DSSSB PGT (English) Official Paper (Held On: 11 Jul, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

According to the question:

Thus, code for 'for' is either 'jk' or 'kn'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Decoding signs:

Given: 90 G 45 E 15 H 5 F 21 = ?

90 G 45 E 15 H 5 F 21 = ? ⇒ 90 ÷ 45 + 15 × 5 - 21 = ?

⇒ 90 ÷ 45 + 15 × 5 - 21 = ?

⇒ 2 + 15 × 5 - 21 = ?

⇒ 2 + 75 - 21 = ?

⇒ 77 - 21 = ?

⇒ 56 = ?

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

HAVE - EAHV - AVHE

And,

FROG - GRFO - ROFG

Similarly,

SINK - KISN - INSK

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

31 is related to 88

31 × 3 - 5 = 88

93 - 5 = 88 

88 = 88 (LHS = RHS)

And,

20 is related to 55

20 × 3 - 5 = 55

60 - 5 = 55

55 = 55 (LHS = RHS)

Similarly,

48 is related to

48 × 3 - 5 = ?

144 - 5 = ?

139 = ?

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

I. No stove is a spoon → Follow (As all stoves are ovens, all ovens are forks and No fork is a spoon. As whole stoves comes in oven which whole comes in forks which cannot be spoons, therefore it is true.)

II. No oven is a spoon → Follow (As all ovens are forks and No fork is a spoon. As whole oven comes in forks which cannot be spoons, therefore it is true.)

∴ Here, Both conclusions I and II follow.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) IOJ

Option 2) KQL

Option 3) PVR

​Option 4) MSN

Thus, out of all 'PVR' is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given Cause: Over the past decade, the frequency and intensity of storms in Ocean Region X have increased significantly.

Given Effects:

I. Shipping companies have rerouted their vessels to avoid Ocean Region X during stormy seasons. → Possible Effect

More frequent and strong storms makes the route unsafe, so shipping companies avoid the region to reduce risks.

II. Local authorities have allocated additional funds for disaster preparedness and response in Ocean Region X. → Possible Effect

Higher storm risk means more emergency needs, so authorities increase disaster funding.

III. Coastal communities in Ocean Region X have experienced a rise in property damage and infrastructure loss. → Possible Effect

Stronger storms cause more physical damage to coastal property and infrastructure.

Thus, All I, II and III are possible effects.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given: E, F, M, N, X and Y live on six different floors of the same building. The lowermost floor in the building is numbered 1, the floor above it is numbered 2 and so on, till the topmost floor, which is numbered 6.

1. M lives on floor number 1. 

2. Only one person lives between M and F.

3) Only two people live between N and F.

4) E lives above F. 

5. Only two people live between E and Y.

After positioning all, the left position will be occupied by the only person left i.e. X.

Thus, two people live above X.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

21 – 23 – 19 – 25

21 + 23 = 19 + 25

44 = 44 (LHS = RHS)

And,

26 – 28 – 24 – 30

26 + 28 = 24 + 30

54 = 54 (LHS = RHS)

Similarly,

33 – 35 – 31 – 37

33 + 35 = 31 + 37

68 = 68 (LHS = RHS)

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Decoding symbols:

So, checking each option one by one:

Option 1) F x K : O % R ? X → F is the wife of K who is the mother of O who is the father of R who is the son of X.

Here F is the wife of K, therefore K is the male member, but K is the mother of O. Thus the statement is incorrect i.e. contradictory.

Option 2) F : K ? O % R x X → F is the mother of K who is the son of O who is the father of R who is the wife of X.

Here, F is X's wife's mother.

Option 3) F x K % O ? R : X → F is the wife of K who is the father of O who is the son of R who is the mother of X.

Here F is the wife of K who is the father of O, therefore F and K are parents of O, but O is the son of R. Thus the statement is incorrect i.e. contradictory.

Option 4) F x K ? O % R : X → F is the wife of K who is the son of O who is the father of R who is the mother of X.

Here, F is X's aunt or mother's brother's wife.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given: 6 ÷ 4 + 10 × 5 − 5 = ? + 15

According to the question, after ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged:

6 ÷ 4 + 10 × 5 − 5 = ? + 15 ⇒ 6 × 4 - 10 ÷ 5 + 5 = ? - 15

⇒ 6 × 4 - 10 ÷ 5 + 5 = ? - 15

⇒ 6 × 4 - 2 + 5 = ? - 15

⇒ 24 + 5 - 2 = ? - 15

⇒ 29 - 2 = ? - 15

⇒ 27 + 15 = ?

⇒ 42 = ?

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Given series: (Left) 678 485 217 153 572 (Right)

According to the question.

So,

Second digit of the highest number → 678 → 7

Third digit of the lowest number → 153 → 3

So, the second digit of the highest number is added to the third digit of the lowest number → 7 + 3 = 10

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Given: EAR COP ICH GEL

According to the question:

Thus, according to the final arrangement, in only three words thus formed will have no vowel.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Thus, it should be MPJ instead of MPI.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Thus, it should be UWY instead of UVW.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Given: Eight people are sitting in two parallel rows containing 4 people each in such a way that there is equal distance between adjacent persons. In row 1, A, B, C and D are seated and all of them are facing south. In row 2, P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are facing north. Thus each person faces another person from the other row.

1. The one opposite R is sitting between C and B.

2. S sits second to the right of R. 

3) R sits to the immediate left of P.

4. B sits to the immediate right of D.

5. P sits opposite B.

After positioning all, the left positions will be occupied by the people left i.e. A and Q.

Thus, D faces S.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) UIW

Option 2) YMA

Option 3) FTH

​Option 4) DRE

Thus, out of all 'DRE' is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given:

Rohit starts from Point A and walks 20 m towards the north.

He takes a left turn, walks 35 m and then takes a left turn, walks 10 m, then takes a left turn, walks 40 m, reaches Point B and stops.

Mohan starts from Point Z which is 40 m towards the north of Point A.

He walks 30 m towards the east, takes a right turn, walks 40 m, and stops at Point X.

Thus, the shortest distance between Point X and Point A is 30 m.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Given: A certain number of people are sitting in a row, facing north.

1) No one is sitting to the left of A.

2. A is sitting to the immediate left of B.

3) Only 6 people are sitting between B and J.

4. M is sitting third to the right of J.

5. K is sitting to the immediate right of M. 

6) Only 6 people are sitting between K and T

7) T is sitting third from the right end.

Thus, 22 people are seating in the row.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The correct answer is Kannada.

Key Points

• The Sandalwood film industry is the colloquial name for the Kannada-language film industry, based in Karnataka, India.
• This industry derives its name from Karnataka's abundance of sandalwood trees and the cultural significance of sandalwood in the region.
• Some of the most prominent Kannada actors like Dr. Rajkumar, Vishnuvardhan, and Puneeth Rajkumar contributed significantly to the popularity of Sandalwood.
• Kannada cinema has produced critically acclaimed films like "Gandhada Gudi," "Kantara," and "KGF," which have earned national and international recognition.
• The Karnataka State Film Awards and Filmfare Awards South are major platforms that honor excellence in Kannada cinema.

Additional Information

• Tamil (Kollywood):
• The Tamil film industry, also known as Kollywood, is based in Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
• It is one of the largest film industries in India and has produced legendary actors like Rajinikanth and Kamal Haasan.
• Prominent Tamil films include "Baasha," "Enthiran," and "Ponniyin Selvan."
• Kollywood is known for its pioneering use of technology and innovative storytelling.
• Malayalam (Mollywood):
• The Malayalam film industry, also called Mollywood, is based in Kerala.
• It is celebrated for its realistic storytelling, strong narratives, and artistic excellence.
• Famous movies from Mollywood include "Drishyam," "Bangalore Days," and "Premam."
• Renowned actors like Mohanlal and Mammootty are icons of this industry.
• Telugu (Tollywood):
• The Telugu film industry, popularly known as Tollywood, is based in Hyderabad, Telangana.
• It is one of the largest producers of films in India and has a global fanbase.
• Blockbuster films like "Baahubali," "RRR," and "Pushpa" have brought international acclaim to Tollywood.
• Actors like N.T. Rama Rao Jr., Allu Arjun, and Mahesh Babu are major stars in this industry.

The correct answer is Department of Science and Technology.

Key Points

• The National Initiative for Developing and Harnessing Innovations (NIDHI) is a flagship program launched by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) under the Ministry of Science and Technology.
• Its aim is to nurture ideas and innovations (knowledge-based and technology-driven) into successful start-ups and enterprises.
• The NIDHI program supports entrepreneurship through mechanisms such as seed funding, mentoring, incubation, and grants to start-ups and innovators.
• This initiative works closely with Technology Business Incubators (TBIs), which are crucial in providing infrastructural and networking support to innovators.
• It emphasizes fostering a vibrant start-up ecosystem in India and contributes to promoting Make in India and Startup India missions.

Additional Information

• Ministry of Earth Sciences
• The Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) is responsible for providing services related to weather, climate, ocean, and earthquakes.
• It manages key programs like Monsoon Mission, Polar Science and Cryosphere, and Ocean Observations.
• However, this ministry is not involved in nurturing innovations or start-ups.
• NITI Aayog
• NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) is the policy think tank of the Government of India.
• It plays a key role in fostering innovation through initiatives like the Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), which promotes a culture of innovation and entrepreneurship.
• While NITI Aayog contributes to innovation, the NIDHI program is specifically implemented by the Department of Science and Technology.
• Defence Research and Development Organization (DRDO)
• DRDO works under the Ministry of Defence and is dedicated to the research and development of military technologies and systems.
• It focuses on defense-related innovations, not start-ups or individual innovators in the general ecosystem.

The correct answer is Reservation of at least one-third (33%) of seats for women.

Key Points

• Article 243D of the Indian Constitution mandates reservation of at least one-third (33%) of the total number of seats in every Panchayat for women.
• This reservation includes the seats reserved for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) as well.
• The reserved seats are allocated through rotation among different constituencies in the Panchayat, as determined by the state government.
• The reservation also extends to the office of Chairpersons in Panchayats at the village, intermediate, and district levels, ensuring women’s representation in leadership roles.
• This provision was introduced through the 73^rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, which aimed at empowering women and ensuring their participation in grassroots governance.

Additional Information

• Option Provisions for Women's Reservation:
• Local Governance (Panchayats & Municipalities):
• Articles 243D and 243T mandate at least 33% reservation for women in seats and chairperson posts, with rotations possible.
• Parliament & State Assemblies (Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam):
• The 106^th Amendment Act provides for 33% reservation in Lok Sabha, State Assemblies, and Delhi Assembly, a significant step for higher political representation.
• Implementation Delay:
• The 106^th Amendment's reservation for Parliament and Assemblies is contingent on a census and subsequent delimitation (redrawing constituency boundaries).

The correct answer is Ganga – Gangotri Glacier.

Key Points

• The Ganga River originates from the Gangotri Glacier, located in the Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand, India.
• The main source of the river is the Bhagirathi River, which emerges from the Gangotri Glacier at Gaumukh at an altitude of 3,892 meters.
• The Alaknanda River, which originates from the Satopanth Glacier, later merges with the Bhagirathi at Devprayag, forming the Ganga.
• The Ganga is one of the most important rivers in India, serving as a lifeline for millions and holding immense religious significance in Hinduism.
• The river flows through several states, including Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, and West Bengal, before emptying into the Bay of Bengal.

Additional Information

• Indus – Nasik:
• This pairing is incorrect. The Indus River originates from the Sinai-Kabab Glacier in Tibet, near Lake Mansarovar.
• It enters India in the Ladakh region of Jammu and Kashmir and then flows into Pakistan, where it forms a major river system.
• Nashik, in Maharashtra, is associated with the Godavari River, not the Indus.
• Godavari – Siachen Glacier:
• This pairing is also incorrect. The Godavari River, often called the "Dakshin Ganga" or the "Ganga of the South," originates from Trimbakeshwar in Nashik, Maharashtra.
• Siachen Glacier, located in the Karakoram Range, is the source of the Nubra River, a tributary of the Shyok River, which ultimately flows into the Indus River system.
• Brahmaputra – Amarkantak Plateau:
• This pairing is also incorrect. The Brahmaputra River originates from the Angsi Glacier near Mount Kailash in Tibet.
• It flows through Tibet (where it is called the Tsangpo), enters India through Arunachal Pradesh, and flows through Assam before reaching Bangladesh.
• The Amarkantak Plateau, located in Madhya Pradesh, is the origin of the Narmada River and the Son River, not the Brahmaputra.

The correct answer is Junapani.

Key Points

• Junapani, located near Nagpur in Maharashtra, is an important archaeological site associated with the Iron Age.
• Horse burials, which are significant in understanding the cultural practices of the time, have been reported from Junapani.
• The site contains megalithic burials, which include stone circles, cairns, and other burial structures common in the Deccan region during the Iron Age.
• These findings suggest that horses played a significant role in the socio-cultural and possibly economic life of the people during the Iron Age in this region.
• The Junapani site has contributed to the study of early human settlements, burial practices, and the use of animals in the Iron Age.

Additional Information

• Suakhedi
• Suakhedi is an archaeological site in Madhya Pradesh, but it is not known for Iron Age horse burials.
• It is primarily associated with Chalcolithic cultures and provides evidence of early agricultural practices and settlements.
• Rondia
• Rondia is a lesser-known archaeological site and does not feature prominently in the context of Iron Age burials or horse-related findings.
• Padaliya
• Padaliya is an ancient site located in Madhya Pradesh but is not associated with Iron Age horse burials.
• It is primarily known for its connections to early human settlements and cultural developments.
• Iron Age in India
• The Iron Age in India began around 1200 BCE and is marked by the widespread use of iron tools and weapons.
• It saw the rise of megalithic cultures, particularly in the Deccan and South India, characterized by stone burials and monuments.
• The use of iron revolutionized agriculture, warfare, and daily life, leading to significant socio-economic changes.
• Important Iron Age sites in India include Junapani, Brahmagiri, Adichanallur, and Maski.

The correct answer is Hemachandra.

Key Points

• Parishishtaparvan, also known as the "Sthaviravali Charita," was written by Acharya Hemachandra, a renowned Jain scholar, poet, and polymath.
• It is a Jain historical text that provides a detailed narrative of the lives of Jain monks and their contributions to the Jain tradition.
• Hemachandra composed the Parishishtaparvan in Sanskrit, and it is considered a significant work in Jain literature.
• The text consists of 12 parvans (chapters), chronicling Jain history and traditions, including the lives of Jain Tirthankaras and other prominent figures.
• Hemachandra was a key figure during the reign of King Kumarapala of Gujarat and played a significant role in promoting Jainism during that period.

Additional Information

• Vishakhadatta
• Vishakhadatta was a Sanskrit playwright best known for his political drama Mudrarakshasa.
• The play revolves around the cunning diplomacy of Chanakya (Kautilya) and Chandragupta Maurya's rise to power.
• His works are significant for their depiction of statecraft and political intrigues in ancient India.
• Harisena
• Harisena was a 4^th-century CE poet and courtier of Emperor Samudragupta of the Gupta Empire.
• He is known for composing the Allahabad Pillar Inscription, which eulogizes Samudragupta's military conquests and achievements.
• The inscription is a vital historical source for studying the political and cultural history of the Gupta period.
• Kalhana
• Kalhana was a 12^th-century Kashmiri historian and poet best known for his work Rajatarangini ("The River of Kings").
• Rajatarangini is a historical chronicle of the kings of Kashmir, written in Sanskrit verse.
• It is considered one of the earliest and most comprehensive histories written in India.

The correct answer is 1961.

Key Points

• The Dowry Prohibition Act was enacted by the Parliament of India in the year 1961 to combat the social evil of dowry.
• The Act applies to the whole of India except the state of Jammu and Kashmir at the time of its enactment.
• Under the Act, the giving or taking of dowry or demanding dowry is a punishable offense, with penalties including imprisonment and fines.
• Dowry is defined as any property or valuable security given or agreed to be given directly or indirectly in connection with a marriage.
• Amendments to the Act were made in subsequent years (notably in 1984 and 1986) to strengthen its provisions and ensure stricter punishments for violations.

Additional Information

• 2013
• The year 2013 is particularly notable for the enactment of the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, which introduced stricter laws for crimes against women, including harassment and assault.
• It is not related to the Dowry Prohibition Act but emphasizes the government’s focus on women's safety and rights.
• 2005
• The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 came into force in this year.
• This Act provides protection to women from domestic violence, which includes physical, emotional, sexual, and economic abuse.
• While domestic violence can sometimes involve dowry-related harassment, this legislation is separate from the Dowry Prohibition Act.
• 1986
• The Dowry Prohibition Act was amended in 1986 to make its provisions more effective.
• This amendment introduced new provisions, such as Section 304B of the Indian Penal Code, which defines the offense of dowry death.
• The amendment also strengthened the punishment for dowry-related offenses and provided better safeguards for women.

The correct answer is Head of the State is the President.

Key Points

• The term "republic" in the Indian Preamble signifies that the Head of the State is an elected individual, and not a hereditary monarch.
• The President of India is the Head of the State, as per Article 52 of the Indian Constitution, and is elected through an electoral college.
• India adopted the republican form of government on 26^th January 1950, ensuring that the President is elected for a fixed tenure of five years by the people’s representatives.
• The President represents the sovereignty and unity of the country and functions as the constitutional head, operating within the framework of parliamentary democracy.
• This distinction ensures that the ultimate power lies in the hands of the people and their representatives, maintaining the democratic principles of the nation.

Additional Information

• Key Components & Significance of Preamble:
• Source of Authority: The opening words "We, the People of India" signify that the Constitution derives its authority directly from the citizens.
• Nature of the Indian State: It defines the nation as Sovereign (independent), Socialist (social/economic equality), Secular (equal respect for all religions), Democratic (government by the people), and a Republic (elected head of state).
• Objectives: It aims to secure Justice (social, economic, political), Liberty (thought, expression, belief, faith, worship), Equality (status and opportunity), and promote Fraternity (dignity of the individual and unity/integrity of the nation).
• Date of Adoption: November 26, 1949.
• Amendability: The Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution and can be amended under Article 368. It has been amended only once by the 42^nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976, which added the words "Socialist," "Secular," and "Integrity".

The correct answer is Highest runs in a T20 match.

Key Points

• Sachin Tendulkar has never scored the highest runs in a T20 match. His focus was primarily on Test and One-Day International (ODI) cricket, where he excelled and set multiple records.
• The record for the highest runs in a T20 match belongs to Chris Gayle, who scored 175 runs off 66 balls for Royal Challengers Bangalore in the IPL 2013.
• Sachin Tendulkar played limited T20 matches during his career, participating in the IPL and a few domestic tournaments, but his T20 impact is not as prominent as in Tests or ODIs.
• His contribution to cricket remains unmatched in terms of achievements in other formats, but T20 cricket wasn’t a major part of his career during its rise in the 2000s.

Additional Information

• Most 100s in one-day international cricket:
• Sachin Tendulkar holds the record for the most centuries in ODIs, with 49 centuries in his career.
• This record is a testament to his consistency and dominance in the format, making him one of the greatest ODI players of all time.
• Most runs in one-day international cricket:
• Tendulkar holds the record for the most runs in ODIs, scoring a staggering 18,426 runs in 463 matches.
• He was the first cricketer to score a double century in an ODI, achieving this milestone in 2010 against South Africa.
• Most 100s in Test matches:
• Sachin also holds the record for the most centuries in Test cricket, with 51 centuries.
• His Test career spanned over two decades, during which he scored a total of 15,921 runs, the highest in the format.

The correct answer is 1688.

Key Points

• The first municipal corporation in India was established in Madras (now Chennai) in the year 1688.
• It was set up by the British East India Company under the leadership of Governor Streynsham Master to manage civic administration and maintain law and order in the city.
• The Madras Municipal Corporation was modeled after the system of governance prevalent in London during that time.
• Initially, the corporation comprised a mayor, aldermen, and burgesses. The mayor was the head of the corporation, and the aldermen acted as advisors.
• Following its establishment, municipal corporations were later set up in Bombay in 1726 and Calcutta in 1727, further institutionalizing urban governance in India during the colonial period.

Additional Information

• Key aspects of municipal corporations under British rule included:
• Establishment & Growth: The first municipal body was formed in Madras (1688), followed by Bombay and Calcutta (1726) to manage urban infrastructure and taxation.
• Lord Ripon’s Reforms (1882): Often dubbed the "Father of Local Self-Government in India," Ripon’s resolution introduced elected representatives and reduced official control, aiming to train Indians in administrative responsibility.
• Legislative Evolution: The Government of India Act 1919 transferred local self-government to provincial ministers. Later, the Act of 1925 made municipal governments with populations over one lakh largely elective.
• Functions: Initially focused on sanitation and public works, they expanded to cover, in some capacity, town planning, education, and taxation.

The correct answer is Option 2: A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I.

Key Points

• Eighth Finance Commission (A-IV): It was chaired by Y.B. Chavan, who was the chairman during its tenure from 1984 to 1989. The commission focused on financial relations between the Union and the states.
• Sixth Finance Commission (B-II): K. Brahmananda Reddy was the chairman of the Sixth Finance Commission, which operated from 1972 to 1977.
• Eleventh Finance Commission (C-III): A.M. Khusro chaired the Eleventh Finance Commission, which was constituted in 1998 and made recommendations for the period 2000-2005.
• Third Finance Commission (D-I): A.K. Chanda was the chairman of the Third Finance Commission (1960-1965). It focused on streamlining the financial distribution between the Union and the states.

Additional Information

• Finance Commissions in India:
• The Finance Commission is a constitutional body set up under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution to define the financial relations between the Union and the states.
• It is constituted every five years or earlier as deemed necessary by the President of India.
• The primary role of the Finance Commission is to recommend the distribution of tax revenues between the Centre and the states and among the states themselves.
• Key Functions of Finance Commissions:
• Distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Centre and the states.
• Determination of grants-in-aid to the states by the Union government.
• Addressing financial imbalances between the Centre and the states.
• Any other matter referred to the commission by the President in the interest of sound finance.
• Chairpersons of Other Notable Finance Commissions:
• First Finance Commission: K.C. Neogy (1951-1956).
• Fifteenth Finance Commission: N.K. Singh (2017–2021), focusing on challenges like GST implementation and pandemic-related fiscal issues.

The correct answer is Viswanathan Anand.

Key Points

• Indian chess Grandmaster Viswanathan Anand was elected as the Deputy President of the International Chess Federation (FIDE) in August 2022.
• He was part of the team led by Arkady Dvorkovich, who was re-elected as the President of FIDE during the elections held at the 44^th Chess Olympiad in Chennai, India.
• Viswanathan Anand, a five-time World Chess Champion, is widely regarded as one of the greatest chess players in history.
• His appointment as Deputy President reflects his significant contributions to the game and his efforts to promote chess globally.
• Anand has also been actively involved in mentoring young Indian chess players and promoting the game at grassroots levels.

Additional Information

• Koneru Humpy
• Koneru Humpy is an Indian chess Grandmaster and a former Women’s World Rapid Chess Champion.
• She became the youngest woman to achieve the title of Grandmaster in 2002 at the age of 15 years, breaking Judit Polgar's record.
• She won the Women’s World Rapid Chess Championship in 2019 and is among the top women chess players globally.
• Vidit Gujrathi
• Vidit Gujrathi is an Indian chess Grandmaster and one of the top-ranked Indian chess players.
• He was part of the Indian team that won the gold medal in the FIDE Online Chess Olympiad in 2020.
• Vidit has been a consistent performer in international chess tournaments and is considered one of the rising stars in Indian chess.
• Parimarjan Negi
• Parimarjan Negi is a former Indian chess Grandmaster who became the second-youngest Grandmaster in the world in 2006 at the age of 13 years and 142 days.
• He has represented India in several international chess competitions but later shifted his focus to academics.
• Negi is currently pursuing a career outside of professional chess.

Important Points

• FIDE (International Chess Federation)
• The International Chess Federation (FIDE) is the governing body of international chess competitions.
• It was established in Paris, France, on July 20, 1924.
• FIDE organizes major international chess tournaments, including the Chess Olympiad and the World Chess Championship.
• Its headquarters are located in Lausanne, Switzerland.

The correct answer is Ministry of Science and Technology (MoST).

Key Points

• Operation Dronagiri was launched by the Ministry of Science and Technology (MoST) to promote the use of geospatial technologies in improving citizens' quality of life and ease of doing business.
• It focuses on leveraging geospatial data, satellite imaging, Geographic Information Systems (GIS), and other advanced technologies for urban planning, disaster management, and infrastructure development.
• The project aims to enhance decision-making processes in critical areas like transportation, healthcare, and natural resource management.
• It is aligned with the government’s emphasis on digital transformation and the development of a robust technology-driven ecosystem in India.
• The initiative also supports the National Geospatial Policy, which provides a framework for geospatial data generation, management, and dissemination to benefit various stakeholders.

Additional Information

• Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC)
• This ministry is primarily responsible for implementing policies and programs related to the conservation of the environment, forests, and biodiversity.
• It also oversees actions to combat climate change under international agreements such as the Paris Accord.
• Prominent initiatives include the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) and afforestation programs.
• Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA)
• MoHUA is responsible for formulating policies and programs related to urban development, housing, and sanitation in India.
• Key schemes under this ministry include the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY), Smart Cities Mission, and Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban).
• It aims to improve urban infrastructure and promote sustainable urbanization.
• Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
• This ministry oversees the development and deployment of information technology and electronics in India.
• It plays a pivotal role in implementing flagship programs like Digital India, which focuses on transforming India into a digitally empowered society.
• The ministry also regulates data privacy and cybersecurity through initiatives such as the Personal Data Protection Bill.

The correct answer is Mangrove.

Key Points

• According to the Forest Survey Report (FSR) 2021, mangrove cover in India has increased by 17 square kilometres compared to the previous assessment.
• Mangroves are salt-tolerant trees and shrubs found in coastal intertidal zones, crucial for protecting coastlines and supporting biodiversity.
• India has approximately 4,992 square kilometres of mangrove cover, constituting about 0.15% of the total geographical area of the country.
• The Sundarbans in West Bengal host the largest mangrove forests in India and are home to unique flora and fauna, including the Royal Bengal Tiger.
• Mangrove ecosystems are vital for carbon sequestration, acting as significant carbon sinks, and play a key role in mitigating climate change.

Additional Information

• Tropical Deciduous Forests
• These forests are also known as monsoon forests and are characterized by trees that shed their leaves during the dry season to conserve water.
• They are found in regions with moderate rainfall (approximately 100–200 cm annually).
• Examples include teak, sal, and sandalwood trees, which are economically significant.
• Such forests are primarily located in the Indian states of Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Odisha, and Chhattisgarh.
• Montane Forests
• Montane forests are found in mountainous regions and are classified based on altitude into tropical, temperate, and alpine types.
• These forests host unique biodiversity due to variations in temperature, rainfall, and altitude.
• Examples include pine, fir, and deodar trees, which are common in the Himalayan region.
• Montane forests play an essential role in regulating water cycles and preventing soil erosion in hilly areas.
• Thorn Forests
• Thorn forests are found in arid and semi-arid regions with annual rainfall less than 50 cm.
• They are characterized by scattered trees and shrubs with thorny adaptations to conserve moisture.
• Common species include acacia, cactus, and date palms.
• Such forests are predominantly found in Rajasthan, Gujarat, and parts of Punjab and Haryana.

The correct answer is 1948.

Key Points

• The Census Act, 1948, was enacted by the Government of India to provide a legal framework for conducting the Census in the country.
• Under this act, the Census Commissioner of India is designated as the statutory authority responsible for supervising and conducting the Census operations in India.
• The Act empowers the government to collect demographic, socio-economic, and other relevant data at regular intervals for planning and policy-making purposes.
• The data collected under the Census Act, 1948, is treated as confidential and is protected by law to ensure privacy and prevent misuse.
• The Census in India is conducted every 10 years, and the first Census under this act was conducted in 1951.

Additional Information

• History: First synchronous census held in 1881, though enumeration began in 1872.
• Methodology: De facto method is used for counting.
• Legal Basis: Conducted under the Census Act, 1948.
• 2021 Census: Postponed due to the COVID-19 pandemic.
• Significance: Data is crucial for policy formulation, delimitation of constituencies, and allocation of government resources

The correct answer is NABARD and German Society for International Cooperation.

Key Points

• The Rural Financial Institutions Programme (RFIP) is a bilateral cooperation programme between NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development) and the German Society for International Cooperation (GIZ).
• RFIP aims to strengthen rural financial institutions in India to enhance their capacity and outreach to the low-income households for effective financial inclusion.
• The programme supports the development of innovative financial products and sustainable business models for rural financial institutions.
• It also focuses on institutional development, capacity building, and policy measures to promote financial inclusion in rural areas.
• Under RFIP, initiatives are undertaken to improve access to credit, savings, and insurance services for underprivileged communities, enabling them to achieve financial stability and growth.

Additional Information

• SIDBI and World Bank
• SIDBI (Small Industries Development Bank of India) works closely with the World Bank on various projects to support MSMEs (Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises) in India.
• These collaborations focus on providing financial assistance, building capacities, and fostering entrepreneurship among small businesses.
• However, the World Bank and SIDBI are not involved in the Rural Financial Institutions Programme (RFIP).
• RBI and United Nations Development Programme
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) collaborates with the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) for initiatives aimed at sustainable development and financial inclusion.
• The UNDP focuses on poverty alleviation, sustainable development goals (SDGs), and economic empowerment globally.
• This partnership does not pertain to the RFIP programme.
• NABARD and Cooperative for Assistance and Relief Everywhere
• CARE (Cooperative for Assistance and Relief Everywhere) is a global humanitarian organization working on issues like poverty, hunger, and emergency relief.
• While NABARD collaborates with various organizations for rural development, CARE is not involved in the RFIP programme.

The correct answer is 1919.

Key Points

• The Rowlatt Act, officially known as the Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act of 1919, was passed by the British colonial government in March 1919.
• It authorized the government to detain individuals without trial, suppress political activities, and imprison suspects indefinitely without any legal recourse.
• The act was primarily aimed at curbing the rising nationalist movements and revolutionary activities against British rule in India.
• The act led to widespread protests across India, including the infamous Jallianwala Bagh massacre on April 13, 1919, when British troops opened fire on unarmed protesters in Amritsar.
• Indian leaders, including Mahatma Gandhi, strongly opposed the act, and the protests against it marked a significant turning point in India's struggle for independence.

Additional Information

• Key Impacts of the Rowlatt Act:
• Erosion of Civil Liberties: The Act allowed imprisonment without trial for suspected political dissenters, suspended habeas corpus, and imposed strict censorship, effectively removing basic rights.
• Widespread Protests: It triggered a strong backlash, with Mahatma Gandhi calling for nationwide hartals (strikes) and demonstrations in cities like Delhi, Lahore, and Bombay.
• Catalyst for Mass Movements: The Act united various groups against British rule, becoming a crucial moment that led to Gandhi's Non-Cooperation Movement and transformed Indian nationalism into a mass movement.
• Increased Resentment: It exposed the hollowness of British promises of democracy, fueling anger and demonstrating the repressive nature of colonial rule.
• Repression & Violence: British authorities responded with force, culminating in the tragic Jallianwala Bagh Massacre in Amritsar, further intensifying anti-colonial sentiment.

The correct answer is 9.

Key Points

• In the year 2023, 9 books of poetry received the prestigious Sahitya Akademi Award.
• The Sahitya Akademi Award is an annual literary honor presented by the Sahitya Akademi, India's National Academy of Letters.
• These awards recognize works of exceptional literary merit in various Indian languages, including poetry, fiction, drama, essays, and more.
• Poetry has consistently been one of the most celebrated forms in Indian literature, and the selection process involves rigorous evaluation by literary experts.
• The awards aim to promote and preserve India's rich linguistic and cultural diversity through recognition of literary excellence.

Additional Information

• Sahitya Akademi Award :
• Established in 1954, the Sahitya Akademi Award honors writers for their outstanding contributions to Indian literature.
• Award categories include poetry, novels, short stories, plays, essays, and translations, among others.
• The selection process involves nominations, scrutiny by literary panels, and final approval by the Sahitya Akademi Executive Board.
• Recipients receive a cash prize, a citation, and a plaque.
• The awards promote cultural and linguistic diversity by recognizing works in 24 Indian languages.

The correct answer is average propensity to consume (APC).

Key Points

• Average Propensity to Consume (APC) refers to the ratio of total consumption (C) to total income (Y), expressed as APC = C/Y.
• It indicates the proportion of income that is spent on consumption rather than saved.
• APC is a key concept in Keynesian economics and is used to analyze consumer behavior and economic trends.
• As income rises, APC tends to decrease because higher-income households generally save a larger portion of their income.
• The APC is distinct from the marginal propensity to consume (MPC), which measures the change in consumption resulting from a change in income.

Additional Information

• Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS):
• MPS measures the proportion of an additional unit of income that is saved, expressed as MPS = ΔS/ΔY.
• It is the complement of MPC (Marginal Propensity to Consume), with MPS + MPC = 1.
• Higher MPS indicates a tendency to save more as income increases, which can affect aggregate demand in an economy.
• Average Propensity to Save (APS):
• APS refers to the ratio of total savings (S) to total income (Y), expressed as APS = S/Y.
• It represents the proportion of income that is saved rather than consumed.
• Like APC, APS also tends to change with variations in income levels.
• Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC):
• MPC measures the proportion of an additional unit of income that is spent on consumption, expressed as MPC = ΔC/ΔY.
• It plays a crucial role in determining the multiplier effect in an economy, where higher MPC leads to greater economic growth.
• MPC is generally higher for low-income groups since they tend to spend a larger portion of any additional income.

The correct answer is Karnataka.

Key Points

• Ugadi is a major festival celebrated predominantly in the state of Karnataka, along with Andhra Pradesh and Telangana, marking the start of the Hindu New Year.
• The festival falls on the first day of Chaitra month in the Hindu lunar calendar, which usually occurs in March or April.
• Ugadi symbolizes the beginning of a new era and is associated with the pratipada (first day) of the bright fortnight (Shukla Paksha).
• In Karnataka, people prepare a special dish called "Bevu-Bella," which is a mixture of neem leaves and jaggery, symbolizing the bittersweet experiences of life.
• Traditional customs include cleaning homes, decorating with mango leaves, wearing new clothes, and visiting temples to seek blessings for a prosperous year ahead.

Additional Information

• Odisha:
• Odisha celebrates its own set of festivals, with Raja Parba being a prominent one, which marks womanhood and the fertility of the earth.
• Another significant festival is Durga Puja, widely celebrated with grand decorations and cultural events.
• Madhya Pradesh:
• The state is known for festivals like Lokrang Festival, showcasing tribal culture, and Tansen Music Festival, dedicated to classical Indian music.
• Holi and Diwali are also celebrated with great enthusiasm in Madhya Pradesh.
• Assam:
• Assam celebrates Bihu, a set of three festivals marking different agricultural phases—Rongali Bihu (spring), Bhogali Bihu (harvest), and Kongali Bihu (sowing).
• The state is also known for the colorful Ambubachi Mela, associated with the Kamakhya temple in Guwahati.

Given:

Tap 1 fills cistern in = 18 hours

Tap 2 fills cistern in = 8 hours

Tap 3 empties cistern in = 13 hours

Formula used:

Net work per hour = (Filling work − Emptying work)

Calculations:

Let total work = LCM of 18, 8, 13 = 936

Work done by Tap 1 in 1 hour = 936 / 18 = 52

Work done by Tap 2 in 1 hour = 936 / 8 = 117

Work done by Tap 3 in 1 hour = − (936 / 13) = −72

⇒ Net work in 1 hour = 52 + 117 − 72 = 97

Total time taken by all three pipes = 936 / 97 hours

⇒ Total time = $9\frac{63}{97}$ hours

∴ The cistern will be filled in $9\frac{63}{97}$ hours.

Given:

Total amount = ₹231

Ratio of shares = 10 : 14 : 9

Formula used:

The individual share = $\dfrac{\text{ratio of individual}}{\text{sum of ratios}} \times \text{total amount}$

Difference between the largest and smallest shares = Largest share - Smallest share

Calculations:

Sum of ratios = 10 + 14 + 9 = 33

Largest share (14 parts) = $\dfrac{14}{33} \times 231$ = ₹98

Smallest share (9 parts) = $\dfrac{9}{33} \times 231$ = ₹63

Difference = Largest share - Smallest share

⇒ Difference = ₹98 - ₹63

⇒ Difference = ₹35

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Given:

Internal length (l) = 27 m

Internal breadth (b) = 21 m

Internal height (h) = 48 m

Tank is open ⇒ no top

Formula used:

Internal surface area of open cuboid = lb + 2lh + 2bh

Calculations:

Base area = l × b = 27 × 21 = 567

Four walls area = 2(l × h) + 2(b × h)

⇒ 2(27 × 48) + 2(21 × 48)

⇒ 2(1296) + 2(1008)

⇒ 2592 + 2016 = 4608

⇒ Total internal surface area = 567 + 4608

⇒ Total internal surface area = 5175 m²

∴ The internal surface area of the tank is 5175 m².

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹66,700

Rate (r) = 10% p.a.

Compound interest = Annually

Annual payment = ₹1,100

Number of years = 2

Formula used:

Amount after 1 year = P × (1 + r/100)

Outstanding amount = Amount − Payment

Calculations:

After 1^st year:

⇒ Amount = 66,700 × (1 + 10/100)

⇒ Amount = 66,700 × 1.10

⇒ Amount = 73,370

⇒ Outstanding = 73,370 − 1,100 = 72,270

After 2^nd year:

⇒ Amount = 72,270 × 1.10

⇒ Amount = 79,497

⇒ Outstanding = 79,497 − 1,100

⇒ Outstanding = 78,397

∴ Amount still owed after two instalments = ₹78,397.

Given:

The average of the first 98 whole numbers is to be calculated.

Formula used:

Average = $\dfrac{\text{Sum of numbers}}{\text{Total numbers}}$

Sum of first n whole numbers = $\dfrac{n(n-1)}{2}$

Calculation:

n = 98

Sum of the first 98 whole numbers = $\dfrac{98 \times (98 - 1)}{2}$

⇒ Sum = $\dfrac{98 \times 97}{2}$

⇒ Sum = 4753

Average = $\dfrac{4753}{98}$

⇒ Average = 48.5

Alternate Method

First 98 whole numbers = 0 to 97

Formula used:

Average = (First term + Last term) / 2

Calculations:

First term = 0 and Last term = 97

⇒ Average = (0 + 97) / 2

⇒ Average = 97 / 2

⇒ Average = 48.5

∴ The average of the first 98 whole numbers is 48.5.

Shortcut Trick

Formula used:

The average of the first n even natural numbers = n + 1

Calculation:

Here, n = 97

⇒ Average = n + 1

⇒ Average = 97 + 1

⇒ Average = 98

Alternate MethodFirst 97 even natural numbers = 2, 4, 6, …

Number of terms (n) = 97

Formula used:

Average = (First term + Last term) / 2

Calculations:

First term = 2

Last term = 2 × 97 = 194

⇒ Average = (2 + 194) / 2

⇒ Average = 196 / 2

⇒ Average = 98

∴ The average of the first 97 even natural numbers is 98.

Given:

A can do work in = 10 days

B can do work in = 23 days

They work on alternate days

B starts on 1^st day

Calculations:

Let total work = LCM of 10 and 23 = 230

Work done by A in 1 day = 230 / 10 = 23

Work done by B in 1 day = 230 / 23 = 10

Work done in 2 days (B + A) = 10 + 23 = 33

⇒ Work done in 14 days (7 cycles) = 33 × 7 = 231

⇒ Work exceeds 230

⇒ Work done in 12 days (7 cycles) = 33 × 6 = 198

⇒ Work done in 13 days = 198 + 10 = 208

⇒ Remaining work = 230 − 208 = 22

14^th day is A’s turn:

Work done by A in 1 day = 23

⇒ Fraction of day needed = 22 / 23

⇒ Total time = 13 + 22/23 days

∴ The work will be finished in $13\frac{22}{23}$ days.

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹7,550

Rate (r) = 13% p.a.

Time (t) = 16 years

Interest = Simple Interest

Formula used:

Amount = P + Simple Interest

Simple Interest = (P × r × t) / 100

Calculations:

⇒ Simple Interest = (7550 × 13 × 16) / 100

⇒ Simple Interest = 7550 × 2.08

⇒ Simple Interest = 15,704

⇒ Amount = 7,550 + 15,704

⇒ Amount = 23,254

∴ The total amount after 16 years = ₹23,254.

Given:

Students who like Geography in B = 360

Ratio of boys : girls in school B = 5 : 4

Formula used:

Boys = (Boys part / Total parts) × Total students

Calculations:

Total parts = 5 + 4 = 9

⇒ Boys = (5 / 9) × 360

⇒ Boys = 5 × 40

⇒ Boys = 200

∴ Number of boys who like Geography in B = 200.

Given:

Total apples = 693

Ratio (Ravi : Sunita : Bhaskar) = 2 : 3 : 6

Formula used:

Share = (Individual ratio / Sum of ratios) × Total

Calculations:

Sum of ratios = 2 + 3 + 6 = 11

⇒ Bhaskar’s share = (6 / 11) × 693

⇒ Bhaskar’s share = 6 × 63

⇒ Bhaskar’s share = 378

∴ Bhaskar received 378 apples.

Given:

Marked price = ₹265

First discount = 20%

Net price required = ₹106

Formula used:

Selling price = Marked price − Discount

Discount % = (Discount / Marked price) × 100

Calculations:

After 20% discount:

⇒ Price = 265 × (100 − 20) / 100

⇒ Price = 265 × 80 / 100

⇒ Price = 212

Further reduction needed:

⇒ Reduction = 212 − 106 = 106

⇒ Required discount % = (106 / 212) × 100

⇒ Required discount % = 50%

∴ Additional discount required = 50%.

Given:

Cash discount = 24%

Required profit = 24%

Formula used:

Selling Price (SP) = Cost Price (CP) × (1 + Profit%)

Marked Price (MP) × (1 − Discount%) = SP

Calculations:

Let CP = 100

⇒ Required SP = 100 × (1 + 24/100)

⇒ SP = 124

Discount = 24% ⇒ Customer pays 76% of MP

⇒ 0.76 × MP = 124

⇒ MP = 124 / 0.76

⇒ MP = 163.16 (rounded to 2 decimals)

Markup over CP = 163.16 − 100 = 63.16

⇒ Markup % = 63.16%

∴ The article should be marked 63.16% above the cost price.

Given:

A’s salary is 86% more than B’s salary

Formula used:

Percentage less = (Difference / Original) × 100

Calculations:

Let B’s salary = 100

⇒ A’s salary = 100 + 86 = 186

Difference = 186 − 100 = 86

⇒ B is less than A by = (86 / 186) × 100

⇒ B is less than A by = 46.2365%

⇒ B is less than A by ≈ 46.24%

∴ B’s salary is 46.24% less than that of A.

Given:

Numbers = 490, 924, 2464

Formula used:

HCF is the highest number that divides all the given numbers exactly.

Calculations:

Prime factorization:

490 = 2 × 5 × 7 × 7

924 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 7 × 11

2464 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 7 × 11

Common factors = 2 × 7

⇒ HCF = 14

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Given:

Base (b) = 78 cm

Height (h) = 61 cm

Formula used:

Area of parallelogram = b × h

Calculation:

Area = 78 × 61

⇒ Area = 4758 cm²

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Given:

Selling price (SP) of 25 books = Cost price (CP) of 44 books

Formula used:

Loss % = (Loss / CP) × 100

Calculations:

Let CP of 1 book = ₹1

⇒ CP of 44 books = 44

⇒ SP of 25 books = 44

⇒ SP of 1 book = 44 / 25 = 1.76

⇒ CP of 1 book = 1

⇒ Gain per book = SP − CP = 1.76 − 1 = 0.76

⇒ Gain % = (0.76 / 1) × 100

⇒ Gain % = 76%

∴ There is a gain of 76%.

Given:

The value of 33 × (70 ÷ 7) ÷ 2 - {5 × 9 + 10 - (7 - 3) ÷ 4} is:

Formula used:

Follow BODMAS rule: Brackets, Orders (exponents), Division and Multiplication (from left to right), Addition and Subtraction (from left to right).

Calculation:

33 × (70 ÷ 7) ÷ 2 - {5 × 9 + 10 - (7 - 3) ÷ 4}

⇒ 33 × (10) ÷ 2 - {5 × 9 + 10 - (4) ÷ 4}

⇒ 33 × 5 - {45 + 10 - 1}

⇒ 165 - {54}

⇒ 111

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Formula used:

Percentage value = (Percentage / 100) × Number

Calculations:

40% of 75 = (40 / 100) × 75

⇒ 40% of 75 = 30

40% of 35 = (40 / 100) × 35

⇒ 40% of 35 = 14

Difference = 30 − 14 = 16

∴ 40% of 75 is greater than 40% of 35 by 16.

Given:

Distance (d) = 666 km

Time (t) = 37 hours

Formula used:

Speed = Distance ÷ Time

Calculation:

Speed = 666 ÷ 37

⇒ Speed = 18 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Given:

Speed of stream = 10 km/hr

Downstream distance = 84 km

Upstream distance = 28 km

Time taken is equal

Formula used:

Downstream speed = u + v

Upstream speed = u − v

Time = Distance / Speed

Calculations:

Let speed of boat in still water = u km/hr

Downstream speed = u + 10

Upstream speed = u − 10

Equal time condition: 84 / (u + 10) = 28 / (u − 10)

⇒ 84(u − 10) = 28(u + 10)

⇒ 84u − 840 = 28u + 280

⇒ 56u = 1120

⇒ u = 20 km/hr

Now, Downstream speed = 20 + 10 = 30 km/hr

Upstream speed = 20 − 10 = 10 km/hr

Required time to cover 11 km downstream and 63 km upstream:

⇒ Time downstream = 11 / 30 hr

⇒ Time upstream = 63 / 10 hr

⇒ Total time = 11/30 + 63/10

⇒ Total time = 11/30 + 189/30

⇒ Total time = 200/30

⇒ Total time = 20/3 hours = 6.67 hours

⇒ Total time = 6 hours + (0.67 × 60) minutes = 6 hours 40 minutes

∴ The correct answer is option 1.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• The paragraph begins by explaining the rapid pace of urbanisation and its impact on megacities.
• Sentence A is the first sentence as it introduces the concept of rapid urbanisation and its effect:
• "The rapid pace of urbanisation has led to the growth of megacities around the world."
• Sentence D follows as it elaborates on the increasing population in megacities:
• "Megacities are now home to millions of people, with more individuals moving to urban areas each year."
• Sentence B comes next as it discusses the challenges associated with the rapid growth of megacities:
• "However, this rapid growth comes with challenges, including overpopulation and pollution."
• Sentence C is the final sentence as it concludes with a solution to address these challenges:
• "To address these issues, urban planners are increasingly focusing on sustainable development."
• The correct sequence is ADBC.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"The rapid pace of urbanisation has led to the growth of megacities around the world. Megacities are now home to millions of people, with more individuals moving to urban areas each year. However, this rapid growth comes with challenges, including overpopulation and pollution. To address these issues, urban planners are increasingly focusing on sustainable development."

The correct answer is 'forged; published'.

Key Points

• The verb "forged" indicates that Sharon made steady progress despite difficulties, which fits the context of the sentence.
• The phrase "published" aligns with the context as she is trying to get her first novel released to the public.
• Options 1, 3, and 4 do not fit the sentence logically or grammatically in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Complete Sentence: "Sharon forged ahead in her endeavours to get her first novel published, undeterred by multiple rejections."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "undaunted; written" is incorrect because "written" does not convey the sense of publishing or releasing a novel.
• Option 3: "repelled; typed" is incorrect because "repelled" conveys a negative meaning that does not align with Sharon's perseverance.
• Option 4: "pursue; edited" is incorrect because it does not logically complete the sentence in the given context.

The correct answer is: Option 1 (friendly).

Key Points

• The word "amiable" means having a pleasant and friendly disposition; someone who is agreeable and easy to get along with. (मित्रवत, सुखद)
• Example: Her amiable smile made everyone feel welcome at the party.
• "Friendly" refers to being kind, pleasant, and sociable towards others. (मित्रवत)
• Example: The dog had a friendly demeanor and wagged its tail at everyone.
• Hence, the word "friendly" is the most appropriate synonym for "amiable" in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1 (friendly).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Detached (अलग, उदासीन): Showing a lack of emotional involvement or interest.
• Example: He remained detached during the heated argument, refusing to take sides.
• Hostile (शत्रुतापूर्ण): Being unfriendly or antagonistic towards others.
• Example: The hostile crowd booed the speaker throughout his speech.
• Aloof (अलग-थलग): Not friendly or forthcoming; cool and distant.
• Example: Despite the warm welcome, she remained aloof and avoided conversation.

The correct answer is 'since it was raining heavily'.

Key Points

• The correct option is Option 2, as the sentence logically explains the reason why the plans were stalled.
• The phrase "since it was raining heavily" provides a valid reason for not going out.
• Other options are contextually incorrect:
• Option 1: "and we were not feeling well" doesn’t fit as it doesn’t explain the decision effectively.
• Option 3: "such that it was extremely hot" is irrelevant to the context.
• Option 4: "either now or when" is grammatically incomplete.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Complete Sentence: "We decided to stall our plans to go out since it was raining heavily."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "and we were not feeling well" could work in a different context but doesn’t align here.
• Option 3: "such that it was extremely hot" is unrelated to the idea of stalling plans due to rain.
• Option 4: "either now or when" is incomplete and doesn’t make sense grammatically in this sentence.

The correct answer is: Pessimist.

Key Points

• The word "Pessimist" refers to a person who always expects the worst to happen or believes that things will turn out in the most disastrous way possible. (निराशावादी)
• Example: John is a pessimist who always thinks that every project will fail before it even starts.
• A pessimist tends to focus on negative outcomes and lacks confidence in positive possibilities. (नकारात्मक परिणामों पर ध्यान केंद्रित करता है)

Therefore, the correct answer is: Pessimist.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Realist (यथार्थवादी): A person who accepts situations as they are and deals with them practically.
• Example: As a realist, Maria prefers to focus on facts rather than dreams or fantasies.
• Optimist (आशावादी): A person who always expects the best possible outcome and believes in positivity.
• Example: Even in tough times, Emily remains an optimist and encourages others to stay hopeful.
• Idealist (आदर्शवादी): A person who is guided by ideals or strives for perfection, often ignoring practicality.
• Example: Max, being an idealist, dreams of creating a perfect world free from injustice.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• Sentence R comes first because it explicitly begins with “First,” and establishes the foundational step: a perpetual covenant of union embodied in a written constitution that defines power-sharing.
• "First, the federal relationship must be established or confirmed through a perpetual covenant of union, usually embodied in a written constitution that outlines the terms by which power is divided or shared."
• Sentence Q follows by stating a key feature of such constitutions—their rigidity and special procedures for amendment.
• "The constitution can be altered only by extraordinary procedures."
• Sentence P is third as it characterizes these constitutions’ distinctiveness in involving multiple actors: the people, the general government, and the states.
• "These constitutions are distinctive in being not simply compacts between rulers and ruled but involving the people, the general government and the state constituting the federal union."
• Sentence S concludes by adding that constituent states often retain constitution-making rights, rounding out the federal design.
• "The constituent states, moreover, often retain constitution-making rights of their own."
• The correct sequence is RQPS.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"First, the federal relationship must be established or confirmed through a perpetual covenant of union, usually embodied in a written constitution that outlines the terms by which power is divided or shared. The constitution can be altered only by extraordinary procedures. These constitutions are distinctive in being not simply compacts between rulers and ruled but involving the people, the general government and the state constituting the federal union. The constituent states, moreover, often retain constitution-making rights of their own."

The correct answer is: Option 1 - All ears.

Key Points

• The idiom "all ears" means to be very eager to listen to what someone is saying. (पूरी तरह सुनने के लिए उत्सुक)
• Example: When the boss started explaining the big project, the entire team was all ears.
• In the given sentence, "listening eagerly" can be replaced with the idiom "all ears" to convey the same meaning effectively.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1 - All ears.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Keeping their fingers crossed (उम्मीद रखना): Hoping for good luck or success.
• Example: They were keeping their fingers crossed for the results of the competition.
• Tongue-tied (बोलने में अटक जाना): Unable to speak due to nervousness or embarrassment.
• Example: He felt tongue-tied while giving his speech in front of the large audience.
• Tongue-in-cheek (मज़ाक में कहना): Saying something sarcastically or humorously, not to be taken literally.
• Example: His comment about quitting his job was meant to be tongue-in-cheek.

The correct answer is 'alongside'.

Key Points

• The word "alongside" means "next to or close to" and fits the context of the sentence where the Good Samaritan ran beside the car.
• Option 1, "beneath", is incorrect as it indicates a position below something, which does not fit the context.
• Option 2, "besides", is incorrect as it means "in addition to" and is not appropriate here.
• Option 4, "along with", is incorrect as it suggests running together with the car, which is not logical.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Complete Sentence: "The Good Samaritan ran alongside the car to catch the criminal as he tried to escape from the scene of crime."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "beneath" is incorrect as it refers to a position below something, which is not the intended meaning in this context.
• Option 2: "besides" is incorrect because it means "in addition to", not "next to" as required here.
• Option 4: "along with" is incorrect as it suggests running together with the car, which does not make sense in this case.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

The misspelled words in the paragraph are:

• 'Alot' should be written as 'A lot'.
• 'inadvertantly' should be written as 'inadvertently'.
• 'sychotic' should be written as 'psychotic'.
• 'effecting' should be written as 'affecting'.

The corrected sentence reads as:

A lot of times, people, advertently or inadvertently, cause self-harm. They have the notion that they are important and that the world would fail to exist without them. This may lead to certain psychotic disorders affecting everyone in their surroundings. They need immediate attention.

Additional Information

Explanation of the marked corrections:

• A lot - 'Alot' is an incorrect form. 'A lot' is the correct usage for expressing frequency or quantity.
• Inadvertently - The correct spelling is 'inadvertently', which means 'unintentionally'.
• Psychotic - 'Psychotic' is the correct spelling, referring to severe mental disorders.
• Affecting - 'Affecting' is appropriate here as it means 'having an influence on', while 'effecting' refers to 'bringing something about'.

The correct answer is 'are they'.

Key Points

• The sentence requires a negative question tag as the main clause is negative ("not the pleasant relief").
• The subject of the sentence is "rains" (plural), so the correct auxiliary verb is "are."
• Option 3: "are they" is grammatically correct as it matches the subject and verb form of the sentence.
• Options 1, 2, and 4 do not fit the grammatical structure of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Complete Sentence: "Rains are, after all, not the pleasant relief that most people like to believe, are they?"

Additional Information

• Option 1: "don't they" is incorrect because the main clause is negative, and this option does not match the required structure.
• Option 2: "do they" is incorrect as it does not align with the auxiliary verb "are" in the main clause.
• Option 4: "were they" is incorrect because the sentence is in the present tense, not past tense.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'practises'.

• The correct spelling would be 'practices'.
• The word 'practices' is a noun which means 'the application or use of an idea, belief, or method' or 'habitual action or performance'. (अभ्यास)
• For Example -
• The company has implemented new safety practices.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'practises' → 'practices'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Procedures - established methods or steps for accomplishing something (प्रक्रियाएं)
• Policies - principles or rules of conduct (नीतियां)
• Necessitating - requiring something to be done or brought about (आवश्यक बनाना)

The correct answer is: Bibliophile.

Key Points

• The word "Philanthropist" refers to a person who seeks to promote the welfare of others, usually through generous donations to good causes. (परोपकारी)
• Example: The philanthropist donated millions to build schools in rural areas.
• A "Bibliophile" is a person who loves or collects books. (पुस्तक प्रेमी)
• Example: Being a bibliophile, she spends her weekends exploring old bookstores and libraries.
• Hence, the word "Bibliophile" aptly describes a person who loves to collect books.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Bibliophile.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Philanthropist (परोपकारी): A person who donates money or time to help others.
• Example: The philanthropist funded a hospital for underprivileged children.
• Misogynist (स्त्री द्वेषी): A person who dislikes or is strongly prejudiced against women.
• Example: His misogynist remarks were criticized by everyone in the meeting.
• Technophobe (तकनीकी विरोधी): A person who fears or dislikes technology or technological advancements.
• Example: My grandfather is a technophobe who refuses to use a smartphone.

The correct answer is 'will you'.

Key Points

• A question tag is a short question added at the end of a statement to confirm or clarify information.
• For negative statements like "Don't stop playing that beautiful piece of music," the question tag is typically positive.
• The phrase "will you" is used in this context to politely encourage someone to continue doing something.
• Options 2, 3, and 4 are grammatically incorrect or do not fit the context of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Complete Sentence: "Don't stop playing that beautiful piece of music, will you?"

Additional Information

• Option 2: "do you" is incorrect because it doesn't match the context of a polite request in the negative statement.
• Option 3: "shall you" is incorrect because it is rarely used in modern English and doesn't fit here.
• Option 4: "would you" is incorrect because it doesn't align with the context of a positive question tag for a negative statement.

The correct answer is: Option 2 (Triumph).

Key Points

• The word "catastrophe" refers to a sudden and widespread disaster or a calamity that causes great damage or suffering. (आपदा)
• Example: The earthquake was a catastrophic event that left thousands homeless.
• "Triumph" means a great victory or achievement, signifying success and a positive outcome, which is the opposite of catastrophe. (विजय)
• Example: Winning the championship was a moment of triumph for the team.
• Hence, we can infer that the antonym of "catastrophe" is "triumph".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 (Triumph).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Disaster (आपदा): A sudden event, such as an accident or natural calamity, causing great damage or loss of life.
• Example: The hurricane was a disaster for the coastal towns.
• Calamity (दुर्घटना): An event causing great and often sudden damage or distress; a disaster.
• Example: The war brought untold calamities to the nation.
• Debacle (विफलता): A sudden and complete failure; a fiasco.
• Example: The company’s new product launch turned out to be a debacle.

The correct answer is: Option 2 (scratching each other's back).

Key Points

• The idiom "scratching each other's back" refers to a mutual exchange of favors, where two parties help each other for their own benefit. (एक-दूसरे की मदद करना)
• Example: John helped Mary with her project, and in return, Mary offered to assist John in his presentation. They were scratching each other's back.
• The given sentence mentions mutual benefit, which aligns perfectly with the meaning of the idiom "scratching each other's back." (एक-दूसरे को लाभ पहुंचाने के लिए मदद करना)

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 (scratching each other's back).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: Seeing eye to eye with each other (सहमति होना): Refers to being in complete agreement with someone.
• Example: They saw eye to eye on the need for environmental protection.
• Option 3: Sharing the spotlight (ध्यान साझा करना): Refers to dividing attention or recognition among multiple people.
• Example: The two actors shared the spotlight during the award ceremony.
• Option 4: Singing from the same hymn sheet (एक जैसी राय रखना): Refers to being in agreement or having the same perspective.
• Example: The team was singing from the same hymn sheet during the meeting.

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Key Points

• Option 1: Definition followed by listing of unrelated examples
• This is not suitable because the passage does not define traffic problems or list unrelated examples.
• Option 2: Chronological development of traffic history in India
• This is not suitable as the passage does not trace traffic history over time; it focuses on present challenges.
• Option 3: Problem-cause-effect-solution structure
• This is the most suitable because the passage begins with the problem (traffic congestion), explains causes (urbanisation, poor planning), describes effects (pollution, stress, lost productivity), and finally suggests solutions (government schemes, technology, behavioural changes).
• Option 4: Personal anecdote followed by analysis
• This is not suitable as the passage is factual and analytical, not anecdotal.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Incorrect because the passage is not structured as a definition with examples.
• Option 2: Incorrect because the passage does not present traffic history chronologically.
• Option 4: Incorrect because there is no personal anecdote; the passage is analytical and policy-focused.

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Key Points

• Option 1: The passage outlines India’s urban traffic crisis, causes, attempts at reform and the need for social change
• This is the most suitable because the passage clearly presents the problem, explains causes, highlights effects, and suggests solutions including infrastructural reforms and behavioural changes.
• Option 2: The best way to reduce traffic is banning private vehicles
• This is not suitable because banning private vehicles is not suggested as the main solution in the passage.
• Option 3: Indian traffic problems are mainly due to excessive rain and potholes
• This is not suitable as the passage attributes traffic problems to urbanisation, poor planning, and inadequate infrastructure, not rain or potholes.
• Option 4: India needs more flyovers and highways to reduce traffic congestion
• This is not suitable because the passage does not emphasize flyovers or highways as the primary solution; instead, it stresses holistic reforms and behavioural changes.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Additional Information

• Option 2: Incorrect because banning private vehicles is not the central recommendation of the passage.
• Option 3: Incorrect because rain and potholes are not identified as the main causes.
• Option 4: Incorrect because the passage emphasizes sustainable mobility and behavioural change, not just infrastructure expansion.

The correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Key Points

• Option 1: All Indian cities have synchronised traffic signals
• This is not a fact directly mentioned. The passage only states that traffic-signal synchronisation is being adopted in select regions, not all cities.
• Option 2: Traffic congestion reduces productivity levels in urban India
• This is a fact directly mentioned. The passage clearly states that productivity levels have dropped due to stress and lost man-hours caused by traffic congestion.
• Option 3: India has the highest number of electric vehicles in the world
• This is not mentioned. The passage only refers to electric vehicle infrastructure being piloted, not global rankings.
• Option 4: Delhi is the least polluted capital city in Asia
• This is not mentioned. In fact, the passage notes that air quality has deteriorated, which contradicts this statement.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Incorrect because synchronisation is mentioned only for select regions, not all cities.
• Option 3: Incorrect because the passage does not discuss India’s global ranking in electric vehicles.
• Option 4: Incorrect because the passage highlights deteriorating air quality, not Delhi being least polluted.

The correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Key Points

• Option 1: Private Vehicle Policies in Delhi
• This is not suitable because the passage discusses traffic issues across India, not just Delhi.
• Option 2: Urban India’s Growing Traffic Woes
• This is the most suitable as the passage highlights India’s urban traffic crisis, its causes, effects, and solutions.
• Option 3: Public Transport Systems in Rural India
• This is not suitable because the passage does not discuss rural transport systems.
• Option 4: Traffic Rules and Violations in India
• This is not suitable as the passage focuses on congestion, infrastructure, and behavioural change, not just rules and violations.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Incorrect because it limits the scope to Delhi, whereas the passage is about India’s cities in general.
• Option 3: Incorrect because rural transport is not discussed in the passage.
• Option 4: Incorrect because the passage is broader than traffic rules—it covers causes, effects, and reforms.

The correct answer is: Option 3) Temporary i.e. "Temporary".

Key Points

• The word "chronic" means persisting for a long time or constantly recurring, usually used to describe a problem or illness. (दीर्घकालिक)
• Example: He suffers from chronic back pain.
• "Temporary" means lasting for only a limited period of time; not permanent. (अस्थायी)
• Example: The school hired a temporary teacher to cover for the regular faculty member on leave.
• Hence, we can infer that the antonym of 'chronic' is 'temporary'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3) Temporary i.e. "Temporary".

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Systemic (व्यवस्थित): Relating to a system, especially as opposed to a particular part; widespread and affecting the entire system.
• Example: The company made systemic changes to improve overall efficiency.
• Recurring (पुनरावर्ती): Occurring again periodically or repeatedly.
• Example: She has a recurring nightmare that disturbs her sleep.
• Widespread (व्यापक): Found or distributed over a large area or number of people.
• Example: There is widespread support for the new environmental policy.

सही उत्तर है - संयुक्त 

Key Points

• पूरा वाक्य इस प्रकार होगा: 'उसने किताब पढ़ी और फिर उसे वापस रख दिया। वाक्य में संयुक्त  क्रिया है।'
• यहाँ 'रखना' (मुख्य क्रिया) और 'देना' (सहायक/रंजक क्रिया) मिलकर 'रख दिया' क्रिया बना रहे हैं, जो एक ही कार्य (किताब वापस रखने) को दर्शा रहा है।
• जब दो या दो से ज़्यादा भिन्नार्थक क्रियाएं मिलकर एक पूर्ण क्रिया बनाती हैं, तो उसे संयुक्त क्रिया कहते हैं।
• उदाहरण - मीना खाना खा चुकी। रमेश घर पर चला गया।

Important Pointsक्रिया के भेद -

• कर्म के आधार पर क्रिया के दो भेद होते हैं।

1. सकर्मक क्रिया
2. अकर्मक क्रिया

• संरचना या प्रयोग के आधार पर क्रिया के भेद-
• मुख्य क्रिया, सहायक क्रिया, रंजक क्रिया, संयुक्त क्रिया, सरल क्रिया,
• नामिक क्रिया, नामधातु क्रिया, प्रेरणार्थक क्रिया, पूर्वकालिक क्रिया, अनुकरणात्मक क्रिया।

Additional Information

सही उत्तर है - ङ च ख क ग घ

Key Points

• सही क्रम- 
• मैंने इतिहास की कक्षा (ङ)
• में पढ़ा था (च)
• कि नेपोलियन ने (ख)
• एक दिन सम्पूर्ण (क)
• यूरोप को (ग)
• हिला दिया था (घ)।'
• व्यवस्थित करने पर बना पूर्ण वाक्य: मैंने इतिहास की कक्षा में पढ़ा था कि नेपोलियन ने एक दिन सम्पूर्ण यूरोप को हिला दिया था।

Additional Informationक्रम व्यवस्थापन -

• वाक्यों या वाक्यांशों को तार्किक, कालानुक्रमिक या व्याकरणिक क्रम में व्यवस्थित करने की एक प्रक्रिया है
• ताकि एक अर्थपूर्ण गद्यांश या अनुच्छेद बन सके। यह तर्कशक्ति और भाषा बोध का परीक्षण करता है,
• जिसमें पहले और अंतिम वाक्य को स्थिर रखकर बीच के वाक्यों को व्यवस्थित करना होता है।

'जो पृथ्वी से संबद्ध हैं' वाक्यांश के लिए सार्थक शब्द होगा - पार्थिव

Key Points

• 'जो पृथ्वी से संबद्ध हैं' वाक्यांश के लिए सार्थक शब्द होगा - पार्थिव
• वाक्यांश के लिए उपयुक्त शब्द - अनेक शब्दों के लिए एक शब्द को प्रयुक्त करना ही वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द कहलाता है।

अन्य विकल्प -

Additional Information  कुछ महत्वपूर्ण वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द -

सही उत्तर है - सुषुप्ति

Key Points

• 'जागरण' का सही विलोम 'सुषुप्ति' होता है।
• जागरण का अर्थ - जागने की अवस्था या चेतना।
• सुषुप्ति का अर्थ - गहरी नींद या अचेत अवस्था।
• विलोम - जो शब्द किसी एक शब्द के विपरीत अर्थ को व्यक्त करते हैं, वे विलोम शब्द कहलाते हैं।

अन्य विकल्प -

• सेवित : जिसकी सेवा की गई हो। इसका विलोम 'अ��ेवित' होता है।
• पुनरुत्थान : फिर से उठना या जागृत होना। इसका विलोम 'पतन' या 'अधोगति' के संदर्भ में लिया जाता है।
• निरीक्षण : जांच-पड़ताल करना या अवलोकन करना। इसका विलोम 'अनदेखी' होता है।

Additional Informationकुछ अन्य महत्वपूर्ण विलोम शब्द -

सही उत्तर है - ङ ख क घ ग

Key Points

• सही क्रम - 
• ​'ठंडी हवा (ङ)
• चल रही थी (ख)
• इसलिए (क)
• मैं जल्दी न (घ)
• उठ सका (ग) ।'
• व्यवस्थित करने पर बना पूर्ण वाक्य: ठंडी हवा चल रही थी इसलिए मैं जल्दी न उठ सका ।

Additional Informationक्रम व्यवस्थापन -

• वाक्यों या वाक्यांशों को तार्किक, कालानुक्रमिक या व्याकरणिक क्रम में व्यवस्थित करने की एक प्रक्रिया है
• ताकि एक अर्थपूर्ण गद्यांश या अनुच्छेद बन सके। यह तर्कशक्ति और भाषा बोध का परीक्षण करता है,
• जिसमें पहले और अंतिम वाक्य को स्थिर रखकर बीच के वाक्यों को व्यवस्थित करना होता है।

सही उत्तर है - पोषण केवल सामन्य

Key Points

• अशुद्ध वाक्य - आनंद की दशा का पोषण केवल सामन्य या आनंददायक वस्तुओं से ही होता है।
• दिए गये वाक्य में वर्तनी प्रयोग की त्रुटि है,
• ​यहाँ 'पोषण केवल सामन्य' सार्थक शब्द नहीं है और इससे सही अर्थ प्रकट नहीं हो रहा।
• ​अत: सार्थक शब्द 'पोषण केवल सामान्य' होना चाहिए। (म के बाद 'आ' की मात्रा का प्रयोग अनिवार्य है)।
• शुद्ध वाक्य - आनंद की दशा का पोषण केवल सामान्य या आनंददायक वस्तुओं से ही होता है।
• वर्तनी - किसी शब्द में आये हुए अक्षरों को मात्राओं सहित कहने या लिखने की रीति को वर्तनी कहते हैं।

अन्य विकल्प-

• आनंददायक : यह शब्द पूर्णतः शुद्ध है। इसका अर्थ है 'खुशी देने वाला'।
• दशा : इसका अर्थ है 'अवस्था' या 'हालत', जो वर्तनी की दृष्टि से सही है।
• पोषण: इसका अर्थ है 'पालना' या 'बढ़ावा देना', इसकी वर्तनी भी सही है।

Additional Information कुछ अशुद्ध शब्द और शुद्ध शब्द -