DSSSB PGT (Political Science) Official Paper (Held On: 13 Jul, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

Given: 72 + (18 ÷ 6) + (9 × 2) – (24 × 3) = 54

According to the question, after interchanging the numbers:

Option 1) 6 and 3

72 + (18 ÷ 6) + (9 × 2) – (24 × 3) = 54 ⇒ 72 + (18 ÷ 3) + (9 × 2) – (24 × 6) = 54

⇒ 72 + (18 ÷ 3) + (9 × 2) – (24 × 6) = 54

⇒ 72 + 6 + (9 × 2) – (24 × 6) = 54

⇒ 72 + 6 + 18 – 144 = 54

⇒ 90 – 144 = 54

⇒ -54 ≠ 54 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option 2) 2 and 3

72 + (18 ÷ 6) + (9 × 2) – (24 × 3) = 54 ⇒ 72 + (18 ÷ 6) + (9 × 3) – (24 × 2) = 54

⇒ 72 + (18 ÷ 6) + (9 × 3) – (24 × 2) = 54

⇒ 72 + 3 + (9 × 3) – (24 × 2) = 54

⇒ 72 + 3 + 27 – 48 = 54

⇒ 102 – 48 = 54

⇒ 54 = 54 (LHS = RHS)

Option 3) 18 and 24

72 + (18 ÷ 6) + (9 × 2) – (24 × 3) = 54 ⇒ 72 + (24 ÷ 6) + (9 × 2) – (18 × 3) = 54

⇒ 72 + (24 ÷ 6) + (9 × 2) – (18 × 3) = 54

⇒ 72 + 4 + (9 × 2) – (18 × 3) = 54

⇒ 72 + 4 + 18 – 54 = 54

⇒ 94 – 54 = 54

⇒ 40 ≠ 54 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option 4) 6 and 2

72 + (18 ÷ 6) + (9 × 2) – (24 × 3) = 54 ⇒ 72 + (18 ÷ 2) + (9 × 6) – (24 × 3) = 54

⇒ 72 + (18 ÷ 2) + (9 × 6) – (24 × 3) = 54

⇒ 72 + 9 + (9 × 6) – (24 × 3) = 54

⇒ 72 + 9 + 54 – 72 = 54

⇒ 135 – 72 = 54

⇒ 63 ≠ 54 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

56 - 65 - 75 - 86

56 + 9 = 65

65 + 10 = 75

75 + 11 = 86

And,

77 - 86 - 96 - 107

77 + 9 = 86

86 + 10 = 96

96 + 11 = 107

Similarly,

85 - 94 - 104 - 115

85 + 9 = 94

94 + 10 = 104

104 + 11 = 115

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Given series: (Left) 523 456 716 814 372 (Right)

According to the question.

So,

Third digit of the highest number → 814 → 4

Second digit of the lowest number → 372 → 7

So,  the resultant if third digit of the highest number is added to the second digit of lowest number → 4 + 7 = 11

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) FI - DH

Option 2) HK - FJ

Option 3) OR - MP

Option 4) LO - JN

Thus out of all 'OR - MP' is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Given: X : 30 :: 16 : Y

Option 1) X = 11; Y = 55 → 11 : 30 :: 16 : 55

11 × 3 - 3 = 30 

33 - 3 = 30

30 = 30 (LHS = RHS)

And,

16 × 3 - 3 = 55

48 - 3 = 55

45 ≠ 55 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option 2) X = 12; Y = 45 → 12 : 30 :: 16 : 45

12 × 3 - 3 = 30 

36 - 3 = 30

33 ≠ 30 (LHS ≠ RHS)

And,

16 × 3 - 3 = 45

48 - 3 = 45

45 = 45 (LHS = RHS)

Option 3) X = 11; Y = 45 → 11 : 30 :: 16 : 45

11 × 3 - 3 = 30 

33 - 3 = 30

30 = 30 (LHS = RHS)

And,

16 × 3 - 3 = 45

48 - 3 = 45

45 = 45 (LHS = RHS)

Option 4) X = 12; Y = 55 → 12 : 30 :: 16 : 55

12 × 3 - 3 = 30 

36 - 3 = 30

33 ≠ 30 (LHS ≠ RHS)

And,

16 × 3 - 3 = 55

48 - 3 = 55

45 ≠ 55 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Given: S, T, U, V, Y and Z live on six different floors of the same building. The lowermost floor in the building is numbered 1, the floor above it, number 2 and so on till the topmost floor is numbered 6.

1) U lives on the topmost floor.

2. Only three people live between U and V.

3. T lives on a floor below V.

4. Z lives on an even numbered floor.

5. Y lives on an odd numbered floor but not on floor number 5.

After positioining all, the remaining position will be occupied by the only person left i.e. S.

Thus, two people live between S and V.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Decoding symbols:

Given: T * I > G ? H ~ S

T * I → T is the daughter of I.

I > G → I is the wife of G.

G ? H → G is the father of H.

H ~ S → H is the brother of S.

Thus, T is S's sister.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

The logic followed here is:

HC-JF-MP

And,

KF-MI-PS 

Similarly,

MH-OK-RU

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

According to the question:

Thus, the code ‘na’ stand for 'star'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given: (64 − 16) + 5 ÷ 4 + 2 × 12 = ?

According to the question, after ‘÷’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘+’ are interchanged:

(64 − 16) + 5 ÷ 4 + 2 × 12 = ? ⇒ (64 ÷ 16) × 5 - 4 × 2 + 12 = ?

⇒ (64 ÷ 16) × 5 - 4 × 2 + 12 = ?

⇒ 4 × 5 - 4 × 2 + 12 = ?

⇒ 20 + 12 - 8 = ?

⇒ 32 - 8 = ?

⇒ 24 = ?

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

(I) Some cups are plates → Does not follow (As no plate is a cup. As no plate can be cup, therefore it is false.)

(II) No saucer is a plate → Follow (As no plate is a cup and all saucers are cups. As whole saucers comes in cup which cannot be plate, therefore it is true)

∴ Here, Only conclusion (II) follows. ​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given: Seven people, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are sitting in a row, facing north.

1) Exactly five people sit between Z and U.

2) X sits fourth to the right of U. 

3) Only Y sits between T and X.

4) V is not the immediate neighbour of T.

After positiong all, the remaining position will be occupied by the only person left i.e. W.

Thus, Z sits fifth from the right of W.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given: Each of S, T, U, V, X, Y and Z has an exam on a different day of a week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week.

1) V has exam on Thursday and U has exam on Saturday.

2. X has exam immediately before Z.

3. Y has exam immediately after Z.

4. S has exam on one of the days after T.

Thus, three people have exam between S and Y.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Given:

Nayan starts from point A and drives 5 km towards east.

He then takes a right turn and drives 9 km.

He takes a final left turn and drives 2 km and stops at point B.

Raghav starts from point P, which is 16 km east of point A, and drives 2 km towards west.

He then takes a left turn and drives 9 km.

He takes a final right turn and drives 6 km and stops at point Q.

Thus, the shortest distance between point Q and point B is 1 km.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) JE - IK

Option 2) PK - NR

Option 3) HC - GI

Option 4) LG - KM

Thus out of all 'PK - NR' is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given series: (Left) 912 765 843 627 541 (Right)

According to the question.

So,

Third digit of the highest number → 912 → 2

Second digit of the lowest number → 541 → 4

So, the resultant if third digit of the highest number is added to the second digit of lowest number → 2 + 4 = 6

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Given

Statement:

Only dry waste should be disposed in the blue-coloured bins placed on the ground floor.

Given

Assumptions:

I) There are different coloured bins designated for different kinds of waste. → Implicit

Mentioning "blue-coloured bins" for dry waste implies different coloured bins are used for different waste types.

II) Wet waste needs to be disposed of in green-coloured bins. → Not Implicit

The statement does no mention wet waste or green bins.

Therefore, Only assumption I is implicit.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 14.

Key Points

• The Indian contingent secured 14 medals at the Under-17 Asian Wrestling Championships 2024, held in Amman, Jordan.
• The championship witnessed participation from various countries across Asia, showcasing the talent of young wrestlers under the age of 17.
• The medals included a mix of gold, silver, and bronze, highlighting India's exceptional performance in wrestling.
• This achievement reflects the impact of initiatives like Khelo India and advanced training programs for young athletes in India.
• The Indian wrestlers competed in different categories such as freestyle, Greco-Roman, and women’s wrestling, excelling in several events.

Additional Information

• Under-17 Asian Wrestling Championships:
• The tournament is an annual event organized under the aegis of the United World Wrestling (UWW) Asia, catering to young wrestlers aged 17 years and below.
• The competition includes three styles: freestyle wrestling, Greco-Roman wrestling, and women’s wrestling.
• It aims to promote wrestling talent in Asia and provides a platform for young athletes to represent their countries at international levels.
• India’s Recent Achievements in Wrestling:
• India has consistently performed well in international wrestling championships, with young athletes receiving training under programs like Khelo India and Sports Authority of India (SAI).
• Prominent Indian wrestlers like Bajrang Punia and Vinesh Phogat have inspired younger generations to take up the sport.
• Medal Distribution:
• The medals earned by Indian wrestlers at the Under-17 Asian Wrestling Championships 2024 included a mix of gold, silver, and bronze.
• The tally reflects the nation’s growth in wrestling, especially among young athletes.
• Significance of the Event:
• The tournament is an opportunity to benchmark India's performance against other Asian nations, fostering international sportsmanship.
• It also highlights the importance of nurturing young sports talent in India for future global competitions like the Olympics and World Championships.

Important Points

• Training and Support:
• Programs like Khelo India focus on identifying and nurturing talent from grassroots levels.
• Facilities provided by organizations like the Sports Authority of India (SAI) include modern equipment, coaching, and scholarships.
• Global Competitions:
• Indian wrestlers have been consistently participating in global events like the World Wrestling Championships and the Olympics, gaining valuable experience.
• Events like the Asian Wrestling Championships provide exposure to international wrestling formats and styles.
• Impact of Sports Policies:
• Government initiatives such as Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS) aim to support elite athletes with resources and funding.
• These policies have contributed to India’s success in wrestling and other sports.

The correct answer is 10^th.

Key Points

• India secured the 10^th position in the 2025 Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI), showcasing its significant progress in climate action and environmental sustainability.
• The CCPI evaluates 60 countries and the European Union, which are responsible for over 90% of global greenhouse gas emissions. India’s achievement reflects its proactive measures in tackling climate change.
• The ranking is based on four categories: Greenhouse Gas Emissions (40%), Renewable Energy (20%), Energy Use (20%), and Climate Policy (20%). India performed particularly well in the Renewable Energy and Climate Policy categories.
• India's ambitious renewable energy targets, including the goal of achieving 500 GW of non-fossil fuel capacity by 2030, contributed to its top-tier ranking in the index.
• Countries like Denmark, Sweden, and Norway maintained higher rankings, while nations with insufficient climate action policies ranked lower in the index.

