DSSSB TGT Social Studies Female 1 Oct 2021 (Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

As per the given information,

Five boys A, B, C, D and E attend one of five different schools S1, S2 S3, S4 and S5 (not necessarily in the same order).

• A does not go to S2. E goes to S1.
• C goes to S4.
• D does not go to S2 or S3.

So, from the above table we can conclude that:

• D goes to S5
• A goes to S3

Therefore the final arrangement will be:

Now,

I. D goes to S5  → True

II. B goes to S3  → False

Clearly, statement I is true.

Hence, the correct answer is "Only I".

As per the given question;

• A man is looking towards north. He rotates 180 degree in clockwise direction.

• He rotates 270° in anti-clockwise direction.

​

• He again turns 90 degrees in anti-clockwise direction.

• Finally, he rotates 135 degrees in the clockwise direction.

Clearly, the man is facing 'North-West'.

Hence, the correct answer is "North-West".

The logic follows here is:

​Hence, the correct answer is "NBA".

The logic follows here is:

(CP, EQ, GR)

On checking each option:

1) (LN, NO, PP)

Thus, '(LN, NO, PP)' follows the same logic as given in the question.

2) (MZ, OB, QC) 

3) (QS, ST, VU)

4) (AC, CD, EF)

​Hence, the correct answer is "(LN, NO, PP)".

As per the given information:

Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G live on seven different floors of the same building (not necessarily in the same order). The ground floor is numbered 1, the floor immediately above it is numbered 2 and so on.

• D lives on an even numbered floor.
• Three persons live between D and F.
• G lives immediately below F.

 

• A lives on odd numbered floor.
• Two persons live between A and B.

 

• E is not the neighbor of D.
• One person lives between C and E.

​

 

Here, Case I will be eliminated as it contradicts the given condition that E is not the neighbour of D.

Thus, the final arrangement will be:

 

Now,

I. Two persons live between E and G → False.

II. C lives on the fifth floor  → True.

Clearly, statements II is true.

Hence, the correct answer is "Only II".

The logic follows here is:

• 'FAMILY' is written as 'LFSNRD'

Similarly,

• 'REASON' will be written as:

​Hence, the correct answer is "XJGXUS".

The logic follows here is:

• 1st number + 72 = 2nd number
• 2nd number + 72 = 3^rd number

1) (72, 142, 214)

→ 72 + 72 = 144 ≠ 142 =  2nd number

It does not follows the logic.

2) (56, 128, 200)

→ 56 + 72 = 128 = 2^nd number

→ 128 + 72 = 200 = 3rd number

3) (48, 120, 192)

→ 48 + 72 = 120 = 2nd number

→ 120 + 72 = 192 = 3rd number

4) (88, 160, 232)

→ 88 + 72 = 160 = 2nd number

→ 160 + 72 = 232 = 3rd number

Hence, the correct answer is "(72, 142, 214)".

As per the given information,

I. The number of teachers who are not male is 45.

→ The shaded part represents 'the number of teachers who are not male' = 45 + 16 

= 61 ≠ 45

Thus, the given statement is not true.

II. The number of females who are not males is 98.

→ The shaded part represents 'the number of females who are not males' = 16 + 98

= 114 ≠ 98

Thus, the given statement is not true.

Hence, the correct answer is "Neither I nor II".

The logic follows here is,

The given figures have two concnetric shapes and the inner shape has thick border.

→ Given figures have two concentric triangle and the inner triangle has thick border. Similarly, second figure has two concentric circle and the inner circle has thick border.

The same logic is followed by option (1).

Option(1)

This figure has two concentric square and the inner square has thick border. Thus, it is similar to given figures.

Hence, the correct answer is "option (1)".

As per the given information,

The shaded by part represents 'educated who are employed' = 51 + 26

= 77

Hence, the correct answer is "77".

Mistake Points

In logical reasoning (Venn diagrams) you have to take every given word as a separate entity despite having any meaning in the real world.

Here 'Educated, Uneducated and Employed' are just words, don't go on their literal meaning.

You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts.

The logic follows here is:

1. ZT - BU

2. VX - XY

3. AN - CO

4) EQ -GP

It does not follow the same logic. Thus, it is the odd term.

​Hence, the correct answer is "EQ - GP

The logic followed here is :

The paper when unfolded will look like this :

 

Hence, the correct answer is "option (4)".

As per the given information:

Ravi walks 10 km towards South. He takes a left turn and walks 12 km. He takes a right turn and walks 10 km. He takes a left turn and walks 5 km.

He turns to the right. and walks 6 km. He takes a right turn and walks 9 km. Finally he takes a right turn and walks 11 km. 

Thus, the following diagram can be drawn:

Now,

Distance between AH is calculated by using Pythagoras theorem:

→ (AH)2 = (AO)2 + (OH)2 

→ (AH)2 = (15)2 + (8)2 

→ (AH)2 = 225 + 64

→ (AH)2 = 289

→ (Ah) = 17

Clearly, Ravi is '17 km South-East' km far from the starting point.

Hence, the correct answer is "17 km South-East".

The logic follows here is:

In column:

First number + (Second number × 2) + Third number = Fourth number

​COLUMN I [16 15 13 59]

→ 16 + (15 × 2) + 13 

→ 16 + 30 + 13

→ 59 = Fourth number

​COLUMN II [17 21 20 79]

→ 17 + (21 × 2) + 20 

→ 17 + 42 + 20

→ ​79 = Fourth number

​COLUMN III [23 25 13 ?]

→ 23 + (25 × 2) + 13

→ 23 + 50 + 13

→ ​86 = Fourth number​

Thus, the missing term is '86'.

Hence, the correct answer is "86".

The logic follows here is:

• LQD : JTZ

Similarly,

• MRF : KUB

​Hence, the correct answer is "MRF : KUB".

The logic follows here is:

​Hence, the correct answer is "FT".

The logic follows here is :

On close observation, we find that the problem figure is embedded in option (4) as shown below :

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Preparing the family tree by using the following symbols:

As per the given information:

A @ B' means 'A is brother of B',

'A # B' means 'A is father of B',

'A $ B' means 'A is sister of B',

'A + B' means 'A is the mother of B' 

'A % B' means 'A is the husband of B',

Checking all the given options:

1) P % Q $ R + S

P is the husband of Q, Q is the sister of R and R is the mother of S.

2) P % Q + R @ S

P is the husband of Q, Q is the mother of R and R is the brother of S.

Here, P is the father of S.

3) P % Q + R # S

P is the husband of Q, Q is the mother of R and R is the father of S.

4) P % Q $R$ S

P is the husband of Q, Q is the sister of R and R is the sister of S.

Hence, the correct answer is "P % Q + R @ S".

Statement:

I. Some A are B.

II. Some B are C.

III. Some B are D.

The least possible diagram for the given statements is as follows:

Conclusion:

I. Some A are C → False (Because there is no direct relation between A and C, so it is possible but not definite. Thus, it is not true)

II. Some C are D → False (Because there is no direct relation between C and D, so it is possible but not definite. Thus, it is not true)

III. Some D are A → False (Because there is no direct relation between D and A, so it is possible but not definite. Thus, it is not true)

Hence, the correct answer is "None of the conclusions follow.".

Statement:

I. Some P are Q.

II. Some Q are S.

The least possible diagram for the given statements is as follows:

Conclusion:

I. Some P are S → False (Because there is no direct relation between 'P' and 'S', so it is possible but not definite)

II. All S are Q → False (Because 'Some Q are S', so all S are Q is possible but not definite)

Hence, the correct answer is "None of the conclusions follow".

