DSSSB PGT (Hindi) Official Paper (Held On: 17 Jul, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

Given series: (Left) 235 762 378 732 489 (Right)

According to the question.

So,

Third digit of the highest number → 762 → 2

Second digit of the lowest number → 235 → 3

So, the second digit of the lowest number is added to the third digit of the highest number → 2 + 3 = 5

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

6 - 12 - 24

6 × 2 = 12

12 × 2 = 24

And,

20 - 40 - 80

20 × 2 = 40

40 × 2 = 80

Similarly,

15 - 30 - 60

15 × 2 = 30

30 × 2 = 60

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Given: (Left) 357 725 296 429 693 (Right)

According to the question:

Thus, in two numbers the first digit will be exactly divisible by the second digit.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Given: A certain number of people are seated in a row, facing north.

1. Only three people sit between D and B.

2) D sits second to the right of A.

3. Only three people sit between C and A.

Case 1)

Case 2)

Case 3)

Case 4)

4. Q sits fourth to the left of C. 

As there is no possible position for Q in case 2 and case 4, therefore are eliminated.

Case 1)

Case 3)

5. K sits second to the right of C.

As there is no possible position for K in case 3, therefore is eliminated.

Case 1)

Thus, there are total 15 people sitting in the row.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Given: Some people sit in a row facing north.

1. Only two people sit between S and B.

2) B sits immediate right of D.

Case 1)

Case 2)

3. E sits second to the left of D.

4) P sits third to the left of D.

As there is no possible position for E in case 1, therefore is eliminated.

Case 2)

Thus, there are total 8 people sitting in the row.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Given Expression: U + T ! R @ A % Q @ B

U + T → U is the son of T. 

T ! R → T is the married to R.

R @ A → R is the daughter of A. 

A % Q → A is the mother of Q.

Q @ B → Q is the daughter of B.

Thus, Q is T's wife's sister.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The logic followed here is:​

Option 1) FB-EG

Option 2) SO-RU

Option 3) KG-JL

Option 4) PL-OQ

Thus, out of all 'SO-RU' is the odd one out.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Given: Eight people are sitting in two parallel rows containing 4 people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. Thus, each person faces another person in row 2.

In row 1 J, K, L and M are seated facing south.

In row 2 W, X, Y and Z are seated facing north.

1) No one sits to the right of Y.

2) No one sits to the right of L.

3) Only one person sits between Y and Z.

4. J sits second to the left of M.

5. W does not sit opposite K.

Thus, L and W are sitting at the ends of the row.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:​

JP-LH-NQ

And

FL-HD-JM

Similarly,

MS-OK-QT

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:​

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:​

Option 1) PAL

Option 2) RCN

Option 3) TEP

Option 4) UFO

Thus, out of all 'UFO' is the odd one out.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

(I) All neighs are kings → Follow (As all neighs are cubs and all cubs are kings. As whole neighs comes in cubs which whole comes in kings, therefore it is true.)

(II) Some balls are neighs → Does not follow (As all neighs are cubs, all cubs are kings and some kings are balls. As whole neighs comes in cubs which whole comes in kings which has some part common with balls, So it is possible but not definite.)

∴ Here, Only conclusion (l) follows.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given: 

Sohail starts driving from point A and drives 5 km west.

He then turns left and drives 4 km.

He makes a final left turn and drives 10 km and stops at point B.

Prayas starts driving from point P, which is 16 km east of point A, and drives 5 km east.

He then turns right and drives 4 km.

He makes a final left turn and drives 3 km and stops at point Q.

Thus, the shortest distance between point Q and point B is 19 km.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Decoding signs:

Given: 105 × 19 ÷ 15 - 5 + 60

105 × 19 ÷ 15 - 5 + 60 ⇒ 105 + 19 × 15 ÷ 5 - 60

⇒ 105 + 19 × 15 ÷ 5 - 60

⇒ 105 + 19 × 3 - 60

⇒ 105 + 57 - 60

⇒ 162 - 60

⇒ 102 = ?

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

According to the question:​

Thus, code for 'flower' is 'tw'.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Decoding signs:

Given: 9 - 2 ÷ 4 + 15 × 3 = ?

9 - 2 ÷ 4 + 15 × 3 = ? ⇒ 9 × 2 + 4 - 15 ÷ 3 = ?

⇒ 9 × 2 + 4 - 15 ÷ 3 = ?

⇒ 9 × 2 + 4 - 5 = ?

⇒ 18 + 4 - 5 = ?

⇒ 22 - 5 = ?

⇒ 17 = ?

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Given statement: Traffic congestion in city Y has reached unprecedented levels due to ongoing essential construction work on major roads in the city.

Given Courses of Action:

I. The city administration should implement alternative traffic routes and diversions to reduce congestion during construction. → Follows

Implementing alternative routes and diversions directly addresses the problem (traffic congestion) without stopping essential construction. It is practical and relevant.

II. These construction projects should be stopped on major roads to prevent traffic congestion in City Y. → Does not follows

Stopping construction on major roads contradicts the word "essential" in the statement. The problem is congestion, not the necessity of the project itself. This is an extreme and illogical step.

Thus, Only I follows.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

39 is related to 45.8 → 39 + 6.8 = 45.8

And,

23 is related to 29.8 → 23 + 6.8 = 29.8

Similarly,

27 is related to → 27 + 6.8 = 33.8​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:​

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The correct answer is Melanochlamys droupadi.

Key Points

• The Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) discovered a new species of head-shield sea slug in March 2024 and named it Melanochlamys droupadi in honor of the 15th President of India, Droupadi Murmu.
• This new marine species was identified along the North-Eastern coast of India, specifically collected from the Digha-Udaypur coast in West Bengal and the Talsari-Kanika Sands in Odisha.
• The species belongs to the genus Melanochlamys, which are characterized by being small, hermaphroditic creatures typically found in the intertidal zones of the ocean.
• Melanochlamys droupadi is distinguished by its brownish-black color and a unique ruby red spot located at its posterior end; it is a small invertebrate with a maximum length of about 7 mm.
• The discovery was formally documented and published in the scientific journal Molluscan Research, highlighting the rich biodiversity of the Bay of Bengal region. Hence, the correct answer is Melanochlamys droupadi.

Additional Information

• Zoological Survey of India (ZSI):
• Established on July 1, 1916, the ZSI is a premier Indian organization under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
• It is headquartered in Kolkata and is responsible for the survey, exploration, and research of the fauna of the country to advance knowledge of biological diversity.
• About President Droupadi Murmu:
• She assumed office on July 25, 2022, becoming the first tribal woman to hold the highest constitutional post in India.
• Before her presidency, she served as the Governor of Jharkhand from 2015 to 2021 and hails from the state of Odisha.
• Characteristics of Melanochlamys Genus:
• Species in this genus are commonly known as head-shield slugs because they possess a cephalic shield used to burrow into sandy substrates.
• These slugs are typically carnivorous, feeding on small marine worms, roundworms, and other small invertebrates found in the sediment.
• Unlike many other mollusks, they carry an internal shell and secrete a transparent mucus trail to protect their soft bodies from sand grains.

Important Points

• Habitat and Distribution: This specific species, Melanochlamys droupadi, has been found only in the low-lying intertidal areas of the East Coast of India. These areas are characterized by sandy and muddy flats that are exposed during low tide.
• Biological Features: The slug is a simultaneous hermaphrodite, meaning it possesses both male and female reproductive organs. It reproduces by laying eggs, often protected within gelatinous masses.
• Scientific Significance: The discovery of Melanochlamys droupadi marks the second species of the genus Melanochlamys to be discovered in India, significantly contributing to the taxonomic records of Indian marine life.
• Conservation and Ecology: Such discoveries emphasize the importance of protecting coastal ecosystems, as many specialized species are sensitive to pollution and habitat destruction caused by human activities along the coastline.

The correct answer is Linguistic Expert Committee under the Sahitya Akademi.

Key Points

• The Linguistic Expert Committee (LEC), which operates under the Sahitya Akademi, is the primary body responsible for examining and recommending languages for Classical Status based on established criteria.
• In October 2024, the Union Cabinet, chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, approved the conferment of Classical Language status to five additional languages: Marathi, Pali, Prakrit, Assamese, and Bengali.
• The Ministry of Culture serves as the nodal ministry for this process, but it relies on the technical and literary expertise of the Sahitya Akademi to evaluate the historical and linguistic claims of the languages.
• The Linguistic Expert Committee was constituted to rigorously vet the research papers and historical evidence provided by various State Governments and scholars to ensure they meet the Ministry of Home Affairs and Ministry of Culture guidelines.
• Other options, such as the University Grants Commission (UGC) or ICHR, focus on higher education and historical research respectively, but do not hold the mandate for the formal classification of Classical Languages. Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Additional Information

• Criteria for Classical Language Status:
• High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500–2000 years.
• A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers.
• The literary tradition must be original and not borrowed from another speech community.
• The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.
• Newly Added Languages (2024):
• Marathi: Primarily spoken in Maharashtra, it has a rich literary tradition dating back to the Yadava period.
• Bengali: The official language of West Bengal, known for its profound influence during the Renaissance and ancient Charyapada texts.
• Assamese: The state language of Assam, with historical roots in the Kamrupi dialect and ancient inscriptions.
• Pali and Prakrit: These are ancient Indo-Aryan languages. Pali is the sacred language of Theravada Buddhism, while Prakrit was widely used in ancient Jain texts and inscriptions by Emperor Ashoka.
• Timeline of Previously Recognized Languages:
• Tamil was the first language to be accorded the status in 2004.
• Sanskrit was recognized in 2005.
• Telugu and Kannada were granted the status in 2008.
• Malayalam was added in 2013, followed by Odia in 2014.

Important Points

• Total Count: With the inclusion of five new languages in 2024, the total number of Classical Languages in India has increased to 11.
• Benefits of Status: Once a language is notified as "Classical," the Ministry of Education provides certain benefits, including two major international awards for scholars of eminence in that language annually.
• Centres of Excellence: A Centre of Excellence for studies in the specific Classical Language is established, and the UGC is requested to create a certain number of Professional Chairs for the language in Central Universities.
• Sahitya Akademi: It is India's National Academy of Letters, established in 1954, and functions as an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Culture.

p>The correct answer is Subhash Chandra Bose.

