Previous Year Paper

DSSSB TGT Natural Science (Male) 8 Sep 2021 Shift 1 (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2021

200 questions120 minutes
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General Ability (20 questions)

Question 1

Find the wrong term in the letter-cluster series given below:

KDXE, RIEJ, YNLO, FSSU, MXZY

  1. AOption (a)

    RIEJ

  2. BOption (b)

    YNLO

  3. COption (c)

    FSSU

  4. DOption (d)

    MXZY

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

FSSU

Why this answer is correct

The logic follows here is:

    

Clearly, the wrong term is 'FSSU'.

Hence, the correct answer is "FSSU".

Question 2

Find the missing term in the following letter-cluster series given below:

HN22, PT36, XZ50, ?, NL26

  1. AOption (a)

    EF12

  2. BOption (b)

    FE12

  3. COption (c)

    FF11

  4. DOption (d)

    FF12

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

FF12

Why this answer is correct

The logic follows here is:

The numbers are the sum of the positional values of the given alphabets.

Hence, the correct answer is "FF12".

Question 3

Four pairs of words are given. Find the odd one out.

  1. AOption (a)

    White : Snow

  2. BOption (b)

    Red : Blood

  3. COption (c)

    Brown : Sky

  4. DOption (d)

    Green : Grass

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Brown : Sky

Why this answer is correct

The logic follows here is:

  • First word : Second word

→ The first word is the color the second word 

1) White : Snow

→ The color of Snow is White.

2) Red : Blood

→ The color of Blood is Red.

3) Brown : Sky

→ The color of Sky is Blue, not Brown. Thus, it is the odd.

4) Green : Grass

→ The color of Grass is Green.

Hence, the correct answer is "Brown : Sky".

Question 4

Select the related number from the given alternatives.

GH : 78 :: DE : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    33

  2. BOption (b)

    53

  3. COption (c)

    45

  4. DOption (d)

    36

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

45

Why this answer is correct

The logic follows here is:​

The number is the positional value of both the letter.

  • GH : 78

Similarly,

  • DE : ?

Hence, the correct answer is "45".

Question 5

If KIND is coded as 8567, WATER is coded as 14329, what will be the code for TINDER?

  1. AOption (a)

    356792

  2. BOption (b)

    357629

  3. COption (c)

    356729

  4. DOption (d)

    336792

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

356729

Why this answer is correct

The logic follows here is:

  • KIND is coded as 8567

And,

  • WATER is coded as 14329

Similalry,

  • TINDER will be coded as:

Hence, the correct answer is "356729".

Question 6

In a row of children, who are facing north. Abhas is 19th from the left end and second to the right of Suresh, who is 17th from the right end . How many children are there in that row?

  1. AOption (a)

    32

  2. BOption (b)

    33

  3. COption (c)

    34

  4. DOption (d)

    35

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

33

Why this answer is correct

As per the given information: 

In a row of children, who are facing north. Abhas is 19th from the left end and second to the right of Suresh, who is 17th from the right end.

So, the rank of Suresh from left will be '17'.

Now,

Total children in the row = Position of Suresh from left + Position of  Suresh from right - 1

= 17 + 17 - 1

= 34 - 1

= 33

Thus, the total number of children in the row is '33'.

Hence, the correct answer is "33".

Question 7

Six friends Gagan, Iqbal, Jeetu, Krishna, Lalit and Manish are working in different companies. For example, A, B, C, D, E and F, but not necessarily in the same order. Each of them likes a different color viz- orange, green, blue, yellow, red, and white but not necessarily in the same order.Jeetu likes red color but does not work in company E or D. The one who likes Yellow works in Company B. Lalit works in company F and likes green color. Krishna does not like orange, yellow or blue color. The one who works in company C likes White. Gagan does not work in company C and Manish does not work in company E or D. Iqbal likes blue color but does not work in company D.

Who works in Company A?

  1. AOption (a)

    Manish

  2. BOption (b)

    Krishna

  3. COption (c)

    Jeetu

  4. DOption (d)

    Iqbal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Jeetu

Why this answer is correct

As per the given information:

Six friends Gagan, Iqbal, Jeetu, Krishna, Lalit and Manish are working in different companies. For example, A, B, C, D, E and F, but not necessarily in the same order. Each of them likes a different color viz- orange, green, blue, yellow, red, and white but not necessarily in the same order.

  • Lalit works in company F and likes green color.
  • The one who likes Yellow works in Company B.
  • The one who works in company C likes White.
  • Iqbal likes blue color but does not work in company D.
  • Jeetu likes red color but does not work in company E or D.

 

ColorCompanyPerson
orange
greenFLalit
blueDIqbal
yellowB
redE/DJeetu
whiteC

 

  • Krishna does not like orange, yellow or blue color.

→Krishna does not like orange and yellow and only white color is left thus he likes white color.

ColorCompanyPerson
orange
greenFLalit
blueDIqbal
yellowB
redE/DJeetu
whiteCKrishna

 

  • Gagan does not work in company C and Manish does not work in company E or D.

The person working in company D likes orange. Thus, the final arrangement will be:

ColorCompanyPerson
DGagan
orange
greenFLalit
blueEIqbal
yellowBManish
redAJeetu
whiteCKrishna

 

Clearly, 'Jeetu' works in Company A

Hence, the correct answer is "Jeetu".

Question 8

Two statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to consider these statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusions logically follow/s from the given statement.

Statement:

All neighbors are friends.

No friend is classmates.

Conclusions:

(I) Some neighbors are classmates.

(II) No classmates is friend.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I follow

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II follows

  3. COption (c)

    Both I and II follow

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither I nor II follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only II follows

Why this answer is correct

Statement:

All neighbors are friends.

No friend is classmates.

The least possible diagram for the given statements is as follows:

Conclusions:

(I) Some neighbors are classmates.→ False (Because 'All neighbors are friends' and 'No friend is classmates' thus no neighbors can be classmates, so it is definitely false)

(II) No classmates is friend.→ True (Because 'No friend is classmates', so it is definitely true)

Hence, the correct answer is " only II follows".

Question 9

Three statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to consider these statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusions logically follow/s from the given statement.

Statement:

All business are profit.

Some profit are sale.

Some sale are loss.

Conclusions:

(I) Some sale are profit.

(II) Some business are sale.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I follow

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II follows

  3. COption (c)

    Both I and II follow

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither I nor II follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only I follow

Why this answer is correct

Statement:

All business are profit.

Some profit are sale.

Some sale are loss.

The least possible diagram for the given statements is as follows:

Conclusions:

(I) Some sale are profit.→  True (Because 'Some profit are sale.', so 'Some sale are profit' is definitely true)

(II) Some business are sale.→False (Because there is no direct relation between 'business ' and 'sale', so it is possible but not definite)

Hence, the correct answer is " only I follows".

Question 10

Three statements are followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to consider these statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusions logically follow/s from the given statement.

Statement:

All animals are lion.

Some animals are camel.

No camel is deer.

Conclusions:

(I) Some animal are deer.

(II) No animal is deer.

(III) No deer are lion.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I follow

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II follows

  3. COption (c)

    Only III follows 

  4. DOption (d)

    Either I or II follows 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Either I or II follows 

Why this answer is correct

Statement:

All animals are lion.

Some animals are camel.

No camel is deer.

The least possible diagram for the given statements is as follows:

Conclusions:

(I) Some animal are deer.→  False (Because there is no direct relation between 'animal ' and 'deer', so it is possible but not definite)

(II) No animal is deer. → False (Because there is no direct relation between 'animal ' and 'deer', so it is possible but not definite)

(III) No deer are lion. →  False (Because there is no direct relation between 'deer' and 'lion', so it is possible but not definite)

Conclusion I and II form a complementary pair and both of them are false. Thus, this is the case of either and or.

Hence, the correct answer is "Either I or II follows ".

Additional InformationConditions of "Either nd or" Case 

  • The conclusions should have complementary pair.
  • Both conclusions should be false.
  • The conclusion should be in 'Some and No' form or 'All and Some not'.

Question 11

In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

0.16 : 0.0016 :: 1.02 : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    10.20

  2. BOption (b)

    0.102

  3. COption (c)

    0.0102

  4. DOption (d)

    1.020

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

0.0102

Why this answer is correct

The logic follows here is,

(First term) : (Second term)

(First term) ÷ 100 = Second term

  • 0.16 : 0.0016

⇒ 0.16 ÷ 100 = 0.0016 = Second term

Similarly,

  • 1.02 : ?

⇒ 1.02 ÷ 100 = 0.0102 = Second term

Hence, the correct answer is "0.0102".

Question 12

In the question below, a statement is followed by two conclusions. Study the conclusions and select the correct option as the answer.

Statements:

A < M, O ≤ M < B >Y ≤ T

Conclusions:

I. A = O

II. Y < A

  1. AOption (a)

    Both follow

  2. BOption (b)

    None follows

  3. COption (c)

    Only I follows

  4. DOption (d)

    Only II follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

None follows

Why this answer is correct

Given statement : A < M, O ≤ M < B >Y ≤ T

On combining: A < M > O

Conclusions :

I. A = O → FALSE (as  A < M > O → clear relationship between A and O cannot be determined).

II. Y < A →  FALSE (as  A < M, O ≤ M < B >Y ≤ T →  clear relationship between Y and A cannot be determined).

Hence, the correct answer is "None follows".

Question 13

In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

18, 31, 42, 49, 54, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    56

  2. BOption (b)

    57

  3. COption (c)

    62

  4. DOption (d)

    60

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

57

Why this answer is correct

Given: 18, 31, 42, 49, 54, ?

The logic follows here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "15".

Question 14

In the following figure, triangle represents international news, circle represents regional news, pentagon represents local news, rectangle represents political news and square represents economic news.

What does letter ‘M’ represents?

  1. AOption (a)

    Political news, local news, economic news and regional news but not international news

  2. BOption (b)

    Political news, local news and regional news but not economic news, International news

  3. COption (c)

    International news, political news, economic news and regional news but not local news

  4. DOption (d)

    Economic news, political news, regional news and local news only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Political news, local news and regional news but not economic news, International news

Why this answer is correct

As per the given information,

The shaded part i.e. M represents → Political news, local news and regional news but not economic news, International news

Hence, the correct answer is "option (2)".

Question 15

In the following figure, triangle represents silver medal, circle represents gold medal, pentagon represents bronze medal, rectangle represents athletes and square represents cash prize.

What does letter ‘C’ represent?

  1. AOption (a)

    Athletes who got silver medal, bronze medal and gold medal but not cash prize

  2. BOption (b)

    Athletes who got silver medal, bronze medal and cash prize but not gold medal 

  3. COption (c)

    Athletes who got gold medal, bronze medal and cash prize but not silver medal

  4. DOption (d)

    Athletes who got gold medal, silver medal and cash prize but not bronze medal. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Athletes who got gold medal, bronze medal and cash prize but not silver medal

Why this answer is correct

As per the given information,

The shaded part i.e. C represents →Athletes who got gold medal, bronze medal and cash prize but not silver medal

Hence, the correct answer is "option (3)".

Question 16

Select the figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

The logic follows here is:

The figure has a circle which is divided into 8 parts and 4 parts have squares. The four squares are moving anticlockwise in the circle in each successive figure.

So, the figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series is shown below :

Thus, the figure in option (3) will be the next image for the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is "option (3)".

Question 17

From the given alternatives select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

On close observation, we find that the problem figure is embedded in option (2) as shown below :

 Hence, the correct answer is "option (2)".

Question 18

From the given alternatives select the one which is the mirror image of given Question Figure . 

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

The logic follows here is:

When the mirror is placed on the line MN, the left side and right side changed vice-versa where the top and bottom remain the same.

Thus, the correct mirror image of the given figure will be :

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Additional Information

In Mirror image left side and right side changed vice-versa where top and bottom remain the same.

Reflection of an object into the water is its water image. It appears by inverting an object vertically i.e. upside down.

The water image of the figure looks like mirror image of the figure in case the mirror is horizontally at the bottom of the figure.

Water image is just a reflection where top and bottom part of the images changed where left and right side of the image remain same.

Question 19

Find the number of hexagon in the given figure.

  1. AOption (a)

    5

  2. BOption (b)

    6

  3. COption (c)

    7

  4. DOption (d)

    8

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

5

Why this answer is correct

As per the given question:

The numbers of hexagon in the given figures are:

Thus, there are '5' hexagon in the given figures.

Hence, the correct answer is "5".

Question 20

From the given alternatives select the one that will complete the question figure.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

As per the information:

When the question figure is merged with the figure in option (2), the complete figure can be seen as : Hence, the correct answer is

 

"option (2)".

General Awareness (20 questions)

Question 21

Where is Bahá'í Mashriqu'l-Adhkar, better known as the "Lotus Temple" located in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tamil Nadu

  2. BOption (b)

    Karnataka

  3. COption (c)

    Gujarat

  4. DOption (d)

    New Delhi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

New Delhi

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is In New Delhi.

Key Points

  • The Bahai House of Worship, popularly known as the Lotus Temple is not only a symbol of excellence in modern Indian architecture but also one of the most visited religious buildings in the world.
  • The Temple located on a 9.7-hectare site near Nehru Place in South Delhi is a place of worship open to all races, religions, and castes.
  • The form of this House of Worship takes the shape of the lotus, a flower considered sacred by most Indians.
  • It is designed to reflect the simplicity, clarity, and freshness of the Baha'i Faith and to act as a symbol of the unity of mankind and religions.
  • The structure is composed of three ranks of nine petals each, springing from a podium that elevates the building above the surrounding plain.
  • The reinforced-concrete petals are clad by white marble panels, done to fit the surface profiles and to patterns related to the structure's geometry.

Question 22

Which painting is also known as Mithila art?

  1. AOption (a)

    Pattachitra Painting

  2. BOption (b)

    Warli Folk Painting

  3. COption (c)

    Madhubani painting

  4. DOption (d)

    Kalamezhuthu Painting

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Madhubani painting

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Madhubani painting

  • Madhubani painting is a style of Indian painting, practiced in the Mithila region of the Indian subcontinent.
  • Geometrical Patterns are its main feature.
  • Type of style
  • Bharni
  • Kachin
  • Tantrik
  • Godna
  • Kohbar
StatePainting /singing
Tamil Nadu- Thanjavur painting
Rajasthan- Mewar school - Marwar school
Uttar Pradesh- Lucknow Chicken Work

Question 23

______ is a classical dance form revitalised as a result of Mughal influence on Indian culture. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Bharata Natyam

  2. BOption (b)

    Kathak

  3. COption (c)

    Kuchipudi

  4. DOption (d)

    Odissi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Kathak

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kathak

Key Points

  • Kathak classical dance originated in Uttar Pradesh, specifically in the courts of the Mughal emperors in the 16th century.
  • The dance form combines elements of Hindu and Muslim cultures, and is known for its intricate footwork, graceful hand gestures, and facial expressions.

Additional Information

  • Rajasthan is known for its own distinct styles of dance, including the popular folk dance form of Ghoomar.
  • Odisha is known for its classical dance form of Odissi, which is also one of the oldest surviving dance forms in India.
  • Assam is known for its traditional Bihu dance, which is performed during the Bihu festival and is characterized by energetic movements and lively music.

Question 24

______ Gautama was the original name of Gautam Buddha. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Sushant

  2. BOption (b)

    Shiva

  3. COption (c)

    Sridhar

  4. DOption (d)

    Siddhartha

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Siddhartha

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1) i.e. Suddhodana.

  • The Name of Gautama Buddha’s father was ‘Suddhodana’.
  • The meaning of Suddhodana is "he who grows pure rice".
  • Queen Maya was the birth mother of Gautama Buddha.
  • Suddhodana was the leader of the Shakya tribe of late Vedic India.
  • The Shakyas formed an independent state known as ‘Shakya Ganarajya’.
  • The capital of Shakya Ganarajya was called ‘Kapilavastu’, which is thought to be located either at the present day Tilaurakot, Nepal or present-day Piprahwa, India.

Question 25

The Non-Cooperation Movement was pitched in under the leadership of ______ and the Indian National Congress from September 1920 to February 1922.

  1. AOption (a)

    Nana Sahib

  2. BOption (b)

    Mahatma Gandhi

  3. COption (c)

    Tantya Tope

  4. DOption (d)

    Sardar vallabhbhai patel

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Mahatma Gandhi

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1920.

Key Points

  • The Non-cooperation Movement started in 1920.
  • The leader of the Non-cooperation Movement was Mahatma Gandhi.
  • The non-cooperation movement was a mass movement that involved participation from the nationalists as well as the public.
  • The movement was to be nonviolent and to consist of Indians resigning their titles, boycotting government educational institutions, government service, foreign goods, and elections, and eventually, refusing to pay taxes.
  • The non-cooperation movement was a mass movement that was launched by Gandhi in 1920. It was a peaceful and non-violent protest against the British government in India.
  • People had to resign from their government jobs. People were asked to withdraw their children from government-controlled or aided schools and colleges.
  • After a series of events including the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre, Gandhiji realized that there was no prospect of getting any fair treatment at the hands of the British, so he planned to withdraw the nation's cooperation from the British Government, thus launching the Non-Cooperation Movement and thereby marring the administrative set up of the country.
  • This movement was a great success as it got massive encouragement from millions of Indians. This movement almost shook the British authorities.

Additional Information

  • The Non-cooperation Movement was called off by Mahatma Gandhi after the Chauri Chaura incident in February 1922.
  • Lord Reading was the viceroy of India when the Chauri Chaura incident took place.
  • Chittaranjan Das was the President of the Gaya Session of the Indian National Congress held in 1922.

Question 26

The Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb ruled for about ______ years. 

  1. AOption (a)

    40 years

  2. BOption (b)

    30 years

  3. COption (c)

    20 years

  4. DOption (d)

    50 years

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

50 years

Why this answer is correct

The Correct Answer is 50 years

  • Aurangzeb was the sixth Mughal Emperor who ruled the Indian sub-continent from 1658 to 1707.
  • In order to occupy the Mughal throne, he arrested his father Shahjahan and imprisoned him in the Agra Fort.
  • He died in Bhingar, Ahmednagar.

 

Mughal emperor and their tomb

RulerLocation of the tomb
HumayunDelhi
AurangzebDaulatabad
AkbarSikandra
JahangirShahdara, Lahore

Question 27

Which state became the first Indian state to provide reservation for transgenders in all government services?

  1. AOption (a)

    Karnataka

  2. BOption (b)

    Kerala

  3. COption (c)

    Uttar Pradesh

  4. DOption (d)

    Himachal Pradesh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Karnataka

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Karnataka.

Key Points

  • Karnataka has become the first state in the country to provide one percent reservation for the 'transgender community in all the government services.
  • The government submitted a report to the High Court in this regard informing that a notification had already been issued after amending the Karnataka Civil Service (General Recruitment) Rule, 1977.
  • The specifies one percent reservation in all general as well as reserve categories for the third gender.
  • Whenever a notification is published inviting applications for government jobs, the 'others' column must be added along with male and female columns.
  • The notification also underlines that there should not be any discrimination against transgenders in the process of selection.
  • The notification further says, in case of non-availability of transgender candidates, the job could be given to males or females from the same category.

Question 28

BS Yediyurappa has recently resigned as the Chief Minister of which state?

  1. AOption (a)

    Assam

  2. BOption (b)

    Sikkim

  3. COption (c)

    Himachal Pradesh

  4. DOption (d)

    Karnataka 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Karnataka 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Karnataka 

Key Points

  • BS Yediyurappa has announced his resignation as the Karnataka chief minister after weeks of uncertainty. While resigning, Yediyurappa was seen breaking down on the stage from where he made the announcement. Yediyurappa even issued a word of caution to colleagues and said people have lost their faith in the government.

Question 29

The Vikramshila Wildlife Sanctuary is located in ______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Uttarakhand

  2. BOption (b)

    Rajasthan

  3. COption (c)

    Bihar

  4. DOption (d)

    Kerala

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Bihar

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bihar.

Key Points

  • Vikramshila Gangetic Dolphin Sanctuary is in Bhagalpur District of Bihar, India.
  • The sanctuary is 60 kilometres stretch of the Ganges River from Sultanganj to Kahalgaon in the Bhagalpur district.
  • It was notified as Vikramshila Gangetic Dolphin Sanctuary in 1991.
  • Major attractions are the Ganges river dolphins which are classified as endangered on the 2006 IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
  • The sanctuary also contains a rich diversity of other threatened aquatic wildlife, including the Indian smooth-coated otter (Lutrogale perspicillata), gharial (Gavialis gangeticus) and a variety of freshwater turtles, and 135 species of waterfowl.​

Additional Information

  • Some important wildlife sanctuaries are:
  • Jim Corbett National Park, Uttarakhand.
  • Ranthambore National Park, Rajasthan.
  • Gir National Park, Gujarat.
  • Kaziranga National Park, Assam.
  • Kanha National Reserve, Madhya Pradesh.
  • Periyar National Park, Kerala.
  • Sundarbans National Park, West Bengal.
  • Bandhavgarh National Park, Madhya Pradesh.
  • There are 565 existing wildlife sanctuaries in India covering an area of 122560.85 km2, which is 3.73% of the geographical area of the country (National Wildlife Database, May. 2022).
  • Another 218 sanctuaries are proposed in the Protected Area Network Report covering an area of 16,829 km2

Question 30

The Indian Wildlife Protection Act was implemented in the year ______.

  1. AOption (a)

    1974

  2. BOption (b)

    1982

  3. COption (c)

    1980

  4. DOption (d)

    1972

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1972

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1972.

  • The Wildlife Protection Act came into existence in the year 1972.
  • The Indian Parliament enacted the Wildlife (Protection) Act in 1972, which provides for the safeguard and protection of the wildlife (flora and fauna) in the country.

Additional Information

  • Its aim is to provide protection and proper management of wild animals, birds and other species.
  • The Act lays down restrictions on hunting of many animal species.

Question 31

“The Iron Man Of India” is an epithet given to ______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

  2. BOption (b)

    Lala Lajpatrai

  3. COption (c)

    Jamshetji Tata

  4. DOption (d)

    Subhash Chandra Bose

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Vallabhai Patel.

Key Points

Vallabhai Patel

  • Vallabhbhai Patel was born in Nadiad, Gujarat, on October 31, 1875.
  • His birth anniversary is now observed as National Unity Day or Rashtriya Ekta Diwas.
  • Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was a senior leader of the Indian National Congress and a prominent figure in the Indian Freedom Struggle.
  • Later he became India’s first Deputy Prime Minister and first Home Minister.
  • Sardar Patel’s contribution to integrating 565 princely states into a newly independent India is unforgettable.
  • Sardar Patel is popularly known as the Iron Man of India. Hence option 1 is correct.
  • On Gandhi’s call, Patel quit his hard-earned job and joined the movement to fight for the exemption of taxes in Kheda at the time of plague and famine (1918).
  • Patel joined Gandhi’s Non-Cooperation Movement (1920) and travelled around West India to recruit 3,00,000 members. He also collected more than Rs 1.5 million for the party fund.
  • It was the Bardoli satyagraha of 1928 which earned VallabhBhai Patel the title of 'Sardar' and made him famous throughout the country.​

Additional Information

M.K GandhiHe is also known as the Father of the country
Bal Gangadhar TilakHe is also known as the Maker of Modern India
Jawaharlal NehruThe first Prime Minister of independent India was also known as 'Chacha Nehru'

Question 32

Who is the head of the Municipal corporation of most states in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Chief Minister 

  2. BOption (b)

    Mayor

  3. COption (c)

    Governor

  4. DOption (d)

    Prime minister

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Mayor

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mayor

Key Points

  • The Mayor is the head of the Municipal Corporation, but the role is largely ceremonial as executive powers are present in the hands of the Municipal Commissioner.

Question 33

Vibrio cholerae is a ______ shaped pathogen.

  1. AOption (a)

    Rod

  2. BOption (b)

    Spiral

  3. COption (c)

    Comma

  4. DOption (d)

    Circular

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Comma

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Comma.

Key Points

  • Cholera toxin is an enterotoxin secreted by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae, which is unusual in having two circular chromosomes rather than one.
  • Genes for cholera toxin are present on the integrated phage genome, CTX.
  • The cholera toxin is an oligomeric complex made up of six protein subunits: a single copy of the A-subunit and five copies of the B-subunit.
  • The A-subunit has catalytic property that ADP-ribosylates G-proteins.
  • The pentameric protein binds to the ganglioside GM1 present on the surface of the intestinal epithelium.
  • The A-subunit ribosylates the Arg residue of the a-subunit of Gs protein.
  • ADP ribose is provided by the intracellular NAD.
  • This ADP ribosylation alters the A-subunit so that it can no longer hydrolyze its bound GTP, causing it to remain in an active state that stimulates adenylyl cyclase indefinitely.
  • The resulting prolonged elevation in cyclic AMP levels within intestinal epithelial cells causes activation of PKA.
  • PKA phosphorylates the CFTR and Nat-H exchanger present in the intestinal epithelial cells.
  • This causes a large efflux of chloride and sodium ion and water into the gut, thereby causing the severe diarrhea that characterizes cholera.

Explanation:

  • Prolonged elevation in cyclic AMP levels within intestinal epithelial cells causes activation of PKA.
  • PKA phosphorylates the CFTR and Nat-H exchanger present in the intestinal epithelial cells.
  • This causes a large efflux of chloride and sodium ion and water into the gut, thereby causing the severe diarrhea that characterizes cholera.

Hence the correct answer is option 1.

Question 34

According to Indian Bureau of Mines Report 2018, which among the following is the largest mica producing state in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Maharashtra 

  2. BOption (b)

    Karnataka

  3. COption (c)

    Andhra Pradesh

  4. DOption (d)

    West Bengal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Andhra Pradesh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Andhra Pradesh. 

  • Andhra Pradesh is the largest producer of mica.
  • Nellore district of Andhra Pradesh is famous for its mica (crude) production.

Key Points

  • Mica (waste and scrap) is largely produced by the states of Andhra Pradesh, Rajasthan, Bihar, and Jharkhand.
  • In Jharkhand, Koderma is the leading producer of Mica. It is located in the Hazaribagh belt of Jharkhand. Jharkhand is quite rich in minerals.
  • The Koderma district and the Lokai-Indarwa area cover the southern part of the Great Mica-Belt of Jharkhand and Bihar.
  • The mica belt stretches from Gurpa in Gaya district in the west through Nawada, Koderma, Hazaribagh, Giridih in Jharkhand and Jamui as well as Bhagalpur district of the Bihar state in the east.
  • Its maximum width is about 40 km in the Koderma-Hazaribagh-Nawada area.

Question 35

______ of a sound wave determines loudness of sound.

  1. AOption (a)

    Speed

  2. BOption (b)

    Frequency

  3. COption (c)

    Wavelength

  4. DOption (d)

    Amplitude 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Amplitude 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Amplitude.

  • Loudness means how loud or soft a sound seems to a listener.

Key Points

  • Loudness is related to amplitude and intensity is one of the most salient qualities of a sound which is a measure of the amount of energy in sound waves.
  • The unit of intensity is the decibel (dB).

Additional Information

  • Speed- The speed of sound is the distance traveled per unit of time by a sound wave when it propagates through an elastic medium.
  • Wavelength- The wavelength of a sound is the distance between adjacent identical parts of a wave.
  • Frequency- The number of vibrations counted per second is called frequency. The unit of frequency is called hertz (Hz).

Question 36

What is the SI unit of electrical resistance?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mole

  2. BOption (b)

    Volt

  3. COption (c)

    Ohm

  4. DOption (d)

    Ampere

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Ohm

Why this answer is correct

Answer : (3) - Ohm

CONCEPT: 

  • Electrical Resistance: The property of any conductor that opposes the flow of electric current through it is called resistance.
  • It is denoted by R and the SI unit is the ohm (Ω).

The resistance is given by:

R=ρlAR=\rho \frac{l}{A}

Where ρ is resistivity, L is the length and A is the area of the cross-section. 

EXPLANATION:

  • The SI unit of electrical resistance is Ohm (Ω) and it is the SI derived unit of electrical resistance, named after German physicist, Georg Simon Ohm.

Additional Information

  • The resistance of the conductor is said to be 1 Ohm if a current of 1 ampere flows through it when a potential difference of 1 volt is applied across its ends.
  • Volt per Ampere is known as Ohm.
QuantitySI UnitSymbol
Magnetic Flux DensityTeslaT
Luminous FluxLumenlx
IlluminanceLuxlm

Question 37

A ______ is a paper instructing the bank to pay a specific amount from the person’s account to the person in whose name the paper has been issued. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Cheque

  2. BOption (b)

    Recurring deposit 

  3. COption (c)

    Fixed deposit

  4. DOption (d)

    Debit card

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Cheque

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Cheque

Key Points 

  • A cheque is a document that orders a bank to pay a specific amount of money from a person's account to the person in whose name the cheque has been issued.

Question 38

The Union List includes subjects such as ______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Police, trade,agriculture and irrigation. 

  2. BOption (b)

    Residuary subjects like computer software.

  3. COption (c)

    Defence, foreign affairs, banking, currency, communication. 

  4. DOption (d)

    Education, forests,trade unions, and succession

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Defence, foreign affairs, banking, currency, communication. 

Why this answer is correct

The 7th Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the division of powers between the Union government and State governments.

  • It is a part of 12 Schedules of the Indian Constitution.
  • The division of powers between Union and State is notified through three kinds of the list mentioned in the seventh schedule:
  • Union List – List I
  • State List – List II
  • Concurrent List – List III

Important Points

Union List:

  • The Centre has exclusive powers to makes laws on the subjects mentioned under the Union List of the Indian Constitution.
  • The Union List signifies the strong centre as it has more subjects than the state list.
  • It contains more important subjects than included in any of the other two lists.
  • All the issues/matters that are important for the nation and those requiring uniformity of legislation nationwide are included in the Union List.
  • Some of the important subjects are:
  • Defence
  • Army
  • Banking
  • Currency
  • International Relations
  • Ports
  • Railways
  • Highways
  • Communication

Thus, it is clear that option 4 is correct.

Additional Information

  • Important State List Subjects:
  • Public order
  • Police
  • Public health and sanitation
  • Hospitals and dispensaries
  • Betting and gambling
  • Important Concurrent List Subjects:
  • Education
  • Forest
  • Trade unions
  • Marriage
  • Adoption
  • Succession

Question 39

Elaine Thompson-Herah is a ______. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Boxing Player 

  2. BOption (b)

    Hockey Player 

  3. COption (c)

    Badminton Player

  4. DOption (d)

    Sprinter

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Sprinter

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sprint. 

Key Points

  • Jamaican sprint star Elaine Thompson-Hera has received the 2022 Sportsperson of the Year award at the Laureus World Sports Awards during a digital ceremony.
  • ​Max Verstappen, 2021 Formula One World Champion, was voted as Laureus World Sportsman of the Year 2022 while Jamaican athlete Elaine Thompson-Herrah was named Laureus World Sportswoman of the Year 2022 at the 2022 Laureus World Sports Awards virtual event.
  • Neeraj Chopra was nominated for the Laureus Breakthrough of the Year Award 2022.

Additional Information

  • The Laureus World Sports Awards is an annual award ceremony to honor individuals and teams from the world of sports with sporting achievements over the year.
  • It was established in 1999 by the Laureus Sport for Good Foundation with founders Daimler and Richemont.

Question 40

Who is the first Asian to have been honoured with the Nobel Prize for Economics?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mother Teresa

  2. BOption (b)

    Amartya sen

  3. COption (c)

    Chandrashekhar Venkataraman 

  4. DOption (d)

    Hargobind Khorana 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Amartya sen

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Economics.

Key Points

  • Amartya Sen was awarded the Nobel Prize in the year 1998 "for his contribution to welfare economics".
  • Amartya Sen, the eminent Indian economist, and philosopher from Dhaka was born in a Bengali family in 1933.
  • It was the great Rabindranath Tagore who gave him the name "Omorto" which means immortal.
  • Amartya Sen released TM Krishna's book A Southern Music in Chennai.
  • He also worked with the United Nations Development Program to develop the Human Development Index.

Arithmetic Ability (20 questions)

Question 41

What value will come in place of question mark (?) in the following question?