The correct answer is New York.

Key Points

• The headquarters of UNICEF is located in New York.
• UNICEF stands for United Nations International Children's Emergency Fund.
• It was created by the United Nations General Assembly on 11 December 1946, to provide emergency food and healthcare to children and mothers in countries that had been devastated by World War II.
• In 1950, its aids were extended to all the developing countries of the world.

Additional Information

• UNICEF's activities include providing immunizations and disease prevention, administering treatment for children and mothers with HIV, enhancing childhood and maternal nutrition, improving sanitation, promoting education, and providing emergency relief in response to disasters.
• UNICEF's programs emphasize developing community-level services to promote the health and well-being of children.
• Head of UNICEF: Catherine M. Russell

The correct answer is Narmada.

Key Points

• Narmada river forms an estuary.
• An estuary is the mouth of a river where tidal effects are evident and where freshwater and seawater mix with each other.
• East flowing rivers in India do not form estuaries.
• Narmada River
• The Source of the Narmada is Narmada Kund which is located at Amarkantak in Anuppur District, Madhya Pradesh.
• The Narmada is also known as the Rewa.
• It is one of the major rivers in India that run from east to west along with Tapti and the Mahi.
• It flows through the states of Madhya Pradesh (1,077 km), Maharashtra (74 km), and in Gujarat (161 km).
• It is the longest river of Madhya Pradesh, followed by the Tapti.

Additional Information

• Krishna
• ​It is an east-flowing river that originates in Mahabaleshwar, Maharashtra.
• It flows from Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh.
• It is the fourth largest river in India after Ganga, Godavari, and Brahmaputra.
• Left bank tributaries of Krishna are Bhima, Dindi, Paleru, and Musi.
• Whereas its right bank tributaries are Koyana, Panchganga, Dudhganga, Venna, Malprabha, Ghatprabha and Tungabhadra.
• Mahanadi
• The river originates in the northern foothills of Dandakaranya, Raipur District of Chhattisgarh.
• The river is one of the major rivers of the peninsular rivers, in water potential and flood producing capacity.
• Left bank Tributaries of the Mahanadi river are The Seonath, the Hasdeo, the Mand, and the Ib.
• Right bank Tributaries of the Mahanadi river are The Ong, the Tel, and the Jonk.
• Kaveri
• ​It rises on the Brahmagiri Hill of the Western Ghats in southwestern Karnataka state.
• Harangi, Hemavati, Kabini, Arkavati, Bhavani, Lakshmana Tirtha and Noyyal are the major tributaries of Kaveri River.

The correct answer is I, II and III.

Key Points

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is vested with the responsibility of conducting monetary policy.
• The primary objective of monetary policy is to maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth. Price stability is a necessary precondition to sustainable growth.
• There are several direct and indirect instruments that are used for implementing monetary policy-
• Repo Rate
• Reverse Repo Rate
• Liquidity Adjustment Facility
• Marginal Standing Facility
• Corridor
• Bank Rate
• Cash Reserve Ratio
• Statutory Liquidity Ratio
• Open Market Operations
• Market Stabilisation Scheme
• Hence I, II and III is correct.

Additional Information

• Fiscal policy is the means by which a government adjusts its spending levels and tax rates to monitor and influence a nation's economy. It is the sister strategy to monetary policy through which a central bank influences a nation's money supply.
• Fiscal policy deals with the taxation and expenditure decisions of the government. Some of the major instruments of fiscal policy are as follows: Budget, Taxation, Public Expenditure, public revenue, Public Debt, and Fiscal Deficit in the economy.
• General objectives of Fiscal Policy are given below:
• To maintain and achieve full employment.
• To stabilize the price level.
• To stabilize the growth rate of the economy.
• To maintain equilibrium in the Balance of Payments.
• To promote the economic development of underdeveloped countries.
• The fiscal policy of India always has two objectives, namely improving the growth performance of the economy and ensuring social justice to the people.
• Corridor System in Monetary Policy: 
• Most central banks use corridor system to set bounds bounds around the policy rate. The minimum amount of deposit forms the floor of the corridor and a lending rate forms the ceiling.
• The Corridor in monetary policy of the RBI is the area between the RRR and MSF.
• Reverse repo rate (RRR) will be the lowest of the policy rates and hence known as corridor.
• Marginal standing facility (MSF) is the upper ceiling with a higher rate than the repo rate.

The correct answer is Article 61.

Key Points

• Article 61
• ​Procedure for impeachment of the President.
• When a President is to be impeached for violation of the Constitution, the charge shall be preferred by either House of Parliament.

Additional Information

• Article 72
• ​Power of President to grant pardons, etc., and to suspend, remit or commute sentences in certain cases.
• Article 75
• ​The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
• The total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen per cent. of the total number of members of the House of the People.
• The Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.
• The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People.
• Article 76
• ​The President shall appoint a person who is qualified to be appointed a Judge of the Supreme Court to be Attorney-General for India.
• The Attorney-General shall hold office during the pleasure of the President, and shall receive such remuneration as the President may determine.

The correct answer is Sugarcane.

Key Points

• Sugarcane is not a fiber crop.
• Fiber crops are field crops grown for their fibers, which are traditionally used to make paper, cloth, or rope.
• Fiber crops are distinguished by a high content of cellulose, which is responsible for their strength.
• Cotton, jute, hemp and natural silk are the four major fibre crops grown in India.
• The first three are derived from the crops grown in the soil.
• The latter is obtained from cocoons of the silkworms fed on green leaves specially mulberry​​.

Additional Information

• Cotton is one of the main raw materials for cotton textile industry.
• Cotton grows well in drier parts of the black cotton soil of the Deccan plateau.
• It requires high temperature, light rainfall or irrigation, 210 frost-free days and bright sun-shine for its growth.
• It is a kharif crop and requires 6 to 8 months to mature.
• Major cotton-producing states are– Maharashtra, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Tamil Nadu, Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh.
• Jute is known as the golden fibre.
• Jute grows well on well-drained fertile soils in the flood plains where soils are renewed every year.
• High temperature is required during the time of growth.
• West Bengal, Bihar, Assam, Odisha and Meghalaya are the major jute producing states.
• It is used in making gunny bags, mats, ropes, yarn, carpets and other artefacts.
• Due to its high cost, it is losing market to synthetic fibres and packing materials, particularly the nylon.

The correct answer is Article 44.

Key Points

• Article 44
• ​The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.

Additional Information

• Article 40
• ​Organisation of village panchayats.
• The State shall take steps to organise village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government.
• Article 42
• ​Provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief.
• Article 46
• ​Promotion of educational and economic interests of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and other weaker sections.
• The State shall promote with special care the educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of the people, and, in particular, of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes, and shall protect them from social injustice and all forms of exploitation.​

The correct answer is 1924.

Key Points

• The first Winter Olympics was held in 1924.
• The Winter Olympic Games is a major international multi-sport event held once every four years for sports practiced on snow and ice.
• Alpine Skiing, luge, short track speed skating, freestyle skiing, skeleton, and snowboarding are the permanent sports included in the Winter Olympics.
• The first Winter Olympic Games, the 1924 Winter Olympics, were held in Chamonix, France.
• The modern Olympic Games were inspired by the ancient Olympic Games, which were held in Olympia, Greece, from the 8th century BC to the 4th century AD.
• The International Olympic Committee (IOC) was founded by Baron Pierre de Coubertin in 1894.
• The first Olympic Games were held in Athens, Greece in the year 1896.
• The Olympic Games are governed by the International Olympic Committee.
• The Olympic Games symbol consist of five rings colored blue, yellow, black, red, and green.

