DSSSB TGT Natural Science Female 26 Sept 2021 (Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

The logic follows here is:

Clearly, the wrong term is 'EYYJ'.

Hence, the correct answer is "EYYJ".

The logic follows here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "FNI43".

The logic follows here is:

• First word : Second word

→ The first word is the SI unit of the second word.

1) Decibel : Power

→ Decible is the SI unit of Sound while Watt is the SI unit of Power.

2) Joule : Heat

→ Joule is the SI unit of Heat.

3) Hertz : Frequency

→ Hertz is the SI unit of Frequency.

4) Newton : Force

→ Newton is the SI unit of Force.

Thus, Decibel : Power is the odd word pair.

Hence, the correct answer is "Decibel : Power".

The logic follows here is:

• Lungs : Human

→ Humans breathe through Lungs.

Similarly,

• Gills : Fish

→ Fish breathe through Gills.

Hence, the correct answer is "Gills".

The logic follows here is:

• COMBINATION is coded as “54326798647”.

Similarly,

• ‘NICOTIN’ will be coded as:

Hence, the correct answer is "7654867".

As per the given information: 

In a row of boys, Vineet ranks eighth from the starting and fourteenth from the end.

Total boys in the row = Position of Vineet from starting + Position of  Vineet from end - 1

= 8 + 14 - 1

= 22 - 1

= 21

 In another row of girls, Sita's position is ninth from the starting and eleventh from the end.

Total Girls in the row = Position of Sita from starting + Position of  Sita from end - 1

= 9 + 11 - 1

= 20 - 1

= 19 

Total students in both the rows together = Total boys in the row + Total Girls in the row 

= 21 + 19

= 40

Thus, the total number of students in both the rows together are '40'.

Hence, the correct answer is "40".

As per the given information:

Six friends Pankaj, Praveen, Puneet, Rajat, Rahul and Pawan lives on separate floor of a 6 floor building, but not necessarily in the same order. The ground floor is numbered 1, the first floor is numbered 2 and so on, the topmost floor is numbered 6.

• Pankaj lives immediately above Puneet and immediately below Praveen.
• Pankaj lives on an odd numbered floor.
• Only two friends live between Rahul and Pankaj.

​

• Praveen does not live on the topmost floor.

→Case II, will be eliminated as it contradicts given condition.

​

• Rajat does not live on the lowermost floor.

​Thus, the final arrangement will be:

Clearly, 'Pawan' lives on the lowermost floor.

Hence, the correct answer is "Pawan".

Statement:

Some pencil are marker.

Some marker are tap.

The least possible diagram for the given statements is as follows:

Conclusions:

(I) Some pencil are not marker.→ False(Because 'Some pencil are marker', so 'Some pencil are not marker' is possible but not definite. Thus it is false.) 

(II) Some tap are not pencil. → False (Because there is no direct relation between 'tap' and 'pencil', so it is possible but not definite)

Hence, the correct answer is " Neither I nor II follows".

Statement:

All stairs are building.

No buildings are city.

Some city is district.

The least possible diagram for the given statements is as follows:

Conclusions:

(I) Some buildings are stairs.→ True (Because 'All stairs are building', so 'Some buildings are stairs' is definitely true) 

(II) No building are district. → False (Because there is no direct relation between 'buildings' and 'districts', so it is possible but not definite)

Hence, the correct answer is " only I follows".

Statement:

All fruits are vitamin.

Some vitamin are not vegetable.

Some vegetables are green.

The least possible diagram for the given statements is as follows:

Conclusions:

(I) Some fruits are not vegetable.→ False (Because there is no direct relation between 'fruits' and 'vegetable', so it is possible but not definite)

(II) Some green are vegetable. → True (Because 'Some vegetables are green.', so 'Some green are vegetable' is definitely true)

(III) Some vitamin are not fruits. →  False (Because 'All fruits are vitamin' so it is possible but not definite)

Hence, the correct answer is " only II follows".

The logic follows here is,

(First term), (Second term), (third term)

• (First term)2 = Second term
• (First term)³ = Third term

1) (3, 9, 30)

→ (3)² = 9 = second term

→ (3)³ = 27 ≠ 30(third term)

2) (7, 49, 343) 

→ (7)2 = 49 = second term

→ (7)3 = 343 = third term

3) (12, 144, 221)

→ (12)2 = 144 = second term

→ (12)3 = 1728 ≠ 221(third term)

4) (6, 36, 92) 

→ (6)2 = 36 = second term

→ (6)3 = 216 ≠ 92(third term)

Hence, the correct answer is "(7, 49, 343)".

Given statement : S ≥ T < U > P

Conclusions :

i) S > P → FALSE (as S ≥ T < U > P → clear relationship between G and B cannot be determined).

ii)  U < S → FALSE (as S ≥ T < U > P →  clear relationship between G and B cannot be determined).

Hence, the correct answer is "Neither I nor II follows".

Given: 10, ?, 25, 42, 68

The logic follows here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "15".

As per the given information,

The shaded part i.e. P represents → Colleges which provide only hostel and canteen facility

Hence, the correct answer is "option (3)".

As per the given information,

The shaded part i.e. Y represents → ​Electronic shops which sale printer, mobile and cameras but not laptop

Hence, the correct answer is "option (1)".

The logic follows here is:

The figure is moving 45° clockwise in each successive image.

So, the figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series is shown below :

Thus, the figure in option (1) will be the next image for the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is "option (1)".

The logic follows here is :

On close observation, we find that the problem figure is embedded in option (3) as shown below:

Hence, the correct answer is "option (3)".

The logic follows here is:

When the mirror is placed on the line MN, the left side and right side changed vice-versa where the top and bottom remain the same.

Thus, the correct mirror image of the given figure will be :

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Additional Information

In Mirror image left side and right side changed vice-versa where top and bottom remain the same.

Reflection of an object into the water is its water image. It appears by inverting an object vertically i.e. upside down.

The water image of the figure looks like mirror image of the figure in case the mirror is horizontally at the bottom of the figure.

Water image is just a reflection where top and bottom part of the images changed where left and right side of the image remain same.

As per the given question:

The numbers of squares in the given figures are:

Thus, there are '7' squares in the given figures.

Hence, the correct answer is "7".

As per the information:

When the question figure is merged with the figure in option (2), the complete figure can be seen as :

Hence, the correct answer is "option (1)".

The correct answer is Kevada Mosque

Key Points

• Kevada Mosque is a mosque in Champaner, Gujarat state, western India. It is part of the Champaner-Pavagadh Archaeological Park, a UNESCO World Heritage Site. The mosque has minarets, globe-like domes, and narrow stairs.

The correct answer is Dance.

Key Points

• Achchhan Maharaj whose original name was Jagannath Maharaj is associated with Dance.
• He was a great Kathak Dancer of Lucknow Gharana.
• He was the father and guru of Pt. Birju Maharaj.
• In the loving memory of Achchhan Maharaj, a two-day live dance and music were inaugurated in New Delhi in January 2018 in presence of Pt. Birju Maharaj.

The correct answer is Jewish.

Key Points

• Hanukkah, also known as the Festival of Lights, Feast of Dedication, is an eight-day Jewish holiday commemorating the rededication of the Holy Temple (the Second Temple) in Jerusalem at the time of the Maccabean Revolt against the Seleucid Empire of the 2nd century BCE.
• Hanukkah is observed for eight nights and days, starting on the 25th day of Kislev according to the Hebrew calendar, which may occur at any time from late November to late December in the Gregorian calendar.
• The Hanukkah story is based on historical events that took place in 165 BCE in Jerusalem.
• After the Second Temple in Jerusalem was desecrated by the Seleucid Emperor Antiochus IV and his Greco-Syrian troops, Jewish priest Mattathias and his sons rebelled.
• Retaking Jerusalem and the Temple, they lit the holy lamp (the menorah) but had only enough oil for one night.
• Miraculously, the lamp stayed lit for eight days until enough holy oil could be procured.

The correct answer is Santosh Trophy.

Key Points

• Santosh Trophy
• It is a domestic football knock-out competition contested by the regional state associations and government institutions under the All India Football Federation.
• It was started in 1941.
• Most Successful Team: West Bengal( 32 titles)
• All India Football Federation
• Headquarters: Dwarka, Delhi
• President: Praful Patel
• FIFA World Cup
• It is an international football competition held after every four years.
• It was started in 1930.
• Most Successful Team: Brazil( 5 times)
• Current Champion: France
• Qatar will host the 2022 FIFA World Cup.
• FIFA
• Headquarters: Zurich, Switzerland
• President: Gianni Infantino

Additional Information

The correct answer is Steve Smith

Key Points

• Smith narrowly beat his teammates Travis Head and David Warner by receiving 171 votes, compared to Head's 144 votes and Warner's 141 votes.
• This victory makes Smith one of only three cricketers, alongside Ricky Ponting and Michael Clarke, to have won the Allan Border Medal four times.
• He previously won the award in 2015, 2018, and 2021.

Additional Information

• The Allan Border Medal recognizes the most outstanding male Australian cricketer.
• First awarded in 2000, the medal is named after former Australian men's captain Allan Border.

The correct answer is 3.

• 3 Bharat Ratna's can be given in one year.

Key Points

• Bharat Ratna:
• The highest civilian award is given for exceptional service the advancement of art, literature and science, and in recognition of public service of the highest order.
• Bharat Ratna can be given to any person irrespective of race, occupation, position or sex.
• Bharat Ratna the highest civilian Award of the country, was instituted in the year 1954.
• There is a maximum of 3 persons that can be awarded.
• The first three recipients of Bharat Ratna are:
• C. Rajagopalachari.
• Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan.
• C V Raman.
• Lal Bahadur Shastri was the first person to be awarded Bharat Ratna posthumously.
• Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan was the first foreigner to be honoured with this award in 1987.
• Indira Gandhi was the first woman to get Bharat Ratna.
• Sachin Tendulkar is the first sportsperson to get Bharat Ratna.
• There is no Bharat Ratna for the year 2021.

The correct answer is Hong Kong

Key Points

• Hong Kong climber Tsang Yin-hung set a new world record for the fastest ascent of Mount Everest by a woman.
• The 44-year-old achieved this remarkable feat in just 25 hours and 50 minutes.
• In a separate achievement, 75-year-old Arthur Muir became the oldest American to scale the world's highest peak, which stands at 8,848.86 meters.

The correct answer is National Securities Depositories Limited ​.

Key Points 

• National Securities Depositories Limited (NSDL) is the first and largest depository presently operational in India.
• The enactment of the Depositories Act in August 1996 paved the way for the establishment of NSDL.
• It was established in August 1996
• It was promoted as a joint venture of the IDBI, UTI, and the National Stock Exchange.
• Its tag line −Technology, Trust and Reach.
• It is a state-of-the-art infrastructure that handles most of the securities held and settled in dematerialized form in the Indian capital market.
• The Central Depository Services Limited (CDSL) is the second depository to commence operations and was promoted by the Bombay Stock Exchange and the Bank of India.
• Both these national-level depositories operate through intermediaries who are electronically connected to the depository and serve as contact points with the investors and are called depository participants.
• Mr G. V. Nageswara Rao is Managing Director & CEO of National Securities Depository Limited

The correct answer is 500 and 1000 rupee notes

Key Points

• The Indian government announced demonetization on November 8, 2016, which involved the discontinuation of the use of ₹ 500 and ₹ 1,000 currency notes as legal tender.
• Demonetization refers to the process of invalidating certain currency units, rendering them unusable for any financial transactions.

The correct answer is 1986.

• The Consumer Protection Act was enacted in India in 1986.

Key PointsConsumer Protection Act:

• The Consumer Protection Bill, 1986 was passed by both the Houses of Parliament and it received the assent of the President on 24th December 1986.
• The Consumer Protection Act,1986 (COPRA) was an Act of the Parliament of India enacted to protect the interests of consumers in India.
• It was replaced by the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
• It was made for the establishment of consumer councils and other authorities for the settlement of consumers' grievances and matters connected with them.
• The act was passed in Assembly in October 1986 and came into force on December 24, 1986.

This Act is regarded as the 'Magna Carta' in the field of consumer protection for checking unfair trade practices, ‘defects in goods’, and ‘deficiencies in services’ as far as India is concerned.​

Additional Information 

• Other important acts are:-

The correct answer is Dr B.R. Ambedkar.

Key Points 

• Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar is known as the "Father of the Indian Constitution".
• The Constitution of India was adopted on 26 November 1949.
• The National Anthem of India was adopted on 24 January 1950.
• It was decided to declare 26 November as Constitution Day.

Additional Information

• Vallabhbhai Patel is known as the “Bismarck of India”.
• Sarojini Naidu is known as the nightingale of India.

The correct answer is Sinhala

Key Points

• Sri Lanka’s population is comprised of 75 per cent Sinhalese and 24 per cent Tamil speakers (11% Sri Lankan Tamils, 9% Moors, and 4% Indian Tamils), with smaller communities of Malays, Burghers, and others.
• Sinhala Only Bill, (1956), an act passed by the government of Ceylon (now Sri Lanka) making Sinhalese the official language of the country.
• The bill was the first step taken by the new government of S.W.R.D. Bandaranaike to realize one of the main campaign promises that had brought about his landslide victory in the 1956 general election.
• Violently opposed by the Tamil-speaking minority in Ceylon, the passage of the bill was followed by rioting.
• Thus, in 1956 year, an act was passed to recognize Sinhala as the only official language in Sri Lanka.

Additional Information 

• In 1958, in response to the grievances of the Tamil-speaking people, the government passed the Tamil Language (Special Provisions) Act, in which Tamil was declared an official language in the Tamil-majority North and East.
• The 13th Amendment in 1987 to Article 18 of the 1978 Constitution stated that “the official language of Sri Lanka is Sinhala” while “Tamil shall also be an official language,” with English as a “link language.”
• While this recognized both Sinhala and Tamil as official languages, the wording was still contentious, as some perceived it as referring to Tamil in a secondary sense.
• In response, in 1988, the 16th Amendment to the constitution corrected the position by stating, “Sinhala and Tamil shall be the languages of administration throughout Sri Lanka.”

The correct answer is Electrical energy into mechanical energy.

Key Points 

• An electric motor converts Electrical energy into mechanical energy.
• Most electric motors operate through the interaction between the motor's magnetic field and electric current in a wire winding to generate force in the form of torque applied on the motor's shaft.

Additional Information

• A simple motor has the following parts: 
• Power supply: DC for a simple motor.
• Field Magnet: Could be a permanent magnet or an electromagnet
• Commutator: It is the rotating interface of the armature coil with a stationary circuit.
• Field Magnet: The magnetic field helps to produce a torque on the rotating armature coil by virtue of Fleming’s left-hand rule.
• Armature Core: Holds the armature coil in place and provides mechanical support.
• Armature Coil: It helps the motor to run.
• Brushes: It is a device that conducts current between stationary wires and moving parts, most commonly the rotating shaft.
• Uses of an Electric Motor
• Drill machine, Water Pumps, Hard Disc Drives, Washing Machines, Industrial Equipment etc.

Explanation:

• Heavy water:
• The chemical name of Heavy water is Deuterium oxide (D2O).
• The presence of deuterium gives the water different nuclear properties, and the increase of mass gives it slightly different physical and chemical properties when compared to normal water.
• Heavy water has a molecular weight of about 20 (the sum of twice the atomic weight of deuterium, which is 2, plus the atomic weight of oxygen, which is 16).
• Deuterium is a hydrogen isotope with a nucleus containing a neutron and a proton.
• Uses of Heavy water:
• Heavy Water is used for the preparation of Deuterium.
• It is used as a tracer to study the mechanism of respiration, and photosynthesis.
• D2O is used in NMR (nuclear magnetic resonance) spectroscopy, which is used to observe the magnetic fields around the nuclei of atoms.
• Isotopologues of many organic compounds are prepared with the help of deuterium oxide.
• As a moderator in the nuclear reactor to slow down the neutrons.

Correct Answer Odisha

Manganese is one of the important raw materials used for smelting iron ore.

Key Points 

• Manganese is used for making alloys.
• It is used in the manufacturing of enamel, dry cell batteries, plastics, chemicals, and glasses.
• It requires almost 10 kg of manganese to manufacture one tonne of steel.
• Odisha is the largest producer of manganese in India with multiple mines located over the iron ore belt of India.
• Some of the major mines are Bonai, Kendujhar, Sundergarh, Gangpur, Koraput, Kalahandi, and Bolanger.
• After Odisha, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Telangana, Goa, and Jharkhand lies in the list of manganese producer in India.
• In 2000-2001, Odisha produced one-third of the country's total production.

Thus, we can conclude that Odisha is the largest producer of manganese.

The correct answer is Endemic Species

Key Points

Endemic Species:

• Species that are only found in some particular areas are usually isolated by natural or geographical barriers.
• Examples:
• Andaman teal, Nicobar pigeon, Andaman wild pig, Mithun in Arunachal Pradesh

The correct answer is Lord Warren Hastings.

Key Points 

• Warren Hastings is the First Governor-General of Bengal.
• He served as the Governor-General of Bengal from 1774 to 1785.
• His reign leads to the end of the dual system of administration.
• In 1750, he began his work as a writer (clerk) for the East India Company in Calcutta.
• After Mir Jafar was enthroned as the Nawab after the Battle of Plassey, he became the British resident at Murshidabad, Bengal's capital, in 1758.
• The First Anglo-Maratha war and the Second Anglo-Mysore war were fought under his reign.
• During his presidency, the Regulating Act of 1773 was passed.
• In 1785, he backed Sir William Jones informing the Asiatic Society of Bengal.
• He abolished the judicial powers of the Zamindars.

Additional Information

• Lord Lytton was an English politician who served as Viceroy of India from 1876 to1880.
• He was the viceroy during the Second Anglo-Afghan War.
• He enacted the Vernacular Press Act in 1878.
• Robert Clive served as the Governor of Bengal from 1757-60 and from 1765-67.
• In 1765, he founded the 'Society of Trade,' but it was eventually disbanded.
• Lord Ripon was served as Viceroy of India from 1880 to 1884.
• He repeals the Vernacular Press Act (1882)
• The first Factory Act (1881) was during his tenure.
• The Ilbert Bill controversy (1883-84) was during his tenure

The correct answer is 1942

Key Points 

• Quit India Movement was started in August 1942.
• The Quit India Movement is also known as India August Movement or Bharat Chodo Andolan.
• It was launched at the Bombay session of the All India Congress Committee.
• It was launched by Mahatma Gandhi on 8 August 1942.
• The movement was initiated to demand an end to British rule in India.
• It took place due to India being denied complete freedom, involvement of Indians in war without prior consultation, centralization of many small movements, and a shortage of essential commodities.

Additional Information 

• The movement begins at Gowalia Tank Maidan in Mumbai.
• Mahatma Gandhi gave the call of "do or die" in his speech delivered at the maidan.
• The movement faced violence and lacked support from the Muslim League.
• People were shot, lathi-charged, and villages were burnt.

The correct answer is Citadel.

Key Points

• Numerous of these cities had two or more distinct portions.
• The area to the west was often taller and smaller.
• This is referred to by archaeologists as the citadel.
• In general, the eastern portion was lower and larger.
• The lower town is what it's known as.
• Each component was frequently surrounded by the walls made of baked brick.
• The bricks have endured for countless years because of how well they were built.
• The walls were robust because the bricks were arranged in an interlocking manner.

Additional Information

• Special buildings were built on the citadel in certain cities.
• For instance, in Mohenjodaro, a highly unusual tank known as the Great Bath was constructed in this region.
• This was plastered, lined with bricks, and sealed with a layer of natural tar to prevent leaks.
• From two sides, steps led down to it, and chambers surrounded it on all sides.
• Most likely, water was brought in from a well and emptied after usage.

The correct answer is Nikol Pashinyan.

Key Points

• Nikol Pashinyan has been re-appointed as Armenia's Prime Minister by President Armen Sarkissian.
• Pashinyan's appointment came after he was re-nominated by the Civil Contract party, which won a majority of the seats in the June 21 parliamentary elections.
• He was first appointed as the PM in 2018.
• Armenia is a nation, and former Soviet republic, in the Caucasus region between Asia and Europe.
• Armenia:
• Capital - Yerevan.
• Currency - Armenian dram.

Given:

Let x = (53 + 73 + 63 - 630) / {(6)(52 + 72 + 62 - 35 - 42 - 30)}

Formula used:

Calculation:

According to the question:

⇒ x = (125 + 343 + 216 - 630) / {(6)(25 + 49 + 36 - 35 - 42 - 30)}

⇒ x = (54) / {(6)(110 - 107)}

⇒ x = (54) / {(6)(3)}

⇒ x = 54 / 18 = 3

Therefore, "3" is the required answer.

Given:

The given expression: (0.729)4 × (0.9)8 ÷ (0.81)5 = (0.9)?

Formula used:

1. x^a × x^b = x^a+b
2. (x^a)^b = x^{a × b}
3. x^a ÷ x^b = x^a-b

Calculation:

According to the question:

⇒ (0.9³)4 × (0.9)8 ÷ (0.9²)5 = (0.9)?

⇒ 0.912 × 0.98 ÷ 0.910 = (0.9)?

⇒ 0.912 × 0.98-10 = (0.9)?

⇒ 0.912 × 0.9-2 = (0.9)?

⇒ 0.910 = (0.9)?

On comparing we get, ? = 10 

Therefore, "10" is the required answer.

Given:

The given expression: $(\frac{2\times 2 + 5 \times 5 + 20}{2+5})$ = ?

Formula used:

1. (a + b)² = a² + b² + 2ab

Calculation:

According to the question:

⇒ ? = $(\frac{2\times 2 + 5 \times 5 + 20}{2+5})$

⇒ ? = $(\frac{2^2 + 5^ 2 + 2\times 2 \times 5}{2+5})$

⇒ ? = $(\frac{(2 + 5)^2}{2+5})$ = (2 + 5) = 7

Therefore, "7" is the required answer.

Given:

Two numbers are in the ratio of 2 ∶ 3

The product of their H.C.F. and L.C.M. is 150

Formula used:

L.C.M × H.C.F = x × y

Calculation:

Let the numbers are 2a and 3a respectively

Now, 

⇒ 150 = 2a × 3a

⇒ 150 = 6a²

⇒ a2 = 25

⇒ a = 5

The sum of two numbers = 2a + 3a = 5a = 25

∴ "25" is the required answer.

Given: 

A shopkeeper purchased X shirts of different prices whose average cost price = Rs. 1152.

Y shirts from them got damaged whose average cost price = Rs. 1152

He again purchased Y shirts whose average cost price = Rs.576 

Now the average cost price of shirts with the shopkeeper = Rs.960 

Calculation:

Total price of X shirts = Rs. 1152X

Total price of Y damaged shirts = Rs. 1152Y

Remaining shirts = X - Y

Remaining worth = 1152X - 1152Y

Shopkeeper purchased Y shirts of average cost price = Rs. 576

Price of Y new shirts = Rs. 576Y

Worth of new collection = Rs. 1152X - Rs. 1152Y + Rs. 576Y = Rs. 1152X - Rs. 576Y

New average of his collection = Rs. 960

Total worth of his new collection = Rs. 960 X

On equating the worth of new collection,

⇒ 1152X - 1152Y + 576Y = 960 X

⇒ 192X = 576Y

⇒ X = 3Y

The required ratio is 3 : 1

Therefore, "3: 1" is the required answer.

Given:

​Arun made an error of 7 percent in excess and 5 percent in deficit while measuring the length and breadth respectively of a rectangle.

Formula used:

Area of rectangle = length × breadth

Calculation:

Let the original length and breadth be 'l' and 'b' respectively.

Original or corrected Area = lb

According to the question,

Measured length = (100% + 7%) of l = 1.07l

Measured breadth = (100% - 5%) of b = 0.95b

New area = 1.07l × 0.95b = 1.0165lb

The required percentage change = $\frac{1.0165lb - lb}{lb}$ × 100 = 1.65%

The percentage error in the area = 1.65%

Therefore, "1.65%" is the required answer.

Given:

Out of his total salary, a person invests 30 percent in a scheme.

If his savings is Rs.270 more than the amount in scheme and remaining amount of salary which is 25 percent, he spends.

Calculation:

Let 'S' and 'E' be the saving and spending respectively.

Let the salary of the person = 100x

Amount invested in scheme = 30% of 100x = 30x

Saving, S = 30x + 270

Expenditure = 25% of 100x = 25x

Now, 

Salary = Invested in scheme + Saving + Expenditure

⇒ 100x = 30x + 30x + 270 + 25x

⇒ 15x = 270

⇒ x = 18

The salary of the person = 100 × 18 = Rs. 1800

Therefore, "Rs. 1800" is the required answer.

Given:

Ambika bought a certain quantity of oranges at a total cost of Rs. 1800.

She sold $\frac{1}{3}$ of these oranges at 30 percent loss.

She earns an overall profit of 15 percent.

Calculation:

Let the number of oranges = 18

Total cost price of 18 oranges = Rs. 1800

Cost price of 1 orange = Rs. 1800/18 = Rs. 100

Overall profit = 15% 

Overall selling price = (100% + 15%) of 1800 = 2070

Case 1: She sold $\frac{1}{3}$ of these oranges at 30 percent loss.

The number of oranges sold in first case = 1/3 × 18 = 6

Cost price of 6 oranges = 6 × 100 = Rs. 600

Selling price of 6 oranges = (100% - 30%) of 600 = Rs. 420

Case 2: She sold 2/3 of these oranges at x percent gain.

Number of oranges = 2/3 × 18 = 12

Overall selling price = Rs. 2070

Selling price of 6 oranges = Rs. 420

Selling price of 12 oranges = 2070 - 420 = Rs. 1650

Selling price of 1 orange = Rs. 1650/12 = Rs. 137.5

Now, 

Cost price of 1 orange = Rs. 100

Selling price of 1 orange = Rs. 137.5

Required profit percentage = $\frac{137.5-100}{100}$ × 100 = 37.5%

Therefore, "37.5%" is the required answer.

Given:

​A sells his goods 10 percent cheaper than B, and 10 percent dearer than C.

Calculation:

Let the selling price for A, B and C are a, b and c respectively.

According to the question,

Selling price for A, a = (100% - 10%) of b

⇒ a = 90% of b

⇒ a = 0.9b

Selling price for A, a = (100% + 10%) of c

⇒ a = 1.1c

On equating value of a, we get,

⇒ 0.9b = 1.1c

⇒ $\frac{b}{c}$ = $\frac{11}{9}$

Let b = 11x and c = 9x

The required percentage = $\frac{11x-9x}{11x}$ × 100 ≈ 18.2%

Therefore, "18.2%" is the required answer.

Given:

Ratio of 45 percent of A to 55 percent of B is 6 ∶ 5.

One-fourth of 1 less than the sum of A and B is 9.

Calculation:

According to the question,

⇒ $\frac{45\text {\% of A}}{\text {55\% of B}} = \frac{6}{5}$

⇒ $\frac{9{A}}{11B} = \frac{6}{5}$

⇒ $\frac{A}{B} = \frac{22}{15}$

Let the value of A = 22x and B = 15x

Again according to the question,

⇒ $\frac{1}{4}$ × (A + B - 1) = 9

⇒ 22x + 15x - 1 = 36

⇒ 37x = 37

⇒ x = 1

Now, the value of A = 22 and B = 15

Now,

⇒ A - 2B = 22 - 2(15)

⇒ A - 2B = 22 - 30

⇒ A - 2B = -8

Therefore, "-8" is the required answer.

Given:

​A total of 57 sweets were distributed among 10 children such that each girl gets 5 sweets and each boy gets 6 sweets. 

Calculation:

Let the number of girls = x

Therefore, the number of boys = 10 - x

According to the question,

Total number of sweets distributed among girls = 5x

Total number of sweets distributed among boys = 6(10 - x) = 60 - 6x

According to the question,

⇒ 5x + 60 - 6x = 57

⇒ x = 3

The number of girls = 3

Therefore, "3" is the required answer.

Given:

Rs. 500 was invested at 12 percent per annum simple interest and a certain sum of money at 10 percent per annum simple interest.

The sum of the interests on both the sum after 4 years is Rs. 480.

Formula used:

Simple Interest = $\frac{PRT}{100}$

Where, 

P = Principal amount

T = Time period of investment

R = Rate of interest applied

Calculation:

Let x be the amount invested on second scheme.

According to the question,

⇒ $\frac{500 × 12 × 4}{100}$ + $\frac{x × 10 × 4}{100}$ = 480

⇒ (500 × 12 × 4) + (x × 10 × 4) = 48000

⇒ 24000 + 40x = 48000

⇒ 40x = 48000 - 24000

⇒ 40x = 24000

⇒ x = 600

The later sum of money = Rs. 600

Therefore, "Rs. 600" is the required answer.

Given:

​The length of a road is 10 km.

Gap between two trees = 12.5 m

Concept used:

The number of trees planted = $\frac{x}{y}$ + 1

Where, 

x = the length of road on which trees is to be planted

y = the distance between two consecutive trees

Calculation:

The length of the road = 10 km = 10000 m

The gap between two trees which is to be planted = 12.5 m

Numbers of trees planted on 10000 m road = $\frac{10000}{12.5}$ + 1 = 801

Since the trees were planted on both sides = 801 × 2 = 1602

Therefore, '1602' is the required answer.

Given:

​A covers half of his distance with 20 km/h and rest with 30 km/h. What is the average speed of A.

Formula used:

1. Distance = Speed × Time
2. Average speed = Total distance ÷ Total time

Calculation:

According to the question,

Let the distance = L.C.M of (20 and 30) = 60 km

Time required to travel 30 km with 20 km/hr = 1.5 hours

Time required to travel 30 km with 30 km/hr = 1 hour

Average speed = 60/2.5 = 24 km/hr

Therefore, "24 km/hr" is the required answer.

Given:

A contractor employed 60 men to do a certain work in 50 days.

After 20 days, 20 men left the work, so he employed 20 women at that time.

Each woman works at $\frac{3}{5}$ of the rate of each man, 

Formula used:

Total units of work = M × D × E

Where, 

M = number of manpower

D = number of days

E = Efficiency of each manpower

Calculation:

Let M and W are the efficiency of each man and each woman respectively.

Let the efficiency of each man = M = 5 units a day

According to the question,

Efficiency of each woman = W = 3/5 of M = 3 units a day

Scenario 1: A contractor employed 60 men to do a certain work in 50 days.

Total amount of work = 60 × 5 × 50 = 15000 units

Scenario 2: After 20 days, 20 men left the work.

Amount of work done in 20 days by 60 mens = 60 × 5 × 20 = 6000 units

Remaining work = 15000 - 6000 = 9000 units

Remaining days = 50 - 20 = 30 days

Scenario 3: After 20 days, 20 men left the work, so he employed 20 women at that time with 3/5 of the efficiency of each men.

Combined efficiency of 40 men and 20 women = C = 40M + 20W

⇒ C = (40 × 5) + (20 × 3) = 260 units a day

Remaining work = 9000 units

Days required to complete the work by 40 men and 20 women = 9000/260 = 34$\frac{8}{13}$ days

Extra days required = 34$\frac{8}{13}$  - 30 = 4$\frac{8}{13}$ days

Therefore, '4$\frac{8}{13}$ days' is the required answer.

Given:

​A can do a piece of work in 6 days 

B and C can do it in 9 days 

A and C can do it in 4 days 

Concept used:

Amount of work done = Efficiency of person × Time taken by the person to complete the work

Calculation:

According to the question,

Let the amount of work to be done = L.C.M of (6, 9, 4) = 36

Now

Efficiency of A = E_A = 36/6 = 6 units a day

Efficiency of B and C = E_B + E_C = 36/9 = 4 units a day

Efficiency of A and C = E_A + E_C = 36/4 = 9 units a day

Now,

⇒ EA + EC = 9 units a day

⇒ 6 + EC = 9 units a day

⇒ EC = 3 units a day

Now, 

⇒ EB + EC = 4 units a day

⇒ EB + 3 = 4 units a day

⇒ EB = 1 unit a day

Therefore, the number of days required to complete the work by B alone = 36/1 = 36 days

Therefore, "36 days" is the required answer.

Given:

Find the area of a sector of a circle of radius 14 cm with central angle 45° . 

Formula:

Area of sector of a circle = π × r² × $\frac{θ}{360^{o}}$

Where, 

r = radius 

θ = central angle

Calculation:

Area of sector of a circle = π × 142 × $\frac{45^{o}}{360^{o}}$ = 77 cm²

Therefore, "77 cm²" is the required answer.

Given:

Four boys are standing at four corners of a floor which is in the shape of a rhombus. Arun and Chetan are at opposite corners while Pawan and Raman are at opposite corners.

The area of the floor is 96 m2 and the side of the floor is 10 m.

Formula used:

1. Area of Rhombus = $\frac{d_1 × d_2}{2}$ 2. $\left ( \frac{d_1}{2} \right )^2 + \left ( \frac{d_2}{2} \right )^2 = a^2$

Where, 

d₁ and d₂ are two diagonals.

a = side length of the rhombus

3. (x + y)² = x² + y² + 2xy

Calculation:

According to the question:

Area of Rhombus = 96

⇒ (d₁ × d₂) ÷ 2 = 96

⇒ (d1 × d2) = 192

Now, 

⇒ $\left ( \frac{d_1}{2} \right )^2 + \left ( \frac{d_2}{2} \right )^2 = a^2$

⇒ $\left ( \frac{d_1^2}{4} \right ) + \left ( \frac{d_2^2}{4} \right ) = a^2$

⇒ d₁² + d₂² = 4a²

⇒ d12 + d22 = 4 × 102 = 400

Now, 

⇒ (d₁ + d₂)² = d12 + d22 + 2(d1 × d2)

⇒ (d1 + d2)2 = 400 + 2(192) = 784

⇒ (d1 + d2) = 28

The sum of the distance between Arun and Chetan and the distance between Pawan and Raman = Sum of diagonal = 28 m

Therefore, "28 m" is the required answer.

Given:

The total number of workers in five companies = 1600

Calculation:

The number of workers in company D = 27% of 1600 = 432

Let the number of male in company D = 4x

Let the number of female in company D = 5x

The required difference in the number of male and female workers = 5x - 4x = x

Now,

Total number of male and female workers = 4x + 5x = 9x

⇒ 9x = 432

⇒ x = 48

Therefore, The required difference in the number of male and female workers = 48

Therefore, "48" is the required answer.

Given:

The following bar graph shows the number of accidents and the percentage of death due to accidents in a city on six days.

Concept used:

Average of n numbers = Sum of n numbers ÷ n

Calculation:

The number of deaths per day due to accidents on Monday = 10% of 50 = 5

The number of deaths per day due to accidents on Tuesday = 0% of 16 = 0

The number of deaths per day due to accidents on Wednesday = 20% of 25 = 5

The number of deaths per day due to accidents on Thursday = 40% of 20 = 8

The number of deaths per day due to accidents on Friday = 50% of 24 = 12

The required average = (5 + 0 + 5 + 8 + 12) ÷ 5 = 6

The average number of deaths per day due to accidents from Monday to Friday = 6

Therefore, "6" is the required answer.

The correct answer is ‘has lead to increased’.

Key Points

• The sentence is trying to illustrate cause and effect, where the failure of the peace talks has resulted in increased tension on the streets.
• The phrase "has lead to increased" is grammatically incorrect. The correct context demands using the past participle of the verb 'lead', which is 'led'.
• The verb 'lead' (pronounced like 'reed'), is a present-tense verb, meaning to guide or direct. However, in the sentence, we need the past participle 'led' (pronounced like 'red') which is used to describe when one thing causes another.
• The phrase should read "has led to increased" to maintain the correct tense alignment.
• Correct Sentence: The failure of the peace talks has led to increased tension on the streets.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 Additional Information

• 'Option 1' uses correct grammar, i.e., "The failure of the peace talks" is an appropriate phrase denoting an event and is grammatically sound.
• 'Option 3' provides the correct outcome or effect, "tension on the streets", that is grammatically correct and aligns with the cause (failure of peace talks) presented in the sentence.
• 'Option 4' suggests that there is no error in the sentence, which is incorrect because we have identified an error in 'Option 2'.

The correct answer is 'A recent research have underlined'.

 Key Points

• The error lies in the subject-verb agreement.
• The verb 'have' does not agree with its singular subject 'research'.
• 'Research', which is an uncountable noun, should be referred to in the third person singular and matched with a singular verb 'has' instead of 'have'.
• Thus, the correct phrase should be "A recent research has underlined".
• Correct Sentence: A recent research has underlined the relevance of media theory and quantitative empirical approach.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Additional Information

• 'Option 2' and 'Option 3' are both grammatically sound and convey particular concepts correctly in the context of the sentence. The phrase as a whole, "the relevance of media theory and quantitative empirical approach", is well-phrased and does not contain any grammatical inaccuracies.
• 'Option 4', which suggests that there is 'No error', is incorrect because we have identified a clear error in subject-verb agreement in 'Option 1'.

The correct answer is 'No improvement’.

 Key Points

• In the underlined segment 'is a triangular', the word 'is' correctly matches the subject 'The Deccan Plateau' which is singular.
• The term 'triangular' is appropriately used to describe the shape of the Deccan Plateau and makes sense in this context, especially when followed by 'landmass'.
• There's no grammatical or contextual error in the underlined segment.
• Therefore, there's no improvement needed for the underlined segment 'is a triangular'.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 Additional Information

• 'Option 1' proposes 'are a triangle' which is incorrect. The verb 'are' does not agree with the singular subject 'The Deccan Plateau' and a 'triangle' is not synonymous with a 'landmass'.
• 'Option 2' suggests 'has a triangular', which does not construct a grammatically correct or sensical phrase.
• 'Option 3' recommends 'are a mass'. This has incorrect verb agreement and lacks the shape description 'triangular'. 'Mass' without 'land' also makes the description less accurate.

The correct answer is ‘the religion doctrine had much’.

 Key Points

• The phrase "had many to do" is incorrect in this context. The word 'many' is used to refer to a quantity of countable items, not amount or degree of involvement.
• The correct word to use here would be 'much', which is used with uncountable nouns, to mean ‘a large amount’ or ‘to a large degree’.
• Therefore, the corrected phrase should be "the religion doctrine had much to do", which signifies a significant involvement or relevance of the religious doctrine in the matter.
• The use of 'much' correctly suggests the degree of involvement or influence of the religious doctrine.

Therefore, the correct answer is  'Option 2'.

 Additional Information

• 'Option 1' (the religion doctrine had any) suggests there may or may not have been involvement, but this is ambiguous and doesn't clearly convey degree of involvement.
• 'Option 3' (the religion doctrine had) removes the phrase referring to involvement entirely, which changes the meaning and doesn't effectively convey the intended message.
• 'Option 4' (No Improvement) is incorrect as the phrase "the religion doctrine had many to do" is grammatically incorrect for the context.

The correct answer is 'Gathered'.

 Key Points

• The correct verb form to use is 'gathered', as it refers to a past action (indicated by 'had') related to a group of people.
• The form 'had gathered' follows the structure of the Past Perfect tense, which is used to talk about an event prior to another event in the past.
• Therefore, the phrase should be "A number of people had gathered".
• Correct Sentence: A number of people had gathered to watch the live performance.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 Additional Information

• 'Option 1' and 'Option 2' both incorrectly use 'has'. 'Has' does not agree with the plural subject 'A number of people' and is not used with 'had'.
• 'Option 3' (gather) presents the verb in base form, which does not fit the tense of the sentence and does not provide the intended past perfect meaning.

The correct answer is 'Does'.

 Key Points

• When using 'nowhere' at the beginning of a sentence, it is common to use an inverted word order. The verb comes before the subject.
• The verb 'does' should be used to fit with the singular subject 'it' and maintain tense consistency.
• The phrasing should therefore be "Nowhere does it state..." indicating that there is no place in the document where it states that the company is filing for bankruptcy.
• Correct Sentence: Nowhere does it state that the company is filing for bankruptcy.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 Additional Information

• 'Option 1' (would) may be used in a hypothetical or conditional sentence, which is not the context here.
• 'Option 2' (do) doesn't agree with the singular subject 'it'.
• 'Option 4' (have) does not agree with the singular subject 'it' and does not provide an appropriate meaning in this context.

The correct answer is 'Unnoticed'.

 Key Points

• The phrase requires an adjective that describes the state or condition of the "deal".
• 'Unnoticed' is the most suitable word here to convey that the superiors did pay attention to or recognize the deal.
• The phrase "has not gone unnoticed" is a double negative which conveys a positive meaning, i.e., the superiors have noticed the deal.
• The use of 'unnoticed' in this sentence implies that the deal has attracted attention or been acknowledged.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 Additional Information

• 'Option 2' (noticed) suggests that the deal has gone noticed, but the phrase "has not gone noticed" generates a confusion with the double negative.
• 'Option 3' (noticing) is incorrect because the progressive form of the verb doesn't fit in this sentence structure.
• 'Option 4' (notice) is incorrect as the verb form 'notice' doesn't fit in this context. We need an adjective (unnoticed) in this case, not a verb.

The correct answer is 'Option 3' i.e. 'QPRS'.

Key Points

• Starting with S1 which is "In Palaeopathology", and then proceeding to Q which is "the fundamental objective", we get the purpose of Palaeopathology.
• Next, P which is "would be to obtain", continues the sentence logically.
• R provides what is it that we want to obtain which is "as much background information".
• S which is "of the skeleton as possible", completes this part of the sentence.
• Finally, S6 which is "to study the ancient disease and injuries in organisms" ends the passage logically.
• Therefore, the correct order is: In Palaeopathology, the fundamental objective would be to obtain as much background information of the skeleton as possible to study the ancient disease and injuries in organisms.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3' i.e. 'QPRS'.

The correct answer is "Presage".

 Key Points

• "Warning" refers to a statement or event that indicates a possible or impending danger, problem, or other unpleasant situation. (चेतावनी, अलर्ट)
• Example- The company issued a warning about potential layoffs.
• "Presage" also means a sign or warning that something, typically something bad, will happen. (पूर्वसूचना, भविष्यवाणी)
• Example- The economic crisis was the first presage of global depression.
• Hence, the option that is similar in meaning to the given word is 'Presage'.

Therefore, the correct answer is ‘Option 2’.

 Additional Information

• Let’s have a look at the meaning of the remaining options:
• "Mitigate" means make something less severe, serious, or painful. It does not have the same connotation as warning. (कम करना, घटाना)
• "Honesty" refers to the quality of being honest. It is a state of truthfulness, straightforwardness, and openness, thus is not related to warning. (ईमानदारी, सत्यनिष्ठा)
• "Pardon" means the action of forgiving or being forgiven for an error or offense. It also doesn't convey the meaning of a warning. (क्षमा, माफ़ी)

The correct answer is "Unethical".

 Key Points

• "Upright" can refer not just to physical posture but also to moral character. In the ethical sense, it refers to someone who is honest and does what is right. (सीधापन, ईमानदारी)
• Example- He is known as an upright and principled businessman.
• "Unethical" refers to behaviour that is not morally correct. It directly opposes the ethical connotations of being upright. (अनैतिक, गैर-नैतिक)
• Example- His unethical practices eventually led to his downfall in business.
• Hence, the option that is opposite in meaning to the given word is 'Unethical'.

Therefore, the correct answer is ‘Option 1’.

 Additional Information

• Let’s have a look at the meaning of the remaining options:
• "Straight" refers to something with no bends or curves, going in one direction only. (सीधा)
• "Rescind" means to revoke, cancel, or repeal (a law, order, or agreement). It doesn't bear a relationship to the meaning of upright. (निरस्त करना, रद्द करना)
• "Solicitous" signifies showing interest or concern. While it may reflect a positive attribute similar to upright, it is not its opposite. (चिंतित, उत्सुक

The correct answer is ‘Corresspond’.

 Key Points

• The incorrectly spelt word is 'Corresspond'. The correct spelling is "Correspond".
• The word 'correspond' needs only one 's' after the 'e'. It refers to having a close similarity; to match or be equivalent to.
• It is also used to communicate by exchanging letters or emails with someone.
• Example: "The two parts correspond to each other in terms of shape and size".
• The remaining words are correctly spelt.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 Additional Information

• Colleague: A person with whom one works, especially in a profession or business.
• Commission: An instruction, command, or duty given to a person or group of people.
• Committee: A group of people appointed for a specific function, typically consisting of members of a larger group.

The correct answer is ‘Possesses’.

 Key Points

• The correctly spelt word is 'possesses'.
• The word 'possesses' has a double 's' both in the middle and at the end. It refers to have as belonging to one; own.
• It is used to describe ownership or control over something.
• Example: "He possesses a unique talent for music."
• The remaining words are incorrectly spelt.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 Additional Information

• Incorrect spelling: Poseses, posesses, posseses - These are incorrect spellings of the word 'possesses'.
• Each of these spellings contains a missing 's' or wrongly placed 's' in it. The correct spelling is 'possesses'.

The correct answer is 'To bear a severe loss'.

Key Points

• The idiom "break the bank" means to lose a large sum of money, especially in gambling or business.
• It is often used to describe a situation where someone has lost so much money that they are financially ruined.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The correct answer is 'To act overly emotional'.

 Key Points

• The idiom "chew the scenery" is used in the realm of acting or theater, referring to an actor who overacts or performs in an exaggerated manner.
• This phrase comes from the idea of an actor being so dramatic and intense that they chew on the props, such as the stage scenery.
• Option 1 precisely captures the essence of this idiom, referring to overly emotional or dramatic behavior.
• It's important to remember that this idiom is typically used in a pejorative sense, alluding to excessively dramatic performances rather than skilled and controlled acting.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 Additional Information

• Option 2: "To mismanage" isn't fitting here. The phrase "chew the scenery" isn't about mismanagement but is more about an actor's overly emphatic performance.
• Option 3: "To beautify" - this option is unrelated to the idiom. The idiom doesn't imply enhancing or improving the appearance of something, rather it's about theatrical excess.
• Option 4: "To understate" - this is the opposite of "chew the scenery". The idiom is about an excessive or exaggerated performance, not attenuated or softened actions.

The correct answer is 'Unanimous'.

 Key Points

• 'Unanimous' is an adjective that means in complete agreement or accord. When a group of individuals, like committee members, are unanimous, they all agree on a decision or opinion.
• The given group of words implies a state of full agreement among all persons involved, which matches the meaning of 'unanimous'.
• The usage of 'unanimous' typically happens in a context where decisions or viewpoints are discussed and a collective agreement or consensus is required.
• Note that 'unanimous' expresses a situation where each individual in the group shares exactly the same opinion.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 Additional Information

• Option 1: 'Ubiquitous' means present, appearing, or found everywhere, which does not align with the meaning the group of words is attempting to capture.
• Option 2: 'Anonymity' refers to the state of being anonymous, and it has nothing to do with agreement or accord.
• Option 4: 'Unison' has a similar connotation, denoting simultaneous action or utterance, but it does not perfectly capture the meaning of complete agreement as 'unanimous' does.

The correct answer is 'NFL Draft'.

Key Points

• Dwayne Douglas Johnson dreamt of having a professional career in football as mentioned in the passage.
• Following this aspiration, he entered the 1995 NFL Draft. This implies that he tried to get into professional American football.
• However, Johnson was undrafted, meaning he wasn't picked by any National Football League (NFL) team during that selection process.
• Thus, after aspiring for a professional football career, Johnson entered the field of the NFL Draft which logically leads to the conclusion that the appropriate answer is 'Option 2: NFL Draft'.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 Additional Information

• Option 1: "WWF Championship" - Johnson did eventually join the professional wrestling world and became an accomplished wrestler, securing a WWF Championship. But this happened after his attempt to have a football career and his entry into the NFL Draft, not immediately after his aspiration for a football career.
• Option 3: "WWE Championship" - Similar to Option 1, Johnson's venture into WWE (formerly known as WWF) and his subsequent Championships happened after his attempt at a professional football career, not directly following his football dreams.
• Option 4: "Attitude Era" - This refers to a period in professional wrestling history during the late 1990s and early 2000s, which Johnson was part of. However, this isn't a correct answer because it's a time period rather than a league or profession Johnson entered after his aspirations for a professional football career.

The correct answer is 'The Scorpion King'.

Key Points

• In the passage, it is clearly stated that Johnson's first leading film role was in 'The Scorpion King' (2002).
• Before this, he had a brief appearance in 'The Mummy Returns' (2001), but 'The Scorpion King' marks his first starring role.
• Additionally, the roles stated in the other options came after his debut as a lead actor in 'The Scorpion King' making those options incorrect.
• Thus, the answer directly corresponds to the information given in the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 Additional Information

• Option 1: "Rampage" - This is one of the films that Johnson starred in, but it was released in 2018, way after his first leading role in 'The Scorpion King' in 2002.
• Option 2: "G.I. Joe: Retaliation" - This film was released in 2013, making it another one of Johnson's later roles, and not his first leading role.
• Option 3: "Moana" - In this 2016 film, Johnson voiced the character of Maui. However, this also takes place after his first leading role was established in 'The Scorpion King'.

The correct answer is 'To pursue his career in the film industry as an actor'.

Key Points

• The passage clearly states that Johnson left the WWE in 2004 to pursue an acting career.
• Other given options don't give the accurate reason for his departure from WWE as per the information provided in the text.
• Transitioning from wrestling to acting is not uncommon, and in Johnson's case, it led to him becoming one of the world's highest-grossing and highest-paid actors.
• The answer contains a direct fact from the text, making the reasoning straightforward.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 Additional Information

• Option 1: "To start a new business" - There is no mention in the passage about Johnson leaving WWE to start a new business.
• Option 3: "To join his father in his traditional business" - There's no information in the passage to suggest that Johnson left WWE to join his father's traditional business.
• Option 4: "Due to his injuries in WWE" - The passage does not cite this as a reason for Johnson's departure from WWE.

The correct answer is 'a trick or device intended to attract attention'.