?11 of 125=55? of 256\rm\frac{?}{11}\ of\ \sqrt{125}=\frac{55}{?}\ of \ \sqrt{256}

  1. AOption (a)

    42

  2. BOption (b)

    40

  3. COption (c)

    49

  4. DOption (d)

    4454\frac{44}{ \sqrt[4] 5}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

4454\frac{44}{ \sqrt[4] 5}

Why this answer is correct

Given:

?11 of 125=55? of 256\rm\frac{?}{11}\ of\ \sqrt{125}=\frac{55}{?}\ of \ \sqrt{256}

Concept used:

Using the BODMAS rule:

Calculation:

According to the question,

⇒ ?11 of 125=55? of 256\rm\frac{?}{11}\ of\ \sqrt{125}=\frac{55}{?}\ of \ \sqrt{256}

⇒ ?11×55=55?×16\rm\frac{?}{11} × 5\sqrt {5} =\frac{55}{?} × 16

⇒ ?2 = 5555\frac{55}{5\sqrt {5}} × 16 × 11

⇒ ?2 = 115\frac{11}{\sqrt 5} × 16 × 11

⇒ ?2 = 112×425=4425\frac{11^2 \times 4^2}{\sqrt 5} = \frac{44^2}{\sqrt 5} 

⇒ ?2 = 4454\frac{44}{ \sqrt[4] 5} 

Therefore, "4454\frac{44}{ \sqrt[4] 5}" is the required answer.

Question 42

What value will come in place of question mark (?) in the following question?

(422 + 45) ÷ (30 + 37) = ? × 3

  1. AOption (a)

    11

  2. BOption (b)

    8

  3. COption (c)

    12

  4. DOption (d)

    9

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

9

Why this answer is correct

Given:

(422 + 45) ÷ (30 + 37) = ? × 3

Concept used:

Using BODMAS rule:

Calculation:

According to the question,

⇒ (422 + 45) ÷ (30 + 37) = ? × 3

⇒ (1764 + 45) ÷ (67) = ? × 3

⇒ (1809) ÷ (67) = ? × 3

⇒ 27 = ? × 3

⇒ ? = 9

Therefore, "9" is the required answer.

Question 43

What value will come in place of question mark (?) in the following question?

5×5+4×4+2×5×45×5−4×4=?\frac{5\times 5+4\times 4+2\times 5\times 4}{5\times 5-4\times 4}=?

  1. AOption (a)

    6

  2. BOption (b)

    7

  3. COption (c)

    11

  4. DOption (d)

    9

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

9

Why this answer is correct

Given:

5×5+4×4+2×5×45×5−4×4=?\frac{5\times 5+4\times 4+2\times 5\times 4}{5\times 5-4\times 4}=?

Concept used:

(a + b)2 = a2 + b2 + 2ab

(a2 - b2) = (a + b)(a - b)

Calculation:

According to the question,

⇒ 52+42+2×5×452−42=?\frac{5^2+4^2+2\times 5\times 4}{5^2-4^2}=?

⇒ (5+4)2(5+4)(5−4)=?\frac{(5+4)^2}{(5+4)(5-4)}=?

⇒ (5+4)(5−4)=?\frac{(5+4)}{(5-4)}=?

⇒ ? = 9

Therefore, "9" is the required answer.

Question 44

The L.C.M. of two different numbers are 30. Which of the following cannot be their H.C.F.?

  1. AOption (a)

    6

  2. BOption (b)

    15

  3. COption (c)

    10

  4. DOption (d)

    12

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

12

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The L.C.M. of two different numbers are 30

Concept: 

L.C.M × H.C.F = A × B

Where, 

L.C.M of the numbers A and B.

H.C.M of the numbers A and B.

Calculation:

⇒ L.C.M × H.C.F = A × B

The above formula can be written as:

⇒ L.C.M × H.C.F = (H.C.F × a) × (H.C.F × b)

Where, 

a and b are distinct prime factors.

Now,

⇒ L.C.M × H.C.F = H.C.F × a × H.C.F × b

⇒ L.C.M = H.C.F × a × b

⇒ 30 = H.C.F × a × b

Now, H.C.F must be a factor of 30. 

 

From Options it can be inferred that 12 is not a factor of 30.

 

Therefore, "12" is the required answer.

Question 45

The average output of n machines is k units per day. If one of the machines is excluded, whose output is 780 units per day, the average output will decrease by 30 units. Instead, if one dead machine is included, the average output will decrease by 90 units. What is the total output of n machines?

  1. AOption (a)

    4020

  2. BOption (b)

    3900

  3. COption (c)

    3640

  4. DOption (d)

    3780

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

3780

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Case 1: Removal of 780 units machine reduces average by 30 ⇒ 780 − k = 30(n − 1)

Case 2: Addition of 0 units machine reduces average by 90 ⇒ k − 0 = 90(n + 1)

Substitute k = 90n + 90 in first equation: 780 − (90n + 90) = 30n − 30

690 − 90n = 30n − 30 ⇒ 120n = 720 ⇒ n = 6

Average k = 90(6 + 1) = 630 units. Total output = 6 × 630 = 3780 units.

∴ The correct answer is 3780 units.

Alternate Method

Given:

Number of machines = n | Average output = k units/day

Value of machine excluded = 780 units | Value of machine included = 0 units

Formula Used:

Total Output = Number of Machines × Average Output

Calculations:

⇒ Total initial output = n × k

⇒ When 780 is excluded: (nk − 780) ÷ (n − 1) = k − 30

⇒ nk − 780 = (n − 1)(k − 30) = nk − 30n − k + 30

⇒ 30n + k = 810 ... (Eq. 1)

⇒ When a dead machine (0 units) is included: (nk + 0) ÷ (n + 1) = k − 90

⇒ nk = (n + 1)(k − 90) = nk − 90n + k − 90

⇒ k − 90n = 90 ⇒ k = 90n + 90 ... (Eq. 2)

⇒ Substituting (Eq. 2) in (Eq. 1): 30n + (90n + 90) = 810

⇒ 120n = 720 ⇒ n = 6

⇒ k = 90(6) + 90 = 630

⇒ Total Output = nk = 6 × 630 = 3780 units

∴ The correct answer is 3780 units.

Additional Information

Net Deviation Principle

In any average problem, the sum of deviations from the average is always zero. If an item is added or removed, the total change in the sum equals the deviation of that item from the original average.

Impact of Adding Zero

When a zero-value item is added to a set, the total sum remains constant, but the average decreases because the denominator (count) increases: New Avg = Old Sum ÷ (n + 1).

Average Property

If every element in a set is increased or decreased by a constant value 'x', the average also increases or decreases by 'x' respectively.

Question 46

A person takes a contract to construct a road. He constructs 20 percent of the road on the first day, 30 percent of the remaining road on the second day, 50 percent of the remaining road on the third day, and the rest 7 km road on the fourth day. What is the length of the road?

  1. AOption (a)

    50 km

  2. BOption (b)

    35 km

  3. COption (c)

    25 km

  4. DOption (d)

    49 km

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

25 km

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A person constructs 20 percent of the road on the first day,

30 percent of the remaining road on the second day,

50 percent of the remaining road on the third day,

and the rest 7 km road on the fourth day.

Calculation:

Let the length of the road = x km

The amount of work done on the first day, A = 20% of x = 0.2x

The amount of work done on the second day, B = 30% of (x - 0.2x)

⇒ B = 30% of 0.8x

⇒ B = 0.3 of 0.8x = 0.24x

Remaining work after second day = x - (0.2x + 0.24x) = 0.56x

The amount of work done on the third day = 50% of 0.56x = 0.28x

Remaining work after third day = x - (0.2x + 0.24x + 0.28x) = 0.28x

According to the question,

⇒ 0.28x = 7

⇒ x = 70.28\frac{7}{0.28} = 25 km

Therefore, "25 km" is the required answer.

Question 47

A retailer buys a computer at 30,000. If he spent some overhead expenses on it and sells the computer for 43750 at a profit of 25 percent. Overhead expenses are what per cent of cost price. 

  1. AOption (a)

    12.67 percent

  2. BOption (b)

    15 percent

  3. COption (c)

    20 percent

  4. DOption (d)

    16.67 percent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

16.67 percent

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A retailer buys a computer at 30,000.

He spent some overhead expenses on it and sells the computer for 43750 at a profit of 25 percent.

Formula used:

Selling price = Cost price × (100% + Profit%)

Calculation:

According to the question,

Cost price of the computer = Rs. 30000

Selling price = Rs. 43750

Let 'C' be the cost price including the overhead expenses.

Now, 

⇒ S.P = C × (100% + 25%)

⇒ 43750 = C × 125%

⇒ C = 43750 × 100125\frac{100}{125} = 35000

Therefore, the overhead cost = Rs. 35000 - Rs. 30000 = Rs. 5000

The required percent = 500030000\frac{5000}{30000} × 100 = 16.67%

Overhead expenses is 16.67% of cost price. 

Therefore, "16.67%" is the required answer.

Question 48

By selling 16 pencils for Rs. 20, a man incurred a loss of 1 percent. How many pencils must he sell for Rs. 20 in order to make a gain of 32 percent ?

  1. AOption (a)

    8

  2. BOption (b)

    12

  3. COption (c)

    9

  4. DOption (d)

    6

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

12

Why this answer is correct

Given:

By selling 16 pencils for Rs. 20, a man incurred a loss of 1 percent

Concept:

Selling price = (100% + Profit%) × Cost Price

Selling price = (100% - Loss%) × Cost Price

Calculation:

According to the question,

First case:

Selling Price = Rs. 20

Loss% = 1%

Now,

⇒ 20 = (100% - 1%) × C.P

⇒ 20 = 99% × C.P

⇒ C.P = 2099\frac{20}{99} × 100

Now, cost price of 16 pencils = Rs. 2099\frac{20}{99} × 100

Cost price of 1 pencils = Rs. 2099×16\frac{20}{99 × 16} × 100

Again according to the question,

Second case:

To earn 32% in each pencil.

Selling price of 1 pencil = 20×10016×99\frac{20 × 100}{16 × 99} × (100% + 32%)

Selling price of 1 pencil = 20×10016×99×132100\frac{20 × 100}{16 × 99} × \frac{132}{100}

It can be written as:

In Rs. 20×10016×99×132100\frac{20 × 100}{16 × 99} × \frac{132}{100}, the number of pencil bought = 1

In Rs. 1, the number of pencil bought = 16×9920×100×100132\frac{16 × 99}{20 × 100} × \frac{100}{132}

In Rs. 20, the number of pencil bought = 16×9920×100×100132\frac{16 × 99}{20 × 100} × \frac{100}{132}  × 20 = 12

Therefore, "12" is the required answer.

Question 49

An item is purchased at Rs. 720, and when the item is sold to a customer, then 10% of the profit is earned, then at what price the item is sold? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 756

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 864

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 792

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 828

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Rs. 792

Why this answer is correct

Given:

An item is purchased at Rs. 720, and 10 percent profit is earned,

Concept:

Selling price = (100% + Profit%) × Cost Price

Selling price = (100% - Loss%) × Cost Price

Calculation:

According to the question,

Selling price = (100% + 10%) of 720

⇒ Selling price = 110% of 720

⇒ Selling price = 110100\frac{110}{100} × 720 = 792

Therefore, "Rs. 792" is the required answer.

Question 50

A man has 15.4 kg potatoes. He divides them into two parts. From the first part, he makes ajiaco, aligot, aloo pie and uses potatoes in the ratio 2 ∶ 3 ∶ 4. From the second part, he makes cheese fries, chips, coddle and uses potatoes in the ratio 5 ∶ 7 ∶ 4. If he uses the same quantity of potatoes to make ajiaco and cheese fries, then find the quantity of potatoes to make coddle.

  1. AOption (a)

    1.6 kg

  2. BOption (b)

    2.1 kg

  3. COption (c)

    1.3 kg

  4. DOption (d)

    2.5 kg

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1.6 kg

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A man has 15.4 kg potatoes.

From the first part: he uses potatoes to make ajiaco, aligot, aloo pie in ratio 2 ∶ 3 ∶ 4.

From the second part: he uses potatoes to make cheese fries, chips, coddle in the ratio 5 ∶ 7 ∶ 4.

He uses the same quantity of potatoes to make ajiaco and cheese fries.

Calculation:

Let the amount of potatoes used for making ajiaco, aligot and aloo pie are 2x, 3x and 4x respectively.

Let the amount of potatoes used for making cheese fries, chips and coddle are 5y, 7y and 4y respectively.

According to the question,

⇒ 2x = 5y    ---(i)

Now,

The total quantity of potatoes used in both part, T = 2x + 3x + 4x + 5y + 7y + 4y = 15.4 kg

⇒ T = 9x + 16y = 15.4    ---(ii)

On solving the equation (i) and (ii), we get,

⇒ y = 0.4

Now, 

The amount of potatoes required for making coddle = 4y = 4(0.4) = 1.6 kg

Therefore, "1.6 kg" is the required answer.

Question 51

4 years ago age of A was 1.5 times of that of B and difference between their ages after 4 years will be 20 years, then what is the present age of A? 

  1. AOption (a)

    72 years

  2. BOption (b)

    60 years

  3. COption (c)

    64 years

  4. DOption (d)

    48 years

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

64 years

Why this answer is correct

Given:

4 years ago age of A was 1.5 times of that of B.

The difference between their ages after 4 years will be 20 years.

Concept:

The age difference between two people remains constant, regardless of whether you look at their ages n years ago or n years in the future.

Or,

The gap in the age never changes.

Calculation:

According to the question,

Case 1: 4 years ago age of A was 1.5 times of that of B.

It can be written as:

The ratio of A to B = 32\frac{3}{2}

Let the age of A 4 years ago = 3x

Let the age of B 4 years ago = 2x

Case 2: After 4 years the difference in their age will be 20 years.

The difference between the ages always remains constant.

Therefore, the gap in their age 4 years ago is the same as 20 years.

Therefore, 

⇒ 3x - 2x = 20

⇒ x = 20

The age of A 4 years ago = 3 × 20 = 60

The present age of A = 60 + 4 = 64 years

Therefore, "64 years" is the required answer.

Question 52

Arun lent Rs. 4000 in two parts. He lent each part for a year. He lent Rs. 2500 at 12 percent p.a. and the remaining at 10 percent p.a. simple interest. Find the effective rate of simple interest at which he lent the entire sum.

  1. AOption (a)

    101410\frac{1}{4} percent

  2. BOption (b)

    111411\frac{1}{4} percent

  3. COption (c)

    121412\frac{1}{4} percent

  4. DOption (d)

    11 percent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

111411\frac{1}{4} percent

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Arun lent Rs. 4000 in two parts. He lent each part for a year.

He lent Rs. 2500 at 12 percent p.a.

The remaining at 10 percent p.a. simple interest. 

Formula used: 

S.I = P×R×T100\frac{P \times R \times T}{100}

Where, 

S.I = Simple interest

P = Principal

R = Rate of interest

T = Time period

Calculation:

Let 'R' be the effective rate.

According to the question,

Total Principal = Rs. 4000

First Scheme Principal = Rs. 2500

Second Scheme Principal = Rs. 4000 - Rs. 2500 = Rs. 1500

Now,

⇒ 4000×R×1100\frac{4000 \times R \times 1}{100} = 2500×12×1100\frac{2500 \times 12 \times 1}{100} + 1500×10×1100\frac{1500 \times 10 \times 1}{100}

⇒ 4000R = 30000 + 15000

⇒ 4000R = 45000

⇒ R = 11.25%

Therefore, "1114\frac{1}{4}%" is the required answer.

Question 53

If a train running at a speed of 54 km/hr crosses a man standing on the platform in 32 seconds, then find the time taken by the train to cross a platform of length 720 metres.

  1. AOption (a)

    72 seconds 

  2. BOption (b)

    64 seconds

  3. COption (c)

    80 seconds

  4. DOption (d)

    90 seconds

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

80 seconds

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A train running at a speed of 54 km/hr crosses a man standing on the platform in 32 seconds,

Concept:

  1. Length of Train = Speed of Train × Time required to cross a standing man
  2. (Length of Train + Length of platform) = Speed of train × Time required to cross a platform

Calculation:

The speed of train = 54 km/hr = 54 × 518\frac{5}{18} = 15 m/sec

Length of train = 15 × 32 = 480 m

According to the question,

Let 't' is the time required to cross platform. 

⇒ 480 + 720 = 15 × t

⇒ 1200 = 15 × t

⇒ t = 80 sec

Therefore, "80 seconds" is the required answer.

Question 54

Two cars P and Q start at the same time from A and B which are 240 km apart. If the two cars travel in opposite directions, they meet after 2 hour and if they travel in the same direction (from A towards B) P meets Q after 8 hours. What is the speed of the car P?

  1. AOption (a)

    60 km/hr

  2. BOption (b)

    75 km/hr

  3. COption (c)

    80 km/hr

  4. DOption (d)

    70 km/hr

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

75 km/hr

Why this answer is correct

Given: 

Two cars P and Q start at the same time from A and B which are 240 km apart.

If the two cars travel in opposite directions, they meet after 2 hour

If they travel in the same direction (from A towards B) P meets Q after 8 hours.

Formula used:

Case 1: When two bodies towards each other.

Distance between A and B = (RP + RQ) × time of meeting 

Case 2: When two bodies moves in the same direction.

Distance between A and B = (RP - RQ) × time of meeting

Where, 

RP = Speed of car P

RQ = Speed of car Q

Calculation:

According to the question,

Case 1: If the two cars travel in opposite directions, they meet after 2 hour.

⇒ 240 = (RP + RQ) × 2

⇒ RP + RQ = 120   ---(i)

Case 2: If they travel in the same direction (from A towards B) P meets Q after 8 hours.

⇒ 240 = (RP - RQ) × 8

⇒ RP - RQ = 30   ---(ii)

Now, on solving the equation (i) and (ii), we get,

⇒ RP = 75 km/hr

Therefore, "75 km/hr" is the required answer.

Question 55

A can do a certain work in 20 days and B can do the same work in 24 days. A works alone for 1 day, then B works alone for 2 days, then A works alone for 3 days, then B works alone for 4 days, and so on. On which day will the work be completed?

  1. AOption (a)

    22nd day

  2. BOption (b)

    20th day

  3. COption (c)

    24th day

  4. DOption (d)

    23rd day

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

22nd day

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A can do a certain work in 20 days and B can do the same work in 24 days.

A works alone for 1 day, then B works alone for 2 days, then A works alone for 3 days, then B works alone for 4 days, and so on.

Formula:

1. The total unit of work = L.C.M of (a and b) units

Where, a and b are the amount of time taken by two persons.

Calculation:

The total unit of work = L.C.M of (20 and 24) = 120 units

Efficiency of A = 120/20 = 6 units a day

Efficiency of B = 120/24 = 5 units a day

Now,

According to the question,

The amount of work on 1st day = (6 × 1) units

The amount of work on 2nd and 3rd = (5 × 2) units

The amount of work by A on next 3 days = (6 × 3) units

and this will continue so on.

⇒ (6 × 1) + (5 × 2) + (6 × 3) + (5 × 4) + (6 × 5) + (5 × 6) + (6 × 1)   ... = 120 units

On 22nd day A had done the last 6 units of work.

Therefore, "22nd day" is the required answer.

Question 56

If efficiency of A is 20 percent more than B, B is 30 percent more efficient than C, then the efficiency ratio of A, B and C are respectively: 

  1. AOption (a)

    78 ∶ 65 ∶ 50

  2. BOption (b)

    65 ∶ 78 ∶ 50

  3. COption (c)

    37 ∶ 38 ∶ 43

  4. DOption (d)

    35 ∶ 70 ∶ 87

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

78 ∶ 65 ∶ 50

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Efficiency of A is 20 percent more than B,

B is 30 percent more efficient than C.

Calculation:

Let the efficiency of C = 100

The efficiency of B = (100% + 30%) of 100

The efficiency of B = 130% of 100 = 130

The efficiency of A = (100% + 20%) of 130

The efficiency of A = 120% of 130 = 156

Now, 

The ratio of the required ratio A : B : C = 156 : 130 : 100 = 78 : 65 : 50

Therefore, "78 : 65 : 50" is the required answer.

Question 57

On decreasing the length and breadth of rectangle by 20 percent and 25 percent, respectively, the area of rectangle decreases by 200 cm2 , then find the area of original rectangle.

  1. AOption (a)

    500 cm2

  2. BOption (b)

    450 cm2

  3. COption (c)

    300 cm2

  4. DOption (d)

    250 cm2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

500 cm2

Why this answer is correct

Given:

On decreasing the length and breadth of rectangle by 20 percent and 25 percent, respectively, the area of rectangle decreases by 200 cm2,

Formula used:

Area of rectangle = length × breadth

Calculation:

Let 'l' and 'b' be the original length and breadth of the rectangle.

Area of rectangle (original) = l × b

According to the question,

New length = (100% - 20%) of l = 80% of l = 0.8l

New breadth = (100% - 25%) of b = 75% of b = 0.75b

New area = 0.8l × 0.75b = 0.6lb

The required difference = lb - 0.6lb = 0.4lb

According to the question,

⇒ 0.4lb = 200

⇒ lb = 2000.4\frac{200}{0.4} = 500 cm2

Therefore, "500 cm2" is the required answer.

Question 58

A teacher used chalks to write on the board, which are in the shape of a frustum. The volume of the chalk is 1.89 π cm3, the bigger radius is 0.6 cm, and the smaller radius is 0.3 cm. What is the length of the chalk?

  1. AOption (a)

    9 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    7 cm

  3. COption (c)

    10 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    6 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

9 cm

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The volume of the chalk = 1.89 π cm3

The bigger radius = 0.6 cm

The smaller radius is 0.3 cm

Formula used:

The volume of a frustum of a cone:

V = 13\frac{1}{3}π(R2 + r2 + Rr)h

Where:

h is the height of the frustum.

R is the radius of the larger base (the top base) of the frustum.

r is the radius of the smaller base (the bottom base) of the frustum.

Calculation:

According to the question,

⇒ V = 13\frac{1}{3}π(R2 + r2 + Rr) × h

⇒ 1.89π = 13\frac{1}{3} × π × (0.62 + 0.32 + (0.6 × 0.3)) × h

⇒ 1.89π = 13\frac{1}{3} × π × (0.36 + 0.09 + 0.18) × h

⇒ 1.89 = 13\frac{1}{3} × (0.63) × h

⇒ h = 9 cm

Therefore, "9 cm" is the required answer.

Question 59

The given table shows the number of visits of doctors in a hospital and their per visit fees. There is no visit on Saturday and Sunday.

DoctorMondayTuesdayWednesdayThursdayFridayFees per visit (in Rs.)
Psychiatrist325741200
Neurologist124321800
Eye Specialist610498900
Cardiologist554421600
Dentist1214101115800
Gynecologist97810121400
Pediatrician815127111000
<br>

The weekly income of a pediatrician from hospital is what percent more than the weekly income of a dentist from hospital?

  1. AOption (a)

    10.55 percent

  2. BOption (b)

    6.85 percent

  3. COption (c)

    5.45 percent

  4. DOption (d)

    8.25 percent 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

6.85 percent

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The value of fees per visit for paediatrician = Rs. 1000

The value of fees per visit for dentist = Rs. 800

Calculation:

The number of visit for Pediatrician = 8 + 15 + 12 + 7 + 11 = 53

Weekly income for Pediatrician = 53 × 1000 = Rs. 53000

The number of visit for Dentist = 12 + 14 + 10 + 11 + 15 = 62

Weekly income for Dentist = 62 × 800 = Rs. 49600

The required percentage = 53000−4960049600\frac{53000-49600}{49600} × 100 = 6.85%

The weekly income of a pediatrician from hospital is 6.85 percent more than the weekly income of a dentist from hospital.

Therefore, "6.85%" is the required answer.

Question 60

The following bar graph shows the distance (in km) between two cities and speeds (in km/hr) of a boy to cover the respective distances.  

<br>

What is the average speed of the boy from city A to city F?

  1. AOption (a)

    23.91 km/hr

  2. BOption (b)

    21.78 km/hr

  3. COption (c)

    19.47 km/hr

  4. DOption (d)

    26.5 km/hr

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

21.78 km/hr

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The following bar graph shows the distance (in km) between two cities and speeds (in km/hr) of a boy to cover the respective distances

Calculation:

The total distance from A to F = 80 + 120 + 90 + 60 + 42 = 392 km

Time required to travel from A to B = 80/16 = 5 hr

Time required to travel from B to C = 120/40 = 3 hr

Time required to travel from C to D = 90/20 = 4.5 hr

Time required to travel from D to E = 60/30 = 2 hr

Time required to travel from E to F = 42/12 = 3.5 hr

Total Time from A to F = 5 + 3 + 4.5 + 2 + 3.5 = 18 hr

Average speed = 39218\frac{392}{18} = 21.78 km/hr

Therefore, "21.78 km/hr" is the required answer.

General English (20 questions)

Question 61

One part of the sentence below may contain an error. Identify the part. If there is no error, choose ‘No error’.

If households feel financially inadequate and see greater risks to their well-being, they will not spend enthusiastic.

  1. AOption (a)

    If households feel financially inadequate and see

  2. BOption (b)

    greater risks to their wellbeing, they 

  3. COption (c)

    will not spend enthusiastic

  4. DOption (d)

    No error.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

will not spend enthusiastic

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'will not spend enthusiastic'

 Key Points

  • Adverbs are used to modify verbs.
  • Here, 'enthusiastic' is an adjective trying to modify the verb 'spend', which is grammatically incorrect. Instead, the adverb 'enthusiastically' should be used.
  • The correct phrase should be 'not spend enthusiastically'. This phrase correctly indicates how the spending is done (i.e., with enthusiasm), which is what an adverb is meant to do.
  • The verb 'spend' represents an action, and to describe the manner of that action, we should use an adverb. In the English language, adverbs often end in '-ly', such as 'enthusiastically'.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Question 62

One part of the sentence below may contain an error. Identify the part. If there is no error, choose ‘No error’.

Once the floods sets in for two to three months, everything comes to a standstill in those districts.

  1. AOption (a)

    Once the floods sets in for two to

  2. BOption (b)

    three months, everything comes

  3. COption (c)

    to a standstill in those districts. 

  4. DOption (d)

    No error.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Once the floods sets in for two to

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Once the floods sets in for two to'

 Key Points

  • The subject 'the floods' is a plural noun, so it needs the plural verb 'set' rather than the singular verb 'sets'.
  • Hence, the correct phrasing should be 'Once the floods set in for two to'.
  • The subject-verb agreement rule in English grammar states that a verb must agree in number with its subject. 'Floods' is a plural subject, so the plural form of the verb should be used.
  • The verb 'set' in this context is referring to when the floods begin or start, which is why it should agree with the plural subject 'floods'.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Question 63

Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute the underlined segment, select ‘No improvement’.

Tea leaves is separate from the liquid with a strainer while preparing tea.

  1. AOption (a)

    was separate to

  2. BOption (b)

    were separating to

  3. COption (c)

    are separated from

  4. DOption (d)

    No substitution required

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

are separated from

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'are separated from'

 Key Points

  • The verb form 'is separate' doesn't match the subject 'Tea leaves', which is plural. The correct form should be 'are separated', aligning with the number of the subject.
  • The preposition 'from' is appropriate in this context as it indicates that the leaves are separated away 'from' the liquid.
  • According to English grammar rules, the proper agreement between the subject and verb is essential. Hence, as 'Tea leaves' is a plural subject, it should be followed by the plural verb form 'are'.
  • Also, using 'separated' instead of 'separate' makes the sentence grammatically sound because the process of separating is ongoing during the preparation of tea.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Question 64

Select the most appropriate option to substitute the bracketed part in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute the bracketed part, select ‘No improvement’.

As she was (at a too great distance) to hear, I had to repeat every word.

  1. AOption (a)

    at too great a distance

  2. BOption (b)

    No Improvement 

  3. COption (c)

    at too great distance

  4. DOption (d)

    at a great distance

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

at too great a distance

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'at too great a distance'

 Key Points

  • The original phrase, 'at a too great distance', is incorrect because 'too' is not correctly placed. It should come before 'great a distance', not after 'a'.
  • The correct placement of 'too' before 'great a distance' would properly indicate the excessive distance that is implied in the sentence.
  • Using 'too' before an adjective but after the article 'a' creates an awkward and incorrect sentence structure, according to the rules of English grammar.
  • The phrase 'at too great a distance' is a standard English phrase that conveys the idea that something is at such a great distance that it causes some kind of problem, hindrance, or challenge.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Question 65

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

No worker has ever tried to live in a ______ house.

  1. AOption (a)

    soldier’s

  2. BOption (b)

    soldiers’ 

  3. COption (c)

    soldier 

  4. DOption (d)

    soldier’ 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

soldier’s

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'soldier’s'

 Key Points

  • The English possessive case is expressed with an added 's or an apostrophe alone, as per the subject (singular or plural) that is possessing something.
  • In this case, we're referring to a house that belongs to a single soldier, hence, the possessive form 'soldier’s' is correct.
  • The option 'soldiers’' is incorrect because the apostrophe after 's' is used when referring to multiple subjects possessing something, which isn't the context in this sentence.
  • 'Soldier' and 'soldier ’' would be incorrect because these options don't indicate any possessive relationship.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Question 66

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

Two images ______ to mind during the recent furious protests: alleged police ______ and tragic deaths.

  1. AOption (a)

    came, brutality

  2. BOption (b)

    come, brutality

  3. COption (c)

    came, brutal 

  4. DOption (d)

    coming, brutal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

came, brutality

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'came, brutality'

 Key Points

  • The sentence construction and its past tense context suggest that we use the past tense verb 'came' instead of 'come' or 'coming'.
  • The second blank refers to a harsh or inhumane act, hence, the noun 'brutality' (which refers to savage physical violence) is more appropriate than the adjective 'brutal'.
  • While the word 'come' could fit, because the sentence refers to past events, 'came' is more grammatically correct.
  • While 'brutal' could possibly fit, because the context refers to actions (not just the nature of the actions), 'brutality' is more correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Question 67

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

The school teacher was angry ______ Naveen Kumar as he ______ not dressed properly.

  1. AOption (a)

    with, had

  2. BOption (b)

    upon, have

  3. COption (c)

    with, having

  4. DOption (d)

    at, has 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

with, had

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'with, had'

<br>

Key Points

  • "Angry with" is the correct prepositional phrase in this context. When expressing anger towards a person.
  • "Had" is the correct past perfect tense to indicate that the action (Naveen Kumar not being dressed properly) was completed in the past before the teacher became angry.
  • Thus, according to the above mentioned explanation, option 1st is correct and therefore the answer.

Question 68

In the following question, there are six sentences marked S1, S6, P, Q, R, and S. The positions of S1 and S6 are fixed. You are required to choose one of the four alternatives, which would be the most logical sequence of the sentence in the passage.

S1. Most of the people acquire

P. which makes them hesitant

Q. their ancestral culture and

R. to accept new ideas and theories of

S. tradition without questioning them,

S6. the changing world.

  1. AOption (a)

    SPRQ

  2. BOption (b)

    QRSP

  3. COption (c)

    QSPR

  4. DOption (d)

    PQRS

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

QSPR

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'QSPR'

 Key Points

  • The most logical sequence starting from sentence S1, "Most of the people acquire," would be "their ancestral culture and tradition without questioning them (QSP), which makes them hesitant to accept new ideas and theories of the changing world (R)".
  • The phrase 'their ancestral culture and tradition without questioning them' forms a complete idea following the initial fixed line, hence QSP.
  • The statement 'which makes them hesitant' follows logically from the idea of unquestioning acceptance of traditions, leading to 'R' logically following after 'QSP'.
  • The other sequences (SPRQ, QRSP, PQRS) do not maintain the logical and coherent flow of the ideas in the sentences.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Question 69

Select the most appropriate synonym for the given word.

Deceiving

  1. AOption (a)

    Misleading

  2. BOption (b)

    Honest 

  3. COption (c)

    Composed

  4. DOption (d)

    Stolid

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Misleading

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Misleading'

 Key Points

  • Both 'Deceiving' and 'Misleading' have similar meanings. They both imply causing someone to believe something that is not true.
  • In English, synonyms are words that have similar meanings. 'Misleading' is an appropriate synonym for 'Deceiving'.
  • By choosing 'Misleading', we align with the context of the original sentence, maintaining its meaning while changing the phrasing.
  • Other words provided like 'Honest', 'Composed', and 'Stolid' do not carry a similar meaning to 'Deceiving'.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 Additional Information

  • Honest: truthful, sincere
  • Composed: calm; collected
  • Stolid: calm, dependable, showing little emotion or animation

Question 70

Select the most appropriate antonym for the given word.