The correct answer is NNP = GNP - Depreciation.

Key Points

• Net National Product (NNP) is NNP = GNP - Depreciation.
• Net National Product (NNP):
• NNP is obtained by subtracting depreciation value (i.e. capital stock consumption) from GNP.

Additional Information 

• Gross Domestic Product (GDP):
• It is the total money value of all final goods and services produced within the geographical boundaries of the country during a given period of time.
• GDP = C + G + I
• C = Consumption expenditure
• G = Government expenditure
• I = Investment expenditure
• Gross National Product (GNP):
• It refers to the money value of the total output of production of final goods and services produced by the nationals of a country during a given period of time, generally a year.
• National Income (NI):
• When NNP is calculated at factor cost (FC) it is called National Income.
• The measure is calculated by deducting indirect taxes and adding subsidies in NNP at Market Price (MP).
• In India, the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) is the weighted average price of 676 items with the base year 2017-18.

The correct answer is Neither I nor II.

Key Points

• Myopia is the condition that a person cannot see distant objects clearly.
• It is also called near-sightedness.
• In myopia, patients image is formed in front of the retina.
• Myopia can be corrected by the use of a concave lens.
• Myopia occurs when the length of the eyeball gets increased, relative to the focusing power of the cornea and lens of the eye.
• In a myopic eye, the image of a far object is formed in front of the retina but not at the retina itself.
• A concave lens is used to correct this defect by working as a diverging lens causes light rays to diverge before they strike the lens of the eye so that the image is formed on the retina.
• Hence, cause a person can see the far object clearly.

Additional Information

• Hypermetropia is the condition that a person cannot see nearby objects clearly.
• It is also called a long site/Farsightedness.
• In hypermetropia, patients image is formed behind the retina.
• Hypermetropia can be corrected by the use of a convex lens.

The correct answer is Rajasthan.

Key Points

• Mehrangarh Fort is located in Jodhpur, Rajasthan.
• Mehrangarh Fort was built by King Rao Jodha in 1459 AD.
• It is one of the largest forts in India.
• The fort is located at a height of 410 feet above the city.
• The famous Moti Mahal(pearl palace) is located inside the Mehrangarh Fort.
• The fort has several gates:
• Jay pol: Built by Maharaj Man Singh.
• Fatteh pol: Built by Maharaja Ajit Singh.

Additional Information

• About Rajasthan:
• Capital: Jaipur
• Rajya Sabha seats: 10
• Lok Sabha seats: 25
• State Animal: Chinkara
• State Tree: Khejri
• State Bird: Indian Bustard
• State Flower: Rohira
• Wetlands: Sambhar lake, Keoladeo.
• Dams: Ranapratap Sagar Dam, Jawahar Sagar Dam, Chandrabhaga Dam.
• National parks: Keoladeo National park, Ranthambore National park, Sariska National park.

The correct answer is P. T. Usha.

Key Points

• P. T. Usha is also known as Payyoli Express.
• P. T Usha is a retired Indian track and field athlete.
• She has won 4 Asian gold medals and 7 Silver medals.
• She is often called the "Queen of Indian track and field".
• On 6 July 2022, she was nominated to the Rajya Sabha by President Ram Nath Kovind.
• She is also nicknamed Golden Girl.

Additional Information

• Hima Das, nicknamed Dhing Express, is an Indian sprinter from the state of Assam.
• She is the first Indian athlete to win a gold medal in a track event at the IAAF World U20 Championships.
• Dutee Chand:
• She is well known in the field of Athletics.
• She is a sprinter and competes in 100 m events.
• Dutee Chand is the first Indian to win a gold medal in a 100m race in a global competition.
• She is the third Indian woman to qualify for the Women's 100 meters event at the Summer Olympics.
• Kamaljeet Sandhu was the first Indian woman to win a gold medal at the Asian Games, at the 1970 edition in Bangkok.
• She ran the distance in 57.3 seconds.
• She is the first Indian woman athlete to win an individual gold medal at the Asian games.

The correct answer is 2.

Key Points

• Fishes have an only two-chambered heart with an atrium and a ventricle, and the chambers of the heart which receive the blood from body tissues are called auricles.
• Fishes respire through their gills.

Additional Information

• Amphibians and the reptiles (except crocodiles) have a 3-chambered heart with two atria and a single ventricle.
• Whereas crocodiles, birds and mammals possess a 4-chambered heart with two atria and two ventricles.
• Frogs respire through their skin.
• The human heart has four chambers.
• Two relatively small upper chambers called atria and two larger lower chambers called ventricles.

The correct answer is Andhra Pradesh.

Key Points

• Burrakatha is a highly dramatic form of the ballad of Andhra Pradesh.
• Burra Katha or Burrakatha is a Telugu art of oral storytelling.
• The term Burra refers to tambura and Katha means a story.
• It is performed in the Coastal Andhra region, Rayalaseema and Telangana.

Important Points

Additional Information

• Other important dances of Andhra Pradesh:
• Kuchipudi Dance
• Burrakatha Dance
• Burrakatha Dance
• Dappu Dance
• Tappeta Gullu Dance
• Lambadi Dance
• Kolattam Dance
• Banalu Dance

The correct answer is Rajinikanth.

Key Points

• Rajinikanth has been honored with the 51st Dadasaheb Phalke Award.
• Actor Rajinikanth was honoured with the prestigious 51st Dadasaheb Phalke Award at the 67th National Film Awards ceremony, for his contribution as an actor, producer and screenwriter.
• He received the prestigious award from  former Vice President M Venkaiah Naidu for his stupendous contribution to Indian cinema.
• Rajinikanth is the 12th South Indian to get this award.
• Legends like Dr Rajkumar, Akkineni Nageshwar Rao, K Balachander have been awarded before.

Additional Information

• Instituted in 1969, the award is the highest honour for an artiste in Indian cinema.
• Dadasaheb Phalke Award is the most prestigious awards in the field of cinema.
• He is known as “the Father of Indian Cinema” because he introduced the beauty of cinematic experience in India.
• The first recipient of Dadasaheb Phalke Award was Devika Rani who received the award in 1969 and also known as “the first lady of Indian cinema”.
• The award comprises a Swarna Kamal (Golden Lotus) medallion, a shawl, and a cash prize of Rs. 10 Lakh.

The correct answer is Natural growth rate.

Key Points

• The difference between the birth rate and the death rate of a country is called Natural growth rate.
• Net growth rate of population is determined by two resources.
• Natural increase and migration.
• The natural increase is determined by the life rate as in (birth-death) and migration as in (immigration-emigration) .
• The demographic transition is defined as :
• (BIRTH-DEATH) + (IMMIGRATION-EMIGRATION) = GROWTH/DECREASE.

Additional Information

• Crude Birth Rate - It is the total number of live births per 1,000 population divided by the length of the period in years. 
• current rate - 18.2births/1000
• Crude Death Rate - the ratio of deaths to the population of a particular area or during a particular period of time, usually calculated as the number of deaths per one thousand people per year.

The correct answer is Syed Ahmad Khan.

Key Points

• Syed Ahmad Khan established Aligarh Muslim University
• Aligarh Muslim University was established in 1875 by Sir Syed Ahmad Khan as Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College.
• It was renamed in 1920 as the Aligarh Muslim University.
• It is located in the city of Aligarh and offers more than 300 courses in both modern and traditional branches of education.