Key Points

• Subhash Chandra Bose, popularly known as Netaji, resigned from the presidency of the Indian National Congress (INC) in April 1939. This resignation followed the Tripuri Session where ideological differences with the Congress Working Committee and Mahatma Gandhi became irreconcilable.
• After his resignation, he formed the All India Forward Bloc on May 3, 1939. The announcement was made at a public meeting in Makur, Unnao, in the state of Uttar Pradesh.
• The Forward Bloc was initially intended to be a faction within the Indian National Congress. Its primary objective was to bring all left-wing elements together to provide a radical alternative to the existing leadership and to push for an immediate struggle against British rule.
• Bose had won the presidential election for the Tripuri Session in 1939, defeating Pattabhi Sitaramayya, who was the preferred candidate of Mahatma Gandhi. However, due to lack of support from the old guard, he decided to forge his own path. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Additional Information

• Bal Gangadhar Tilak:
• Known as Lokmanya, he was a key leader of the Extremist faction within the Congress.
• He helped found the All India Home Rule League in April 1916 at Belgaum.
• He passed away in 1920, nearly two decades before the formation of the Forward Bloc. Therefore, he was not the one who formed it. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Lala Lajpat Rai:
• Known as Punjab Kesari or the Lion of Punjab, he was a part of the famous Lal-Bal-Pal trio.
• He served as the President of the Calcutta Special Session of the Congress in 1920.
• He died in November 1928 due to injuries sustained during a lathi charge while protesting against the Simon Commission. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Jawaharlal Nehru:
• He was a close associate of Mahatma Gandhi and served as the President of the Congress multiple times, including the historic Lahore Session in 1929.
• Despite having socialist leanings, he chose to remain within the mainstream Congress leadership and did not resign to form the Forward Bloc. He later became the first Prime Minister of independent India in 1947. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Important Points

• The Tripuri Crisis (1939): This was a significant event in Indian political history where the Right Wing (led by Gandhi's supporters) and the Left Wing (led by Bose) clashed over the future strategy of the freedom struggle.
• Post-Resignation Leadership: After Subhash Chandra Bose resigned, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the President of the Indian National Congress for the remainder of the term.
• Later Developments: The Forward Bloc eventually became an independent political party after its members were expelled from the Congress in August 1939 for organizing protests against the party leadership's decisions.
• International Context: Bose’s militant stance through the Forward Bloc led to his house arrest in Calcutta in 1940. He famously escaped in 1941, traveling through Afghanistan and the Soviet Union to Germany, and eventually to Singapore to lead the Indian National Army (INA) in 1943.

The correct answer is Total Internal Reflection of Light.

Key Points

• Optical fibers are hair-thin strands made of high-quality glass (silica) or plastic that are designed to transmit information using light pulses. They function primarily on the principle of Total Internal Reflection (TIR).
• Total Internal Reflection is a phenomenon that occurs when a light ray traveling in a denser medium (like the core of the fiber) strikes the boundary of a rarer medium (like the cladding) at an angle of incidence greater than a specific critical angle. Instead of refracting out, the light is reflected entirely back into the denser medium.
• An optical fiber consists of two main parts for light guidance: the core and the cladding. The refractive index of the core is always kept higher than that of the cladding to facilitate TIR.
• For Total Internal Reflection to be possible, two conditions must be satisfied: the light must travel from a higher refractive index medium to a lower refractive index medium, and the angle of incidence must be greater than the critical angle. Hence, option 2 is correct.
• Options involving Partial Internal Refraction or Reflection are incorrect because they would result in significant signal loss over distance, as some light would escape the fiber. Total Internal Refraction is a scientifically inaccurate term.

Additional Information

• Structure of Optical Fiber:
• Core: The innermost part, usually made of silica, where the light signals travel.
• Cladding: The outer layer surrounding the core that has a lower refractive index, acting as a mirror to keep the light inside via TIR.
• Buffer Coating: A protective plastic layer that prevents moisture and physical damage.
• Telecommunications: Optical fibers provide much higher bandwidth than traditional copper wires. They are the primary medium for high-speed internet, cable television, and telephone signals, capable of transmitting data at speeds exceeding 100 Gbps.
• Medical Uses: In the field of medicine, optical fibers are utilized in endoscopy. This allows doctors to view the internal organs of a patient by inserting a flexible tube that carries light into the body and brings images back out.
• Industrial and Defense Applications: They are used in sensors to monitor temperature, pressure, and stress in structures like bridges and aircraft. Because they transmit light rather than electricity, they are immune to Electromagnetic Interference (EMI).
• Historical Context: The concept of guiding light through refraction was demonstrated in the 1840s, but the modern optical fiber was pioneered by Narinder Singh Kapany in 1956. He is widely regarded as the "Father of Fiber Optics."

Important Points

• Critical Angle: This is the specific angle of incidence for which the angle of refraction is 90 degrees. If the incidence angle is increased beyond this, Total Internal Reflection occurs.
• Signal Attenuation: Although TIR is highly efficient, some signal loss occurs over very long distances due to absorption and scattering within the glass. This is why optical repeaters are placed at intervals in transoceanic cables.
• Types of Fibers:
• Single-mode Fiber: Has a very small core and is used for long-distance communication.
• Multi-mode Fiber: Has a larger core and is typically used for short-distance communication, such as within a building or a campus network.
• Refractive Index Values: For a typical silica fiber, the core refractive index is approximately 1.46, and the cladding is approximately 1.45. This slight difference is sufficient to maintain the guiding of light pulses.

The correct answer is Atlantic Ocean.

Key Points

• The Indian Peninsula is a large landmass in South Asia that is surrounded by water on three sides. It is bounded by the Arabian Sea to the west, the Bay of Bengal to the east, and the Indian Ocean to the south.
• Atlantic Ocean: It is the second-largest ocean in the world, covering approximately 20% of the Earth's surface. It separates the Americas from Europe and Africa. Since it is located far to the west of the Indian subcontinent, it does not surround or touch the Indian Peninsula. Hence, statement 1 is correct as the ocean not surrounding the peninsula.
• Arabian Sea: This sea forms the northwestern part of the Indian Ocean. it is located between the Arabian Peninsula and the Indian subcontinent. It washes the western coast of India, including states like Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, and Kerala. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Bay of Bengal: This is the northeastern part of the Indian Ocean, bounded on the west and northwest by India, on the north by Bangladesh, and on the east by Myanmar and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. It washes the eastern shores of states like West Bengal, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Indian Ocean: It is the third-largest oceanic division in the world. The Indian Peninsula juts into this ocean, and its southern tip, Kanyakumari, is the point where the waters of the Arabian Sea, Bay of Bengal, and Indian Ocean meet. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Indian Peninsula Features: The peninsula is primarily composed of the Deccan Plateau. It is one of the oldest geological formations in the world, dating back to the Precambrian era. It is stable and consists mostly of igneous and metamorphic rocks.
• Coastline Data: India has a total coastline length of 7,516.6 km. Out of this, the mainland coastline is 5,422.6 km, while the island territories (Andaman & Nicobar and Lakshadweep) contribute 2,094 km. Gujarat has the longest coastline among the Indian states.
• Maritime Boundaries: India shares maritime boundaries with several countries including Sri Lanka, Maldives, Indonesia, Thailand, Myanmar, Pakistan, and Bangladesh. The Palk Strait and Gulf of Mannar separate India from Sri Lanka.
• Strategic Significance: The surrounding water bodies are crucial for international trade. The Indian Ocean handles a massive volume of global oil and gas shipments, particularly through the Strait of Hormuz and the Strait of Malacca. Major Indian ports such as Jawaharlal Nehru Port (Mumbai), Chennai Port, and Visakhapatnam Port are vital for the economy.

Important Points

• Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ): Under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), India has an EEZ extending 200 nautical miles from its coast, giving it sovereign rights over fishing, mineral resources, and undersea oil exploration in an area of approximately 2.37 million square km.
• Monsoon Influence: The Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal are the primary sources of moisture for the Indian Monsoon. The Southwest Monsoon (June to September) originates over the Indian Ocean and splits into two branches—the Arabian Sea branch and the Bay of Bengal branch—to bring rainfall to the Indian subcontinent.
• Biodiversity: The coastal regions and surrounding seas are home to diverse ecosystems, including mangroves (such as the Sundarbans in the Bay of Bengal) and coral reefs (found in Lakshadweep and the Gulf of Mannar).

The correct answer is Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

Key Points

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central banking institution of the Republic of India, established on April 1, 1935, under the provisions of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. It acts as the primary regulator of the Indian banking system and is the lead institution promoting financial inclusion.
• The RBI has been instrumental in the success of the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY), which was launched on August 28, 2014. The scheme aims to provide universal access to banking facilities with at least one basic banking account for every household.
• To facilitate Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT), the RBI ensures the robustness of the Aadhaar Payment Bridge (APB) system. This allows the Government of India to transfer subsidies directly into the bank accounts of beneficiaries, reducing leakages and delays.
• The RBI regulates and supervises Aadhaar-enabled payments, ensuring that the Aadhaar-enabled Payment System (AePS) operates securely. This system allows customers to use Aadhaar as their identity to access their respective Aadhaar-enabled bank accounts and perform basic banking transactions like withdrawals and deposits.
• In 2019, the RBI released the National Strategy for Financial Inclusion (2019-2024). This document sets out the vision and key objectives to expand the reach of formal financial services to every village within a 5 km radius or a hamlet of 500 households in hilly areas.

Additional Information

• Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI):
• Established on April 2, 1990, under an Act of Parliament.
• Its primary function is to promote, finance, and develop the Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSME) sector.
• Headquartered in Lucknow, it provides refinance facilities and short-term lending to industries.
• National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI):
• Incorporated in December 2008, it is an umbrella organization for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India.
• It is an initiative of the RBI and the Indian Banks' Association (IBA) under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.
• It manages products like UPI (Unified Payments Interface), RuPay, IMPS, and BHIM.
• National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD):
• Established on July 12, 1982, based on the recommendations of the B. Sivaraman Committee.
• It is the apex regulatory body for the overall regulation of regional rural banks and apex cooperative banks in India.
• It focuses on rural development and providing credit flow for agriculture and small-scale industries.
• Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) Features:
• Offers a Basic Savings Bank Deposit (BSBD) account with no requirement for a minimum balance.
• Provides an inbuilt Accident Insurance Cover of Rs. 2 lakh (for accounts opened after August 28, 2018) and an Overdraft (OD) facility of up to Rs. 10,000.

Important Points

• Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index): The RBI introduced a composite Financial Inclusion Index in 2021 to capture the extent of financial inclusion across the country. The index comprises three parameters: Access (35%), Usage (45%), and Quality (20%).
• BC Model: To reach unbanked areas, the RBI promotes the Business Correspondent (BC) model, where bank agents provide services at locations other than a bank branch/ATM, using ICT-based solutions.
• Lead Bank Scheme (LBS): Launched in 1969, this scheme assigns a "lead" role to individual banks (public and private) for the districts allotted to them to maximize financial inclusion and rural lending.