Additional Information

• Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI):
• The CCPI is an independent monitoring tool designed to enhance transparency in international climate politics and track countries' progress in climate protection efforts.
• The index has been published annually since 2005 by Germanwatch, the NewClimate Institute, and the Climate Action Network.
• It assesses countries' climate performance in four key areas: Greenhouse Gas Emissions, Renewable Energy, Energy Use, and Climate Policy.
• India's Climate Action Goals:
• India has committed to achieving net-zero carbon emissions by 2070 as part of its climate strategy.
• The National Solar Mission and other renewable energy initiatives aim to reduce dependence on fossil fuels and lower greenhouse gas emissions.
• India is also leading the International Solar Alliance (ISA), a global initiative to promote solar energy adoption worldwide.
• Top Performers in CCPI:
• Countries such as Denmark, Sweden, and Norway consistently rank high due to their strong climate policies and high renewable energy use.
• These nations have implemented stringent measures to reduce emissions and transition to green energy.
• Global Climate Context:
• The Paris Agreement of 2015 serves as the cornerstone of global climate action, aiming to limit global warming to below 2°C, preferably to 1.5°C, compared to pre-industrial levels.
• While countries like India are making commendable progress, others face criticism for inadequate efforts to meet their commitments under the agreement.

Important Points

• Paris Agreement Contributions:
• India’s Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) under the Paris Agreement include reducing the emissions intensity of its GDP by 33-35% by 2030 from 2005 levels.
• It also aims to increase the share of non-fossil fuel-based energy capacity to 40% by 2030.
• India's Renewable Energy Initiatives:
• India is investing heavily in solar, wind, and hydroelectric power projects to reduce its carbon footprint.
• As of 2023, India has installed over 175 GW of renewable energy capacity, moving closer to its goal of 500 GW by 2030.
• Challenges in Climate Action:
• Despite progress, India faces challenges such as high coal dependency, urban pollution, and climate vulnerability.
• Addressing these issues will require sustained policy efforts, international cooperation, and significant investments in green infrastructure.

The correct answer is Option 4: Only i and iii.

Key Points

• Statement i: The cold weather season begins in mid-November in northern India and lasts till February. This is correct as the Indian Meteorological Department recognizes this period as winter in northern India. The temperatures drop significantly during this time due to the movement of cold winds from the Himalayas. Hence, statement i is correct.
• Statement ii: October and November are not the coldest months in northern India. Instead, December and January are considered the coldest months due to the peak winter season. Hence, statement ii is incorrect.
• Statement iii: During winter, the northeast trade winds prevail over the country. These winds originate from the land and blow toward the sea. They are dry and cold, significantly influencing the winter season in India. Hence, statement iii is correct.
• Since statements i and iii are correct, the correct option is Option 4: Only i and iii.

Additional Information

• Cold Weather Season in India:
• The cold weather season in India lasts from mid-November to February.
• During this period, northern India experiences cold and dry weather, with temperatures dropping significantly.
• Regions like Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, and Rajasthan witness foggy mornings during winter.
• The Himalayan region influences the climate by sending cold winds southwards.
• Northeast Trade Winds:
• The northeast trade winds blow during winter in India, originating from the land toward the sea.
• These winds are cold and dry, causing a drop in temperatures in most parts of the country.
• They do not carry moisture, unlike the southwest monsoon winds that bring rainfall.
• Temperature Variation in Northern India:
• December and January are typically the coldest months in northern India.
• Temperatures can fall below 5°C in several states during peak winter.
• January often witnesses the phenomenon of cold waves, especially in the plains and the Himalayan foothills.
• Incorrect Statement ii:
• October and November are considered transitional months between the monsoon and winter seasons.
• While temperatures begin to drop during these months, they are not the coldest months in northern India.
• Winter officially starts in mid-November, making December and January colder.

Important Points

• Winter Precipitation:
• During winter, northern India occasionally receives rainfall due to Western Disturbances.
• Western Disturbances are extratropical storms originating in the Mediterranean region.
• They bring rainfall and snowfall to states like Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, and Uttarakhand.
• Impact of Winter on Agriculture:
• The cold weather season is significant for growing rabi crops like wheat, mustard, and barley.
• Lower temperatures and reduced pest activity during winter provide favorable conditions for these crops.
• Regional Temperature Differences:
• While northern India experiences harsh winters, southern India remains relatively warmer due to its proximity to the sea.
• Coastal areas like Kerala and Tamil Nadu have moderate temperatures even during winter.

The correct answer is Rajasthan.

Key Points

• Legislative Councils are a part of bicameral legislatures in some Indian states. These Councils function similarly to the Rajya Sabha at the state level and are governed by Article 169 of the Indian Constitution.
• As of July 2024, the states with Legislative Councils include Bihar, Maharashtra, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, and Jammu & Kashmir.
• Rajasthan does not have a Legislative Council and operates under a unicameral system, meaning it has only a single legislative chamber, the Legislative Assembly.
• The creation or abolition of a Legislative Council in a state requires the approval of the Parliament under Article 169 of the Constitution, based on a resolution passed by the Legislative Assembly of the concerned state.
• In contrast, states like Bihar, Maharashtra, and Telangana have bicameral legislatures with both Legislative Assemblies and Legislative Councils.

Additional Information

• Legislative Councils:
• Legislative Councils are also known as the Vidhan Parishad.
• The members of the Council are either elected, nominated, or indirectly chosen by various groups such as teachers, graduates, and local authorities.
• These Councils serve as a revising chamber to ensure thorough deliberation on legislative matters.
• Article 169 of the Constitution:
• It enables the Parliament to create or abolish a Legislative Council in a state.
• A resolution must be passed by the state's Legislative Assembly by a majority of the total membership and not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.
• Bicameral vs. Unicameral Legislatures:
• In a bicameral system, there are two houses: the Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) and the Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad).
• In a unicameral system, there is only one house: the Legislative Assembly.
• States with Legislative Councils:
• The states with Legislative Councils as of July 2024 include Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, and Jammu & Kashmir.
• These states have opted for a bicameral system to better represent various groups and ensure detailed scrutiny of legislation.

Important Points

• Historical Context:
• The Legislative Council in Rajasthan was abolished in 1969 due to administrative and financial considerations.
• Several other states, such as Punjab and West Bengal, have also abolished their Legislative Councils over the years.
• Advantages of a Legislative Council:
• It acts as a deliberative body, providing a second opinion on legislative matters.
• It ensures the representation of intellectuals and professionals who may not participate in direct elections.
• Disadvantages of a Legislative Council:
• It is often criticized for being a non-essential and expensive institution.
• Many argue that it leads to delays in the legislative process.

The correct answer is Greater Inequality.

Key Points

• Unemployment leads to greater inequality in society as it creates a disparity in income distribution. People who are unemployed have no or limited income, while those employed continue to earn, widening the economic gap.
• When a significant portion of the population is unemployed, the wealth gap between different classes increases, resulting in social stratification and reduced social cohesion.
• Unemployment tends to disproportionately affect vulnerable groups, such as women, youth, and marginalized communities, further exacerbating inequality within these populations.
• The lack of employment opportunities can lead to a cycle of poverty, as unemployed individuals and their families are unable to invest in education, healthcare, or skill development, perpetuating inequality across generations.
• Increased inequality due to unemployment can result in social unrest or political instability, as individuals and groups express dissatisfaction with their economic and social conditions.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Low Capital Formation:
• Unemployment reduces the purchasing power of individuals, leading to lower demand for goods and services, which in turn discourages investment and lowers overall capital formation in the economy.
• However, this is more of an economic consequence rather than a direct social consequence, which makes this option incorrect in the context of the question.
• Option 3: Loss of Output:
• Unemployment results in an underutilization of human resources, leading to a loss of potential economic output.
• Although this is a critical economic effect, it is not classified as a social consequence, which makes this option incorrect here.
• Option 4: Low Productivity:
• Low productivity refers to the inefficient use of available resources, including labor.
• While unemployment can indirectly lead to lower productivity, it is not a direct social consequence, making this option less relevant in this context.
• Characteristics of Greater Inequality:
• It is a social issue that encompasses disparities in income, wealth, access to education, healthcare, and other essential services.
• Countries with high unemployment rates often report higher levels of Gini coefficient, a measure of income inequality.
• Addressing inequality often involves implementing welfare programs, job creation initiatives, and education reforms.

Important Points

• Unemployment Statistics:
• According to the World Bank, unemployment in developing countries is a significant contributor to inequality, affecting millions of people annually.
• In India, as per the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) 2021-22, the unemployment rate was estimated at around 4.1%, with rural and urban disparities.
• Government Initiatives:
• Programs like Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) aim to enhance skill development and reduce unemployment.
• Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) provides guaranteed wage employment to rural households to mitigate the effects of unemployment and inequality.

The correct answer is Reserve Bank of India.

Key Points

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central bank of India, established on April 1, 1935, under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. It is not a commercial bank.
• The primary role of the RBI is to act as the monetary authority of India, overseeing the issuance and supply of the Indian rupee and regulating the country’s banking system.
• Unlike commercial banks, the RBI does not provide banking services to the general public. Instead, it serves as a banker to the government and other banks.
• Commercial banks like Bank of Baroda, Axis Bank, and State Bank of India operate with the primary objective of accepting deposits and lending money to individuals and businesses, which the RBI does not do.
• RBI’s main functions include formulating monetary policy, regulating and supervising financial institutions, managing foreign exchange, and ensuring financial stability in the country.

Additional Information

• Reserve Bank of India (RBI):
• It was established as a private institution but was nationalized in 1949, making it wholly owned by the Government of India.
• The RBI acts as a regulator of the financial system, ensuring that all financial institutions function in a sound and efficient manner.
• It is headquartered in Mumbai, Maharashtra, and its current governor (as of 2023) is Shaktikanta Das.
• It controls inflation, ensures adequate liquidity in the system, and promotes economic growth through its monetary policies.
• Commercial Banks:
• Bank of Baroda: One of India’s largest public sector banks, founded in 1908 and headquartered in Vadodara, Gujarat.
• Axis Bank: A leading private sector bank in India, founded in 1993, headquartered in Mumbai.
• State Bank of India (SBI): The largest public sector bank in India, founded in 1955 and headquartered in Mumbai.
• These banks provide services like deposits, loans, credit cards, and other financial products to individuals, businesses, and institutions.
• Differences Between RBI and Commercial Banks:
• While the RBI is a regulatory authority, commercial banks are profit-oriented financial institutions.
• The RBI focuses on monetary stability, whereas commercial banks focus on providing financial services.
• The RBI does not deal directly with the public, while commercial banks interact directly with customers for financial transactions.
• Important Points:
• The RBI’s functions include currency issuance, foreign exchange management, regulation of banks, and acting as a banker to the government.
• Commercial banks are categorized into public sector banks, private sector banks, foreign banks, and regional rural banks (RRBs).
• Examples of public sector banks include SBI and Bank of Baroda, while Axis Bank is a private sector bank.