Additional Information

Aligarh Muslim University

• It was originally named as ‘Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College’ and was renamed in 1920 as Aligarh Muslim University as a part of the Aligarh Muslim Act.
• It is among the top universities of the country and its Central campus is situated in Aligarh.
• It has three more off- campuses in AMU Murshidabad center (West Bengal), Kishanganj Centre (Bihar), and Malappuram (Kerala).
• It has about 300 courses on its campus for which students across the world come to study.
• According to National Institutional Ranking Framework in 2022 university has been ranked 37 in India.

The correct answer is 17.

Key Points

• Chlorine is the second lightest halogen and is represented as Cl.
• The atomic number of this chemical element is 17.
• It appears as a pale yellow-green gas.
• Liquid chlorine can cause skin burn and chlorine in its gaseous form irritates the mucous membrane.
• Its position as per the periodic table is between fluorine and bromine.
• Its electronic configuration is [Ne]3s²3p⁵.
• There are two isotopes of chlorine that are stable.
• They are ₃₇Cl and ₃₅Cl, 36Cl is the stable radioisotope of chlorine
• Sodium chloride is the most common compound of chlorine whereas the simplest is hydrogen chloride.
• It is highly reactive.
• Carl Wilhelm Scheele who was a Swedish chemist discovered Chlorine in the year 1774.

Additional Information

• Cl Uses (Chlorine)
• It is used as a disinfectant
• Chlorine is used in the treatment of drinking water to kill bacteria
• It is used to clean swimming pools
• It is used as an antiseptic and to produce drugs

The correct answer is 4.

Key Points

• Hyder and Tipu Sultan fought 4 battles with the British.
• The series of four wars fought between the British and the Kingdom of Mysore in South India during the 18th century was known as the Anglo-Mysore War.
• First Anglo-Mysore War: It was fought between 1767-1769 AD.
• Governor: Lord Verelst was the governor during this period.
• In the first Anglo-Mysore, the British, the Nizam and the Marathas fought together against Hyder Ali.
• Treaty of Madras: Hyder Ali wins against the British. A defense treaty was concluded in 1769.
• Second Anglo-Mysore War: It was fought between 1780-1784 AD.
• Governor: Lord Warren Hastings was the governor during this period.
• In the second Anglo-Mysore, Hyder Ali, the Nizam and the Marathas fought together against the British.
• Hyder Ali defeated Colonel Bailey.
• Hyder Ali died in 1782 during the Second Anglo-Mysore War and was succeeded by his son Tipu Sultan.
• Treaty of Mangalore: The Second Anglo-Mysore War ended with the signing of the Treaty of Mangalore by Tipu Sultan in 1784.
• Third Anglo-Mysore War: It was fought between 1790-1792 AD.
• Governor: Lord Cornwallis was the governor during this period.
• In the third Anglo-Mysore, the British, the Nizam and the Marathas fought together against Tipu Sultan.
• Treaty of Srirangapatna: It was signed by Tipu Sultan in 1792.
• Fourth Anglo-Mysore War: It was fought between AD 1799.
• Governor: Lord Wellesley was the governor during this period.
• Tipu died in 1799 while defending the Mysore capital, Srirangapatna.
• The threat of the French to the British ended by the year 1799.

The correct answer is Telangana.

Key Points

• 7-year-old Virat Chandra has become the youngest mountaineer in the world to climb Mount Kilimanjaro.
• He belongs to Telangana.
• A 7-year-old boy from Hyderabad Virat Chandra has become one of the youngest in the world to scale Mount Kilimanjaro, the highest mountain in Africa at 19,341 feet.
• Virat Chandra achieved the rare feat on March 6, 2021.
• Earlier in March 2021, a nine-year-old girl from Andhra Pradesh became the youngest girl in Asia to have conquered Mount Kilimanjaro.

The correct answer is Raja Rammohan Roy.

Key Points

• It was founded in Calcutta in 1828 by Ram Mohan Roy as Brahmo Sabha.
• The Brahmo Samaj was a monotheistic sect of Hinduism
• The samaj was dedicated to the "worship and adoration of the Eternal, the Unsearchable, the Immutable Being, who is the Author and Preserver of the Universe".
• The Samaj was open to all without distinction of color, creed, caste, nation, or religion.
• It denounced polytheism, image worship, and the caste system.
• It also discarded meaningless Hindu rituals.
• Raja Rammohun Roy is also called the father of the Indian renaissance.

Additional Information

Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

• He was a person of wide knowledge or learning from Bengal India and a key figure of the Bengal Renaissance.
• He was an academic educator, philosopher, publisher, entrepreneur, philanthropist, writer, translator, printer, and reformer.
• Hence considered the "father of Bengali prose".
• He favoured widow remarriage and women’s education and strongly protested against polygamy, child-marriage in India..
• Lord Dalhousie personally finalised the bill and passed Hindu Widows' Remarriage Act, 1856, despite the opposition and it was being considered a flagrant breach of Hindu customs as prevalent then.

Pandita Ramabai

• Pandita Ramabai Sarasvati was an Indian social reformer, a pioneer in the education and emancipation of women in India.
• She was the first woman to be accorded the titles of Pandita as a Sanskrit scholar and Sarasvati after being examined by the faculty of the University of Calcutta.
• In 1882, Ramabai moved to Pune where she founded Arya Mahila Samaj (Arya Women's Society).
• The purpose of the society was to promote the cause of women's education and deliverance from the oppression of child marriage.

Dayanand Saraswati

• Swami Dayananda Saraswati was an Indian philosopher, social leader and founder of the Arya Samaj, a reform movement of the Vedic dharma.
• Arya Samaj is a monotheistic Indian Hindu reform movement that promotes values and practices based on the belief in the infallible authority of the Vedas.

Given

The length of the diagonal of a square = 40 cm

Formula used

Diagonal of a square = √2a

Area of square = a2

Where, a = side of the square

Solution

⇒ √2a = 40

Squaring both sides, we get

⇒ 2a² = 1600

⇒ a² = 800

The correct option is 4.

Solution

Largest 3-digit number = 999

Smallest 2-digit number = 10

The difference between the largest three-digit number and the smallest two-digit number = 999 - 10

⇒ 989

The correct option is 4.

Given

The sum of 1 to 10 natural numbers becomes 61, after adding a number twice.

Formula used

The sum of natural number = n(n + 1)/2

Where, n = No. of terms

Solution

⇒ n(n + 1)/2

⇒ 10(10 + 1)/2

⇒ (10 × 11)/2

⇒ 5 × 11 = 55

The sum should have been 55, but since the sum becomes 61 after adding a certain number, the number is

⇒ 61 - 55 = 6

The correct option is 3.

Given

(2004)2 - (2000)2

Formula used

(a + b)² = a² + b² + 2ab

Solution

⇒ (a + b)2 - a² = b² + 2ab

⇒ (2000 + 4)2 - 20002 = 42 + 2 × 2000 × 4

⇒ 16 + 16000

⇒ 16016

The correct option is 2.

Given

Principle = 5600

Amount = 7000

Time = 5 years

Formula used

S.I = Amount - Principle

S.I = PRT/100

Where, P = Principle, R = rate and T = time

Solution

S.I = 7000 - 5600

S.I = 1400

Let the rate be R%.

⇒ 1400 = (5600 × R × 5)/100

⇒ R = 140000/28000

⇒ R = 5%

The amount after 4 years will be

⇒ S.I = (5600 × 5 × 4)/100

⇒ S.I = 112000/100

⇒ S.I = 1120

Amount = 5600 + 1120

Amount = 6720

The correct option is 4.