The correct answer is Munshi Premchand.

Key Points

• Godan, which translates to 'The Gift of a Cow', is a famous Hindi and Urdu novel written by Munshi Premchand.
• It was first published in 1936 and is widely considered one of the greatest Hindustani novels of modern Indian literature.
• The novel provides a realistic depiction of the socio-economic struggles of the peasantry in North India during the colonial era.
• The plot centers around a poor peasant named Hori Mahato and his wife Dhania, highlighting their desire to own a cow as a symbol of prestige and religious salvation.
• Through Godan, the author criticizes the exploitation of the poor by money-lenders, landlords (Zamindars), and the priestly class.

Additional Information

• Munshi Premchand:
• His real name was Dhanpat Rai Srivastava, and he was born on 31 July 1880 in Lamhi, near Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh.
• He is often referred to as 'Upanyas Samrat' (Emperor of Novels) for his significant contribution to literature.
• His other notable works include Gaban, Karmabhoomi, Seva Sadan, Nirmala, and the short story collection Mansarovar.
• Premchand initially wrote under the pseudonym Nawab Rai before switching to Premchand.
• R. K. Narayan:
• An Indian writer known for his works set in the fictional South Indian town of Malgudi.
• His famous books include Swami and Friends, The Bachelor of Arts, and The Guide.
• He was born in 1906 in Madras (now Chennai) and was a recipient of the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1958.
• Mulk Raj Anand:
• One of the pioneers of Indo-Anglian fiction, born in 1905 in Peshawar.
• He is best known for his protest novels Untouchable (1935) and Coolie (1936), which highlight the lives of the oppressed classes.
• Rabindranath Tagore:
• A polymath who reshaped Bengali literature and music, born on 7 May 1861 in Calcutta.
• He became the first non-European to win the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1913 for his collection Gitanjali.
• He composed the national anthems of India (Jana Gana Mana) and Bangladesh (Amar Shonar Bangla).

Important Points

• The novel Godan represents the transition in Premchand's writing style from Idealism to Social Realism.
• It illustrates the complex dynamics of the caste system and rural economics in 20th-century India.
• The book was translated into English in 1957 by Jai Ratan and P. Lal, making it accessible to a global audience.
• Godan has been adapted into several films and television series, notably the 1963 film starring Raj Kumar and Meena Kumari.
• The central character Hori has become an immortal figure in Indian literature, representing the resilient yet tragic Indian farmer.

The correct answer is Satyavarman around 680–700 CE.

Key Points

• Ishana-varman (around 550–576 CE) was the son of Ishvaravarman and is considered the first truly independent and powerful ruler of the Maukhari dynasty. He was the first to assume the title of Maharajadhiraja (King of Kings). His reign was marked by significant military successes against the Andhras, the Sulikas, and the Gauda people of Bengal. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Sarvavarman (around 576–580 CE) succeeded his father Ishana-varman. He continued the expansionist policies and successfully defeated the Later Gupta king Damodaragupta, ensuring the safety and dominance of the Maukhari kingdom in North India. His name is found in the Asirgarh copper seal. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Avantivarman (around 580–600 CE) was the son and successor of Sarvavarman. Under his rule, the Maukhari Empire reached its political and cultural zenith. He extended the empire's boundaries and maintained a stable administration from the capital city of Kanyakubja (Kannauj). Hence, statement 4 is correct.
• Satyavarman is not part of the primary imperial chronology of the Maukhari rulers of Kannauj. The dynasty essentially lost its independent status after the death of Grahavarman (son of Avantivarman) around 605 CE, when Harshavardhana of the Pushyabhuti dynasty eventually united the Kannauj throne with his own. There is no historical evidence of a major Maukhari emperor named Satyavarman ruling between 680–700 CE. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Origin and Capital: The Maukharis were a powerful post-Gupta dynasty that established their primary seat of power at Kannauj (in present-day Uttar Pradesh). They rose to prominence in the 6th century CE as the Gupta Empire began to fragment.
• Geographical Extent: At its peak, the Maukhari kingdom covered a large portion of the Indo-Gangetic plain, including parts of modern Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, and Magadha. Kannauj became the "imperial city" of India, a status it held for centuries.
• Literary and Inscriptional Evidence: Much of what is known about the Maukharis comes from the Haraha Inscription (dated 554 CE), the Asirgarh seal, and the Harshacharita written by Banabhatta. The Haraha Inscription specifically provides a detailed lineage of the early kings.
• Marriage Alliances: The Maukharis famously formed a marriage alliance with the Pushyabhuti dynasty of Thanesar. Grahavarman married Rajyashri, the sister of Harshavardhana. This alliance was intended to counter the threat from the Later Guptas and Shashanka of Gauda.

Important Points

• The Title Maharajadhiraja: The transition from Maharaja to Maharajadhiraja starting with Ishana-varman signifies the dynasty's shift from being feudatories (likely of the Guptas) to becoming a sovereign imperial power.
• Administrative Features: They maintained a robust military with specialized units of elephants and cavalry, which were essential for defending North India against Huna invasions and internal rivals.
• End of the Dynasty: The assassination of Grahavarman by Devagupta (king of Malwa) and Shashanka of Gauda led to a political crisis. This eventually allowed Harshavardhana to take control of Kannauj, effectively ending the Maukhari line of succession.
• Coinage: The Maukharis issued silver coins patterned after the Gupta and Huna styles, which circulated widely in Central and Northern India during the 6th century.

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh.

Key Points

• According to the 2011 Census, Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state in India. Its total population was recorded at approximately 19,98,12,341 (nearly 20 crore).
• The population of Uttar Pradesh represents about 16.5% of the total population of India.
• The state has a population density of 829 persons per sq km, which is significantly higher than the national average.
• The decadal growth rate of the population in Uttar Pradesh during the period 2001-2011 was 20.23%.
• In terms of gender, the sex ratio in the state was 912 females for every 1000 males, as per the 2011 data.
• If Uttar Pradesh were considered a separate nation, it would be the fifth most populous country in the world, ranking just after China, India, the United States, and Indonesia.

Additional Information

• Maharashtra (Option 3):
• It is the second most populous state in India.
• According to the 2011 Census, its population was 11.23 crore, accounting for 9.28% of the total Indian population.
• Bihar (Option 1):
• It stands as the third most populous state with a population of 10.40 crore.
• Bihar holds the record for the highest population density in India, with 1,106 persons per sq km.
• West Bengal (Option 2):
• It is the fourth most populous state in the country.
• Its population was 9.12 crore in 2011, and it has a high population density of 1,028 persons per sq km.
• Madhya Pradesh:
• It ranks fifth in terms of population with 7.26 crore people as per the 2011 data.

Important Points

• The Census 2011 was the 15th National Census of India since 1872 and the 7th since Independence.
• The slogan of the 2011 Census was "Our Census, Our Future."
• Sikkim was identified as the least populous state in India, with a population of only 6,10,577.
• Among Union Territories, Delhi (NCT) is the most populous, while Lakshadweep is the least populous with 64,473 people.
• The literacy rate of the country was 74.04%, with Kerala maintaining the highest literacy at 94%.
• The overall sex ratio of India was 943 females per 1000 males.

The correct answer is 1556.

Key Points

• The Second Battle of Panipat was a historic conflict fought on November 5, 1556, between the forces of Hemu and the Mughal Emperor Akbar.
• Hemu, also known as Samrat Hem Chandra Vikramaditya, was the Hindu general and Chief Minister of Adil Shah Suri, the ruler of the Suri Dynasty based in Chunar.
• At the time of the battle, Akbar was only 13 years old, having recently succeeded his father Humayun. Due to his young age, the Mughal forces were led by his regent and guardian, Bairam Khan.
• The battle took place at Panipat, a strategic location in the modern-day state of Haryana, which had previously been the site of the First Battle of Panipat in 1526.
• The outcome was a decisive Mughal victory, which effectively ended the Afghan challenge to the Mughal throne and solidified Akbar's rule over North India.

Additional Information

• Hemu's Rise to Power: Hemu was a former merchant who rose to become the Prime Minister of Adil Shah Suri. He had reportedly won 22 consecutive battles against Afghan rebels and Mughal forces. Before the Panipat encounter, he captured Agra and Delhi, declaring himself the sovereign ruler with the title of Vikramaditya.
• The Turning Point of the Battle: Hemu's army was numerically superior and possessed a formidable force of 1,500 war elephants. However, during the height of the battle, a stray arrow struck Hemu in his eye, causing him to collapse. Seeing their leader fall, his army descended into chaos and fled the battlefield.
• Bairam Khan: He was a brilliant military commander and statesman who served as the Vakil-i-Mutlaq (Regent) from 1556 to 1560. His leadership at Panipat is credited with saving the fledgling Mughal Empire from collapse.
• First Battle of Panipat (1526): This was fought between Babur and Ibrahim Lodi on April 21, 1526. It marked the beginning of the Mughal Empire in India and the introduction of gunpowder and artillery on a large scale in the subcontinent.
• Third Battle of Panipat (1761): Fought on January 14, 1761, between the Maratha Empire and the invading Afghan army of Ahmad Shah Abdali. This battle resulted in a massive defeat for the Marathas and stalled their expansion toward the north.

Important Points

• Geographical Significance: Panipat was known as the "Gateway to Delhi." Most invaders from the North-West had to pass through this flat terrain to reach the capital, making it a natural choice for major military engagements.
• The Suri Dynasty: The death of Hemu and the defeat at Panipat marked the final decline of the Suri Empire, which had been established by Sher Shah Suri in 1540 after defeating Humayun at the Battle of Kanauj.
• Akbar's Consolidation: Following the victory in 1556, Akbar reoccupied Delhi and Agra. Within a few years, he ended the regency of Bairam Khan in 1560 to take full control of the empire, eventually becoming one of India's greatest rulers.
• Historical Data: Historians estimate that Hemu commanded nearly 30,000 to 50,000 troops, while the Mughal army under Bairam Khan consisted of approximately 10,000 to 20,000 soldiers, highlighting the tactical nature of the Mughal victory.

The correct answer is Transportation.