The correct answer is Friedrich Miescher.

Key Points

• Friedrich Miescher, a Swiss biochemist, is credited with the discovery of hereditary material in 1869. He isolated a substance from the nuclei of white blood cells, which he termed "nuclein." This substance was later identified as DNA.
• The discovery by Friedrich Miescher marked the beginning of molecular biology and contributed to understanding the chemical basis of heredity.
• Miescher’s work involved extracting nuclei from white blood cells obtained from discarded surgical bandages. He used chemical analysis to identify unique components within the nuclei.
• The substance he isolated contained phosphorus and lacked sulfur, distinguishing it from proteins and marking it as a novel biomolecule.
• Although Miescher identified the presence of DNA, he did not know its role in heredity. Subsequent research by scientists such as Avery, Watson, and Crick later revealed DNA’s function as the genetic material.

Additional Information

• Erwin Chargaff:
• Chargaff was a biochemist who formulated the Chargaff’s rules in the 1950s, stating that in DNA, the amount of adenine (A) equals thymine (T), and the amount of guanine (G) equals cytosine (C).
• His work laid the foundation for Watson and Crick’s discovery of the double helix structure of DNA.
• Robert Holley:
• Holley was an American biochemist who won the Nobel Prize in 1968 for his discovery of the structure of transfer RNA (tRNA).
• His work helped explain how genetic information is translated into proteins.
• Maurice Wilkins:
• Wilkins contributed to the discovery of the DNA double helix by providing crucial X-ray diffraction images of DNA.
• He shared the 1962 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine with Watson and Crick.
• DNA:
• DNA (Deoxyribonucleic Acid) is the molecule that carries genetic information in living organisms.
• It is composed of a double-helix structure with nucleotide bases (adenine, thymine, guanine, cytosine) paired together.
• DNA replication and transcription are fundamental processes for heredity and protein synthesis.

Important Points

• 1869: The year Friedrich Miescher discovered nuclein, marking the first identification of DNA.
• Phosphorus Content: DNA was identified as distinct from proteins due to its high phosphorus and lack of sulfur.
• Hereditary Material: Although Miescher did not know DNA’s role, his discovery was pivotal in establishing the chemical basis of heredity.
• Further Contributions: Later research by scientists such as Avery (1944) and Watson & Crick (1953) revealed DNA’s structure and function.
• Modern Applications: Understanding DNA has led to advancements in genetics, biotechnology, forensics, and medicine.

The correct answer is The plains of Rajasthan.

Key Points

• The Luni River is the only major river in the arid region of Rajasthan, India.
• It originates from the Naga Hills of the Aravalli ranges near Ajmer and flows westward into the marshes of the Rann of Kachchh.
• The river primarily flows through the plains of Rajasthan, covering the arid and semi-arid regions of the state.
• The Luni River is ephemeral in nature, meaning it only flows during the monsoon season and tends to dry up otherwise.
• Due to its high salinity levels, the river is sometimes referred to as a saline river. Its water is largely unfit for drinking or agricultural purposes in its lower reaches.

Additional Information

• Geographical Features of Rajasthan:
• The state of Rajasthan is characterized by the Thar Desert and the Aravalli Range, which significantly influence the flow and nature of its rivers.
• Rivers in Rajasthan are mostly seasonal, and many of them drain into saline lakes or dry up in the arid landscape.
• Characteristics of the Luni River:
• The total length of the Luni River is approximately 495 km.
• It passes through districts such as Ajmer, Pali, Jodhpur, Barmer, and Jalore before entering Gujarat.
• The river basin supports activities like irrigation in its upper reaches, where water salinity is lower.
• Other Rivers of Rajasthan:
• The Chambal River is the only perennial river in Rajasthan, originating from Madhya Pradesh.
• Other rivers include the Banas, Mahi, and Sabarmati, which either originate in or pass through the state.
• Significance of Rann of Kachchh:
• The Rann of Kachchh, where the Luni River ends, is a salt marsh located in Gujarat.
• It is one of the largest salt deserts in the world and plays a vital role in maintaining the regional ecosystem and biodiversity.

Important Points

• Rivers and Salinity:
• Rivers like the Luni that flow through arid regions often pick up high concentrations of salts from the soil, leading to high salinity levels.
• This makes them unsuitable for drinking or irrigation in their lower courses.
• Ecological Impact:
• The marshes of the Rann of Kachchh, where the Luni River ends, act as an important habitat for migratory birds, including flamingos.
• The seasonal flow of the Luni River also supports local agriculture in its upper reaches during the monsoon season.
• Historical Context:
• The Luni River basin has been historically significant, with many ancient settlements relying on its waters for sustenance.
• The river is also mentioned in ancient texts and local folklore as a lifeline for the arid regions of Rajasthan.

The correct answer is middle.

Key Points

• The term 'Mesolithic' originates from two Greek words: "meso" meaning middle and "lithic" meaning stone.
• The Mesolithic period is also known as the Middle Stone Age, as it represents the transitional phase between the Paleolithic (Old Stone Age) and the Neolithic (New Stone Age).
• This period typically spans from approximately 10,000 BC to 8,000 BC, depending on the region.
• The Mesolithic era is characterized by the development of microlith tools, which are small, sharp, and finely worked stone tools.
• It marks significant advancements in hunter-gatherer societies, including the beginnings of domestication of plants and animals.

Additional Information

• Characteristics of the Mesolithic Period:
• The Mesolithic is considered a transitional phase characterized by the use of microlithic tools, which were often mounted on wood or bone handles to create composite tools.
• There were advancements in hunting techniques, including the use of bows and arrows for hunting.
• Early evidence of fishing and food storage practices can be observed during this time.
• Rock art and cave paintings from this era demonstrate early forms of symbolism and communication.
• Geographical Distribution:
• Mesolithic sites have been discovered globally, including regions in Europe, Asia, and Africa.
• In India, notable Mesolithic sites include Bagor in Rajasthan, Adamgarh in Madhya Pradesh, and Bhimbetka, which is famous for its rock shelters and paintings.
• Transition to Agriculture:
• The Mesolithic period saw early attempts at domestication of plants and animals, paving the way for settled agricultural societies.
• This transition eventually led to the Neolithic Revolution, where agriculture became the primary mode of subsistence.
• Microlith Tools:
• Microliths are small, lightweight tools made by chipping stones to create sharp edges.
• They were used for a variety of purposes, including cutting, hunting, and processing food.

Important Points

• Comparison with Other Stone Ages:
• The Paleolithic period (Old Stone Age) primarily focused on hunting and gathering with rudimentary stone tools.
• The Neolithic period (New Stone Age) introduced agriculture, pottery, and permanent settlements.
• The Mesolithic acted as a bridge between these two eras, blending characteristics of both and marking the transition to settled life.
• Notable Mesolithic Sites in India:
• Bagor: Known for evidence of animal domestication and microlith tools.
• Bhimbetka: Famous for its rock art and early human settlements.
• Langhnaj: A site in Gujarat with evidence of human burials.

The correct answer is 2008.

Key Points

• The Central Institute of Classical Tamil (CICT) is an autonomous institution under the Ministry of Education, Government of India.
• It was established with the primary objective of promoting and preserving the rich heritage of Classical Tamil language and literature.
• The CICT started functioning in the year 2008, marking a significant milestone in the recognition of Tamil as a classical language.
• Its headquarters is located in Chennai, Tamil Nadu, which is known for its strong cultural and linguistic roots in Tamil.
• The institute plays a crucial role in conducting research, publishing classical Tamil texts, and organizing events to promote the language.

Additional Information

• Recognition of Tamil as a Classical Language:
• Tamil was declared a Classical Language in 2004 by the Government of India.
• The recognition was based on its antiquity, rich literary tradition, and significant contribution to linguistic and cultural heritage.
• Functions of the Central Institute of Classical Tamil (CICT):
• Conducting research on Tamil literature, linguistics, and culture.
• Publishing ancient Tamil texts with annotations and translations.
• Organizing conferences, seminars, and workshops to promote awareness about Tamil's classical status.
• Providing fellowships and grants to scholars pursuing studies in Classical Tamil.
• Structure and Governance:
• The CICT operates under the Ministry of Education, ensuring alignment with the government's educational objectives.
• It collaborates with various universities and research institutions globally to promote Tamil studies.
• Significance of Tamil Language:
• Tamil is one of the oldest living languages in the world, with records dating back over 2,000 years.
• It has a rich literary tradition, including works like Sangam literature, Thirukkural, and Silappatikaram.
• Tamil is spoken by over 70 million people worldwide, making it a vibrant and thriving language.
• Other Classical Languages in India:
• Besides Tamil, the Government of India has recognized Sanskrit, Kannada, Telugu, Malayalam, Odia, and Pali as classical languages.
• The criteria for this recognition include antiquity, originality, and an independent tradition of literature.

Important Points

• Establishment of Classical Language Institutes:
• To promote and preserve classical languages, the Government of India has set up dedicated institutes like the Central Institute of Classical Tamil.
• These institutes play a pivotal role in research, documentation, and dissemination of knowledge related to classical languages.
• Role of Tamil Nadu in Promoting Tamil:
• The state of Tamil Nadu has been at the forefront of initiatives to preserve and promote Tamil language and culture.
• It hosts several academic and cultural institutions dedicated to Tamil studies.

The correct answer is Gopichand Thotakura.

Key Points

• Gopichand Thotakura became India’s first civilian space tourist to explore space as part of the New Shepard-25 mission conducted by Blue Origin.
• Blue Origin, founded by Jeff Bezos, is a prominent private space exploration company based in the United States.
• The New Shepard spacecraft is a reusable suborbital rocket system designed for space tourism, scientific research, and commercial payload missions.
• Gopichand Thotakura participated in this mission to experience the microgravity environment and to reach the Kármán line, which is the internationally recognized boundary of space at an altitude of 100 kilometers above sea level.
• This achievement highlights the increasing accessibility of space tourism for civilians around the world, including individuals from India.

Additional Information

• Blue Origin and its Missions:
• Founded in 2000 by Amazon's founder Jeff Bezos, Blue Origin focuses on reusable rocket technology to reduce the cost of space travel.
• The New Shepard rocket is named after Alan Shepard, the first American astronaut to travel to space in 1961.
• Blue Origin has conducted multiple successful missions with New Shepard, offering suborbital flights for civilians and researchers.
• Space Tourism:
• Space tourism refers to commercial space travel for recreational, leisure, or adventurous purposes.
• Companies like Blue Origin, SpaceX, and Virgin Galactic are pioneering this industry.
• The cost of space tourism is still high, but advancements in technology are expected to make it more affordable over time.
• New Shepard-25 Mission:
• The New Shepard-25 mission is the 25^th flight of Blue Origin's reusable rocket system, designed for suborbital tourism and research missions.
• The flight includes a brief period of weightlessness, breathtaking views of Earth, and a safe return to the surface using a parachute-assisted landing system.
• Kármán Line:
• The Kármán line, located at an altitude of 100 kilometers, is considered the boundary between Earth's atmosphere and outer space.
• Crossing the Kármán line offers participants the experience of being in space and observing the curvature of Earth.

Important Points

• Other Options Explained:
• Jayhan Bhagvati: There is no record of this individual participating in any space mission or being associated with Blue Origin.
• Gaurav Taneja: A popular Indian YouTuber and pilot, but not involved in space tourism or the New Shepard-25 mission.
• Anmol Yadav: No known association with space exploration or Blue Origin.
• Significance of Space Tourism:
• Space tourism promotes innovation in space technology and exploration.
• It inspires public interest in science, technology, engineering, and mathematics (STEM) fields.
• Space tourism contributes to the commercialization of space and creates opportunities for research and industry growth.

The correct answer is Nagaland.

Key Points

• The Hornbill Festival is one of the most famous festivals celebrated in the state of Nagaland, India.
• It is celebrated annually in the first week of December, specifically from 1^st to 10^th December, as a tribute to the rich cultural heritage of the Naga tribes.
• The festival is named after the great Indian hornbill bird, which is an important symbol in Naga folklore and culture.
• The celebration takes place at the Kisama Heritage Village, which is located near the capital city of Kohima.
• It showcases the traditional dance, music, crafts, cuisines, and customs of the 16 major tribes of Nagaland, promoting unity and cultural exchange.
• The festival is organized by the Government of Nagaland to encourage tourism and preserve the indigenous culture of the state.

Additional Information

• Historical Significance:
• The festival was first launched in 2000 by the Government of Nagaland to celebrate the statehood day of Nagaland, which was formed on 1 December 1963.
• The event serves as a platform for inter-tribal interaction and aims to preserve the rich heritage and culture of the Naga tribes.
• Key Attractions:
• The festival includes traditional performances such as folk dances, war dances, and songs of the Naga tribes.
• Other attractions include ethnic food stalls, art and crafts exhibitions, a fashion show, a rock music concert, and various indigenous sports competitions.
• The famous Chilli Eating Contest and the display of the Morungs (dormitories) of different tribes are major highlights.
• Tourism Impact:
• The Hornbill Festival has significantly contributed to boosting tourism in Nagaland.
• It attracts thousands of visitors, including domestic and international tourists, each year.
• The event helps in promoting the local economy by creating opportunities for local artisans, performers, and entrepreneurs.
• Other Key Festivals in Nagaland:
• Moatsu Festival: Celebrated by the Ao tribe in May to mark the end of the sowing season.
• Sekrenyi Festival: Celebrated by the Angami tribe in February to purify the village and invoke blessings for a bountiful harvest.
• Tsungremong Festival: Celebrated by the Ao tribe as a harvest festival in August.
• Important Points:
• The Hornbill Festival is often referred to as the "Festival of Festivals" due to its grandeur and the participation of all the major tribes of Nagaland.
• The festival aligns with the government’s objective to promote eco-tourism and cultural tourism in the northeastern region of India.
• In recent years, the festival has also featured digital platforms to expand its reach globally.
• The event has become a symbol of unity, diversity, and cultural pride for the Naga people.

The correct answer is Deals with saving of laws giving effect to certain Directive Principle.

Key Points

• Article 31C of the Indian Constitution was introduced by the 25^th Amendment Act, 1971. It provides protection to laws giving effect to certain Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) outlined in Part IV of the Constitution.
• It states that if a law is enacted to implement the Directive Principles specified in Article 39(b) and Article 39(c) (relating to the distribution of resources and prevention of concentration of wealth), such law cannot be challenged on the grounds of contravention of Article 14 (Right to Equality) or Article 19 (Freedom of Speech and Expression).
• This article ensures that laws aimed at promoting social justice and equality, as per the Directive Principles, are protected from judicial review under certain Fundamental Rights.
• The scope of Article 31C was expanded by the 42^nd Amendment Act, 1976, which extended the protection to all laws implementing any part of the Directive Principles. However, in Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980), the Supreme Court struck down this expanded scope, restoring the original protection to only Article 39(b) and (c).
• Article 31C demonstrates the balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles, emphasizing the welfare state's objectives.

Additional Information

• Article 39(b) and 39(c):
• Article 39(b): Directs the state to ensure that the ownership and control of material resources are distributed to serve the common good.
• Article 39(c): Directs the state to prevent the concentration of wealth and means of production to the detriment of society.
• Judicial Interpretation:
• In the case of Keshavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), the Supreme Court upheld the validity of Article 31C, stating that laws protected under this article cannot be challenged for violating Fundamental Rights under Articles 14 and 19.
• However, the court clarified that the basic structure of the Constitution cannot be altered, even under the guise of implementing Directive Principles.
• Minerva Mills Case (1980):
• The Supreme Court ruled that the extended scope of Article 31C (after the 42^nd Amendment) was unconstitutional as it destroyed the harmony between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles.
• The court reinstated that only laws implementing Article 39(b) and 39(c) would be protected under Article 31C.
• Directive Principles of State Policy:
• The Directive Principles, enshrined in Part IV of the Constitution, are non-justiciable guidelines for the state to establish a welfare state.
• They include provisions related to economic equality, social justice, and securing a decent standard of living for all citizens.
• Important Amendments:
• 25^th Amendment Act, 1971: Introduced Article 31C to prioritize Directive Principles over certain Fundamental Rights.
• 42^nd Amendment Act, 1976: Expanded the scope of Article 31C, which was later curtailed by judicial review in the Minerva Mills case.

Important Points

• Fundamental Rights vs. Directive Principles: The Constitution aims to maintain a balance between individual rights and the broader goals of social justice.
• Judicial Review: While Article 31C provides immunity to certain laws, the judiciary ensures that such immunity does not violate the Constitution's basic structure.
• Welfare State Objective: Article 31C reflects India's commitment to establishing a welfare state by prioritizing social and economic equality.

The correct answer is Kushana.

Key Points

• The Kushana dynasty ruled a vast empire that spanned across Central Asia and northern India between the 1^st and 3^rd centuries CE.
• The Kushana kings adopted the title 'Devaputra', which translates to 'Son of God'. This title was likely influenced by the political and religious ideologies of the region and symbolized their divine authority.
• The most prominent Kushana ruler, Kanishka I, was known for his patronage of Buddhism and cultural syncretism. However, the use of the title 'Devaputra' was not limited to Kanishka but was adopted by other rulers of the dynasty as well.
• The title 'Devaputra' reflects the Kushana rulers' aspiration to portray themselves as semi-divine beings with a divine right to rule, a concept that was significant in legitimizing their authority.
• The adoption of this title was also influenced by the cultural exchange between the Indian subcontinent and the regions of Central Asia, where such divine titles were common in the Hellenistic and Persian traditions.

Additional Information

• Kushana Dynasty:
• The Kushanas were of Yuezhi origin, a nomadic tribe that migrated from Central Asia to the Indian subcontinent.
• Their empire extended from the Aral Sea in Central Asia to the Gangetic plains in northern India.
• They played a significant role in facilitating trade along the Silk Road, linking Rome, China, and India.
• Their coins, inscriptions, and art reflect a unique blend of Greek, Indian, Persian, and Central Asian influences.
• Kanishka I:
• Kanishka I is considered the greatest ruler of the Kushana Empire. His reign is often dated to the 2^nd century CE.
• He is renowned for convening the Fourth Buddhist Council in Kashmir, which was instrumental in the development of Mahayana Buddhism.
• Kanishka's patronage of art and culture led to the development of the Gandhara School of Art, which combined Greco-Roman and Indian styles.
• Under his reign, the empire saw immense prosperity and became a hub for trade, culture, and religion.
• Other Dynasties:
• Parthians: The Parthian Empire was located in modern-day Iran. They did not use the title 'Devaputra' but were influential in trade and cultural exchanges.
• Sungas: The Sunga dynasty ruled parts of northern India after the fall of the Mauryan Empire. They were known for their patronage of Hinduism but did not assume the title 'Devaputra'.
• Shakas: The Shakas (Scythians) were another Central Asian group that settled in India. While they adopted many Indian traditions, they did not use the title 'Devaputra'.
• Silk Road and Cultural Exchange:
• The Kushana Empire's strategic location facilitated cultural, religious, and economic exchanges between the East and West.
• Their adoption of the title 'Devaputra' reflects the influence of Hellenistic and Persian traditions, which emphasized the divine authority of rulers.
• The Kushanas also contributed to the spread of Buddhism to Central Asia and China.

Important Points

• The title 'Devaputra' highlighted the Kushana rulers' aspiration to legitimize their rule through divine association.
• The Kushana period marked significant advancements in art, culture, and trade, leaving a lasting impact on the Indian subcontinent.
• Their patronage of Buddhism played a crucial role in its spread across Asia, making it a global religion.
• The Gandhara art style, developed during their reign, is considered one of the finest examples of ancient Indian art influenced by Greco-Roman traditions.

The correct answer is Two.

Key Points

• According to the Census 2011, the literacy rate in India is measured based on the percentage of literate individuals aged seven years and above.
• Only two states in India had a literacy rate of more than 90% as per the Census 2011 data: Kerala and Lakshadweep.
• Kerala recorded the highest literacy rate in India, reaching 94%, followed closely by Lakshadweep at 91.85%.
• Kerala has historically been a leader in literacy rates due to its strong focus on education and social reforms initiated in the early 20^th century.
• The Census 2011 data highlights regional disparities in literacy rates across India, with states in the southern and western parts generally performing better than those in the northern and eastern regions.

Additional Information

• Census 2011 Literacy Definition:
• The Census defines a literate person as someone aged seven years and above who can read and write with understanding in any language.
• Literacy rate is calculated as the percentage of literate individuals in the population aged seven years and above.
• Kerala:
• Kerala is known for its robust education system, which includes high-quality schools and programs targeting literacy.
• The state's high literacy rate is attributed to reforms such as free and universal primary education and significant government investment in education infrastructure.
• Kerala's literacy drive dates back to the 1930s, with movements led by social reformers like Sree Narayana Guru and Ayyankali.
• Lakshadweep:
• Lakshadweep achieved its high literacy rate due to its small population and focused government initiatives in education.
• Schools in Lakshadweep are equipped with basic facilities, and there is a strong emphasis on primary education.
• Other States:
• While Kerala and Lakshadweep surpassed the 90% literacy threshold, other states such as Mizoram, Goa, and Tripura also performed well, with literacy rates above 85%.
• These states benefited from targeted programs and awareness campaigns aimed at increasing literacy levels.

Important Points

• Census 2011 Highlights:
• The overall literacy rate in India as per Census 2011 was 74.04%.
• Male literacy stood at 82.14%, while female literacy was significantly lower at 65.46%.
• Government Initiatives:
• Programs such as Saakshar Bharat and National Literacy Mission have played a crucial role in improving literacy rates in India.
• These initiatives focus on adult literacy, vocational training, and promoting education for marginalized communities.
• Challenges:
• India faces challenges such as gender disparity, urban-rural divide, and socio-economic inequalities in achieving universal literacy.
• States like Bihar and Uttar Pradesh lag behind in literacy rates due to limited access to quality education and infrastructure.

The correct answer is To include Sindhi in the Eighth Schedule.

Key Points

• The 21^st Constitution Amendment Act, 1967, was enacted to include the Sindhi language in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
• With this amendment, the number of languages in the Eighth Schedule increased from 14 to 15.
• The Eighth Schedule contains a list of languages recognized by the Constitution that are entitled to representation and development by the government.
• The inclusion of Sindhi was significant as it aimed to preserve and promote the language of the Sindhi-speaking community, especially after the partition of India in 1947, when many Sindhi-speaking people migrated to India.
• This amendment was a key step in acknowledging the diverse linguistic heritage of India and ensuring the cultural representation of minority communities.

Additional Information

• Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution:
• The Eighth Schedule was originally created with 14 languages at the time of the Constitution's adoption in 1950.
• It recognizes languages for official purposes like government communication, education, and cultural preservation.
• Currently, there are 22 languages listed under the Eighth Schedule, including Hindi, Bengali, Tamil, Urdu, and others.
• The addition of languages to this schedule reflects the linguistic diversity and inclusivity of India.
• Significance of Sindhi Language Inclusion:
• Sindhi, spoken by the Sindhi community, is an Indo-Aryan language with a rich literary and cultural tradition.
• After the partition of India in 1947, Sindhi speakers were dispersed, and the inclusion of their language in the Eighth Schedule was essential for their cultural identity.
• The move helped promote and protect the language, enabling its inclusion in educational and governmental domains.
• Other Constitutional Amendments for Language Inclusion:
• The 71^st Amendment Act, 1992 added Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali to the Eighth Schedule.
• The 92^nd Amendment Act, 2003 included Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali languages.
• Importance of Recognized Languages:
• Languages in the Eighth Schedule receive government support for their development and preservation.
• Recognition helps ensure their usage in education, media, and official communications.
• It also promotes linguistic diversity and cultural inclusivity in India.

Important Points

• Constitutional Provisions Related to Languages:
• Article 343 declares Hindi in the Devanagari script as the official language of India.
• Article 351 provides for the development of the Hindi language, drawing upon other languages in the Eighth Schedule.
• The Constitution allows states to adopt their own official languages, reflecting India's federal structure.
• Recent Developments:
• Efforts have been made to add more languages to the Eighth Schedule to ensure linguistic representation.
• There are demands to include languages like Tulu, Bhojpuri, and Rajasthani to recognize their cultural significance.

The correct answer is Ramaswamy Naicker.

Key Points

• The Self-Respect Movement was founded by Ramaswamy Naicker, popularly known as Periyar, in 1925. The movement aimed to promote self-respect and equality among the people of backward castes.
• The movement sought to eradicate the social discrimination caused by the caste system, which was deeply entrenched in Indian society. Periyar's efforts encouraged the marginalized communities to fight for their rights and dignity.
• Periyar emphasized the importance of rational thinking and rejected the dominance of Brahmanical orthodoxy in religious and social practices. He believed that the caste system was a major hindrance to the progress of society.
• The Self-Respect Movement advocated for the abolition of practices such as untouchability, child marriage, and the suppression of women. It also promoted the idea of inter-caste marriages and equal opportunities for all sections of society.
• The movement was particularly influential in the southern state of Tamil Nadu, where it laid the foundation for the Dravidian political movement, which continues to play a significant role in the state's politics.

Additional Information

• Ramaswamy Naicker (Periyar):
• Born on 17 September 1879 in Erode, Tamil Nadu, Periyar was a prominent social reformer and politician.
• He is often referred to as the "Father of the Dravidian Movement".
• Periyar's philosophy was based on rationalism, self-respect, and equality.
• He was a staunch critic of the Brahmanical dominance in Indian society and advocated for the rights of non-Brahmin communities.
• Key Objectives of the Self-Respect Movement:
• Eliminate the caste system and social discrimination.
• Promote self-respect, rational thinking, and equality among all individuals.
• Encourage gender equality by opposing practices such as child marriage and the dowry system.
• Promote the concept of inter-caste marriages and reject religious orthodoxy.
• Impact of the Movement:
• The movement significantly impacted Tamil Nadu's politics and society.
• It led to the emergence of the Dravidian political parties, such as the Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK) and the All India Anna Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (AIADMK).
• Periyar's ideas influenced the adoption of progressive policies, including the reservation system, to uplift socially and economically disadvantaged communities.
• The movement also contributed to the spread of education among marginalized groups.
• Important Points:
• The Self-Respect Movement was a precursor to many social and political reforms in Tamil Nadu and other parts of South India.
• Periyar's ideas continue to inspire movements for social justice and equality in India.
• He also propagated the use of the Tamil language and opposed the imposition of Hindi as a national language.

The correct answer is George Beadle and Edward Tatum.

Key Points

• George Beadle and Edward Tatum proposed the "one gene - one enzyme" hypothesis in 1941 based on their experiments on the bread mold Neurospora crassa.
• Their experiments demonstrated that genes act by regulating specific biochemical events, particularly the production of enzymes, which catalyze reactions in metabolic pathways.
• They used mutant strains of Neurospora that could not synthesize certain amino acids unless supplemented, linking specific gene mutations to enzyme defects.
• The hypothesis was a revolutionary concept at the time, as it provided a direct relationship between genes and the production of proteins (enzymes).
• Beadle and Tatum were awarded the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 1958 for their groundbreaking work, along with Joshua Lederberg.

Additional Information

• Background of the Hypothesis:
• Prior to Beadle and Tatum's work, the connection between genes and biochemical processes was not well understood.
• They used the bread mold Neurospora crassa because it was easy to grow and its genetic material could be easily manipulated through radiation-induced mutations.
• Experimental Approach:
• Beadle and Tatum irradiated Neurospora spores to induce mutations and then grew the mutants on various minimal and supplemented media.
• They identified mutants that required specific supplements (e.g., vitamins or amino acids) to grow, indicating a defect in the metabolic pathway for synthesizing that compound.
• This allowed them to trace the defect to a specific gene, demonstrating that a single gene is responsible for the production of a single enzyme.
• Subsequent Development of the Hypothesis:
• The "one gene - one enzyme" hypothesis was later modified to "one gene - one polypeptide" as it became clear that some enzymes consist of multiple polypeptides encoded by different genes.
• Furthermore, not all genes code for enzymes; some code for structural proteins, regulatory proteins, or RNA molecules.
• Other Relevant Scientists:
• François Jacob and Jacques Monod: Known for their work on the lac operon in bacterial gene regulation, not the "one gene - one enzyme" hypothesis.
• Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase: Demonstrated that DNA is the genetic material using the bacteriophage experiment.
• Dan Nathans and Hamilton Smith: Credited for their work on restriction enzymes, which revolutionized molecular biology.

Important Points

• Impact of the Hypothesis:
• The "one gene - one enzyme" hypothesis laid the foundation for modern molecular biology and genetics.
• It established the concept that genes control cellular processes by encoding specific proteins.
• It also paved the way for understanding genetic disorders caused by enzyme deficiencies.
• Modern Interpretations:
• Not all genes code for enzymes; some genes code for structural proteins, transport proteins, or RNA molecules.
• Alternative splicing and post-translational modifications mean that one gene can produce multiple protein products.

The correct answer is 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d.

Key Points

• Article 84: Qualification for membership of Parliament – This article specifies the eligibility criteria for individuals who wish to become members of the Parliament. It includes conditions such as age, citizenship, and other qualifications. (Correct Statement)
• Article 85: Sessions of Parliament, prorogation, and dissolution – It governs the functioning of parliamentary sessions, including their commencement, adjournment, and dissolution by the President. (Correct Statement)
• Article 86: Right of President to address and send messages to Houses – This article enables the President to address either House of Parliament and send messages for their consideration. (Correct Statement)
• Article 87: Special address by the President – It mandates the President to address a joint session of Parliament at the beginning of the first session after each general election and the first session of each year. (Correct Statement)

Additional Information

• Article 84:
• To be qualified for membership in Parliament, a person must be a citizen of India.
• The minimum age for Lok Sabha membership is 25 years, and for Rajya Sabha membership, it is 30 years.
• The person must meet additional qualifications laid down by the Parliament under the Representation of People Act.
• Article 85:
• The President has the authority to summon Parliament and decide the time and duration of its sessions.
• He/she can prorogue sessions or dissolve the Lok Sabha, ensuring smooth legislative functioning.
• It also ensures that the gap between two sessions does not exceed six months.
• Article 86:
• The President can address either House of Parliament or both Houses assembled together.
• Messages sent by the President are deliberated upon by the Houses, enhancing communication between the executive and legislature.
• This provision ensures that the President plays an active role in parliamentary discussions.
• Article 87:
• The President’s special address is delivered at the beginning of the first session after a general election and the first session of each year.
• This address outlines the government’s legislative agenda and policy priorities.
• It provides an opportunity for the government to highlight its achievements and future plans.

Important Points

• Sessions of Parliament:
• India’s Parliament conducts three sessions annually: Budget Session (February-May), Monsoon Session (July-August), and Winter Session (November-December).
• The President’s role in summoning, proroguing, and dissolving sessions is crucial for maintaining legislative order.
• Special Presidential Address:
• The address serves as a medium to inform Parliament about the government’s vision and policies.
• It is followed by a debate in Parliament, allowing members to discuss the content of the address.
• Role of the President:
• The President acts as the constitutional head of India, ensuring the smooth interaction between the executive and legislative branches.
• Articles like 86 and 87 emphasize the President’s active involvement in parliamentary affairs.

The correct answer is It aims to target youth in age group of 15-35 years.

Key Points

• Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) is a flagship program launched by the Ministry of Rural Development under the Government of India to provide skill training and employment to rural youth.
• Its primary focus is on youth between the ages of 15 and 35, particularly from families below the poverty line, to enhance their employability.
• DDU-GKY is part of the National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) and aims to reduce rural poverty by providing sustainable employment opportunities.
• The program includes industry-linked skill training to align with market demands, ensuring participants gain relevant skills for employment in various sectors.
• DDU-GKY emphasizes inclusive growth by focusing on disadvantaged groups, including Scheduled Castes (SC), Scheduled Tribes (ST), minorities, and women.
• The scheme is implemented through Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs), and training partners are responsible for providing skills training, placement, and post-placement support.

Additional Information

• Key Features of DDU-GKY:
• DDU-GKY provides mandatory placement-linked skill training, ensuring that trainees secure employment after completing the program.
• It offers training in sectors such as retail, hospitality, healthcare, construction, and IT-enabled services, among others.
• The program mandates a minimum placement of 75% of trained candidates in jobs with regular wages.
• DDU-GKY includes a provision for post-placement support to ensure the stability and growth of trainees in their employment.
• The scheme also provides free residential training facilities for candidates, including meals and accommodation.
• Eligibility Criteria:
• Beneficiaries must be between 15 and 35 years of age. For SC/ST, women, and other special categories, the upper age limit is 45 years.
• Candidates must belong to families below the poverty line or be part of the National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM).
• They should not be pursuing formal education or be employed in regular jobs.
• Funding Pattern:
• DDU-GKY is financed through the Skill Development Fund, with contributions from the Central Government and State Governments.
• The program follows a 60:40 funding ratio between the Central and State Governments for most states, while it is 90:10 for northeastern states.
• Examples of Impact:
• In its successful implementation, DDU-GKY has trained and placed thousands of rural youth in jobs across diverse industries.
• The program has significantly contributed to reducing unemployment and poverty in rural areas by equipping youth with market-relevant skills.

Important Points

• Objectives of DDU-GKY:
• To provide market-driven skill training to rural youth for improving their employability.
• To ensure that at least 75% of trained youth secure jobs in the formal sector.
• To promote inclusive growth by targeting vulnerable groups such as SC/ST, minorities, and women.
• To support the Make in India initiative by creating a skilled workforce aligned with industry needs.
• Significance:
• DDU-GKY is a vital step towards addressing rural unemployment and promoting sustainable livelihoods.
• It aligns with the government's vision of Skill India and aims to create a globally competitive workforce.
• The scheme contributes to reducing urban migration by creating employment opportunities within rural areas.

Given:

Loss percentage = 6%

Gain percentage if selling price increased by ₹120 = 18%

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = Cost Price (CP) × (1 ± Loss/Gain Percentage)

CP = SP / (1 ± Loss/Gain Percentage)

Calculation:

Let the Cost Price (CP) = ₹x.

At a loss of 6%, SP = x × (1 - 6/100) = 0.94x.

If SP is increased by ₹120, SP becomes = 0.94x + 120.

At this increased SP, the gain is 18%, so SP = x × (1 + 18/100) = 1.18x.

⇒ 0.94x + 120 = 1.18x

⇒ 120 = 1.18x - 0.94x

⇒ 120 = 0.24x

⇒ x = 120 / 0.24

⇒ x = 500

∴ The correct answer is ₹500.

Given:

Perpendicular height of the cone = 6 cm

Slant height of the cone = 10 cm

π = 3.14

Formula Used:

Total surface area of a cone = π × r × l + π × r²

r = √(l² - h²)

Calculation:

⇒ r = √(10² - 6²)

⇒ r = √(100 - 36)

⇒ r = √64

⇒ r = 8 cm

⇒ Total surface area = π × r × l + π × r²

⇒ Total surface area = 3.14 × 8 × 10 + 3.14 × 8²

⇒ Total surface area = 3.14 × 80 + 3.14 × 64

⇒ Total surface area = 251.2 + 200.96

⇒ Total surface area = 452.16 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 452.16 cm².

Given:

⇒ Diameter of base = 14 cm

⇒ Radius = 14 ÷ 2 = 7 cm

⇒ Height = 71 cm

⇒ π = 22/7

Concept Used:

⇒ Volume of cylinder = π × r² × h

Calculation:

⇒ Volume = (22/7) × 7 × 7 × 71

⇒ Volume = 22 × 7 × 71

⇒ Volume = 22 × 497

⇒ Volume = 10934 cm³

Final Answer:

⇒ Volume of cylinder = 10934 cm³

Given:

Pipe P alone can fill the cistern in 20 hours.

Pipe P and Q together can fill the cistern in 4 hours.

Formula Used:

Work done in 1 hour by pipe P = 1 / Time taken by pipe P.

Work done in 1 hour by pipe P and Q = 1 / Time taken by pipe P and Q together.

Work done in 1 hour by pipe Q = Work done in 1 hour by pipe P and Q - Work done in 1 hour by pipe P.

Time taken by pipe Q = 1 / Work done in 1 hour by pipe Q.

Calculation:

⇒ Work done in 1 hour by pipe P = 1 / 20.

⇒ Work done in 1 hour by pipe P and Q = 1 / 4.

⇒ Work done in 1 hour by pipe Q = (1 / 4) - (1 / 20).

⇒ Work done in 1 hour by pipe Q = (5 / 20) - (1 / 20).

⇒ Work done in 1 hour by pipe Q = 4 / 20.

⇒ Work done in 1 hour by pipe Q = 1 / 5.

⇒ Time taken by pipe Q = 1 / (1 / 5).

⇒ Time taken by pipe Q = 5 hours.

∴ The correct answer is 5.

Given:

Teja's work efficiency = 1/8 work/day

Vikram's work efficiency = 1/18 work/day

Total work = 1 unit

Formula Used:

LCM Method for Time and Work

Work completed per day = efficiency of Teja + efficiency of Vikram (alternate days)

Calculation:

LCM of 8 and 18 = 72 units (assume total work = 72 units)

Teja's efficiency = 72/8 = 9 units/day

Vikram's efficiency = 72/18 = 4 units/day

Work completed in 2 days = Vikram's 4 units + Teja's 9 units = 13 units

⇒ Total work = 72 units

⇒ Number of 2-day cycles = 72 / 13 = 5 cycles (approx.)

Work completed in 5 cycles = 5 × 13 = 65 units

Remaining work = 72 - 65 = 7 units

On the next day (Vikram's turn), he completes 4 units.

Remaining work = 7 - 4 = 3 units

Next day (Teja's turn) completes the remaining 3 units.

Total days = 5 cycles × 2 days + 2 additional days = 10 + 2 = 11¹/3 days

∴ The correct answer is 11131113

.

Given:

Average of three numbers = 20

Two numbers = 14, 26

Formula Used:

Average = (Sum of numbers) / (Total numbers)

Sum of numbers = Average × Total numbers

Calculation:

⇒ Sum of three numbers = 20 × 3

⇒ Sum of three numbers = 60

⇒ Third number = Sum of three numbers − (First number + Second number)

⇒ Third number = 60 − (14 + 26)

⇒ Third number = 60 − 40

⇒ Third number = 20

∴ The correct answer is 20.

Given:

Buy 19 articles and get 1 free.

All articles have the same marked price.

Formula Used:

Discount Percentage = (Value of Free Articles / Total Value of Articles) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Value of 1 article = Marked Price

⇒ Total value of 20 articles = 20 × Marked Price

⇒ Value of free article = 1 × Marked Price

⇒ Discount Percentage = (1 × Marked Price / 20 × Marked Price) × 100

⇒ Discount Percentage = (1 / 20) × 100

⇒ Discount Percentage = 5%

∴ The correct answer is 5.

Given Data from Bar Graph:

⇒ Production in 2016 = 40 (in 10,000 tonnes)

⇒ Production in 2019 = 55 (in 10,000 tonnes)

Concept Used:

⇒ Percentage increase = (Increase ÷ Original value) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Increase in production = 55 − 40

⇒ Increase = 15

⇒ Percentage increase = (15 ÷ 40) × 100

⇒ Percentage increase = 0.375 × 100

⇒ Percentage increase = 37.5%

Final Answer:

⇒ Percentage increase from 2016 to 2019 = 37.5%

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹55,000

Rate of Interest (R) = 12% per annum

Time (T) = 2 years

Formula Used:

Compound Interest (CI) = Amount (A) - Principal (P)

Amount (A) = P × (1 + R/100)^T

Calculation:

⇒ A = 55,000 × (1 + 12/100)²

⇒ A = 55,000 × (1 + 0.12)²

⇒ A = 55,000 × (1.12)²

⇒ A = 55,000 × 1.2544

⇒ A = ₹68,992

⇒ CI = A - P

⇒ CI = 68,992 - 55,000

⇒ CI = ₹13,992

∴ The correct answer is ₹13,992.

Given:

Let the total number be x.

The first part = a.

The second part = b.

5 × a + 13 × b = 7 × x.

a + b = x.

Formula Used:

1. Substitute x = a + b into the equation.
2. Ratio = a : b.

Calculation:

⇒ 5 × a + 13 × b = 7 × (a + b)

⇒ 5 × a + 13 × b = 7 × a + 7 × b

⇒ 5 × a - 7 × a + 13 × b - 7 × b = 0

⇒ -2 × a + 6 × b = 0

⇒ 6 × b = 2 × a

⇒ a / b = 6 / 2

⇒ a / b = 3 / 1

∴ The correct answer is 3 : 1.

Given:

A can run 30 m in 8 seconds.

B can run 30 m in 12 seconds.

Formula Used:

Speed = Distance / Time

Distance = Speed × Time

Calculation:

Speed of A = 30 / 8 = 3.75 m/s

Speed of B = 30 / 12 = 2.5 m/s

Time taken by A to complete the race = 8 seconds

Distance covered by B in 8 seconds = Speed of B × Time = 2.5 × 8 = 20 m

Distance by which A beats B = 30 - 20 = 10 m

∴ The correct answer is 10 m.

Given:

Cost price per kg (CP) = ₹40

Selling price per kg (SP) = ₹38

Actual weight = 500 g

Used weight = 400 g

Formula Used:

Profit % = [(Profit / Cost Price) × 100]

Profit = Selling Price × (Actual weight / Used weight) - Cost Price

Calculation:

⇒ Profit = ₹38 × (500 / 400) - ₹40

⇒ Profit = ₹38 × 1.25 - ₹40

⇒ Profit = ₹47.5 - ₹40

⇒ Profit = ₹7.5

⇒ Profit % = (₹7.5 / ₹40) × 100

⇒ Profit % = 18.75%

⇒ Profit % ≈ 19%

∴ The correct answer is 19% profit.

Given:

56

90

360

140

Formula Used:

LCM = Least Common Multiple

Prime factorization method

Calculation:

Prime factors of 56: 2³ × 7

Prime factors of 90: 2 × 3² × 5

Prime factors of 360: 2³ × 3² × 5

Prime factors of 140: 2² × 5 × 7

⇒ LCM = Highest powers of all primes = 2³ × 3² × 5 × 7

⇒ LCM = 8 × 9 × 5 × 7

⇒ LCM = 2520

∴ The correct answer is 2520.

Given:

Length of train = 300 m

Length of platform = 300 m

Speed of train = 72 km/hr = 72 × (1000 / 3600) m/s = 20 m/s

Formula Used:

Time = Total distance / Speed

Calculation:

⇒ Total distance = Length of train + Length of platform

⇒ Total distance = 300 + 300 = 600 m

⇒ Time = 600 / 20

⇒ Time = 30 seconds

∴ The correct answer is 30 seconds.

Given:

Reduced price = ₹1,068

Reduction = 50%

Formula Used:

Reduced price = Original price × (1 - Reduction)

Original price = Reduced price / (1 - Reduction)

Calculation:

⇒ Reduction = 50% = 50 / 100 = 0.5

⇒ Original price = ₹1,068 / (1 - 0.5)

⇒ Original price = ₹1,068 / 0.5

⇒ Original price = ₹2,136

∴ The correct answer is ₹2,136.

Given:

A's initial investment = ₹20,000

B's initial investment = ₹28,000

C's initial investment = ₹36,000

A and B withdrew ₹8,000 each after 6 months

C added ₹8,000 after 6 months

C's share of profit = ₹12,575

Formula Used:

Profit sharing ratio = Investment × Time

Total profit = (Individual's profit / Individual's ratio) × Total ratio

Calculation:

⇒ A's investment for the first 6 months = ₹20,000 × 6 = ₹120,000

⇒ A's investment for the next 6 months = ₹12,000 × 6 = ₹72,000

⇒ Total investment of A = ₹120,000 + ₹72,000 = ₹192,000

⇒ B's investment for the first 6 months = ₹28,000 × 6 = ₹168,000

⇒ B's investment for the next 6 months = ₹20,000 × 6 = ₹120,000

⇒ Total investment of B = ₹168,000 + ₹120,000 = ₹288,000

⇒ C's investment for the first 6 months = ₹36,000 × 6 = ₹216,000

⇒ C's investment for the next 6 months = ₹44,000 × 6 = ₹264,000

⇒ Total investment of C = ₹216,000 + ₹264,000 = ₹480,000

⇒ Total ratio = A : B : C = ₹192,000 : ₹288,000 : ₹480,000

⇒ Simplify ratio = 192 : 288 : 480 = 4 : 6 : 10

⇒ Total ratio = 4 + 6 + 10 = 20

⇒ Total profit = (C's profit / C's ratio) × Total ratio

⇒ Total profit = (₹12,575 / 10) × 20

⇒ Total profit = ₹25,150

∴ The correct answer is ₹25,150.

Given:

Simple Interest (SI) = ₹478

Time (T) = 5 years

Rate of Interest (R) = 2% per annum

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) / 100

Where P is the Principal amount

Calculation:

⇒ 478 = (P × 2 × 5) / 100

⇒ 478 = (10 × P) / 100

⇒ P = (478 × 100) / 10

⇒ P = 4780

∴ The correct answer is 4,780.

Given:

Number = 2433

Options = 31, 16, 15, 32

Formula Used:

Perfect square = n², where n is a natural number.

Smallest number to subtract = Number - Closest smaller perfect square.

Calculation:

⇒ Closest perfect square smaller than 2433 = 49² = 2401

⇒ Smallest number to subtract = 2433 - 2401

⇒ Smallest number to subtract = 32

∴ The correct answer is 32.

Given:

House rent = 46% of monthly salary

Conveyance expenses = ₹544

Groceries expenses = ₹5,441

Savings = ₹846

Formula Used:

Total monthly salary = House rent + Conveyance expenses + Groceries expenses + Savings

House rent = 46% of monthly salary

Calculation:

Let monthly salary = x

⇒ House rent = 46% of x = (46/100) × x = 0.46x

⇒ Total expenses = House rent + Conveyance expenses + Groceries expenses + Savings

⇒ x = 0.46x + 544 + 5441 + 846

⇒ x - 0.46x = 544 + 5441 + 846

⇒ 0.54x = 6831

⇒ x = 6831 / 0.54

⇒ x = 12,650

∴ The correct answer is 12,650.

Given:

Average weight of Shivam, Rupesh, and Mandar = 45 kg

Average weight of Shivam and Rupesh = 38 kg

Average weight of Rupesh and Mandar = 49 kg

Formula Used:

Sum of weights = Average × Number of people

Weight of Rupesh = (Sum of Rupesh's contributions from both pairs) - (Sum of Shivam, Rupesh, and Mandar)

Calculation:

⇒ Sum of weights of Shivam, Rupesh, and Mandar = 45 × 3 = 135 kg

⇒ Sum of weights of Shivam and Rupesh = 38 × 2 = 76 kg

⇒ Sum of weights of Rupesh and Mandar = 49 × 2 = 98 kg

⇒ Total contributions of Rupesh from both pairs = 76 + 98 = 174 kg

⇒ Weight of Rupesh = 174 - 135 = 39 kg

∴ The correct answer is 39.

The correct answer is: Option 4 (unaffected).

Key Points

• The word "pretentious" means attempting to impress by affecting greater importance, talent, culture, etc., than is actually possessed. (दिखावटी, बनावटी)
• Example: His pretentious manner at the party made everyone uncomfortable.
• "Unaffected" refers to something that is natural, genuine, or sincere, without any artificial or pretentious behavior. (प्रभावित नहीं, स्वाभाविक)
• Example: She had an unaffected charm that made her instantly likable.
• In the context of the given sentence, Megha is saying that the art exhibition was not pretentious but rather natural and genuine, which aligns with the meaning of "unaffected."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4 (unaffected).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Unabashed (बेझिझक, निर्लज्ज): Not embarrassed or ashamed about openly expressing oneself.
• Example: She was unabashed in her criticism of the new policy.
• Uninhibited (स्वतंत्र, बंधनमुक्त): Expressing oneself freely without any reservations or restrictions.
• Example: His uninhibited laughter filled the room with joy.
• Unabated (बिना रुके, लगातार): Without any reduction in intensity or strength.
• Example: The storm continued unabated for hours.

The correct answer is 'far more'.

 

Key Points

• The word "far more" is used to make comparisons between two things and indicates a significant degree of difference.
• The sentence compares the level of interest between two novels, making "far more" the most appropriate choice.
• Options 1, 2, 4, and 5 are grammatically or contextually incorrect in this sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: "That novel was far more interesting than the one we had to read last semester."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "far most" is incorrect because "far most" does not convey the intended comparative meaning.
• Option 2: "the most" is incorrect as it implies a superlative comparison, which is not suitable here.
• Option 4: "the lesser" is incorrect because it does not fit the context of the sentence.

The correct answer is 'most eloquent'.

 

Key Points

• The adjective "eloquent" describes the ability to express oneself clearly and effectively.
• When comparing more than two entities, the superlative form "most eloquent" is used.
• Option 1: "eloquentest" is incorrect as it is not a valid word.
• Option 3: "more eloquent" is incorrect because it is used for comparison between two entities, not as a superlative.
• Option 4: "less eloquent" is incorrect because it implies a lesser degree of eloquence, which does not fit the context of being recognised as the best speaker.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: "She was recognised as the most eloquent speaker at the conference."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "eloquentest" is not a grammatically correct word in English.
• Option 3: "more eloquent" is used for comparison between two entities but does not fit the context.
• Option 4: "less eloquent" indicates a lesser level of eloquence, which is not applicable to being recognised as the best speaker.

The correct answer is 'do they'.

 

Key Points

• The sentence contains a negative verb ("don't speak"), so the question tag must be positive.
• The subject of the sentence is plural ("the students"), so the correct auxiliary verb is "do."
• Option 1 ("are they"), Option 2 ("will they"), and Option 4 ("could they") are grammatically incorrect in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: "The students don't speak the foreign language, do they?"

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "are they" is incorrect because it does not align with the auxiliary verb "don't."
• Option 2: "will they" is incorrect because the sentence is in the present tense, not the future tense.
• Option 4: "could they" is incorrect because it does not fit the context of the sentence.

The correct answer is 'a little'.

 

Key Points

• The phrase "a little" is used to indicate a small quantity of something that is uncountable, such as "money."
• The sentence refers to the amount of money, which is an uncountable noun, making "a little" the most appropriate choice.
• Option 2 ("Few") and Option 4 ("A few") are incorrect because they are used with countable nouns.
• Option 1 ("More") is incorrect because it does not fit the context of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: *"*A little money I had was not sufficient to purchase that book."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "Few" is used for countable nouns and is inappropriate in this context.
• Option 4: "A few" is also used for countable nouns, which makes it unsuitable here.
• Option 1: "More" does not fit the sentence contextually as it does not specify the small quantity of money.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• The paragraph begins with Sentence B, which introduces the central idea of turbulence and the challenges of managing the environment in the modern era.
• Sentence B is the first sentence as it establishes the context:
• "In an era of consistent turbulence, managing the environment has become a source of constant challenge."
• Sentence D follows as it provides an example of a significant challenge, the Covid-19 pandemic:
• "Not so long ago, the nature had thrusted upon us a unique and unprecedented challenge of our lifetime, the Covid-19."
• Sentence C comes next as it elaborates on the impact of such challenges, describing their scale and effects on our lives:
• "We saw unsurmountable challenges of epic proportions deluging our lives in one way or other."
• Sentence A concludes the paragraph as it ties the discussion back to the broader idea of the environment, encompassing all aspects that make life livable:
• "So, when we talk about the environment, it is not necessarily the ecology part of it but the entire gamut of things that makes it livable and achievable."
• The correct sequence is BDCA.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"In an era of consistent turbulence, managing the environment has become a source of constant challenge. Not so long ago, the nature had thrusted upon us a unique and unprecedented challenge of our lifetime, the Covid-19. We saw unsurmountable challenges of epic proportions deluging our lives in one way or other. So, when we talk about the environment, it is not necessarily the ecology part of it but the entire gamut of things that makes it livable and achievable."

The correct answer is: by hook or by crook.

Key Points

• The phrase "by hook or by crook" means to achieve something by any means necessary, whether fair or unfair. (किसी भी तरह से, चाहे सही हो या गलत)
• Example: He was determined to win the competition by hook or by crook.
• The given sentence conveys the idea that the candidate contesting Assembly elections wanted to procure the Assembly seat by any possible method, which aligns perfectly with the idiom "by hook or by crook." (किसी भी संभव तरीके से सीट प्राप्त करना)

Therefore, the correct answer is: by hook or by crook.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• by leaps and bounds (तेजी से): Refers to rapid and significant progress or growth.
• Example: The company has grown by leaps and bounds over the past year.
• by the skin of his teeth (बहुत कम अंतर से): Refers to barely managing to accomplish something, often by a narrow margin.
• Example: He passed the exam by the skin of his teeth.
• by the book (नियमों के अनुसार): Refers to following rules or instructions precisely.
• Example: The manager insists on doing everything by the book.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'dessicate'.