Given

The ratio of P, Q and R = 6 ∶ 5 ∶ 9

Their sum = 400

Solution

Let the share of  P, Q and R =  6x, 5x, and 9x.

⇒ 6x + 5x + 9x = 400

⇒ 20x = 400

⇒ x = 20

The difference between P and R = 9x - 6x

⇒ 3x = 3 × 20 

⇒ 3x = 60

The correct option is 2.

Shortcut Trick

Total Work = LCM(5, 15) = 15 units.

Efficiency of B = 3 units/day, Efficiency of C = 1 unit/day.

Work done by C alone in the last 3 days = 3 × 1 = 3 units.

Remaining work done by (B + C) together = 15 − 3 = 12 units.

Number of days B worked = 12 ÷ (3 + 1) = 3 days.

∴ The correct answer is 3 days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by B = 5 days

Time taken by C = 15 days

Time C worked alone at the end = 3 days

Formula Used:

Total Work = Efficiency × Time

Combined Efficiency = Efficiency of B + Efficiency of C

Calculations:

⇒ Total work (LCM of 5 and 15) = 15 units

⇒ Efficiency of B = 15 ÷ 5 = 3 units/day

⇒ Efficiency of C = 15 ÷ 15 = 1 unit/day

⇒ Work completed by C alone in the last 3 days = 1 × 3 = 3 units

⇒ Remaining work completed by B and C together = 15 − 3 = 12 units

⇒ Combined efficiency of B and C = 3 + 1 = 4 units/day

⇒ Number of days B and C worked together = 12 ÷ 4 = 3 days

⇒ Since B left after the combined work period, B worked for 3 days.

∴ The correct answer is 3 days.

Additional Information

Pipes and Cisterns

Similar to Time and Work, but work done can be negative (leakage or outlet pipe). Efficiency of filling pipe is positive, and outlet pipe is negative.

Work and Wages

Wages are always distributed in the ratio of the actual work done by each person. If they work for the same time, the ratio of wages is the ratio of efficiencies.

Alternate Day Work

When work is done on alternate days, calculate the total work done in one full cycle (e.g., 2 days) and then divide total work by cycle work to find total time.

Given

The speed of a bus = 36 km/hr.

Formula

d = s × t

where, d = distance, s = speed and t = time.

Solution

⇒ d = 36 × 5/18 × 15   ...(1 km/hr = 5/18 m/s)

⇒ d = 10 × 15

⇒ d = 150 m

The correct option is 3.

Given

The production of tea in the state S2 = 25

The production of coffee in the state S2 = 100

Solution

The average production of tea and coffee in the state of S2

⇒ (100 + 25)/2

⇒ 62.5

The correct option is 2.

Solution

⇒ (12³ - 5³ - 7³)/840

⇒ (1728 - 125 - 343)/840

⇒ (1728 - 125 - 343)/840

⇒ 1260/840

⇒ 1.5

The correct option is 1.

Solution

Let the number be x.

⇒ 2/3 ×  2/5 ×  2/7 × x = 400

⇒ x = 400 × 3/2 × 5/2 × 7/2

⇒ x = 50 × 3 × 5 × 7

⇒ x = 5250

The correct option is 2.

Given

The total number of calculators sold by A, C and H = 1200

Solution

I) The average number of calculators sold by A, C and H 

⇒ (400 + 300 + 500)/3

⇒ 1200/3

⇒ 400

II) The ratio of the number of calculators sold by D to the number of calculators sold by F = 600/1000

⇒ 3: 5

The correct option is 3.

Given

The cost price of an article = 880

Loss% = 30

Formula

S.P = C.P × (100 - L%)/100

Solution

S.P = 880 × (100 - 30%)/100

S.P = 880 × 70/100

S.P = 616

The correct option is 1.

Given

The radius of the circle = 10% decrease

Formula

Area of the circle = πr²

Solution

Let the radius be 10x.

⇒ π × 10x × 10x

⇒ π × 100x²

Now the new area will be,

⇒ π × 9x × 9x

⇒ π × 81x2

The decrease in the area will be:

⇒ (π × 100x² - π × 81x²)/π × 100x2

⇒ (π × 19x²)/(π × 100x²) × 100

⇒ 19%

The correct option is 1.

Shortcut Trick

Given 5 × Width = 100 ⇒ Width (w) = 20 cm.

Relationship: Width = (Length + Height) ÷ 2. Since Length = 3 × Height, then 20 = (3h + h) ÷ 2 ⇒ 20 = 2h.

Thus, Height (h) = 10 cm and Length (l) = 30 cm.

Total Surface Area = 2(lw + wh + hl) = 2(600 + 200 + 300) = 2200 cm².

∴ The correct answer is 2200 cm².

Alternate Method

Given:

Length (l) = 3h

Width (w) = (h + l) ÷ 2

5 × w = 100 cm

Formula Used:

Total Surface Area (TSA) = 2(lw + wh + hl)

Calculations:

⇒ 5w = 100 ⇒ w = 20 cm

⇒ w = (h + 3h) ÷ 2 ⇒ 20 = 4h ÷ 2

⇒ 20 = 2h ⇒ Height (h) = 10 cm

⇒ Length (l) = 3 × 10 = 30 cm

⇒ TSA = 2[(30 × 20) + (20 × 10) + (10 × 30)]

⇒ TSA = 2[600 + 200 + 300]

⇒ TSA = 2[1100] = 2200 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 2200 cm².

Additional Information

Volume of a Cuboid

The space occupied by the cuboid is calculated as Volume = Length × Width × Height (l × w × h).

Lateral Surface Area

The area of the four vertical faces (excluding top and bottom) is given by LSA = 2 × h × (l + w).

Diagonal of a Cuboid

The length of the longest rod that can be placed inside a cuboid is √(l² + w² + h²).

Given

Total male teachers = 280

Total female teachers = 260

Formula used

Average = Total sum of all value/No. of all values

Solution

The average number of male teachers per school(J1)

⇒ (40 + 20 + 60 + 100 + 40 + 15 + 5)/5

⇒ 280/7 = 40

⇒ J2 = total male teachers - total female teachers

⇒ J2 = 280 - 260

⇒ J2 = 20

⇒ J1/J2 = 40/20

⇒ J1/J2 = 2

The correct option is 4.

Given

⇒ 10% of A = 40% of B

Calculation:

⇒ 10/100 × A = 40/100 × B

A: B = 4 : 1

The correct option is 3.

Given

The numbers are  20, 24, 23, 19, P and Q.

The average = 25

Formula

Average = Total sum of value/No.of values

Solution

The total sum of all numbers = 20 + 24 + 23 + 19 + P + Q

⇒ 86 + P + Q

The total sum of all numbers = 25 × 6 = 150

Equating both,

⇒ 86 + P + Q = 150

⇒ P + Q = 150 - 86

⇒ P + Q = 64

The average of P and Q = 64/2

⇒ 32

The correct option is 2.

Given

The number = 500

Solution

⇒ 25% of 500

⇒ 1/4 × 500

⇒ 125

The number which is 25% less than 125,

⇒ (100 - 25)% of 125

⇒ (1 - 1/4) × 125

⇒ 3/4 × 125

⇒ 93.75

The correct option is 3.

Given

A car travelling at a speed = 45 km/h

Time = 4 hours

Formula used:- 

d = s × t

Where, d = distance, s = speed and t = time

Solution:-

⇒ D = 45 × 4

⇒ D = 180 km

To cover this distance in 6 hours, speed should be

⇒ s = 180/6

⇒ s = 30 km/hr

The correct answer is 3.