Key Points

• According to the Economic Survey 2022-23, the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) was launched with a projected infrastructure investment of around Rs. 111 lakh crore for the period FY 2020-2025.
• As of January 2023, the Transportation sector, which encompasses sub-sectors like Roads, Railways, Airports, and Ports, holds the highest number of projects and a dominant share in the total investment. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The Energy sector is another major component of the NIP, accounting for approximately 24% of the total project value, but it ranks behind the combined transportation sub-sectors in terms of the volume of individual projects. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Social Infrastructure, which includes sectors such as Education, Health, and Family Welfare, accounts for a smaller portion of the pipeline compared to the core economic infrastructure sectors. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Commercial Infrastructure refers to projects like warehousing, telecommunications, and industrial parks; while vital, it does not match the scale or project count of the transportation sector within the NIP framework. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
• The NIP serves as a forward-looking roadmap to provide world-class infrastructure across the country, aiming to improve the Ease of Living and Ease of Doing Business.

Additional Information

• National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP):
• The NIP was first announced by the Prime Minister during the Independence Day speech in 2019. It is a first-of-its-kind, whole-of-government exercise to provide world-class infrastructure to citizens.
• As of January 2023, the NIP has expanded from the initial 6,835 projects to over 9,000 projects across 34 sub-sectors.
• The central government (39%) and state governments (40%) are expected to have an almost equal share in implementing the NIP, followed by the private sector (21%).
• Sector-wise breakdown:
• Roads: This sub-sector accounts for nearly 19% of the total NIP investment, focusing on National Highways and Expressways.
• Railways: This sector constitutes approximately 13% of the pipeline, emphasizing modernization of tracks, high-speed rail, and station redevelopment.
• Energy: Focused on Renewable Energy, Power Generation, and Transmission, it remains a pillar of sustainable development goals.
• Implementation and Monitoring:
• The NIP projects are monitored through the India Investment Grid (IIG), an interactive web-based portal that showcases investment opportunities in India to global investors.
• It is closely integrated with the PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan to ensure multi-modal connectivity and integrated planning of infrastructure.

Important Points

• Economic Survey 2022-23 Insights:
• The Economic Survey highlighted that public investment in infrastructure has a high multiplier effect on the economy, leading to job creation and increased demand.
• The National Monetisation Pipeline (NMP) was launched in August 2021 as a companion to the NIP to unlock the value of brownfield infrastructure assets.
• The FY 2023 period saw significant progress in digital infrastructure and rural connectivity, which are now becoming core components of the infrastructure theme.
• The National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID) was established in 2021 as a Development Financial Institution (DFI) to provide long-term finance for NIP projects.

The correct answer is Removing barriers to trade among member countries.

Key Points

• A trade bloc is a type of intergovernmental agreement, often part of a regional intergovernmental organization, where regional barriers to trade (such as tariffs and non-tariff barriers) are reduced or eliminated among the participating states.
• The primary objective of these blocs is to foster economic integration and increase economic efficiency by allowing the free movement of goods, services, capital, and sometimes labor.
• European Union (EU): Formed officially in 1993 via the Maastricht Treaty, it is the most integrated trade bloc in the world. It operates a Single Market with 27 member countries and uses a common currency, the Euro, for 20 of those members. It aims to eliminate all internal trade obstacles. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
• North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA): Established in 1994 between the United States, Canada, and Mexico, its goal was to eliminate tariffs on most goods traded between these nations. It was replaced by the United States-Mexico-Canada Agreement (USMCA) in July 2020.
• Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN): Established on August 8, 1967, in Bangkok, Thailand, it consists of 10 member states. It focuses on accelerating economic growth and social progress through the ASEAN Free Trade Area (AFTA).
• Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC): Created in 1989, it includes 21 member economies along the Pacific Rim. Unlike the EU, it operates on the basis of non-binding commitments and open dialogue to facilitate trade and investment.
• Analysis of other options: Statement 1 is incorrect because the goal is cooperation, not rivalry. Statement 2 is incorrect because the goal is to remove barriers, not impose them. Statement 3 is incorrect as these blocs aim for market expansion, not isolation.

Additional Information

• Levels of Integration: Trade blocs can exist at various stages, starting from a Preferential Trade Area (PTA), moving to a Free Trade Area (FTA), a Customs Union (with a common external tariff), a Common Market (free movement of factors of production), and an Economic Union.
• Trade Creation: This occurs when high-cost domestic production is replaced by low-cost imports from other members within the trade bloc, leading to an increase in consumer welfare.
• Economies of Scale: By accessing a larger market, firms within the member countries can increase their production levels and reduce average costs, making them more competitive globally.
• Foreign Direct Investment (FDI): Trade blocs often see an influx of FDI as companies from non-member countries (like Japan or China) set up factories within the bloc to avoid external tariffs and gain access to the integrated market.
• World Trade Organization (WTO): While the WTO promotes global free trade, it allows regional trade blocs under Article XXIV of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), provided they facilitate trade between members without raising barriers to non-members.

Important Points

• Trade Diversion: This is a potential disadvantage where trade is shifted from a more efficient non-member to a less efficient member simply because of the preferential tariff treatment.
• Sovereignty Issues: Deeper integration, such as in the European Union, often requires member nations to surrender some political sovereignty to central institutions (like the European Parliament) to maintain common standards and laws.
• Mercosur: Another significant trade bloc located in South America, established in 1991 by the Treaty of Asunción, consisting of Argentina, Brazil, Paraguay, and Uruguay.
• African Continental Free Trade Area (AfCFTA): Launched in 2018 and effective from 2021, it is the largest free trade area in the world by the number of participating countries (54), aiming to boost intra-African trade.

The correct answer is R. Ashwin.

Key Points

• The book titled 'I Have the Streets: A Kutty Cricket Story' is an insightful memoir authored by the legendary Indian off-spinner Ravichandran Ashwin, commonly known as R. Ashwin.
• The book was co-authored by the noted cricket writer and journalist Sidharth Monga and was officially released in June 2024.
• It focuses on Ashwin’s journey from the narrow lanes of West Mambalam in Chennai to the international cricket arena. The term “Kutty” in the title translates to “small” or “mini” in Tamil, referring to the street-style cricket he played during his childhood.
• The narrative provides a detailed account of his early life, his struggles with health issues during his teenage years, and his transition from being a middle-order batsman and medium-pacer to becoming one of the greatest off-spinners in the history of the game.
• The memoir is published by Penguin Random House India and is noted for its candid storytelling regarding the Chennai cricket culture and the technical mindset Ashwin developed while playing in the streets.

Additional Information

• Sachin Tendulkar: One of the greatest cricketers of all time, Sachin Tendulkar released his autobiography titled 'Playing It My Way' in November 2014. The book covers his 24-year international career and was co-authored by Boria Majumdar.
• Rahul Dravid: Known as "The Wall", Rahul Dravid has been the subject of several biographical works. A prominent one is 'The Nice Guy Who Finished First', written by Devendra Prabhudesai and published in 2005. He also served as the Head Coach of the Indian National Team until 2024.
• M.S. Dhoni: While Mahendra Singh Dhoni has not authored a traditional autobiography yet, his life story was famously captured in the 2016 biographical film 'M.S. Dhoni: The Untold Story'. He is the only captain to win all three ICC trophies (T20 World Cup 2007, ODI World Cup 2011, and Champions Trophy 2013).
• Ravichandran Ashwin’s Career: Born on September 17, 1986, in Tamil Nadu, Ashwin made his Test debut in 2011 against the West Indies. In February 2024, he became only the second Indian bowler after Anil Kumble to take 500 Test wickets.

Important Points

• Awards and Accolades: R. Ashwin was honored with the Arjuna Award in 2013 by the Government of India. He also won the ICC Cricketer of the Year (Sir Garfield Sobers Trophy) and ICC Test Player of the Year in 2016.
• Educational Background: Unlike many professional athletes, Ashwin holds a B.Tech degree in Information Technology from SSN College of Engineering, Chennai, reflecting his analytical and technical approach to cricket.
• Social Impact: The book 'I Have the Streets' is considered unique in sports literature because it emphasizes the formative years and the grit developed in local communities rather than just focusing on international accolades and professional statistics.

The correct answer is Client protection.

Key Points

• Client protection is a fundamental principle in microfinance that ensures financial services are provided in a transparent, respectful, and fair manner to avoid harming vulnerable low-income borrowers. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
• It involves implementing safeguards to prevent over-indebtedness, ensuring transparent pricing (where all interest rates and fees are clearly disclosed), and establishing robust grievance redressal mechanisms for clients.
• Portfolio diversification refers to a strategy used by Microfinance Institutions (MFIs) to spread their credit risk across different geographical locations, sectors (like agriculture, retail, or small-scale manufacturing), and demographics to ensure institutional stability. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Financial sustainability is the ability of an MFI to cover all its operating expenses and loan losses from its own generated income (interest and fees) without relying on ongoing government subsidies or donor grants. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Market competition occurs when multiple financial service providers operate in the same area, which can lead to better product features and lower costs; however, without client protection, intense competition can lead to aggressive lending and borrower distress. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• The Smart Campaign: This was a global initiative that codified seven Client Protection Principles (CPPs) to guide MFIs. These principles include Prevention of Over-indebtedness, Transparent and Responsible Pricing, Appropriate Collections Practices, Ethical Staff Behavior, Mechanisms for Complaint Resolution, and Privacy of Client Data.
• Regulatory Framework in India: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the primary regulator for Microfinance. Based on the Malegam Committee recommendations in 2011, the RBI created a separate category of NBFC-MFIs. In March 2022, the RBI issued a Regulatory Framework for Microfinance Loans, which harmonized rules for all lenders, including Commercial Banks, Small Finance Banks, and NBFCs.
• Microfinance Loan Definition: As per current Indian regulations, a microfinance loan is defined as a collateral-free loan given to a household having an annual income of up to ₹3,00,000. This income limit is uniform for both rural and urban areas.
• Self-Help Group (SHG) Bank Linkage Programme: Launched by NABARD in 1992, this is one of the most successful microfinance models in India. It focuses on financial inclusion for women, allowing them to save and borrow collectively from formal banks.

Important Points

• Prevention of Over-indebtedness: Lenders must conduct due diligence on the repayment capacity of the borrower. In India, the RBI mandates that the monthly loan repayment obligation of a household should not exceed 50% of its monthly income.
• Role of Credit Bureaus: MFIs must report loan data to Credit Information Companies (CICs) like Equifax, Experian, CIBIL, or CRIF High Mark. This helps in checking the credit history of a borrower to ensure they are not taking multiple loans (often called double-dipping) beyond their means.
• Social Performance Management (SPM): This is the process of translating a microfinance institution's social mission into practice. It involves not just financial returns, but also measuring social impact, such as poverty reduction, education, and healthcare improvements for clients.
• Interest Rate Caps: While the RBI has moved toward deregulated interest rates for MFIs, it insists that the rates must be not usurious and must be transparently disclosed to the borrower via a Facts Statement or Loan Card.

The correct answer is Hindustan Zinc Limited.

Key Points

• Hindustan Zinc Limited (HZL), a subsidiary of the Vedanta Group, officially launched Asia’s first low-carbon "green" zinc branded as EcoZen in June 2024.
• The product EcoZen is manufactured using renewable energy, which significantly reduces its carbon intensity. The carbon footprint of this green zinc is recorded at less than 1 tonne of carbon dioxide equivalent (CO2e) per tonne of zinc produced.
• This launch marks a significant milestone in the mining and metals industry, as it offers a 75% reduction in carbon footprint compared to the global average for zinc production.
• The primary application of EcoZen is in the galvanizing process of steel, which is essential for infrastructure, automobiles, and renewable energy sectors like solar and wind power.
• The certification for the low-carbon footprint of EcoZen is based on a comprehensive Life Cycle Assessment (LCA), ensuring transparency and adherence to global environmental standards.

Additional Information

• Hindustan Zinc Limited (HZL): Headquartered in Udaipur, Rajasthan, it is the world’s second-largest integrated zinc producer and holds a dominant market share of about 75% in India's primary zinc market.
• Sustainability Goals: The company has committed to achieving Net Zero emissions by 2050 or sooner, aligning with the Science Based Targets initiative (SBTi) to mitigate climate change.
• Global Context: Zinc is the fourth most used metal in the world after iron, aluminum, and copper. By introducing EcoZen, India positions itself as a leader in the global shift toward sustainable mining practices.
• Economic Impact: The production of low-carbon zinc helps downstream industries (like Tata Steel or JSW Steel) reduce their Scope 3 emissions, which is becoming a mandatory requirement for exports to regions like the European Union under the Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM).
• Vedanta Limited: As the parent organization of HZL, Vedanta is a diversified natural resources company with operations in oil and gas, zinc, lead, silver, aluminum, and iron ore across India, South Africa, and Namibia.

Important Points

• Technical Features: EcoZen maintains the same high-quality chemical properties as traditional zinc, ensuring that the durability and corrosion resistance of the galvanized products are not compromised.
• Renewable Energy Integration: To produce EcoZen, Hindustan Zinc utilizes power from solar and wind projects, moving away from coal-based thermal power plants.
• Date of Significance: The year 2024 is pivotal as India ramps up its National Green Hydrogen Mission and other decarbonization strategies, making the launch of EcoZen a timely contribution to the national ESG (Environmental, Social, and Governance) targets.
• Industrial Use: Zinc is vital for protecting steel from rusting; therefore, EcoZen is highly sought after for building sustainable cities and green buildings.

The correct answer is Article 9.

Key Points

• Article 9 of the Indian Constitution explicitly states that no person shall be a citizen of India by virtue of Article 5, or be deemed to be a citizen of India by virtue of Article 6 or Article 8, if he has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of any foreign State. Hence, the correct answer is Article 9.
• The provision underscores the principle of single citizenship in India, meaning the Constitution of India does not allow dual citizenship for its nationals.
• Article 6 deals with the rights of citizenship of certain persons who have migrated to India from Pakistan. It sets a cut-off date of 19 July 1948 for such migrations to determine citizenship eligibility. Hence, this statement is incorrect in the context of the question.
• Article 11 gives the Parliament of India the power to regulate the right of citizenship by law. It clarifies that the provisions of Articles 5 to 10 do not limit the power of Parliament to make any provision with respect to the acquisition and termination of citizenship. Hence, this statement is incorrect in the context of the question.
• Article 8 provides citizenship rights to certain Persons of Indian Origin (PIO) residing outside India. It allows them to become Indian citizens if they or either of their parents or any of their grandparents were born in undivided India and they are registered as a citizen of India by the diplomatic or consular representative of India. Hence, this statement is incorrect in the context of the question.

Additional Information

• Part II of the Constitution:
• The provisions related to citizenship are enshrined in Part II of the Constitution of India, spanning from Article 5 to Article 11.
• These articles only identify the persons who became citizens of India at its commencement on 26 January 1950.
• The Constitution does not contain permanent or elaborate provisions regarding citizenship; it leaves the same to be handled by the Parliament via specific legislation.
• The Citizenship Act, 1955:
• Acting under the power granted by Article 11, the Parliament enacted the Citizenship Act, 1955, which provides for the acquisition and loss of citizenship after the commencement of the Constitution.
• Citizenship can be acquired in five ways: Birth, Descent, Registration, Naturalization, and Incorporation of Territory.
• Citizenship can be lost in three ways: Renunciation (voluntary give up), Termination (when another country's citizenship is acquired), and Deprivation (compulsory termination by the Central Government).
• Article 5 - Citizenship by Birth/Domicile:
• It provides citizenship to people who had their domicile in India at the commencement of the Constitution and were born in India, or either of whose parents were born in India, or who had been ordinarily resident in India for not less than 5 years.
• Article 7 - Rights of Migrants to Pakistan:
• This article states that a person who migrated to Pakistan from India after 1 March 1947, but later returned to India for resettlement, could become an Indian citizen.

Important Points

• Single Citizenship: Unlike the USA, where there is dual citizenship (National and State), the Indian Constitution provides for only Single Citizenship. This was adopted from the British Constitution to promote fraternity and unity among the citizens.
• Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI): While India does not allow dual citizenship, the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2003 introduced the OCI scheme for Persons of Indian Origin (PIOs) of certain categories. It is not actual citizenship but a long-term visa with certain rights, excluding the right to vote or hold constitutional posts.
• Role of the Ministry of Home Affairs: The Ministry of Home Affairs is the nodal ministry in India responsible for matters related to citizenship, including the processing of OCI cards and naturalization certificates.
• Termination under the Act: While Article 9 handles the cessation of citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution, Section 9 of the Citizenship Act, 1955 handles the termination of citizenship if an Indian citizen acquires the citizenship of another country in the present day.

The correct answer is Lakshminarayan Shastri.

Key Points

• Sitara Devi: She was an eminent Indian dancer of the classical Kathak style, often referred to as the "Kathak Queen" by Rabindranath Tagore. Born in 1920 and passing away in 2014, she was a recipient of the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in 1969 and the Padma Shri in 1973. Hence, statement 1 is associated with Kathak.
• Birju Maharaj: Pandit Birju Maharaj (Brijmohan Mishra) was a legendary figure and a doyen of the Lucknow Kalka-Bindadin gharana of Kathak. Born in 1938, he was a master of rhythm and expression, receiving the Padma Vibhushan in 1986 for his immense contributions. Hence, statement 2 is associated with Kathak.
• Shobhana Narayan: She is a distinguished Kathak artist and a disciple of Birju Maharaj. Known for her graceful performances and depth of knowledge, she was awarded the Padma Shri in 1992. She is also a retired officer of the Indian Audit and Accounts Service. Hence, statement 3 is associated with Kathak.
• Lakshminarayan Shastri: Vedantam Lakshminarayan Shastri was a prominent figure in Kuchipudi, a classical dance form from Andhra Pradesh, not Kathak. He is credited with reforming Kuchipudi by introducing solo items and training women in the art form, which was traditionally performed by men. Hence, statement 4 is not associated with Kathak and is the correct answer.

Additional Information

• Kathak Dance Style:
• Kathak is one of the eight classical dances of India, originating from North India. The word is derived from "Katha," meaning storytelling.
• The dance is characterized by intricate footwork known as Tatkar, fast pirouettes called Chakkars, and expressive facial movements (Abhinaya).
• There are three major schools or Gharanas of Kathak: Lucknow, Jaipur, and Benaras. The Raigarh gharana is also recognized for its unique blend of these styles.
• It is the only Indian classical dance that has a strong historical link with Mughal culture, which influenced its costumes and performance style in the medieval period.
• Classical Dances of India:
• The Sangeet Natak Akademi currently recognizes eight classical dances: Bharatnatyam (Tamil Nadu), Kathak (North India), Kathakali (Kerala), Kuchipudi (Andhra Pradesh), Odissi (Odisha), Sattriya (Assam), Manipuri (Manipur), and Mohiniyattam (Kerala).
• The Ministry of Culture also includes Chhau in this list, making it nine classical dances under their guidelines.

Important Points

• Vedantam Lakshminarayan Shastri’s Contribution:
• He lived between 1886 and 1956 and is considered a path-breaker in the Kuchipudi tradition.
• He introduced nuances like Gajba (performing on the rim of a brass plate) and emphasized the Laysa (graceful) aspect of the dance.
• His work shifted Kuchipudi from a dance-drama (Yakshagana) format to a solo performance art, making it accessible for modern stages.
• Kathak Terminology:
• Thaat: The initial sequence where the dancer stands in a stylized pose.
• Amad: The first introduction of spoken rhythmic syllables.
• Tukra and Tora: Small compositions based on rhythmic patterns.
• Tarana: A composition usually performed towards the end, focusing on pure technical movement.

The correct answer is Government of India.

Key Points

• The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is a statutory body established by the Government of India under the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare.
• It was established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, which is a consolidating statute related to food safety and regulation in India.
• The primary objective of FSSAI is to lay down science-based standards for articles of food and to regulate their manufacture, storage, distribution, sale, and import.
• The headquarters of the FSSAI is located in New Delhi, and it serves as the apex body for ensuring the availability of safe and wholesome food for human consumption.
• By establishing this autonomous body, the Government of India aimed to create a single point of reference for all matters relating to food safety and standards, moving away from multi-level, multi-departmental control to a single line of command.

Additional Information

• Legislative Background: Before the inception of FSSAI, food safety was governed by multiple laws, including the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954, the Fruit Products Order, 1955, and the Meat Food Products Order, 1973. All these were repealed and replaced by the FSS Act, 2006.
• Administrative Structure: The authority consists of a Chairperson and 22 members. Notably, one-third of the total members must be women. The Chairperson is appointed by the Central Government and must hold a rank not below the Secretary to the Government of India.
• Licensing and Registration: Every Food Business Operator (FBO) in the country is required to obtain an FSSAI license. This involves a 14-digit registration number that provides information about the manufacturer's permit and must be displayed on food packaging.
• Key Initiatives: FSSAI has launched several impactful campaigns such as the Eat Right India movement to promote safe and healthy eating habits, and the Heart Attack Rewind campaign for the elimination of industrially-produced trans-fats in the food supply by the year 2022.
• RUCO (Repurpose Used Cooking Oil): This is an ecosystem that enables the collection and conversion of used cooking oil into biodiesel, preventing the reuse of harmful oil in the food industry.

Important Points

• Date of Establishment: Although the act was passed in 2006, the FSSAI was formally established on 5 September 2008.
• Regional Offices: To ensure strict compliance across the country, FSSAI maintains regional offices in Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, Guwahati, and Cochin.
• Food Testing Network: The authority oversees a vast network of food testing laboratories, including State Food Laboratories and private labs accredited by the National Accreditation Board for Testing and Calibration Laboratories (NABL).
• International Role: FSSAI represents India at the Codex Alimentarius Commission, which is an international body established by the FAO and WHO to set global food standards.
• Functions: It performs critical functions like framing regulations to lay down standards, providing scientific advice and technical support to the Central Government, and contributing to the development of international technical standards for food.

The correct answer is Four months.

Key Points

• According to Article 197 of the Constitution of India, the Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad) has limited powers regarding the passage of ordinary bills compared to the Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha).
• When an ordinary bill is passed by the Legislative Assembly and transmitted to the Legislative Council, the Council can delay the bill for a period of 3 months in the first instance. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect as it only represents the initial delay.
• If the Legislative Assembly passes the bill again (with or without amendments suggested by the Council) and transmits it back, the Legislative Council can only delay it for another 1 month. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• The total maximum period for which the Legislative Council can delay an ordinary bill is 4 months (3 months in the first instance and 1 month in the second instance). After this period, the bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses in the form it was passed by the Assembly for the second time. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Unlike the Parliament of India, there is no provision for a Joint Sitting of both houses in the state legislature to resolve a deadlock over an ordinary bill. The will of the Legislative Assembly ultimately prevails. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Composition of the Legislative Council:
• Under Article 171, the total number of members in the Legislative Council of a state shall not exceed one-third of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly, but it must have a minimum of 40 members.
• Members are elected or nominated as follows: 1/3 by local bodies, 1/12 by graduates of 3 years standing, 1/12 by teachers, 1/3 by members of the Legislative Assembly, and the remaining 1/6 are nominated by the Governor from fields like literature, science, art, cooperative movement, and social service.
• Constitutional Status and States:
• The Legislative Council is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution. However, one-third of its members retire every second year.
• Currently, only 6 states in India have a bicameral legislature (both Assembly and Council): Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, and Karnataka.
• Article 169 empowers the Parliament to create or abolish a Legislative Council in a state if the Legislative Assembly of that state passes a resolution with a special majority.
• Restrictions on Money Bills:
• According to Article 198, a Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Legislative Council; it can only be introduced in the Legislative Assembly on the recommendation of the Governor.
• The Legislative Council has very restricted powers regarding Money Bills and must return the bill to the Assembly within 14 days. If it fails to do so, the bill is deemed passed.

Important Points

• Legislative Primacy: In the Indian state legislative structure, the Legislative Assembly enjoys far greater power than the Legislative Council. While the Rajya Sabha (at the center) can delay an ordinary bill for 6 months and a Joint Sitting is used to resolve conflicts, the state Legislative Council is essentially an advisory body that can only delay legislation.
• Governor's Role: Once a bill is passed by the state legislature, it is sent to the Governor under Article 200. The Governor can give assent, withhold assent, return the bill (if not a Money Bill), or reserve the bill for the consideration of the President of India.
• Historical Context: The States Reorganisation Act and subsequent amendments have seen various states creating or abolishing their councils. For instance, Tamil Nadu abolished its Council in 1986, and West Bengal did so in 1969.
• Member Qualifications: To be a member of the Legislative Council, a person must be a citizen of India and at least 30 years of age, whereas for the Legislative Assembly, the minimum age is 25 years.

The correct answer is Article 19.

Key Points

• Article 19(1)(c) of the Constitution of India explicitly grants all citizens the Fundamental Right to form associations or unions or co-operative societies.
• This right is part of the Right to Freedom cluster, which includes six different democratic freedoms guaranteed under Article 19 to the people of India.
• The provision allows for the formation of political parties, trade unions, clubs, societies, companies, partnership firms, and any body of persons.
• The term "co-operative societies" was added to Article 19(1)(c) via the 97th Constitutional Amendment Act in the year 2011.
• It is important to note that while the right to form an association is a fundamental right, the right to obtain recognition of the association is not a fundamental right.

Additional Information

• Article 14:
• This article ensures Equality before the Law and Equal Protection of the Laws within the territory of India.
• It prohibits the State from discriminating against any person on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
• It is a cornerstone of the Rule of Law in the Indian Constitution.
• Article 20:
• This article provides protection in respect of conviction for offences.
• It includes three major safeguards: No ex-post-facto law (no one can be convicted for an act that was not a crime at the time of commission), No double jeopardy (no person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once), and No self-incrimination (no person accused of an offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself).
• Article 21:
• This article mandates the Protection of Life and Personal Liberty.
• It states that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.
• The Supreme Court has widened its scope to include the Right to Privacy, Right to Education, and Right to a Clean Environment.

Important Points

• Reasonable Restrictions: The freedom to form associations is not absolute; under Article 19(4), the State can impose reasonable restrictions in the interest of the sovereignty and integrity of India, public order, or morality.
• Scope of Right: The right to form associations also includes the negative right of not to join or form any association or union.
• Trade Unions: While workers have the fundamental right to form trade unions, they do not have a fundamental right to strike or declare a lock-out under Article 19(1)(c); these are regulated by industrial laws like the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.
• Applicability: The rights under Article 19 are available only to the citizens of India and not to foreigners or legal persons like companies (though shareholders can claim them).

Given:

Current sales = ₹242,400

1^st year increase = 1%

2^nd year increase = 20%

Formula Used:

Sales after increase = Previous sales × (1 + Percentage increase / 100)

To find previous sales, reverse the formula: Previous sales = Current sales / (1 + Percentage increase / 100)

Calculation:

⇒ Sales after 2^nd year = Sales after 1^st year × (1 + 20 / 100)

⇒ ₹242,400 = Sales after 1^st year × 1.2

⇒ Sales after 1^st year = ₹242,400 / 1.2

⇒ Sales after 1^st year = ₹202,000

⇒ Sales after 1^st year = Previous sales × (1 + 1 / 100)

⇒ ₹202,000 = Previous sales × 1.01

⇒ Previous sales = ₹202,000 / 1.01

⇒ Previous sales = ₹200,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹200,000.

Given:

A can paint the building in 16 days.

B can paint 25% of the building in 3 days.

A and B work on alternate days starting with B.

Formula Used:

Work done in 1 day = Total work / Days taken.

Total work = LCM of individual work efficiencies.

Alternate day work = Sum of work done by both in two consecutive days.

Calculation:

⇒ Work done by A in 1 day = 1 / 16.

⇒ Work done by B in 3 days = 25% of work = 1/4.

⇒ Work done by B in 1 day = (1/4) / 3 = 1 / 12.

⇒ Total work = LCM of 16 and 12 = 48 units.

⇒ Work done by A in 1 day = 48 / 16 = 3 units.

⇒ Work done by B in 1 day = 48 / 12 = 4 units.

⇒ Work done by both in 2 days = 4 (B) + 3 (A) = 7 units.

⇒ Total full cycles of 2 days required = 48 / 7 = 6 cycles (42 units covered).

⇒ Remaining work = 48 - 42 = 6 units.

⇒ On the 13th day, B works and completes 4 units.

⇒ Remaining work = 6 - 4 = 2 units.

⇒ On the 14th day, A works and completes 2 units.

⇒ Total days required = 13 + (2/3) days.

∴ The correct answer is 13231323

.

Given:

A and B together can complete the task in 18 days.

B alone can complete the task in 54 days.

Formula Used:

Work per day = 1 / Total days to complete the task.

Total work = LCM of individual days.

Individual's share of work = Total work × Work per day.

Calculation:

⇒ Total work = LCM(18, 54) = 54 units.

⇒ Work per day of A and B together = 54 / 18 = 3 units/day.

⇒ Work per day of B = 54 / 54 = 1 unit/day.

⇒ Work per day of A = Work per day of (A and B) − Work per day of B.

⇒ Work per day of A = 3 − 1 = 2 units/day.

⇒ Time taken by A alone = Total work / Work per day of A.

⇒ Time taken by A alone = 54 / 2 = 27 days.

∴ The correct answer is 27.

Given:

Speed for the first half = 36 km/hr

Speed for the second half = 48 km/hr

Formula Used:

Average speed = (2 × Speed₁ × Speed₂) / (Speed₁ + Speed₂)

Calculation:

⇒ Average speed = (2 × 36 × 48) / (36 + 48)

⇒ Average speed = (2 × 1728) / 84

⇒ Average speed = 3456 / 84

⇒ Average speed = 41.14 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 41.14 km/hr.

Given:

35% of a number is 42 more than 25% of the number.

Formula Used:

Let the number be x.

35% of x = 0.35x

25% of x = 0.25x

0.35x = 0.25x + 42

Calculation:

⇒ 0.35x - 0.25x = 42

⇒ 0.10x = 42

⇒ x = 42 / 0.10

⇒ x = 420

∴ The correct answer is 420.

Given:

A's capital = ₹375,000

A's time = 12 months

B's time = 3 months

Profit ratio = 8:2

Formula Used:

Investment × Time = Share in profit

A's share : B's share = A's investment × A's time : B's investment × B's time

Calculation:

⇒ A's share : B's share = 8:2

⇒ A's investment × A's time : B's investment × B's time = 8:2

⇒ ₹375,000 × 12 : B's investment × 3 = 8:2

⇒ ₹4,500,000 : B's investment × 3 = 8:2

⇒ ₹4,500,000 / (B's investment × 3) = 8/2

⇒ ₹4,500,000 / (B's investment × 3) = 4

⇒ ₹4,500,000 = 4 × B's investment × 3

⇒ ₹4,500,000 = 12 × B's investment

⇒ B's investment = ₹4,500,000 / 12

⇒ B's investment = ₹375,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹375,000.

Given:

Speed of river = 12 km/hr

Distance downstream = 95 km

Distance upstream = 19 km

Equal time taken for downstream and upstream journeys

Required distances: Downstream = 60 km, Upstream = 68 km

Formula Used:

Time = Distance / Relative speed

Relative speed downstream = Speed of boat + Speed of river

Relative speed upstream = Speed of boat - Speed of river

Calculation:

Let the speed of the boat in still water = x km/hr.

Time downstream = 95 / (x + 12)

Time upstream = 19 / (x - 12)

Given, Time downstream = Time upstream:

⇒ 95 / (x + 12) = 19 / (x - 12)

⇒ 95 × (x - 12) = 19 × (x + 12)

⇒ 95x - 1140 = 19x + 228

⇒ 95x - 19x = 1140 + 228

⇒ 76x = 1368

⇒ x = 1368 / 76

⇒ x = 18 km/hr

Now, calculate the required time:

Relative speed downstream = x + 12 = 18 + 12 = 30 km/hr

Relative speed upstream = x - 12 = 18 - 12 = 6 km/hr

Time for 60 km downstream = 60 / 30 = 2 hours

Time for 68 km upstream = 68 / 6 = 11 hours, 20 minutes

Total time = 2 hours + 11 hours, 20 minutes = 13 hours, 20 minutes

∴ The correct answer is 13 hours, 20 minutes.

Given:

Product of two numbers = 360

LCM of the two numbers = 60

Formula Used:

HCF × LCM = Product of the two numbers

HCF = Product of the two numbers / LCM

Calculation:

⇒ HCF × 60 = 360

⇒ HCF = 360 / 60

⇒ HCF = 6

∴ The correct answer is 6.

Given:

Cost price of the car = ₹958,000

Repair cost = ₹22,000

Profit percentage = 12%

Formula Used:

Total cost price = Cost price of the car + Repair cost

Selling price = Total cost price × (1 + Profit percentage / 100)

Calculation:

⇒ Total cost price = ₹958,000 + ₹22,000

⇒ Total cost price = ₹980,000

⇒ Selling price = ₹980,000 × (1 + 12 / 100)

⇒ Selling price = ₹980,000 × (1 + 0.12)

⇒ Selling price = ₹980,000 × 1.12

⇒ Selling price = ₹10,97,600

∴ The correct answer is ₹10,97,600.

Given:

Cost of 4 guavas of first variety = ₹3

Cost of 1 guava of second variety = ₹3

Equal number of each variety of guavas purchased.

Selling price of all guavas = ₹3 per guava

Formula Used:

Total cost = Cost of first variety + Cost of second variety

Total selling price = Number of guavas × Selling price per guava

Profit percentage = [(Total selling price - Total cost) / Total cost] × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Let the number of guavas of each variety = x

⇒ Cost of x guavas of first variety = (x / 4) × 3 = (3x / 4)

⇒ Cost of x guavas of second variety = x × 3 = 3x

⇒ Total cost = (3x / 4) + 3x = (3x + 12x) / 4 = 15x / 4

⇒ Total number of guavas = x + x = 2x

⇒ Total selling price = 2x × 3 = 6x

⇒ Profit = Total selling price - Total cost = 6x - (15x / 4) = (24x - 15x) / 4 = 9x / 4

⇒ Profit percentage = [(9x / 4) / (15x / 4)] × 100 = (9 / 15) × 100 = 60%

∴ The correct answer is 60%.

Given:

Total students enrolled in college Q in 2019 = 427

Total students enrolled in college S in 2019 = 433

Total students enrolled in college P in 2017 = 318

Total students enrolled in college R in 2017 = 422

Formula Used:

Ratio = (Sum of values for Q and S in 2019) / (Sum of values for P and R in 2017)

Calculation:

⇒ Total students in Q and S in 2019 = 427 + 433 = 860

⇒ Total students in P and R in 2017 = 318 + 422 = 740

⇒ Ratio = 860 / 740

⇒ Ratio = 43:37

∴ The correct answer is 43:37.

Given:

Average of three numbers = 20

First number = 14

Second number = 21

Formula Used:

Average = (Sum of numbers) / Total numbers

Sum of numbers = Average × Total numbers

Calculation:

⇒ Sum of numbers = 20 × 3

⇒ Sum of numbers = 60

⇒ Third number = Sum of numbers - (First number + Second number)

⇒ Third number = 60 - (14 + 21)

⇒ Third number = 60 - 35

⇒ Third number = 25

∴ The correct answer is 25.

Given:

Notebook marked price = ₹60

Discount on notebook = 60%

Pen marked price = ₹100

Discount on pen = 46%

Formula Used:

Discount amount = Marked price × (Discount % / 100)

Total savings = Discount on notebook + Discount on pen

Calculation:

⇒ Discount on notebook = ₹60 × (60 / 100)

⇒ Discount on notebook = ₹36

⇒ Discount on pen = ₹100 × (46 / 100)

⇒ Discount on pen = ₹46

⇒ Total savings = ₹36 + ₹46

⇒ Total savings = ₹82

∴ The correct answer is ₹82.

Given:

Simple Interest (SI) = ₹690

Rate of Interest (R) = 6% per annum

Time (T) = 5 years

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) / 100

Where P = Principal Amount

Calculation:

⇒ 690 = (P × 6 × 5) / 100

⇒ 690 = (30P) / 100

⇒ P = (690 × 100) / 30

⇒ P = 2300

∴ The correct answer is ₹2,300.

Given:

First number = 30

Second number = 60

Third proportional = x

Formula Used:

If a, b, and c are in continued proportion, then b² = a × c.

Calculation:

⇒ 60² = 30 × x

⇒ 3600 = 30 × x

⇒ x = 3600 / 30

⇒ x = 120

∴ The correct answer is 120.

Given:

Length = 33 m

Width = 33 m

Height = 8 m

Formula Used:

Volume of cuboid = Length × Width × Height

Calculation:

⇒ Volume = 33 × 33 × 8

⇒ Volume = 1089 × 8

⇒ Volume = 8712 m³

∴ The correct answer is 8712.

Given:

Average marks of 14 students = 37

Formula Used:

New average = Old average × Multiplication factor

Calculation:

⇒ New average = 37 × 2

⇒ New average = 74

∴ The correct answer is 74.

Given:

Numerator = 938

Denominator = 16 + 7(4 - 6)

Formula Used:

Division formula: Numerator / Denominator

Parentheses first (BODMAS rule): Solve brackets, then multiplication, addition, and subtraction.

Calculation:

⇒ Denominator = 16 + 7(4 - 6)

⇒ Denominator = 16 + 7(-2)

⇒ Denominator = 16 - 14

⇒ Denominator = 2

⇒ Final expression = 938 / 2

⇒ 469

∴ The correct answer is 469.

Given:

Principal (P): ₹23,000

Annual compound interest rate (R): 40%

Partial payment at the end of each year: ₹6,000

Number of years: 2

Formula Used:

Compound Interest formula: A = P × (1 + R/100)ⁿ

Outstanding balance after payment = Amount after interest - Payment

Calculation:

Year 1:

⇒ Amount after interest = ₹23,000 × (1 + 40/100)¹

⇒ ₹23,000 × 1.4 = ₹32,200

⇒ Outstanding balance after payment = ₹32,200 - ₹6,000

⇒ ₹26,200

Year 2:

⇒ Amount after interest = ₹26,200 × (1 + 40/100)¹

⇒ ₹26,200 × 1.4 = ₹36,680

⇒ Outstanding balance after payment = ₹36,680 - ₹6,000

⇒ ₹30,680

∴ The correct answer is ₹30,680.

Given:

Rate of water flow = 4 m/s

Internal diameter of pipe = 4 cm

Radius of pipe = 2 cm

Base radius of cylindrical tank = 100 cm

Time = 10 minutes = 600 seconds

Formula Used:

Volume of water flowing per second = π × (radius of pipe)² × rate of water flow

Volume of water in 10 minutes = Volume of water flowing per second × time

Water level rise = Volume of water / Area of base of tank

Area of base of tank = π × (radius of tank)²

Calculation:

⇒ Volume of water flowing per second = π × (2)² × 400 cm/s

⇒ Volume of water flowing per second = π × 4 × 400 = 1600π cm³/s

⇒ Volume of water in 10 minutes = 1600π × 600

⇒ Volume of water in 10 minutes = 960000π cm³

⇒ Area of base of tank = π × (100)²

⇒ Area of base of tank = π × 10000

⇒ Water level rise = Volume of water / Area of base of tank

⇒ Water level rise = 960000π / (π × 10000)

⇒ Water level rise = 960000 / 10000

⇒ Water level rise = 96 cm

∴ The correct answer is 96 cm.

The correct answer is 'aristocratic'.

Key Points

• The word "aristocratic" refers to people of noble birth or belonging to the higher social class, which aligns with the context of "blue blood children."
• Option 1: "decent" is incorrect because it does not specifically refer to noble birth.
• Option 3: "hostile" is irrelevant to the context of the sentence.
• Option 4: "evil" is incorrect and does not fit the context of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Complete Sentence: "Many aristocratic children attend this private school."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "decent" does not convey the meaning of nobility or upper-class status.
• Option 3: "hostile" is unrelated to the idea of "blue blood" and does not fit the context.
• Option 4: "evil" is entirely inappropriate in this context.

The correct answer is: Option 2 (Impartially).

Key Points

• The word "Impartially" refers to treating all parties or individuals equally and without any bias or favoritism. (निष्पक्षता से)
• Example: The judge listened to both sides impartially before making a decision.
• The sentence implies that the court treats all disputants in a fair and just manner, which aligns with the meaning of "impartially." (निष्पक्षता से)
• Example: A good referee must act impartially to ensure a fair game.
• Thus, the correct word to describe how the court treats rivals or disputants is "impartially."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 (Impartially).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Eloquently (सुस्पष्ट रूप से): Expressing yourself in a fluent, persuasive, or articulate manner.
• Example: The speaker addressed the crowd eloquently, capturing their attention and admiration.
• Illegally (ग़ैर-क़ानूनी रूप से): In a way that is not permitted by law.
• Example: The company was fined for dumping waste illegally into the river.
• Arbitrarily (मनमाने ढंग से): Based on random choice or personal whim, rather than any reason or system.
• Example: The manager made decisions arbitrarily, leaving the team confused and frustrated.

The correct answer is 'leap'.

Key Points

• The phrase "look before you leap" is a commonly used idiom that means to think carefully before taking any action, especially if it is risky.
• In the given sentence, the father is advising caution, which aligns with the meaning of the idiom.
• Options 1, 2, and 4 do not complete the idiom correctly, and hence are not appropriate.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Complete Sentence: "She was about to invest all her savings in a risky business, but her father warned her to look before you leap."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "jump" is incorrect as it does not complete the idiom properly.
• Option 2: "fall" is incorrect because it changes the meaning of the sentence and does not match the idiom.
• Option 4: "act" is incorrect as it fails to convey the intended cautionary meaning of the idiom.

The correct answer is 'although'.

Key Points

• The conjunction "although" is used to introduce a subordinate clause that indicates a contrast or unexpected result.
• In the given sentence, the researcher continued with the experiment despite the obstacles, which creates a contrast. Therefore, "although" is the most appropriate conjunction.
• Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect as they do not fit the context of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Complete Sentence: "The researcher continued with the experiment although several obstacles arose during the process."

Additional Information

• Option 2: "whereas" is incorrect because it is used to indicate contrast between two independent clauses, but here the second part is a subordinate clause.
• Option 3: "yet" is incorrect because it is typically used as a coordinating conjunction and does not appropriately introduce the subordinate clause in this case.
• Option 4: "because" is incorrect because it implies a cause-and-effect relationship, which does not match the context of the sentence.

The correct answer is 'won't they'.

Key Points

• The question tag "won't they" is the correct choice because it matches the positive statement "They will attend the ceremony today" with a negative question tag.
• Option 2, "haven't they", is incorrect because it is not compatible with the future tense "will" in the main clause.
• Option 3, "aren't they", is incorrect because it implies present tense, which does not match the future tense of the statement.
• Option 4, "weren't they", is incorrect because it implies past tense, which does not match the future tense of the statement.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Complete Sentence: "They will attend the ceremony today, won't they?"

Additional Information

• Option 2: "haven't they" is incorrect because the auxiliary verb "haven't" does not align with the future tense "will" in the statement.
• Option 3: "aren't they" is incorrect because it implies present tense, which is inconsistent with the future action described.
• Option 4: "weren't they" is incorrect because it implies past tense, which does not match the future tense of the statement.

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• The paragraph begins by describing the body's reaction to stress and introducing the fight-or-flight mechanism.
• Sentence B is the first sentence as it introduces the reaction of the body to stress:
• "When faced with stress, the body enters a heightened state of alertness."
• Sentence D follows as it names the physiological response to stress:
• "This physiological response is known as the fight-or-flight mechanism."
• Sentence A is the third sentence because it explains the evolutionary significance of these responses:
• "These responses are evolutionary traits that once helped humans survive physical threats."
• Sentence C is the fourth as it highlights how modern life triggers these reactions in non-life-threatening situations:
• "However, in modern life, these reactions are often triggered by non-life-threatening situations."
• Sentence E concludes as it discusses the consequences of chronic activation of this system:
• "Chronic activation of this system can lead to anxiety, insomnia and health problems."
• The correct sequence is BDACE.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"When faced with stress, the body enters a heightened state of alertness. This physiological response is known as the fight-or-flight mechanism. These responses are evolutionary traits that once helped humans survive physical threats. However, in modern life, these reactions are often triggered by non-life-threatening situations. Chronic activation of this system can lead to anxiety, insomnia and health problems."

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. "Haste makes waste".

Key Points

• The proverb "Haste makes waste" means that when you do something too quickly, you are likely to make mistakes or ruin the task, leading to inefficiency or wasted effort. (जल्दबाजी से काम बिगड़ सकता है।)
• Example: Rushing through your homework without understanding the questions properly will only result in errors. Haste makes waste!

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: Prevention is better than cure (रोकथाम इलाज से बेहतर है): It is better to prevent problems than to fix them after they occur.
• Example: Leading a healthy lifestyle is important because prevention is better than cure.
• Option 2: One good turn deserves another (एक अच्छा कार्य दूसरे अच्छे कार्य का हकदार है): If someone does you a favor, you should repay them with kindness.
• Example: She helped me with my project, and I helped her with her presentation. One good turn deserves another!
• Option 4: Don't count your chickens before they are hatched (अंडे सेने से पहले चूजों की गिनती न करें): Do not assume success or results before they actually happen.
• Example: He was already planning how to spend the bonus before getting it. I told him, "Don't count your chickens before they are hatched."

The correct answer is 'weren't you'.

Key Points

• The sentence uses the past tense verb "were," indicating that the appropriate question tag should also be in the past tense.
• The subject of the sentence is "you," so the question tag must match this subject.
• Option 1: "doesn't he" is incorrect because it uses a present tense auxiliary verb ("doesn't") and an incorrect subject ("he").
• Option 3: "haven't you" is incorrect because it uses the present perfect tense, which does not align with the past tense verb "were."
• Option 4: "isn't he" is incorrect because it uses the present tense and the incorrect subject ("he").

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Complete Sentence: "You were at the library yesterday, weren't you?"

Additional Information

• Option 1: "doesn't he" is incorrect because it mismatches both the tense and subject.
• Option 3: "haven't you" is incorrect because the use of the present perfect tense is not appropriate in this context.
• Option 4: "isn't he" is incorrect because it uses the wrong subject ("he" instead of "you").

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• The paragraph emphasizes the importance of effective project management in achieving successful outcomes.
• Sentence B is the first sentence as it introduces the topic of effective project management:
• "Effective project management is crucial for the success of large-scale initiatives."
• Sentence C follows as it elaborates on the key components of project management:
• "The allocation of resources, timeline management and stakeholder communication are key components."
• Sentence A comes next as it discusses the requirement of careful planning and execution to achieve desired outcomes:
• "This requires careful planning and execution to ensure that the desired outcomes are achieved."
• Sentence D is the final sentence as it concludes with how addressing these elements enhances project delivery:
• "By addressing these elements, organisations can enhance their ability to deliver projects on time and within budget."
• The correct sequence is BCAD.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"Effective project management is crucial for the success of large-scale initiatives. The allocation of resources, timeline management and stakeholder communication are key components. This requires careful planning and execution to ensure that the desired outcomes are achieved. By addressing these elements, organisations can enhance their ability to deliver projects on time and within budget."

The correct answer is: Dull.

Key Points

• The word "resplendent" means something that is very bright, shining, or splendid in appearance. It refers to something that is highly attractive and impressive in its brilliance. (तेजस्वी/दीप्तिमान)
• Example: The bride looked resplendent in her traditional wedding attire.
• "Dull" refers to something that is lacking brightness, shine, or vividness, and appears dim, drab, or uninteresting. (मंद/निष्प्रभ)
• Example: The walls looked dull and uninspiring before they were painted.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'resplendent' is 'dull'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Dull.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Radiant (प्रभामय): Something that emits light or energy in a bright, glowing way.
• Example: Her radiant smile brightened everyone’s day.
• Sparkling (चमचमाता हुआ): Shining brightly with flashes of light.
• Example: The sparkling diamond caught everyone’s attention.
• Gleaming (चमकता हुआ): Something that shines brightly, often with a smooth and reflective surface.
• Example: The freshly polished car was gleaming in the sunlight.

The correct answer is: Option 4 (in thick and fast).

Key Points

• The phrase "in thick and fast" refers to something happening rapidly and in large numbers or quantities. (बहुत तेज़ी से और बड़ी मात्रा में)
• Example: During the sale, orders for the product came in thick and fast.
• In the context of the statement, Rupa's product is sold in large numbers because her competitors lack proper advertising strategies. Hence, the idiom "in thick and fast" fits the situation perfectly.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4 (in thick and fast).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: in boons and bounties (उपहार और वरदान): Refers to blessings or generous gifts, usually from nature or a higher power.
• Example: The farmers were thankful for the boons and bounties of the monsoon season.
• Option 2: toyed with an idea (विचार से खेलना): Refers to considering or exploring an idea casually, without serious intention.
• Example: She toyed with the idea of moving abroad but decided against it.
• Option 3: as a hot potato (जटिल मुद्दा): Refers to a controversial or difficult topic that people avoid discussing or handling.
• Example: The issue of tax reforms was treated as a hot potato in the meeting.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• The paragraph begins with Sentence D, which introduces the shift towards digital marketing reflecting changing consumer behaviours and technological advancements.
• Sentence A follows, explaining how traditional advertising methods have become less effective:
• "As a result, traditional advertising methods have become less effective."
• Sentence B comes next, discussing companies investing heavily in online marketing strategies:
• "Companies are now investing heavily in online marketing strategies to reach their target audiences more effectively."
• Sentence C concludes the paragraph by detailing specific strategies employed in digital marketing:
• "These strategies include social media campaigns, influencer partnerships and data-driven advertising."
• The correct sequence is DABC.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"The shift towards digital marketing reflects changing consumer behaviours and technological advancements. As a result, traditional advertising methods have become less effective. Companies are now investing heavily in online marketing strategies to reach their target audiences more effectively. These strategies include social media campaigns, influencer partnerships and data-driven advertising."

The correct answer is: Practice what you preach.

Key Points

• The proverb "Practice what you preach" means to follow the advice or principles that you tell others to follow. It emphasizes leading by example. (जो उपदेश आप दूसरों को देते हैं, उसे खुद भी पालन करें।)
• Example: If you want people to be punctual, you should practice what you preach and arrive on time yourself.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Practice what you preach.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Let bygones be bygones (भूतकाल को जाने दें): To forget the past, especially bad events, and move forward without resentment.
• Example: After their heated argument, they decided to let bygones be bygones and move on.
• Look before you leap (किसी भी कार्य को करने से पहले सोच समझकर निर्णय लें): To consider the consequences carefully before taking action.
• Example: Before quitting your job, you should look before you leap and ensure you have another opportunity lined up.
• Grasp all, lose all (सभी चीजों को पाने की कोशिश करना, और अंततः सब कुछ खो देना): A warning against being too greedy and trying to gain too much, which may result in losing everything.
• Example: He tried to handle multiple projects simultaneously, but in the end, grasped all and lost all.

The correct answer is: Vicious.

Key Points

• The word "benevolent" means someone who is kind, generous, and willing to help others. (दयालु, परोपकारी)
• Example: The benevolent woman donated most of her wealth to charity.
• "Vicious" refers to someone or something that is cruel, malicious, or intentionally harmful. It is the opposite of benevolent. (दुष्ट, क्रूर)
• Example: The vicious attack on the innocent family shocked the community.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'benevolent' is 'vicious'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Vicious.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Angry (गुस्से में): Feeling or showing strong annoyance or displeasure.
• Example: She was angry when she found out her friend had lied to her.
• Generous (उदार): Willing to give or share freely; benevolent.
• Example: He is a generous man who always helps the less fortunate.
• Compassionate (करुणामय): Feeling or showing sympathy and concern for others.
• Example: The compassionate nurse comforted the patients during their difficult times.