Rebuff

  1. AOption (a)

    Approve

  2. BOption (b)

    Bruise

  3. COption (c)

    High-spirited

  4. DOption (d)

    Sob

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Approve

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Approve'

 Key Points

  • To 'Rebuff' means to reject someone or something in an abrupt or ungracious manner. Its antonym 'Approve' implies accepting or agreeing to something.
  • Antonyms are words that have opposite meanings. So, 'Approve' fits as it is the opposite of 'Rebuff'.
  • The use of 'Approve' in place of 'Rebuff' would reverse the meaning of the original sentence.
  • The other options 'Bruise', 'High-spirited', and 'Sob' do not carry the antonym-meaning to 'Rebuff'.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 Additional Information

  • Bruise: an injury where blood vessels under the skin are broken
  • High-spirited: full of enthusiasm or determination
  • Sob: to cry noisily, taking in deep breaths

Question 71

Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word. 

  1. AOption (a)

    stamina

  2. BOption (b)

    phenomena

  3. COption (c)

    tactic

  4. DOption (d)

    advisary

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

advisary

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'advisary'

 Key Points

  • The word 'advisary' is not a correctly spelled word. The correct spelling is 'adversary', meaning one's opponent or enemy.
  • 'Stamina', 'phenomena', and 'tactic' are all correctly spelled words, making them inappropriate answers to the question asking for the incorrectly spelled word.
  • Correct spelling is crucial for conveying the right meaning. Hence, 'advisary' is the incorrect spelling here.
  • It's important to note that 'advisary' is not just a misspelling of 'adversary', it doesn't exist as a word in English.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Question 72

Select the CORRECTLY spelt word.

  1. AOption (a)

    Arrangment

  2. BOption (b)

    Arrangement

  3. COption (c)

    Arangement 

  4. DOption (d)

    Arrangemant

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Arrangement

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Arrangement'

 Key Points

  • 'Arrangement' is the correctly spelled word in this context. The others are variations of the correct spelling 'Arrangement'.
  • Spelling errors can significantly change the meaning of a word or make it non-existing.
  • The other options such as 'Arrangment', 'Arangement', and 'Arrangemant' are misspellings of the word 'Arrangement'.
  • It is important to remember the correct spellings as it can drastically change the context of a sentence or phrase when used.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Question 73

n the following question, out of the four given options, select the one that best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

A plum job.

  1. AOption (a)

    An expression of good-luck. 

  2. BOption (b)

    A situation of having no job.

  3. COption (c)

    A difficult job with many hardships. 

  4. DOption (d)

    An easy pleasant job that also pays well. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

An easy pleasant job that also pays well. 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'An easy pleasant job that also pays well. '

 Key Points

  • 'A plum job' is an idiom in English that refers to a job which is considered easy and pleasant, but also pays well.
  • Idioms often cannot be translated literally and need to be understood in the context they are used.
  • This idiom is derived from the use of the word 'plum' as an adjective meaning 'choice' or 'desirable', frequently in the term 'plum job'.
  • The other options such as 'An expression of good-luck', 'A situation of having no job', and 'A difficult job with many hardships' do not convey the meaning of this idiom.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Question 74

In the following question, out of the four given options, select the one that best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

To walk the tight rope

  1. AOption (a)

    Be very nervous

  2. BOption (b)

    Be very cautious

  3. COption (c)

    Be well trained 

  4. DOption (d)

    Be an expert

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Be very cautious

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Be very cautious'

 Key Points

  • 'To walk the tightrope' is an idiom that means to maintain a careful balance between different conditions, factors, or interests.
  • This idiom is derived from the literal act of walking on a tightrope, where caution is required to keep balance and avoid falling.
  • Therefore, the answer 'Be very cautious' best fits the meaning of this idiom.
  • The other options such as 'Be very nervous', 'Be well trained', and 'Be an expert' do not accurately convey the meaning of this idiom.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Question 75

Select the word which means the same as the following group of the words.

Mental disturbance caused by an illness.

  1. AOption (a)

    Dilemma

  2. BOption (b)

    Delirium

  3. COption (c)

    Discrepancy

  4. DOption (d)

    Diurnal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Delirium

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Delirium'

 Key Points

  • 'Delirium' is a condition of severe confusion and rapid changes in brain function, often caused by physical or mental illness.
  • This term directly corresponds to the definition "Mental disturbance caused by an illness."
  • 'Dilemma', 'Discrepancy', and 'Diurnal' do not match the definition provided. A dilemma is a difficult choice or decision; a discrepancy is an inconsistency or mismatch; diurnal means daily or of the daytime.
  • Given the definition and the options provided, 'Delirium' is the term that best matches the definition.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Read the following passage and answer the questions below.

The G-7 summit, at Carbis Bay, sent out two very strong messages. The first was driven by the United States’ new President Joseph Biden and his vow that “America is back” to take the lead on global challenges. The G-7 commitment to donate one billion coronavirus vaccines to poorer countries and to invest $12 trillion in their combined pandemic recovery plan depends on the U.S. commitments for a large part. The special communiqué on “Open Societies” for the G-7 outreach, and the invitation to “fellow democracies” India, Australia, South Korea and South Africa are also an extension of his stated commitment to convening a Democracy Summit this year. Even the slogan for the G-7, “Build Back Better”, was a White House term to declare America’s economy and jobs recovery plan. The second message was the consensus amongst the seven-member countries on countering China. The final G-7 communiqué holds no less than four direct references to China, each negative, including criticising Beijing for its rights record in Xinjiang and democratic freedoms in Hong Kong, its “non-market policies and practices...”, concerns over its actions in the China Seas, and a demand for a transparent investigation into the origins of the COVID-19 virus. Though the bonhomie among the G-7 leaders was palpable, the differences and contradictions in the grouping remain a challenge.

Even two decades ago, questions were raised about whether the grouping (earlier, the G-8), could claim its mantle as the world’s “richest” countries, when emerging economies, China and India, are not included. On economic issues, the EU is a more representative unit than the individual European G-7 member countries. Finally, the premise of a group like the G-7, that of an exclusive club of the “haves” or “the best vs the rest”, seems anachronistic in a world that is much more interlinked now than in 1975, when the grouping first came about. India, a special guest to the G-7/G-8 since 2003, has also maintained its independent course.

Question 76

According to the passage, what was the second message of the G-7 summit?

  1. AOption (a)

    Combined pandemic recovery plan in the world.

  2. BOption (b)

    Economy and jobs recovery plan in countries.

  3. COption (c)

    To handle economic issues globally.

  4. DOption (d)

    The consensus amongst the seven-member countries on countering China.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The consensus amongst the seven-member countries on countering China.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'The consensus amongst the seven-member countries on countering China.'

Key Points

  • In the given passage, the second strong message from the G-7 summit as stated was the consensus among its seven-member countries about countering China.
  • The first message, mentioned before the second in the passage, was driven by the US President, and related to commitment on global challenges, including vaccine donation and investment in the pandemic recovery plan.
  • While the other options listed have been addressed in varying degrees within the text, they do not align directly with the text's clear mention of the second message.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Question 77

What does the word ‘Bonhomie’ mean in the given passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Friendliness and happiness. 

  2. BOption (b)

    The most contemptible kind of something. 

  3. COption (c)

    Shrewdness shown by keen insight. 

  4. DOption (d)

    In an opposing direction. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Friendliness and happiness. 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Friendliness and happiness.'

Key Points

  • The word 'Bonhomie' has been used in the passage to describe the spirit of good-natured friendliness among the G-7 leaders.
  • 'Bonhomie' is a French origin term meaning pleasant and friendly atmosphere or good natured easy friendliness.
  • The context of the sentence clearly suggests a positive and friendly atmosphere, rather than anything negative or strategically savvy.
  • Thus, the 'Friendliness and happiness' meaning aligns correctly with the use of 'Bonhomie' in the text.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Question 78

The term ‘Build Back Better’ represents

  1. AOption (a)

    An exclusive group.

  2. BOption (b)

    America’s economy and jobs recovery plan.

  3. COption (c)

    The current challenges at world level. 

  4. DOption (d)

    Coronavirus vaccines to poorer countries.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

America’s economy and jobs recovery plan.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'America’s economy and jobs recovery plan.'

Key Points

  • 'Build Back Better' has been identified as a White House term for America's plan for economic recovery and job creation.
  • The passage suggests that this term was even adapted as the slogan for the G-7.
  • The phrase 'Build Back Better' implies an aim to not just recover, but improve upon previous states, thus it's used here to signify an ambitious plan for economic growth and job creation.
  • The other options presented, while significant in broader discussions, do not accurately capture what 'Build Back Better' represents within this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Question 79

According to the given passage, what was the slogan for the G-7?

  1. AOption (a)

    The haves and have-nots. 

  2. BOption (b)

    The best vs the rest. 

  3. COption (c)

    Open Societies

  4. DOption (d)

    Build Back Better

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Build Back Better

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Build Back Better'

Key Points

  • The passage clearly states that the slogan for the G-7 was 'Build Back Better'.
  • This term is directly referenced as the slogan, making this the correct choice over the other options.
  • The slogan 'Build Back Better' was used to signify an aim to improve and refresh economies and job markets in the wake of the pandemic.
  • While other phrases were also present and significant throughout the meeting, 'Build Back Better' was explicitly termed as the slogan.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Question 80

According to the passage, on economic issues, which one is a more representative unit than the individual European G-7 member countries? 

  1. AOption (a)

    China

  2. BOption (b)

    The USA

  3. COption (c)

    India

  4. DOption (d)

    The EU 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The EU 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'The EU'

Key Points

  • The passage suggests that on economic issues, the European Union (EU) is more representative than the individual European countries that are part of the G-7.
  • This is because the EU is an economic and political union involving 27 European countries, encompassing territories beyond those of individual G-7 European member countries.
  • While China, the USA, and India are all significant in the global economic context, the passage does not suggest them as more representative units in economic issues over the individual European G-7 member countries.
  • The context of the sentence in the passage directly suggests a comparison between the EU and individual European G-7 members, rather than inclusion of other nations or entities mentioned in the choices.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

General Hindi (20 questions)

Question 81

निम्‍नलिखित में से "सहानुभूति" का सही संधि-विच्छेद कौन-सा है?

  1. AOption (a)

    सह + अनुभूति

  2. BOption (b)

    सः + अनुभूति

  3. COption (c)

    सहानु + भूति

  4. DOption (d)

    सहान + अनुभूति

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

सह + अनुभूति

Why this answer is correct

‘सहानुभूति’ का संधि विच्छेद है - 'सह + अनुभूति'

  • सह + अनुभूति = सहानुभूति (अ + अ = आ)
  • सहानुभूति में दीर्घ संधि है।
  • सहानुभूति - किसी के दुःख आदि की अनुभूति, हमदर्दी, संवेदना।

Key Pointsदीर्घ संधि:-

  • जब दो शब्दों की संधि करते समय (अ, आ) के साथ (अ, आ) हो तो ‘आ‘ बनता है,
  • जब (इ, ई) के साथ (इ, ई) हो तो ‘ई‘ बनता है, जब (उ, ऊ) के साथ (उ, ऊ) हो तो ‘ऊ‘ बनता है।

उदाहरण -

  • विद्या + अभ्यास = विद्याभ्यास (आ + अ = आ)
  • कवि + ईश्वर = कवीश्वर (इ + ई = ई)
  • वधु + उत्सव = वधूत्सव (उ + उ = ऊ)

Question 82

निम्‍नलिखित में से रूढ़ शब्‍द का चयन कीजिए-

  1. AOption (a)

    पनघट

  2. BOption (b)

    मत

  3. COption (c)

    बुद्धिमान

  4. DOption (d)

    फलवाला

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

मत

Why this answer is correct

रूढ़ शब्‍द है- मत

Key Pointsरूढ़ शब्द-

  • जो शब्द हमेशा किसी विशेष अर्थ को प्रकट करते हो तथा जिनके खण्डों का कोई अर्थ न निकले, उन्हें 'रूढ़' कहते है।
  • जैसे -
  • नाक, कान, पीला, पर, झट आदि।
  • इन शब्दों के खंड करने पर इनका कोई अर्थ नहीं निकलता (जैसे - 'नाक' शब्द में 'ना' और 'क' का कोई अर्थ नहीं निकल रहा है)

Question 83

निम्‍नलिखित में से कौन-सा शब्‍द बहुव्रीहि समास का सही उदाहरण है?

  1. AOption (a)

    सुखदुख

  2. BOption (b)

    कमलनयन

  3. COption (c)

    वीणापाणि

  4. DOption (d)

    आपबीती

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

वीणापाणि

Why this answer is correct

बहुव्रीहि समास का सही उदाहरण है- वीणापाणि

Key Points

  • सुखदुख = द्वंद्व समास
  • कमलनयन = कर्मधारय समास
  • आपबीती = तत्पुरुष समास

Important Points

समास - समास उस प्रक्रिया को कहते हैं, जिसमें दो शब्द मिलाकर उनके बीच के संबंधसूचक आदि का लोप करके नया शब्द बनाया जाता है। समास से तात्पर्य 'संक्षिप्तीकरण' से है। समास के माध्यम से कम शब्दों में अधिक अर्थ प्रकट किया जाता है। जैसे - राजा का पुत्र – राजपुत्र, समास के छःप्रकार हैं -
समास का नामपरिभाषाउदाहरण
तत्पुरुष समासजिस समास में उत्तरपद प्रधान हो तथा समास करने के उपरांत विभक्ति (कारक चिन्ह) का लोप हो।धर्म का ग्रन्थ = धर्मग्रन्थ, तुलसीदास द्वारा कृत = तुलसीदासकृत।
बहुव्रीहि समासजिस समास में दोनों पद प्रधान नहीं होते हैं और दोनों पद मिलकर किसी अन्य विशेष अर्थ की ओर संकेत कर रहे होते हैं।जो महान वीर है = महावीर अर्थात हनुमान, तीन आँखों वाला = त्रिलोचन अर्थात शिव।
कर्मधारय समासजिस समास के दोनों शब्दों के बीच विशेषण-विशेष्य अथवा उपमान-उपमेय का सम्बन्ध हो, पहचान: विग्रह करने पर दोनों पद के मध्य में 'है जो', 'के समान' आदि आते हैं।कमल के समान नयन = कमलनयन, महान है जो देव = महादेव।
द्विगु समासजिस समास में पूर्वपद (पहला पद) संख्यावाचक विशेषण हो।दो पहरों का समूह = दोपहर, तीनों लोकों का समाहार = त्रिलोक।
अव्ययीभाव समासजिस समास में पहला पद प्रधान हो और समस्त शब्द अव्यय का काम करे।प्रति + दिन = प्रतिदिन, एक + एक = एकाएक
द्वंद्व समासद्वन्द्व समास में समस्तपद के दोनों पद प्रधान हों या दोनों पद सामान हों एवं दोंनों पदों को मिलाते समय "और, अथवा, या, एवं" आदि योजक लुप्त हो जाएँ, वह समास द्वंद्व समास कहलाता है।माता- पिता = माता और पिता, हाँ- न = हाँ या न

Question 84

शब्‍द "तिरस्‍कार" का सही विशेषण रूप निम्‍नलिखित में से कौन-सा है?

  1. AOption (a)

    तिलस्म

  2. BOption (b)

    तिलस्मी

  3. COption (c)

    तिरस्कारवाला

  4. DOption (d)

    तिरस्कृत

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

तिरस्कृत

Why this answer is correct

शब्‍द "तिरस्‍कार" का सही विशेषण रूप तिरस्कृत है।

Key Points

तिरस्कृत -

  • यह शब्द "तिरस्कार" का विशेषण रूप होता है।
  • यह शब्द संस्कृत का है और इसका अर्थ होता है "निरादरित" या "उपेक्षित"।
  • यह शब्द व्यक्ति या वस्तु को वर्णन करने के लिए उपयोग हो सकता है, जो तिरस्कार की स्थिति में हो।

Additional Information

  • विशेषण वह शब्द होता है जो किसी संज्ञा या सर्वनाम की विशेषता बताता है।
  • विशेषण के द्वारा हम किसी संज्ञा की गुणवत्ता, रंग, आकार, मात्रा, संख्या, स्थिति, आदि के बारे में जानकारी प्राप्त करते हैं।

Question 85

निम्‍नलिखित में से "निरर्थक" का पर्यायवाची शब्‍द कौन-सा है?

  1. AOption (a)

    सार्थक

  2. BOption (b)

    बेकार

  3. COption (c)

    सफल

  4. DOption (d)

    सिद्ध

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

बेकार

Why this answer is correct

"निरर्थक" का पर्यायवाची शब्‍द है- बेकार

Key Points"निरर्थक" के अन्य पर्यायवाची शब्‍द है-

  • बेकार, अर्थहीन, अर्थशून्य, निष्फल, व्यर्थ, असंगत, फिजूल आदि।

Additional Information

शब्दपरिभाषाउदाहरण
पर्यायवाचीजो विभिन्न शब्द एक ही अर्थ का बोध कराएं, उन्हें पर्यायवाची शब्द कहते हैं। सामान्य भाषा में इनको समानार्थक शब्द भी कहते हैं।अक्षर- वर्ण, हर्फ़ आज्ञा- आदेश, हुक्म, निर्देश

Question 86

निम्‍नलिखित में से शब्‍द के शुद्ध रूप/ वर्तनी का चयन कीजिए-

  1. AOption (a)

    दर्शनभिलाषी

  2. BOption (b)

    दर्शनाभीलाषी

  3. COption (c)

    दर्शनाभिलाषी

  4. DOption (d)

    दर्शनअभिलाषी

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

दर्शनाभिलाषी

Why this answer is correct

शुद्ध रूप/ वर्तनी है- दर्शनाभिलाषी

Key Pointsदर्शनाभिलाषी का अर्थ-

  • दर्शन की इच्छा रखने वाला

Additional Information

वर्तनीलिखने की रीति को वर्तनी कहते हैं। ‘वर्तनी’ शब्द का अर्थ ‘पीछे चलना’ है। अर्थात उच्चारित होने वाले शब्द के लेखन में प्रयोग होने वाले लिपि चिह्नों के व्यवस्थित रूप को वर्तनी कहा जाता है।

Question 87

निम्‍नलिखित में से "उन्‍मूलन" का विलोम शब्‍द कौन-सा है?

  1. AOption (a)

    तिमिर

  2. BOption (b)

    पतन

  3. COption (c)

    उद्वेग

  4. DOption (d)

    रोपण

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

रोपण

Why this answer is correct

"उन्‍मूलन" का विलोम शब्‍द है- रोपण

Key Points

  • "उन्मूलन" शब्द का अर्थ होता है- 'जड़ से नष्ट करना' या 'पूरी तरह से हटाना'
  • इसका विलोम शब्द (विपरीतार्थी) वह होगा जिसका अर्थ 'स्थापना करना' या 'जड़ना' हो।

Important Points

  • तिमिर - इसका अर्थ होता है 'अंधकार' या 'अंधेरा'।
  • पतन - इसका अर्थ होता है 'गिरना' या 'नीचे आना'।
  • उद्वेग - इसका अर्थ होता है 'चिंता' या 'उत्तेजना'।
  • रोपण - इसका  अर्थ होता है 'पौधा लगाना' या 'स्थापना करना'।  यह शब्द "उन्मूलन" के अर्थ 'जड़ से नष्ट करना' का विपरीत होता है।

Additional Informationविलोम शब्द-

  • विलोम शब्द का अर्थ होता है एक शब्द जिसका अर्थ या विषय दूसरे शब्द के विपरीत होता है।
  • विलोम शब्द द्वारा विपरीत भाव या विरोधी अर्थ व्यक्त किया जाता है।
  • उदाहरण-
  • अच्छा (विलोम शब्द: बुरा)
  • ऊपर (विलोम शब्द: नीचे)
  • जीवित (विलोम शब्द: मरा)
  • खुश (विलोम शब्द: दुखी)
  • सुंदर (विलोम शब्द: बदसूरत)

Question 88

दिए गए शब्‍द-युग्‍म के सही अर्थ-भेद का चयन कीजिए-

उद्धार - उधार

  1. AOption (a)

    कर्ज- उधार 

  2. BOption (b)

    कंजूस - कल्‍याण

  3. COption (c)

    कष्‍ट से मुक्ति - कर्ज

  4. DOption (d)

    चकवा पक्षी- रचना

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

कष्‍ट से मुक्ति - कर्ज

Why this answer is correct

"उद्धार - उधार" शब्‍द-युग्‍म का सही अर्थ-भेद है-  कष्‍ट से मुक्ति - कर्ज

  • "कष्ट से मुक्ति" उद्धार का ठीक अर्थ है। हालांकि, "कर्ज" उधार का अर्थ है।

Key Points

समश्रुत शब्दकुछ शब्द ऐसे होते हैं जिनमें स्वर, मात्रा अथवा व्यंजन में थोड़ा-सा अन्तर होता है। वे बोलचाल में लगभग एक जैसे लगते हैं, परन्तु उनके अर्थ में भिन्नता होती है। ऐसे शब्द 'समश्रुत/श्रुतिसम भिन्नार्थक शब्द' कहलाते हैं।
उदाहरणजैसे- घन और धन दोनों के उच्चारण में कोई खास अन्तर महसूस नहीं होता परन्तु अर्थ में भिन्नता है। घन-बादल, धन-सम्पत्ति

Additional Information

  • "कर्ज" और "उधार" दोनों लोन या उधार लेने के प्रक्रिया का वर्णन करते हैं।

Question 89

निम्‍नलिखित में से सम्‍बोधन कारक की सही विभक्ति का चयन कीजिए-

  1. AOption (a)

    का, के, की

  2. BOption (b)

    हे, अजी, अहो एवं अरे

  3. COption (c)

    से, के, द्वारा

  4. DOption (d)

    में, पर

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

हे, अजी, अहो एवं अरे

Why this answer is correct

सम्‍बोधन कारक का सही विभक्ति है- हे, अजी, अहो एवं अरे

Important Points

कारककारक का अर्थ होता है किसी कार्य को करने वाला। यानी जो भी क्रिया को करने में भूमिका निभाता है, वह कारक कहलाता है। इसके निम्न भेद हैं -वह रोज़ सुबह गंगा किनारे जाता है।
भेदपरिभाषाविभक्ति
कर्ता कारकजो वाक्य में कार्य को करता है, वह कर्ता कहलाता है। कर्ता वाक्य का वह रूप होता अहि जिसमे कार्य को करने वाले का पता चलता है।ने
कर्म कारकवह वस्तु या व्यक्ति जिस पर वाक्य में की गयी क्रिया का प्रभाव पड़ता है वह कर्म कहलाता है।को
करण कारकवह साधन जिससे क्रिया होती है, वह करण कहलाता है। यानि, जिसकी सहायता से किसी काम को अंजाम दिया जाता वह करण कारक कहलाता है।से, के द्वारा
सम्प्रदान कारकजब वाक्य में किसी को कुछ दिया जाए या किसी के लिए कुछ किया जाए तो वहां पर सम्प्रदान कारक होता है।के लिए
अपादान कारकजब संज्ञा या सर्वनाम के किसी रूप से किन्हीं दो वस्तुओं के अलग होने का बोध होता है, तब वहां अपादान कारक होता है।से (अलग होना)
संबंध कारकसंज्ञा या सर्वनाम का वह रूप जो हमें किन्हीं दो वस्तुओं के बीच संबंध का बोध कराता है, वह संबंध कारक कहलाता है।का, के, की
अधिकरण कारकसंज्ञा का वह रूप जिससे क्रिया के आधार का बोध हो उसे अधिकरण कारक कहते हैं।में, पर
संबोधन कारकसंज्ञा या सर्वनाम का वह रूप जिससे किसी को बुलाने, पुकारने या बोलने का बोध होता है, तो वह सम्बोधन कारक कहलाता है।हे!, अरे!

Question 90

निम्‍नलिखित में से स्‍त्रीलिंग शब्‍द का चयन कीजिए-

  1. AOption (a)

    राज्‍यसभा

  2. BOption (b)

    समुदाय

  3. COption (c)

    प्राधिकरण

  4. DOption (d)

    विद्यापीठ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

राज्‍यसभा

Why this answer is correct

स्‍त्रीलिंग शब्‍द है- राज्‍यसभा

  • अन्य शब्द पुल्लिंग है।

Key Points

  • स्त्रीलिंग - स्त्री जाति का बोध कराने वाले शब्द स्त्रीलिंग कहलाते हैं| जैसे:- सभा, महिला, दया, शिक्षा आदि।
  • पुल्लिंग - पुरुष जाति का बोध कराने वाले शब्द पुल्लिंग कहलाते हैं। जैसे:-मनुष्य, मस्तक, प्रश्न, चित्र आदि।
  • जवाब, सवाल, पियानो - पुल्लिंग शब्द है।

Additional Information

लिंगसंज्ञा के जिस रूप से उसके नर या मादा जाति का बोध हो उसे लिंग कहते हैं। लिंग के भेद - पुल्लिंग व स्त्रीलिंग|

Question 91

दिए गए निश्‍चयवाचक वाक्‍य को प्रश्‍नवाचक वाक्‍य में परिवर्तन कर सही प्रश्‍नवाचक वाक्‍य का चयन कीजिए-

मोहन किसी न किसी तरह से उत्‍तीर्ण हो गया।

  1. AOption (a)

    मोहन कैसे अनुउत्‍तीर्ण हो सकता है?

  2. BOption (b)

    मोहन किसी न किसी तरह से अनुत्‍तीर्ण हो गया।

  3. COption (c)

    मोहन ऐसे कैसे उत्‍तीर्ण हो गया?

  4. DOption (d)

    मोहन कैसे उत्‍तीर्ण हो गया?

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

मोहन कैसे उत्‍तीर्ण हो गया?

Why this answer is correct

प्रश्‍नवाचक वाक्‍य है-  मोहन कैसे उत्‍तीर्ण हो गया?

Key Points

वाक्यदो या दो से अधिक शब्दों के सार्थक समूह को कहते हैं। मुख्य रूप से इसके तीन प्रकार माने गए हैं -
परिभाषाउदाहरण
सरलऐसे वाक्य जिनमें एक ही क्रिया एवं एक ही कर्ता होता है या जिस वाक्य में एक ही उद्देश्य एवं एक ही विधेय होता है, वे वाक्य सरल वाक्य कहलाते हैं। इसमें कर्ता एक से अधिक हो सकते हैं लेकिन मुख्य क्रिया एक ही होगी।राकेश पढ़ता है। कमला और विमला मंदिर जाती हैं।
संयुक्तजिस वाक्य में दो या दो से अधिक उपवाक्य मिले हों, परन्तु सभी वाक्य प्रधान हो तो ऐसे वाक्य को संयुक्त वाक्य कहते है। संयोजक अभियोग के रूप में बहुत सारे शब्द जैसे: और, एवं, फिर, या, अथवा, परंतु, इसलिए, तथा, तो, नहीं तो, भी, किंतु इत्यादि शब्दों का प्रयोग होता है।वह सुबह आगरा गया और शाम को लौट आया।
मिश्रजिस वाक्य में एक से अधिक वाक्य मिले हों, किन्तु एक प्रधान उपवाक्य तथा शेष आश्रित उपवाक्य हों, मिश्रित वाक्य कहलाता है। जैसे: आपस में, कि, जो, क्योंकि, जितना, उतना, जैसा, वैसा, जब, तब, जहाँ, वहाँ, जिधर, उधर, यद्यपि, यदि, अगर, तो इत्यादि।वह औरत जो पार्क में बैठी हैं मेरी मौसी हैं।

Question 92

निम्‍नलिखित में से शुद्ध वर्तनी वाले वाक्‍य का चयन कीजिए-

  1. AOption (a)

    आपस में मिलकर परस्‍पर सहयोग करो।

  2. BOption (b)

    आप कभी भी किसी समय हमारें घर आऍं।

  3. COption (c)

    हमारे यहां नवयुवकों की शिक्षा की अच्‍छी व्‍यवस्‍था है।

  4. DOption (d)

    आज कई अनेक अपराधी गिरफ्तार किए गए।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

हमारे यहां नवयुवकों की शिक्षा की अच्‍छी व्‍यवस्‍था है।

Why this answer is correct

शुद्ध वर्तनी वाला वाक्‍य है- हमारे यहां नवयुवकों की शिक्षा की अच्‍छी व्‍यवस्‍था है।

Key Pointsआप कभी भी किसी समय हमारें घर आऍं। -

  • यह वाक्य अशुद्ध वर्तनी का उपयोग करता है। 'हमारें' की जगह 'हमारे' होना चाहिए और 'आऍं' की जगह 'आएं' होना चाहिए।

आज कई अनेक अपराधी गिरफ्तार किए गए। -

  • यह वाक्य अशुद्ध वर्तनी का उपयोग करता है। 'कई अनेक' में से एक शब्द ही चुना जा सकता है, क्योंकि दोनों शब्दों का अर्थ समान है।

Additional Information

  • वाक्य सम्प्रेषण की सबसे महत्वपूर्ण और सार्थक इकाई होती है।
  • अतः वाक्यगत अशुद्धियाँ को शुद्ध रूप में लिखना सम्प्रेषण को अधिक सरल बनाता है। वाक्य में, संज्ञा, सर्वनाम, लिंग, वचन, क्रिया-विशेषण, क्रिया, विशेषण आदि संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ हो सकती हैं।

Question 93

निम्‍नलिखित में से मुहावरा "जोंकजों होकर लिपटना" का क्‍या अर्थ है?

  1. AOption (a)

    किसी प्रकार की बीमारी से पीड़ित होना। 

  2. BOption (b)

    बुरी तरह पीछे पड़ना। 

  3. COption (c)

    विरत होना

  4. DOption (d)

    जान-बूझकर अन्‍याय सहना।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

बुरी तरह पीछे पड़ना। 

Why this answer is correct

मुहावरा "जोंकजों होकर लिपटना" का अर्थ है- बुरी तरह पीछे पड़ना

  • यह मुहावरा व्यक्ति की उस स्थिति का वर्णन करता है जब वह किसी के पीछे बुरी तरह से लग जाता है, उससे छुटकारा पाने का प्रयास नहीं करता, और अक्सर वह व्यक्ति या स्थिति से लाभ उठाने की कोशिश करता है

Additional Informationमुहावरा-

  • मुहावरा मूलतः एक अरबी भाषा का शब्द है जिसका अर्थ अभ्यास करना है।
  • उदाहरण-
  • लाल-पीला होना - गुस्सा करना।
  • वाक्य प्रयोग - रीना के साथ श्याम को देखकर रीना के पिता लाल-पीले होने लगे।
  • बत्तीसी दिखाना-निर्लज्जतापूर्वक हँसना।
  • वाक्य प्रयोग -मंजू परीक्षा में फ़ैल हो जाने के बाद भी अपनी बत्तीसी दिखा रही थी।
  • आँखों का तारा- बहुत प्यारा
  • वाक्य प्रयोग -अक्षत अपनी माँ की आँखों का तारा है।
  • हाथ बढ़ाना- मदद करना
  • वाक्य प्रयोग -सुमन ने रवि को अकेला काम करते देख उसका हाथ बँटा दिया।

Question 94

निम्‍नलिखित में से किस लोकोक्ति का अर्थ "किसी भी उपाय से स्‍वभाव नहीं बदलता" है? 

