इजारा चाहते हैं। श्रद्धालु अपने भाव में संसार को संतुलित करना चाहता है, पर प्रेमी नहीं।

Question 96

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

उपर्युक्त गद्यांश का निम्नलिखित में से निष्कर्ष क्या है?

  1. AOption (a)

    श्रद्धा एक सांसारिक लोभवश।

  2. BOption (b)

    श्रद्धा केवल एक श्रद्धालु तक सीमित।

  3. COption (c)

    श्रद्धा एक सामाजिक भाव।

  4. DOption (d)

    केवल एक श्रद्धालु का सामाजिक भाव।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

श्रद्धा एक सामाजिक भाव।

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर 'श्रद्धा एक सामाजिक भाव है।'

श्रद्धा को सामाजिक भाव के रूप में परिभाषित किया गया है, जिसे समाज के प्रत्येक व्यक्ति द्वारा प्रकट किया जाता है और इसका प्रभाव सारे मनुष्य समाज पर पड़ सकता है। इस भावना की महत्ता से हर इंसान अपने समाजिक दायित्वों को निभा सकता है।

Key Points

  • "श्रद्धा एक सांसारिक लोभवश" है, जो कहने में प्रायः सही नहीं होता क्योंकि यहाँ श्रद्धा को एक सामाजिक भावना के रूप में बताने का प्रयास किया गया है।
  • "श्रद्धा केवल एक श्रद्धालु तक सीमित", क्योंकि श्रद्धा की भावना हर व्यक्ति में होती है और इस परिभाषा में यह समाजिक स्तर पर परिभाषित हुई है।
  • "केवल एक श्रद्धालु का सामाजिक भाव" है, जो गलत है क्योंकि यह सामाजिक भाव सभी व्यक्तियों में होता है, न कि केवल एक श्रद्धालु में।

Question 97

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

उपर्युक्त गद्यांश के अनुसार, श्रद्धा एक ऐसी आनंदपूर्ण कृतज्ञता है जिसे हम ______

  1. AOption (a)

    केवल समाज के प्रतिनिधिरूप में प्रकट करते हैं।

  2. BOption (b)

    केवल व्यक्ति के प्रतिनिधिरूप में प्रकट करते हैं।

  3. COption (c)

    केवल श्रद्धा के प्रतिनिधिरूप में प्रकट करते हैं।

  4. DOption (d)

    केवल श्रद्धा एवं कृतज्ञता के प्रतिनिधिरूप में प्रकट करते हैं।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

केवल समाज के प्रतिनिधिरूप में प्रकट करते हैं।

Why this answer is correct

इसका सही उत्तर केवल समाज के प्रतिनिधिरूप में प्रकट करते हैं। 

श्रद्धा को हम समाज के प्रतिनिधिरूप में प्रकट करते हैं। इसे मान्यता का एक रूप देखा जा सकता है, जिसे हम अपने आचरण और कृत्यों के माध्यम से समाज में प्रस्तुत करते हैं, और इसे एक सामाजिक प्रेम और समर्पण के रूप में माना जा सकता है, जो उम्मीद करता है कि दूसरे भी श्रद्धा रखेंगे।

Key Points

  • केवल व्यक्ति के प्रतिनिधिरूप में प्रकट करते हैं" असटीय है, क्योंकि श्रद्धा समाजिक स्तर पर प्रकट होती है, न कि व्यक्तिगत स्तर पर।
  • केवल श्रद्धा के प्रतिनिधिरूप में प्रकट करते हैं," यह बात गलत है, क्योंकि श्रद्धा एक भाव है जो समाज के प्रतिनिधित्व में खुद को प्रकट करती है।
  • केवल श्रद्धा एवं कृतज्ञता के प्रतिनिधिरूप में प्रकट करते हैं," यह माननीय है, लेकिन अस्पष्ट, क्योंकि यहां "कृतज्ञता" समाज के प्रति श्रद्धा का ही एक पहलु है, जिसे समाज के प्रतिनिधिरूप में प्रकट किया जाता है।

Question 98

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

उपर्युक्त गद्यांश के अनुसार कौन-सा कथन सही नहीं है?

  1. AOption (a)

    श्रद्धा एक सामाजिक भाव है, इससे अपनी श्रद्धा के बदले में हम श्रद्धेय से अपने लिए कोई बात नहीं चाहते।

  2. BOption (b)

    श्रद्धा स्वयं ऐसे कर्मों के प्रतिकार में होती है जिनका शुभ प्रभाव अकेले हम पर नहीं बल्कि सारे मनुष्य समाज पर पड़ सकता है।

  3. COption (c)

    सदाचार पर श्रद्धा और अत्याचार पर क्रोध या घृणा प्रकट करने के लिए समाज में प्रत्येक व्यक्ति को प्रतिनिधित्व प्रदान कर रखा है।

  4. DOption (d)

    श्रद्धालु अपने भाव में संसार को संतुलित नहीं करना चाहता है, पर प्रेमी चाहता है।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

श्रद्धालु अपने भाव में संसार को संतुलित नहीं करना चाहता है, पर प्रेमी चाहता है।

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर श्रद्धालु अपने भाव में संसार को संतुलित नहीं करना चाहता है, पर प्रेमी चाहता है। 

श्रद्धालु अपने भाव में संसार को संतुलित नहीं करना चाहता है, पर प्रेमी चाहता है।" गद्यांश में उल्लेखित नहीं है और वास्तव में, यह उसके विपरीत बता रहा है कि श्रद्धालु संसार में संतुलन चाहता है, जबकि प्रेमी नहीं।

Key Pointsअन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण: 

  • यह गद्यांश में उल्लेखित है कि श्रद्धा एक सामाजिक भाव है और हम इसके बदले में श्रद्धेय से कुछ नहीं चाहते।
  • यह गद्यांश के अनुसार सही है, श्रद्धा ऐसे कर्मों का प्रतिकार होती है जिनका शुभ प्रभाव समाज पर पड़ सकता है।
  • यह भी गद्यांश में उल्लेखित है और इसके अनुसार सही है कि समाज में प्रत्येक व्यक्ति को सदाचार और अत्याचार पर अपनी भावनाएं प्रकट करने की प्रतिनिधित्व प्रदान की गई है।

Question 99

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

उपर्युक्त गद्यांश के अनुसार, जिस समाज में सदाचार पर श्रद्धा और अत्याचार पर क्रोध प्रकट करने के लिए जितने भी अधिक लोग तत्पर पाये जायेंगे उतना ही _______

  1. AOption (a)

    वह समाज सुप्त समझा जायेगा।

  2. BOption (b)

    वह समाज जागृत समझा जायेगा।

  3. COption (c)

    वह समाज निद्रित समझा जायेगा।

  4. DOption (d)

    वह समाज सुन्न समझा जायेगा।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

वह समाज जागृत समझा जायेगा।

Why this answer is correct

इसका सही उत्तर वह समाज जागृत समझा जायेगा। 

वह समाज जागृत समझा जायेगा।" इसका मतलब है कि जब अधिक संख्या में लोग सदाचार और अत्याचार के प्रति अपनी भावनाएं प्रकट करने के लिए तत्पर रहते हैं, तो उस समाज को जागृत, यानी संवेदनशील और सचेत समझा जाता है।

Key Points

अन्य विकल्पों की व्याख्या:

  • सुप्त, अर्थात्, निद्रावस्था में, इसका अर्थ है कि समाज सक्रिय या जागृत नहीं है, जो गद्यांश के विपरीत है।
  • निद्रित या सोता, यह भी सामाजिक सक्रियता के अभाव का संकेत देता है, जो गद्यांश से मेल नहीं खाता।
  • सुन्न यानी शून्य या अनुपस्थित, जो समाज में कोई गतिविधि नहीं होने का संकेत दे सकता है, जो गद्यांश के अनुसार गलत है।

Question 100

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

उपर्युक्त गद्यांश का उचित शीर्षक निम्न में से क्या है?

  1. AOption (a)

    श्रद्धा का स्वरूप

  2. BOption (b)

    श्रद्धा: एक प्रेम कथा

  3. COption (c)

    स्वार्थ एवं श्रद्धा में अंतर

  4. DOption (d)

    स्वार्थ एवं परोपकार

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

श्रद्धा का स्वरूप

Why this answer is correct

इसका सही उत्तर श्रद्धा का स्वरूप है।

  • यह गद्यांश "श्रद्धा का स्वरूप" पर आधारित है क्योंकि यह प्रमुख रूप से श्रद्धा के महत्त्व, प्रमुख विशेषताओं, और सामाजिक प्रभाव पर विचार करता है।
  • यह श्रद्धा की महत्त्वपूर्ण भूमिका और उसके प्रभावों को हमारे समाज में दर्शाता है, और इसे व्यष्टि और समष्टि के दृष्टिकोण से समझाता है।

Key Pointsअन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण:

  • "श्रद्धा: एक प्रेम कथा" - यह शीर्षक अधिकांशतः श्रद्धा और प्रेम के बीच के संबंध पर ध्यान केंद्रित करता है, जो इस पाठ में मुख्य विषय नहीं है।
  • "स्वार्थ एवं श्रद्धा में अंतर" - यह शीर्षक स्वार्थ और श्रद्धा के बीच के अंतर को हाइलाइट करता है, जो गद्यांश में सीधे उल्लेखित नहीं है।
  • "स्वार्थ एवं परोपकार" - यह विकल्प स्वार्थ और परोपकार के बीच के संबंध पर ध्यान केंद्रित करता है, जो इस गद्यांश का मुख्य विषय नहीं है।

Discipline 1 (20 questions)

Question 101

Find the work done by the force of gravity during the time a particle of mass 50 gm goes up on being thrown vertically upwards with a speed of 10 m/s.

  1. AOption (a)

    -2.5 J

  2. BOption (b)

    -25 J

  3. COption (c)

    -3.0 J

  4. DOption (d)

    -2.0 J

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

-2.5 J

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Work-energy theorem: It states that the sum of work done by all the forces acting on a body is equal to the change in the kinetic energy of the body i.e.,

Work done by all the forces = Kf - Ki

W=12mv2−12mu2=ΔKW = \frac{1}{2}m{v^2} - \frac{1}{2}m{u^2} = {\bf{Δ }}K

Where v = final velocity, u = initial velocity and m = mass of the body

Calculation:

Given:

m = 50 gm, u = 10 m/s, v = 0

Using, W=12mv2−12mu2=ΔKW = \frac{1}{2}m{v^2} - \frac{1}{2}m{u^2} = {\bf{Δ }}K

W=12×0.05× 02−12×0.05× 102W = \frac{1}{2}\times 0.05\times \ {0^2} - \frac{1}{2}\times 0.05\times \ {10^2}

W = - 2.5 J

Question 102

A pressure of _______ of mercury is one atmospheric pressure.

  1. AOption (a)

    76 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    70 cm

  3. COption (c)

    80 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    71 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

76 cm

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

  • Atmospheric pressure: The force per unit area pushed on any surface by the Earth's atmosphere is called atmospheric pressure.
  • Atmospheric pressure decreases with an increase in the altitude for any region.
  • This is because high altitude places do not have sufficient air above them, pushing down.
  • Barometers used to measure the pressure of the atmosphere.

The atmospheric pressure is given by:

P = ρ g h 

Where ρ is the density of the fluid/air, g is the acceleration due to gravity and h is the height of the fluid/air.

  • The standard atmospheric pressure (1 atm) is equal to the pressure which supports the 760 mm or 76 cm column of mercury at 0 °C at sea level.
  • The atmospheric pressure at sea level is equal to the atmospheric pressure on the earth's surface.

The value of 1 atm is given by:

P = 1.013 x 105 Pa = 1013 hPa = 1013 mb = 1 atm = 760 torr. 

Additional Information

Factors responsible for Atmospheric pressure:  

  • There are some major factors that are usually responsible for atmospheric pressure, which as follows:
  1. Altitude: 
  • Altitude means actual height above the sea level or above it may be above the plain ground.
  • Altitude is used in general in aviation, especially in parachuting, flying, gliding, and surveying also it is used.
  • In geometry, it is termed the height of the substance.
  1. Relation of Atmospheric pressure with Altitude: 
  • Atmospheric pressure decreases with an increase in the altitude for any region.
  • The pressure at any geographical level in the atmosphere may be cumulated as the total weight of the air above one unit area.
  • At higher altitudes, there are a few molecules of air above a specified surface than a similar surface of lower levels.
  1. Earth's Rotation:
  • The earth's rotation affects the pressure of the atmosphere in various ways.
  • This happens because of the rotation swelling to the near of our equator.
  • The rotation causes a displacement of fluid especially in the hemisphere, which converted to the clockwise direction, is called the Coriolis effect.

Question 103

Which of the following is not a limitation of using hydroelectric power?

  1. AOption (a)

    Dams can be very expensive to build.

  2. BOption (b)

    The hydroelectric power plants cannot be sited at a place of our choice.

  3. COption (c)

    Water used for hydro power can't be reused for other purposes/like irrigation etc.

  4. DOption (d)

    There needs to be a sufficient, and continuously strong water current, or water head, to produce energy.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Water used for hydro power can't be reused for other purposes/like irrigation etc.

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Hydroelectricity is the best source of generating electricity in India from the viewpoint of sustainable development.

  • Hydroelectricity is a form of energy that harnesses the power of water in motion such as water flowing over a waterfall to generate electricity.
  • A hydroelectric generator converts this mechanical energy into electricity.
  • The operation of a generator is based on the principles discovered by Faraday.
  • He found that when a magnet is moved past a conductor, it causes electricity to flow.

Advantages of hydroelectric energy:

  • Renewable.
  • Low emissions.
  • Reliable.
  • Safe.

​Limitations:

  • Very high setup cost.
  • It has to be built on a river, so site selection is not possible.
  • Needs continuous and strong water current throughout the year.
  • Needs rehabilitation on a large scale.
  • High risk involved in a case of overflow.

Additional Information

  • Hydroelectric and coal-fired power plants similarly produce electricity.
  • In both cases, a power source is used to turn a propeller-like piece called a turbine.
  • A coal-fired power plant uses steam to turn the turbine blades, whereas a hydroelectric plant uses falling water to turn the turbine. The results are the same.
  • India's hydroelectric power potential is estimated at 148,700 MW at a 60% load factor.
  • India is 5th globally for installed hydroelectric power capacity.
  • A project with a capacity of 130 kW installed at Sidrapong (Darjeeling, West Bengal) in the year 1897 was the first hydropower installation in India.
  • The largest hydroelectric power plant in India is Koyna Hydroelectric Project with a 1,960MW capacity.
  • It is located near Patan, in Maharashtra's Satara district, close to the Koyna River.
  • Hydropower plants in India:
Hydral Project/DamRiverState
Srisailam Dam, NagarjunasagarKrishnaAndhra Pradesh
Jayakwadi Hydroelectric ProjectGodavariMaharashtra
Nizamsagar Hydroelectric Project, Pochampad Hydroelectric ProjectGodavariTelangana
Penna Ahobilam Hydroelectric ProjectPennerAndhra Pradesh
Mettur Hydroelectric ProjectCauveryTamil Nadu

Question 104

Nuclear forces are _____ and are _____.

  1. Largely attractive
  2. Largely repulsive
  3. Short ranged
  4. Long ranged

Choose the correct code

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1 and 4

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 2 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    Only 1 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 2 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only 1 and 3

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • Nuclear forces are the forces between protons and neutrons and that bind them to the atomic nuclei. 
  • The protons and neutrons are called nucleons.
  • The nuclear force is generally attractive in nature.
  • But at a distance less than 0.7 fm from the center of the nucleus, the nucleons are very close to each other such that after a point, they cannot come closer from attraction and starts repelling. This is where the nuclear forces are repulsive in nature and thus, the nucleus is held without nucleons colliding into itself.
  • The nuclear force is a short-range force and at distance greater than 2.5 fm from the center of the nucleus, it is non-existent.

Explanation:

  • The nuclear force is short-ranged and can be both attractive and repulsive in nature.
  • Protons are positively charged and neutrons are uncharged. The nuclear force exists between nucleons i.e. it can be between protons and protons, neutrons and protons, or neutrons and neutrons. Therefore the nature of the force remains the same independent of their charges.

Question 105

On which of the following does the resistance of a wire not depend?

  1. AOption (a)

    Thickness of the wire

  2. BOption (b)

    Humidity of the wire

  3. COption (c)

    Length of the wire

  4. DOption (d)

    Width of the wire

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Humidity of the wire

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT: 

  • Resistance: It is the measure of the opposition to the flow of current in an electrical circuit is called its resistance.
  • The resistance of a wire depends on its
  • length
  • Area (Thickness & width)
  • Metal resistivity

Resistance is calculated by:

R=ρlAR=ρ {l \over A}

Where l = Length, A = Area, and ρ = Metal resistivity. 

​

EXPLANATION:

  • The resistance of a wire is calculated by

R=ρlAR=ρ {l \over A}

where l is its length, A area, and ρ is its metal resistivity. 

  • Here resistivity ρ depends on the material.
  • So the resistance of a material depends on the length of the wire l, Area of the wire A, and property of the material.
  • The resistance of the wire does not depend on the humidity of wire across the wire.

Question 106

Why is ocean energy regarded as being more preferable over wind energy?

  1. Tides are constant and predictable.
  2. Fewer turbines are required in ocean energy to produce the same amount of wind power.

Choose the correct code.

  1. AOption (a)

    Neither 1 nor 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Both 1 and 2

  3. COption (c)

    Only 1

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Principle of Tidal Power Generation:

  • Tidal Energy is renewable energy. It is a form of hydro energy recurring with every tide.
  • Tidal energy is converted into mechanical energy by hydro turbines.
  • The difference in the level of ocean water between high tide and low tide results in the ocean's tidal energy.
  • The difference in potential energy during high tide and low tide is tidal energy.

Advantages of Tidal Power Generation:

  • A large area of land is not required
  • Power generation from tides is free from pollution as it does not use any fuel
  • Peak power demand can be effectively met when a tidal power plant works in combination with the hydroelectric or thermal systems.
  • It is an inexhaustible source of energy
  • Fewer turbines are required in ocean energy to produce the same amount of wind power.
  • Prediction of tides is easy
  • The maintenance cost of the tidal plants is less.

Disadvantages of Tidal Power Generation:

  • Tidal energy can only be harnessed in places where a significant change in water level is always available
  • The tidal energy can be utilized for only 10 hours a day
  • The main drawback of tidal energy is that the output varies with the variation in the tidal range.
  • Tidal energy can be utilized only at natural sites
  • Tidal power plants have a very high capital cost
  • The machinery gets corroded due to the corrosiveness of seawater

 

Wind Energy: The wind is the natural movement of air across the land or sea. The wind when used to turn the blades of a windmill turns the shaft to which they are attached. This movement of the shaft through a pump or generator produces electricity. 

  • These are installed in areas where the high-speed wind is continuous.
  • Moving air has kinetic energy which on hitting at the blades of a windmill causes them to rotate.
  • To generate wind power, wind at a very high speed is required.
  • Due to this motion, it possesses kinetic energy, and hence they are capable of doing mechanical work by virtue of its motion.

Advantages:

  • It is environment friendly
  • Its freely and abundantly available

Disadvantages:

  • High investment requirement
  • Wind speed is not uniform all the time which affects power generated

Additional Information

Solar Energy has the maximum potential in India

Solar Energy 

  • Sun is the primary source of energy.
  • Sunlight is a clean, renewable source of energy.
  • It is a sustainable resource, meaning it doesn't run out, but can be maintained because the sun shines almost every day.
  • More and more people are wanting to use clean, renewable energy such as solar, wind, geothermal steam, and others.
  • It is called 'Green Power'.
  • It lights our houses by day, dries our clothes and agricultural produce, keeps us warm and lots more. Its potential is however much larger

Advantages

  • It is a perennial, natural source and free
  • It is available in plenty
  • It is non-polluting
  • It does not emit any greenhouse gases.
  • Solar energy offers decentralization in most (sunny) locations, meaning self-reliant societies.
  • One of the biggest advantages of solar energy is the ability to avoid the politics and price volatility that is increasingly characterizing fossil fuel markets.
  • It doesn’t result in the destruction of forests and eco-systems that occurs with most fossil fuel operations.

Disadvantages

  • Dependent on change in seasons/weather – hence they may not be used always
  • Requires high initial investments for productive use
  • Solar systems don’t work at night directly but the battery bank, which stores energy during the day-time can be used during the night.
  • Solar electricity storage technology has not reached its potential yet.
  • Solar panels are bulky. This is particularly true of the higher-efficiency, traditional silicon crystalline wafer solar modules.

Question 107

Sl unit of pressure is -

  1. AOption (a)

    Nm-2

  2. BOption (b)

    Nm-1

  3. COption (c)

    Nm

  4. DOption (d)

    Nm-3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Nm-2

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Pressure: The pressure is the force exerted perpendicular to the surface of an object per unit area over which the force is spread.

  • The pascal (Pa) or N/m2 is the SI unit of pressure.
  • The pound-force per square inch ( psi) is the standard pressure unit in imperial and US customary systems or in FPS System.
  • kg/ms2 is the SI based unit of Pressure.
  • Pressure may also be expressed in relation to standard atmospheric pressure as atm.
  • The torr is another unit of pressure specified as 1760\frac{1}{760} of 1 atm.
  • Manometric units, such as the centimetre of salt, the millimetre of mercury, and the inch of mercury, are used to describe pressures in terms of the height of the column of a given fluid in the manometer.

MKS unit system:

  • In this system, the length is measured in meter (m), mass is measured in kilogram (kg) and time is measured in second (s).
  • For example SI unit of velocity is m/s.

CGS unit system:

  • In this system, length is measured in centimeter (cm), mass is measured in gram (g) and time is taken in second (s).
  • For example CGS unit of density is g/cm3.

FPS unit system;

  • In this system, length is measured in foot, mass is measured in pound and time is measured in second (s).
  • For example: FPS unit of volume is foot3.

Important Points

  • Manometric units, such as the centimeter of salt, the millimeter of mercury, and the inch of mercury, are used to describe pressures in terms of the height of the column of a given fluid in the manometer.
  • Some other quantities of pressure and their conversions
Units of pressurePabaratmTorr
1 Pa110-59.87× 10-67.5× 10-3
1 bar10510.987750.06
1Torr133.321.33× 10-31.32× 10-31
1 atm1.013× 1051.0131760

Question 108

The effect of the weak forces is experienced inside

  1. Proton
  2. Neutron

Choose the correct code

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Both 1 and 2

  3. COption (c)

    Neither 1 nor 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • A atom is the smallest component of an element and the building block of all matter, characterized by sharing of the chemical properties of the elements and a nucleus with neutrons, protons, and electrons.
  • Electrons, protons neutrons are subatomic particles that build the atom.
  • Electrons revolve around the nucleus and are negatively charged.
  • Protons are positively charged and neutron is neutral.

Explanation:

  • The strong nuclear force is an attractive force between protons and neutrons that keep the nucleus together while the weak nuclear force is responsible for the radioactive decay of certain nuclei.

  • The effect of the weak force is experienced inside the proton and neutron as weak force allows the proton to change into a neutron or vice-versa through beta decay.

  • This is a figure showing beta decay when a neutron becomes a proton due to weak force.

Thus**, the correct answer is both 1 and 2.**

Question 109

What is the shape of the electromagnet that is used in an electric-bell?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ring-shaped

  2. BOption (b)

    Cylindrical shaped

  3. COption (c)

    Bar-shaped

  4. DOption (d)

    U-shaped

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

U-shaped

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Electromagnet:

  • An electromagnet is a device that uses the magnetic effect of current.
  • A current-carrying wire generates a magnetic field around it.  This is known as the magnetic effect of current.
  • In an electromagnet, conducting wires are rounded over an iron core. When the current passes, the setup acts as a magnet.
  • More the number of turns, the more the magnitude of the current, the stronger electromagnet will be developed.
  • The electromagnet has many applications in day to day life like a crane, electric bell, etc.

Electric Bell:

 

  • An electric bell is an application of an Electromagnet.
  • It has an U shaped electromagnetic set up having an iron core rounded by conducting wire, along with an Iron strip, contact screw, hammer, and a bell.
  • When current passes, the iron core becomes an electromagnet.
  • There is a contact screw near the iron strip.
  • When the bell is switched on, the current passes in the circuit and the iron core becomes an electromagnet.  the iron strip is attracted by this electromagnet.
  • In the process, the hammer attached with the iron strip strikes the bell and produces a bell sound.
  • Now, in this process, the contact screw breaks the circuit after the ring, and the iron core remains no longer an electromagnet.
  • So, there was no magnetic needle involved here.

Additional Information

  • A magnetic Needle is just like a simple magnet that is used for detecting the direction using Earth's magnetic field.
  • It is also used in scientific experiments to detect the presence of a magnetic field around.

​

Question 110

An electric iron of resistance 150 Ω takes a current of 3 A. Calculate the heat developed in 5 minutes.

  1. AOption (a)

    4.50 J

  2. BOption (b)

    4.05 × 105 J

  3. COption (c)

    40.5 kJ

  4. DOption (d)

    4.50 × 104 J

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

4.05 × 105 J

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • Whenever a current is flowing in the resistance then heat is produced in it.
  • The phenomenon of producing heat by the electric current is called as the heating effect of electric current.

The amount of heat produced (H) in joules  is

H = I2 R t

Where I = Current, R = Resistance and t = Time taken

Calculation:

Given:

R = 150 Ω, I = 3 A, t = 5 min = 300 s

Using H = I2 R t

H = 32 × 150 × 300

H = 405000 J

H = 4.05 × 105 J

Question 111

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

  1. AOption (a)

    It costs a small amount of money to run a hydrogen vehicle.

  2. BOption (b)

    Hydrogen as a gas is not found naturally on Earth.

  3. COption (c)

    The same amount of hydrogen will take a fuel-cell car at least twice as far as a car running on gasoline.

  4. DOption (d)

    Hydrogen is one of the most abundant elements in the universe.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

It costs a small amount of money to run a hydrogen vehicle.

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

The Fuel Cell Electric Vehicle (FCEV):

  • Hydrogen is the lightest gas and the most abundant element in the universe.
  • It is found naturally on Earth.
  • It combines hydrogen and oxygen to generate an electric current and water is the only byproduct.
  • Hydrogen + Oxygen = Electricity + Water Vapour
  • FCEV engines are similar to conventional internal combustion engines because they also rely on a constant supply of fuel (hydrogen) and oxygen.
  • However, there are no moving parts in the fuel cell, so they are more efficient and reliable.
  • Stationary fuel cells are the largest and most powerful fuel cells.
  • These are being designed to provide a cleaner, reliable source of on-site power to hospitals, banks, airports, and homes.
  • The successful development of the technology would provide energy for transportation and electric power.
  • Advantages:
  • FCEVs produce much smaller quantities of greenhouse gases and none of the air pollutants that cause health problems. So, statement 3 is correct.
  • Fuel cells emit only heat and water as a byproduct and are far more energy-efficient than traditional combustion technologies.
  • FCEVs do not need to be plugged in for charging, like battery-powered EVs.
  • There is a wide availability of resources for producing hydrogen.
  • Disadvantages:
  • The process of making hydrogen needs energy, often from fossil fuel sources, which raises questions over hydrogen’s green credentials.
  • The handling of hydrogen is a safety concern because it is more explosive than petrol.
  • These vehicles are expensive and fuel dispensing pumps are scarce.
  • Unlike a battery-electricity vehicle, it does not store energy and, instead, relies on a constant supply of fuel and oxygen.

Question 112

If pressure at one point of the liquid is increased, then ________

  1. AOption (a)

    The pressure at all other points of the liquid will not increase by the same

  2. BOption (b)

    The pressure at all other points of the liquid will increase by the same amount

  3. COption (c)

    The pressure at all other points of the liquid will remain unchanged

  4. DOption (d)

    The pressure at all other points of the liquid will increase by reduced amount

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The pressure at all other points of the liquid will increase by the same amount

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Pascal’s principle: Pascal’s Law is the principle of transmission of fluid pressure.
  • It says that "a pressure exerted anywhere in a point of the confined fluid is transmitted equally in all directions throughout the fluid”.

P = F/A, Where P = pressure, F = force exerted on body, A = area of applied force

EXPLANATION:

  • The pressure in a closed volume of fluid is the same as at every point of the vessel. So, option 2nd is correct.
  • Objects float by the Archimedes principle.
  • The pressure difference at the bottom of the lake is due to hydrostatic pressure is more at the bottom.
  • Pascal law is valid for objects immersed in any confined liquid.

Question 113

If Y (=144) is the Young modulus of the solid and 9 its density, then the speed (v) of the longitudinal sound waves in a solid rod is

  1. AOption (a)

    1

  2. BOption (b)

    2

  3. COption (c)

    3

  4. DOption (d)

    4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

4

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Longitudinal waves: The waves in which the displacement of the particle is in parallel to the direction of wave propagation.

Speed of longitudinal waves in solid is given by:

v = γρ\sqrt {\frac γ ρ }

where v = Speed in gas, γ = Young's Modulus of the medium, and ρ = Density of the gas medium.

Calculation:

Given:

γ = 144, ρ = 9

Using, v = γρ\sqrt {\frac γ ρ }

v = 1449\sqrt {\frac {144}{ 9} }

v = 4

Question 114

What is the reading of ammeter in the circuit given below?

​

  1. AOption (a)

    1.4 A

  2. BOption (b)

    1 A

  3. COption (c)

    2 A

  4. DOption (d)

    2.5 A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2 A

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

  • Let's mark the junction points in the circuit:

​

The points where the two parallel wires are present will be at the same potential. Now, rearranging the above given resistance circuit:

 

The equivalent resistance between points A and B is: Req=1Ω×1Ω1Ω+1Ω=12Ω=0.5ΩR_{eq}=\frac{1\Omega \times 1 \Omega}{1 \Omega+1\Omega}=\frac{1}{2}\Omega=0.5 \Omega

The equivalent resistance between points B and C is: Req=2Ω×2Ω2Ω+2Ω=44Ω=1ΩR_{eq}=\frac{2\Omega \times 2 \Omega}{2 \Omega+2\Omega}=\frac{4}{4}\Omega=1 \Omega

Similarly, C and D is : Req=1.5ΩR_{eq}=1.5\Omega

Now, All these resistors are in a series connection. So, the equivalent resistance is: Req=0.5Ω+1Ω+1.5Ω+4Ω=7ΩR_{eq}=0.5\Omega + 1\Omega +1.5\Omega+4\Omega=7\Omega

The ohm's law is given as: V=IReq  ⟹  I=VReq=14V7Ω=2AV=IR_{eq}\implies I=\frac{V}{R_{eq}}=\frac{14V}{7\Omega}=2A

Question 115

Which of the following statements regarding natural gas is wrong?

  1. AOption (a)

    Methane is a common gas found in swamps and is also the byproduct of animals' digestive system.

  2. BOption (b)

    It is a finite source

  3. COption (c)

    it doesn't produce carbon dioxide while burning

  4. DOption (d)

    Natural gas is a fossil fuel.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

it doesn't produce carbon dioxide while burning

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

  • The mixture of hydrocarbon gases with methane being the primary component is called natural gas.
  • Hydrogen, hydrogen sulphide, nitrogen, carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide are other gases that are present in minute traces.
  • Natural gas is formed as fossil fuel from the decaying remains of pre-historic plant and animal life.
  • Methane is an odourless gas that is colourless and easily inflammable.
  • It is also known as methyl hydride or marsh gas.
  • Since it s a fossil fuel, It is a finite fuel.
  • It is also found in swamps and is also the byproduct of animals' digestive systems.
  • Methane is a greenhouse gas, i.e. it has the property of absorbing and reradiating infrared radiation (net heat energy) released from the surface of the Earth back to the surface of the Earth, thus contributing to the greenhouse effect.
  • It is used in the manufacture of other chemicals and natural gas as a fuel component.

Natural Gas composition:

ComponentConcentration (%, m3/m3)
Methane (CH4)97
Nitrogen (N2)0.936
Ethane (C2H6)0.919
Carbon dioxide (CO2)0.527
Propane (C3H8)0.363
Butane (C4H10)0.162
Oxygen (O2)0.0.800
Noble gases (Ar, He, Ne)Trace
Other (e.g. H2S)0-0,001

Important PointsEvery petroleum product releases carbon dioxide from burning.

Question 116

An elevator weighing 400 kg is to be lifted up at a constant velocity of 0.20 m/s. What would be the minimum horsepower of the motor to be used? (g = 9.8 m/s2 and there is no frictional loss)

  1. AOption (a)

    2.0 hp

  2. BOption (b)

    0.5 hp

  3. COption (c)

    1.05 hp

  4. DOption (d)

    5.0 hp

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1.05 hp

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Power: It is defined as the rate of doing work.

P=Wt=Fv P=\frac{W}{t}=Fv

Where W = Work, t = Time, F = Force and v = Average velocity

Also, F = mg

m = Mass

Calculation:

Given:

m = 400 kg, v = 0.2 m/s, g = 9.8 m/s2 

Using, F = mg

F = 400 × 9.8

F = 3920 N

Now, P = Fv

P = 3920 × 0.2

P = 784 W

P = 1.05 hp  --- ( Since. 1 hp = 747.5 W)

Question 117

Which of the following is not true about flotation?

  1. When a solid body is dipped into a fluid, the fluid exerts an upward force of buoyancy on the solid.
  2. The solid remains in equilibrium if the force of buoyancy is less than the weight of the solid.
  1. AOption (a)

    Both 1 and 2

  2. BOption (b)

    only 1

  3. COption (c)

    Only 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only 2

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Archimedes principle:

  • Any object which is submerged in a fluid is acted upon by an upward force whose magnitude is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced.
  • The upward force applied to the object is called buoyant force.
  • If the mass of the object is m then mg is the weight (W) of the object. Weight of any object always acts in the downward direction.

Explanation:

  • When the object is submerged in water, then the buoyancy force (Fb) act on the object in an upward direction.
  • When an object is floating in the water, the buoyancy force balances the weight of the object.

Buoyancy force (Fb) ≥ Weight (W)

  • If buoyancy force (Fb) < weight (W), the body will sink.

Question 118

Which of the following is correct regarding Fleming's left-hand rule?

  1. AOption (a)

    If the first finger shows the direction of the magnetic field and the middle one the direction of current flow, then the thumb shows the direction of force ‘F’ acting on the current »S carrying conductor.

  2. BOption (b)

    If the first finger shows the direction of the current flow and the middle one the direction of force ‘F’ acting on the current carrying conductor, then the thumb shows the direction of magnetic field.

  3. COption (c)

    If the first finger shows the direction of the magnetic field and the middle one the direction of force ‘F’ acting on the current carrying conductor, then the thumb shows the direction of current flow.

  4. DOption (d)

    If the first finger shows the direction of the current flow and the middle one the direction of magnetic field, then the thumb shows the direction of force ‘F’ acting on the current carrying conductor.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

If the first finger shows the direction of the magnetic field and the middle one the direction of current flow, then the thumb shows the direction of force ‘F’ acting on the current »S carrying conductor.

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • Fleming's Left-hand rule gives the force experienced by a charged particle moving in a magnetic field or a current-carrying wire placed in a magnetic field.
  • It states that "stretch the thumb, the forefinger, and the central finger of the left hand so that they are mutually perpendicular to each other.
  • If the forefinger points in the direction of the magnetic field, the central finger points in the direction of motion of charge, then the thumb points in the direction of force experienced by positively charged particles."

Explanation:

  • According to Flemings rule, if we must take our thumb, forefinger, and center finger in such a way that each one is perpendicular to others.
  • Then if the center finger points the direction of current and forefinger points towards the direction of force field then thumb can represent the direction of motion of the conductor.

Question 119

Which of the following is/are conservative force/s?

  1. force of gravity
  2. coulomb force
  3. Force of spring

Choose the correct code

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 2 and 3

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 1 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    Only 1

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1, 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • Conservative force: A force is conservative if the work done by the force in displacing an object from one point to another point is independent of the path followed by the object and depends only on the endpoints.
  • Electrostatic forces, gravitational forces, elastic forces, spring forces, magnetic forces, etc and are examples of a conservative force.
  • Non-conservative forces: A force is said to be non-conservative if work done by or against the force in moving a body from one position to another, depends on the path followed between these two positions.
  • Example:  Frictional force, Viscous force, Airdrag, etc.

Explanation:

  • If a body of mass m lifted to height h from the ground level by a different path, then the work done in each case will be the same. Therefore, in conservative force work done by the force in displacing an object from one point to another point is independent of path followed by the object and depends only on the endpoints.

  • If a body is moved from position A to another position B on a rough table, work done against frictional force shall depend on the length of the path between A and B and not only on the position A and B. Therefore, in non-conservative force work done by or against the force in moving a body from one position to another, depends on the path followed between these two positions.

Question 120

An 800 gm solid cube having an edge of length 10 cm floats in water. How much volume of the cube is outside the water? (Density of the water 1000 kg-m-3.)

  1. AOption (a)

    400 cm3

  2. BOption (b)

    100 cm3

  3. COption (c)

    200 cm3

  4. DOption (d)

    300 cm3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

200 cm3

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Archimedes Principle: When a body is fully or partially dipped in fluid, the fluid exerts a contact force on the body. The resultant of this contact force is known as buoyancy or buoyant force.

  • This force acts vertically upwards (opposite to the weight of the body).
  • Mathematically, F = Vρg [where, V = volume of liquid displaced, ρ = density of the liquid, g = acceleration due to gravity.]
  • A body floats on a fluid if the average density of the body is less than that of fluid.
  • The weight of the liquid displaced by the immersed part of the body must be equal to the weight of the body.

Calculation:

In floating bodies,

Weight of fluid = Buoyant force

Buoyant force = weight of water displaced. If V is the volume of cube inside the water, then the weight of water displaced = Vρg.

⇒ Vρg = 0.8 g

⇒V=0.8gρg=0.81000=8×10−4;m3=800;cm3\Rightarrow V = \frac{{0.8g}}{{ρ g}} = \frac{{0.8}}{{1000}} = 8 \times {10^{ - 4}};{m^3} = 800;c{m^3}

Total volume of the cube = (10 cm) 3 = 1000 cm3

∴ Volume outside the water = 1000 – 800 = 200 cm3

Discipline 2 (20 questions)

Question 121

What will be the refractive index of water if the critical angle for water is 48.2°?

  1. AOption (a)

    1.34

  2. BOption (b)

    2.34

  3. COption (c)

    0.34

  4. DOption (d)

    3.34

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1.34

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Critical angle:

  • When the light rays pass from denser to rarer medium and due to a certain angle of incidence, the angle of refraction becomes 90o.This angle of incidence is called the Critical angle.

Calculation:

Given,

Critical angle of water = 48.2

We know that,

According to Snell's law,

Sin θc \ Sin 90o =2μ1

μ = 1/ Sinθc

μ = 1/ Sin (48.2)

μ = 1.34

Thus, the refractive index of water is 1.34.

Question 122

What is denatured alcohol?

  1. AOption (a)

    The mixing of colour and methanol to ethanol for the purpose of industrial use

  2. BOption (b)

    It is formed when alcohol reacts with oxygen

  3. COption (c)

    The product of ethanol reacting with concentrated sulphuric acid

  4. DOption (d)

    The product of alcohol reacting with sodium

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The mixing of colour and methanol to ethanol for the purpose of industrial use

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ethanol + Methanol​.

  • Ethanol + Methanol​ is denatured alcohol.
  • Denatured alcohol is ethanol that has additives to make it poisonous, bad-tasting, foul-smelling, or nauseating to discourage its recreational consumption.
  • The term denatured alcohol refers to alcohol products adulterated with toxic and/or bad tasting additives (e.g., methanol, benzene, pyridine, castor oil, gasoline, isopropyl alcohol, and acetone), making it unsuitable for human consumption.
  • The most common additive used is methanol (5–10%), giving rise to the term methylated spirits. Denatured alcohol is used as a lower-cost solvent or fuel for home-scale or industrial use.

Key Points

  • Denatured alcohol is ethanol or grain alcohol that contains additional chemicals called denaturants that make it unfit for human consumption.
  • Denatured alcohol is fine for some types of lab work and as an ingredient in certain products, but it's not safe to drink.
  • Ethanol is an organic chemical compound. It is simple alcohol with the chemical formula C₂H₆O.
  • Its formula can be also written as CH3−CH2−OH or C2H5OH and is often abbreviated as EtOH.

Additional Information

  • Alcohol (ethanol or ethyl alcohol) is the ingredient found in beer, wine, and spirits that causes drunkenness.
  • Alcohol is formed when yeast ferments (breaks down without oxygen) the sugars in different food.

Question 123

Amphoteric oxides are known as:

  1. AOption (a)

    Metal oxides which react with both acids as well as bases to produce salts and water

  2. BOption (b)

    Metal oxides which do not react with bases to produce salts and water

  3. COption (c)

    Metal oxides which react with only acids to produce salts and water

  4. DOption (d)

    Metal oxides which react with neither acids nor bases to produce salts and water

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Metal oxides which react with both acids as well as bases to produce salts and water

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Oxides are compounds formed by the reaction of metals, non-metals with oxygen. The types of oxides are:

Basic oxide: It is a complex chemical substance oxide, which forms a salt with a chemical reaction with acids or acidic oxides and does not react with bases or basic oxides. E.g. Copper oxide (Cu2O), Magnesium oxide (MgO)

Acidic oxide: It is a complex chemical substance oxide, which forms a salt with the chemical reactions with bases or basic oxides and does not react with acidic oxides.E.g. Carbon dioxide (CO2), Silicon dioxide (SiO2)

Amphoteric oxide: It is a complex chemical substance, also oxides, which form a salt with the chemical reactions with acids (or acid oxides) and with bases (or basic oxides). E.g. Copper oxide, Zinc oxide, Tin oxide, Lead oxide, Aluminum oxide, and Beryllium oxide.

Mistake Points

Amphoteric oxides are not the same as neutral oxides, because neutral oxides neither have basic nor acidic properties.

Additional InformationNature of oxides of the elements:

  • Metals form basic oxides and Non-metals form acidic oxides.
  • Amphoteric elements can form both acidic and basic oxides.
  • For example, aluminium oxide is amphoteric in nature, it can act as a base as well as an acid.
  • So, amphoteric oxides will react with both acids and bases to form salt and water.
  • Amphoteric oxides are formed by elements of groups 2, 13, and some d block elements.
  • Here, metal X forms an amphoteric oxide, so metal X is a metalloid and its oxide can be acidic as well as basic.

Question 124

The natural source of Oxalic acid is:

  1. AOption (a)

    Nettle string

  2. BOption (b)

    Tamarind

  3. COption (c)

    Tomato

  4. DOption (d)

    Lemon

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Tomato

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Oxalic Acid:-

  • Oxalic acid is a crystalline solid which forms colourless solution in water.
  • Food articles like spinach, cabbage Broccoli, parsley, tomato are some good natural sources of Oxalic acid.
  • Main use of Oxalic Acid is in cleaning and removal of rust.

Important Points

​Some other naturally occurring organic acids and their sources are:-

AcidSource
Citric AcidCitrus fruits like Lemon, Lime, Orange etc
Acetic AcidVinegar
Malic AcidApple, Apricot, Blueberries, cherries etc
Formic AcidAnts and sting-less bees
Tartaric AcidGrapes, Banana, Tamarind
Lactic AcidFermented or sour milk products
Ascorbic acid
(Vitamin C)
Amla, Citrus fruits, Kiwi, Mango, Papaya,  Green leafy vegetables

Question 125

Which among the following is the most reactive metal?

  1. AOption (a)

    Hg

  2. BOption (b)

    K

  3. COption (c)

    Al

  4. DOption (d)

    Pb

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

K

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

The Reactivity series of metals refers to the arrangement of metals in the descending order of their reactivities.

  • ​Features of Reactivity series:
  • The metals at the top of the reactivity series are powerful reducing agents since they are easily oxidized and get corroded very easily.
  • Most reactive metal is potassium (K).
  • The reducing ability of the metals grows weaker while traversing down the series.
  • The electro positivity of the elements also reduces while moving down the reactivity series of metals.
  • All metals that are found above hydrogen in the activity series liberate H2 gas upon reacting with dilute HCl or dilute H2SO4.
  • Metals that are placed higher on the reactivity series have the ability to displace metals that are placed lower from their salt solutions.

Additional Information

  • Cesium is the most reactive metal in the periodic table.
  • It is a rare metal than other alkali metals.
  • It is silvery gold, soft, and ductile.

Important Points 

  • Cesium, Gallium, and Mercury are the only three metals that are liquid at or around room temperature.

Question 126

When a ray of light passes from an optically rarer medium to an optically danser medium, we have - (if i = angle of incidence and r = angle of refraction)

  1. i < r
  2. i = r
  3. i > r
  1. AOption (a)

    1

  2. BOption (b)

    2

  3. COption (c)

    3

  4. DOption (d)

    1 or 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

3

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Refraction of Light: The bending of the ray of light passing from one medium to the other medium is called refraction.

  • The refraction of light takes place on going from one medium to another because the speed of light is different in the two media.
  • The greater the difference in the speeds of light in the two media, the greater will be the amount of refraction.
  • A medium in which the speed of light is more is known as an optically rarer medium and a medium in which the speed of light is less is known as an optically denser medium.

Explanation:

  • Here the air is a rarer medium and glass is a denser medium. Therefore, when a ray of light passes from air to glass then it will bend toward the normal.
  • If the angle of incidence, with respect to the normal to the interface, is increased, then the angle of refraction will increase but there will be no total internal reflection because for total internal reflection to take place angle of incidence must be greater than the critical angle.
  • Hence, i > r.
  • Since light is going from rarer to denser medium hence no total internal reflection will occur.
  • Total Internal Reflection will take place when the ray of light travels from denser medium to rarer medium and the angle of incidence must be greater than the critical angle.

Question 127

The retina of an eye contains millions of receptors called ________.

  1. Rods
  2. Cones

Choose the correct code

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 2

  3. COption (c)

    Neither 1 nor 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Both 1 and 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Rods and cones are sensory neurons i.e receptors of the eye as they transmit information to other cells.

  • Rods are the photoreceptor cells that contain rhodopsin pigment.
  • Rods are responsible for vision at low light levels (scotopic vision).
  • Cones are the photoreceptor cells that contain iodopsin, porpyrosin, and cyansopsin pigments.
  • Cones are active at higher light levels (photopic vision), are capable of color vision,and are responsible for high spatial acuity.
  • Rods and cones are located outside of the central part of retina

Additional InformationGanglion Cells:- These cells are only retinal neurons communicating directly with brain. The axons gather at the optic desk, where they become myelinated and form the optic nerve.

Bipolar Cells:- These cells are a type of neuron that has two extensions ( one axon and one dendrite) These cells receive inputs from a set of photoreceptor cells that define the bipolar cell"s receptive field.

Amacrine Cells:- These cells are interneurons in the retina. These cells are responsible for 70% of input to retinal ganglion cells. They are located inner nuclear and Ganglion cell layers of the retina.

Question 128

Most metal oxides are insoluble in water but some of these dissolve in water to form :

  1. AOption (a)

    Acid

  2. BOption (b)

    Hydrogen

  3. COption (c)

    Alkalis

  4. DOption (d)

    Non metal oxides

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Alkalis

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • Metals oxides are formed when any metals react with oxygen.

Explanation:

  • Metal oxides are basic in nature.
  • Metal react with water to produce metal oxide and hydrogen gas are evolved.
  • Most of these metal oxide are insoluble in water for eg. Transistion metals are hard metals and their oxides do not dissolve in water because of their low basicity.
  • As we move towards right hand side of periodic table basicity goes on increasing.
  • After reaching alkaline earth metal, it is observed that their metal oxide when hydrolysed form slaked lime solution.
  • Slaked lime solution are not completely clear solution, they show turbidity.
  • Oxides of group 1 elements when dissolve in water they dissolves completely forming a clear solution which is found to be basic.

Question 129

The front portion of eye is covered by a transparent protective membrane called the -

  1. AOption (a)

    Retina

  2. BOption (b)

    Cornea

  3. COption (c)

    Iris

  4. DOption (d)

    Pupil

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Cornea

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

​The human eye consists of a thin membrane in the front portion through which light enters. It is called the cornea.

  • The pupil is a hole through which light enters our eyes.
  • It controls the amount of light entering the eye.
  • Iris is a muscle in our eye that controls the size of the pupil. It dilates and contracts because which size of the pupil varies.
  • So we can say Iris controls the size of the pupil.
  • Cornea: The frontmost and transparent covering of the eye is called the cornea.
  • Light enters the human eye through the cornea.
  • Aqueous Humor: The clear watery and transparent fluid that circulates in the front part of the eye is called Aqueous Humor.
  • Aqueous humour is a fluid or transparent window that keeps constant pressure within the eye and further nourishes the cornea and lens.

​

Important Points

  • Different parts of the eyes and their functions are shown in the table:
Name of the PartCharacteristicsFunction
CorneaThe transparent spherical membrane covering the front part of the eyeLight enters the eye through this membrane; Most of the refraction happens here
Eye Lenstransparent, biconvex structure in the eyeprovides finer adjustment required to focus objects on the retina
IrisThe dark muscular diaphragm between the cornea and the lenscontrols the size of the pupil
PupilAn opening between the iris through which light enters the eyeregulates the amount of light entering the eye
Ciliary MusclesAttached to the eye lens
hold the lens in position and modify the curvature of the lens.
Retinathe light-sensitive surface of an eye on which the image is formedgenerate signals which are transmitted to the brain through optical nerves
Optic NerveAttached to retinatransmits visual information from the retina to the brain

Question 130

Sound waves constitute _____ pulses travelling in the medium.

  1. AOption (a)

    Compression

  2. BOption (b)

    Random rarefaction and compression

  3. COption (c)

    Alternate compression and rarefaction

  4. DOption (d)

    Rarefaction

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Alternate compression and rarefaction

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • Sound is a wave that is produced by vibrations.

  • The vibrations are carried out in the form of waves.

  • The sound wave consists of continuous formation of high-pressure area and low-pressure area.

  • The high-pressure area is called compression and the low-pressure area is called rarefaction.

  • Sound produces vibrations in the medium of its propagation. So, sound requires a medium to travel.

  • The distance between two continuous compressions or rarefaction is called wavelength.

  • If one complete cycle of compression and rarefaction is completed we one oscillation has been completed.

Additional Information

  • The amplitude of the wave is the maximum distance the particle oscillating moves from the mean position.
  • The frequency of the wave is the number of times one completes the cycle of compressions. SI unit of frequency is Hertz.
  • The reciprocal of frequency is the time period.

Question 131

______ solution is a purple dye, which is extracted from lichen, a plant belonging to the division Thallophyta, and is commonly used as an indicator.

  1. AOption (a)

    Phenolpthalein

  2. BOption (b)

    Iodine

  3. COption (c)

    Litmus

  4. DOption (d)

    Methyl orange

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Litmus

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

  • Litmus solution is derived from Lichen.
  • Lichen is used to determine the solution is neutral/acidic/basic. It has a mauve (purple) colour in distilled water.
  • When added to an acidic solution, it turns red. When added to a basic solution, it turns blue.
  • Lichens are plants that belong to the Thallophyta group. To obtain a litmus solution, the crushing and grinding of lichens are done. The dyes are then added to neutral water to get the required litmus solution.
  • Litmus solution is obtained from lichens. A natural dye extracted from lichens is dissolved in distilled water to obtain a litmus solution. For example, It is used as an indicator to distinguish between acids and bases.
  • Litmus solution is a purple dye , which is extracted from lichen, a plant belonging to the division Thallophyta, and is commonly used as an indicator.
  • There are many other natural materials like red cabbage leaves, turmeric, coloured petals of some flowers such as Hydrangea, Petunia, and Geranium, which indicate the presence of acid or base in a solution. These are called acid-base indicators or sometimes simply indicators.
  • Most of the acid-base indicators that are commonly used are synthetic but nature has its own indicators. Hydrangea, petunia, and Geranium have the ability to act as indicators

Additional Information

IndicatorDescription
China RoseIt turns acidic solutions to dark pink or magenta colour and basic solutions to green colour.
PhenolphthaleinIt is an organic compound of the phthalein family that is widely used as an acid-base indicator. As indicator phenolphthalein is colourless below pH 8.5 and attains pink to deep red hue above pH 9.0.
TurmericTurmeric is yellow in acid & neutral substance but turns bright red with bases.

Question 132

​The term atomic size refers to the _______ of an atom.

  1. AOption (a)

    Point of tangency

  2. BOption (b)

    Circumference

  3. COption (c)

    Diameter

  4. DOption (d)

    Radius

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Radius

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Atomic radius: It is the distance from the center of the nucleus to the outermost shell containing electrons. Also known as atomic size.

Trends in atomic size

  • On moving from left to right in a period, the electrons are added into the same valence shell progressively.
  • The increase in the number of electrons is paralleled by the increase in the number of protons in the nucleus.
  • The effective nuclear charge is increased and the valence shell electrons are pulled strongly by electrostatic attraction. Therefore, the size of the atoms decreases.
  • On moving from top to bottom in a row, the number of valence electrons remains the same but orbitals are added constantly.
  • The effective nuclear charge is decreased due to the screening effect of inner-shell electrons.
  • The valence shell electrons experience a diminished pull of the nuclear charge. Therefore, the size of the atoms increases.

Additional Information

  • Ionization energy increases on going from left to right and from down to top.
  • Electron affinity increases on going from left to right and from down to top.
  • The atomic radius increases from right to left and top to bottom.

Question 133

Which of the following is most commonly formed from the reaction of an acid and alcohol?

  1. AOption (a)

    Esters

  2. BOption (b)

    Charcoal

  3. COption (c)

    Water

  4. DOption (d)

    Salts

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Esters

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

  • Esters are most commonly formed by the reaction of an acid and an alcohol.
  • Esters are formed by the condensation reaction between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid and this process is known as esterification.
  • The word ester was coined in 1848 by a German chemist Leopold Gmelin.
  • Examples of esters: Ethyl ethanoate, Ethyl propanoate, Propyl methanoate, and Methyl butanoate.

Additional Information

Ethanol- Also called ethyl alcohol/grain alcohol/drinking alcohol. - Ethanol is also used as an alternative fuel source.
Carboxylic acid- An organic acid containing a carboxyl group. - Examples: Methanoic(formic) acid and ethanoic(acetic) acid.
Ketones- The substance produced when body cells don't get enough glucose and the body will burns fat for energy instead. - The simplest ketone is acetone.

Question 134

The appearance of sound to a human ear is subjectively characterized by which of the following parameters?

  1. Pitch
  2. Loudness
  3. Quality

Choose the correct code

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1 and 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 1 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1, 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Sound: The sound is a longitudinal wave in which the particles of the medium through which the sound is transported vibrate parallel to the direction that the sound wave moves. 

Loudness: The phenomenon of sound waves that depend on the amplitude and energy of the sound wave is called Loudness. When the amplitude of the sound is large, then the sound wave is considered to be loud.

Frequency: The number of wave cycles happening per second is called frequency.

Amplitude: The maximum amount of displacement of the medium particles from its mean position is called the amplitude of the wave. 

Pitch: The response of the ear to the frequency of sound is called the pitch of the sound.

The intensity of sound wave ∝ A2 

Where A is the amplitude.

Application:

  • Quality or timbre is the characteristics which enable us to distinguish between sound having the same pitch and loudness produced by different instruments or humans
  • Timbre is associated with the shape of sound waves or waveforms produced by them

Hence all 1, 2 & 3 are correct

Question 135

Which of the following reactions produce insoluble salts?

  1. AOption (a)

    Decomposition

  2. BOption (b)

    Reduction

  3. COption (c)

    Oxidation

  4. DOption (d)

    Precipitation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Precipitation

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Chemical Reactions:

  • A process in which one or more compounds are formed as products completely different from the reacting substances is known as a chemical reaction.
  • There is generally a change in heat, color, or appearance when a chemical reaction takes place.
  • The evolution of gas may also occur.
  • A chemical reaction may be reversible or irreversible in nature.
  • Chemical changes occur in chemical reactions.

Types of Chemical Reactions:

Different types of reactions are

  • Combustion reaction
  • Decomposition reaction
  • Neutralization reaction
  • Precipitation or Double-Displacement Reaction

Explanation:

Precipitation reactions refer to the formation of insoluble salt when two solutions containing soluble salts are mixed. The insoluble salt that comes out of the solution is known as a precipitate, hence the name of the reaction.

  • Precipitation reactions can help to determine the identity of different ions in the solution.

E.g. NaCl + AgNO3 ​→ AgCl + NaNO3​

Mol :     1 mol     1 mol        1 mol      1 mol

Mass:   58.5 g     170 g      143.5 g    85 g

  • In the reaction above, AgCl is formed as a precipitate.
  • Hence. the reaction Sodium chloride + silver nitrate → silver chloride + sodium nitrate is a precipitation reaction.

Additional Information

  • As two hydrogens and oxygen exchange electrons by covalent bonds, a water molecule is formed.
  • 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O
  • Examples are the reactions in which sodium (Na) interacts with chlorine (Cl2) to form sodium chloride or table salt (NaCl). The reaction of sodium with chlorine to sodium chloride is an example of a mixed reaction.
  • 2Na + Cl2 → 2NaCl
  • CaCO3 → CaO+CO2

Question 136

Which of the following salt is produced when ethanoic acid (CH3COOH) reacts with carbonates and hydrogencarbonates?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sodium acetate

  2. BOption (b)

    Potassium bicarbonate

  3. COption (c)

    Sulphur oxide

  4. DOption (d)

    Carboxylic ester

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Sodium acetate

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sodium acetate.

Explanation:

When ethanoic acid (CH3COOH) reacts with carbonates and hydrogencarbonates to evolve carbon dioxide gas along with the formation of salt and water. The salt produced is commonly known as sodium acetate (CH3COONa).

Reaction:

CH3COOH + NaHCO3  →  CH3COONa + H2O + CO2

<sub>

Additional Information</sub>

Uses of ethanoic acid: 

  • In the manufacture of pickles and sauces, dilute ethanoic acid (in the form of vinegar) is used as a food preservative. It is also used as an appetizer for dressing food items as vinegar.
  • It is utilized in the production of cellulose acetate, an important artificial fibre.
  • It is utilized in the production of acetone (propanone) and esters, which are used in the production of perfumes.
  • It is used in the coagulation of rubber from latex.
  • The reaction of esters with alkalis produces carboxylic acid salt and alcohol, which are utilized in the saponification reaction to make soap.

CH3COOC2H5 + NaOH → C2H5OH + CH3COONa

Question 137

Find the maximum height a ball will reach if it is thrown vertically up at a speed of 4 m/s? (Given g = 10 m/s2)

  1. AOption (a)

    1.6  m

  2. BOption (b)

    0.4  m

  3. COption (c)

    0.6 m

  4. DOption (d)

    0.8  m

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

0.8  m

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Projectile motion: When a particle is projected obliquely near the earth surface, it moves simultaneously in horizontal and vertical directions. This type of motion is called projectile motion.

Total;time;of;flight=2;u;sinθgTotal;time;of;flight = \frac{{2;u;sinθ }}{g}

Range;of;projectile=u2sin⁡2θgRange;of;projectile = \frac{{{u^2}\sin 2θ }}{g}

Maximum;Height=u2sin⁡2θ2gMaximum;Height = \frac{{{u^2}{{\sin }^2}θ }}{{2g}}​

Where, u = projected speed, θ = Angle at which an object is thrown from the ground, g = Acceleration due to gravity = 9.8 m/s2

Maximum height is the maximum vertical distance travelled by the projectile from the horizontal plane.

Maximum;Height=u2sin⁡2θ2gMaximum;Height = \frac{{{u^2}{{\sin }^2}θ }}{{2g}}

For maximizing the vertical range, sin θ must be maximum, which is sin θ = 1

⇒ θ = 90° 

Maximum;Vertical,Height=u22gMaximum; Vertical,Height = \frac{{u^2}}{{2g}}

 

Calculation:

Given:

u = 4 m/s, g = 10 m/s2 

Using, Maximum;Vertical,Height=u22gMaximum; Vertical,Height = \frac{{u^2}}{{2g}}

Maximum;Vertical,Height=422×10Maximum; Vertical,Height = \frac{{4^2}}{{2\times 10}}

H = 0.8 m

Question 138

Which of the following is called lime or quick lime?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ferric Oxide

  2. BOption (b)

    Calcium oxide

  3. COption (c)

    Ferrous Sulphate

  4. DOption (d)

    Calcium Carbonate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Calcium oxide

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

  • Calcium oxide, commonly known as lime, is a chemical compound with the formula CaO.
  • Calcium oxide, also known as quicklime. It is believed that quicklime is one of the oldest chemicals known to the human race. It can also be referred to as burnt lime or lime.
  • Calcium oxide can be produced by the thermal decomposition of materials like limestone or seashells that contain calcium carbonate (CaCO3 mineral calcite) in a lime kiln.
  • The process that is used to prepare burnt lime is known as calcination. It is a process that starts with thermally decomposing the reactants at high temperatures but ensuring that the temperature is kept well below the melting point.

Additional Information

  • Sodium Bicarbonate:
  • ​Sodium bicarbonate, referred to as baking soda, is primarily used in baking as a leavening agent.
  • It reacts with acidic components in batters, releasing carbon dioxide, which causes expansion of the batter and forms the characteristic texture and grain in pancakes, cakes, quick bread, soda bread, and other baked and fried foods.
  • Calcium carbonate:
  • It is an inorganic chemical compound with the chemical formula CaCO3.
  • Calcium carbonate is a non-toxic and odourless compound commonly found as a white mineral that occurs naturally in chalks, limestones, and marbles.
  • Silicon Dioxide:
  • ​SiO2 is an oxide of silicon with the chemical name Silicon Dioxide.
  • It is also called Silica or Silicic oxide or silicic acid.
  • It is widely found in nature as quartz.

Question 139

Which of the following reactions are used in black and white photography?

  1. AOption (a)

    Combustion reaction of AgCl

  2. BOption (b)

    Decomposition Reaction of AgCl

  3. COption (c)

    Displacement Reaction of AgCl

  4. DOption (d)

    None of the above 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Decomposition Reaction of AgCl

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 that is Decomposition Reaction of AgCl.

Concept:

  • A few fundamentals of conventional (analog) photography first: Through the lens of a camera, light enters and reflects off the film's surface. This photographic film is covered in gelatin layers that have minute silver halide crystals—silver bromide or silver chloride—that are light-sensitive.
  • These silver halide crystals respond to light by interacting with the film. Since the crystals are photosensitive, light exposure causes changes in their molecular structure. Silver ions are converted to elemental silver as a result of the light. In order to generate the dark silver specks, the silver atoms group together.

Explanation:

  • The decomposition reaction can be summarized as follows:

                AgCl → Ag + Cl

  • Here, silver chloride breaks down into silver and chloride molecules when exposed to light. The silver collections give rise to darker areas on the film — a photographic negative.
  • After the film is exposed, it goes through the developing, stopping, fixing, and washing processes. A developer solution helps amplify the process started with light, converting more silver halide into metallic silver. Stop bath halts this reaction.
  • The film then goes into a fixer, which removes any remaining silver halide crystals that haven't been reduced to metallic silver. This makes the film insensitive to further exposure to light. Washing then removes the chemicals from the film.

Hence, The correct option is 2.

Question 140

Metal carbonate/Metal hydrogen carbonate + Acid→ Salt +_____ + Water

Which of the following is missing in the above reaction?

  1. AOption (a)

    Oxygen

  2. BOption (b)

    Carbon monoxide

  3. COption (c)

    Hydrogen

  4. DOption (d)

     Carbon dioxide

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

 Carbon dioxide

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

  • Metal Carbonate/Metal Hydrogen Carbonate: Metal carbonates are compounds that contain a metal cation (positive ion) and a carbonate ion (CO32-). Metal hydrogen carbonates (also called bicarbonates) are similar but contain the bicarbonate ion (HCO3-). Examples of metal carbonates include sodium carbonate (Na2CO3) and calcium carbonate (CaCO3), while examples of metal hydrogen carbonates include sodium hydrogen carbonate (NaHCO3, also known as baking soda).
  • Acid: In this context, "acid" refers to any substance that can donate protons (H+ ions). Common examples include hydrochloric acid (HCl) and sulfuric acid (H2SO4). When an acid reacts with a carbonate or bicarbonate, it forms water and salt while releasing carbon dioxide.
  • Salt: The salt formed depends on the specific metal in the metal carbonate or metal hydrogen carbonate and the acid used. For example, if you react sodium carbonate (Na2CO3) with hydrochloric acid (HCl), you will get sodium chloride (NaCl) as the salt.
  • Carbon Dioxide: When an acid reacts with a carbonate or bicarbonate, it produces carbon dioxide (CO2) gas. This release of carbon dioxide is a characteristic of this type of reaction and is often observed as effervescence (bubbling) in the reaction mixture. The carbon dioxide gas is what's missing in your original equation, and it's an important product in this reaction.
  • Water: In addition to carbon dioxide and salt, the reaction also produces water (H2O). This is a result of the neutralization of the acidic hydrogen ions from the acid and the basic carbonate or bicarbonate ions.
  • So, the complete reaction is:  Metal Carbonate/Metal Hydrogen Carbonate + Acid → Salt + Carbon Dioxide + Water
  • The formation of carbon dioxide gas is a key characteristic of this reaction and is often used in practical applications, such as in the production of carbonated beverages or to demonstrate the release of carbon dioxide in chemistry experiments.

Discipline 3 (20 questions)

Question 141

Calculate the mass of the following:

0.7 mole of N2 gas (mass from mole of molecule)

  1. AOption (a)

    14 g

  2. BOption (b)

    19.6 g

  3. COption (c)

    15.6 g

  4. DOption (d)

    7 g

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

19.6 g

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • Number of moles is defined as the mass of the substance which consists of the equal quantity of basic units.
  • No of mole is given by ratio of mass of substance to the molar mass of that substance.

n=mass of substancemolar mass of that substancen=\frac{mass \ of\ substance}{molar\ mass\ of\ that\ substance}

  • where n= no. of moles

Calculation:

Atomic no. of N is 7

Atomic mass of N is 14g/mol

No.of atom of N is 2

Atomic mass of N2 is 14 x 2 = 28 g/mol.

No. of moles of N2 is 0.7​

n=mass of substancemolar mass of that substancen=\frac{mass \ of\ substance}{molar\ mass\ of\ that\ substance}

0.7=mass of substance280.7=\frac{mass \ of \ substance}{28}

mass of substance = 0.7 x 28

mass of substance = 19.6 g.

Question 142

What will be the symptom of a disease if the targeted organ is lungs?

  1. AOption (a)

    Fits or unconsciousness only

  2. BOption (b)

    Cough and breathlessness

  3. COption (c)

    Headaches only

  4. DOption (d)

    Jaundice

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Cough and breathlessness

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  Cough and breathlessness.

Explanation:

  • Cough is one of the most common symptoms of lung disease.
  • If the lungs are the target of a specific disease, the symptoms will include coughing, breathlessness (shortness of breath), and so on.
  • Thus, the signs and symptoms of a disease will be determined by the tissue or organ that the microbe targets.

Additional Information

  • If the brain is the target of a specific disease, the symptoms will include headaches, vomiting, fits or unconsciousness.
  • If the liver is the target of a specific disease, there will be jaundice.

Question 143

Atoms of carbon-12 isotopes are assigned a relative atomic mass of _______ and the relative masses of all other atoms are obtained by comparison with the mass of a carbon-12 atom.

  1. AOption (a)

    16

  2. BOption (b)

    6

  3. COption (c)

    12

  4. DOption (d)

    8

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

12

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • C-12 is chosen to be the standard unit for atomic masses of all elements.

Explanation:

  • Mass of an atom is determined relative to the mass of a carbon-12 atom as the standard.
  • This was agreed upon in 1961.
  • In this system an atom of carbon -12 was assigned a mass exactly 12 amu or dalton.
  • One amu is defined as mass exactly equal to one twelfth of the mass of one carbon-12.
  • Reason for choosing carbon 12 is that its nuclide has exactly whole number masses doubled  than its atomic no.
  • Hence its has 6 protons and 6 neutrons its nucleus, and 6 electrons in orbits.
  • Additionally ratio of proton to neutron is 1.

Question 144

What are the functions of thyroxine?

  1. Regulates carbohydrates metabolism in the body
  2. Regulates proteins and fat metabolism in the body
  1. AOption (a)

    Only 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 1

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Explanation:

  • Thyroxin regulates carbohydrate, protein, and fat metabolism in the body to achieve optimal growth balance.
  • Thyroxine hormone is secreted by the thyroid gland into the bloodstream.
  • The thyroid gland is the largest endocrine gland.
  • Thyroxine hormone is an iodinated form of the amino acid (tyrosine).
  • They are stored in the colloid that fills the follicles and released into the blood when needed.
  • It then travels to organs such as the liver and kidneys, where it is converted into its active form triiodothyronine.
  • Iodine (from the diet) is required for the synthesis of thyroxine hormone.
  • Functions of thyroxine hormone:
  • Thyroid hormone serves several functions in the body, such as
  • Thyroxine hormone maintain and regulate the Basal Metabolic Rate.
  • They contribute to the formation of red blood cells.
  • It also helps in controlling the metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins, and fats.
  • It has an impact on the maintenance of water and electrolytes in our body.

Question 145

The chemical formula of a molecular compound is determined by the ______ of each element.

  1. AOption (a)

    Valency

  2. BOption (b)

    Molar mass

  3. COption (c)

    Mass

  4. DOption (d)

    Avogadro constant

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Valency

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • The no. of electron lost, gain or shared between atoms determined its valency.
  • Molecule is formed when 2 or more atoms combine together.

Explanation:

  • Chemical formula of any compound is determined by the valency of combining atoms.
  • The atoms which combine to form compounds they either lose electron, or gain electron or may shared electron between them.
  • An atom after loosing electrons form cations whereas after gaining electrons it forms anion.
  • Hence these valencies are getting exchanged to form chemical formula.
  • For example: let us consider an element boron (B) with +3 charge and an element oxygen (O) with -2 charge.
  • The magnitude of their valencies will get cross multiply to form chemical formula
  • B+3X O-2   = B2O3.

Question 146

Clusters of atoms that act as an ion are called:

  1. AOption (a)

    Monoatomic ions

  2. BOption (b)

    Diatomic ions

  3. COption (c)

    Polyatomic ions

  4. DOption (d)

    Triatomic ions

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Polyatomic ions

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • An atom cluster is an ensemble of bound atoms or molecules that is intermediate in size between a simple molecule.

Explanations:

  • A cation or anion containing more than one atom forms polyatomic ions.
  • The combining atoms are almost comparable in size.
  • Bind together with covalent bond forming a heavy molecules.
  • Cluster formations are common in organometallic compound where a metal atoms are bonded directly with each other and surrounded by ligands.

Question 147

Which of the following statement is correct about chronic disease?

  1. AOption (a)

    Chronic diseases are always communicable.

  2. BOption (b)

    Ailments that lasts for lifetime or a long time are known as chronic disease

  3. COption (c)

    Diseases last for very short period of time are chronic disease

  4. DOption (d)

    Common cold is an example of chronic disease

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Ailments that lasts for lifetime or a long time are known as chronic disease

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ailments that lasts for lifetime or a long time are known as chronic disease.

Explanation:

  • Ailments that lasts for lifetime or a long time are known as chronic disease. Thus, statement 2 is correct.
  • Chronic diseases are Non-communicable diseases. Thus, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • When a disease's course lasts more than three months, it is referred to as chronic.
  • Chronic diseases are more common in older people and can usually be controlled but not cured.
  • Arthritis, cancer, asthma, diabetes, and viral diseases are examples of common chronic diseases.
  • If we become infected with a chronic disease, such as tuberculosis of the lungs, we will lose weight and feel tired all of the time.
  • When people with chronic diseases do not have symptoms, they frequently believe they are free of the disease. However, the absence of symptoms does not always imply the absence of chronic disease.
  • The good news is that chronic disease can be avoided or managed by engaging in regular physical activity, no smoking, eating healthily, and abstaining from excessive alcohol consumption.
  • Diseases last for very short period of time are acute diseases. Thus, statement 3 is incorrect.
  • Common cold is an example of acute disease. Thus, statement 4 is incorrect.

Question 148

Polycot is a mixture of:

  1. AOption (a)

    Polyester and silk

  2. BOption (b)

    polyester and wool

  3. COption (c)

    Polyester and cotton

  4. DOption (d)

    Polyester and nylon

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Polyester and cotton

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Polycot:

  • Polycot is a synthetic fiber that is obtained by mixing polyester which is a synthetic fiber and cotton which is a natural fiber.
  • Polycot possesses the properties of both cotton and polyester and are used to make cheap and durable clothes.
  • Polycot - Poly + Cot = Polyester + cotton.

Hence, we conclude that Polycot is obtained by mixing polyester and cotton.

Additional InformationNylon and Wool:

  • Both wool and nylon blends have advantages, depending on the type of clothing.
  • Both materials maintain their shape without stretching or shrinking, and
  • Both are moisture-wicking and dry quickly, although nylon dries faster than wool.

Polyester and Wool:

  • Polyester adds wrinkle and shrinks resistance while maintaining a good crease to the clothing.
  • Wool brings antimicrobial help along with warmth, drape, and breathability.

Nylon and Cotton:

  • Blending cotton with nylon improves strength, abrasion resistance, fast-drying property as well as wrinkle resistance of the fabrics.
  • Cotton provides the blends with high absorbency and soft hand property, thus improving comfortability.

Question 149

Which of the following was the first fully synthetic fibre?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rayon

  2. BOption (b)

    Nylon

  3. COption (c)

    Cotton

  4. DOption (d)

    Wool

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Nylon

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Fibre can be obtained from various sources.

  • Natural Fibre: Natural fibres are the fibres that are obtained from plants, animals or mineral sources. Some examples are cotton, silk, wool etc.
  • Synthetic fibres: Synthetic fibres are man-made polymers designed to make a fabric. Polymers are obtained when many small units are joined together chemically. Some examples are silk, acrylic, rayon, dacron etc.

Explanation:

​Nylon was the first 'fully synthetic' fibre that was developed in the 1930s by an American researcher, Wallace Carothers at Du Pont, a chemical firm. 

  • It was made without using any natural raw materials. It was prepared from coal, water and air.
  • Nylon is a family of linear polymers which contains amide groups in the backbone of the chain.
  • Nylon 6, Nylon 6, 6, are different nylon polymers.
  • Nylon 6, 6- It is produced by the polymerisation of hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid.
  • Nylon 6 - It is produced by the polymerisation of caprolactam.

Properties of Nylon

  • It is very strong and elastic
  • Nylon fibres have high toughness and abrasion resistance.
  • Easy to wash.

Uses

  • ​Clothing - Shirts, raincoats, swimwear.
  • For making bristles of brushes.
  • Used for making fishing nets.
  • In the automobile industry.

Additional Information

Rayon:

  • Rayon is a synthetic fibre whose properties are similar to that of silk.
  • Rayon is obtained from a natural source like wood pulp.
  • It has a very shiny appearance and hence called artificial silk.

Question 150

Which of the following is true?

  1. AOption (a)

    Latent heat of fusion is the heat energy required to change 1 kg of a liquid to gas at atmospheric pressure at its boiling point

  2. BOption (b)

    Latent heat of vaporisation is the heat energy required to change 1 kg of a solid to gas at atmospheric pressure at its boiling point

  3. COption (c)

    ​Latent heat of vaporisation is the heat energy required to change 1 kg of a liquid to gas at atmospheric pressure at its boiling point.

  4. DOption (d)

    Latent heat of vaporisation is the heat energy required to change 1 kg of a solid to liquid at atmospheric pressure at its boiling point.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

​Latent heat of vaporisation is the heat energy required to change 1 kg of a liquid to gas at atmospheric pressure at its boiling point.

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Latent heat of vaporisation:

  • The latent heat of vaporisation is the heat energy required to change 1 kg of the material in its liquid state at its boiling point to 1 kg of the material in its gaseous state.
  • It is also the amount of heat energy released when 1 kg of vapour changes into 1 kg of liquid.
  • For water at its normal boiling point or condensation temperature (100° C ), the latent heat of vaporisation (latent heat of steam)

Latent heat of fusion:

  • The latent heat of fusion is the heat energy required to change 1 kg of the material in its solid state at its melting point to 1 kg of the material in its liquid state.
  • It is also the amount of heat energy released when at melting point 1 kg of liquid changes to 1 kg of solid.
  • For water at its normal freezing temperature or melting point (0° C ), the latent heat of fusion (or latent heat of ice) is

Important Points

  • Latent heat of vaporisation  is more than the latent heat of fusion.
  • This is because when a substance gets converted from liquid to vapour, there is a large increase in volume.
  • Hence more amount of heat is required But when a solid gets converted to a liquid, then the increase in volume is negligible.
  • Hence very less amount of heat is required. So, latent heat of vaporisation is more than the latent heat of fusion.

Question 151

Leishmania is a:

  1. AOption (a)

    Bacteria

  2. BOption (b)

    Protozoa

  3. COption (c)

    Virus

  4. DOption (d)

    Fungi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Protozoa

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Protozoa.

Explanation:

  • Leishmania is the protozoa that cause kala-azar.
  • Protozoa are one-celled organisms that can be found in almost any habitat in worldwide.
  • If Kala-azar is not properly diagnosed and treated, it has a high fatality rate.
  • This parasite causes Leishmaniasis, a vector-borne disease spread by the bites of infected sandflies.
  • The organisms are oval in shape, with one long whip-like structure.
  • One organism (arrow) is dividing, while an immune system cell (lower right) has gripped the dividing organism's two whips and is sending cell processes up to consume it. The immune cell has a diameter of about ten micrometres.
  • Classification of Leishmania
  • Phylum: Protozoans
  • Order: Kinetoplastids
  • Family: Trypanosomatidae
  • Genus: Leishmania

Thus, Leishmania is a Protozoa.

Question 152

The Avogadro constant is:

  1. AOption (a)

    3.022 × 1023

  2. BOption (b)

    6.22 × 1023

  3. COption (c)

    6.022 × 1034

  4. DOption (d)

    6.022 × 1023

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

6.022 × 1023

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Avogadro's number: The number of units present in one mole of a given substance is called the Avogadro's number.

  • Avogadro's number (NA) is equal to 6.022140857 × 1023.
  • Avogadro's number is the no of atoms, elements or molecules present in 1 mole.

Additional Information

Mole: 

  • Mole is a fundamental unit of measure of the amount of a substance.
  • For atoms, the mass of Avogadro's number of particles is equal to their atomic mass in grams.
  • For molecules, the mass of Avogadro's number of particles is equal to their molecular mass in grams.

Question 153

The states of matter are inter-convertible and can be changed by changing temperature or _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Density

  2. BOption (b)

    Pressure

  3. COption (c)

    Mass

  4. DOption (d)

    Solubility

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Pressure

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • There are 3 states of matter, solid, liquid and gases respectively.
  • These states are interconvertible by change in atmospheric condition.

Explanation:

  • When there is change in temperature and pressure, the kinetic energy of molecules underwent a change.
  • When the temperature of any substance is increase the the intermolecular forces weaken and kinetic energy of that molecule increases and the molecules start moving in random motion.
  • During motion they collide with each other and exchange of energy take place.
  • Molecules moves far away from each other when their temperature is high and pressure is release.
  • When pressure increases and temperature decreases the molecules come closer to each other and intermolecular force of attraction increases.
  • Thereby decreasing their kinetic energy and the molecules move towards solidification stage.
  • Hence when temperature and pressure changes the solid ,liquid and gas phases are interconvertible.

Question 154

Mark the correct statement.

  1. AOption (a)

    Cotton is.a polymer

  2. BOption (b)

    Polymer word comes from 2 latin words

  3. COption (c)

    Polymer does not occur in nature

  4. DOption (d)

    Cellulose is made up of a large number of hydrogen units

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Cotton is.a polymer

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • Polymers are high molecular weight compound form by large no. of monomeric units link together.

Explanation:

  • Cotton is a soft, fluffy staple fiber that grows in a boll, or protective case, around the seeds of the cotton plants.
  • Chemically, cotton is a natural polymer made up of carbohydrate called cellulose.
  • Source of cellulose is plant body.
  • Many no. of cellulose combine together to form cotton.

Additional Information

  • The term "polymer" derives from the Greek word (polus, meaning "many, much") and (meros, meaning "part").
  • Polymer are natural, synthetic as well as semi synthetic.
  • Cellulose is a macromolecules made up of large no. of glucose units.

Question 155

The atomic radius decreases in moving from _______  along a period due to an increase in nuclear charge which tends to pull the electrons closer to the nucleus and reduces the size of the atom.

  1. AOption (a)

    Up to down

  2. BOption (b)

    Right to left

  3. COption (c)

    Down to up

  4. DOption (d)

    Left to right

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Left to right

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Atomic radius is defined as the distance from the center of the nucleus of the atom to its outermost shell.

  • As we move down the group, the number of shells increases in the atom, with the increase in the number of shells the atomic size increases.
  • As we move down the group the effective nuclear charge between the nucleus and the outermost shell starts decreasing due to which the atomic size increases.
  • Atomic radii of elements gradually increase in a group from top to bottom. As we go down a group, the atomic number increases, thus, the number of shells increases. Also, as we move down the group, the valence electrons are present in a higher shell, and thus, the distance of valence electrons from the nucleus increases. As a result of this, the force of attraction between the nucleus and the valence electron decreases. Therefore, the atomic radius increases on moving down a group.
  • As we move across a period from left to right, the atomic radii decrease gradually.
  • In a period, there are gradual increases in the nuclear charge from left to right. As the atomic number increases in a period, the electron enters the same shell. Thus, they are more and more strongly attracted to the nucleus. As a result of this force of attraction from the nucleus, the atomic radii gradually decreases.

Additional Information

  • Electronegativity
  • It is a measure of the tendency of an atom to attract a bonding pair of electrons.
  • The higher the electronegativity of an atom, the greater its ability to attract shared electrons.
  • The atoms of each element have an increasing number of energy levels as one goes from top to bottom in the group. The electrons in a bond are thus farther away from the nucleus and are held less tightly.
  • Hence, the value of electronegativity decreases from top to bottom in the group of the periodic table.
  • Ionisation enthalpy
  • It the amount of energy required by an isolated gaseous atom to lose an electron in its ground state.
  • The value of ionisation enthalpy decreases as moving from top to bottom in the group.
  • The atomic number increases and the number of shells also increases. As a result, the outermost electrons far away from the nucleus can be removed easily.

Question 156

According to the modern periodic table, which of the following is not a metalloid or semi-metal?

  1. AOption (a)

    Boron

  2. BOption (b)

    Arsenic

  3. COption (c)

    Silicon

  4. DOption (d)

    Sulphur

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Sulphur

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

  • Metalloids are the elements that exhibit the property of both metals as well as non-metals.
  • Their properties are intermediate between metals and non-metals.
  • Examples: Boron, Silicon, Tellurium, Polonium, Arsenic, Antimony, and Germanium.
  • Boron is a metalloid having a small atomic size.
  • It forms a covalent bond with the neighbouring elements by sharing its valence electrons with the other elements.
  • A covalent bond is a strong bond and requires high energy to break it thereby possessing a higher melting point among the metalloid.

Question 157

Which of the following statements is incorrect about alloys?

  1. AOption (a)

    They are mixtures of two or more metals

  2. BOption (b)

    They can be separated into their components by physical methods

  3. COption (c)

    An alloy is considered as a mixture because it shows the properties of its constituents

  4. DOption (d)

    They are mixtures of metal and a non-metal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

They can be separated into their components by physical methods

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • Alloy is a mixture of two or more elements.

Explanation:

  • When two or more metals or metal and non-metals combine in a specific ratio they form alloys.
  • The elements in an alloy can be separated by a chemical process and not by physical methods.
  • Alloys formation increases the mechanical strength of metals, enhanced their properties, increases their durability, makes its lightweight etc,
  • Alloys also offer resistance to corrosion when compared with their pure elements.

Additional Information

 some alloys and their uses

AlloyUses
Bronzemedals, statues, utensils
Brasshousehold utensils utility
German silverBase for silver plated tableware, resistance coils
Bell metalmaking bells

Question 158

The forces of attraction between the particles are minimum in _______

  1. AOption (a)

    Gases

  2. BOption (b)

    Liquids

  3. COption (c)

    Solids

  4. DOption (d)

    Plasmas

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Gases

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Gases have neither definite shape nor definite volume because the molecules of gas are very far apart compared with the molecules of solid or liquid.

  • Particles are far apart from each other because there are very weak forces of attraction between them.
  • They move fast in all directions. Because of this, gases don't have a definite shape or volume and fill any container.
  • Because there is lots of free space between particles, gases can easily be compressed.
  • Gases are fluid and flow easily.
  • Gases diffuse (mix and spread out) and effuse (travel through small holes).​

Additional Information

Comparative study of solid, liquid, and gas:

SOLIDLIQUIDGAS
Highly Strong intermolecular forces between the molecules.The intermolecular forces are stronger than gases but weaker than solids.The intermolecular forces are practically non-existent.
Have a definite shape to them.Do not have a definite shape.Do not have a definite shape.
The intermolecular space between solids is absent.The intermolecular space is moderate but present.The intermolecular space is free-flowing and large.
They are incompressible.Liquids cannot be compressed.Gases can be compressed.

Question 159

Which of the following is the change of solid state directly to gaseous state without going through liquid state?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sublimation

  2. BOption (b)

    Deposition

  3. COption (c)

    Evaporation

  4. DOption (d)

    Boiling

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Sublimation

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • The state of existence of matter is called its phase.
  • Matter generally exists in phases of solid, liquid and gas.
  • It is possible to change the state of matter by varying the temperature and pressure of the system.
  • The transition of one phase to the other is called phase change or phase transition.
  • The phase transition generally occurs at a particular temperature, provided the pressure is kept constant.
  • All matter can be made to undergo phase transition varying the temperatures and pressures.
  • There are six ways to enable phase transition which are:
  • Vapourisation, Freezing, Sublimation, Melting, Condensation, and Deposition.

Explanation:

Sublimation is the phase transition of a substance directly from the solid to the gas phase without passing through the intermediate liquid phase. Sublimation is an endothermic process that occurs at temperatures and pressures below a substance's triple point in its phase diagram. 

  • Dry Ice is a solid form of carbon dioxide.
  • It is known as dry ice as it does not melt into a liquid when heated instead it changes directly into a gas.
  • It is a cooling agent and is mostly used for preserving frozen foods.

Additional Information

The various phase transitions are given below:

S ↔ LL ↔ VG ↔ VS ↔ V
Here the phase transition occurs from Solid to liquid. This process is known as melting.Here, a phase transition occurs from liquid to vapour. The process is known as Vaporisation.Here, the change of phase occurs from gas to vapour. Vapour contains more than one phase such as liquid and water, so this process may involve cooling.Here, phase change occurs directly from the solid to the vapour phase without going through the intermediate liquid phase. this type of phase transition is called sublimation.
Heat is absorbed during melting.Liquid to vapour phase change occurs via absorption of heat.Release of heat may occur.Sublimation requires the absorption of heat. Common examples that can undergo sublimation are ammonium chloride and naphthalene.

Question 160

Which of the following is an example of infectious disease?

  1. Diabetes
  2. High blood pressure
  1. AOption (a)

    Neither 1 nor 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Both 1 and 2

  3. COption (c)

    Only 1

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Neither 1 nor 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2.

Concept:

  • Infectious disease:
  • Infectious diseases are easily transmitted from one infected person to the other.
  • Such diseases are due to extrinsic factors, i.e., pathogens such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, or parasites.
  • For example, HIV, tetanus, hepatitis-B.

Explanation:

Diabetes and High blood pressure is not an example of infectious disease.

  • Diabetes:
  • Diabetes is a **non-**infectious disease, which means it is not contagious.
  • It is a chronic disease that develops when the body either does not create enough insulin or does not use the insulin that it does make adequately.
  • Insulin is a hormone that regulates glucose (blood sugar) levels after a person consumes food. Diabetes, as a result, causes elevated blood sugar levels, which, if not regulated, can cause serious harm to many of the body's systems.
  • High blood pressure:
  • High blood pressure (also known as hypertension) is not an infectious disease.
  • High blood pressure occurs when your blood flows through your arteries at a higher pressure than normal.
  • Hypertension can be occurred by a variety of factors. If your blood pressure becomes too high or remains too high for an extended period of time, it might lead to health complications.
  • Uncontrolled high blood pressure increases your chances of having a stroke, heart disease, a heart attack, or kidney failure.

Discipline 4 (20 questions)

Question 161

Which of the following statements is NOT true? 

  1. The Ozone Hole is located over the equator of the earth.
  2. 2019 Ozone Hole is the smallest on record since its discovery in 1982 for the first time.

Choose the correct code.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 1

  3. COption (c)

    Neither 1 nor 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Both 1 and 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only 1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only 1.

Explanation:

  • The ozone hole isn't a physical hole in the stratosphere; rather, it's a region where ozone levels fell in the late twentieth century.
  • Chemical reactions between ozone and human-made compounds such as aerosol spray cans and refrigerants reduced the ozone layer.
  • The "ozone hole," or severe depletion of the ozone layer in Antarctica, occurs due to unique meteorological and chemical conditions seen nowhere else on the planet.
  • According to new research, the ozone hole over the South Pole has impacted the whole circulation of the Southern Hemisphere all the way to the equator. Thus, statement 1 is not true.
  • In September and October, unusual weather patterns in the upper atmosphere over Antarctica drastically reduced ozone depletion, resulting in the smallest ozone hole since 1982. Thus, statement 2 is true.
  • On September 8, the yearly ozone hole peaked at 6.3 million square miles (16. 4 million square kilometres), before shrank to less than 3.9 million square miles (10 million square kilometres) throughout the rest of September and October.
  • The ozone hole normally expands to a maximum of around 8 million square miles during years with regular weather conditions.

Question 162

Mark the incorrect statement regarding Dental caries.

  1. AOption (a)

    Masses of bacterial cells together with food particles stick to the teeth to form dental plaque

  2. BOption (b)

    Dental caries or tooth decay causes gradual softening of enamel and dentine

  3. COption (c)

    It begins when bacteria acting on sugars produce acids that softens or demineralises the enamel

  4. DOption (d)

    In this saliva reach the tooth surface and neutralise the acid

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

In this saliva reach the tooth surface and neutralise the acid

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is In this saliva reach the tooth surface and neutralise the acid.

Explanation:

  • Dental caries, often known as tooth decay, resulting in the gradual degradation of enamel and dentine.
  • Bacteria acting on sugars produce acids that weaken or demineralise the enamel.
  • Dental plaque is formed when a large number of bacterial cells and food particles sticks to the teeth.
  • Since plaque covers the teeth, saliva cannot reach the tooth surface to neutralise the acid.
  • Brushing your teeth after eating helps to remove plaque before bacteria produce acids.
  • Microorganisms may invade the pulp if left untreated, producing inflammation and infection.

Question 163

Given below Taxonomic categories showing hierarchial arrangement in ascending order.

Species → Genus → Class → Order

Which of the following is incorrectly placed in the arrangement?

  1. AOption (a)

    Genus

  2. BOption (b)

    Class

  3. COption (c)

    Order

  4. DOption (d)

    Species

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Class

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Class.

Concept:

  • Classification is not a one-step procedure. It consists of a series of steps, each of which indicates a rank or category.
  • As the category is a part of the larger taxonomic arrangement, it is referred to as a taxonomic category, and all categories together comprise the taxonomic hierarchy.

Explanation:

  • The taxonomic categories which are always used in the hierarchical classification of organisms are called common categories.
  • They are seven in number. In ascending order, these arrangements are Species, Genus, Family, Order, Class, Phylum or division (for plants), and Kingdom.
  • Species: Species is considered as the lowest or basic taxonomic category, which consists of one or more individuals of a population.
  • Genus: Genus comprises a group of related species, which have more characters in comparison to species of other genera.
  • Family: A family is a group of related genera with fewer similarities than a genus or a species.
  • Order: An order is a group of one or more related families that possess some similar correlated characters, which are lesser in number as compared to family or genera.
  • Class: Class is a major category, which includes related orders.
  • Phylum or division: It is a taxonomic category that is higher in class but lower in rank than a kingdom.
  • Animals are referred to by the term phylum, while plants are referred to by the term division.
  • Kingdom: It is known to be the highest taxonomic category. This comprises all species that share a set of distinguishing characteristics.

Taxonomic categories show a hierarchical arrangement in ascending order.

 

K.P CO Falguni ka Gana Sunaya

  • K = Kingdom
  • P = Phylum
  • C = Class
  • O = Order
  • F = family
  • G = genus
  • S = species

Question 164

A mixture of oxygen and _______ is used as anesthesia in surgical operations.

  1. AOption (a)

    Nitrous oxide

  2. BOption (b)

    Hydrogen monoxide

  3. COption (c)

    Sulphurous oxide

  4. DOption (d)

    Hydrogen

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Nitrous oxide

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Nitrous oxide.

Explanation:

  • A mixture of oxygen and Nitrous oxide is used as anaesthesia in surgical operations.
  • The insensitivity to pain produced by the introduction of gases or the injection of drugs prior to surgical procedures or operations is known as anaesthesia.
  • Nitrous oxide (N2O) is still one of the most commonly utilised anaesthetics in dental and medical applications.
  • In surgical operations, the ratio of oxygen and Nitrous oxide ​is used as anaesthesia is 2:1.
  • Nitrous oxide is frequently combined with an oxygen content of natural atmospheric air to provide anaesthesia and analgesia.
  • In maternity suites, Entonox, a 50/50 per cent of oxygen and nitrous oxide, is utilized as labour analgesia.

Question 165

Digestion functions are taken care of by the gastric glands present in the wall of the stomach. These release hydrochloric acid, a protein digesting enzyme called pepsin, and mucus. What is the function of mucus?

  1. AOption (a)

    It aids the liver in extracting juices from it

  2. BOption (b)

    It protects the inner lining of the stomach from the action of the acid under normal conditions

  3. COption (c)

    It creates an acidic medium which facilitates the action of the enzyme pepsin

  4. DOption (d)

    It increases the size of stomach while digesting food

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

It protects the inner lining of the stomach from the action of the acid under normal conditions

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is it protects the inner lining of the stomach from the action of the acid under normal conditions.

Explanation:

  • The glands of the stomach are called gastric glands.
  • These are found in the stomach mucosa.
  • Gastric glands secreted hydrochloric acid, a protein-digesting enzyme called pepsin and mucus.
  • Functions of mucus:
  • Mucus protects the inner lining of the stomach from the action of the acid under normal conditions.
  • It acts as a barrier against bile salts, stomach acid, macromolecules, and pancreatic enzymes.
  • By secreting sticky, neutralizing mucus that clings to the stomach walls, stomach protects itself from being digested by its own enzymes or burned by the corrosive hydrochloric acid.
  • If the stomach wall is damaged in any manner, it can cause painful and uncomfortable stomach ulcers.
  • If the mucus is not secreted, HCI will promote erosion of the stomach lining, resulting in ulcer formation.

Additional Information

  • Functions of hydrochloric acid and pepsin.
  • Hydrochloric acid (HCI): Hydrochloric acid helps in the breakdown, digestion, and absorption of nutrients such as protein. It also kills germs and viruses in the stomach, keeping your body safe from infection.
  • Pepsin: It helps to convert big polypeptides into smaller peptide fragments.

Question 166

What is the function of synapses?

  1. AOption (a)

    It's a juice which aids liver to digest protein

  2. BOption (b)

    It's a part of kidney which helps to remove toxic bacteria from the body

  3. COption (c)

    It's a hormone that regulates anxiety

  4. DOption (d)

    It's a junction from which nerve impulse is transmitted from one neuron to another

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

It's a junction from which nerve impulse is transmitted from one neuron to another

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is it's a junction from which nerve impulse is transmitted from one neuron to another.

Key Points 

  1. Synapse is formed by membranes of the presynaptic neuron and postsynaptic neuron which may or may not be separated by a gap called the synaptic cleft.
  2. Nerve impulses are transmitted from one neuron to another through the junction called synapses. There are two types of synapses electrical synapse and chemical  synapse
  • ELECTRICAL SYNAPSE : The membranes of free and postsynaptic neurons are in very close proximity electric current can directly from one neuron to another across these synapses Transmission of an impulse across the electrical synapse is very similar to impulse conduction along a single Axon.
  • CHEMICAL SYNAPSE:  At the chemical snaps the membranes of pre and post Synaptic neurons are separated by fluid filling space called the synaptic cleft to the postsynaptic neuron. The presynaptic neuron transmits an impulse across the synaptic cleft to the postsynaptic neuron
  • Chemicals called neurotransmitters are involved in the transmission of impulses at these synapses The Axon terminals contain vesicles filled with these neurotransmitters.

Additional Information

  • The  membrane potential can change from its resting value (-70mv )when membrane permeability changes if the inner side of the membrane is less negative it is depolarised,(-55mV) if its more negative hyperpolarised(-90mV)
  • When an impulse reaches its synaptic terminal it depolarises the terminal membrane opening voltage-gated calcium channels in the membrane
  • Calcium then diffuse into the terminal the rise in calcium concentration in the terminal causes some of the synaptic vesicles to fuse with the terminal membrane thereby releasing the neurotransmitter by exocytosis then transmitter diffuses across the synaptic cleft.
  • The postsynaptic membrane has ligand-gated ion channels binding of neurotransmitters to the receptor of channel opens the channel and allow specific ions to diffuse across the postsynaptic membrane resulting in postsynaptic potential
  • The neurotransmitter eg acetylcholine is degraded by enzyme acetylcholinesterase which resides in the synaptic cleft
  • These are graded potentials they may be excitatory or inhibitory in nature, Excitatory postsynaptic potentials depolarise the membrane, Inhibitory postsynaptic potentials hyperpolarizes the membrane.

Question 167

______ belongs to Poaceae family and Monocotyledonae class.

  1. AOption (a)

    Mango

  2. BOption (b)

    Peas

  3. COption (c)

    Oranges

  4. DOption (d)

    Wheat

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Wheat

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Wheat.

Key PointsClassification of wheat

Class: Monocotyledonae

Order: Cyperales

Family: Poaceae

Genus: Triticum

Species: Aestivum

Explanation: 

  • Triticum aestivum is the scientific name of wheat.
  • Wheat is grown all over the world for its seed. It is India's second most important staple food.
  • Wheat is a member of the Monocotyledonae class.
  • The Monocotyledonae class includes grasses and grass-like flowering plants. Because plants in this group contain just one cotyledon, they are sometimes known as monocots.
  • Wheat is a member of the Poaceae family.
  • Gramineae is another name for the Poaceae family. It is the most advanced monocot family.
  • Poaceae family contains cereal grasses, and the flowers are normally tiny, enclosed by bracts, and arranged in an inflorescence.

Question 168

Following is an ecosystem of water-body, showing the concentration of DDT in each trophic levels.

Water →  Algae → Fish → Pelican bird

1700 ppm → 500-600 ppm → 77 ppm → 0.2 ppm

Which of the following feature is incorrect if the above is to represent biomagnification?

  1. AOption (a)

    Fishes don't eat algae. Instead of fish it should be bacteria and then fish

  2. BOption (b)

    The concentration of DDT should increase as we go to higher trophic-levels

  3. COption (c)

    There are no incorrect features in the above representation

  4. DOption (d)

    Algae should not be present. It should be bacteria instead

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The concentration of DDT should increase as we go to higher trophic-levels

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the concentration of DDT should increase as we go to higher trophic-levels.

Explanation:

  • Biomagnification or biological magnification is defined as an increase in the concentration of toxicants at successive trophic levels.
  • DDT (dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane) and mercury are well known for biological magnification.
  • DDT is a pesticide that is non-degradable and so tends to enter organisms.
  • Their concentration increases with each tropical level.
  • DDT concentrations in the water begin at 0.003 ppb (parts per billion).
  • Its concentration rises by biological magnification with each tropical level, reaching up to 25 ppm (parts per million) in fish-eating birds.
  • This is due to the fact that consumers at each subsequent trophic level consume more energy than the previous level.
  • When toxic compounds enter the aquatic food chain, they get accumulated in the organism's body and cannot be excreted and metabolised, so they pass it from one trophic level to the next.
  • Thus, The concentration of DDT should increase as we go to higher trophic levels. Hence option 2 is incorrect.

Question 169

Which of the following endocrine glands are present in human body?

  1. Pineal gland
  2. Thyroid gland
  3. Thymus
  4. Pancreas
  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1 and 3 

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 2 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2, 3 and 4

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 3 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1, 2, 3 and 4

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1, 2, 3 and 4.

Explanation:

  • Endocrine glands are ductless glands, which means they lack ducts.
  • Pineal gland, Thyroid gland, Thymus, Pancreas are all endocrine glands.
  • Pineal gland: 
  • It is a small gland in the brain-derived from the embryonic ectoderm.
  • It is located on the dorsal side of the forebrain between the cerebral hemispheres.
  • It secretes a hormone called melatonin, which plays a crucial part in the management of our body's 24 hours (diurnal) rhythm. Melatonin also aids in the maintenance of proper body temperature and sleep-wake cycle.
  • Thyroid gland: 
  • The thyroid gland is the largest endocrine gland in the body.
  • It is ectodermal in origin, i.e., originates from the endoderm of the embryo.
  • In thyroid gland, follicular cells synthesise thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3) hormones.
  • These hormones regulate and maintain the Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR) i.e., both T3 and T4 hormone increases the overall metabolic rate of the body.
  • Thymus: 
  • It is a lymphoid gland that plays an important role in the development of the immune system.
  • It develops from the embryo's endoderm.
  • The thymus gland secretes a peptide hormone called thymosin, which plays a major role in the differentiation f T-lymphocytes.
  • Pancreas: 
  • It is a composite gland that acts as both endocrine and exocrine glands. Such glands are also called heterochrony glands.
  • It originates from the endoderm of the embryonic germ layer.
  • The pancreas gland secretes glucagon and insulin hormone in which insulin stimulates the conversion of glucose to glycogen in the target cells.​

Question 170

Which of the following crops is a major source of carbohydrates for energy requirement?

  1. AOption (a)

    Vegetables

  2. BOption (b)

    Rice

  3. COption (c)

    Spices

  4. DOption (d)

    Soyabean

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rice

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Rice.

Explanation:

  • Rice is a staple food for more than half of the world's population. It is the most common dietary energy source.
  • Rice accounts for 20% of the world's dietary energy source.
  • Because a considerable proportion of many crops are grown for uses other than human consumption, rice is the most important grain in terms of human nutrition and caloric intake, accounting for more than one-fifth of all calories consumed by humans.
  • Rice has a higher carbohydrate content than vegetables, spices, and soybeans.
  • Carbohydrates are the primary source of energy in the human diet and it provides immediate energy.
  • Carbohydrates are carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen-containing compounds.
  • It is quickly digested by the process of cellular respiration into simpler compounds that produce a large amount of energy.
  • Rice, Maize, and potato are some of the sources of carbohydrates.

Question 171

Glucose in cytoplasm break into pyruvate, then pyruvate in absence of oxygen is converted into _____.

  1. AOption (a)

    Ethanol, Carbon dioxide and Energy

  2. BOption (b)

    Lactic acid and water

  3. COption (c)

    Carbon dioxide, water and Energy

  4. DOption (d)

    Lactic acid and Energy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Ethanol, Carbon dioxide and Energy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ethanol, Carbon dioxide and Energy.

Explanation:

  • Glycolysis is a stepwise process by which one molecule of glucose (6C) breaks down into two molecules of pyruvic acid (3C).
  • Gustav Embden, Otto Meyerhof, and J Parnas devised the glycolysis scheme, which is commonly referred to as the EMP pathway.
  • Glycolysis takes place in the cytoplasm of a living cell.
  • In this process, glucose in the cytoplasm undergoes partial oxidation to form two molecules of pyruvic acid.
  • In the absence of oxygen, the pyruvic acid will undergo anaerobic respiration it converts into Ethanol, Carbon dioxide, and Energy.
  • Glycolysis generates two ATP molecules for every glucose molecule, providing a direct method of producing energy in the absence of oxygen. Anaerobic glycolysis refers to the process of breaking down glucose in the absence of oxygen.

                           Major pathways of anerobic respiration

Question 172

In aquatic plants, large air cavities are present in parenchyma to give buoyancy to the plants to help them float. Such a parenchyma type is called _____.

  1. AOption (a)

    Aerenchyma

  2. BOption (b)

    Windochyma

  3. COption (c)

    Floatachyma

  4. DOption (d)

    Oxychyma

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Aerenchyma

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Aerenchyma.

Concept:

Parenchyma:

  • It is a simple, living, permanent tissue made up of thin-walled cells.
  • Parenchyma is also called ground tissue or primary tissue.
  • The Parenchyma forms the major part of the plant organs.

Explanation:

  • In aquatic plants, large air cavities are present in parenchyma to give buoyancy to the plants to help them float in the water. Such a parenchyma type is called aerenchyma.
  • The tissue that enables aquatic plants to float must be large and hollow. It is also important for nature to cover the leaves of aquatic plants with wax to prevent the cell from absorbing too much water.
  • Aerenchyma is a spongy tissue found in aquatic plants with large intercellular air spaces. It provides buoyancy and allows gases to circulate.
  • An aquatic plant's aerenchyma cells form a network with a large air space or air cavities that help in gaseous exchange.
  • These air cavities in aquatic plants allow the plant to be light and buoyant, allowing it to float easily in water.
  • The presence of large air-filled cavities gives a low-resistance internal pathway to the aquatic plants that enable gas exchange between plant organs above water and submerged tissues.

Question 173

Touch-me-not is a plant of _____ family.

  1. AOption (a)

    Mimosa

  2. BOption (b)

    Cruciferae

  3. COption (c)

    Liliaceae

  4. DOption (d)

    Malvaceae

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Mimosa

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mimosa.

Explanation:

  • It is a herbal plant from the Mimosa family (pea family).
  • Touch-me-not plant is known by various names, like Mimosa pudica, shy plant, sensitive plant, sleepy plant, humble plant, etc.
  • The characteristic of this plant is its leaves, which fold or shrink inwards on touch something like a defence mechanism, like defending themselves from some harm, and then they reopen after a few minutes.
  • They also produce flowers that are pale pink or purple in colour.
  • Another feature of the root of this plant is carbon disulfide, which is antifungal and protects the plants.
  • The mechanism of leaf closure on touch or at night is known as seisomonastic movement or nyctinastic movement, which is caused due to an action potential.
  • On touch, which causes the movement of potassium ions to flow out of the cells and lose their turgor and collapse.
  • The infection is expensive for the plant because it spends a lot of energy on this and it also interferes with photosynthesis by the plant because the leaves are closed.

Key Points

Mimosa pudica has the following binomial scientific classification: 

  • Kingdom: Plantae
  • Order: Fabales
  • Family: Fabaceae
  • Subfamily: Mimosoideae (Mimosa)
  • Genus: Mimosa
  • Species: pudica

Question 174

Which of the following is a small blind pouch at the junction of small and large intestine?

  1. AOption (a)

    Duodenum

  2. BOption (b)

    Jejunum

  3. COption (c)

    Caecum

  4. DOption (d)

    Ileum

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Caecum

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the caecum

Key Points

  1. The caecum is a small blind sac that hosts some symbiotic microorganisms
  2. it is found in the lower abdominal cavity that receives undigested food material from the small intestine and it is the first region of the large intestine it is separated from the ileum by the ileocecal wall this limits the food passage into the caecum and may prevent material from returning to the small intestine.
  3. Functions:
  4. The main functions of the caecum are to absorb fluid and salts that remain after completion of digestion and absorption and mix its contents with lubricating​substance mucus. Intestinal bacteria decompose the undigested food molecules. This action yields certain B vitamins and vitamin K.

Additional InformationAnatomy of the caecum

  1. The inner wall of the caecum is composed of a thick mucous membrane through which water and salts are absorbed, beneath this layer of muscle tissue that produces churning and needing motions is found
  2. Variations in cecum size and structure after among animals in small herbivores such as rabbits for example the caecum is enlarged and  contains bacteria that aid in the digestion of plant material  facilitate nutrient absorption
  3. Carnivores have smaller caecum than herbivores
  4. The cecum number may also vary in number certain insectivores and amphibians lack caecum.
  5. The appendix is a small hollow fingerlike pouch thanks at the end of the caecum.

Question 175

Which of the following is not contained by forebrain?

  1. AOption (a)

    Medulla

  2. BOption (b)

    Thalamus

  3. COption (c)

    Cerebrum

  4. DOption (d)

    Hypothalamus

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Medulla

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Medulla.

Concept:

  • Medulla:
  • Medulla is part of the Hindbrain.
  • Medulla is connected to the spinal cord and contains centres, which control respiratory rhythm, gastric secretions, cardiovascular reflexes and the postural gestures of the body.

Explanation:

  • The brain is our body's central information processing organ, acting as the 'command and control system' for all bodily functions.
  • The human brain s divisible into three main parts:
  • Forebrain, Midbrain, and Hindbrain
  • Forebrain: The telencephalon, which contains the cerebral hemisphere (Cerebrum), and the diencephalon, which contains the thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus, and subthalamus, comprise the forebrain.
  • Cerebrum: It is the most complex and largest part of the human brain.
  • The cerebrum is divided longitudinally into two equal halves by a deep cleft. These are referred to as the left and right cerebral hemispheres, respectively.
  • Its functions include memory, intelligence, learning, speech, and so on.
  • Thalamus: The cerebrum is surrounded by a structure known as the thalamus.
  • It controls memory and emotional functions.
  • Hypothalamus: It is located at the thalamus base.
  • It is made up of neurosecretory cells that secrete hypothalamic hormones.

Thus, Medulla is not contained by forebrain.

Question 176

Which of the following belongs to genus Felis?

  1. AOption (a)

    Cat

  2. BOption (b)

    Lion

  3. COption (c)

    Leopard

  4. DOption (d)

    Tiger

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Cat

Why this answer is correct

Explanation-

  • Taxonomic studies consider a group of individual organisms with fundamental similarities as a species.
  • One should be able to distinguish one species from the other closely related species based on distinct morphological differences.
  • Genus comprises a group of related species which has more characters in common in comparison to species of other genera.
  • We can say that genera are aggregates of closely related species.
  • For example, potato and brinjal are two different species, but both belong to the genus Solanum.
  • Lion (Panthera leo), leopard (P. pardus) and tiger (P. tigris) with several common features are all species of the genus Panthera.
  • This genus differs from another genus Felis, which includes cats.
  • The scientific name of a Cat is Felis domestica.
  • ​Another species is Felis catus
  • It is the only species belonging to the Felidae family that is domesticated.

Additional Information

AnimalScientific NameFamilyClassKingdomLife Span
CatFelis domestica/Felis catusFelidaeMammaliaAnimalia2-16 years
LionPanthera leoFelidaeMammaliaAnimalia10-14 years
TigerPanthera tigrisFelidaeMammaliaAnimalia16-18 years
HorseEquus caballusEquidaeMammaliaAnimalia25-30 years

Question 177

Which part of the peripheral nervous system comprises the whole complex of nerves, fibres, a ganglia, and plexuses?

  1. AOption (a)

    Central neural system

  2. BOption (b)

    Parasympathetic neural system

  3. COption (c)

    Visceral nervous system

  4. DOption (d)

    Sympathetic neural system

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Visceral nervous system

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the visceral nervous system

Key Points

  1. The visceral nervous system is a part of the peripheral nervous system
  2. The peripheral nervous system comprises all nerves of the body associated with the central nervous system
  3. The functional division of the peripheral nervous system our system is divided into two divisions called the somatic nervous system and autonomous nervous system
  4. Somatic sensory neuron Convey perceived special senses and somatic senses somatic motor neurons innervate skeletal muscles which produce voluntary movements
  5. The autonomic nervous system is also known as the efferent or motor visceral nervous system it controls the autonomic functions of the body such as respiration digestion light to fight response reflexes reflex action.
  6. Operates without conscious control originally named as automatic because it was thought to be self-governing without control by the central nervous system, centres in the central nervous system like the hypothalamus regulate autonomic reflex
  7. It relays information from the central nervous system to involuntary organs and smooth muscles it controls the function of visceral organs such as cardiac muscles smooth muscle etc

Additional Information

  1. the autonomic nervous system is of two types sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system
  2. The sympathetic nervous system is associated with flight or flight responses this is characterised by the release of large quantities of epinephrine from the adrenal gland an increase in heart rate an increase in cardiac output skeletal muscle dilation cutaneous and gastrointestinal contraction pupillary dilation bronchial dilation piloerection occurs.
  3. parasympathetic nervous system predominates in quiet rest and digest conditions the main purpose of the parasympathetic nervous system is to conserve energy to be used later and regulate bodily activities like digestion and urination.

Question 178

How many phases of growth are there in the Sigmoid Growth Curve of a plant or plant-part?

  1. AOption (a)

    2

  2. BOption (b)

    4

  3. COption (c)

    5

  4. DOption (d)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 3.

Explanation:

  • The increase in growth per unit time is referred to as the plant growth rate.
  • When we plot the increase in cell number (growth rate) against time, we get a typical S-shaped curve.
  • This curve is known as the growth curve or sigmoid growth curve due to the sigmoid shape of the curve obtained.

The sigmoid growth curve has three phases of growth:

  1. Lag phase: (initial or the beginning phase) It is mainly characterized by very slow growth.
  2. Log phase: (Exponential phase) It is the middle phase of the system and is characterized by very fast and rapid growth of the plant body.
  • After initiation of growth, it increases rapidly at an exponential rate.
  1. Stationary phase: (Steady phase) This phase occurs when the plant reaches maturity or the nutrient supply becomes limited.
  • This curve shows a characteristic feature of living organisms growing in a natural environment.
  • This curve is typical for all cells, tissues, and organs of a plant.

Question 179

Which plant tissue has the thinnest walls?

  1. AOption (a)

    Meristematic

  2. BOption (b)

    Sclerenchyma

  3. COption (c)

    Parenchyma

  4. DOption (d)

    Collenchyma

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Parenchyma

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is parenchyma

Key Points

  1. Permanent tissue  consisting of only one type of cells are called simple tissues parenchyma s a simple tissue
  2. It is most abundantly present in the primary plant body, all other tissues are formed from this tissue and called fundamental tissue,it forms the ground to other tissues and various organs and is called ground tissue.
  3. Cells of parenchyma are  of various shapes and sizes which is dependent on the function it carries out they may be spherical, oval, polyhedral isodiametric
  4. The cell wall is thin with a uniform diameter it has a primary wall consisting of cellulose and pectin
  5. Protoplast has a prominent central vacuole that pushes the cytoplasm as a thin layer towards the periphery such cytoplasm structure with the nucleus at the periphery is called primordial utricle with single nucleus plastics and other typical eukaryotic cells

 Additional Information

          Types of parenchyma

  1. Chlorenchyma is green parenchymatous tissues with chloroplast and involved in photosynthesis
  2. Location it is present in leaves cortex of younger stems and branches of stems  cortex of photosynthetic root, the pericarp of unripe fruits chlorenchyma off leaves is called as mesophyll it is differentiated into either palace side with cylindrical cells or spongy with irregularly shaped cells
  3. Aerenchyma It is parenchyma  with large intracellular spaces which helps as  aerating or ventilating tissue or exchange of gases during respiration and also helps in buoyancy in hydrophytes
  4. Storage parenchyma Parenchyma of fruit seeds tubers leaf basis of onions etc parenchymatous cells secretes a hydrophilic miscellaneous substance which holds the huge amount of water In some plants, the parenchyma stores a variety of ergastic substances like tannins resin inorganic crystals gums etc parenchymal cells that stores oils tannins and crystals are called idioblastic parenchymal cells.
  5. Epidermal parenchyma provides protection to the plant from wind water light temperature inversion of microbes in aerial parts.
  6. Turgid parenchymal cells provide mechanical support to herbaceous plants.
  7. Sclerefied parenchyma these are elongated rectangular cells with thickened secondary walls
  8. Functions
  • Parenchymal cells help in wound healing by gaining meristematic activity
  • Involved in the formation of cork cambium and interfascicular cambium during secondary growth
  • Parenchymal myrosin cells store enzyme myrosin  parenchymal cells also help in the conduction.

Question 180

Which of the following do not need oxygen?

  1. AOption (a)

    Plants’ respiration

  2. BOption (b)

    Combustion

  3. COption (c)

    Aerobic metabolism

  4. DOption (d)

    Nitrogen fixation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Nitrogen fixation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  Nitrogen fixation.

Explanation:

Nitrogen fixation:

  • Nitrogen fixation is a process in which molecular nitrogen is converted into inorganic nitrogenous compounds like nitrate, nitrite, and ammonia.
  • Bacterial conversion of Nitrogen (N2) to ammonia (NH3) is an energy-intensive process that is extremely sensitive to oxygen (O2).
  • The presence of oxygen irreversibly denatures both proteins that comprise nitrogenase.
  • All nitrogenase-supporting systems have evolved mechanisms for creating a low oxygen environment at the site of Nitrogen fixation.
  • Organisms remove oxygen gas via various metabolic pathways.
  • Thus, Nitrogen fixation do not need oxygen.

Additional Information

  • Plants’ respiration:
  • It is the process of oxidation within cells that breaks the C-C bonds of complex compounds.
  • During the process of respiration, utilisation of oxygen (O2) takes place with the release of carbon dioxide (CO2), water, and energy as products.
  • Combustion:
  • Oxygen is required for carbon combustion. Carbon combustion stops when there is no more oxygen available.
  • Aerobic metabolism:
  • This is the type of respiration in which organism utilise oxygen for the complete oxidation of organic food into CO2, water, and energy
  • Aerobic metabolism occurs in the presence of oxygen.

Discipline 5 (10 questions)

Question 181

Which of the following is an example of indigenous variety of poultry?

  1. Aseel
  2. Leghorn

Choose the correct code.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 2

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only 1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  Only 1.

Explanation:

  • Indigenous variety of poultry includes Aseel, Busra, Ghagus and Chittagong.
  • The domestic fowls (birds) used for food or for their eggs are called poultry.
  • These fishes are small and do not lay many eggs, but they have a natural immunity to common diseases.
  • Aseel can be found in various parts of India and Pakistan.
  • It is primarily used for meat.
  • Aseels are typically found in shelters that are elevated above the road and away from noise pollution.
  • Popular Aseel varieties include Java, Reza, Chitta, Teekar, Yarkin, Kagar, and Nurie.

Additional InformationLeghorns are rare breeds of poultry. It has the ability to lay more than 200 eggs per year.

Question 182

Green Revolution began in India in

  1. AOption (a)

    1975

  2. BOption (b)

    1982

  3. COption (c)

    1968

  4. DOption (d)

    1957

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1968

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1968

Key Points Green Revolution in India: 

  • The term green revolution was first used by William Gaud and Norman Borlaug is the Father of the Green Revolution.
  • After Independence, Indian policy-makers adopted all measures to achieve self-sufficiency in food grains.
  • In the year 1965, the government of India launched the Green Revolution with the help of a geneticist, now known as the father of the Green revolution (India) M.S. Swaminathan.
  • The movement of the green revolution was a great success and changed the country’s status from a food-deficient economy to one of the world’s leading agricultural nations.
  • It started in 1967 and lasted till 1978.
  • India adopted a new strategy in agriculture, which resulted in the 'Green Revolution', especially in the production of wheat and rice.
  • Indira Gandhi, the then Prime Minister of India, officially recorded the impressive strides of the Green Revolution in agriculture by releasing a special stamp entitled 'Wheat Revolution' in July 1968.
  • The success of wheat was later replicated in rice.

Thus, to signify the achievements of the Green Revolution, a stamp was released by the then Prime Minister Mrs. Indira Gandhi entitled as ‘Wheat Revolution’ in July 1968.

Additional Information

Yellow Revolution:

  • The Yellow Revolution is concerned with Oilseeds production.
  • This revolution means the cultivation of mustard as a part of crop rotation.
  • The Father of the Yellow Revolution is Sam Pit Roda.
  • It was also called People Power Revolution.
  • It was first launched in 1986-87 in India.
  • To popularize the four major oilseeds- groundnut, mustard, soyabean, and sunflower.

Question 183

What is the lowest intensity of sound that a human ear can hear ?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 dB

  2. BOption (b)

    10 dB

  3. COption (c)

    15 dB

  4. DOption (d)

    5 dB

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

10 dB

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

The sound is all around us and can be measured to protect and inform us, as some sounds are not safe. In fact, loud noise can actually damage our hearing. So, the intensity of a sound is measured using decibels.

  • As the human ear is incredibly sensitive, you can hear everything from your fingertip brushing lightly over your skin to a loud thunderclap. As far as power is concerned, the sound of the thunderclap is approximately 1,000,000,000,000 times more powerful than the smallest audible sound.
  • Decibel is the unit of sound. Its symbol is dB.
  • On the decibel scale, 0 dB is the smallest audible sound.
  • Humans can hear from 10 dB - 120 dB.
  • A sound 10 times more powerful is 10 dB.
  • A sound 100 times more powerful than near total silence is 20 dB.
  • A sound 1,000 times more powerful than near total silence is 30 dB.

Important Points

  • The audible range of sound for human beings extends from about 20 Hz to 20000 Hz (one Hz = one cycle/s). Children under the age of five and some animals, such as dogs can hear up to 25 kHz (1 kHz = 1000 Hz).

Question 184

If we start heating the water from 0°C, then till what temperature does it contract?

  1. AOption (a)

    3°C

  2. BOption (b)

    5°C

  3. COption (c)

    2°C

  4. DOption (d)

    4°C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

4°C

Why this answer is correct

Concept: 

  • When water boils at a certain temperature it turns into steam. When it is cooled to a certain temperature it freezes and becomes ice.

  • Water boils at 100°C and freezes at 0°C.

  • Water exhibits an anomalous behaviour; it contracts on heating between 0°C and 4°C.

  • The volume of a given amount of water decreases as it is cooled from room temperature until its temperature reaches 4°C. Below 4 °C, the volume increases, and therefore the density decreases.

  • This means that water has a maximum density at 4°C.

Explanation:

  • As explained above due to anomalous behaviour of water when water is heated from 0° C to 10° C, then its volume first decreases and then increases although mass remains constant.

  • This can be represented as below

  • Hence water will contract upto 4°C.

Question 185

Apis mellifera is bee that has been brought to India from _____.

  1. AOption (a)

    France

  2. BOption (b)

    Italy

  3. COption (c)

    Russia

  4. DOption (d)

    UK

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Italy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Italy.

Key Points

  • Apis mellifera is bee that has been brought to India from Italy.
  • An Italian bee variety, Apis Mellifera, has also been brought in to increase yield of honey.
  • This is the variety commonly used for commercial honey production.
  • The Italian bees have high honey collection capacity.
  • Apis Mellifera is responsible for 75 percent of India's honey production.
  • Apis Mellifera can stay in a beehive for long periods and breed well.
  • Bee farms or apiaries are established for commercial honey production.
  • Apis Mellifera stings less.

Question 186

Which of the following can NOT be used as a plant growth regulator?

  1. AOption (a)

    Auxin

  2. BOption (b)

    Peroxyacetyl nitrate

  3. COption (c)

    Gibberellins

  4. DOption (d)

    Cytokinin

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Peroxyacetyl nitrate

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Peroxyacetyl nitrate.

Explanation:

  • Peroxyacetyl nitrate are a phytotoxic air pollutant produced by the reaction of nitrogen oxides and hydrocarbons in the presence of light.
  • This pollutant can inhibit plant growth in both closed ecosystems and in the field.

Key Points

  • Plant growth regulators are also known as Plant growth substances, phytohormones, and plant hormones.
  • These are the small, simple organic molecules of the diverse chemical composition produced naturally in higher plants that control the growth and other physiological functions.
  • These are required in a very small amount by the plant.
  • Five main natural plant growth regulators are auxins, gibberllins, cytokinin, ethylene, and Abscisic acid (ABA).
  • Auxin: It controls cell division and xylem differentiation.
  • Gibberellin: It helps in elongation of the internodes so as to increase the height of the plant.
  • Cytokinin: It helps in the growth of lateral buds and overcome apical dominance.
  • Abscisic acid: It gives signal for closure of stomata in plants to prevent water loss during water stress.
  • Ethylene: It is highly effective in fruit ripening.

Question 187

Which of the following is a micronutrient for plants?

  1. AOption (a)

    Nitrogen

  2. BOption (b)

    Phosphorus

  3. COption (c)

    Iron

  4. DOption (d)

    Magnesium

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Iron

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Iron.

Explanation:

  • The inorganic substances or minerals that provide nourishment to the living organisms or work as a raw material for body building and maintaining its normal function are termed as mineral nutrition.
  • All the essential elements are known to be found in different proportions in plants.

The elements are grouped into two major categories depending upon their quantitative requirements:

Micronutrients: The elements that are generally found in traces or very small amount are called micronutrients. The list of micronutrients includes iron, boron, chlorine, copper, manganese, molybdenum, zinc, and nickel.

  • Iron:
  • Plants require a large amount of it in comparison to other micronutrients.
  • It is essential in reactions involving energy conversion in both photosynthesis and respiration.
  • It also helps in the formation of chlorophyll, chloroplasts, and other pigments.

Macronutrients: The elements that are generally found in plant tissues in large or excess amounts are called macronutrients. The list of macronutrients includes nitrogen, phosphorous, potassium, calcium, magnesium, sulphur.

Question 188

How many macro-nutrients are essential for plants?

  1. AOption (a)

    6

  2. BOption (b)

    4

  3. COption (c)

    5

  4. DOption (d)

    7

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

6

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 6.

Concept:

  • The inorganic substances or minerals that provide nourishment to the living organisms or work as a raw material for body-building and maintaining its normal function are termed as mineral nutrition.
  • All the essential elements are known to be found in different proportions in plants.
  • The elements are grouped into two major categories depending upon their quantitative requirements:
  • Macronutrients:
  • The elements that are generally found in plant tissues in large or excess amounts are called macronutrients.
  • These elements are generally involved in the synthesis of organic molecules and development of osmotic potential.
  • Micronutrients:
  • The elements that are generally found in traces or very small amounts are called micronutrients.
  • The list of micronutrients includes iron, boron, chlorine, copper, manganese, molybdenum, zinc, and nickel.

Explanation:

The list of macronutrients includes nitrogen, phosphorous, potassium, calcium, magnesium, sulphur.

  • Nitrogen (N):
  • It is the major constituent of amino acids, proteins, nucleic acids, hormones, vitamins, etc.
  • It was the first macronutrient to be discovered and is required in very large amounts by plants.
  • Phosphorous (P):
  • Most soils are phosphorous deficient.
  • It is present in plants in both organic and inorganic forms.
  • Plants do not absorb the organic form of phosphorous as such, instead, taken either from the soil or the solution phase of soil.
  • Potassium (K):
  • It does not act as a constituent of any organic substance, so potassium (K+) is available to plants in its inorganic form such as potassium sulfate, potassium nitrate, etc.
  • It also acts as one of the major constituents of protoplasm.
  • Calcium (Ca):
  • It is an element that is always found in green plants and is absorbed by them in the form of calcium ions (Ca2+) from the soil.
  • Magnesium (Mg):
  • It acts as a major constituent in the formation of the ring structure of chlorophyll without which the formation of chlorophyll is not possible.
  • Magnesium is an element absorbed by plants in the form of divalent magnesium ions (Mg2+) from the soil.
  • Sulphur (S):
  • It is usually found in the complex proteins of plants.
  • The major abundant reservoir of Sulphur and soil is in the organic form such as lipids, amino acids, proteins, etc.
  • It is absorbed by the plants in the form of sulphate ions (SO42-) from a mineral fraction of soil.

Question 189

Which of the following fishes feed on the weeds?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mrigals

  2. BOption (b)

    Rohus

  3. COption (c)

    Catlas

  4. DOption (d)

    Grass Carps

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Grass Carps

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  Grass Carps.

Explanation:

  • Grass Carps feed on the weeds.
  • The grass carp is a large species of herbivorous freshwater fish.
  • Grass Carps eat weeds and can consume all of the food in the pond without competition from other species.
  • This increases the pond's fish yield.

Additional Information

  • Catlas are surface feeders.
  • Rohus feed in the middle-zone of the pond.
  • Mrigals are bottom feeders.

Question 190

Which of the following should be a parameter for inter-cropping practices?

  1. AOption (a)

    Their maturity-duration should be different

  2. BOption (b)

    Their species should be similar

  3. COption (c)

    Their nutrient requirements should be different

  4. DOption (d)

    They should grow in different climates

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Their nutrient requirements should be different

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is their nutrient requirements should be different.

Explanation:

  • Inter-cropping is the multi cropping practice of growing two or more crops in a specific pattern on the same field at the same time.
  • A few rows of one crop alternate with a few rows of another (second) crop, such as bajra (finger millet) + lobia (cowpea) and soyabean + maize.
  • In intercropping practises, crops are chosen so such that their nutrient requirements are different.
  • This ensures that the nutrients supplied are used to their full potential while also preventing pests and diseases from spreading to all of the plants in a field belonging to a single crop.
  • Therefore, Both crops have the potential to provide higher returns.

Thus, Their nutrient requirements should be different as a parameter for inter-cropping practices.

Additional Information

  • Cropping Pattern refers to a yearly sequence and spatial arrangement of crops and fallows in a given area.
  • Broadly there are 3 types of cropping systems in India:
  • Sequential Cropping – In sequential multiple cropping, farmers use short-duration crops and intensive input management practices.
  • Inter-Cropping – Growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same field is called intercropping. In this case, crop intensification is in both temporal and spatial dimensions.
  • Alley Cropping System – Growing annual crops with multipurpose perennial shrubs/trees is called alley cropping.

Teaching Methodology (10 questions)

Question 191

Which of the following can be one of the sources and forms of gender discrimination?

  1. Textbooks
  2. Laws and rules

Choose the correct code.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 2

  3. COption (c)

    Neither 1 nor 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Both 1 and 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

Gender discrimination is discrimination based on gender which more often affects girls and women.

 Key Points

Gender discrimination can be direct and indirect.

  • Direct discrimination occurs when gender is used as an explicit reason for discriminating.
  • Indirect discrimination occurs when there are provisions and practices which put girls and women at disadvantage.
  • Source and forms of gender discrimination:
  • Family and parents
  • Textbooks, curriculum, and teachers
  • Government policies
  • Educational opportunities
  • Laws and rules (different laws for both males and females)
  • Property resources
  • Division of labor inside the house
  • Appointment, promotion, placements

Hence, we can conclude that  Textbooks, laws, and rules both are sources and forms of gender discrimination.

Question 192

Which of the following doesn't belong to the Projective Techniques of methods of assessing personality?

  1. AOption (a)

    BG Test

  2. BOption (b)

    Graphology

  3. COption (c)

    Aptitude Test

  4. DOption (d)

    Children Apperception Test

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Aptitude Test

Why this answer is correct

Assessment of personality refers to the measurement of the personal characteristics of an individual. Assessment is an end result of gathering information.

Key Points

Projective technique:

  • A Projective test is a personality test designed to yield information about someone's personality on the basis of their unrestricted response to ambiguous objects or situations.
  • Projective techniques are a set of instruments whose main objective is to describe and characterized personality.
  • There are three methods of assessing personality:
  • Standardized Test/ Objective test
  • Non-Standardized Test/ Subjective test
  • Projective methods

​Some examples of Standardized tests, Non-standardized test,s and projective tests:​​

Standardized TestNon-Standardized TestProjective Test of Personality
Achievement testAnecdotal recordsBG test
Aptitude testAutobiographyGraphology
Intelligence testCase studyChildren Apperception test
Interest testInterviewMosaic test
Personal inventoriesScore CardClay modeling

Hence, we can conclude that the aptitude Test doesn't belong to the Projective Techniques of methods of assessing personality.

Question 193

Which of the following should be the criteria for selection of resources for teaching?

  1. Usefulness
  2. Clarity
  3. Simplicity

Use the correct code.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1 and 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 1 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    Only 2 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1, 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

Teaching resources are tools, which are used by teachers to help learners learn concepts with ease and efficiency. Teaching resources provide a range of learning experiences to learners from direct to indirect.

Key Points

  • Teaching resources are used to enhance the learning of students in the classroom.
  • A teacher uses it to make teaching-learning effective.
  • Teaching resources also help learners achieve learning outcomes after classroom teaching and learning.
  • Here are some criteria for the selection of resources for teaching:
  • Usefulness
  • Motivate learners
  • Help in retention of information
  • Clarity
  • Facilitate holistic learning
  • Help in organizing classroom
  • Simplicity
  • Facilitate change in attitude
  • Practical applications
  • Making learning fun
  • Concept formation
  • Curriculum appropriate
  • Balance student interest and other factors
  • Student appropriate

Hence, we can conclude that usefulness, clarity, and simplicity all should be the criteria for the selection of resources for teaching.

Question 194

In which of the following academic sessions was the system of alternate courses was discontinued?

  1. AOption (a)

    1972-73

  2. BOption (b)

    1984-85

  3. COption (c)

    1975-76

  4. DOption (d)

    1989-90

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1984-85

Why this answer is correct

Alternative education is a different formal education system. It is more directed towards the needs of students. It is based to a large extent on the individual learner's interests and needs.

Key Points

  • Alternative courses offer educational opportunities to aspirants who have discontinued their education at some stage due to certain reasons.
  • The alternative course is all about the educational needs of large numbers, access to all beyond boundaries, and a wide choice of courses of study.
  • In 1984-85 the system of alternate courses was discontinued.

​Hence, we can conclude that in 1984-85 academic sessions the system of alternate courses was discontinued.

Question 195

Which of the following teaching methods assume that the whole group can give more ideas than a person?

  1. AOption (a)

    Brain storming

  2. BOption (b)

    Discovery method

  3. COption (c)

    Home assignment method

  4. DOption (d)

    Project method

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Brain storming

Why this answer is correct

A teaching method is a set of techniques logically coordinated to direct the student towards certain goals or objectives.

Key Points

Brain Storming:

  • Brain Storming is a technique that involves generating s list of ideas in a creative and unstructured manner.
  • The goal of Brainstorming is to generate as many ideas as possible in a short period of time.
  • Brainstorming was founded by Alex F. Osborn as a brilliant counterattack on negative conference thinking.
  • This method assumes that the whole group can give more ideas than a person.
  • The purpose of brainstorming is to accumulate alternatives for any problem.

Additional Information

  • Discovery method: Discovery method is also known as the Heuristic method. The heuristic method is a method of teaching which involves our placing of children as for as possible in the attitude of discovery.
  • Home assignment method: The home assignment method is a technique that comprises guided information, self-learning, writing skills, and report preparation among the learners.
  • Project method: According to William Head Kilpatrick a project is a whole-hearted purposeful activity proceeding in a social environment.

Hence, we can conclude that Brainstorming assumes that the whole group can give more ideas than a person.

Question 196

Which of the following is not a function of a teacher?

  1. Evaluating the achievement of pupils.
  2. Preparation of progress reports.

Choose the correct code.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1

  2. BOption (b)

    Both 1 and 2

  3. COption (c)

    Only 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Why this answer is correct

Teachers play an important role in student's life. A teacher is a person who inspires, motivates, and opens up minds to the endless possibilities which one can achieve.

Key PointsFunction of a teacher:

  • Evaluating the achievement of pupils.
  • Analyzing the content.
  • Setting up a class
  • Assigning homework
  • Identification and assessment
  • Preparation of progress-reports
  • Facilitator of learning
  • Motivator of students
  • Works as mediator
  • A role model for students

Hence, we can conclude that evaluating the achievement of pupils and preparing of progress-reports both are the functions of the teacher.

Question 197

Which of the following sections of the Right to Education Act, 2009 provides for the duties of teachers and redressal of grievances?

  1. AOption (a)

    20

  2. BOption (b)

    22

  3. COption (c)

    24

  4. DOption (d)

    18

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

24

Why this answer is correct

Right to education act 2009- The state shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the state may by law determine.

Key Points

Section 24 of the right to education act 2009 provides for the duties of teachers and redressal of grievances.

  • Some functions of a teacher under section 24:
  • Maintain regularity and punctuality in attending school.
  • Complete the entire curriculum within the specified time.
  • Access the learning ability of each child and accordingly supplement additional instructions, if required.
  • Hold regular meetings with parents and guardians.

Hence, we can conclude that section 24 of the right to education act 2009 provides for the duties of teachers and redressal of grievances.

Additional Information

  • Section 20: Power to amend the schedule.
  • Section 22: School development plan.
  • Section 18: No school to be established without obtaining a certificate of recognition.

Question 198

Which of the following sections of the Right to Education Act, 2009 provides for the monitoring of a child's right to education?

  1. AOption (a)

    34

  2. BOption (b)

    31

  3. COption (c)

    33

  4. DOption (d)

    32

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

31

Why this answer is correct

Right to education act 2009- The state shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the state may by law determine.

Key Points

  • Section 31 of the Right to education 2009 provides for the monitoring of a child's right to education.
  • The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) was set up in march 2007.
  • Under the Right to Education Act, the role of NCCR is:
  • ​Monitoring of child's right to education.
  • Inquire to complaints relating to child's free and compulsory education.
  • Advice the education agencies and other partners in implementing educational programs on matters relating to children in need of special care and protection.
  • Recommend measures and norms to be implemented by schools such as prohibiting discrimination, prohibiting physical punishment, and mental harassment of any child in school.

Hence, we can conclude that section 31 of the Right to education 2009 provides for the monitoring of a child's right to education.

Additional Information

  • Section 34: Constitution of state advisory council.
  • Section 33: Constitution of the national advisory council.
  • Section 32: Redressal of grievances.

Question 199

Which of the following age range is known as early childhood?

  1. AOption (a)

    2-6 years

  2. BOption (b)

    3-7 years

  3. COption (c)

    4-8 years

  4. DOption (d)

    1-6 years

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

2-6 years

Why this answer is correct

Human development can be defined as the change of shape size and mental development. The development and growth of human being is divided in different stages.

Key PointsEarly Childhood:

  • The time period of this stage is 2-6 years.
  • The growth of the head is slow and the growth of the trunk is intermediate.
  • The child begins to form concepts of physical and social reality.
  • By the age of six, the child develops the perception of size, shape, color and distance, etc
  • The memory increases at a very rapid speed.
  • Creativity develops in children and imagination begins to grow.
  • Thinking and reasoning develop in relation to concrete material.
  • The social environment expands beyond the home.
  • Children take interest in fairy tales and animal stories.
  • Emotions are frequent.
  • Emotional expressions in early childhood are intense irrespective of the intensity of the stimulus.

Hence, we can conclude that the age range of early childhood is 2-6 years.

Additional Information

  • Infancy (Birth to 2 years)
  • Early childhood (2 to 6 years)
  • Later childhood (6 to 12 years)
  • Adolescence (12 to 19 years)

Question 200

Who out of the following is not one of the chief exponents of the trait theory of personality?

  1. AOption (a)

    H.J. Eysenck

  2. BOption (b)

    R.K. Pritchett

  3. COption (c)

    G.W. Allport

  4. DOption (d)

    R.B. Cattell

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

R.K. Pritchett

Why this answer is correct

According to Eysenck " Personality is the more or less stable and enduring organization of a person's character, temperament, intellect and physique that determine his unique adjustment to his environment."

Key Points

Trait theory of personality:

  • G.W. Allport, R.B. Cattell, and H.J. Eysenck are the chief exponents of the trait theory of personality.
  • A trait is a dimension of personality that can be measured and must describe the consistent behavior of an individual.
  • A trait as a dimension is conceived quantitatively as a continuous scale of measurement from extensive positive end to the extreme negative end.
  • According to the trait theory, if we confine ourselves to a few basic characteristics which are consistent and distinctive of a human personality the problem of describing it should become simpler.
  • Theorists often distinguish between the traits which are readily observed and those which are deeper and nearer to the core personality.
  • One of approach to the trait theory describes the readily observable traits as a surface traits and the deeper ones as source traits.

Hence, we can conclude that R.K. Pritchett is not one of the chief exponents of the trait theory of personality.

200 questions in the full paper