• The correct spelling would be 'desiccate'.
• The word 'desiccate' is a verb which means 'to dry out thoroughly or remove moisture'. (सूखा देना)
• For Example -
• The blazing sun began to desiccate the plants.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'desiccate'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Specialised - Adapted for a particular purpose or function (विशेषीकृत)
• Physiological -  Relating to the branch of biology dealing with the normal functions of living organisms and their parts (शारीरिक)
• Dormant - Having normal physical functions suspended or slowed down for a period of time; in a state of rest (सुप्त)

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• The paragraph discusses the evolution of nuclear weapons during the Cold War era and the resulting proliferation.
• Sentence B is the first sentence as it introduces the central theme of the nuclear bomb being the most significant weapon of the Cold War:
• "The most significant weapon of the Cold War era, despite being rarely used, was the nuclear bomb and its subsequent advancements."
• Sentence A follows as it mentions the Soviet Union's atomic bomb test, marking the beginning of the nuclear arms race:
• "After the Soviet Union successfully detonated their own atomic bomb in 1949, the race to join the nuclear club began for other nations."
• Sentence D comes next as it elaborates on the nations that developed nuclear technology despite international efforts to prevent proliferation:
• "This resulted in Britain, France, China, India, Pakistan, Israel, South Africa, and North Korea all acquiring or developing nuclear bomb technology, despite international efforts to prevent this spread."
• Sentence C is the last sentence as it concludes with the United States escalating the arms race further:
• "In response to this proliferation, the United States further escalated the arms race by testing a far more powerful hydrogen bomb in 1951 and expanding its nuclear-powered submarine fleet."
• The correct sequence is BADC.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"The most significant weapon of the Cold War era, despite being rarely used, was the nuclear bomb and its subsequent advancements. After the Soviet Union successfully detonated their own atomic bomb in 1949, the race to join the nuclear club began for other nations. This resulted in Britain, France, China, India, Pakistan, Israel, South Africa, and North Korea all acquiring or developing nuclear bomb technology, despite international efforts to prevent this spread. In response to this proliferation, the United States further escalated the arms race by testing a far more powerful hydrogen bomb in 1951 and expanding its nuclear-powered submarine fleet."

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'conoisseur'.

• The correct spelling would be 'connoisseur'.
• The word 'connoisseur' is a noun which means 'an expert judge in matters of taste, especially in fine arts or food'. (पारखी)
• For Example -
• He is a true connoisseur of classical music.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'connoisseur'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other options - 

• Conoiesseur - Incorrect spelling of 'connoisseur'.
• Connoiseur - Another incorrect spelling of 'connoisseur'.
• Connoisuer - Yet another incorrect spelling of 'connoisseur'.

The correct answer is: Coulrophobia.

Key Points

• The word "Coulrophobia" refers to an irrational fear or phobia of clowns. (जोकरों का डर)
• Example: After watching a horror movie featuring an evil clown, her coulrophobia became more intense.
• "Fear of clowns" is directly associated with coulrophobia, and it is a recognized psychological condition. (जोकरों का डर)
• Example: Many children experience coulrophobia after encountering clowns in circuses or birthday parties.
• Hence, we can infer that the one-word substitute for "fear of clowns" is "Coulrophobia."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Coulrophobia.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Mysophobia (गंदगी का डर): An extreme fear of germs, dirt, or contamination.
• Example: His mysophobia leads him to wash his hands obsessively throughout the day.
• Xenophobia (विदेशियों का डर): Fear or hatred of strangers or foreigners.
• Example: Xenophobia can result in discriminatory behavior against people from other countries.
• Tetraphobia (चार अंक से डर): Fear of the number 4, which is prevalent in East Asian cultures where it is associated with death.
• Example: In China, tetraphobia leads many buildings to skip the fourth floor in numbering.

The correct answer is: Option 2) Restrained.

Key Points

• The word "boisterous" means noisy, energetic, and cheerful; it can also imply rowdy or loud behavior. (उत्साही और शोरगुल वाला)
• Example: The kids were boisterous as they played in the park, laughing and shouting loudly.
• The word "restrained" refers to someone who is controlled, calm, and not excessively emotional or loud. It is the opposite of boisterous. (संयमित)
• Example: Despite the heated argument, she remained restrained and handled the situation calmly.
• Hence, we can conclude that the antonym of "boisterous" is "restrained."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2) Restrained.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Traditional (पारंपरिक): Refers to something following long-established customs or practices.
• Example: She wore a traditional outfit to the festival, showcasing her cultural heritage.
• Parsimonious (कंजूस): Refers to someone who is very unwilling to spend money or use resources.
• Example: The parsimonious man avoided eating out to save money.
• Dubious (संदिग्ध): Refers to something that is doubtful, uncertain, or suspicious.
• Example: His dubious explanation for missing the meeting raised a lot of questions.

The correct answer is: Graphologist.

Key Points

• The word "Graphologist" refers to a person who studies handwriting to analyze a person's character or personality traits. (लेख विशेषज्ञ)
• Example: The graphologist analyzed the handwriting samples to identify the personality traits of the candidates.
• Correct word explanation: A graphologist is someone specialized in graphology, which is the study of handwriting to understand psychological characteristics. (लेख विशेषज्ञ)
• Example: The expert graphologist was called to examine the handwriting in the forged document.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Graphologist.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Otologist (कान रोग विशेषज्ञ): A doctor specializing in the study and treatment of diseases of the ear.
• Example: The otologist helped the patient recover from chronic ear infections.
• Neurologist (तंत्रिका विज्ञानी): A doctor specializing in the diagnosis and treatment of diseases of the nervous system.
• Example: The neurologist prescribed medications to manage the patient's seizures.
• Serologist (सीरम विशेषज्ञ): A scientist who studies blood serum to diagnose diseases or immune responses.
• Example: The serologist examined the blood samples for signs of infection.

The correct answer is 'do they'.

 

Key Points

• The sentence uses the word "seldom", which indicates rarity or infrequency.
• In negative sentences, the question tag should be positive.
• Option 4: "do they" is the correct question tag as it matches the tense and structure of the sentence.
• Option 1: "don't they" is incorrect because the sentence is negative, and the question tag must be positive.
• Option 2: "didn't they" is incorrect because it uses the past tense, while the sentence is in the present tense.
• Option 3: "will they" is incorrect because the sentence does not refer to a future action.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Complete Sentence: "They seldom start early, do they?"

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "don't they" is incorrect because it does not follow the rule of a positive question tag after a negative sentence.
• Option 2: "didn't they" is incorrect because it uses the wrong tense.
• Option 3: "will they" is incorrect as it refers to future tense, which is not relevant in this context.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Distinguish the valuable from the worthless.

Key Points

• The idiom "separate the wheat from the chaff" means to distinguish between what is valuable and what is worthless. (बेकार और कीमती चीजों के बीच अंतर करना)
• Example: The manager's job is to separate the wheat from the chaff and select the best candidates for the role.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: Offer something valuable to a stranger (किसी अजनबी को कीमती चीज़ देना): This option doesn’t align with the meaning of the idiom.
• Example: Giving a precious gift to someone you don't know is like offering something valuable to a stranger.
• Option 2: Make demands that can’t be fulfilled (ऐसी माँग करना जिसे पूरा नहीं किया जा सके): This does not capture the essence of the given idiom.
• Example: Asking for perfection in every task is like making demands that can’t be fulfilled.
• Option 4: Pay too much for unnecessary things (अनावश्यक चीज़ों पर अधिक भुगतान करना): This is unrelated to the meaning of the idiom.
• Example: He paid too much for unnecessary things like decorative items for his office.

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Key Points

• The passage examines how artificial intelligence is affecting human agency, decision-making, and ethical responsibility.
• It discusses the biases and ethical dilemmas embedded in AI systems, the challenge of accountability due to model opacity, and the need for transparency and values-driven design.
• Option 2: AI systems function objectively and independently.
• Incorrect, the passage highlights that AI systems are not neutral or purely objective.
• Option 3: AI is more efficient than human cognition.
• Incorrect, efficiency is discussed but not as the main theme.
• Option 4: Technical limitations of AI models in machine learning
• Incorrect, the passage's focus is broader than technical limitations; it centers on ethics and agency.

Therefore, the central theme of the passage is AI's impact on human agency and ethical responsibility.

The correct answer is: Option (3) i.e. Diminish.

Key Points

• The word “augment” means to make something greater by adding to it; to increase. (बढ़ाना / वृद्धि करना)
• Example: He worked extra hours to augment his income.
• “Diminish” is the antonym of “augment”; it means to make or become less. (घटाना / कम करना)
• Example: The medicine helped diminish the pain.
• Hence, “diminish” is the most appropriate antonym of “augment”.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Diminish

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Enhance (बढ़ाना): To improve or increase.
• Example: The new software will enhance productivity.
• Expand (विस्तार करना): To increase in size, number, or importance.
• Example: The company plans to expand its business overseas.
• Support (समर्थन करना): To give assistance or backing.
• Example: She supports her friend in difficult times.

The correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Key Points

• The passage clearly states that AI systems can and do reinforce existing societal biases, especially when deployed in high-stakes domains and when they inherit the assumptions and prejudices of their developers.
• Option 1: Deep learning models are entirely transparent in their functioning.
• Incorrect, the passage describes deep learning as operating like a "black box."
• Option 2: Moral accountability in AI is a universally resolved issue.
• Incorrect, the passage raises the challenge of accountability as an ongoing dilemma.
• Option 3: Human involvement in AI decision-making ensures moral neutrality.
• Incorrect, human involvement can bring biases, not just neutrality.

Therefore, it can be inferred that AI systems can reinforce existing societal biases.

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Key Points

• The passage adopts a reflective and critical tone, analyzing both the promise and ethical challenges of AI, emphasizing transparency, accountability, and the risks of bias and opacity.
• Option 1: Optimistic and celebratory
• Incorrect, the passage is not celebratory and raises concerns.
• Option 2: Alarmist and skeptical
• Incorrect, the passage is analytical and balanced, not alarmist.
• Option 4: Detached and indifferent
• Incorrect, the author is engaged and evaluative.

Therefore, the tone of the passage is reflective and critical.

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Key Points

• The passage advocates for the development of AI through transparency, inclusivity, and interdisciplinary ethical collaboration, emphasizing that AI’s future depends on embedding moral imagination, cultural sensitivity, and democratic values in its design.
• Option 2: AI should fully replace human moral decision-making.
• Incorrect, the passage warns against delegating human judgment entirely to AI.
• Option 3: AI systems should remain free from ethical constraints.
• Incorrect, the passage calls for strong ethical oversight and values-driven design.
• Option 4: The role of AI is solely technical, not moral.
• Incorrect, the author stresses the moral and cultural dimensions of AI development.

Therefore, the author’s stance is best captured by AI must be developed through interdisciplinary ethical collaboration.

सही उत्तर - को।

Key Points 

• कारक के आधार पर पूर्ण वाक्य - शारीरिक प्रशिक्षण विद्यार्थियों के बेहतर स्वास्थ्य की परिकल्पना को संपूर्ण करता है।
• कर्म कारक - कर्म कारक का अर्थ है, वाक्य में क्रिया के कार्य का फल जिस संज्ञा या सर्वनाम पर पड़ता है, उसे कर्म कारक कहते हैं।
• इसकी विभक्ति 'को' होती है।

उदाहरण :

✦ रिमा ने गीता को बुलाया। 

✦ माँ बच्चे को सुला रही है। 

✦ पापा ने बालक को समझाया 

Additional Informationअन्य सभी विकल्प सम्बन्ध कारक के हैं :

**सम्बन्ध कारक :**सम्बन्ध कार संज्ञा या सर्वनाम के उस रूप को कहते हैं जो वाक्य में किसी अन्य शब्द (विशेषकर संज्ञा) से उसका स्वामित्व, अधिकार या गहरा संबंध दर्शाता है।