  1. AOption (a)

    गधा धोने से बछड़ा नहीं हो जाता।

  2. BOption (b)

    खरबूजे को देखकर खरबूजा रंग बदलता है। 

  3. COption (c)

    कानी के ब्‍याह को सौ जोखो।

  4. DOption (d)

    कखरी लरका गॉंव गोहार।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

गधा धोने से बछड़ा नहीं हो जाता।

Why this answer is correct

गधा धोने से बछड़ा नहीं हो जाता - लोकोक्ति का अर्थ "किसी भी उपाय से स्‍वभाव नहीं बदलता" है। 

Key Pointsगधा धोने से बछड़ा नहीं हो जाता। -

  • इसका अर्थ है कि किसी के मूल स्वभाव को किसी भी उपाय से नहीं बदला जा सकता।
  • इसे समझने का एक सरल तरीका यह है कि आप एक गधे को धोकर इतना साफ़ कर सकते हैं कि वह बछड़ा लगने लगे, लेकिन अंततः वह अभी भी एक गधा ही रहेगा।

Additional Information

  • खरबूजे को देखकर खरबूजा रंग बदलता है। - यह लोकोक्ति असर और प्रभाव की बात करती है।
  • कानी के ब्याह को सौ जोखो। - यह लोकोक्ति एक असाधारण स्थिति के बारे में होती है।
  • कखरी लरका गॉंव गोहार। - यह लोकोक्ति एक छोटी चीज की महत्व को दर्शाती है।

Important Points

  • लोकोक्ति का अर्थ होता है ऐसे वाक्यांश या वाक्य, जो लोगों के द्वारा बार-बार और व्यापक रूप से प्रयोग किए जाते हैं और जिनमें कोई नैतिक, सामाजिक या व्यक्तिगत सत्य या अनुभव संक्षेपित रूप से प्रस्तुत किया गया हो।
  • अन्य लोकोक्ति उदाहरण: 
  • "धोबी का कुत्ता, ना घर का ना घाट का" - यह लोकोक्ति उन लोगों के लिए उपयोगी होती है जो किसी भी समुदाय या समूह से जुड़े नहीं होते हैं और इसलिए उन्हें कहीं भी स्थान नहीं मिलता।
  • "कर भला हो भला" - यह लोकोक्ति अच्छे कर्मों की महत्ता को बताती है, यह कहती है कि जो लोग अच्छा करते हैं, उन्हें अच्छा ही मिलता है।
  • "आवा बाटे छोटकी, बाप बड़े ना भाई" - यह लोकोक्ति यह बताती है कि सबसे महत्वपूर्ण चीज व्यक्ति की योग्यता और क्षमता होती है, ना की उसकी जन्म की स्थिति।

Question 95

निम्‍नलिखित में से किस वाक्‍य में उद्धरण चिन्‍ह का प्रयोग किया गया है?

  1. AOption (a)

    अच्छा, तो चला जाय।

  2. BOption (b)

    "रघुकुल रीति सदा चली आई। प्राण जाय पर वचन न जाई॥"

  3. COption (c)

    आकाश में काले - काले बादल छा गए; बिजली चमकने लगी; बादल गरजने लगे और वर्षा की बूंदे टप - टप धरती पर गिरने लगी।

  4. DOption (d)

    कम-से-कम, ज्यादा-से-ज्यादा।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

"रघुकुल रीति सदा चली आई। प्राण जाय पर वचन न जाई॥"

Why this answer is correct

"रघुकुल रीति सदा चली आई। प्राण जाय पर वचन न जाई॥"- वाक्‍य में उद्धरण चिन्‍ह का प्रयोग किया गया है।

Key Points

  • उद्धरण चिन्ह (" ") का प्रयोग तब किया जाता है जब हम किसी के शब्दों को सीधे प्रयोग करते हैं, या फिर किसी कविता, गाने, उक्ति, आदि का उल्लेख करते हैं।
  • इसका प्रयोग सीधे उद्धरण को हाइलाइट करने के लिए भी किया जाता है।

Important Points

विराम चिन्ह  – भाषा के लिखित रूप में विशेष स्थानों पर रुकने का संकेत करने वाले चिन्हों को विराम चिन्ह कहते हैं। विराम चिन्ह के भेद –
विराम चिन्ह का नामउदाहरणविराम  - चिन्ह
पूर्ण विरामबाजार खुल गया।।
अर्द्ध विराम चिन्हमुख्य अतिथि आ गए हैं; वह शीघ्र चले जाएंगे।;
अल्प विराम चिह्नराकेश, मोहन, शीतल और पंकज ने यह चित्र बनाया है।,
प्रश्न सूचक चिन्हतुम्हारी माताजी का नाम क्या है ??
विस्मय सूचक या आश्चर्य चिह्नवाह ! कितना सुंदर दृश्य है।!
संयोजक या योजक चिन्हमैं दिन–रात यही सोचता रहा।-
निर्देशक चिन्हश्री जितेंद्र जी ने कहा _ सत्य के मार्ग पर चलना चाहिए।_
अवतरण चिन्ह या उद्धरण चिन्हगांधी जी ने कहाँ था "अहिंसा परम धर्म है”‘….’ “…”
कोष्ठक चिन्हदशहरे के दिन दशानन (रावण) का दहन किया जाता है।[ {()} ]
उप विराम (अपूर्ण विराम)विज्ञान: वरदान या अभिशाप:
विवरण चिन्हनिम्नलिखित प्रश्नों का उत्तर दीजिये :-:-
पुनरुक्ति सूचक चिन्ह„ „
लाघव चिन्हडॉक्टर – डॉ०, प्रोफेसर – प्रो००
हंसपद या त्रुटिपूरक चिन्हआगरा राम कल ^  जायेगा।^
लोप चिन्हमैं पास तो आ जाऊँगा…… लेकिन साथ नहीं चलूँगा।……
दीर्घ उच्चारण चिन्हS
तुल्यता सूचक चिन्ह4 + 4 = 8=
समाप्ति सूचक चिन्ह- , o

निम्‍नलिखित गद्यांश का ध्‍यानपूर्वक अध्‍ययन कर प्रश्‍नों के उत्‍तर दीजिए-

सामान्यतः दुष्‍टों की वंदना में या तो भय रहता है या व्यंग्‍य, परंतु जहां हम हानि होने के पहले ही हानि के कारण की वंदना करने लगते हैं वहां हमारी वंदना के मूल में भय नहीं बल्कि उसकी स्थाई दशा की आशंका है। इस वंदना में दुष्‍टों को थपकी देकर सुलाने की चाल है जिसमें विघ्‍न बाधाओं से जान बच सके। आशंका से उत्पन्न या नम्रता गोस्वामी जी को आश्रय से आलंबन बना देती है। जब स्‍फुट अंशों के संचारी भावों तथा अनुभवों को छोड़कर वंदना के पीछे निहित भावना की दृष्टि से देखते हैं, तो यह आश्रय से संक्रमित आलंबन का उदाहरण बन जाता है। संतों, तों देवताओं तथा राम की वंदना पर्याप्त नहीं इसलिए दुष्‍टों की भी वंदना की जाती है। इससे दुष्टों के महत्व की भायिक सृष्टि होती है और वह उन्हें और भी उपहास्‍य बना देती है।

Question 96

उपर्युक्‍त गद्यांश के लिए निम्‍न में से सर्वाधिक उचित शीर्षक का चयन कीजिए-

  1. AOption (a)

    गोस्वामी तुलसीदास जी का मानीय दृष्टिकोण।

  2. BOption (b)

    तुलसीदास जी का जीवन परिचय।

  3. COption (c)

    तुलसीदास जी की रचनाएं।

  4. DOption (d)

    वंदना का महत्‍व।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

वंदना का महत्‍व।

Why this answer is correct

उपर्युक्‍त गद्यांश का सर्वाधिक उचित शीर्षक है- वंदना का महत्‍व।

Key Points

  • इस गद्यांश में, वंदना, या पूजन, दुष्टों के प्रति की जाती है, और उसके विभिन्न पहलुओं पर विचार किया गया है।
  • वंदना का उपयोग भय, व्यंग्य, आशंका और आलंबन के रूप में वर्णित किया गया है।
  • गद्यांश उनके महत्व को समझाने का प्रयास करता है और यह सुझाव देता है कि वंदना का उपयोग किसी को और अधिक उपहास्य बनाने के लिए भी किया जा सकता है।

Question 97

उपर्युक्‍त गद्यांश के अनुसार, दुष्‍ट वंदना के पीछे लेखक का क्‍या उद्देश्‍य है? 

  1. AOption (a)

    दुष्‍टों को भी वंदना का आर्शीवाद देना।

  2. BOption (b)

    दुष्‍टों को भी परस्‍पर सम्‍मान दिलाना।

  3. COption (c)

    दुष्‍टों को लाभ पहुचाना।

  4. DOption (d)

    दुष्‍टों को थपकी देकर सुलाना।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

दुष्‍टों को थपकी देकर सुलाना।

Why this answer is correct

गद्यांश के आधार पर, दुष्‍ट वंदना के पीछे लेखक का उद्देश्‍य है- "दुष्‍टों को थपकी देकर सुलाना।"

Key Points

  • यहां लेखक वंदना की अद्वितीय भावना को वर्णन करते हैं, जिसमें उनका उद्देश्य दुष्टों को 'थपकी देकर सुलाना' हो सकता है।
  • यह संकेत करता है कि वंदना का उद्देश्य हो सकता है कि दुष्ट व्यक्ति को कुछ हद तक अपने दुष्ट कर्मों से विचलित या विघ्नित करना है, जिससे वे अन्यों को कम नुकसान पहुंचा सकें।

Question 98

निम्‍नलिखित में से श्रृंगार रस का स्‍थायी भाव क्‍या है?

  1. AOption (a)

    हास्य

  2. BOption (b)

    जुगुप्सा

  3. COption (c)

    रति

  4. DOption (d)

    वात्सल्य

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

रति

Why this answer is correct

श्रृंगार रस का स्‍थायी भाव है- रति

Key Pointsरस एवं उनके स्थायी भाव-

रसस्थायी भाव
शृंगाररति
करुणशोक
हास्यहास
वीरउत्साह
भयानवभय
रौद्रक्रोध
अद्भुतआश्चर्य
शांतनिर्वेद
वीभत्सजुगुप्सा
वात्सल्यवत्सल
भक्ति रसअनुराग

Additional Informationरस:-

  • काव्य पढ़ने या नाटक देखने से जो विशेष प्रकार का आनंद प्राप्त होता है उसे रस कहा गया है।
  • रस का विवेचन सर्वप्रथम भरत मुनि ने अपने ग्रन्थ नाट्य शास्त्र में किया था।

Question 99

उपर्युक्‍त गद्यांश के अनुसार, कौन-सा कथन पूर्णताः सही है?

  1. AOption (a)

    संतों, देवताओं तथा राम की वंदना पर्याप्त है, इसलिए दुष्‍टों की भी वंदना नहीं की जाती है। इससे दुष्टों के महत्व की भायिक सृष्टि होती है और वह उन्हें और भी उपहास्‍य बना देती है।

  2. BOption (b)

    संतों, देवताओं तथा राम की वंदना पर्याप्त नहीं इसलिए दुष्‍टों की भी वंदना की जाती है। इससे दुष्टों के महत्व की भायिक सृष्टि होती है और वह उन्हें और भी उपहास्‍य बना देती है।

  3. COption (c)

    संतों, देवताओं तथा राम की वंदना पर्याप्त नहीं है इसलिए दुष्‍टों की भी वंदना नहीं की जाती है। इससे दुष्टों के महत्व की भायिक सृष्टि होती है और वह उन्हें और भी उपहास्‍य बना देती है।

  4. DOption (d)

    संतों, देवताओं तथा राम की वंदना पर्याप्त नहीं इसलिए दुष्‍टों की भी वंदना की जाती है। इससे दुष्टों के महत्व की भायिक दृष्टि होती है और वह उन्हें और भी खतरनाक बना देती है।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

संतों, देवताओं तथा राम की वंदना पर्याप्त नहीं इसलिए दुष्‍टों की भी वंदना की जाती है। इससे दुष्टों के महत्व की भायिक सृष्टि होती है और वह उन्हें और भी उपहास्‍य बना देती है।

Why this answer is correct

उपर्युक्‍त गद्यांश के अनुसार, पूर्णताः सही कथन है- संतों, देवताओं तथा राम की वंदना पर्याप्त नहीं इसलिए दुष्‍टों की भी वंदना की जाती है। इससे दुष्टों के महत्व की भायिक सृष्टि होती है और वह उन्हें और भी उपहास्‍य बना देती है।

Key Points

  • इस पाठ में, लेखक कहते हैं कि संतों, देवताओं, और राम की वंदना तो हम सभी करते हैं, लेकिन उन्होंने एक अनूठे दृष्टिकोण को उजागर करते हुए कहा है कि दुष्टों की वंदना भी महत्वपूर्ण हो सकती है।
  • उनका मत यह है कि दुष्टों की वंदना करने से उनके महत्व की एक विशेष रूप से बहुमुखी दृष्टि होती है, जो उन्हें और अधिक उपहास्‍य बना सकती है।

Question 100

उपर्युक्‍त गद्यांश में निम्‍नलिखित में से किस शब्‍द का प्रयोग नहीं किया गया है?

  1. AOption (a)

    अनाश्रय

  2. BOption (b)

    आलंबन

  3. COption (c)

    भावना

  4. DOption (d)

    वंदना

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

अनाश्रय

Why this answer is correct

उपर्युक्‍त गद्यांश में अनाश्रय शब्‍द का प्रयोग नहीं किया गया है। 

Key Points

  • वंदना:
  • यह शब्द सम्मान, पूजा, और आदर की भावनाओं को व्यक्त करता है।
  • किसी व्यक्ति, देवता, या प्रतीक के प्रति श्रद्धा और सम्मान का एक रूप होती है।
  • भावना:
  • यह एक हिंदी शब्द है जिसका अर्थ होता है भाव या अनुभूति। यह शब्द आवेग, इच्छा, भाव, और मनोभाव को व्यक्त करता है।
  • आलंबन:
  • यह शब्द सहारा, समर्थन, या आधार का अर्थ रखता है।
  • किसी चीज़ को समर्थन या आधार के रूप में इस्तेमाल करने की क्रिया को इसके द्वारा व्यक्त किया जा सकता है।
  • अनाश्रय:
  • इस शब्द का अर्थ होता है बिना किसी सहारे के, या बिना किसी आधार के।
  • यह शब्द किसी व्यक्ति, चीज़, या स्थिति का वर्णन करने के लिए उपयोग होता है जिसमें कोई समर्थन या सहारा नहीं होता है।

Discipline 1 (20 questions)

Question 101

Find the work done by the force of gravity during the time a particle of mass 60 gm goes up on being thrown vertically upwards with a speed of 10 m/s.

  1. AOption (a)

    -3.5 J

  2. BOption (b)

    -3.0 J

  3. COption (c)

    -2.5 J

  4. DOption (d)

    -4.0 J

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

-3.0 J

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Universal Law of Gravitation:

The force by which any two objects attract each other is directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.

  • F= GM1M2/d2
  • G is the universal gravitation constant, M1 and M2 are the masses of the two objects and d is the distance between the object

Free Fall:

  • Whenever an object falls towards the earth it is under the influence of the earth's gravitational force (gravity), due to which it shows accelerated motion.
  • The acceleration involved is called acceleration due to gravity. It is denoted by g.
  • Work done by a moving body is the product of the force applied to it and the distance covered by it.
  • The work done by a free-falling object is calculated using the following equation
  • W= m×g×h
  • W = work done, m = weight of the object, g = acceleration due to gravity, h = distance travelled by the object

Calculation:

​Given:

  • mass of object (m)= 60 gm = 0.06 g
  • initial velocity of the object(u)= 10m/s
  • final velocity of the object(v)= 0m/s
  • acceleration due to gravity(g)= -10m/s2 ( upward direction, opposite to the force of gravity acts in the downward direction)

To calculate the distance travelled by the object, the following equation is used

v2=u2- 2gh (as g being negative)---

putting the given values in the above equation, we get

02=(10)2- 2 × 10 × h,

h=5m

the distance travelled by the object in air is 5m.

To calculate the work done by the object the following equation is used

W=m×g×h

= 0.06 × (-10) × 5

= -3.0J

Hence, the work done by the object under the force of gravity is -3.0J.

Confusion Points:

  • When an object falls towards the earth, acceleration due to gravity (g) is positive.
  • When an object goes in the upward direction, acceleration due to gravity (g) is negative.

Question 102

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

  1. AOption (a)

    The resistance of wire is a constant for a given wire.

  2. BOption (b)

    The resistance of the wire is directly proportional to the length of the wire

  3. COption (c)

    The resistance of a wire can never be negative.

  4. DOption (d)

    The resistance of the wire is directly proportional to the cross-sectional area of the wire

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The resistance of the wire is directly proportional to the cross-sectional area of the wire

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Electric current is the flow of electric charges through a particular area of a conductor( a metallic wire) in unit time.

Electric current is mathematically expressed as:

  • I=Q/t,

I= current,  Q= net charge flowing across any cross-section of the conductor and t= time

  • For electric current to flow through a conductor there should be a potential difference between two points in the conductor.
  • Electric potential difference is the work done to move a unit charge from one point to another in an electric circuit. V=W/Q, where, V is the potential difference, W is work done, and Q is the amount of charge flowing through the conductor. The S.I unit of electric potential difference is volt(V).
  • According to Ohm's law, the electric potential difference across the ends of a wire in a given electric circuit is directly proportional to the current flowing through it.
  • V=IR,  as  V is the potential difference, I is current, R is Resistance

Resistance:

It is the ability of a conductor to resist the flow of charges through it when part of an electric circuit. The S.I unit of resistance is the ohm(Ω ).

The resistance of a conductor depends upon the following factors.

  • On the length of the conductor
  • On the area of cross-section of the conductor
  • Nature of the material or resistivity.

Resistivity is the property of a material by virtue of which it resists the flow of charges through it. The S.I unit of resistivity is Ω m.

Explanation:

The resistance of a conductor is calculated by the following equation

R= ρ× l/a

  • R= resistance,p= resistivity, l= length of material, a= area of cross-section.

From the above equation, it is understood that 

  • the resistance of a wire is directly proportional to the length of the wire and inversely proportional to the area of the cross-section.
  • resistance can never be negative as length and area are positive quantities.
  • resistance of the wire will remain constant for a given wire as the length and area of cross-section and resistivity remains constant.

 Additional Information:

MaterialsResistivity (Ω m)
Conductors
Silver1.60 × 10-8
Copper1.62 × 10-8
Aluminium2.63 × 10-8
Alloys
Manganin
(an alloy of copper, manganese and nickel))
44 × 10-6
Nichrome
(an alloy of nickel, chromium, manganese and iron)
100 × 10-6
Insulators
Glass1010- 1014
Rubber1013- 1016

  

Key Points:

  • Metals have low resistivity- good conductors of electricity.
  • Non-metals have high resistivity- poor conductors of electricity.

Question 103

____ of an eye contains about 1 million optic nerve fibres ( which transmit information to the brain)

  1. AOption (a)

    Lens

  2. BOption (b)

    Cornea

  3. COption (c)

    Pupil

  4. DOption (d)

    Retina

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Retina

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Structure of eyes:

  • The eyes consist of the retina, pupil, iris, cornea, vitreous humor, and lens.
  • The retina is the part of the human eye where the image is formed.
  • The cornea is a transparent layer that forms the front of the eyes.
  • The structure of the eyes which serves to refract and focus light rays upon the retina is called a lens.
  • Light enters the eye through an opening called the pupil.
  • The space between the cornea and lens is filled with a viscous liquid called aqueous humor.
  • The space between the lens and retina is filled with another liquid called the vitreous humor.
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Explanation:

  • The screen on which the image is formed in the eye is called the retina.
  • The retina is a delicate membrane having a large number of light-sensitive cells called rods and cones.
  • The retina of the eyes contains about a million optic nerves.
  • The image formed on the retina is conveyed to the brain by the optic nerve and gives rise to the sensation of vision.

Thus, the correct answer is the retina.

Question 104

Which of the following is true about a solid floating with a part of it in the fluid?

  1. The overall density of the solid is greater than the density of the fluid.
  2. The weight of the displaced fluid equals the weight of the solid.

Choose the correct code:

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither 1 nor 2

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only 2

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Archimedes principle:

  • It states that a body when wholly or partially immersed in liquid experiences an upward thrust that is equal to the liquid displaced acts on it.
  • Archimedes Principle is also known as the physical law of buoyancy.
  • When a solid is fully immersed in a liquid, it loses weight, which is equal to the weight of the liquid it displaces.

Explanation:

  • Archimedes' principle is used to explain the law of floatation.
  • According to the Archimedes principle, a body continues to float, if the weight of the body is equal to the weight of the fluid by it.
  • If the density of the body is greater than that of the fluid, it will sink.
  • If the density of the body is lesser than that of the fluid, it will float.

Thus**, the correct statement is only 2.**

Key Points

  • The hydrometer basically consists of a weighted, sealed, long-necked glass bulb immersed in the measured liquid, the flotation depth shows the liquid density, and the neck can be calibrated to read the actual gravity value.
  • A hydrometer used for determining the density of liquids is based on Archimedes' principle.

Question 105

Which of the following statements is/are true?

  1. The disturbance produced by source of sound is always a sine wave
  2. The disturbance produced by source of sound is never a sine wave.
  3. The disturbance produced by source of sound is not always a sine wave.
  4. A pure sine wave has a unique frequency.

Choose the correct code:

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1 and 4

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 2 and 4

  3. COption (c)

    Only 4

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 3 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Only 3 and 4

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • Sound is produced due to the vibration of different objects.
  • Sound travels as a longitudinal wave through the material medium.
  • Sound travels as successive and rarefactions in the medium.
  • Sound does not travel in a vacuum.
  • A wave is a disturbance that moves through the medium when the particles of the medium set neighbouring particles into motion.
  • The particles of the medium do not move forward themselves but the disturbance is carried forward.
  • During the propagation of sound in a medium, sound can be visualized as a wave.
  • Sound waves are characterized by the motion of particles in the medium called mechanical waves.

Explanation:

  • A sine wave or sinusoid is a geometric waveform that oscillates periodically.
  • A pure sine wave is a steady continuous wave that provides smooth periodic oscillation.
  • Sound waves are simply propagating changes in pressure and can take any form or shape.
  • They are a combination of a sine wave of various phases and amplitude.
  • Hence, the disturbance produced by a source of sound is not always a sine wave.
  • But some sound waves are actual pure sine waves or sinusoidal and they can have a single or unique frequency.

Thus, the correct answer is only 3 and 4.

Additional Information Pitch:

  • Pitch is the sensation of the frequency of an emitted sound and is characteristic distinguish a shrill sound from a flat sound.
  • Frequency refers to the rate of vibration of sound.
  • The pitch of a sound is decided by the measure of frequency.
  • A high-pitched sound is called a shrill sound. Examples: the humming of a bird, and the sound of a guitar.
  • A low-pitched sound is called a hoarse sound. Examples: the roar of a lion, and a car horn.

Loudness:

  • The loudness and softness of a sound wave is the sensation that depends upon its amplitude.
  • Amplitude is the measure of compression or rarefaction of particles of a medium through which sound is travelling.
  • The amplitude A is related to loudness as loudness ∝ A2

Question 106

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

  1. AOption (a)

    The current produced by a battery is DC (Direct Current).

  2. BOption (b)

    People who accidentally come in contact with AC are flung afar. 

  3. COption (c)

    Devices like electric motor that work on DC are stronger than those that use AC.

  4. DOption (d)

    The current that flows out from the switch points at homes is AC (Alternating Current)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Devices like electric motor that work on DC are stronger than those that use AC.

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

  • Alternating Current (AC) is a current which reverses its magnitude and direction with time.
  • The current in our home main line is alternating current because it can be transported over long distances at high voltage and low current.
  • Direct current (DC) is a current of constant magnitude flowing in one direction with time.
  • A battery and electronic devices like TV, Computers, etc provide DC.
  • A typical battery supplies around 1.5v of DC.
  • People who accidentally come in contact with AC are flung afar because AC has high voltage and experience an electric shock.
  • Motor is a device that converts electrical energy into mechanical energy.
  • ​An electric motor works on DC but AC is stronger than DC.

Thus, the incorrect statement is that devices like an electric motor that work on DC are stronger than those that use AC.

Question 107

The density of water of 4°C (277 K) is:

  1. AOption (a)

    2.7 × 103 kg m-3

  2. BOption (b)

    1.0 × 103 kg m-3

  3. COption (c)

    0.806 × 103 kg m-3

  4. DOption (d)

    1.43 × 103 kg m-3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1.0 × 103 kg m-3

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Density: The ratio of mass to the volume of a given substance is called density.

The density of water:

The density of water at NTP is 997 kg / m3.

The density of water at 4 ºC:

  • The maximum density of water occurs at 4 ºC.
  • It is found to be 103 kg/ m3 at the maximum temperature of 4 ºC.
  • It is due to two opposing effects in the equilibrium at the temperature.
  • The water molecule forms clusters at this temperature.
  • The water molecule in ice are in a crystal lattice that has plenty of empty spaces.

Question 108

The appearance of sound to a human ear is objectively characterised by which of the fol lowing parameters?

  1. Frequency
  2. Intensity
  3. Waveform

Choose the correct code:

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 2 and 3

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 1 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    Only 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1, 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

A sound is a form of energy that is produced by the vibration of objects.

  • A vibrating object vibrates the particles of the medium around it, this creates a disturbance in the medium
  • This disturbance travels through the medium in the form of a sound wave.
  • As the source of sound moves back and forth rapidly, a series of high-pressure area(compressions) and a series of low-pressure area(rarefactions) is created in the medium.
  • These make the sound wave that propagates through the medium.

Characteristics of a sound wave:

Wavelength:

  • ​The distance between two consecutive compressions and two consecutive rarefactions is called the wavelength. Its S.I unit is a metre(m).

Frequency: ​

  • When sound travels through a medium, a compression is followed by rarefaction and again a compression completes one oscillation.
  • The number of such oscillations per unit time is the frequency of the sound wave.
  • The S.I unit of frequency is hertz(Hz).
  • Sound with higher frequency or higher pitch has higher shrillness.

Time period:

  • The time is taken to complete one oscillation. Its S.I unit is second(s).

Amplitude:

  • The magnitude of maximum disturbance in the medium on either side of the mean value.
  • Amplitude determines the loudness and softness of sound.

Intensity:

  • The amount of sound energy passing each second through the unit area.​​
  • Sounds of the same intensity can differ in loudness.

These characteristics determine how sound appears to the human ear.

Additional Information

  • The human ears convert pressure variations in the air with audible frequencies into electric signals that travel to the brain via the auditory nerve and the brain interprets them as sound.
  • The human ear has three parts: the outer ear, middle ear and inner ear.
  • The vibrations reaching the ears are amplified several folds by three bones (the hammer, anvil and stirrups) present in the middle ear.

Question 109

How can biomass be used as a source of energy?

  1. by burning dry biomass
  2. by decomposition of biomass in the absence of oxygen

Choose the correct code:

  1. AOption (a)

    Neither 1 nor 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 1

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:-

Biomass:-

  • Biomass is the wood, plants, animal mass and other substances that have been alive and are burned directly for heat or power or converted into biofuels.
  • Biofuels are the combustion of processed materials like straw, forestry, waste and wood.
  • Biomass is the largest renewable energy source in use today.
  • Raw biomass consists of forestry products, grasses, crops, animal manure, aquatic products etc.
  • Secondary biomass is composed of raw biomass.
  • The decomposition of biomass takes place in the absence of oxygen.
  • Worldwide, biomass is the fourth largest energy resource after coal.
  • Biomass provides 3 -4 % of the primary energy.

Question 110

An elevator weighing 500 kg is to be lifted up at a constant velocity of 0.25 m/s. What would be the minimum horsepower of the motor to be used? G = 9.8 m/s2 and there is no frictional loss.

  1. AOption (a)

    1.0 hp

  2. BOption (b)

    2.0 hp

  3. COption (c)

    1.64 hp

  4. DOption (d)

    1.92 hp

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1.64 hp

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • Power is the rate at which work is done upon an object.
  • Horsepower (hp) is the measurement of power.
  • 1hp = 746 watt
  • Si unit of power is the watt.

Calculation:

Given,

Elevator weigh or mass (m) = 500kg

Velocity = 0.25m\s

G = 9.8 m\s2

We know that,

Power = Force × velocity

power = mg× v

power = 500× 9.8× 0.25

power = 1225 watt

we also know that 1 hp = 746 watt

Therefore, 1 watt = 1\746

So, 1225 watt = 1225 \ 746 = 1.64 hp.

Thus, the minimum horsepower of the motor used is 1.64hp.

Question 111

Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding generation of wind power?

  1. AOption (a)

    The wind speed is vital in the production of electricity.

  2. BOption (b)

    The blades of the windmill are angled into the wind

  3. COption (c)

    The turbine converts mechanical energy into electrical energy.

  4. DOption (d)

    In older windmills, wind energy was used to run machinery to do physical work, like crushing grain or pumping water.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The turbine converts mechanical energy into electrical energy.

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • Wind energy refers to the production of electrical energy from harnessing the wind with windmills or turbines.
  • Moving air is called wind.
  • The wind had energy.
  • The wind is a renewable source of energy
  • The energy possesses by wind is due to its high speed.
  • So, the wind possesses kinetic energy.

Explanation:

  • The wind speed plays a vital for generating electricity.
  • The increased use of wind energy for generating will help us to conserve fossil fuels.
  • Wind energy is harnessed by using a windmill.
  • The windmill used for generating electricity is called a wind turbine.
  • The windmill or turbine is angled into the wind.
  • The complete set-up of generating electricity by using wind energy is called a wind generator.
  • Wind turbines convert the wind energy to electricity by rotating propeller-like blades around the rotor.
  • The rotor turns the drive shaft which turns into an electric generator.

Thus, the incorrect statement is In older windmills, The turbine converts mechanical energy into electrical energy.

Question 112

While generating ocean thermal energy, which of the following types of liquids is boiled by the warm ocean water?

  1. AOption (a)

    Volatile liquid

  2. BOption (b)

    Acidic liquid

  3. COption (c)

    Basic liquid

  4. DOption (d)

     Non-volatile liquid

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Volatile liquid

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • Ocean thermal energy refers to the method of using the temperature difference between the deep parts of the ocean which are cold and the shallow part of the ocean to run a heat engine.
  • Ocean thermal energy conversion is an electricity generation system.

Explanation:

  • The water at the surface of the ocean or sea is heated by the sun.
  • While the deeper section is relatively cold.
  • This difference in temperature is exploited to obtain energy in ocean thermal energy conversion plants.
  • The warm surface water is used to boil a volatile liquid like ammonia.
  • The vapor of a liquid is then used to run the turbine of a generator.
  • The cooled water from the depth of the ocean is pumped up and condensed vapor again into a  liquid.

Thus, the correct answer is a volatile liquid.

Question 113

Which of the following is/are true?

  1. The power of a converging lens is positive.
  2. The power of a diverging lens is negative.

Choose the correct code:

  1. AOption (a)

    Neither 1 nor 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 1

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Concave lens:

  • It is a type of lens that possess at least one surface that is curved inside.
  • It is also known as the diverging lens.
  • The concave lens is thinner in the middle and thicker at the edge
  • The image formed by a concave lens is virtual, erect, and diminished.
  • The size of the image is always smaller than the object.
  • The image can be found between the focus and the lens.
  • The focal length is always negative.

Convex Lens:

  • ​A convex lens is thicker in the middle and thinner at the edge.
  • It is also known as a converging lens.
  • Depending on the point of the object:     
  • The image may be real or virtual.
  • image may be erect or inverted.
  • image may be magnified or diminished
  • The focal length is always positive.

 

 

Explanation:

  • The power of the lens is the reciprocal of the focal length.
  • P= 1\f
  • It unit is dioptre.
  • A concave lens is a diverging lens so it will have a negative focal length.
  • Hence, the power of diverging lens is also negative.
  • A convex lens is a converging lens so it will have a positive focal length.
  • Hence, the power of the converging lens is also positive.

Thus, the correct statement is both 1 and 2.

Question 114

Naturally occurring stones which were earlier found to be able to attract iron and nickel like other substances were called -

  1. AOption (a)

    Magnetrons

  2. BOption (b)

    Lodestones

  3. COption (c)

    Magnastones

  4. DOption (d)

    Loderons

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Lodestones

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Lodestones:

  • A lodestone is a block that lets you alter the place that compasses point to.
  • It is a strong stone that is used for attracting abundance and prosperity.
  • It is also nurturing stone to stabilize the energy.
  • They are naturally occurring pieces of magnetized mineral magnetite.
  • Lodestones are naturally occurring magnets.
  • They attract iron and show magnetism.

Important PointsMagnetrons:

  • Magnetrons are high power vacuum tubes that act as self-excited microwave oscillators.
  • They are capable of generating high frequencies.
  • They are short bursts of very high power.
  • They are an important source of power in radar systems.

Magnastones:

  • It is molten or semi- molten mineral from which the igneous rocks are formed.
  • They are found beneath the earth's surface.

Question 115

In an alpha particle the protons will repel each other due to ____ force.

  1. AOption (a)

    Electromagnetic

  2. BOption (b)

    Grovitational

  3. COption (c)

    Nuclear

  4. DOption (d)

    Coulomb

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Coulomb

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Coulombs Force:

The electric force between two point charges which are separated by a small distance.

Coulomb's Law:

According to this law, the electric force between two point charges q1 and q2 which are separated by a distance r is directly proportional to the product of the two charges are inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.

F=kq1q2d2F = k\frac{{{q_1}{q_2}}}{{{d^2}}}, where k is the proportionality constant which is also known as coulomb's law constant and is equal to 9.0 x 109 Nm2 /C2.

where, k=14πϵ0k = \frac{1}{{4\piϵ{_0}}} where ϵ0 is permittivity of free space.

If a medium is placed between the charges, then

F=14πϵ0Kq1q2d2F = \frac{1}{{4\piϵ{_0}K}}\frac{{{q_1}{q_2}}}{{{d^2}}}

Explanation:

  • Protons are positively charged and will repel each other due to the fact that like charges repel each other and the force between two charged particles is called coulomb's force.

Additional Information Electromagnetic Force:

  • The force is produced by the interaction of electric current flowing through a conductor when the magnetic field is produced around it and the magnetic force is produced by the magnetic field.

Nuclear Force:

  • The force of interaction between two or more nucleons in an atom or molecule is called nuclear force.

Gravitational Force:

  • It is defined as the force of attraction between two free objects towards each other.

Law of Gravitation:

  • If two objects in motion have masses m1 and m2 and the distance of separation between them is r, then, the force between them is F, which will be directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely to the square of the distance between them.

F=Gm1m2r2F = G\frac{{{m_1}{m_2}}}{{{r^2}}}

where G is a gravitational constant having a value equal to 6.67 x 10-11 m3 Kg-1 S-2.

Question 116

In which year did Michael Faraday make the discovery of Electromagnetic Induction?

  1. AOption (a)

    1831

  2. BOption (b)

    1908

  3. COption (c)

    1789

  4. DOption (d)

    1896

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1831

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Electromagnetic Induction:-

  • Electromagnetic induction is the process by which a changing magnetic field in a conductor induces a current in another conductor.
  • There are two types of induction - self-induction and mutual induction.
  • When the current is induced in a given coil it is called self-induction.
  • When one current-carrying coil induces a current in another coil that is called mutual induction.

Faraday's law of Electromagnetic Induction:-

  • Michael Faraday discovered electromagnetic induction in 1831.
  • He has given two laws of electromagnetic induction.
  • The law states that the instantaneous emf induced in a circuit is directly proportional to the time rate of change of the magnetic flux through the circuit.
  • The circuit consists of N loops, all of the same area, and if magnetic flux is given by фB.

ϵ=−NΔϕΔt\epsilon=-N {\Delta \phi \over \Delta{t}}

Question 117

A 900 gm solid cube having an edge of length 10 cm floats in water. How much volume of the cube is outside the water? Density of the water 1000 kgm-3.

  1. AOption (a)

    200 cm3

  2. BOption (b)

    100 cm3

  3. COption (c)

    110 cm3

  4. DOption (d)

    150 cm3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

100 cm3

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Archimedes principle:

  • It states that a body when wholly or partially immersed in liquid experiences an upward thrust that is equal to the liquid displaced acts on it.
  • Archimedes Principle is also known as the physical law of buoyancy.
  • When a solid is fully immersed in a liquid, it loses weight, which is equal to the weight of the liquid it displaces.

Calculation:

Given,

Mass of the solid cube (m)= 900gm

The density of the water (ρ)= 1000kgm-3 = 1gmcm-3

Length of then edge of solid cube = 10cm

According to buoyant force,

Vρg = mg

⇒ V× 1 = 900

⇒ V = 900\1 = 900cm3

The total volume of a cube (V) = (10cm)3 = 1000cm3

Therefore, the volume of the cube outside the water = 1000 - 900 = 100 cm3.

Thus, the volume of the cube outside the water is 100cm3.

Question 118

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of nuclear energy?

  1. No waste gases are produced when electricity is produced out of nuclear sources.
  2. There is no scope for leakage of harmful radiation.

Choose the correct code:

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Both 1 and 2

  3. COption (c)

    Neither 1 nor 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only 2

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Nuclear Energy:

  • The energy which is produced or released during nuclear fission or nuclear fusion is called nuclear energy.
  • Nuclear energy has low operating costs.
  • It is compatible with the global climate.
  • Nuclear energy helps countries to grow economically.
  • It does not produce some gaseous wastes while producing electrical energy.
  • It may be used in a range of methods.
  • This power of production is a very reliable supply of energy for us.
  • People are exposed to health issues.
  • Uranium marketing is vital to keep the nuclear energy market viable.
  • There is no greenhouse emission in the production of nuclear energy.
  • There is a strong layer of concrete walls with lead mixed around the nuclear reactor, so no radiation leaked through it.

Because of nuclear fission zero amounts of emissive gases or combustion particles are produced, but there is always a scope for leakage of harmful radiation even if nuclear waste should be treated to avoid unnecessary radiation. So, from the above discussion, it is clear that the second statement is not the advantage of nuclear energy.

Question 119

Which of the following statements is correct?

  1. A 40 W - 220 V bulb has a higher resistance than a 1 kW - 220 V electric heater.
  2. The maximum current that a 100 W - 220 V lamp can withstand is 0. 45 A.

Choose the correct code:

  1. AOption (a)

    Neither 1 nor 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 1

  3. COption (c)

    Only 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Both 1 and 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • Electric power refers to the rate at which the electric energy is consumed or dissipated.
  • Its SI unit is the watt.
  • Mathematically, P = IV = I2R = V2/R
  • Whereas p = power, v= voltage, I = electric current, R= resistance.

Calculation:

For statement 1:

Given,

P1 = 40 watt, P2 = 0.1 kw = 100watt, and V= 220v

we know that,

R = V2/ P

R ∝ 1/P

  • For an electric bulb, the resistance is inversely proportional to the power of the bulb.
  • So, the bulb which has more power will have less resistance.
  • Therefore, a 40-watt bulb will have more resistance than a 100-watt bulb.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

For Statement 2:

Given,

Power of the bulb = 100W

The voltage of the bulb = 220 V

We know that,

I = P /V

I = 100 /220

I = 0.45 A.

Thus, the correct statement is both 1 and 2.

Question 120

The amount of light entering the eye may be controlled by varying the aperture of the pupil with the help of ______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Cornea

  2. BOption (b)

    Iris

  3. COption (c)

    Aqueous humour

  4. DOption (d)

    Retina

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Iris

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Structure of eyes:

  • The eyes consist of the retina, pupil, iris, cornea, vitreous humor, and lens.
  • The retina is the part of the human eye where the image is formed.
  • The cornea is a transparent layer that forms the front of the eyes.
  • Iris is in a circular structure made up of connective tissue.
  • The structure of the eyes which serves to refract and focus light rays upon the retina is called a lens.
  • Light enters the eye through an opening called the pupil.
  • The space between the cornea and lens is filled with a viscous liquid called aqueous humor.
  • The space between the lens and retina is filled with another liquid called the vitreous humor.
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Explanation:

  • Iris is a dark muscular diaphragm that controls the size of the pupil.
  • It is present behind the cornea and gives color to our eyes.
  • The iris automatically adjusts the size of the pupil according to the intensity of light received by the eye.
  • If the amount of light received by the eye is more, then the pupil contract.
  • If the amount of light received by the eye is less, then the pupil expands and more light enters the eyes.
  • Thus, we can say that the iris regulates the amount of light entering the eye by adjusting the size or aperture of the pupil.

Therefore**, the correct answer is the iris.**

Discipline 2 (20 questions)

Question 121

Which of the following is true?

  1. Hydrogen ions in HCl are produced in the presence of water.
  2. Hydrogen ions can exist alone.

Choose the correct code:

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 2

  3. COption (c)

    Neither 1 nor 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Both

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only 1

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Hydrochloric Acid:

  • Hydrogen chloride is a diatomic molecule.
  • It consists of one hydrogen atom with one chlorine atom connected by a covalent bond.
  • Here, the chlorine atom is much more electronegative than the hydrogen atom.
  • The covalent bond between the two atoms is polar in nature.
  • Thus, the HCl molecule has a large dipole moment with a negative partial charge in the chlorine atom and a positive partial charge in the hydrogen atom.
  • Hydrogen chloride is a colourless fuming gas.
  • Due to its polar nature, it is soluble in water.
  • The gas is made of a single covalently bonded molecule.
  • In an aqueous solution, it exists in an ionic form.
  • Hydrogen ions and chlorine ions are produced when HCl undergoes a breakdown reaction.

H+ + Cl- →  HCl

Question 122

Nonmetallic oxides are _______ in nature.

  1. AOption (a)

    Neutral

  2. BOption (b)

    Extremely basic

  3. COption (c)

    Acidic

  4. DOption (d)

    Mildly Basic

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Acidic

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Non-metals: Elements which don't show any metallic character and properties are said as non-metals.

Properties of Non-metals:

  • Non-metals are dull in appearance.
  • They are brittle and thus, shatter when hammered.
  • They are bad conductors of heat and electricity.
  • They don't show the property of ductility, which means they can't be drawn into wires.
  • They are not malleable or can't be changed into sheets.
  • They have low densities.
  • They can be solid, liquid or gas at room temperature.
  • They don't produce rich sound when hit on any surface or they are not sonorous.
  • Non-metals do not react with acids.
  • They are generally light in weight.
  • Non-metal oxides are molecular substances that form acidic solutions.
  • They tend to form anions of oxyanions in an aqueous solution.
  • They do not have any lustre or shine in themselves.
  • Oxides of non-metals are acidic in nature.
  • Non-metal oxides react with bases and form the salt.

Examples of non-metal: Hydrogen, Chlorine, Nitrogen, Carbon, etc.

Question 123

Which of the following statement is false regarding the formation of bonds between oxygen atoms?

  1. We see the formation of a double bond between two oxygen atoms
  2. This is because an atom of oxygen has four electrons in its L shell (the atomic number of oxygen is eight) and it requires four more electrons to complete its octet.
  1. AOption (a)

    Only 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 1

  3. COption (c)

    neither 1 nor 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Both

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only 2

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Oxygen:

  • Oxygen is colourless, odourless, and tasteless gas.
  • Oxygen is slightly heavier than air.
  • It is partially soluble in water.
  • Oxygen is a neutral gas, it is neither acidic nor basic.
  • Oxygen is non-metal and is a very reactive element.
  • It reacts with most of the elements to form their oxides.
  • Oxygen is an essential element to perform combustion.
  • Oxygen is represented by the symbol O and has the atomic number 8.
  • It has general valency of -2 and also shows different variable valencies.
  • Its electronic configuration is [He]2s22p4, thus it is a p-block element.
  • Oxygen combines with itself to form molecules like dioxygen and ozone.
  • In O2 molecule has a polar covalent bond between them.
  • While in the O3 molecule three oxygen atoms are bonded with coordinate bonds.

Question 124

Out of the 118 elements known to us how many are naturally occurring?

  1. AOption (a)

    22

  2. BOption (b)

    94

  3. COption (c)

    90

  4. DOption (d)

    49

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

94

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

**Modern Periodic Table:**​

  • In 1913, Henry Moseley discovered the fact that the atomic number is the most fundamental property of an element.
  • The atomic number (Z) of an element is the number of protons in the nucleus of its atom.
  • Main Group Elements: The elements of Group 1,2 and Group13-17 of the periodic table are called representative or main group elements. The outermost shells of these elements are incomplete, as a result, their outermost shell has less than 8 electrons making them unstable.
  • Noble Gases: Group 18 on the right side of the periodic table contains noble gases. Their outermost shells contain 8 electrons except He which contains only two electrons. Characteristics are :
  • They have either 2 or 8 electrons in their outermost shell.
  • They are least reactive as their octet is complete.
  • They are inert elements.
  • All are gases.
  • Transition Elements: The elements of groups 3-12 are called transition elements. They have two outermost incomplete shells. As these elements represent a change or shift from the electropositive state to the most electronegative one, they are known as transition elements. They have some important characteristics are as follows:
  • All are metals with high melting and boiling points.
  • They are good conductors of heat and electricity.
  • Some of the elements show magnetism.
  • They are also used in catalytic reactions.
  • They exhibit variable oxidation states.
  • Inner Transition Elements: These elements are known as rare-earth elements. There are two series of elements- Lanthanides and Actinoids.
  • Metals: Metals are present in the left-hand portion of the periodic table. The strong metallic elements; alkali metals (Li, Na, K, Rb, Cs, Fr) and alkaline earth metals (Be, Mg, Ca, Sr, Ba, Ra) occupy groups 1 and 2 respectively.
  • Non-metals: Non-metals occupy the right-hand portion of the periodic table. Strong non-metallic elements i.e., halogens (F, Cl, Br, I, At) and Chalkogens (O, S, Se, Te, Po), etc occupy groups 17 and 16.
  • Metalloids: Metalloids are the elements that contain the properties of both metals and non-metals. They occupy the diagonal line starting from group 13 (Boron) and going down to group 16 (Polonium).

Classification of elements:

  • S- block Elements - Group 1 (Alkali metals)  and Group 2 (Alkaline Earth Metals) of the periodic table are called S- block elements.
  • P-Block Elements - The atoms of the elements of which the last electron from their outer shell inters p- subshell is called P-block elements.
  • D- block Elements - They are commonly known as Transition Metals.
  • F- block Elements - They are commonly known as Inner- Transition Metals.
  • The f-block consists of the two series, lanthanoids (the fourteen elements following lanthanum) and actinoids (the fourteen elements following actinium).

Naturally Occurring Elements:

  • There are 94 naturally occurring elements out of which 6 are extremely trace elements.
  • 24 elements are synthetic out of a total of 118 elements which are produced by nuclear reactions.
  • Trace elements which are counted as naturally occurring are astatine, plutonium, technetium, neptunium, francium, promethium etc.
  • Some common naturally occurring elements are -  Carbon, nitrogen, oxygen, iron, noble gases, etc.

https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/kech103.pdf

Page number 5

Question 125

In order to attain an octet, each nitrogen atom in a molecule of nitrogen contributes (i)_____ electrons giving rise to (ii) _____ shared pairs of electrons.

  1. AOption (a)

    (i) three, (ii) three

  2. BOption (b)

    (i) four , (ii) three

  3. COption (c)

    (i) five, (ii) four

  4. DOption (d)

    (i) four, (ii) four

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(i) three, (ii) three

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

The Octet rule states that the main group of the elements which make bonds with other chemical species forms a stable electronic configuration.

  • Atoms with 8 electrons in the outermost orbit are stable.
  • Atoms with less than 8 electrons in their outermost orbit are most reactive.
  • Atoms with less than 4 electrons, react by donating electrons.
  • Atoms with more than 4 electrons, react by gaining electrons.
  • Atoms with 4 electrons in their outermost orbit, can either gain or lose electrons.

Nitrogen:

  • Nitrogen is non-metal with atomic number 7.
  • It occurs in gaseous form as dinitrogen.
  • It has electronic configuration 1s22s22p3.
  • Nitrogen has three shared pairs of electrons in the outermost orbits.
  • The molecule of nitrogen with an electronic configuration of 1s22s22p3 contributes 3 electrons each.
  • Nitrogen is found in the atmosphere in molecular form as dinitrogen.
  • Its valency is either -3 or -5.
  • Its melting point is -210°C and its boiling point are  -195.8°C.

Dinitrogen:

  • The main use of dinitrogen is in the manufacturing of ammonia and other industrial chemicals containing nitrogen.
  • Here, Nitrogen and oxygen are showing lone pair of electrons, in which one oxygen atom is showing 3 lone pairs and the other is showing 2 lone pairs with double bonds.
  • It is also used in the steel and iron industry as an inert diluent for reactive chemicals.
  • Liquid dinitrogen is used as a refrigerant to preserve biological materials, food items and cryosurgery.
  • Dinitrogen dilutes the action of dioxygen in the air.

Question 126

Which of the following is correct?

1.Most non-metals produce basic oxides.

  1. Most metals produce acidic oxides.

Choose the correct code:

  1. AOption (a)

    Neither 1 nor 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 1

  3. COption (c)

    Only 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Both

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Neither 1 nor 2

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Metallic Properties:

  • Metals are good conductors of heat and electricity.
  • Metals are malleable and can be easily converted into thin sheets.
  • Metals are ductile, which means they can be drawn into wires.
  • They produce a ringing sound, which is why they are called sonorous.
  • They have a very high density.
  • Metals have high melting points.
  • Metals are rigid solids.
  • Most of the metals react with oxygen to form metal oxides.
  • This is one of the reasons that metals get corroded.
  • Oxides of metals are basic in nature.
  • Metal oxides react with acids very easily.
  • Examples of metals:- Sodium, Potassium, Calcium, Iron, etc.

Non-Metallic Properties:-

  • Non-metals are dull in appearance.
  • They are brittle and thus, shatter when hammered.
  • They are bad conductors of heat and electricity.
  • They don't show the property of ductility, which means they can't be drawn into wires.
  • They are not malleable or can't be changed into sheets.
  • They have low densities.
  • They can be solid, liquid or gas at room temperature.
  • They don't produce rich sound when hit on any surface or they are not sonorous.
  • Non-metals do not react with acids.
  • They are generally light in weight.
  • Non-metal oxides are molecular substances that form acidic solutions.
  • They tend to form anions of oxyanions in an aqueous solution.
  • They do not have any lustre or shine in themselves.
  • Oxides of non-metals are acidic in nature.
  • Non-metal oxides react with bases and form the salt.
  • Examples of non-metal:- Hydrogen, Chlorine, Nitrogen, Carbon, etc.

Thus,

  1. Most non-metals produce basic oxides.
  2. Most metals produce acidic oxides.

both statements are wrong.

Question 127

Which of the following is the maximum acceleration of the bus in which a box lying on its floor will remain stationary, given that the co-efficient of static friction between the box and the bus’s floor is 0. 14 and g = 10 ms-2?

  1. AOption (a)

    2.8 ms-2

  2. BOption (b)

    1.4 ms-2

  3. COption (c)

    14 ms-2

  4. DOption (d)

    4.2 ms-2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1.4 ms-2

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • All the solid surface wants to keep the solid object on its surface at rest. This phenomenon is known as static friction.
  • The force required to keep the object at its surface at rest is known as statical frictional force.

Law of friction-

  • The maximum static frictional force is directly proportional to the normal force.

f = N

  • Friction acts in a direction opposite to the direction of motion.
  • The frictional force is independent of the area of contact surfaces.

Mathematically, F= μN

Whereas, F = Frictional force, μ = Co-efficient of friction, N= normal force.

Calculation:

Given,

Co-efficient of the frictional force = 0.14

g = 10ms-2

The frictional force acting between the surface of the box and the floor of the bus will oppose the slipping of the box on the floor of the bus.

Therefore, Fs = mamax...eq(a)

Fs = μN = μsmg..........eq(b)

By equating eq a and b,

⇒mamax  = μsmg

⇒amax  = μsg

⇒amax  = 0.14× 10

⇒amax  = 1.4ms-2

Thus, the maximum acceleration of the bus is 1.4ms-2.

Question 128

A batsman hits back a ball straight in the direction of the bowler without changing its initial speed of 10 ms-1 If the mass of the ball is 0.12 kg, determine the impulse imparted to the ball. (Assume linear motion of the ball).

  1. AOption (a)

    11.4 Ns

  2. BOption (b)

    9.4 Ns

  3. COption (c)

    3.6 Ns

  4. DOption (d)

    2.4 Ns

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

2.4 Ns

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • When a force acts on an object for a short duration of time is known as an Impulse.
  • It is the measure of how much the force changes the momentum of an object.
  • Its SI unit is Ns.

Calculation:

Given,

Initial speed V1= 10m/s

V2 = -10m/s

Mass of the ball = 0.12kg

We know that,

Impulse = Change in linear momentum

Impulse = m ( V1 - V2)

Impulse = 0.12 [10- (-10)]

Impulse = 0.12 ×  20

Impulse = 2.4 NS

Thus, the impulse imparted to the ball is 2.4 NS.

Question 129

‘Heating a china dish containing copper powder makes the copper powder become coated with a black substance.’ Which of the following equations is a correct translation of the statement?

  1. AOption (a)

    2Cu + O2 → 2CuO + O3

  2. BOption (b)

    2Cu + O2 → 2CuO

  3. COption (c)

    Fe + CuSO4 → FeSO4 + Cu

  4. DOption (d)

    CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2Cu + O2 → 2CuO

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • Oxidation Reaction refers to a reaction in which either the addition of Oxygen takes place or the removal of Hydrogen takes place.
  • Rusting is an example of an oxidation reaction.
  • A reduction Reaction is always accompanied by an oxidation reaction where the reactant loses one or more electrons.
  • Reduction-oxidation reactions are often called redox equations.
  • A reduction reaction is only one-half of a redox reaction. The other half is the oxidation reaction.

Explanation:

  • When the copper powder is heated in a china dish the copper powder surface becomes coated with a black color substance.
  • Because upon heating, the copper reacts with the oxygen present in the air and forms a copper oxide, which is black in color.
  • This process is called oxidation.
  • The chemical equation is-
  • 2Cu + O2 → 2CuO

Thus, the correct equation is 2Cu + O2 → 2CuO.

Additional Information

Atomization:

  • it is a spray method.
  • The process of breaking up bulk liquid into droplets.

Carbonization:

  • A process in which fuel is heated without air to leave solid porous carbon.

Desalinization:

  • It is a process that takes away mineral components and salts from saline water.

Question 130

Which of the following statement is true regarding the phenomenon known as mirage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Light from a tall object such as a tree, passes through a medium whose refractive index increases towards the ground.

  2. BOption (b)

    If the air is still, the optical density ot different layers of air decreases with height.

  3. COption (c)

    The refractive index of air decreases with its density.

  4. DOption (d)

    The image formed is always inverted.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The image formed is always inverted.

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • When a ray of light passes from a denser to a rarer medium and the angle of incidence becomes greater than the critical angle then the light ray again returns back to the denser medium.
  • This phenomenon is known as total internal reflection.

Explanation:

  • Mirage is the application of total internal reflection.
  • The image formed by the mirage is always virtual and inverted.
  • The light rays from the top of the tree move towards the earth and some of them are totally reflected because the density of air decreases from the top of the tree to the ground.
  • When a person observes a tree in the direction of a reflected ray along with the straight line vision, the tree appears to be inverted.

Thus, the correct answer is that the image formed is always inverted.

Key Points

  • When the light ray passes from a denser to a rarer medium and due to a certain angle of incidence,  the angle of refraction becomes 90o.
  • This angle is called the  .

Question 131

An isotope of ______ is used as a fuel in nuclear reactors.

  1. AOption (a)

    Iodine

  2. BOption (b)

    Hydrogen

  3. COption (c)

    Uranium

  4. DOption (d)

    Cobalt

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Uranium

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  1. The atoms of such elements whose nuclei are unstable and continuously emit radiations so as to gain stability are known as Radioactive Elements. For example, Radium, Polonium, Uranium etc.
  2. Radioactive elements are majorly used in nuclear reactors for nuclear fission.
  3. In Nuclear fission, the parent nuclei split into daughter nuclei and simultaneously release energy.
  4. There are mainly three isotopes of Uranium, U-238, U-235, and U-234. The naturally occurring isotope is U-238.
  5. The isotope of Uranium i.e. U-235 is used as fuel in nuclear reactors.

Explanation:

  1. U-235 has only 0.7% abundance on earth.
  2. The splitting of U-235 occurs when a neutron bombards the nuclei of U-235.
  3. This bombardment results in alpha decay and releases some amount of energy.
  4. 4 He is known as an alpha particle which consists of two neutrons and two protons.
  5. These neutrons can be used for further bombardment with other uranium nuclei. The energy released during nuclear fission drives the reaction in nuclear reactors.

     

Additional Information

  1. U-235 can be used for the explosion of nuclear weapons.
  2. It can also be used in running submarines.

Question 132

Frequencies higher than ______ are called ultrasonic sound or ultrasound.

  1. AOption (a)

    20 Hz

  2. BOption (b)

    10 Hz

  3. COption (c)

    30 Hz

  4. DOption (d)

    20 kHz

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

20 kHz

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Sound:

  • Sound is a longitudinal mechanical wave that travels through an elastic medium.
  • Many things vibrate in the air, producing a sound wave.
  • Sound is created when an object vibrates.
  • The vibrations cause variations in air pressure and sound propagates as a pressure wave.
  • It is absent from outer space.
  • Sound can travel in all directions.
  • The same note on a clarinet set of frequencies produces sound.
  • Sound is characterized by frequency, pitch and loudness.
  • The audible range for humans to hear the sound is 20 Hz to 20000 Hz (20 kHz).
  • The SI unit of sound is Hertz (Hz).

Question 133

Which of the following statements is NOT true?

  1. AOption (a)

    The fuse wire has high resistance than that of electrical wire.

  2. BOption (b)

    The fuse wire has its melting point lower than that of electrical wire.

  3. COption (c)

    The fuse wire is connected to the main source in parallel.

  4. DOption (d)

    A piece of wire made of lead and tin alloy is used in making fuse.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The fuse wire is connected to the main source in parallel.

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

  • A fuse is an electrical safety device that operates to provide overcurrent protection of an electrical circuit.
  • The fuse wire is usually made from a short length of a thin, tin-plated copper wire having less melting point so that it melts easily and other electrical wire remains safe.
  • ​Hence,  the fuse wire has a melting point lower than that of an electrical wire.
  • In fuse wire, a thin wire is used because it has a much greater resistance than the rest of connecting or electrical wire.
  • The electrical wire is made up of copper wire having low resistance as in electrical wire a thick wire is used and due to short circuit takes place.
  • So, to prevent short circuits a pure copper wire is not used in fuse wire.
  • A fuse wire is connected in series in the electric circuit whereas electrical appliances are connected in parallel across the live and neutral wire.
  • A fuse wire is made up of an alloy of lead and tin having a low melting point that protects the connection when a short-circuit or overloading is occurring.

Thus, the incorrect statement is that the fuse wire is connected to the main source in parallel.

Key Points

  • All electrical appliances are provided with separate switches.
  • All the switches are put in the live wire.
  • To avoid the risk of electric shock the metal body of an electrical appliance is earthed.
  • The connecting cables of electrical appliances contain 3 insulated wires of 3 different colors -
  • Live wire - Red
  • Neutral wire - Black
  • Earth wire - Green

Question 134

 Where can we find Methanoic Acid in nature?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ant sting

  2. BOption (b)

    Vinegar

  3. COption (c)

    Tamarind

  4. DOption (d)

    Sour Milk

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Ant sting

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  1. Methanoic acid has the chemical formula, HCOOH, commonly known as Formic Acid.
  2. It is colourless, pungent-smelling and corrosive in nature.
  3. It is mainly found in sweat, the sting of ants and bees, production of insecticides etc.

Explanation:

  1. Ant on biting releases an acid known as methanoic acid, HCOOH, from its sting which causes swelling and a burning sensation.
  2. Carpenter ants and red harvester ants are even venomous.
  3. The burn due to biting by ants can be healed by rubbing ice, applying calamine lotion or rubbing baking soda.

Question 135

Which of the following is a non-metal that can exist in different forms?

  1. AOption (a)

    Lithium

  2. BOption (b)

    Carbon

  3. COption (c)

    Gallium

  4. DOption (d)

    Iodine

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Carbon

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  1. Non Metals are generally found in solid or gaseous form.
  2. They are not lustrous and are bad conductors of heat and electricity.
  3. They can not be converted into thin sheets.
  4. The most common example of non-metal is Carbon. Carbon belongs to Group 14 of Modern periodic table. It has atomic number 6 and has four electrons in its outermost shell. It is tetravalent i.e. it can form four bonds by sharing its outermost electrons.

Explanation:

Carbon which is non-metal mainly exists in crystalline and amorphous forms.

  1. Crystalline solids are those in which atoms are arranged in a regular arrangement or fashion. They have sharp melting points. Carbon has three crystalline forms: Diamond, Graphite, and Fullerenes.
  2. Amorphous solids are those in which atoms are not arranged in a regular fashion or arrangement. They do not have sharp melting points. Coke, Coal, Charcoal, Bone Charcoal etc are commonly found in amorphous forms of carbon.

Question 136

The field lines inside the solenoid are in the form of ______

  1. AOption (a)

    Parallel straight lines.

  2. BOption (b)

    Intersecting curved lines.

  3. COption (c)

    Straight lines that intersect each other multiple times.

  4. DOption (d)

    Parallel curved lines.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Parallel straight lines.

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

 Magnet:

  • Magnets refer to an object which is capable of producing a magnetic field and attracting unlike poles and repelling like poles.
  • Magnets have 2 poles: a North pole and a South pole.
  • Magnetic poles always exist in pairs.
  • The strength of the magnet is highest at the poles and weakest in the middle.

Magnetic Fields:

  • The magnetic field is the region around a magnetic material or a moving electric charge within which the force of magnetism acts.
  • The magnetic field is strongest at the poles of the magnet.
  • The magnetic field lines move from the North pole to the South pole.

Explanation:

  • The solenoid is a long coil containing a large number of close turns of insulated copper wire.
  • When an electric current is passed through the solenoid, it produces a magnetic field around it.
  • The magnetic field produced by a current-carrying solenoid is similar to the magnetic field produced by a bar magnet.
  • The magnetic field lines inside the solenoid are in the form of parallel straight lines.
  • This indicates that the strength of the magnetic field is the same at all the points inside the solenoid.
  • One end of the current-carrying solenoid acts as a north pole and the other end is a south pole.

  

Thus, the correct answer is parallel straight lines.

Additional Information

  • Flemings' Right-Hand Rule is used to find the direction of induced current.
  • Flemings' Left Hand Rule is used to find the direction of the magnetic force on a conductor.

Question 137

Two different atoms or groups of atoms (ions) are exchanged in ______ reactions.

  1. AOption (a)

    Single displacement

  2. BOption (b)

    Rancidity

  3. COption (c)

    Double displacement

  4. DOption (d)

    Corrosion

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Double displacement

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Double Displacement Reaction:

  • The reaction in which both cation and anion are displaced to the products is called a double displacement reaction.

​ Eg: AgNO3 + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO3.

  • A displacement reaction is also known as a replacement reaction or a metathesis reaction.

Important PointsSingle Displacement:

  • The reaction in which cation or anion from the reactant side is displaced to the products is called displacement reaction.

Eg: Fe + CuSO4 → FeSO4 + Cu.

  • Metals of high reactivity displace the metals of low reactivity from their anions.

Rancidity:

  • Rancidity is a process of complete or incomplete oxidation of food.
  • It is the development of unpleasant smells oils, which are often accompanied by changes in their texture and appearance.
  • There are two types of rancidity- Hydrolytic and oxidative.

Corrosion:

  • Corrosion is a process of oxidation of metals to form their stable oxides and hydroxides.
  • Corrosion takes place due to exposure of the metal surface to water or moisture.
  • When copper is corroded it changes its colour to reddish-brown and finally green.

Question 138

Which of the following units of pressure has the correct value?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 atm = 2.01 × 105 Pa

  2. BOption (b)

    1 mm of Hg = 133 torr

  3. COption (c)

    1 torr = 0.133 Pa

  4. DOption (d)

    1 bar = 105 Pa

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1 bar = 105 Pa

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Pressure:

  • Pressure is defined as a force per unit area.
  • There are different forms of pressure - hydraulic pressure, atmospheric pressure, etc.
  • Hydrostatic pressure is the force exerted at the bottom of the base of the column and is given by

P = Po + p gh. 

  • The SI unit of pressure is the pascal (Pa) which is equal to N/ m2.
  • Though pressure is also measured in units like - atm for measuring atmospheric pressure, torr for measuring static pressure, and mm is also used to measure the small amount of pressure.
  • Atmospheric pressure is also measured in bar.

Question 139

Which among the following is a poor conductor of heat?

  1. AOption (a)

    Copper

  2. BOption (b)

    Aluminium

  3. COption (c)

    Silver

  4. DOption (d)

    Mercury

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Mercury

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Conductor:

  • Conductors are the types of materials that allow an electric current to pass through them.
  • It has a magnetic field which also stores the energy.
  • Electrons can move freely and the thermal conductivity is very low with a weak covalent bond.
  • They have very low resistivity.
  • It has a positive temperature coefficient.
  • It has an empty valence bond.
  • Example:- Silver, copper, aluminium, iron, etc

Insulator:

  • Insulators are the materials or substances which do not allow the electric current or any energy to pass through them.
  • Its magnetic field doesn't store any energy.
  • Electrons do not move freely.
  • It has very low thermal conductivity while it has a high value of resistivity.
  • It contains strong covalent bonds.
  • It has a negative temperature coefficient.
  • Example:- Rubber, wood, paper, glass, etc.

Explanation

  • Mercury is a liquid at room temperature and it has poor conductivity as compared with the metals like silver, aluminium and copper which are good conductors.

Question 140

Choose the correct option.

  1. AOption (a)

    CH3COOH has the boiling point of 391 K

  2. BOption (b)

    CHCl3 has the melting point of 290 K

  3. COption (c)

    CH3CH2OH has the boiling point of 391 K

  4. DOption (d)

    CH4 has the melting point of 290 K

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

CH3COOH has the boiling point of 391 K

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Boiling Point: The minimum temperature at which a liquid starts boiling is called its boiling point.

Melting Point: The minimum temperature at which a solid starts melting and converts into liquid is called its melting point.

Important Points

  • CH3COOH has a boiling point of 391 K  while CH3CH2OH has a boiling point of 78.37 ºC or 351.5 K.
  • CHCl3 has the melting point of 334.3 K.
  • CH4 has the melting point of 91.15 K.

Discipline 3 (20 questions)

Question 141

Choose the correct arrangement of the following substances in decreasing order of forces of attraction between the particles - milk, wood, hydrogen.

  1. AOption (a)

    Wood > Milk > Hydrogen 

  2. BOption (b)

    Hydrogen > Milk > Wood

  3. COption (c)

    Milk > Wood > Hydrogen

  4. DOption (d)

    Hydrogen > Wood > Milk

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Wood > Milk > Hydrogen 

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Solids:

  • Solids are rigid in comparison to liquids and gases.
  • They have a definite shape and volume.
  • Solid particles have low kinetic energy.
  • They can't be compressed due to no space between their particles.
  • Their molecules are held tightly by strong nuclear forces.
  • Solids are present in very dense forms.
  • Their diffusion rate is very low.
  • They have negligible intermolecular space and high intermolecular attraction between their particles.
  • Example - Wood

Liquids:

  • Liquids are not so rigid.
  • They have definite volume but no definite shape.
  • They can be easily compressed.
  • They have many intermolecular spaces between their particles as compared to solids.
  • They are known for their flowing property called fluidity.
  • Their diffusion rate is moderate.
  • Example - Milk

Gas:

  • Gases are also not rigid.
  • They neither have a definite shape nor definite volume.
  • They can be compressed easily due to the large spaces between them.
  • They diffuse very easily.
  • They have a very weak force of attraction between their particles.
  • They flow and evaporate easily.
  • Gases possess very low density.
  • They have very high kinetic energy.
  • Example - Hydrogen

Important Points

  1. Intermolecular Force: Intermolecular forces are the forces of attraction and repulsion between interacting particles (atoms and molecules). This term does not include the electrostatic forces that exist between the two oppositely charged ions and the forces that hold atoms of a molecule together i.e., covalent bonds.
  2. Intramolecular Force: The force which mediates atomic interactions between molecules. Examples, Electromagnetic forces.
  3. Hydrogen Bond: The weak molecular interactions of the dipole to the dipole.
  4. Atoms and nonpolar molecules are electrically symmetrical and have no dipole moment because their electronic charge cloud is symmetrically distributed, forces acting between such molecules are Landon Forces.
  5. Another name for this force is dispersion force.

Question 142

Which of the following is incorrect regarding rules for writing the number of electrons in different energy levels or shells?

  1. AOption (a)

    The maximum number of electrons present in a shell is given by the formula 2n2, where ‘n’ is the orbit number or energy level index, 1, 2, 3 _

  2. BOption (b)

    The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in the outermost orbit is 8.

  3. COption (c)

    Electrons are not accommodated ina given shell, unless the inner shells are filled.

  4. DOption (d)

    Electrons are accommodated in an outermost cell before the inner shells are filled in case of gases.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Electrons are accommodated in an outermost cell before the inner shells are filled in case of gases.

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Electronic configuration:

  • The arrangement of electrons in the electronic levels of an atom is called its electronic configuration.
  • The electrons are arranged according to their energies and space availability.
  • There are a few sets of rules which we follow while arranging the electrons in an atom.

They are-

  • Aufbau principle-
  • ​It states that the atomic orbitals which have lower energies are filled first.
  • Then the electron goes to occupy the higher atomic energy levels.
  • This rule is followed to write the electronic configuration of atoms in their ground state.
  • When in the excited state, the electrons might vacant the lower energy state and move on to a higher energy state.
  • The order in which atomic orbitals are filled are: 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s 3d 4p 5s 4d 5p 6s 4f 5d 6p.
  • The order follows that lower ( n + l ) value of atomic orbital will have lower energy, where n = principal quantum number and l = azimuthal quantum number.
  • Pauli's exclusion principle:
  • ​An electron is characterized by four quantum numbers n, m, l, and s.
  • Pauli's exclusion principle states that every electron must have its unique set of these four quantum numbers.
  • No two electrons can have the same set of quantum numbers.
  • Simplifying, we may say that an orbital can contain a maximum of two electrons and the two electrons should have opposite spins ( + ½, - ½ ).
  • Hund's rule of maximum spin multiplicity:
  • ​While filling up the orbitals of the same energy, or degeneracy, electrons will first singly occupy the subshell.
  • After each subshell has been singly occupied, electron pairing will start.
  • This rule thus implies that maximum spin should be maintained while filling up electrons in a subshell.
  • Maximum spin state involves maximum exchange energy and yields a more stable state.

Explanation:

  • The electronic configuration is the distribution of electrons of an atom or molecule in atomic or molecular orbitals in the given atom or molecule.
  • The filling of electrons takes place by different rules like- Hund's rule, Aufbau's principle, and Pauli's exclusion principle.

So, the Incorrect statement is that "Electrons are accommodated in an outermost cell before the inner shells are filled in case of gases."

Question 143

Which of the following is an incorrect statement? 

  1. AOption (a)

    The solute particles of a solution can be separated from the mixture by the process of filtration.

  2. BOption (b)

    A solution is a homogeneous mixture.

  3. COption (c)

    Because of very small particle size, they do not scatter a beam of light passing through the solution. So, the path of light is not visible in a solution.

  4. DOption (d)

    The particles of a solution are smaller than 1 nm (10-9 metre) in diameter.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The solute particles of a solution can be separated from the mixture by the process of filtration.

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Homogeneous MixtureHeterogeneous Mixture
1. Composition is uniform throughout the mixture.1. Composition is not uniform throughout the mixture.
2. The components are separated by tedious processes.2. The components can be separated by physical processes.
3. The resulting mixture has a single phase.3. The resulting mixture can have two or more two phases.
4. For Example, Sugar when dissolved in water form a homogeneous mixture.4. Example, Pebbles in water, cereals in water, etc.

Explanation:

  • A Solution consists of solute and solvent. The solvent is a substance in which solute is dissolved and solute is a substance that is dissolved in a solvent. In other words, a Solution can be defined as a homogeneous mixture of two or more two substances that are dissolved in the desired solvent. The particle size of a solution is generally less than 1 nm or 10-9 m.
  • Since, in a solution, solute particles are completely dissolved in a solvent such that we can not distinguish between solute and solvent particles anymore and result in a homogeneous mixture and hence solute particles can not be separated from the mixture by the method of filtration.

Question 144

Which of the following is incorrect?

  1. The main credit for classifying elements goes to Johann Wolfgang Döbereiner.
  2. The early development of a Periodic Table of elements was created through the arrangement of elements on the basis of their fundamental property, the atomic mass, and also on the similarity of chemical properties.

Choose the correct code:

  1. AOption (a)

    Both 1 and 2 

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither 1 and 2

  3. COption (c)

    Only 1

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only 1

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Döbereiner 's Triads:

  • A German scientist named Johann Döbereiner put forward his law of triads in 1817.
  • The Döbereiner 's Triads was a group of three elements.
  • The appearance and the reaction of the elements in a triad were similar to each other.
  • Döbereiner discovered that the relative atomic mass of the middle elements in each triad was close to the average of the relative atomic masses of the other two elements.
  • Thus, he suggested that atomic masses are an important character for the classification and arrangement of electrons.

​Periodic Classification of elements:

  • The elements are classified according to the order of their atomic masses.
  • They are arranged in the increasing order of their atomic size.
  • The periodicity in property is the repetition of similar outer electronic configuration after certain regular intervals.
  • The elements are arranged according to their electronegativity and stability.

Classification of elements under the Modern periodic table :

  • S- block Elements - Group 1 (Alkali metals)  and Group 2 (Alkaline Earth Metals) of the periodic table are called S- block elements.
  • P-Block Elements - The atoms of the elements of which the last electron from their outer shell inters p- subshell is called P-block elements.
  • D- block Elements - They are commonly known as Transition Metals.
  • F- block Elements - They are commonly known as Inner- Transition Metals.
  • The f-block consists of the two series, lanthanoids (the fourteen elements following lanthanum) and actinoids (the fourteen elements following actinium).

Question 145

The mass of aluminium is :

  1. AOption (a)

    27 u (11 protons + 16 neutrons)

  2. BOption (b)

    27 u (14 protons + 13 neutrons)

  3. COption (c)

    27 u (12 protons + 15 neutrons)

  4. DOption (d)

    27 u (13 protons + 14 neutrons)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

27 u (13 protons + 14 neutrons)

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  1. Aluminium is a p-block element belonging to group 13 and period 3.
  2. It has the atomic number 13 and has a mass of 27 u.

Explanation:

Atomic Number of Aluminium = 13

Atomic Mass of Aluminium = 27 

Number of Electrons = Number of Protons = Atomic Number = 13

Number of Neutrons = Atomic Mass - Number of electrons or protons

                                 = 27 - 13

                                 = 14

Question 146

  1. Who put forward the following postulate about the model of an atom?

“While revolving in discrete orbits the electrons do not radiate energy.”

  1. AOption (a)

    John Dalton

  2. BOption (b)

    Werner Heisenberg

  3. COption (c)

    Ernest Rutherford

  4. DOption (d)

    Neils Bohr

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Neils Bohr

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Bohr's Atomic Model: 

  • In 1913, Neil Bohr proposed the Bohr atomic model based on the plank's quantum theory of radiation.
  • Bohr’s atomic model explains the structure of atoms, basically of the Hydrogen atom, and is therefore also called Bohr’s model of Hydrogen atoms.
  • Bohr’s atomic model suggests that electrons surround the nucleus moving in orbit like planets around the sun.

Main postulates of Bohr atomic model are :

  • In an atom, electrons revolve around a positively charged nucleus in a fixed circular path called orbits or shells. The orbits are represented as 1, 2, 3, …..etc., and the shells are represented by K, L, M, N,………..etc.
  • The energy of the electrons in a particular energy level or orbit remains constant i.e. they do not radiate energy, and hence account for the stability of an atom.
  • Only those orbits are permitted whose angular momentum is the integral multiple of h/2π i.e. mvr = n(h/2π). These postulates suggest that an electron’s angular momentum is quantized
  • An electron jumps from a higher energy level to lower energy level when it absorbs energy while losing energy when the transition occurs from a higher energy level to a lower energy level. The difference in energy between two energy states is hv i.e. (E2-E1 = hv, where E1 is the lower level energy and E2 is the higher level energy).

 

Angular momentum (L) = m v r = n × (h/2π)

Angular momentum in 1st orbit = h/2π 

Angular momentum in 3rd orbit = 3h/2π 

Important Points

  • John Dalton gave Dalton's Atomic Theory which states that atom is indivisible and indestructible.
  • Werner Heisenberg gave Uncertainty principle.
  • The Uncertainty Principle states that both the velocity and the position of an object cannot be measured exactly, at the same time.
  • The product of uncertainties of position and velocity is equal to h/4π.
  • ​Ernest Rutherford gave alpha scattering experiment and gave the discovery of proton.
  • ​Neil Bohr put forward the postulate about the model of an atom “While revolving in discrete orbits the electrons do not radiate energy.”​

Question 147

Which of the following sub-atomic particle was discovered by J. Chadwick in 1932?

  1. AOption (a)

    Neutrinos

  2. BOption (b)

    Protons

  3. COption (c)

    Neutrons

  4. DOption (d)

    Electrons

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Neutrons

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Atom:

  • An atom is the smallest unit of an element and has all the properties of the element.
  • Particles present inside of an atom is called sub-atomic particles.

​Sub-atomic Particles:

  • The sub-atomic particles are Protons, Neutrons, Electrons, and Neutrinos.
  • Protons are positively charged subatomic particles present in nuclei of all the atoms.
  • Neutrons are subatomic particles with mass equal to protons and they do not carry any charge**.** They are present inside Nucleus of atom.
  • Electrons are negatively charged subatomic particles which revolve around the nucleus.
  • Neutrinos are subatomic particles which are very similar to electrons but have no electrical charge and a very small mass which might even be zero.

Explanation:

Discovery of neutron: 

  • In 1932 J. Chadwick discovered subatomic particles called Neutrons.
  • He discovered neutrons by hitting a chemical called beryllium with alpha particles.
  • Neutrons are present in every nucleus except hydrogen atom.
  • J. Chadwick fired alpha particles at beryllium sheet by using a polonium source and an uncharged, penetrating radiation was produced.
  • He concluded that the penetrating radiation was made up of uncharged particles with the mass of proton (approximately).
  • The term Neutrons was given later.

Additional Information

  • Protons are discovered by Ernest Rutherford in 1917.
  • Electrons are discovered by J.J Thomson in 1897.
  • Neutrinos are discovered by Wolfgang Pauli in 1930.
  • The sub-atomic particle discovered by J. Chadwick in 1932 was Neutron.

Question 148

Where does the fertilization in human females take place?

  1. AOption (a)

    Blastocoel

  2. BOption (b)

    Fallopian tube

  3. COption (c)

    Cervix

  4. DOption (d)

    Uterus

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Fallopian tube

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Fallopian tube.

Concept:

  • Fertilization is the process of fusion of sperm (male gamete) with an ovum (female gamete).
  • Fertilization is of two types: External and internal fertilization
  • External fertilization: In external fertilization, eggs are fertilized outside of the organism's body.
  • Eg- amphibians and fishes.
  • Internal fertilization: In internal fertilization, eggs are fertilized within the female reproductive tract.
  • Eg- mammals and birds.

Explanation:

  • The fertilization in human females takes place in the fallopian tube.
  • The Fallopian tubes are found in the female reproductive system of humans.
  • Fallopian tubes are also known as oviducts.
  • These are two small tubes, about 10-12 cm in length, in which each one lies on either side of the uterus near the kidney.
  • Fallopian tubes serve as passageways for ova (egg cells) from the ovaries to the uterus.
  • The fallopian tubes are where an egg is fertilized by a sperm.
  • The fertilized egg then travels to the uterus and implants in the uterine lining.

Thus, fertilization in human females takes place in fallopian tube.

Additional Information

  • Blastocoel:
  • The blastocoel is a fluid-filled cavity found in animal embryos during the blastula stage.
  • Uterus (womb):
  • The uterus is a single, hollow, muscular, pear-shaped structure supported by ligaments, and attached to the pelvic wall.
  • Uterus is the home to a developing fetus.
  • It is present between the urinary bladder and the rectum.
  • Cervix:
  • It is the lower part of the uterus that opens into the vagina.
  • The cavity of the cervix is called the cervical canal, which forms the birth canal along with the vagina.

Question 149

If we convert 287 K to celsius scale, we will get:

  1. AOption (a)

    18 °C

  2. BOption (b)

    14 °C

  3. COption (c)

    24 °C

  4. DOption (d)

    187 °C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

14 °C

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Temperature is the measure of the total amount of heat in a body and is usually measured in the unit of degree celsius.

  • Kelvin, Fahrenheit, Rankine  are the different units used to measure the temperature of a body
  • The relationship between the kelvin and degree Celsius scale is given by

⇒ 1° C = 273.15 K

Calculation:

Given, 

The temperature in kelvin = 287 K

Using, the formula C = K - 273.15, we get

Temperature in celsius = Temperature in kelvin - 273.15

Temperature in celsius = 287 - 273.15

The temperature in celsius = 13.85 ºC = 14 ºC.

Question 150

Which of the following contraceptive methods interfere with ovulation and prevent release of ova from the ovaries?

  1. AOption (a)

    Diaphragm

  2. BOption (b)

    Copper T

  3. COption (c)

    Oral Contraceptive Pills

  4. DOption (d)

    Tubectomy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Oral Contraceptive Pills

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Oral Contraceptive Pills.

Concept:

  • The contraceptive method is a different method to avoid family planning or pregnancy.
  • It will also help in preventing unwanted pregnancies and Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs).
  • There are different methods of contraception - condoms, Diaphragms, birth control pill, barriers, and operative methods.
  • Contraceptive methods are divided into following categories:
  1. Natutal/traditional methods
  2. Barrier methods
  3. Intra uterine devices (IUDs)
  4. Oral contraceptives
  5. Injectables and implants
  6. Surgical methods

Explanation:

  • Oral Contraceptive Pills involve the uptake of hormonal preparations of progestogen pr progestogen-estrogen combinations in the form of pills by females.
  • They inhibit ovulation and implantation as well as alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent or retard the entry of sperms.
  • And it also prevents the release of ova from the ovaries.
  • 'Saheli', an Oral Contraceptive Pill for females containing a non-steroidal preparation was developed by scientists at Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI) in Lucknow.
  • Pills have high contraceptive value and few side effects.

Additional Information

  • Diaphragm:
  • Diaphragm are the barrier made of rubber that are inserted into the female reproductive tract to cover the cervix during coitus.
  • They prevent the entry of sperms through cervix.
  • Copper T:
  • It is an example of copper releasing intra uterine devices.
  • It is inserted by doctors in the uterus through vagina.
  • Tubectomy:
  • In females, a small part of the fallopian tube is removed and tied up through a small incision in the abdomen and vagina.
  • It is a terminal and permanent contraceptive method.

Question 151

Just like halogens, _______ also exists as diatomic molecules and it combines with metals and non-metals to form covalent compounds.

  1. AOption (a)

    Oxygen

  2. BOption (b)

    Carbon

  3. COption (c)

    Hydrogen

  4. DOption (d)

    Nitrogen

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Hydrogen

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Hydrogen.

Explanation:

  • Halogens (with ns2np5 configuration belonging to the seventeenth group of the periodic table), it is short by one electron to the corresponding noble gas configuration, helium (1s2).
  • As a result, hydrogen resembles both alkali metals, which lose one electron to form unipositive ions, and halogens, which gain one electron to form uninegative ions. Hydrogen, like alkali metals, forms oxides, halides, and sulphides.
  • Unlike alkali metals, however, it has a very high ionisation enthalpy and does not possess metallic characteristics under normal conditions.
  • Reaction of Hydrogen with metals: At high temperatures, it combines with many metals to form the corresponding hydrides

H2(g) +2M(g) → 2MH(s);

where M is an alkali metal

  • Like halogens, hydrogens also exists as diatomic molecule and combine with metals and non-metals to form covalent compounds.

Question 152

The molecules of soap are sodium or potassium salts of long-chain _______ acids.

  1. AOption (a)

    Sulphuric

  2. BOption (b)

    Hydrochloric

  3. COption (c)

    Boric

  4. DOption (d)

    Carboxylic

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Carboxylic

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

  • Soaps are sodium or potassium salts of long chain (18+ carbon) carboxylic acids.
  • They dissolve grease by forming micelles that are water soluble because the anionic carboxylate groups are on the outside solvated by water while the inside of the micelle contains the long hydrocarbon chains.
  • Oils and greases dissolve into the oily middle of the micelle and are washed away .
  • Now non greasy dirt particles are easily rinsed away from whatever they were keeping dirty.

Structure of Soap: 

1. Head, the hydrophilic part:

  • The Head of the micelle is formed of the ionic part.
  • This part is hydrophilic and is attracted to water. 2. Tail, the hydrophobic part:
  • The tail of the micelle is formed by a long chain of hydrocarbons.
  • This part is hydrophobic and is attracted to dirt/oil/grease.

Structure of Micelle formation : 

Soaps are sodium or potassium salts of long chain carboxylic acids.

Question 153

Which of the following is not a feature of a Prokaryotic cell?

  1. AOption (a)

    Membrane-bound organelles, such as mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, lysosome, chloroplast, nucleolus, etc. are present within the cytoplasm.

  2. BOption (b)

    The genetic material is a single molecule of DNA lying in the cytoplasm.

  3. COption (c)

    Bacteria and blue-green algae are examples of this type of cell.

  4. DOption (d)

    These cells do not have a well-organized nucleus.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Membrane-bound organelles, such as mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, lysosome, chloroplast, nucleolus, etc. are present within the cytoplasm.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1 (Membrane-bound organelles, such as mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, lysosome, chloroplast, nucleolus, etc. are present within the cytoplasm.).

Concept:

  • On the basis of the organisms, complexity, and variety, all cells can be grouped into two types, prokaryotic cells, and eukaryotic cells.
  • Cells which does not have a nuclear membrane and other membrane-bound organelles is called prokaryotic cell.
  • A cell that has a well-organized nucleus with the nuclear envelope and several membrane-bound organelles is called eukaryotic cell.

Explanation:

  • Some features of prokaryotic cells:
  • The nuclear region of a prokaryotic cell is poorly-defined because of the absence of a nuclear membrane. Hence, a prokaryotic cell lacks a true nucleus.
  • Many bacteria contain a small circular DNA lying in the cytoplasm known as plasmid.
  • Prokaryotic cells lack complex membrane-bound organelles (such as chloroplast, mitochondria, etc.).
  • Bacteria are the simplest and most common type of organism amongst prokaryotes.
  • The bacteria are found in almost every place like deep in the soil, seawater, human intestine, etc.
  • The prokaryote cell wall acts as an extra layer of protection, helping to maintain cell shape and preventing dehydration.
  • Examples of prokaryotic cells are bacteria, cyanobacteria (blue-green algae), mycoplasma.

Question 154

(I)_______ property of soap interacts with water and (II)_______ property interacts with hydrocarbons. 

  1. AOption (a)

    (I) hydrophobic (II) hydrocarbolic

  2. BOption (b)

    (I) Hydrocarbolic (II) hydrophilic

  3. COption (c)

    (I) hydrophobic, (II) hydrophilic

  4. DOption (d)

    (I) hydrophilic, (II) hydrophobic

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(I) hydrophilic, (II) hydrophobic

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Soap Molecule:

  • Soap molecules are composed of long-chain of carbon and hydrogen atoms.
  • The one end that has sodium or potassium ion is water-soluble and acts as the hydrophilic end
  • The second end contains a long hydrocarbon chain which is oil soluble and acts hydrophobic in nature.

The reaction of soap with water:

  • Soap is reacted with water the ionic part of the soap is dissolved in water.
  • The non-polar end of the soap is repelled by water.
  • It forms a monolayer at the surface.

Micelles:

  • Micelle is the soap molecule structure which helps in cleaning dirt and oil.
  • It has a cleaning action in the washing of clothes and other articles.
  • Micelles are formed when greasy dirt and oil are mixed with soapy water.

Question 155

Which of the following is correct?

  1. Carbon is tetravalent because it has four valence electrons.
  2. Covalently bonded molecules are seen to have weak bonds within the molecule, but inter-molecular forces ore strong.

Choose the correct code:

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 1

  3. COption (c)

    Neither 1 nor 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Both

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only 1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Carbon is tetravalent because it has four valence electrons (Otption 2).

Concept:

  • An intermolecular force is an attractive force that exists between the positive (or protons) components of one molecule and the negative (or electrons) components of another molecule.
  • Intramolecular forces are the forces that hold atoms together within a molecule. Intermolecular forces are interactions between molecules.

 

Explanation:

  • Carbon is tetravalent because it has four valence electrons. (CORRECT)
  • In its outermost shell, the carbon atom has four electrons.
  • Carbon atoms can only achieve the inert gas electron arrangement through electron sharing, so carbon always forms covalent bonds.
  • Carbon has a valency of four because one carbon atom requires four electrons to achieve the nearest inert gas configuration.
  • As a result, carbon is said to be tetravalent.
  • Carbon has several important properties, including:
  • Catenation: The ability of carbon to form a long carbon chain.
  • Carbon's tetravalency: refers to its ability to form bonds with other atoms by sharing its valence electrons. For example, one carbon atom combines with four hydrogen atoms to form the CH4 molecule.
  • Covalently bonded molecules are seen to have weak bonds within the molecule, but inter-molecular forces are strong. (INCORRECT)
  • Atoms in a single compound molecule are strongly covalently bonded or connected and when two molecules are joined, the intermolecular force is weak, and the molecules can easily be separated to change their physical form (solid, liquid or gaseous ). For example, CH4
  • The hydrogen and carbon atoms in a CH4 molecule are strongly covalently bonded, but when two molecules of CH4 are joined to form 2CH4, the molecules are loosely connected and thus easily separated into two individual molecules of CH4.

Question 156

Which of the following are known as suicide bags?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mitochondria

  2. BOption (b)

    Golgi bodies

  3. COption (c)

    Ribosomes

  4. DOption (d)

    Lysosomes

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Lysosomes

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Lysosomes.

Explanation:

  • These are membrane-bounded organelle that are produced by the Golgi apparatus.
  • Lysosomes are found in animal cells.
  • They are rich in several hydrolytic digestive enzymes (hydrolases-lipases, proteases, carbohydrates, etc.).
  • As these are optimally active at the acidic pH (less than 7).
  • If the membrane of a lysosome breaks, the enzymes released may also destroy the cell itself. Therefore, lysosomes are also known as the ‘suicide bags’ of a cell.
  • Lysosomes are a kind of waste disposal system of the cell.
  • These help to keep the cell clean by digesting any foreign material as well as worn-out cell organelles.
  • Functions:
  • They digest the food contents (intracellular digestion)
  • They also perform extracellular digestion.
  • They also digest the old and useless organelles of the cells.
  • They also have functioning in cell division.

Additional Information

  • Mitochondria: 
  • Mitochondria are membrane-bound cell organelle, essential for aerobic respiration of eukaryotic cells.
  • These are also known as the powerhouse of the cell. Thus they produce cellular energy in the form of ATP.
  • Golgi bodies:
  • Golgi bodies or Golgi apparatus is a major complex protoplasmic structure being made up of many flat, disc-shaped sacs or cisternae (0.5 - 1.0 µm) in diameter.
  • The Golgi apparatus is also involved in the formation of lysosomes.
  • Ribosomes: 
  • These are the small subspherical granular organelles, not bounded by any membrane.
  • Ribosomes are mainly composed of ribonucleoproteins (i.e., RNA + proteins) and are also known as protein factories, as they are primarily involved in the synthesis of proteins or polypeptides.

Question 157

Which of the following has not been concluded by Rutherford from the α-particle scattering experiment?

  1. AOption (a)

    The atom is indivisible and indestructible.

  2. BOption (b)

    Most of the space inside the atom is empty.

  3. COption (c)

    The positive charge of the atom occupies very little space.

  4. DOption (d)

    All the positive charge and mass of the atom were concentrated in a very small volume within the atom. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The atom is indivisible and indestructible.

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Rutherford  α-particle scattering experiment:

  • In 1911, Rutherford performed a scattering experiment in which he bombarded thin foils of metals like Gold, silver, platinum or copper with a beam of moving α-particles.
  • The source of α-particles was radium, a radioactive substance, placed in a block of lead. Slits were used to get a fine beam.
  • The presence of α-particle at any point around the thin foil of gold after striking it was detected with the help of a circular zinc sulphide screen. the point at which α-particle strikes, a flash of light is given out.

​

​

Conclusions of Rutherford's experiment: 

  • Most of the space inside the atom is empty because most of the α-particles passed through the gold foil without getting deflected.
  • Very few particles were deflected from their path, indicating that the positive charge of the atom occupies very little space.
  • A very small fraction of α-particles were deflected by very large angles, indicating that all the positive charge and mass of the gold atom were concentrated in a very small volume within the atom.

On the basis of his experiment, Rutherford put forward the model of an atom, which had the following features:

  • There is a positively charged centre in an atom called the nucleus. Nearly all the mass of an atom resides in the nucleus.
  • The electrons revolve around the nucleus in well-defined orbits.
  • The size of the nucleus is very small as compared to the size of the atom.

**Explanation:**Rutherford's alpha particle scattering experiment shows the presence of a nucleus in the atom. It also gives the following important information about the nucleus of an atom:​

  • Nucleus of an atom is positively charged.
  • Nucleus of an atom is very dense and hard.
  • Nucleus of an atom is very small as compared to the size of the atom as a whole. ​

Important Points

  • The atom is indivisible and indestructible is given by Dalton's Atomic Theory.

Dalton's Atomic Theory:

  • Dalton’s atomic theory proposed that all matter was composed of atoms, indivisible and indestructible building blocks. While all atoms of an element were identical, different elements had atoms of differing sizes and mass.
  • Dalton’s atomic theory also stated that all compounds were composed of combinations of these atoms in defined ratios.
  • Dalton also postulated that chemical reactions resulted in the rearrangement of the reacting atoms.

The atom is indivisible and indestructible is not concluded by Rutherford's α-particle scattering experiment.

Question 158

A solution contains 50 g of common salt in 300 g of water. Calculate the concentration in terms of mass by-mass percentage of the solution.

  1. AOption (a)

    14.28 Percent

  2. BOption (b)

    16 Percent

  3. COption (c)

    7 Percent

  4. DOption (d)

    11.1 Percent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

14.28 Percent

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Solution: 

  • A solution is a homogenous mixture of two or more substances.
  • The minor component in the solution which is dissolved in the solvent (major component)  is called Solute.
  • The major component of the solution which dissolves a solute (minor component) is called Solvent.

Here, in the above question, common salt is solute and water is solvent.  

The formula for mass by the mass percentage of the solution is given by 

Mass by mass % = mass of solutetotal  mass\frac{mass\ of\ solute}{total \ \ mass}× 100 

Calculation:

Given:  

Mass of solute (common salt) = 50g 

mass of solvent (water)= 300g 

mass by mass % = mass of solutetotal  mass\frac{mass\ of\ solute}{total \ \ mass}× 100 

= (50/350) × 100

= 14.28%

Mass by mass % of the solution is 14.28**%**

Question 159

_______ are generally sodium salts of sulphonic acids or ammonium salts with chlorides or bromides ions

  1. AOption (a)

    PVC

  2. BOption (b)

    Detergents

  3. COption (c)

    Soaps

  4. DOption (d)

    Micelles

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Detergents

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Detergents.

Explanation:

  • Detergents are generally sodium salts of sulphonic acids or ammonium salts with chlorides or bromides ions, etc.
  • Both have long hydrocarbon chains.
  • The charged ends of these compounds do not form insoluble precipitates with the calcium and magnesium ions in hard water.
  • Thus, they remain effective in hard water. Detergents are usually used to make shampoos and products for cleaning clothes.
  • Detergents are long-chain carboxylic acid ammonium or sulphonate salts.
  • As a result, the resulting compound is known as sulphonic acid. Sulphonic acids are used in making of detergents, whereas carboxylic acids (fatty acids) are used in the making of soap.

Additional InformationSoaps

  • Soaps are sodium or potassium salts of long-chain carboxylic acid.
  • The action of soaps and detergents is based on the presence of both hydrophobic and hydrophilic groups in the molecule and this helps to emulsify the oily dirt and hence its removal.

Micelles

  • The molecules of soap are sodium or potassium salts of long-chain carboxylic acids. The ionic end of soap interacts with water while the carbon chain interacts with oil. The soap molecules, thus form structures called micelles where one end of the molecules is towards the oil droplet while the ionic end faces outside. This forms an emulsion in water.
  • Because of ion-ion repulsion, the micelles remain in solution as a colloid and will not precipitate. As a result, the dirt suspended in the micelles is easily rinsed away.
  • Light can be scattered by the soap micelles. As a result, a soap solution appears cloudy.