The correct answer is "To spend an amount of time idly"

Key Points

• " Between whiles" is a phrase that means "occasionally" or "from time to time**(समय की एक राशि आलस्य में खर्च करने के लिए)**."
• Example: "I like to take breaks from work and go for a walk between whiles."

               This means that the speaker occasionally takes breaks from work to go for a walk.

Correct answer: To spend an amount of time idly

The correct answer is "QRPS"

Key Points

• The first statement must be that best connects the given opening of the sentence. i.e. During the Classical period.
• Q will the next statement after opening because it best connects the opening and further tells us about the classical period.This part of the sentence serves as the introduction and sets the context for the rest of the sentence. It mentions the time period (the Classical period) and the main idea of the sentence (the existence of three types of Latin).
• R follows Q, as this part of the sentence presents the first type of Latin that was in use during the Classical period. It specifically mentions "Classical written Latin".
• P follows R, this part of the sentence describes the second type of Latin that was in use during the Classical period. It mentions "the ordinary colloquial Latin used by the average speaker of the language".
• S follows P, this part of the sentence mentions the third type of Latin that was in use during the Classical period. It specifically mentions "Classical oratorical Latin".
• Thus, the correct sequence is "QRPS"

Correct arrangement: During the Classical period there were at least three types of Latin  in use: Classical written Latin,Classical oratorical Latin, and the ordinary colloquial  Latin used by the average speaker of the language

The correct answer is "Medieval"

Key Points

• The correctly spelt word is "Medieval"
• Medieval refers to the Middle Ages, a period of European history that lasted from the 5th to the 15th century. The term is often used to describe the characteristics and cultural, economic, and political developments of this time period(मध्यकालीन).
• For example:

"Medieval castles, with their imposing stone walls and towers, were designed to protect the inhabitants from attack."

This sentence refers to the architectural style of castles that were built during the Middle Ages.

Correct answer: Medieval

The correct answer is "​Oxymoron"

Key Points

• Let's understand the meaning of the given words.
• Irony: Irony is a figure of speech in which the meaning of words is opposite to their intended or expected meaning(विडंबना).
• For example: "It's a nice day for a walk in the park," said the person, as it starts to rain.
• Hyperbole: Hyperbole is an exaggeration used for emphasis or effect.(अतिशयोक्ति)
• For example: "I've told you a million times to clean your room!"
• Sarcasm: Sarcasm is a form of irony that is used to mock or convey disapproval or contempt.(कटाक्ष)
• For example: "Oh, great. Just what I always wanted. Another traffic jam."
• Oxymoron: An oxymoron is a figure of speech in which two opposing or contrasting ideas are combined to create a rhetorical effect.
• For example: "Bittersweet memories." or "Jumbo shrimp."
• Thus, from the above explanation the correct answer is "Oxymoron"

Correct answer: Oxymoron

The correct answer is "either had a gun with him"

Key Points

• In the original sentence, "with either him or he was being foolish" is grammatically incorrect. The correct way to phrase the sentence would be "either he had a gun with him or he was being foolish.
• The correction clarifies that the man either had a gun with him, or he was being foolish, but not both. The phrase "with him" is used correctly to describe that the man had a gun with him. The phrase "he was being foolish" is used correctly to describe the alternative possibility.
• So, the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence is: "The man either had a gun with him or was being foolish."

Correct sentence: The man either had a gun with him or was being foolish."

The correct answer is "Impeccable"

Key Points

• Let's understand the given words.
• Fallible: Fallible means capable of making mistakes or being wrong(पतनशील).
• For example: "No one is perfect, and even the best doctors can be fallible at times."
• Impeccable: Impeccable means having no faults or mistakes; flawless( त्रुटिहीन,).
• For example: "The chef's impeccable technique and attention to detail produced a perfect meal every time."
• Thus, the word that is opposite in meaning to the given word is "Impeccable"

Correct answer: Impeccable

Additional Information 

• Errant: Errant means straying from the right course or standard, or wandering from the proper path(त्रुटिपूर्ण).
• For example: "The errant missile caused widespread destruction when it landed in the city."
• Vapid: Vapid means lacking liveliness, interest, or significance; dull and uninteresting(नीरस).
• For example: "The movie was so vapid and uninspiring that I fell asleep halfway through."
• Amoral: Amoral means having no sense of right or wrong; lacking a moral code.(नीतिहीन)
• For example: "The amoral businessman was only concerned with making a profit, regardless of the consequences."

The correct answer is "3"

Key Points

• The part of the sentence that has an error in it is "and how they apply it in practice".
• In this part of the sentence, the correct form of the verb "apply" should be "apply them" since "them" refers to the policies.
• So, the corrected sentence would be: "Companies should be more transparent about what their harassment policies mean and how they apply them in practice."

Correct Sentence: Companies should be more transparent about what their harassment policies mean and how they apply them in practice."

The correct answer is "loose"

Key Points

• The most appropriate word to fill in the blank is "loose"
• Loose means "not fitting closely; having a lot of room". In the given sentence, loose cotton clothes are more comfortable in summers because they allow air to circulate and keep the body cool.
• Lost means "unable to be found or recovered". It is not appropriate to use in this context.
• Lose means "to be deprived of or cease to have or retain (something)". It is not appropriate to use in this context.
• Losing means "to be in the process of losing". It is not appropriate to use in this context.
• So, the word "loose" is the best fit for the given sentence as it accurately describes the type of clothing that is more comfortable to wear in the summer.

Correct Sentence: In summers,loose cotton clothes are more comfortable.

The correct answer is "On an average"

Key Points

• The substitution "On an average" is a more appropriate and grammatically correct phrase to use in this sentence. "To average" is not a common phrase and its meaning in this context is not clear.
• "On an average" is a common expression that is used to indicate the average or typical quantity, number, or value, often over a period of time.
• In this sentence, "On an average, we received almost a dozen stories a day" means that, over a certain period of time, the number of stories received was about a dozen per day on average.
• "To average" does not convey a clear meaning in this sentence, making it an incorrect choice for the substitution.

Correct sentence: On an average we received a dozen stories a day

The correct answer is "Outcome"

Key Points

• Result: A result is the outcome or conclusion of an action, calculation, or process.
• Example: "The result of the experiment was surprising."
• Outcome: An outcome is the result or consequence of an action or process.
• Example: "The outcome of the election is still unknown."
• Thus, the word that means the same as the given word is "Outcome"

Correct answer: Outcome

Additional Information 

• Obey: To obey is to comply with or follow the orders or rules of someone or something.
• Example: "The soldiers obeyed the commander's orders."
• Dissipate: To dissipate is to cause to disappear or scatter, often gradually.
• Example: "The energy from the explosion quickly dissipated."
• Derision: Derision is the feeling or expression of contempt or ridicule.
• Example: "The crowd erupted in derision when the comedian made a joke about the mayor."

The correct answer is '4' i.e. No error .

Key Points

• The sentence in question is: "Data in this study were (1)/ provided by collaborators (2)/ representing six countries (3)/. No error (4)"
• Let's analyze each part:                               
• (1) Data in this study were: The word "data" is the plural form of "datum" (from Latin). Traditionally, "data" is treated as a plural noun and takes a plural verb. Therefore, "data were" is grammatically correct according to traditional English grammar rules.
• (2) provided by collaborators: This phrase correctly uses the passive voice ("provided by") and the plural form "collaborators" to refer to multiple people. There is no grammatical error here.
• (3) representing six countries: "Representing" is a present participle correctly modifying "collaborators," indicating what the collaborators are doing. "Six countries" is grammatically sound. No error here.
• Since all parts of the sentence are grammatically correct, there is no error.