Key Points

• In the context of the passage, the term 'gimmick' is used to describe the special persona, or character, that Johnson portrayed to gain popularity in his wrestling career.
• in the world of professional wrestling often refers to a wrestler's persona or character that makes them unique and helps attract the audience's attention.
• According to the passage, this gimmick was of a charismatic, boastful, trash-talker which evidently brought Johnson into prominence.
• Thus, the context verifies that  is the most fitting meaning.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 Additional Information

• Option 1: "a false accusation of an offense" - While this could be a definition for a different context, it doesn't fit the usage of 'gimmick' in this passage.
• Option 3: "a disparaging remark" - This meaning does not align with how 'gimmick' is used in the context. A 'gimmick' does not imply making negative comments.
• Option 4: "an indirect way of expressing something" - While not completely off, this meaning does not fully capture the concept of a 'gimmick' in a wrestling context, which is more about a distinctive persona developed to attract attention.

The correct answer is 'After signing with Canadian Football League, Dwayne played his first match in the first session'.

Key Points

• The passage explicitly states, "He signed with the Calgary Stampeders of the Canadian Football League (CFL), but was cut from the team in his first season." It does not specifically mention that he played a match.
• Therefore, claiming that Dwayne played his first match in the first season is not fully supported by the given passage.
• Other options directly reflect the details provided in the text and are therefore not incorrect.
• The answer relies on the phrase not present in the passage, making the reasoning straightforward.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 Additional Information

• Option 1: "Douglas Johnson is both an actor and businessman" - The passage confirms Dwayne Douglas Johnson's roles as an actor, producer, businessman, and professional wrestler.
• Option 2: "Dwayne’s films have grossed over $10.5 billion worldwide" - This is directly taken from the passage, making it correct.
• Option 3: "Douglas Johnson is a retired professional wrestler" - Also a correct statement since the passage highlights Johnson as a retired professional wrestler.

यण संधि का उदाहरण है- पित्राज्ञा

• पित्राज्ञा' शब्द का सही संधि विच्छेद 'पितृ + आज्ञा' है।

Key Points

Important Points

• 'महौदार्य' का संधि विच्छेद 'महा + औदार्य' होता है। इसमें वृद्धि संधि है।
• 'सदैव' शब्द का उचित संधि विच्छेद 'सदा + एव (आ + ए = ऐ)' होगा। यह वृद्धि संधि का उदाहरण है।
• 'सदाचार' का संधि विच्छेद 'सत् +आचार' है। इसमें व्यंजन संधि है।

Additional Information

"सतहत्तर" का सही तत्‍सम शब्‍द होगा- सप्तसप्तति

Key Pointsतत्सम शब्द-

• तत्सम शब्द वे होते हैं जो संस्कृत से हिन्दी में सीधे आये होते हैं और जिनमें कोई परिवर्तन नहीं हुआ होता।
• ये शब्द संस्कृत भाषा से प्रत्यक्ष रूप से ग्रहण किए गए होते हैं और उनमें कोई भाषात्मक परिवर्तन नहीं होता।
• तत्सम शब्दों के कुछ अन्य उदाहरण हैं -
• गुरु, मातर, पितर, भ्रातर, भूमिः, नदी, विद्या, देव, ऋषि आदि।

Important Pointsतद्भव शब्द-

• तद्भव शब्द वे होते हैं जो संस्कृत से हिन्दी में आते समय कुछ बदलाव सहित आये होते हैं।
• जैसे कि चाम (संस्कृत का 'चर्म'), चटिका (संस्कृत का 'चटका') और चितेरा (संस्कृत का 'चित्र')

अन्य पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम का है- वे

Key Points

अन्य पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम:- जो व्यक्ति उपस्थित नही होता है वह वक्ता और श्रोता के लिए अन्य व्यक्ति होता है। जिन शब्दों का प्रयोग अन्य व्यक्तियों के लिए किया जाये वे सभी अन्य पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम होते हैं। अथार्त जिन शब्दों का प्रयोग बोलने वाला , सुनने वाले के अलावा जिसके लिए करता है उसे अन्य पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम कहते हैं।

जैसे :- वह , वे , उसने , यह , ये , इसने , वो , उन्हें,  उसका आदि।

Important Pointsपुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम के भेद :-

सर्वनाम

परिभाषा

उदाहरण

उत्तम पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम

जिन शब्दों का प्रयोग कहने वाला खुद को प्रकट करने के लिए करता है उसे उत्तम पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम कहते हैं अथार्त जिन शब्दों का प्रयोग बोलने वाला खुद के लिए करता है उसे उत्तम पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम कहते हैं।

मैं , हम , हमारा , मुझे , मुझको , हमको , मेरा , हमें आदि।

मध्यम पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम

जिन शब्दों को सुनने वाले के लिए प्रयोग किया जाता है उसे मध्यम पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम कहते हैं अथार्त जिन शब्दों का प्रयोग बोलने वाला यानि वक्ता , सुनने वाले यानि की श्रोता के लिए प्रयोग करता है उसे मध्यम पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम कहते हैं।

आप , तू , तुझे , तुम्हारा ,आपका , आपको

अन्य पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम

जो व्यक्ति उपस्थित नही होता है वह वक्ता और श्रोता के लिए अन्य व्यक्ति होता है। जिन शब्दों का प्रयोग अन्य व्यक्तियों के लिए किया जाये वे सभी अन्य पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम होते हैं। अथार्त जिन शब्दों का प्रयोग बोलने वाला , सुनने वाले के अलावा जिसके लिए करता है उसे अन्य पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम कहते हैं।

वह , वे , उसने , यह , ये , इसने , वो , उसका

महात्मा व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा का उदाहरण है।

Key Pointsअन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण: 

• तेल द्रव्यवाचक संज्ञा का उदाहरण है।
• समूह - समूहवाचक संज्ञा का उदाहरण है।
• निजत्व - भाववाचक संज्ञा का उदाहरण है।

Additional Information

इनमें से सुरपुर का पर्यायवाची सुलोक है। 

Key Points

अन्य विकल्प:-

Additional Information

विशेष:

सही उत्तर है - ‘उलंघन’।

• ‘उल्लंघन शुद्ध वर्तनी वाले शब्द है।

Key Points

• उल्लंघन का अर्थ : लाँघना।

अन्य विकल्प :

• क्षितिज : वह स्थान जहाँ पृथ्वी और आकाश मिलते दिखाई देते हैं।
• राजनीतिक : राजनीति से जुड़ा हुआ।
• उत्‍कर्ष - ऊपर खींचना

Important Points

वर्तनी:-

• ​लिखने की रीति को वर्तनी कहते हैं।
• ‘वर्तनी’ शब्द का अर्थ ‘पीछे चलना’ है। अर्थात उच्चारित होने वाले शब्द के लेखन में प्रयोग होने वाले लिपि चिह्नों के व्यवस्थित रूप को वर्तनी कहा जाता है।

दिए गए विकल्पों में से "ग्रहण" शब्द अर्पण का विलोम शब्द है। 

Key Points

• अर्पण शब्द का अर्थ है - किसी को कुछ देने का भाव।
• ग्रहण शब्द का अर्थ है - किसी से कुछ लेने का भाव।

Additional Information

• जो शब्द किसी दूसरे शब्द का उल्टा अर्थ बताते हैं।
• उन्हें विलोम शब्द या विपरीतार्थक शब्द या विरुद्धार्थी शब्द कहते है।

उदाहरण -