Question 160

Which of the following is incorrect?

  1. AOption (a)

    Stoppage of menstruation at an age usually between 45 years and 55 years is termed menopause.

  2. BOption (b)

    A girl is born with fixed number of ova (eggs).

  3. COption (c)

    The first menstrual bleeding is called menarche.

  4. DOption (d)

    A pair of ova (eggs) are shed alternately from each ovary every month.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A pair of ova (eggs) are shed alternately from each ovary every month.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4. (A pair of ova (eggs) are shed alternately from each ovary every month.)

Explanation:

  • The rhythmic series of changes that occur in the reproductive organs of female primates (monkeys, apes and human beings) is called the menstrual cycle.
  • The uterus lining becomes thick and spongy to receive fertilized egg. If the egg is not fertilized, this lining is not needed any longer.
  • So, it slowly breaks and comes out through the vagina along with blood and mucous. This is called menstruation.
  • It is repeated at an average interval of about 28/29 days.
  • Stoppage of menstruation at an age usually between 45 years and 55 years is termed menopause. (CORRECT)
  • The menstrual cycle permanently stops in females at the age of around $5 years to 55 years. This is called menopause.
  • A woman cannot become pregnant after menopause.
  • A girl is born with fixed number of ova (eggs). (CORRECT)
  • At birth, the normal female ovary contains approximately 1-2 million ova (eggs).
  • Females are incapable of producing new eggs, and the total number of eggs produced each month decreases.
  • By the time a girl reaches puberty, only about 25% of her lifetime total egg pool, or around 300,000, remains.
  • The entire egg supply will be depleted over the next 30-40 years of a female's reproductive life.
  • The first menstrual bleeding is called menarche. (CORRECT)
  • The first appearance of menstrual at puberty is called menarche.
  • Menarche usually occurs around the age of 12, but a few years earlier or later is perfectly normal.
  • Menarche timing is influenced by female biology as well as genetic and environmental factors, particularly nutritional factors.
  • A pair of ova (eggs) are shed alternately from each ovary every month. (INCORRECT)
  • At the midpoint of each menstrual cycle, the ovaries release an ova (eggs).
  • During each menstrual cycle, only one oocyte from one ovary is usually released, with each ovary taking turns releasing an egg.

Discipline 4 (20 questions)

Question 161

Which of the following is the largest source of Nitrogen?

  1. AOption (a)

    Atmospheric Nitrogen

  2. BOption (b)

    Urban Waste

  3. COption (c)

    Livestock and Poultry operations

  4. DOption (d)

    Geological sources

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Atmospheric Nitrogen

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Atmospheric Nitrogen.

Explanation:

  • Nitrogen (N2) is the most important element on the earth and it is mostly found in gaseous form.
  • Approximately 78 percent of the total is elemental nitrogen, 21 percent is oxygen, and the remaining 1 percent is made up of all other gases such as carbon dioxide, argon, and others.
  • The largest source of Nitrogen on the Earth is atmospheric Nitrogen. This form of nitrogen is inert and cannot be used by any living organism, it must be converted into a usable form.
  • With the exception of a few microorganisms, atmospheric nitrogen is molecular dinitrogen, a relatively nonreactive molecule.
  • Nitrogen is the most plentiful gas in the air.
  • When we inhale, we take some amount of nitrogen into our lungs and exhale it. But plants need nitrogen for their survival. They can not take nitrogen directly from the air.
  • Bacteria, that live in the soil and roots of some plants, take nitrogen from the air and change its form so that plants can use it.
  • Organic nitrogen, ammonium (NH4+), nitrite (NO2-), nitrate (NO3-), nitrous oxide (N2O), nitric oxide (NO), and inorganic nitrogen gas are all present in the environment (N2).
  • Organic nitrogen can exist as a living organism, humus, or as byproducts of organic matter decomposition.
  • The nitrogen cycle involves the transformation of nitrogen from one form to another.
  • Many of these processes are carried out by microbes, either to harvest energy or to accumulate nitrogen in the form required for growth.
  • Nitrogen cycle:
  • Nitrogen cycle is a biogeochemical cycle.
  • It converts the inert nitrogen from the atmosphere into nitrogen that is useful to plants and animals.

Question 162

Which of the following is o Protein Energy Malnutrition (PEM)?

  1. AOption (a)

    Marasmus

  2. BOption (b)

    Night Blindness

  3. COption (c)

    Goitre

  4. DOption (d)

    Anaemia

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Marasmus

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Protein Energy Malnutrition (PEM):

  • Protein Energy Malnutrition is a series of pathological conditions that are caused due to inadequate intake of protein and calorific nutrients.
  • Malnutrition is a cellular imbalance between the body's demand for nutrients to ensure the growth and maintenance of specific functions.
  • This condition has mild, moderate and severe degrees.
  • The primary deficiency of food and nutrients is the major cause of PEM.
  • The diseases under PEM are caused by the underconsumption of calories or proteins.
  • Examples - Kwashiorkor, Marasmus, etc.

Important PointsNight Blindness:

  • It is also known as nyctalopia.
  • It is a disease in which the patient faces blindness at night or in dull light.
  • It is an underlying disease such as a retina problem.

Goitre:

  • It is a disease caused due to lack of iodine in the diet.
  • It results in swelling of the neck.
  • By taking iodised salt it can be prevented.

Anaemia:

  • It is a disease caused by the lack of haemoglobin in the blood.
  • In some cases, anaemia results in the reduction or shortage of blood in the body.

Question 163

Which of the following meninges of the human brain forms the thin delicate middle layer giving a web-like cushion?

  1. AOption (a)

    Pia mater

  2. BOption (b)

    Ven mater

  3. COption (c)

    Dura mater

  4. DOption (d)

    Arachnoid

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Arachnoid

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

The Human Brain:

  • The human brain is divided into three major parts forebrain, midbrain and hindbrain.
  • The forebrain consists of the cerebrum, thalamus and limbic system.
  • The midbrain consists of colliculi, the tegmentum and the cerebral peduncles.
  • The hindbrain consists of the cerebellum, pons and medulla oblongata.
  • The brain is made of many specialized areas that work together.
  • The brain is the main controlling unit of the central nervous system.
  • The spinal cord provides the link between the brain and the body.
  • The layers of the brain are known as meninges which protect the brain and the spinal cord.
  • Its outer layer is called dura mater which is tough.
  • The middle layer of the brain is called the arachnoid which is very delicate.
  • The inner layer of the brain is known as the pia-mater.

 

The meninges consist of three layers that cover the brain and spinal cord. These layers are, from outermost to innermost: the dura mater, the arachnoid mater, and the pia mater.

  • The arachnoid mater is the thin, delicate layer that forms the "web-like" middle layer of the meninges. Positioned between the tough, outer dura mater and the deep, delicate pia mater, the arachnoid mater is named after the Greek word "arachne," meaning spider, due to its fine, web-like appearance.
  • Just below the arachnoid mater is a space called the subarachnoid space, which contains cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). This fluid acts as a cushion for the brain and spinal cord, providing mechanical protection and also participating in maintaining a stable environment by acting as a reservoir of circulating fluid.

Question 164

Which of the following belongs to the same division of Kingdom Plantae?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ulva, Funaria, Ulothrix

  2. BOption (b)

    Riccia, Marchantia, Funaria

  3. COption (c)

    Spirogyra, Riccia, Cycas

  4. DOption (d)

    Marchantio, Marsilea, Fern

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Riccia, Marchantia, Funaria

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Riccia, Marchantia, Funaria.

Concept:

  • Kingdom - Plantae includes all eukaryotic, chlorophyll-containing organisms called plants.
  • Some of these members are primary heterotrophic, such as insectivorous plants of parasites.
  • Kingdom Plantae are divided into 5 major divisions:
  • Algae (Thallophyta)
  • Bryophytes
  • Pteridophytes
  • Gymnosperms and
  • Angiosperms

Explanation:

  • Riccia, Marchantia, Funaria belongs to the same division bryophytes of Kingdom Plantae.

  • These are non-vascular embryophytes, characterized by the presence of an independent gametophyte and parasitic sporophyte.

  • Bryophytes commonly grow in moist, shaded areas in hills.

  • These are also called amphibians of the plant Kingdom because, these can live in soil, but are dependent on water for sexual reproduction.

  • The plant body of bryophytes is most differentiated than that of algae. It is thallus-like and prostrate erect and attached to the substratum by unicellular or multicellular rhizoids.

  • Bryophytes are generally classified into two main groups 

  • liverworts: liverworts usually grow in moist, shady places such as banks of streams, marshy ground, damp soil, bark of trees, and deep in the Woods.

  • Mosses: Mosses grow in dense mats over moist shady places, especially during rainy seasons.

  • Riccia (liverworts) are small thalloid plants with no differentiated roots, stems, or leaves.

  • Marchantia (liverworts) is divided into two layers: an upper photosynthetic layer and a lower storage layer. The plant body of Marchantia is a thalloid.

  • Funaria is a moss genus with approximately 210 species.

Thus, Riccia, Marchantia, Funaria belongs to the same division (Bryophytes) of Kingdom Plantae.

Question 165

Which of the following minerals’ prime function is to maintain growth and keep osmotic balance of cells and blood?

  1. AOption (a)

    Iron

  2. BOption (b)

    Potassium

  3. COption (c)

    Iodine

  4. DOption (d)

    Calcium

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Potassium

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Potassium.

Concept:

  • Living organisms require a number of macromolecules, such as carbohydrates, proteins, fats, water, and minerals in order to grow and develop.
  • Thus, the inorganic substances or minerals that provide nourishment to the living organisms or work as a raw material for bodybuilding and maintaining its normal functions are termed mineral nutrients and the mode of taking all these required nutrients is called mineral nutrition.

Explanation:

  • Minerals are essential nutrients, and each one is required for proper growth, development, maintenance of optimal health, as well as to maintain the osmotic balance of cells and blood.
  • Our bodies require trace amounts of minerals.
  • Some sources of different minerals are meat, cereals, fish, milk and dairy foods, nuts, fruit and vegetables.
  • It helps the body in fluid regulation, nerve signal transmission, and muscle contraction regulation.
  • Cells contain approximately 98 percent of the potassium in your body.
  • The majority of this is found in muscle cells, with the remaining 20% found in bones, liver, and red blood cells.
  • The control of water and electrolyte balance in the body is known as osmotic balance.
  • It acts as an electrolyte once inside your body.
  • When an electrolyte dissolves in water, it forms positive or negative ions with the ability to conduct electricity. Potassium ions are positively charged.
  • This electricity is used by your body to control a variety of processes, including fluid balance, nerve signals, and muscle contractions.

Additional Information 

MineralsSourceFunction
Ironliver, red meat, beans, dried fruit – such as dried apricots, fortified breakfast cereals, soybean flour.to make hemoglobin, a protein in red blood cells
PotassiumMeat, cereals, fish, milk and dairy foods, nuts, fruit and vegetables.Maintain proper growth, development, and maintenance of optimal health, as well as maintain the osmotic balance of cells and blood.
IodineFish, dairy products(milk, cheese, yogurt) eggs, beef liver.to make thyroid hormone
CalciumMilk, cheese and other dairy foods, green leafy vegetables, soya drinks with added calcium, bread and anything made with fortified flour.healthy bones and teeth, blood clotting, helping muscles to contract, and regulating normal heart rhythms and nerve functions.

Question 166

Which of the following is an example of Phylum Porifera?

  1. AOption (a)

    Hydra

  2. BOption (b)

    Pin worms

  3. COption (c)

    Sycon

  4. DOption (d)

    Planaria

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Sycon

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sycon.

Explanation:

  • Phylum Porifera (Porous -pore; ferre - to bear) includes the first and the most primitive group of multicellular animals, referred to as poriferans, i.e., pore-bearing animals.
  • ​Phylum Porifera is an exclusive classification of aquatic animals.
  • They are primitive, multicellular animals and are commonly called sponges.
  • There are mostly marine and some are freshwater habitat, found in ponds and lakes.
  • It's canal system is one of the most important feature of sponges.
  • Canal system is the network of channels called Canals, which connect the spongocoel to the outside through ostia.
  • Digestion in animals of this Phylum is intracellular (inside collar cells) in nature.
  • In Phylum Porifera, respiration occurs through the body surface by diffusion.
  • Examples: Sycon (Scypha), Spongilla (Freshwater sponge), and Euspongia (Bath sponge)
  • Sycon:
  • These are solitary or colonial marine sponges found attached to rocks in shallow waters.
  • The body is cylindrical in shape and covered in spores.
  • Flagellated cells make up the radial canal. Water enters the body through the Ostia and travels to the radial canals via the prosopyles.
  • These species reproduce in both sexual and asexual ways.

Additional Information

  • Planaria is one of many flatworms of the Phylum Platyhelminthes.
  • Pinworms belong to the Phylum Nematoda.
  • Hydra is a genus of small, freshwater organisms of the phylum Coelenterata (Cnidaria).

Question 167

Which of the following is transmitted by the female Culex mosquito?

  1. AOption (a)

    Congo fever

  2. BOption (b)

    Filoriasis

  3. COption (c)

    Dengue

  4. DOption (d)

    Malaria

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Filoriasis

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Filariasis.

Explanation:

  • Filariasis (Japanese encephalitis) is the most common disease spread by the female Culex mosquito bite.
  • Female Culex mosquito is the vector.
  • Through their bite, Culex mosquitos transmit infectious microbes such as the Japanese encephalitis virus (JEV).
  • Culex is a mosquito genus with several species that serve as vectors for one or more important diseases affecting birds, humans, and other animals.
  • Symptoms:
  • Inflammation of organs in which they live.
  • Blockage of lymph vessels of lower limbs resulting in swelling. Lower limbs appear like legs of elephant, thus the name.
  • Genital organs may also be affected, leading to deformation.

Additional Information

Congo fever:

  • Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever is a viral hemorrhagic fever caused by a tick-borne virus (Nairovirus) in the Bunyaviridae family.
  • Symptoms
  • Fever
  • Headache
  • Muscle pains
  • Diarrhoea and vomiting.

Dengue:

  • It is caused by virus Flavivirus.
  • Dengue is transmitted by the bite of the mosquito infected with one of the four dengue virus serotypes.
  • Symptoms
  • High fever
  • Severe headache
  • Pain behind the eyes
  • Muscle and joint pain

Malaria:

  • It is caused by a protozoan Plasmodium (P.vivax, P.malaria, and P. falciparum).
  • The vector of Plasmodium is female Anopheles mosquito which transfers the sporozites (infectious form).
  • Symptoms
  • Shaking chills
  • Headache
  • Tiredness
  • Nausea

Question 168

An increase in blood flow to the atria of the heart can cause the release of ANF. What is the full form of ANF?

  1. AOption (a)

    Antidiuretic Nephrotic Factor

  2. BOption (b)

    Angiotensin Natriuretic Factor

  3. COption (c)

    Ariel Nephrotic Factor

  4. DOption (d)

    Atrial Natriuretic Factor

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Atrial Natriuretic Factor

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Atrial Natriuretic Factor.

Explanation:

  • ANF is commonly known as Atrial Natriuretic Factor.
  • Atrial Natriuretic Factor is a natriuretic peptide hormone produced by the walls of the atria of the heart in response to an increase in blood volume and pressure.
  • Atrial Natriuretic Factor is a vasodilator that plays a role in the homeostatic regulation of body fluids, potassium, sodium, and fats in adipose tissue.
  • It causes vasodilation (dilation of blood vessels) and thereby, decrease the blood pressure.
  • Atrial Natriuretic Factor also inhibits Na+ and Cl- ions reabsorption in Distal Convulated Tubule (DCT) and increases concentration of urine.
  • It increases Sodium excretion and decreases blood pressure.
  • Atrial Natriuretic Factor inhibits release of renin from juxta Glomerular Apparatus (JGA) and thereby, inhibits NaCl reabsorption by the collecting duct and reduces aldosterone release from the adrenal gland.
  • The function of counter-current mechanism is to concentrate NaCl in the intestinal fluid and thereby cause water to diffuse out of the collecting tubules and Ducts and concentrate the urine.

Question 169

Which of the following diseases is caused by Treponema pallidum?

  1. AOption (a)

    AIDS

  2. BOption (b)

    Syphills

  3. COption (c)

    Osteoporosis

  4. DOption (d)

    Gonorhoea

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Syphills

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Syphills.

Concept:

  • Any condition which interferes with the normal functioning of the body and causes disorder of the mind or body is called a disease.
  • Mainly diseases are of two types:
  • Infectious diseases: These are easily transmitted from one infected person to the other.
  • Non- infectious diseases: These are not transmitted from one person to the other.

Explanation:

  • Treponema pallidum is a spirochaete bacterium that causes syphilis (also known as endemic syphilis).
  • It causes lesions in the mucous membranes of the genital, rectal, and oral regions.
  • It usually spreads by sexual contact that starts as a painless sore.
  • Syphilis is only spread through direct contact.
  • Syphilis can be challenging to diagnose as a person can go without showing any symptoms for years.
  • Penicillin is one of the most widely used antibiotics effect in treating syphilis.
  • The best way to prevent syphilis is to practice safe sex.
  • Signs and symptoms:
  • Painless ulcers and sores in the groin area
  • Skin rashes
  • Fatigue
  • Swollen lymph nodes

Additional Information

AIDS: 

  • AIDS stands for Acquired immuno Deficiency syndrome.
  • AIDS is a chronic, potentially life-threatning condition caused by the Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
  • Human immunodeficiency virus is a virus that affects the immune system of the body.
  • HIV belongs to the group retrovirus.

Osteoporosis:

  • Osteoporosis is a bone disease that develops when bone mineral density and bone mass decreases, or when the quality or structure of bone changes.
  • A lifelong calcium deficiency contributes to the development of osteoporosis. Low calcium intake leads to decreased bone density, early bone loss, and an increased risk of fractures.

Gonorhoea:

  • Gonorrhea is an infection caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae, which is transmitted sexually and infects both males and females.
  • When a doctor detects a problem early on, it is usually possible to treat it effectively. If not treated it can lead to long-term complications.

Question 170

A minute vessel of peritubular capillaries network runs parallel to the Henle’s loop forming a ‘______' shaped vasa recta.

  1. AOption (a)

    V

  2. BOption (b)

    U

  3. COption (c)

    Z

  4. DOption (d)

    D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

U

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is U.

Explanation: 

  • Each kidney is composed of numerous (nearly 1 million) complex tubular structure called nephrons.
  • These are the functional units of kidney.
  • In the nephron, glomerulus is a tuft of small blood vessels located within Bowman's capsule.
  • Blood enters the glomerular capillaries via an afferent arteriole (a fine branch of the renal artery) and exits via an efferent arteriole.
  • The efferent arteriole is the connecting vessel that connects the glomerulus to the peritubular capillaries and vasa recta.
  • The efferent arteriole forms a capillary network known as peritubular capillaries around the renal tubule.
  • A minute vessel from this network, known as vasa recta, runs parallel to Henle’s loop forming a U-shaped structure.
  • This is prominent in juxtamedullary nephron and is absent or highly reduced in the cortical nephron.
  • In some of the nephrons, the loop of Henle is very long and runs deep into the medulla. These nephrons are called juxtamedullary nephrons.

Question 171

The movement of nutrients in a cyclic manner in the environment constitutes which of the following?

  1. AOption (a)

    Biogeochemical Cycle

  2. BOption (b)

    Organic Life Cycle

  3. COption (c)

    Inorganic Life Cycle

  4. DOption (d)

    Biosphere Cycle

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Biogeochemical Cycle

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the Biogeochemical Cycle.

Explanation:

  • The movement of nutrient elements through various components (abiotic + biotic) of an ecosystem is called nutrient cycling or biogeochemical cycle.
  • The total amount of nutrients like carbon, Phosphorus, calcium, etc., present in the soil at any time is called the standing state.
  • Biogeochemical cycles are basically divided into two types:
  • Gaseous cycles – Includes Carbon, Oxygen, Nitrogen, Water cycle.
  • Sedimentary cycles – Includes Sulphur, Phosphorus cycle.
  • ​Water cycle:
  • Water evaporates, cools, condenses, and falls back to earth as rain from the various bodies of water.
  • This biogeochemical cycle is responsible for maintaining the weather conditions.
  • Carbon cycle: 
  • It is one of the biogeochemical cycles that exchanges carbon between the biosphere, geosphere, hydrosphere, atmosphere, and pedosphere.
  • Carbon is returned to the atmosphere as CO2 by animals and plants through respiration and the activities of decomposers.
  • Oxygen cycle: 
  • This biogeochemical cycle occurs in the atmosphere, lithosphere, and biosphere. Oxygen is an abundant element on our Earth.
  • It is found in the atmosphere in the elemental form to the extent of 21%.
  • Nitrogen cycle: 
  • It is the biogeochemical cycle that converts nitrogen into various forms and circulates it through the atmosphere and various ecosystems such as terrestrial and marine ecosystems.
  • Sulphur cycle:
  • This biogeochemical cycle moves through rocks, bodies of water, and living systems. Weathering of rocks releases sulphur into the atmosphere, where it is converted into sulphates.
  • Microorganisms and plants absorb these sulphates and convert them to organic forms.
  • Phosphorus cycle:
  • Phosphorus moves through the hydrosphere, lithosphere, and biosphere in this biogeochemical cycle. The weathering of rocks extracts phosphorus. Phosphorus is washed away in the soil and water bodies as a result of rain and erosion.

Additional Information

  • Importance of Biogeochemical Cycles
  • These cycles demonstrate how the energy is utilised. These cycles transport the elements required for life to survive throughout the ecosystem.
  • They are essential because they recycle and store elements, as well as regulate vital elements through physical facets.
  • These cycles represent the interaction of living and non-living things in ecosystems and enable the continuous survival of ecosystems.

Question 172

What percentage does Oxygen contributes in the composition of Air?

  1. AOption (a)

    20.09 Percent

  2. BOption (b)

    78.03 percent

  3. COption (c)

    0.033 percent

  4. DOption (d)

    0.94 percent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

20.09 Percent

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 20.09 Percent.

Concept:

  • The composition of air is made up of three major components: nitrogen, oxygen, and argon.
  • The most abundant naturally occurring gas is Nitrogen (N2), which makes up about 78.03 per cent of air. Oxygen (O2) is the second most abundant gas at about 20.09 Percent. The Argon (Ar) inert gas is the third most abundant gas at 0.94 per cent. There are also trace amounts of carbon dioxide (CO2), neon (Ne), helium (He), methane (CH4), krypton (Kr), hydrogen (H2), nitrous oxide (NO), xenon (Xe), ozone (O3), iodine (I2), carbon monoxide (CO), and ammonia (NH3) in the atmosphere.

Explanation:

  • Oxygen:
  • Oxygen accounts for 20.09% of the atmosphere.
  • It is highly reactive, forming compounds with a wide range of other chemicals, and is required for living things to breathe.
  • Oxygen is a colourless, odourless, and tasteless gas made up of the diatomic molecule O2.
  • Photosynthesis, the process by which plants convert carbon dioxide and water into carbohydrates, produces oxygen.
  • Oxygen is required not only for respiration and combustion, but it is also a major component in many other important organic molecules that comprise a living organism, such as carbohydrates, proteins, and fats.

 

Additional Information

  • Nitrogen:
  • Nitrogen (N2), makes up about 78.03% of air.
  • Nitrogen is present to counteract the effects of oxygen.
  • It is a non-combustible gas that takes up the most space in the atmosphere.
  • Nitrogen is also one of the most abundant gases on the earth.
  • Argon: 
  • Argon (Ar), makes up about 0.94% of air.
  • This gas is naturally occurring in the environment and dissipates quickly in a well-ventilated space. Argon is an asphyxiant in and of itself, and inhaling it can cause dizziness and nausea.
  • Carbon dioxide:
  • Carbon dioxide (CO2), makes up about 0.033 % of air.
  • Living things take in oxygen and exhale carbon dioxide.

Question 173

A normal human being on an average breathes how many times in a day?

  1. AOption (a)

    43,000 Times

  2. BOption (b)

    22,000 Times

  3. COption (c)

    44,000 Times

  4. DOption (d)

    59,000 Times

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

22,000 Times

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 22,000 Times.

Key Points

  • The process of moving air into and out of the lungs to facilitate gas exchange with the internal environment, primarily to flush out carbon dioxide and bring in oxygen, is known as breathing (or ventilation).
  • A normal human being takes approximately 20,000 breaths per day.
  • Breathing is a complex process that affects every part of the body, despite being primarily a subconscious effort.
  • When you breathe, you use the respiratory system, and your body's cells use the oxygen, producing waste in the form of carbon dioxide in the process.
AgeRate breaths/min
New born35-40
Infant30-50
Toddler25-32
Child20-30
Adolescent16-20
Adult12-20

Question 174

Which of the following belongs to Eukarya domain of classification?

  1. AOption (a)

    Cyanobacteria

  2. BOption (b)

    Entamoeba

  3. COption (c)

    Crenarchaeota

  4. DOption (d)

    Lokiarchaeota

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Entamoeba

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Entamoeba.

Concept:

  • Three domains system or six kingdom classification is a biological classification system in which living organisms were divided based on cellular characteristics.
  • It was introduced by Carl Woese, a professor in the department of Microbiology, University of illions in 1990.

Explanation:

  • The three domains of six kingdom classification are-
  • Archaea: It contains prokaryotic organisms, which have a monolayer core of lipids in the cell membrane and distinct nucleotides in their 16 S RNA.
  • Bacteria: It contains typical prokaryotes, which lack membrane-covered cell organelles but do not have a type of microchambers for separating various activities.
  • Eukarya: This domain contains eukaryotic organisms, originated by endosymbiotic association between some archaebacteria and eubacteria.
  • The four Kingdoms of this domain are- Protista, fungi, plantae, and animalia.
  • Entamoeba:
  • Entamoeba are protozoans that are members of the kingdom Protista in Eukarya domain.
  • Entamoeba histolytica is a protozoan that causes both intestinal and extraintestinal amebiasis.

Additional InformationCyanobacteria:

  • Cyanobacteria are a large and morphologically diverse group of photoautotrophic prokaryotes that belong to the Bacteria Domain. These are also known as Blue-green algae.

Crenarchaeota and Lokiarchaeota:

  • Crenarchaeota and Lokiarchaeota belong to the Archaea Domain.

Question 175

Consider the following statements about a kingdom -

  1. It includes multicellular or many celled organisms.
  2. The body is made of network (mycelium) of fine threads called hyphae.

Which of the following is an organism belonging to this kingdom?

  1. AOption (a)

    Amoeba

  2. BOption (b)

    Mycobacterium

  3. COption (c)

    Mushroom

  4. DOption (d)

    Chlamydomonas

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Mushroom

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Kingdom Fungi:

  • Fungi is one of the kingdoms out of the five kingdoms of classification of organisms.
  • Fungi are eukaryotic, non-vascular organisms.
  • They are heterotrophic in nutrition.
  • They reproduce by means of spores, usually wind-disseminated.
  • The body is made of a network of fine threads called hyphae.
  • These networks are called mycelium.
  • Both sexual and asexual spores may be produced depending upon the species and conditions.
  • Typically, they are non-motile, although a few may have a motile phase.
  • They are mostly multicellular but some are found to be unicellular.
  • They have a cell wall made up of chitin.
  • They exhibit nuclear mitosis.
  • They have a filamentous body design.
  • Examples - mushroom, aspergillus, penicillium, etc.

Question 176

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

  1. 31 pairs of spinal nerves emerge from the spinal cord.
  2. The functions of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems are complementary to each other.
  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1

  2. BOption (b)

    Both 1 and 2

  3. COption (c)

    Only 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Neural System:

  • The neural system is the major controlling and regulatory system of the human body.
  • It acts as the centre of all the mental activities which is taken care of by the brain and the spinal cord.
  • The human nervous system consists of the brain, spinal cord and nerve cells.
  • Homeostasis is maintained in the body by the neural system only.
  • It sends and receives signals from the brain and the body.
  • Any malfunctioning of the organs or organ systems is taken care of by them.
  • With the help of nerve cells, they provide commands to the body to act in an emergency situation.

Spinal Cord:

  • The spinal cord is a part of the human nervous system.
  • There are 31 spinal nerves extending out from the left and right sides of the spinal cord.
  • The nerves are labelled by the vertebrae region and numbered for the vertebra nearest to the nerve exit from the spinal canal.
  • It is the structure of a flexible column comprised of 26 bones in a multi-covered shape arising naturally due to vertebral and disk shape, rib cage and inclination of the sacral endplate.
  • It helps in providing resistance to the axial sagittal plane.
  • It supports the mass of the body/ head and withstands external forces.
  • Allows for mobility and flexibility to absorb energy and protect against any impact.
  • It helps in controlling and maintaining the central, autonomous and peripheral nervous system.

Sympathetic and Parasympathetic nervous systems:

  • The sympathetic nervous system drives 'flight or fight' responses while the parasympathetic nervous system predominates the 'rest and digest responses.
  • The parasympathetic nervous system decreases the heart rate while the sympathetic increases.
  • The sympathetic nervous system dilates pupils, relaxes airways, inhibits the activity of the stomach, relaxes bladders etc.
  • The parasympathetic nervous system stimulates the activities of the stomach and intestines, contracts the bladder, inhibits the release of glucose and stimulates the gall bladder.​

Question 177

What is the name of the insulating fatty sheath that covers the axon of most neurons?

  1. AOption (a)

    Neurilemma

  2. BOption (b)

    Nodes of Ranvier

  3. COption (c)

    Synaptic cleft

  4. DOption (d)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Neurilemma

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Neutron:

  • It is commonly known as a nerve cell.
  • The nerve cell is the basic unit of transfer and communication in the nervous system.
  • It is composed of the Cell body, nucleus, axons, dendrites, granular body and cell organelles.
  • A nerve cell is a type of cell which sends and receives electrical impulses between the brain and the body.

Neurilemma:

  • Neurilemma is a plasma membrane of Schwann cells that surrounds the myelinated nerve fibres.
  • It is the outermost layer of the myelinated nerve fibre.
  • It is only found in the peripheral nervous system.
  • Neurilemma is formed by Schwann cells.
  • It is involved in protecting and regenerating nerve fibres.
  • They secrete myelin.
  • It is the cell that wraps around the axon and neuron.​

Important Points

Nodes of Ranvier: Nodes of Ranvier are characterised by short and specialized regions in the axonal membrane which is not insulated.

Synaptic cleft: It is the space that separates a neuron and its targeted cells at a chemical synapse.

Synapse: Synapse is the site of transmission of electrical impulses between the neurons and the effector cells. Synapse is also known as neuronal junction.

Question 178

How many chromosomes are there in a sperm and an ovum or an egg of human-beings?

  1. AOption (a)

    22

  2. BOption (b)

    23

  3. COption (c)

    21

  4. DOption (d)

    20

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

23

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Chromosomes:

  • A chromosome is an organized structure of DNA and protein that is found in cells.
  • It is a single piece of coiled DNA containing many genes.
  • In eukaryotic cells, large linear chromosomes are found whereas in prokaryotic cells smaller circular chromosomes are found.
  • Eukaryotic cells have very long DNA molecules to fit into the cell nucleus.
  • Compaction of the duplicated chromosomes during mitosis and miosis results in the classic four-arm structure of chromosomes.
  • Chromosomes help in the regulation of protein in the cells.
  • It also helps in the determination of the sex or gender of a given individual.
  • They influence the determination of traits of the entire organism and form some important characteristics like height, eye colour etc.
  • It contains pieces of information and instructions for the newly generated cells.
  • Chromosomes always occur in pairs.
  • Humans have a set of 23 pairs of chromosomes of which 22 pairs are known as autosomes and one pair is called sex chromosomes.
  • The autosomes are responsible for different traits and characters from the parents to the progeny.
  • The sex chromosomes are responsible to determine the sex of an individual and also carry some sexual characteristics.

Question 179

Which of the following statements are not true regarding Ammonia?

  1. AOption (a)

    It is generally excreted by diffusion across body surfaces or through gill surfaces (in fish)

  2. BOption (b)

    it is readily soluble

  3. COption (c)

    Kidneys play a significant role in its removal

  4. DOption (d)

    The process of excreting ammonia is Ammonotelism

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Kidneys play a significant role in its removal

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Ammonia:

  • Ammonia is a colourless gas with a very distinct order.
  • Ammonia is used as a cleaning chemical in industrial and household processes.
  • It is easily dissolved in water and is known as liquid ammonia or aqueous ammonia in this form.
  • Liquid ammonia looks like water and also flows like water.
  • Ammonia is a weak base chemically.
  • Ammonia is a waste product in humans which is produced during the digestion of protein.
  • In aquatic animals, the process of ammonia excretion is called ammonotelism.

Functions of Kidneys:

  • Kidneys are the main functional organ of the excretory system.
  • There are two sets of kidneys in the human body.
  • Kidneys are made up of some basic cells called nephrons.
  • Nephrons are also called the functional unit of the kidney.
  • Kidneys help in the removal and excretion of waste materials from the human body.
  • It is also responsible for the filtration and purification of blood.
  • It regulates selective reabsorption in the body.
  • It also helps in the active and passive transport of blood into the body.
  • Kidneys support the process of excretion.
  • They are also responsible for osmoregulation.
  • They excrete unwanted substances like ammonia and urea from the body.

Question 180

Which of the following is used as oxidant in rockets to burn the fuel?

  1. AOption (a)

    Liquid Helium

  2. BOption (b)

    Liquid Nitrogen

  3. COption (c)

    Liquid Oxygen

  4. DOption (d)

    Liquid Argon

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Liquid Oxygen

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Liquid Oxygen:

  • Oxygen is found as a gas but is also stored as a liquid.
  • Liquid oxygen is used as an oxidant for liquid fuels in the propellant systems of missiles and rockets.
  • It is also used in metal industries.
  • It is also used in conjunction with acetylene and other gases for cutting metals.
  • Liquid oxygen has a low temperature.
  • It also has medicinal uses.

Important Points

Liquid Nitrogen:

  • Liquid nitrogen is used as a coolant.
  • Cold storage industry uses liquid nitrogen for the storage of medicine and food items.
  • It is also used in cryotherapy.
  • Liquid nitrogen can cause frostbite and poses an explosion risk if enclosed.
  • It can cause suffocation in confined spaces.

Liquid Argon:

  • Liquid argon is used in the electrical and lighting industries to fill the bulbs.
  • It has a colour effect and therefore it is used for making different lighting items.
  • It is also used in metal industries for welding.
  • Argon is also used as a shielding gas for the protection of metal during welding.

Liquid Helium:

  • Helium exists in liquid form at 4 Kelvin temperature.
  • Liquid helium is used as a cryogenic refrigerant.
  • It is produced commercially for the manufacturing of superconducting magnets.

Additional Information

  • Oxidizing agent: The element, atom, or ion is reduced in a redox reaction or oxidizes other elements, atoms, or ions in a chemical reaction. The oxidizing agent is also known as Oxidant.
  • Oxidation: The chemical reaction in which oxygen is added to the reactants or Hydrogen is removed from the reactants or In which there is a loss of electron is said to be an Oxidation Reaction.

Discipline 5 (10 questions)

Question 181

The hardness of water is due to the presence of salts of which of the following?

  1. AOption (a)

    Potassium and Sulphur

  2. BOption (b)

    Potassium and Calcium

  3. COption (c)

    Calcium and Magnesium

  4. DOption (d)

    Magnesium and Potassium

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Calcium and Magnesium

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

The hardness of water:

  • The hardness of the water is the measure of its capacity to precipitate soap.
  • It is caused mainly by the presence of divalent cations like Ca2+ and Mg2+.
  • In some cases, the polyvalent cations also cause the hardness of water like - Fe3+, Sr2+, Zn2+, and Mn2+.
  • Due to the hardness of water, it produces scales in the container it is kept in.
  • Mostly, water hardness is caused by the deposition of calcium carbonate in parts per million of water by weight.
  • The access presence of calcium or magnesium as minerals in the water is the root cause of water hardness.
  • The hardness of water can be said as temporary when calcium bicarbonate and magnesium bicarbonate are present in it.
  • The presence of calcium sulphate chlorides or nitrates causes permanent hardness in water.

Question 182

Which of the following are called ‘draught animals’?

  1. AOption (a)

    Animals used for farm labour

  2. BOption (b)

     Poultry Animals

  3. COption (c)

    Egg-producing animals

  4. DOption (d)

    Milk-producing female animal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Animals used for farm labour

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Draught Animal:

  • The animals which are being used to aid humans or other animals in labour are called draught animals.
  • Commonly horses, donkeys, mules, camels, llamas, ships, buffalo, goats, etc are said as drought animals.
  • They are also known by the name draft animals.
  • Draught animals are typical livestock.
  • They are mainly used in agricultural work or in transportation work.
  • They are used in some agricultural processes like tilling and irrigation process.

Important PointsPoultry animals:

  • Poultry is an avian species that can be raised for meat, eggs, feathers etc.
  • It is a type of animal husbandry.

Egg-producing animals:

  • The animals or birds that are raised and cultured due to their egg are called egg-producing animals.
  • Commonly, birds are raised for their egg production.

Milk-producing animals:

  • Milk producing animals are cultured and raised for their milk production.
  • This process is also called dairy farming.
  • Mostly, all the cattle are milk-producing animals.

Question 183

Which of the following is an example of weed?

  1. AOption (a)

    Spring Onion

  2. BOption (b)

    Basil Plant

  3. COption (c)

    Lemon Grass

  4. DOption (d)

    Carrot Grass

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Carrot Grass

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Weeds:

  • A weed is an undesired growing plant that takes nutrition from the other plants.
  • Weeds grow faster than the crops as they take up the nutrition of the crops.
  • They tend to produce lots of seeds with long viability.
  • They usually have some seed dormancy.
  • Some of the weeds can also reproduce vegetatively.
  • Some weeds have allelopathy.
  • Examples - dandelions, clover, purslane, creeping charlie, carrot grass etc.

Weedicides:

  • Weedicides are chemicals used to control weeds and their expansion.
  • Weedicides are used in the agricultural processes in a large amount to control the growth of unwanted weeds.
  • Some common weedicides are

Question 184

The main layer of atmosphere from the surface of earth up to 10 kms is called-

  1. AOption (a)

    Troposphere

  2. BOption (b)

    Thermosphere

  3. COption (c)

    Mesosphere

  4. DOption (d)

    Stratosphere

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Troposphere

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Atmosphere: The area of earth's land covered by air is called the Atmosphere.

Layers of Atmosphere:

There are five layers of the atmosphere. From the down to the top - Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere and Exosphere.

Troposphere:

  • The troposphere is the layer of the atmosphere where the weather is formed.
  • Up to 16 km (10 m) above the earth's surface at the equator it is found.
  • Storms take place in the troposphere, which contains about 75% of the atmosphere.
  • The troposphere extends 8 km from the earth's surface at the north and south poles.
  • It gets cold near the top as low as -75 ºC.

Stratosphere:

  • The stratosphere is the layer of the atmosphere where the protective layer of ozone floats.
  • It is extended up to 16 to 50 km above the earth's surface.
  • The concentration of the protective ozone peaks at about 22 km up.
  • The stratosphere contains 20% of the molecules in the atmosphere.

Mesosphere:

  • The mesosphere is the layer of the atmosphere where the shooting stars blaze.
  • It is extended from 50 km to 80 km above the earth's surface.
  • The space debris begins to burn up as it enters the mesosphere.
  • The temperature drops as you leave the earth dipping to as low as -90 ºC at the top of the layer.

Thermosphere:

  • The thermosphere is the layer of the atmosphere where the temperature rises.
  • It is extended from 80 km to 640 km above the earth's surface.
  • Even though the air over there is thin, it absorbs so much solar radiation that the temperature can reach up to 230 ºC.
  • The ionosphere contains electrically charged particles that can infer the radio broadcast system.
  • The ionosphere is considered a part of the thermosphere.

Exosphere:

  • The exosphere is the farthest layer of the atmosphere.
  • It is extended from 640 km to 64000 km above the earth's surface.
  • The air here dwindles as nothing as molecules into the space.

Question 185

The Excessive use of Fertilizers and pesticides in agriculture has led to which of the following phenomena?

  1. Eutrophication
  2. Photochemical smog
  3. Decantation
  1. AOption (a)

    3 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 only

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    1 and 3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1 only

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Eutrophication:

  • The rapid growth and development of plants that reduce the oxygen supply in water bodies and are caused by excess nutrients are called eutrophication.
  • Nitrates from the fertilizers applied to surrounding arable land are one of the major causes of eutrophication.
  • Phosphates from the animal slurry and from the sewage effluent from settlements and holiday centres are also one of the causes of eutrophication.
  • It is a natural, slow-ageing process for a water body, but human activity greatly speeds up the process.
  • Human-caused, accelerated eutrophication is referred to as cultural eutrophication.

Important PointsPhotochemical Smog:

  • Smog is a mixture of Smoke and Fog. Smog is considered to be an air pollutant.
  • Smog is resulted due to the burning and combustion of coal and petroleum products.
  • The Photochemical smog is formed due to the reaction of various  Nitrogen oxides with Ultra-violet rays from the sun.
  • In Summers, the formation of photochemical smog is more as compared with winters. In the Winter season, Due to high atmospheric pressure and temperature inversions, winter smog takes place.
  • The presence of smog affects climate and temperature.
  • Being an air pollutant Smog causes Air Pollution which is the main cause of respiratory disorders in living organisms.
  • Due to this the Crop production and yield are also affected on a great scale.

Decantation:

  • Decantation is a process for the separation of mixtures of immiscible liquids or of a liquid and a solid mixture such as suspension.
  • An incomplete separation is witnessed during the separation of two immiscible liquids.​

Question 186

Ozone is a molecule formed by how many atom of oxygen?

  1. AOption (a)

    Two

  2. BOption (b)

    Four

  3. COption (c)

    One

  4. DOption (d)

    Three

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Three

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Ozone:

  • Ozone is a layer of O3 molecule that protects the earth from harmful UV rays.
  • It makes a sheet so that the ill effects of sunlight can be controlled.
  • It is a trioxide of oxygen which is an inorganic compound.
  • Chemically, Ozone (O3) is harmful to humans.
  • Ozone layer is depleting due to an increase in global warming and greenhouse gases.
  • Due to Chlorofluorocarbons (CFC) the ozone layer gets affected.
  • There is a hole now generated in the ozone sheet, as claimed by the scientists.

Question 187

Which of the following is a micro-nutrient present in the soil essential for plant growth?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sulphur

  2. BOption (b)

    Iron

  3. COption (c)

    Calcium

  4. DOption (d)

    Magnesium

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Iron

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Plant Nutrients:

  • Plants are also living organisms.
  • The chemical components required for the growth and development of living organisms are called Nutrients.
  • They are the only producers who can make food (glucose) on their own by the process of photosynthesis.
  • The plant also requires some elements in its ionic form or normal forms for the growth and development of its body and to perform various metabolic activities in them.
  • Plant nutrients are also known as minerals or essential elements.

Macro Nutrients:

  • The nutrients which are required in large quantities than others are called macronutrients.
  • The macronutrients include carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, phosphorous, sulphur, potassium, calcium and magnesium.

​Micro Nutrients:

  • The nutrients which are required in few quantities than others are called micronutrients.
  • These include iron, manganese,copper, molybdenum, zinc, boron, chlorine and nickel.
  • Iron is an essential nutrient for plant growth and development.
  • Iron is a co-factor for vital enzymes which are required for the development of the plant.
  • Iron is also required in the process of photosynthesis.

Question 188

The Soda Lime process to convert hard water into soft water is also known as?

  1. AOption (a)

    Weiner’s Method

  2. BOption (b)

    Maxwell’s Method

  3. COption (c)

     Bohr’s Method

  4. DOption (d)

    Clark’s Method

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Clark’s Method

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Clark's Method:

  • Clark's method is used to reduce the temporary hardness of the water.
  • In this method, the temporary hardness is removed using slaked lime.
  • This is a chemical method of removing the hardness of the water on a large scale.
  • In this method, the temporary hardness of water containing hydro carbonates of Ca and Mg is treated with slaked lime in the tanks.
  • The hydro carbonates of Ca and Mg are converted into their insoluble carbonates.
  • These insoluble carbonates settle down at the bottom of tanks, while soft water is drained off for use.

Ca(HCO3)2  + Ca(OH)2   →  2 CaCO3  + 2 H2O

Mg (HCO3)2  + Ca(OH)2  → 2 MgCO3  + CaCO3 + 2 H2O  

Important Points

Weiner’s Method:

  • Weiner's method is a  real value stochastic a process with continuous-time graph.
  • It is used in measuring the real-time displacement or walks by any moving object.

dx = a dt +b dW

Maxwell’s Method:

  • Maxwell's theorem explains the mathematical law of the probability of a given substance.
  • It states that if the probability distribution of a vector is taken at random with a variable ( Xn = X1+X2+X3+...)T is the same as the distribution of GX for every n x n orthogonal matrix G.

Bohr’s Method:

  • Bohr has given a model representation of an atom, it states that an atom is a system consisting of a small, dense nucleus surrounded by orbiting electrons of the given elements according to their stability.
  • There is a nuclear force of attraction between the nucleus of the atom and the revolving electrons.

Question 189

Which of the following is NOT a domestic source of Soil Pollution?

  1. AOption (a)

    Fertilizers

  2. BOption (b)

    Plastic Bags

  3. COption (c)

    Glass Bottlles

  4. DOption (d)

    Kitchen Waste

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Fertilizers

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Soil Pollution:

  • Soil pollution is defined as a build-up of persistent toxic compounds, chemicals, salts, radioactive materials, or disease-causing agents.
  • It occurs due to rapid growth in industrial development, intensive agriculture and other anthropogenic activities.
  • Soil pollution may change the physical, chemical and biological nature of the soil and make it unfair for plant growth, animals and human use.
  • These pollutants decrease soil quality and disturb the soil's natural balance.
  • Some common sources of soil pollution are - the use of fertilizers, plastic bags and articles, glass bottles and kitchen waste.

Domestic waste:

  • In day to day life, there is a lot of waste generated in households due to different human activities.
  • Examples of domestic waste are wrappers, plastic articles, vegetable and fruit peel offs, damaged clothes, glass bottles and glass residues etc.

Fertilizers:

  • Fertilizers are chemical compounds that are used to maintain a good harvest and improve soil fertility.
  • It is used excessively in agricultural processes.
  • Fertilizers increase crop productivity.
  • Fertilizers degrade the quality of soil and cause soil erosion.
  • They are the commercial sources of soil pollution which impact the soil on a large scale.
  • Example:- granular triple superphosphate, urea, potassium chloride, anhydrous ammonia.

Question 190

Increased carbon dioxide level in earth’s atmosphere leads to the phenomenon of _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Greenhouse Effect

  2. BOption (b)

    Ozone hole

  3. COption (c)

    Photochemical smog

  4. DOption (d)

    Acid Rain

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Greenhouse Effect

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Greenhouse Effect:

  • The greenhouse effect is the warming of the earth's surface and troposphere which is caused by the presence of water vapour, carbon dioxide, methane and certain other gases.
  • The process of conversion of heat energy of a planet into its atmosphere.
  • This process warms the planet intensely and causes global warming.
  • It is to some human activities like - the thawing of glacial, flooding of islands and coastal cities, migration of spaces, desertification, impact on agriculture and livestock, deforestation, etc.
  • Examples of greenhouse gases are- carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, hydrochlorofluorocarbon, hydrofluorocarbons and the ozone.

Important PointsOzone Hole:

  • Ozone is a layer of O3 molecule that protects the earth from harmful UV rays.
  • It makes a sheet so that the ill effects of sunlight can be controlled.
  • It is a trioxide of oxygen which is an inorganic compound.
  • Chemically, Ozone (O3) is harmful to humans.
  • The ozone layer is depleting due to an increase in global warming and greenhouse gases.
  • Due to Chlorofluorocarbons (CFC) the ozone layer gets affected.
  • There is a hole now generated in the ozone sheet, as claimed by the scientists.

Photochemical Smog:

  • Smog is a mixture of Smoke and Fog. Smog is considered to be an air pollutant.
  • The Photochemical smog is formed due to the reaction of various  Nitrogen oxides with Ultra-violet rays from the sun.
  • In Summers, the formation of photochemical smog is more as compared with winters. In the Winter season, Due to high atmospheric pressure and temperature inversions, winter smog takes place.
  • The presence of smog affects climate and temperature.
  • Being an air pollutant Smog causes Air Pollution which is the main cause of respiratory disorders in living organisms.
  • It is also harmful to plants as it blocks all the stomatal pores present in the leaves which disturbs the phenomenon of photosynthesis. Due to this the Crop production and yield are also affected on a great scale.

Acid Rain:

  • It is the process of forming acidic components while the precipitation of rain.
  • Sulphuric and nitric acids are commonly found in acid rains.
  • Acid rain is also called acid deposition.
  • This acidic rain has an acidic pH value (0-7).
  • This can take the form of rain, snow, fog, hail, etc.

Teaching Methodology (10 questions)

Question 191

Which of the following is not true? 

  1. AOption (a)

    The process of development is continuous starting from the conception through birth to maturation.

  2. BOption (b)

    Girls mature earlier in comparison to boys.

  3. COption (c)

    The direction of development is ‘cephalo - caudal as well as ‘proximodistal direction.

  4. DOption (d)

    Prenatal (before birth) and postnatal (after birth) development of human beings follows a pattern or a general sequence.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The process of development is continuous starting from the conception through birth to maturation.

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • Development refers to an increase in structure for better and enhanced functioning of organs.
  • It is a continuous process that starts from the prenatal stage.
  • In a pre-natal stage, the baby develops inside the mother's womb and becomes a maturation one by passing through 3 different stages of prenatal development.
  • 3 different stages of prenatal development include-
  • ​Germinal period -  First two weeks after conception.
  • Embryonic period - 8 weeks from conception.
  • Fetal period - 9 weeks until birth or 38-40 weeks.

Explanation:

  • The process of development is continuous starting from conception through birth to throughout life. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Girls physically mature earlier in comparison to boys due to the quicker process of puberty.
  • ​Puberty refers to the process of physical changes by which a child's body matures into an adult body capable of sexual reproduction.
  • The direction of development is ‘cephalo - caudal as well as ‘proximodistal direction.
  • ​The cephalocaudal tendency exhibits that development proceeds in the longitudinal direction that is from head to foot.
  • According to the proximodistal principle, the direction of growth starts from the center of the body and goes outward.
  • Prenatal (before birth) and postnatal (after birth) development of human beings follow a uniformity of pattern or a general sequence.

Thus, the incorrect option is that the process of development is continuous starting from conception through birth to maturation.

Additional Information Principles of development include-

  • Principle of continuity
  • Principle of individual differences.
  • Development proceeds from general to a specific response.
  • Uniformity of pattern.

Question 192

Which of the following can be a source and form of gender discrimination?

  1. Government policies
  2. Family and parents

Choose the correct code.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both 1 and 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 1

  3. COption (c)

    neither 1 nor 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

An individual may be said to have been discriminated against when unequal treatment is extended to him/her vis-his other. There are many bases of discrimination. These can be broadly grouped into three categories: social, economic and gender based.

Key Points

Gender encompasses elements of injustice which stems from the dominant value of the society. 

Gender Discrimination is unequal, unfair, and differential treatment or the situation in which individuals are treated differently because of their gender. Discrimination affects many aspects of the person. Education Discrimination can be on basis of age, disability, gender, caste, race, religion, etc. The devaluation of women in the society leads to their discrimination. This discrimination manifests in the form of dowry, son preference, sex trafficking, unpaid labour, abuse, nutritional deprivation, lack of education, lack of opportunities in the labour market, domestic violence, other economic, social and political disadvantages. 

Sources and Forms of Gender Discrimination:

  • Family and Parents
  • Appointment, placement and Promotion
  • Laws and Rules
  • Education opportunities
  • Division of Labour inside the house
  • Government Policies
  • Nutrition, Health and Leisure
  • Property and Resources

 

Hence, we can conclude that all the above points are the form and source of Gender Discrimination.

Question 193

Which of the following is known as an accepted hypothesis?

  1. AOption (a)

    Evidence

  2. BOption (b)

    Natural Low

  3. COption (c)

    Theory

  4. DOption (d)

    Fact

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Theory

Why this answer is correct

Research is an organized, systematic and scientific inquiry into a subject to discover facts,  theories or to find answer to the problem. It involves several steps including identification of a problem, review of literature, hypothesis  formulation,  data collection, analysis etc.  

Etymologically, hypothesis is made up of two words 'hypo' (less than) and 'thesis', which means less than a thesis.

Key Points

  • It is the presumptive statement of a proposition or a reasonable guess, based upon the available evidences, which the researcher seeks to prove through his/her study.
  • Hypothesis is an assumption or proposition whose testability is to be tested on the basis of the compatibility of its implications with empirical evidence with previous knowledge.
  • 'Hypothesis' is defined as a tentative solution or working proposition suggested as a solution to problem, and the 'theory" as the final hypothesis, which is defensibly supported by all evidence.
  • The final .hypothesis, which fits all the evidences, becomes the chief 'conclusion' inferred from the study (Hilly, 1964). The hypothesis relates theory to observation and vice-versa.
  • Hypotheses when tested are either rejected or accepted, and help to infer the conclusion, which helps in theory.

Hence, it can be concluded that theory is an accepted hypothesis.

Question 194

Which of the following statements is incorrect? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Multi-grade teaching is more effective by the appropriate sitting arrangement.

  2. BOption (b)

    Multi-grade teaching is seen in the developed as well as in the underdeveloped countries.

  3. COption (c)

    Multi-grade Teaching is a situation where multiple teachers teache several classes at a time.

  4. DOption (d)

    Multi-level teaching is related with Mono-grade situation.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Multi-grade Teaching is a situation where multiple teachers teache several classes at a time.

Why this answer is correct

The situation where one or more grades are combined and made to sit together in the same classroom and are taught by a single teacher is called a multigrade class. This situation of combining more than one class of teaching is called multigrade teaching. 

Key Points

  • A multigrade class consists of children of different grades/levels, age groups and ability levels.
  • The multigrade-teaching situation differs from one school to another depending on the number of teachers and pupils enrolled and the methodology to be adopted.
  • The traditional approach of teaching cannot be adopted in a multi-grade setup, which may disrupt and disorganize the learning process and discipline of different grades.
  • Multi-grade teaching is seen in the developed as well as in the underdeveloped countries.
  • In this context, direct teaching can be adopted by you to present an overview/ summary of the lesson/ topic, while starting a new topic/ lesson, to explain difficult concepts and different activities, to arouse learners’ curiosity, to explain the role of monitors and peers, to assign self-study exercises, for reinforcement, evaluation and remedial measures, etc.
  • In a multigrade set-up peer tutors assist in reducing the workload of the teachers and also facilitate the individual learning. This strategy can be used successfully in developing the essence of co-operation amongst learners.
  • Team teaching and sharing responsibility is another strategy where responsibility can be shared between two teachers.
  • As a teacher may have to resolve this constraint be adapting/ organizing few innovating seating patterns. Teacher may adopt a variety of seating pattern in order to Minimize management problem, to keep all children in attentive, providing adequate space for seating, writing and keeping bages ,Providing space for teachers’ movements. Facilitating peer tutoring and group work. Writing conveniently from blackboard,Minimizing noise distraction and Facilitating multi-ability grouping.
  • Multi-level teaching is related with Mono-grade situation.

Thus, it can be concluded that  i,ii,iv are the correct statement in respect of Multi-grade learning.

Question 195

Which of the following is not a feature of formative assessment?

  1. AOption (a)

    Can be flexible as per the needs of the students

  2. BOption (b)

    Grades do not carry much weight

  3. COption (c)

    Outcome oriented

  4. DOption (d)

    Frequently administered during the teaching-learning process

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Outcome oriented

Why this answer is correct

Assessment is educational evaluation, the systematic way of collecting information and reading the work of class which is used to guide and improve student's performance in terms of learning and development. There are several methods that teachers use to evaluate the learning progress and skills of students or the need for any academic assistance. It actually determines whether or not the goals of education are met.

Key Points

Summative Assessment (Assessment of Learning):

  • It is also known as Assessment OF Learning is to evaluate student learning by comparing it against some standard or level.
  • The main objective is to rank, grade, classify and compare students periodically that indicate their level of performance.
  • It is considered a Formal method of Assessment as it is conducted at a specific time.
  • Example: Mid-term Exams, unit tests, final projects, semester exams, etc.

Formative Assessment (Assessment for Learning) :

  • It is also known as Assessment for Learning, used to evaluate student learning progress and achievement.
  • The goal is to collect detailed information like strengths, weaknesses, knowledge, skills, etc., and then plan the next lesson in a way to improve the performance of the students.
  • It helps teachers to identify problem-facing areas, to understand and learning needs for achieving academic growth.  It can be flexible as per the needs of the student and can be frequently administered during the teaching learning process.
  • It is considered an Informal Method of assessment as it can be conducted at any time or during teaching also.
  • Example: Discussions, Class tests, homework, assignments, debate, plays, etc.

Assessment as Learning

  • When learners are asked to assess their performance on their own, they use various assessment techniques and strategies to assess themselves.
  • This practice helps learners to identify their knowledge gaps, adopt appropriate learning strategy and use assessment as a tool for new learning.
  • It encourages students to take responsibility for their own learning.
  • It requires students to ask questions about their learning.
  • It involves teachers and students creating learning goals to encourage growth and development.
  • It provides ways for students to use formal and informal feedback and self-assessment to help them understand the next steps in learning.
  • It encourages peer assessment, self-assessment, and reflection

Thus, it can be concluded that statement iii is not the feature of formative assessment.

Question 196

According to the Census 2011, what is the child sex-ratio in our country?

  1. AOption (a)

    919

  2. BOption (b)

    940

  3. COption (c)

    925

  4. DOption (d)

    932

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

919

Why this answer is correct

Demography is derived from Greek. The word ‘demos’ means the people and ‘graphy’ implies writing, description and measurement. 

Key Points

Sex ratio is used to describe the number of females per 1000 of males.

  • Sex ratio is a valuable source for finding the population of women in India and what is the ratio of women to that of men in India.
  • In India, the child sex ratio is also measured.
  • Child sex ratio is defined as the number of females per thousand males in the age group 0–6 years in a population.
  • Indicating a continuing preference for boys in society, the child sex ratio in India has dropped to 919 females against 1,000 males - the lowest since Independence - in the provisional 2011 Census report.

Important Points

​The Causes and Social Implications of Declining Sex Ratio

  • The declining child sex ratio depicts an unfortunate trend of selective abortion of females.
  • According to CGHR estimates, about 4–12 million girls have been aborted in the last 3 decades, despite the fact that prenatal sex diagnosis is banned in the country.
  • The skewed sex ratio depicts a socio-cultural bias that exists in our country representing a feudal mindset that considers women as objects and not similar to men.
  • The social implications of the poor child sex ratio means that less women of marriageable age group will be available and a significant proportion of men will have to delay their marriage.
  • The poorest males will be most severely affected due to the skewed child sex ratio by the marriage trends.

Thus, it can be concluded that, according to the Census 2011, the child sex-ratio in our country is 919.

Question 197

In which year was the first of its kind “All India Seminar on Teaching Science in Secondary School” held at Simla Hills?

  1. AOption (a)

    1956

  2. BOption (b)

    1950

  3. COption (c)

    1961

  4. DOption (d)

    1953

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1956

Why this answer is correct

In India the pattern of education is influenced by what happened in England. Reviews issued by the then Government of British India in the years 1877-92 gave an insight into the sorry state of science teaching. Science was never a school subject till the beginning of 20th century. Report of the Secondary Education Commission, 1953 recommended the teaching of general science as a compulsory subject in the senior secondary school. “All India Seminar on Teaching Science in Secondary School” was held at Simla Hills in 1956.

Key Points

  • The All India Seminar on the teaching of science (1956) held at Tara Devi (Simla Hills) discussed the probable difficulties of incorporating science at senior secondary level and recommended a unique and uniform system of teaching science across the country.
  • It was the first of its kind touching all the related aspects like Syllabus, Equipment, Method of Examination, Teaching aids, Text books, Science clubs, Museum etc. We thought of a uniform system of science teaching in India for the first time.

Thus, it can be concluded that, In 1956, “All India Seminar on Teaching Science in Secondary School” held at Simla Hills.

Question 198

Who out of the following in his book “Structure of Science” defines Paradigm shift as a scientific revolution?

  1. AOption (a)

    Karl Popper

  2. BOption (b)

    Lmre Lakatos

  3. COption (c)

    Thomas Kuhn

  4. DOption (d)

    Richard Rorty

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Thomas Kuhn

Why this answer is correct

The historian of science Thomas Kuhn gave paradigm its contemporary meaning when he adopted the word to refer to the set of practices that define a scientific discipline at any particular period of time. Kuhn himself came to prefer the terms exemplar and normal science, which have more precise philosophical meanings.

Key Points

However**, in his book The Structure of Scientific Revolutions Kuhn defines a scientific paradigm as:**

  • what is to be observed and scrutinised
  • the kind of questions that are supposed to be asked and probed for answers in relation to this subject
  • how these questions are to be structured
  • how the results of scientific investigations should be interpreted

 

Alternatively, the Oxford English Dictionary defines paradigm as ―a pattern or model, an exemplar.‖ Thus, an additional component of Kuhn's definition of paradigm is:

  • how is an experiment to be conducted, and what equipment is available to conduct the experiment? Thus, within normal science, the paradigm is the set of exemplary experiments that are likely to be copied or emulated. In this scientific context, the prevailing paradigm often represents a more specific way of viewing reality, or limitations on acceptable programs for future research, than the more general scientific method.

 

One important aspect of Kuhn's paradigms is that the paradigms are incommensurable, meaning two paradigms cannot be reconciled with each other because they cannot be subjected to the same common standard of comparison. That is, no meaningful comparison between them is possible without fundamental modification of the concepts that are an intrinsic part of the paradigms being compared. 

Thus, it can be concluded that Kuhn in his book “Structure of Science” defines Paradigm shift as a scientific revolution.

Question 199

Which teaching methods is Socrates an exponent of ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Question-answer method

  2. BOption (b)

    Demonstration method

  3. COption (c)

    Tutorial method

  4. DOption (d)

    Lecture method

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Question-answer method

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

  • Question answer teaching strategy is an old strategy also known as “Socratic Method of teaching”. It was developed by the famous philosopher Socrates.
  • The Socratic method is a teaching tactic in which questions are asked continually until either the student gives a wrong answer or reasoning or the teacher is satisfied with the student's responses.
  • The Socratic teaching method relies on asking questions to help students learn. It has been proven to be more effective than telling student the correct answer. However, asking questions is not practical in large classrooms, and even in small classrooms the answer given by one student may not be representative of how well most students understand the lesson.

Thus, it can be concluded that Question-answer method known as the Socratic Method of teaching.

Question 200

Inductive-Deductive approach is best method for teaching -

1 Science

  1. Grammar
  2. Mathematics

Choose the correct code.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1 and 3

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 2 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 1 and 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1, 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

There are the  different method of teaching . A teacher should adopt an approach considering the nature of the children, their interests and maturity and the resources available. There are  merits. and demerits of various methods that guide a teacher and help him/her to improve his/her teaching skills. Different method of teaching are lecture method, playway method, Inductive Deductive Method and Heuristic Method.

Key Points

  • Induction is that form of reasoning in which a general law is derived from a study of particular objects or specific processes.
  • The child can use measurement, manipulator or constructive activities, patterns etc. to discover a relationship which he shall himself, later, formulate in symbolic form as a law or rule.
  • The law, rule or definition formulated by the child is the summation of all the particular or individual instances. In all inductions. the generalization that is evolved is regarded as a tentative conclusion.
  • In deduction the law is accepted and then applied o a number of specific examples. The child does not discover the law but develops skills in applying the same, proceeds from general to particular or abstract to concrete. In actual practice, the combination of Induction and Deduction is practised. The laws discovered by pupils inductively are further verified deductively through applications to new situations.
  • Inductive Deductive method is best for teaching science, grammar and Mathematics,

Thus, it can be concluded that this method is best for teaching science, mathematics and Grammar. ​

200 questions in the full paper