Correct sentence: Data in this study were provided by collaborators representing six countries.

Additional Information       

• While "data" is increasingly used with a singular verb (e.g., "the data is conclusive") in modern, informal, and even some formal contexts, treating it as a collective noun, its traditional and still acceptable usage as a plural noun requiring a plural verb ("data were") remains grammatically valid. When asked to identify an error in a formal sentence, adhering to established grammatical rules is key.

The correct answer is "QRSP".

Key Points

• Q will the first part of the sentence as it sets the context of the sentence and introduces the main topic of the sentence, which is the patricians and plebeians in ancient Rome.
• R follows Q, as this part states the main idea or claim of the sentence, that the patricians held a monopoly of power in the beginning.
• S follows R, as this part provides contrast or comparison to the main idea, showing that the plebeians had a different starting point.
• P follows S, as this part adds a specific detail or exception to the main idea, further explaining the situation in ancient Rome.
• Thus, the correct sequence is "QRSP"

Correct arrangement: In the beginning, the patricians were supposed to have enjoyed a monopoly of power, whereas the plebeians began with nothing except the right to vote in the assemblies​.

The correct answer is " A born fool"

Key Points

• "God's ape" is a derogatory term that is used to refer to a person who is seen as being foolish or acting in a foolish or irrational manner(जन्मजात मूर्ख). 

​For example: "Don't be such a God's ape and make a sensible decision for once."

• Thus, "A born fool" is the option that best expresses the meaning of the idiom.

Correct answer: A born fool

The correct answer is "Assistance"

Key Points

• The correct spelling is "Assistance"
• Assistance refers to help or support given to someone or something in achieving a particular goal or task. It can refer to various forms of aid, such as advice, guidance, support, or physical aid(सहायता).
• For example: "The fire department provided assistance to the injured people after the accident."

Correct answer: Assistance

The correct answer is "these"

Key Points

• The word "these" is a pronoun that is used to refer to a specific, identifiable thing or group of things close at hand or near in time or space. In the given sentence, the speaker is referring to the handcuffs that the person they are speaking to is currently wearing, which makes "these" the appropriate choice.
• The use of "these" emphasizes the immediate proximity and accessibility of the handcuffs, suggesting that they are right there in front of the person being addressed
• "Those" is used to refer to a specific, identifiable thing or group of things further away,
• while "that" is used to refer to a specific, identifiable thing or group of things that are not close at hand.
• "Such" is an adjective used to describe the type or quality of something, and it is not appropriate here because the speaker is referring to a specific set of handcuffs and not describing their type or quality.
• Thus, the correct answer is "these"

Correct Sentence: You better be right if you want these handcuffs out from your hands.

The correct answer is "To give a brief view on mental hygiene"

Key Points

• The primary purpose of the given passage is "To give a brief view on mental hygiene".
• The passage provides an in-depth definition and understanding of mental hygiene, including its history and various aspects such as optimum mental health, community mental health, and the changing attitudes towards mentally disturbed individuals over time. The passage also highlights the complexities of mental hygiene, discussing the difficulties faced in promoting and preserving mental health, as well as the challenges faced in overcoming negative societal attitudes towards mental disorders.
• The information presented in the passage goes beyond just a brief overview of the topic, indicating a comprehensive analysis and exploration of the subject, making the primary purpose of the passage to analyze the complexities of mental hygiene.

Correct answer: To give a brief view on mental hygiene.

The correct answer is "World Health Organization"

Key Points

• Refer to the line:  As defined in the 1946 constitution of the World Health Organization, “health is a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being, and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity.”
• It is clearly mentioned in the passage that, World Health Organization has called mental health as a state of social well-being.

Correct answer: World Health Organisation

The correct answer is "To control the flow of infected blood to the brain."

Key Points

• Refer to the line: The purpose of the tranquillizing chair was to control the flow of "infected" blood to the brain in order to cure the patient of insanity. And still, a follow up is required on this technique.
• From the above lines of the passage it is clear that the the purpose of the tranquillizing chair is to control the flow of infected blood to the brain.

Correct answer: To control the flow of infected blood to the brain.

The correct answer is "Facilitate"

Key Points

• Conducive: Something that is conducive helps to bring about or make something else happen(अनुकूल).
• For example, "A calm and quiet environment is conducive to studying."
• Facilitate: To facilitate is to make something easier or more likely to happen(सुविधा).
• For example, "Technology has facilitated communication among people."
• Thus, the word that is not the antonym of the word "Conducive" is "Facilitate"

Correct answer: Facilitate

Additional Information 

• Injurious: Something that is injurious causes harm or injury.(हानिकारक)
• For example, "Smoking is injurious to health."
• Damaging: Something that is damaging causes harm or injury to something or someone.(हानिकारक)
• For example, "Constant exposure to sunlight can be damaging to your skin."
• Bad: Something that is bad is of poor quality, unsatisfactory or not desirable.(बुरा)
• For example, "That movie was bad. I don't recommend it."

The correct answer is "Avoid"

Key Points

• Neglect: Neglect is the act of failing to take proper care of something or someone(उपेक्षा).
• For example, "Neglecting to water your plants can lead to their death."
• Avoid: To avoid is to stay away from or refrain from doing something(बचना).
• For example, "You should avoid eating too much junk food."
• Thus, the synonym of the given word is "Avoid"

Correct answer: Avoid

Additional Information

• Absolute: Absolute means complete, total, and without any exceptions or qualifications(निरपेक्ष).
• For example, "He had absolute control over the company."
• Preserve: To preserve is to keep something in its original or existing state, or to maintain its safety or integrity.(संरक्षित)
• For example, "We need to preserve the rainforests to protect the wildlife."
• Repair: To repair is to fix or restore something that is damaged or broken(मरम्मत).
• For example, "The mechanic repaired my car and now it runs smoothly."

श्रेया ने सफलता पा ली है वाक्य मे वाक्य के पक्ष का सही विकल्प पूर्ण पक्ष है। 

• पूर्ण पक्ष - इस पक्ष से क्रिया के पूरी तरह समाप्त हो जाने का बोध होता है।

Key Pointsअन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण -

Additional Informationपक्ष -  क्रिया के जिस रूप से क्रिया प्रक्रिया अर्थात क्रिया व्यापार का बोध होता है, उसे क्रिया का पक्ष कहते है।

• यह क्रिया- व्यापार दो दृष्टियों से देखा जा सकता है।
• पहली दृष्टि से हम देखते हैं कि क्रिया की प्रक्रिया आरंभ होने वाली है अथवा आरंभ हो चुकी है, अथवा वर्तमान में चालू है या हो चुकी है।
• दूसरी दृष्टि में क्रिया -प्रक्रिया को एक इकाई के रूप में देखते है।

यह वही पुस्तक हैं, जो मुझे नहीं मिल रही थी वाक्य मे 'जो' शब्द संबंधवाचक सर्वनाम है। 

• सम्बन्धवाचक सर्वनाम - जिन सर्वनाम शब्दों का प्रयोग किसी वस्तु या व्यक्ति का सम्बन्ध बताने के लिए किया जाए वे शब्द सम्बन्धवाचक सर्वनाम कहलाते है।

Key Pointsअन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण -

Additional Informationसर्वनाम - संज्ञा के स्थान पर प्रयुक्त होने वाले शब्दों को सर्वनाम कहा जाता है।

सर्वनाम संज्ञाओं की पुनरावृति रोककर वाक्यों को सौंदर्ययुक्त बनता है।

सर्वनाम के छः भेद होते हैं –

1. पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम।
2. निजवाचक सर्वनाम।
3. निश्चयवाचक सर्वनाम।
4. अनिश्चयवाचक सर्वनाम।
5. प्रश्नवाचक सर्वनाम।
6. सम्बन्धवाचक सर्वनाम।

जहर की पुड़िया होना मुहावरे के अर्थ को सर्वश्रेष्ठ रूप से विकल्प मुसीबत की जड़ होना व्यक्त करता है।

• वाक्य प्रयोग - उसकी कही हुई बाते लोगो के बीच दरार डाल ही देती है, सच कहते है सब वो मुसीबत की जड़ है।

Key Pointsअन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण -

Additional Informationमुहावरा - ऐसे वाक्यांश, जो सामान्य अर्थ का बोध न कराकर किसी विलक्षण अर्थ की प्रतीति कराये, मुहावरा कहलाता है।

वाक्य मे विस्म्यादिबोधक (!) विराम चिह्न का प्रयोग होगा 

• अतः वाक्य निम्न प्रकार से होगा -
• अरे वह अनुत्तीर्ण हो गया!
• विस्म्यादिबोधक (!) - जब वाक्य में हर्ष, विषाद, विस्मय, घृणा, आश्चर्य, करुणा, भय आदि भाव व्यक्त किए जाएँ तो वहाँ इस विस्मयादिबोधक चिह्न (!) का प्रयोग किया जाता है।

Key Points 

अन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण -

Additional Informationविराम चिह्न - विराम शब्द का शाब्दिक अर्थ होता है ठहराव।

अपनी बात कहने के लिए उसे समझाने के लिए, किसी कथन पर बल देने के लिए आश्चर्य आदि भावों की अभिव्यक्ति के लिए, कहीं कम समय के लिए तो कहीं अधिक समय के लिए ठहरने के लिए इसका प्रयोग किया जाता है। 

हिन्दी में निम्न विराम चिह्न प्रयुक्त होते है -

• अल्प विराम (,)
• अर्द्ध विराम (;)
• अपूर्ण विराम (:)
• पूर्ण विराम (।)
• प्रश्न सूचक चिह्न (?)
• सम्बोधन चिह्न (!)
• विस्मय सूचक चिह्न (!)
• अवतरण चिह्न/उद्धरण चिह्न/उपरिविराम – (i) इकहरा (‘ ’ )(ii) दुहरा (‘‘ ’’)
• योजक चिह्न/समासचिह्न (–)
• निदेशक (——-)
• विवरण चिह्न (:——)
• हंसपद/विस्मरण चिह्न (ˆ)
• संक्षेपण/लाघव चिह्न (0)
• तुल्यता सूचक/समता सूचक (=)
• कोष्ठक ( ) { } [ ]
• लोप चिह्न (…….)
• इतिश्री/समाप्ति सूचक चिह्न -(0- — —)
• विकल्प चिह्न( /)
• पुनरुक्ति चिह्न (’’ ’’)
• संकेत चिह्न(*)

एक लाठी से सबको हाँकना मुहावरे के अर्थ को सर्वश्रेष्ठ रूप से विकल्प सभी के साथ समान व्यवहार व्यक्त करता है।

• वाक्य प्रयोग - थानेदार से यह उम्मीद की जाती है कि वह थाने में आये सभी व्यक्तियों को एक ही लाठी से हांके।

Key Pointsअन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण -

Additional Informationमुहावरा -  ऐसे वाक्यांश, जो सामान्य अर्थ का बोध न कराकर किसी विलक्षण अर्थ की प्रतीति कराये, मुहावरा कहलाता है।

संयुक्त वाक्य के विकल्प का सही उत्तर जोरदार धमाका हुआ और लोगों में भगदड़ मच गई होगा।

• संयुक्त वाक्य - जिन वाक्यों में दो-या दो से अधिक सरल वाक्य समुच्चयबोधक अव्ययों से जुड़े हों, उन्हें संयुक्त वाक्य कहते है।

Key Pointsअन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण -

• जोरदार धमाका होते ही लोगों में भगदड़ मच गई - मिश्रित वाक्य।
• जैसे ही जोर का धमाका हुआ वैसे ही लोगों में भगदड़ मच गई -मिश्रित वाक्य।
• जब धमाका हुआ तो लोगों में भगदड़ मच गई - मिश्रित वाक्य।

Additional Informationरचना के आधार पर वाक्य के तीन भेद होते है -

जो शोक करने योग्य न हो वाक्यांश के एक शब्द का सही विकल्प अशोक होगा।

• अशोक के अन्य अर्थ -
• हँसमुख, सुन्दर, स्फूर्तिकारक, आनंदकारक, हर्ष, प्रसन्न, चमकीला आदि है।

Key Pointsअन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण -

Additional Information

• वाक्यांश की परिभाषा - शब्द समूह का वह सार्थक रूप जिससे एक विचार की स्पष्ट एवं पूर्ण अभिव्यक्ति होती हो, उसे वाक्यांश कहते है।
• वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द की परिभाषा - जो शब्द अनेक शब्दों के स्थान पर अकेले ही प्रयोग किये जाते हैं , वे वाक्यांश बोधक शब्द कहलाते है।

क्षत्राणी शब्द स्त्रीलिंग शब्द का सही विकल्प होगा। 

• क्षत्राणी का पुल्लिंग क्षत्रिय होगा।

Key Pointsलिंग - लिंग उन शब्दों का रूप होता है जिनसे स्त्री और पुरुष में अंतर किया जा सके।

यानी अगर स्त्री और पुरुष का बोध कराते हो, उन्हें लिंग कहा जाता है। 

लिंग के भेद -

वाक्य यद्यपि वह सबसे कमज़ोर था तथापि उसने सबसे ज़्यादा काम किया वाक्य मिश्र वाक्य का विकल्प होगा। 

• मिश्र वाक्य - जिन वाक्यों में एक मुख्य या प्रधान वाक्य हो और अन्य आश्रित उपवाक्य हों, उन्हें मिश्रित वाक्य कहते है।

Key Pointsअन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण -

• सबसे कमज़ोर होने पर भी उसने सबसे ज़्यादा काम किया - संयुक्त वाक्य।
• वह सबसे कमज़ोर था और फिर भी उसने सबसे ज़्यादा काम किया - संयुक्त वाक्य।
• वह सबसे कमज़ोर था, फिर भी उसने सबसे ज़्यादा काम किया - संयुक्त वाक्य।

Additional Informationरचना के आधार पर वाक्य तीन प्रकार के होते है -

अपत्य : अपथ्य शब्द युग्म का सही शब्द युग्म का विकल्प संतान : परहेज़ होगा। 

• अपत्य के अन्य अर्थ - संतति, वंशज, वंश, औलाद आदि है।
• अपथ्य के अन्य अर्थ - ऐसे भोजन से है जो पचाने मे समर्थ न हो।

Key Pointsअन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण -

बन : वन शब्द युग्म का सही शब्द युग्म का विकल्प  मजदूरी : जंगल होगा।

• बन का अर्थ - श्रम तथा मजदूरी है।
• वन का अर्थ - कान्तार, सहरा, विपिन, कानन आदि है।

Key Pointsअन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण -