DSSSB PGT (Political Science) Official Paper (Held On: 14 Jul, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

The logic followed here is:

LG-NI-PS

And

NI-PK-RU

Only Option 2) follow the same logic.

PK-RM-TW

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) 'HJM':

Option 2) 'WYB':

Option 3) 'ACF':

Option 4) 'PQS':

The HJM, WYB, and ACF all follow the +2, +3 pattern. However, PQS follows a +1, +2 pattern.

Thus, the letter-cluster that DOES NOT belong to that group is PQS.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

BODMAS Rule:

According to the question, the letters are interchanged as follows:

 

Now, given the equation: 56 I 17 J 5 L 23 I (117 K 13) I 63 J 2 = ?

After interchanging the specified letters, the new equation is:

56 + 17 × 5 − 23 + (117 ÷ 13) + 63 × 2 = ?

Perform operations according to BODMAS:

→ 56 + 17 × 5 − 23 + (117 ÷ 13) + 63 × 2

→ 56 + 17 × 5 − 23 + 9 + 63 × 2

→ 56 + 85 − 23 + 9 + 126

→ 141 + 9 − 23 + 126

→ 150 + 126 − 23

→ 276 − 23

→ 253

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The least possible venn diagram:

Conclusions:

(I) Some monkeys are zebras → True (As, All zebras are bears and All bears are monkeys, so some monkeys are zebras is definite)

(II) Some monkeys are giraffes → True (As, Some giraffes are zebras and All zebras are bears and All bears are monkeys, so some monkeys are giraffes is definite)

Thus, Both conclusion I and II follow.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given:

Seven people, H, I, J, K, L, M, and N, are standing in a row facing north.

H stands second from the right end.

Exactly three people stand between H and I.

M and K are immediate neighbors of H.

Only L stands between K and J.

Thus, K stands fourth to the right of N.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given:

Six persons (A, B, C, D, M, N) live on floors 1 (bottom) to 6 (top).

1. A lives on an even-numbered floor but not on floor number 4.

2. Only two people live between A and N.

3. M lives on an odd-numbered floor but not on the bottom floor (1).

This means M lives on Floor 3 or Floor 5.

4. B lives immediately below M.

• Testing Case 1 (A=2, N=5): If N is on 5, M must be on 3. If M is on 3, B must be on 2. However, A is already on Floor 2. Case 1 is eliminated.
• Testing Case 2 (A=6, N=3): If N is on 3, M must be on 5. If M is on 5, B must be on 4.

 

5. Only two people live between M and D.

6. Placing the remaining person.

 

Thus,  2 people live between C and B.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

Given:

Arranging the numbers in ascending order (from smallest to largest):

139, 345, 546, 618, 731

 

Thus, the number of unchanged positions is None.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is.

 

Thus, the letter-cluster that DOES NOT belong to that group is EHJ.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = (First Number × 2) – 4

Applying the logic to find X:

In the first pair X : 40

⇒ (X × 2) – 4 = 40

⇒ 2X = 44

⇒ X = 22

Applying the logic to find Y:

In the second pair 6 : Y

⇒ (6 × 2) – 4 = Y

⇒ 12 – 4 = Y

⇒ Y = 8

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given:

Arranging the numbers in ascending order (from smallest to largest):

194, 378, 456, 639, 726

 

By comparing the two sequences, the numbers 378 and 726 remain in their original positions.

Thus, there are Two such numbers.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) 'NIM':

Option 2) 'PKQ':

Option 3) 'KFJ':

Option 4) 'SNR':

The NIM, KFJ, and SNR all follow the -5, +4 pattern. However, PKQ follows a -5, +6 pattern.

Thus, the letter-cluster that DOES NOT belong to that group is PKQ.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

As per the given information;

Pushkar, starting at point A, drives 12 km west. He then turns left and drives 17 km. He takes a final left turn and drives 7 km before stopping at point B.

Hemant starts from point P, located 12 km east of point A, and drives 5 km west. He then turns left and drives 17 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 9 km, and stops at point Q.

The shortest distance between point Q and point B is 3 km.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.

The logic followed here is.

Thus, the letter-cluster that DOES NOT belong to that group is QSU.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = (First Number × 2) + 1

Applying the logic to find X

In the pair X : 25:

⇒ (X × 2) + 1 = 25

⇒ 2X = 24

⇒ X = 12

Applying the logic to find Y

In the pair 27 : Y:

⇒ (27 × 2) + 1 = Y

⇒ 54 + 1 = Y

⇒ Y = 55

Thus, the values of X = 12 and Y = 55.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The given coded language is:

Thus, 'water' is coded as 'pa'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given:

Six persons (A, B, C, D, M, N) live on floors 1 (bottom) to 6 (top).

1. Only three people live between D and M, where D lives below M.

This means M is 4 floors above D (M = D + 4). The possible positions are:

• If D is on floor 1, M is on floor 5.
• If D is on floor 2, M is on floor 6.

2. B lives on an odd-numbered floor and immediately above D.

This means B = D + 1. Let's test the possibilities from Step 1:

• If D is on floor 1, B is on floor 2. But B must be on an ODD floor. (Discarded)
• If D is on floor 2, B is on floor 3. 3 is an ODD floor. (Valid)

Therefore, D is on Floor 2, B is on Floor 3, and M is on Floor 6.

 

3. C lives on one of the floors below N and one of the floors above A.

 

Thus, N lives on Floor 5.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

BODMAS Rule:

According to the question, the letters are interchanged as follows:

Now, given the equation: (171 Q 19) S (162 Q 18) P 5 R 3 S 42 P 5 = ?

After interchanging the specified letters, the new equation is:

(171 ÷ 19) + (162 ÷ 18) × 5 − 3 + 42 × 5 = ?

Perform operations according to BODMAS:

→ (171 ÷ 19) + (162 ÷ 18) × 5 − 3 + 42 × 5

→ 9 + 9 × 5 − 3 + 42 × 5

→ 9 + 45 − 3 + 210

→ 54 + 210 − 3

→ 264 − 3

→ 261

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

 

Thus, the missing number in the series is 118.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given:

The statement says Region A produces premium quality tea but has not become a major export hub. We need the reason that directly affects export capability.

Reason I: Limited access to international ports and shipping routes hampers export potential.

Exports depend mainly on transportation and port connectivity. If Region A lacks proper shipping access, exports will naturally be low despite high-quality tea.

This directly explains the situation — valid reason.

Reason II: Region B meets 30% of the national demand for tea exports.

Another region exporting more does not logically prevent Region A from becoming an export hub. Multiple regions can be major exporters at the same time.

This does not directly explain Region A’s weak export status.

Thus, only Reason I explains the statement.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.

Given Expression:

F & G $ H < U - V 

U - V: U is the son of V.

H < U: H is the father of U.

G $ H: G is the brother of H.

F & G: F is the wife of G.

Family Tree Representation:

Thus, F is the wife of V's husband's brother (Husband's brother's wife).

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"$.

The correct answer is Constitution Day.

Key Points

• National festivals in India are occasions of national importance and are celebrated across the country with enthusiasm. The three recognized national festivals are Gandhi Jayanti, Republic Day, and Independence Day.
• Constitution Day, also known as Samvidhan Diwas, is observed on 26^th November every year to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India. However, it is not officially categorized as a national festival.
• Gandhi Jayanti, celebrated on 2^nd October, honors Mahatma Gandhi, the Father of the Nation, for his significant contribution to India’s independence through non-violence.
• Republic Day, observed on 26^th January, marks the day when the Constitution of India came into effect in 1950, transforming India into a sovereign republic.
• Independence Day, celebrated on 15^th August, commemorates India’s independence from British rule in 1947.
• Constitution Day, while important, is not celebrated at the same level as the above three national festivals and does not hold the status of a national holiday.

Additional Information

• Constitution Day:
• Constitution Day was declared in 2015 by the Government of India to honor the adoption of the Indian Constitution on 26^th November 1949.
• The day is celebrated to emphasize the significance of the Constitution and its principles of democracy, justice, and equality.
• On this day, activities like reading the Preamble, organizing debates, and spreading awareness about constitutional values are encouraged in schools and institutions.
• It is not a public holiday, unlike the recognized national festivals.
• Gandhi Jayanti:
• Gandhi Jayanti is one of India’s three national holidays and is celebrated on 2^nd October.
• This day commemorates the birth of Mahatma Gandhi and is observed as the International Day of Non-Violence by the United Nations.
• It is marked by prayer services, tributes at Gandhi’s memorial in Raj Ghat, Delhi, and events promoting non-violence and peace.
• Republic Day:
• Republic Day is celebrated on 26^th January to honor the date on which the Constitution of India came into effect in 1950.
• The main celebration is held in New Delhi, with a grand parade showcasing the country’s cultural heritage, military strength, and achievements.
• It symbolizes India’s transition to a republic and its commitment to democracy.
• Independence Day:
• Independence Day is celebrated on 15^th August to mark the end of British colonial rule in 1947.
• The day is celebrated with flag-hoisting ceremonies, cultural programs, and speeches by the Prime Minister at the Red Fort in Delhi.
• It is a symbol of India’s sovereignty and freedom.

Important Points

• National Festivals:
• India officially recognizes three national festivals: Independence Day, Republic Day, and Gandhi Jayanti.
• These festivals are observed as public holidays across the country and hold significant historical and cultural importance.
• Constitution Day’s Importance:
• Although not a national festival, Constitution Day highlights the democratic framework of India and encourages citizens to uphold constitutional values.
• It is an educational day aimed at fostering awareness about the Constitution’s principles and its role in governance.
• Public Holidays:
• National festivals like Republic Day, Independence Day, and Gandhi Jayanti are declared public holidays under the Negotiable Instruments Act.
• Constitution Day, while important, does not fall under this category.

The correct answer is New Delhi.

Key Points

• The National Council for Promotion of Urdu Language (NCPUL) is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Education, Government of India.
• The headquarters of NCPUL is located in New Delhi, the capital city of India.
• It was established in 1996 with the aim of promoting and developing the Urdu language and its cultural heritage.
• NCPUL serves as the principal agency of the Government of India for coordinating activities related to Urdu education, research, and development.
• The organization also focuses on promoting computer education in Urdu and runs various programs to encourage the use of technology for the advancement of the language.

Additional Information

• Functions and Objectives of NCPUL:
• To undertake research and development projects for the promotion of Urdu language.
• To provide financial assistance to institutions and individuals engaged in Urdu education.
• To publish and disseminate Urdu books, dictionaries, and other literature to preserve the linguistic and cultural heritage.
• To organize workshops, seminars, and training programs to enhance the skills and capacities of Urdu teachers and students.
• To promote the use of information technology in Urdu education and develop e-learning resources in the language.
• Other Language Promotion Councils:
• National Council for Promotion of Sindhi Language (NCPSL): Promotes the Sindhi language and its literary activities.
• Central Hindi Directorate (CHD): Focuses on the development and spread of Hindi across India and abroad.
• Rashtriya Sanskrit Sansthan: Promotes Sanskrit language and literature and provides scholarships for higher studies in Sanskrit.
• Importance of Urdu Language:
• Urdu is one of the 22 scheduled languages under the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
• It has a rich cultural and literary heritage with contributions from renowned poets like Mirza Ghalib, Allama Iqbal, and Faiz Ahmed Faiz.
• The language is widely spoken in India, Pakistan, and other parts of the world, especially among the South Asian diaspora.
• Educational Initiatives by NCPUL:
• Runs Urdu correspondence courses to encourage the learning of the language among non-Urdu speakers.
• Offers diploma courses in Computer Applications in Urdu (DCAU) to integrate technology with language learning.
• Provides grants to madrasas and other institutions to modernize their curriculum and include subjects like science and mathematics.

Important Points

• Why New Delhi?
• New Delhi, being the capital of India, hosts the headquarters of many national organizations, including NCPUL, due to its administrative and logistical advantages.
• The city provides a central location for coordinating activities across India and ensures easy access to government ministries and other stakeholders.
• Government Initiatives for Language Promotion:
• The Government of India has established various councils like NCPUL to preserve and promote regional and classical languages.
• Such initiatives aim to foster cultural diversity and ensure the survival of India's rich linguistic heritage.
• Support for language education is seen as critical to maintaining the cultural identity of communities.

The correct answer is 4 per cent.

Key Points

• India accounts for approximately 4 per cent of the world's water resources. Despite having a significant population, its share of global water resources is limited.
• The total renewable water resources in India are estimated at around 1,897 billion cubic meters per year, which is about 4% of the global figure.
• The distribution of water resources in India is geographically uneven. While some areas like the northeastern states and the Himalayan region are water-abundant, others like Rajasthan and Gujarat face acute water scarcity.
• India is home to 17.7% of the world's population (as per the 2011 Census), but it has only 4% of the water resources, creating a significant demand-supply gap.
• This limited availability of water resources makes sustainable management of water crucial for India's development and water security.

Additional Information

• Global Water Distribution:
• 97% of the Earth's water is saline (found in oceans), while only 3% is freshwater.
• Out of this 3%, about 69% is stored in glaciers and ice caps, 30% is groundwater, and only about 1% is surface water available for human use.
• India's Water Challenges:
• India faces challenges like water pollution, over-extraction of groundwater, and uneven distribution of water resources.
• Regions like the Ganges basin are over-utilized, while dry areas like Rajasthan face severe water shortages.
• Major Rivers in India:
• India has several major river systems, including the Ganga, Brahmaputra, Indus, Godavari, and Krishna.
• These rivers play a key role in agriculture, drinking water supply, and hydroelectric power generation.
• Steps for Water Resource Management in India:
• Initiatives like the Jal Jeevan Mission aim to provide safe drinking water to rural households.
• The Atal Bhujal Yojana focuses on improving groundwater management.
• Efforts like rainwater harvesting and watershed management are encouraged for sustainable water use.

Important Points

• Per Capita Water Availability in India: India’s per capita water availability has declined from 5,177 cubic meters in 1951 to 1,545 cubic meters in 2011 due to population growth.
• International Reports: According to the United Nations World Water Development Report, water demand in India is expected to exceed supply by 2050, leading to severe water stress.
• Key Water Policies: The National Water Policy (2012) emphasizes sustainable water use and equitable distribution.
• Groundwater Depletion: India is the largest user of groundwater globally, with over 25% of global groundwater withdrawals happening in the country.

The correct answer is Costs that remain constant regardless of the level of production output.

Key Points

• Fixed costs are those expenses in production that do not change with the level of output produced. These costs remain constant regardless of whether production levels increase, decrease, or remain unchanged. Examples include rent for factory premises, salaries of permanent staff, and depreciation of machinery.
• They are incurred even if the production is zero, as these costs are tied to the infrastructure or operational setup of the business. For instance, the rent of a manufacturing unit must be paid even if no goods are produced during a specific period.
• Fixed costs are also referred to as overhead costs or sunk costs since they are unavoidable and do not vary with output in the short term.
• These costs are crucial for financial planning and cost analysis, as they help businesses determine the break-even point—the production level at which total revenue equals total costs.
• Unlike variable costs, which fluctuate with production levels, fixed costs are predictable and provide stability in cost analysis for business operations.

Additional Information

• Characteristics of Fixed Costs:
• Fixed costs remain constant in the short term irrespective of the production volume.
• They are time-related rather than output-related. For example, a company pays monthly rent for its office space regardless of production levels.
• In the long term, fixed costs may change due to factors like inflation, contractual adjustments, or expansion.
• Examples of Fixed Costs:
• Rent: Lease agreements for buildings or factory premises are a common fixed cost for businesses.
• Salaries: Payments to permanent staff who do not work on a commission or per-hour basis.
• Insurance: Premiums for business insurance policies remain constant over the policy term.
• Depreciation: The gradual reduction in the value of fixed assets such as machinery or buildings over time.
• Utilities: Some utility costs, like electricity for basic lighting or heating, may be fixed to a certain extent.
• Comparison with Variable Costs:
• Variable Costs: These change with production levels, such as raw materials, direct labor, and utility costs for running machinery.
• Fixed Costs: These remain constant in the short term, irrespective of production levels.
• For example, the cost of raw materials increases with the production of more goods, while rent for the factory remains fixed.
• Importance of Fixed Costs in Business:
• Understanding fixed costs helps companies calculate their break-even point, which is vital for strategic planning and pricing decisions.
• They are essential in determining the financial stability of a business, as high fixed costs may put pressure on the company during periods of low production or sales.
• Fixed costs also influence the economies of scale. As production increases, the fixed cost per unit decreases, making production more cost-effective.

Important Points

• Break-even Analysis:
• The break-even point is calculated using the formula: Break-even Point = Fixed Costs / (Selling Price per Unit - Variable Cost per Unit).
• It determines the minimum output required for the business to cover its fixed and variable costs.
• Fixed Costs and Profit Margins:
• High fixed costs may reduce the profit margin if sales are low.
• However, with high production levels, fixed costs per unit decrease, potentially leading to higher profit margins.
• Applications in Business Decision-Making:
• Fixed costs play a crucial role in deciding the scalability of a business model.
• They are also critical in making decisions related to automation, expansion, or outsourcing.

The correct answer is 1.

Key Points

• Social infrastructure refers to services and facilities that improve the quality of life and enhance the productivity of individuals. Examples include education, health, housing, and sanitation.
• Among the options provided, energy does not directly fall under social infrastructure. Instead, it is considered a part of economic infrastructure, which supports production and economic activities.
• Facilities like education, health, and housing are essential components of social infrastructure as they directly contribute to human development and well-being.
• Energy, while critical for economic activities and societal functioning, is categorized as part of the economic infrastructure, which includes roads, power, and industries.
• Thus, the inclusion of energy as a component of social infrastructure is incorrect. Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information

• Social Infrastructure:
• Social infrastructure focuses on improving the quality of life and human capital by providing facilities like schools, hospitals, housing, sanitation, and community spaces.
• It directly impacts the health, education, and living standards of the population.
• Examples of social infrastructure include healthcare services (hospitals, clinics), educational institutions (schools, colleges), and public housing schemes.
• Economic Infrastructure:
• Economic infrastructure supports economic activities and production processes by providing essential facilities like transport, energy, water supply, and communication networks.
• Examples include roads, railways, power plants, water supply systems, and communication networks.
• It is crucial for the economic growth and development of a nation.
• Key Differences Between Social and Economic Infrastructure:
• Focus: Social infrastructure focuses on human development, while economic infrastructure supports economic activities.
• Examples: Social infrastructure includes schools and hospitals, while economic infrastructure includes roads and power plants.
• Impact: Social infrastructure directly improves quality of life, while economic infrastructure indirectly supports societal functioning by boosting economic growth.
• Examples of Government Initiatives:
• Social Infrastructure: Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (housing), Ayushman Bharat (healthcare), and Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (education).
• Economic Infrastructure: Bharatmala Pariyojana (roads), UDAY scheme (power sector reforms), and National Optical Fibre Network (communication).

Important Points

• Energy as Economic Infrastructure:
• Energy is a critical component of economic infrastructure as it drives industrial production, transportation, and communication.
• It includes power plants, fuel supply systems, and renewable energy infrastructure.
• Energy infrastructure is essential for the economic growth of industries and the nation as a whole.
• Global Perspective:
• Countries invest heavily in both social and economic infrastructure to ensure balanced development.
• For example, Nordic countries like Norway and Finland have robust social infrastructure, leading to high human development indices.
• Meanwhile, nations like China focus extensively on economic infrastructure to drive industrial growth.

The correct answer is National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD).

Key Points

• NABARD was established in 1982 under the recommendations of the B. Sivaraman Committee, specifically to provide and regulate credit for agriculture and rural development.
• The institution functions as an apex development bank in India, primarily focusing on enhancing the rural economy by extending financial support to agriculture, cottage industries, and rural infrastructure projects.
• NABARD plays a critical role in refinancing regional rural banks (RRBs), cooperative banks, and other financial institutions involved in rural development.
• It also oversees the implementation of government-sponsored schemes such as the Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP) and Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY).
• The institution is responsible for providing technical and financial assistance for initiatives in rural innovation, sustainable agriculture, watershed management, and capacity building programs.

Additional Information

• Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI):
• SEBI was established in 1988 and given statutory powers in 1992 under the SEBI Act, 1992.
• Its primary role is to regulate the securities market in India and protect the interests of investors.
• SEBI does not deal with agricultural or rural development but focuses on ensuring transparency and efficiency in the stock market.
• State Level Bankers Committee (SLBC):
• SLBC is a coordination platform for banks and government authorities at the state level to address banking development issues.
• It plays a consultative role in implementing schemes but does not act as a regulatory body for rural development credit.
• State Bank of India (SBI):
• SBI is India's largest commercial bank, established in 1955, and primarily focuses on retail and corporate banking services.
• Although it provides loans for agriculture, it is not the apex institution for rural development or agricultural credit regulation.
• NABARD's Functions and Features:
• It provides direct financing to rural projects and indirect refinancing to banks and cooperative societies.
• NABARD administers rural infrastructure development funds (RIDF) to promote large-scale rural infrastructure projects.
• It is headquartered in Mumbai and operates across India with regional offices.
• NABARD works closely with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and various state governments to implement its initiatives.
• It focuses on financial inclusion and capacity building for farmers, rural entrepreneurs, and self-help groups.

Important Points

• Role in Agriculture: NABARD is instrumental in promoting sustainable agricultural practices, including the adoption of technology-driven farming and organic farming techniques.
• Financial Programs: NABARD offers various schemes like Farm Sector Promotion Fund (FSPF) and Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) to support rural development.
• Rural Credit: It ensures the availability of long-term and short-term credit for agricultural activities, rural industries, and infrastructure projects.
• Recent Initiatives: NABARD has been involved in promoting digital banking in rural areas and facilitating access to microfinance for small farmers and entrepreneurs.

The correct answer is Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome.

Key Points

• AIDS stands for Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome, a condition caused by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV).
• The term "Acquired" indicates that it is not a hereditary condition but is contracted after birth due to exposure to the virus.
• "Immuno Deficiency" refers to the weakening of the immune system, making the body vulnerable to opportunistic infections and certain cancers.
• "Syndrome" signifies a collection of symptoms and conditions resulting from the damage caused by the virus to the immune system.
• The virus primarily targets the CD4 cells (T-helper cells), crucial components of the immune response, reducing their count and leaving the body defenseless against infections.

Additional Information

• HIV Transmission:
• HIV spreads through unprotected sexual contact, sharing of contaminated needles, transfusion of infected blood, and from an infected mother to her child during childbirth or breastfeeding.
• HIV is not spread through casual contact such as hugging, sharing utensils, or mosquito bites.
• Stages of HIV Infection:
• Acute HIV Infection: Occurs 2-4 weeks after exposure, characterized by flu-like symptoms.
• Chronic HIV Infection: The virus multiplies at low levels, often without symptoms.
• AIDS: The final and most severe stage where the immune system is severely compromised.
• Symptoms of AIDS:
• Frequent infections such as pneumonia, tuberculosis, and skin infections.
• Rapid weight loss, persistent fever, and chronic fatigue.
• Night sweats, swollen lymph nodes, and prolonged diarrhea.
• Prevention and Treatment:
• Preventive measures include using condoms, regular HIV testing, and avoiding the sharing of needles.
• Antiretroviral Therapy (ART) is the primary treatment for HIV, which helps suppress the viral load and prevent progression to AIDS.
• There is no cure for AIDS, but early diagnosis and continuous treatment can help individuals lead healthy lives.
• Global Efforts Against HIV/AIDS:
• The UNAIDS program works towards achieving global targets to end the AIDS epidemic as a public health threat by 2030.
• The World AIDS Day is observed annually on December 1 to raise awareness and commemorate those who have died from AIDS-related illnesses.

The correct answer is May.

Key Points

• The Bharat Forecasting System (BFS) is a major breakthrough in the field of weather science and is expected to significantly improve weather prediction accuracy in India.
• It was launched in May 2025, marking an important step in India's efforts to adopt advanced meteorological technologies.
• The system integrates modern numerical weather prediction models, high-performance computing, and AI-based analytics to provide precise and timely weather forecasts.
• The BFS is expected to enhance the ability of Indian meteorological agencies to predict extreme weather events like cyclones, heavy rainfall, and heatwaves, minimizing the associated human and economic losses.
• May was chosen for its strategic alignment with the onset of the monsoon season, a critical period for Indian agriculture and disaster management efforts.

Additional Information

• Significance of the Bharat Forecasting System:
• The BFS uses advanced computational capabilities to provide high-resolution forecasts, catering specifically to India's diverse climatic zones.
• It plays a crucial role in ensuring accurate weather advisories for farmers, helping them plan agricultural activities such as sowing and harvesting.
• With BFS, disaster management agencies can receive real-time updates on impending natural disasters, enabling better preparedness and response.
• It supports aviation, shipping, and energy sectors by providing sector-specific weather data, thus reducing operational risks.
• Technological Features of BFS:
• Includes high-performance supercomputers for processing complex meteorological data.
• Employs machine learning and artificial intelligence to refine prediction algorithms and improve forecast accuracy.
• Integrates with global weather forecasting systems for data sharing and collaboration.
• India's Progress in Meteorology:
• India has made substantial investments in meteorological infrastructure, including the establishment of Doppler Weather Radars across the country.
• The India Meteorological Department (IMD) plays a pivotal role in providing weather updates and warnings to the public.
• Projects like BFS reflect India's commitment to achieving self-reliance in weather forecasting technologies.
• Applications of BFS:
• Used for monsoon prediction, crucial for India’s agriculture-dependent economy.
• Helps in urban planning by providing data on extreme weather patterns like floods or heatwaves.
• Supports renewable energy projects by predicting weather conditions affecting solar and wind energy generation.

Important Points

• Global Context: India joins a select group of nations with indigenous weather forecasting systems, putting it on par with countries like the United States, Japan, and European nations.
• Impact on Agriculture: The BFS is expected to benefit over 120 million farmers, helping them mitigate risks associated with erratic weather patterns.
• Economic Benefits: Improved forecasts can save billions of rupees annually by reducing losses in agriculture, infrastructure, and energy sectors.
• Government Initiatives: The BFS is part of a broader effort under the "Digital India" program, aimed at leveraging technology for national development.

The correct answer is Union Public Service Commission.

Key Points

• The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is a constitutional body responsible for conducting examinations and recruiting personnel for All India Services, Central Services, and other posts in the Indian government.
• UPSC conducts competitive exams such as the Civil Services Examination (CSE) to recruit candidates for prestigious services like the Indian Administrative Service (IAS), Indian Police Service (IPS), and Indian Foreign Service (IFS).
• Established under Article 315 of the Constitution of India, UPSC operates autonomously to ensure transparency and merit-based recruitment.
• It is headquartered in New Delhi and functions under the chairmanship of a designated official appointed by the President of India.
• The commission is entrusted with the responsibility of conducting written examinations, interviews, and other selection processes to ensure the recruitment of competent and qualified individuals for public service roles.

Additional Information

• Union Public Service Commission (UPSC):
• UPSC is mentioned in Part XIV of the Constitution, under the heading "Services under the Union and the States."
• The President of India appoints the members of UPSC, and their tenure is fixed to ensure their independence.
• UPSC conducts various examinations, such as Engineering Services Examination, Combined Defence Services Examination, and Indian Forest Service Examination.
• All India Services:
• The All India Services include the IAS, IPS, and Indian Forest Service (IFS), which serve both the Central and State Governments.
• Recruitment for these services is conducted by UPSC through the Civil Services Examination (CSE).
• These services ensure administrative uniformity and governance efficiency across India.
• State Public Service Commissions:
• State Public Service Commissions (SPSCs) are responsible for recruiting personnel for State-level posts, not for All India Services.
• They operate under Article 315 and function independently within their respective states.
• Staff Selection Commission (SSC):
• The SSC recruits personnel for Group B and Group C posts in various departments under the Central Government.
• It is not responsible for recruiting personnel for All India Services.
• National Recruitment Agency (NRA):
• The NRA was recently established to conduct a Common Eligibility Test (CET) for non-gazetted posts in the Central Government.
• It does not recruit personnel for All India Services.

Important Points

• Article 320 of the Constitution:
• It specifies the functions of UPSC, including conducting examinations for appointments to Union and All India Services.
• It also provides for consultation by UPSC on matters related to recruitment rules, promotions, and disciplinary matters.
• UPSC Independence:
• UPSC members have a fixed tenure and are protected from arbitrary dismissal to ensure impartiality.
• The commission's expenses are charged to the Consolidated Fund of India, further reinforcing its autonomy.
• Civil Services Examination (CSE):
• The CSE consists of three stages: Preliminary Examination, Main Examination, and Personality Test (Interview).
• The examination is considered one of the toughest in India, with a rigorous selection process to ensure the recruitment of the best talent.

The correct answer is 1 - b, 2 - c, 3 - a, 4 - d.

Key Points

• Brahmo Samaj:
• Founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy in 1828 in Kolkata, it is one of the earliest socio-religious reform movements in India.
• The Brahmo Samaj focused on abolishing societal evils such as the caste system, child marriage, and sati.
• It aimed to promote monotheism and a rational approach to religion.
• Arya Samaj:
• Established by Swami Dayananda Saraswati in 1875, it sought to reform Hindu society by returning to the teachings of the Vedas.
• The Arya Samaj advocated for education for all, women’s rights, and the abolition of untouchability.
• It opposed idol worship and propagated the idea of one God.
• Ramakrishna Mission:
• Founded by Swami Vivekananda in 1897 in honor of his guru, Ramakrishna Paramahamsa.
• The mission aimed to spread the teachings of Vedanta and promote social service, education, and spiritual enlightenment.
• It emphasized the harmony of all religions and the spiritual unity of humanity.
• Theosophical Society:
• Led in India by Annie Besant, the society was originally founded in 1875 by Madame Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott in New York.
• It focused on promoting universal brotherhood, studying comparative religion, and exploring the mystical and occult aspects of life.
• The society played a significant role in the Indian independence movement and cultural revival.

Additional Information

• Raja Ram Mohan Roy:
• Known as the Father of the Indian Renaissance, he played a crucial role in eradicating sati and promoting women’s education.
• He also founded the Atmiya Sabha in 1815, which later evolved into the Brahmo Samaj.
• Swami Dayananda Saraswati:
• A religious reformer, he authored the book Satyarth Prakash and emphasized the return to Vedic scriptures.
• He also gave the call for “Back to the Vedas” and strongly opposed idolatry and superstitions.
• Swami Vivekananda:
• He gained global recognition for his speech at the World Parliament of Religions in Chicago in 1893, where he introduced Hindu philosophy to the West.
• His teachings emphasized spiritual development and the importance of serving humanity.
• Annie Besant:
• An Irish theosophist and social reformer, she became the first woman to serve as the President of the Indian National Congress in 1917.
• She also launched the Home Rule Movement in India and worked for the revival of Indian culture and education.

Important Points

• Brahmo Samaj:
• Focused on social reforms like the abolition of caste distinctions and women’s rights.
• Arya Samaj:
• Encouraged shuddhi (reconversion) to Hinduism for those who had converted to other religions.
• Ramakrishna Mission:
• Engaged in educational and medical work, especially in rural and underserved areas.
• Theosophical Society:
• Played a role in fostering Indian nationalism and cultural pride during the colonial period.

The correct answer is 1996.

Key Points

• The National Council for Promotion of Urdu Language (NCPUL) was established in the year 1996 under the Ministry of Education (formerly Ministry of Human Resource Development).
• The council was formed to promote, develop, and propagate the Urdu language, which holds cultural and historical significance in India.
• The primary aim of NCPUL is to provide academic and technical resources for the promotion of Urdu and its allied languages.
• The council also works to support Urdu through research, publications, and training programs for individuals and institutions involved in Urdu education.
• The establishment of NCPUL in 1996 marked a significant step by the Government of India in recognizing and preserving the linguistic heritage of Urdu.

Additional Information

• Objectives of NCPUL:
• To promote and develop the Urdu language, along with Arabic and Persian.
• To assist in the publication of Urdu books, manuscripts, and dictionaries.
• To organize training programs for teachers and individuals interested in Urdu education.
• To provide financial assistance to institutions and organizations working in the field of Urdu language promotion.
• Functions of NCPUL:
• Conducting seminars, workshops, and conferences to discuss Urdu language development.
• Providing distance education programs in Urdu, Arabic, and Persian.
• Encouraging the use of modern technology to enhance the teaching and learning of Urdu.
• Publishing textbooks, journals, and research papers to promote Urdu language and literature.
• Significance of Urdu Language:
• Urdu is a language that has evolved from the Indo-Aryan branch of languages and has strong influences from Persian and Arabic.
• It is widely used in literature, poetry, and cultural expressions in India and South Asia.
• Urdu is one of the official languages in several states of India, including Jammu & Kashmir and Delhi.
• Related Government Initiatives:
• Formation of State Academies and Urdu Boards to promote Urdu language education at the state level.
• Provision of scholarships and grants for students pursuing education in Urdu.
• Encouraging the translation of government documents and schemes into Urdu for better accessibility.

Important Points

• Leadership: NCPUL operates under the Ministry of Education, Government of India, ensuring alignment with national policies for language promotion.
• Publications: The council has published a variety of Urdu literature, textbooks, and dictionaries to support education and research.
• Digital Initiatives: NCPUL has introduced e-learning platforms and digital resources to make Urdu education accessible to a larger audience.
• Collaborations: The council collaborates with educational institutions, cultural organizations, and NGOs to promote Urdu language and literature.

The correct answer is eSankhyiki.

Key Points

• The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) launched the eSankhyiki portal on 30 June 2024 to enhance user experience and ease of data access.
• The portal is aimed at providing seamless access to statistical data for researchers, policymakers, and the general public.
• The eSankhyiki portal offers user-friendly tools to access, visualize, and download statistical data, making it an important resource for data-driven decision-making.
• It integrates various datasets related to economic, social, and demographic indicators, which are curated by MoSPI.
• The initiative is part of MoSPI's broader efforts to promote digital transformation in the dissemination of statistical information.

Additional Information

• Features of eSankhyiki Portal:
• The portal provides a searchable database where users can find data on national and state-level indicators.
• It includes tools for data visualization such as charts and graphs, enabling users to interpret data effectively.
• The portal supports downloads in multiple formats, ensuring flexibility for data analysis.
• It incorporates an online query system for addressing user queries and providing customized datasets.
• Role of MoSPI:
• The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation is responsible for coordinating and maintaining the statistical system of India.
• MoSPI conducts several key surveys such as the National Sample Survey and Annual Survey of Industries.
• The ministry plays a crucial role in ensuring the availability of accurate and reliable data for policy formulation and implementation.
• Comparison with Other Portals:
• DataEase Portal: This is a fictional name and not associated with MoSPI.
• eDataConnect: While the name suggests data-related applications, it does not pertain to MoSPI initiatives.
• StatPortal: Similar to eSankhyiki in concept but not an official MoSPI project launched on the mentioned date.
• Significance:
• The portal aligns with the government’s vision for a Digital India, promoting transparency and accessibility of information.
• It serves as a valuable resource for academicians, statisticians, and policy analysts.
• The initiative contributes to informed decision-making by providing real-time and historical data on critical national parameters.

Important Points

• MoSPI Initiatives:
• In addition to the eSankhyiki portal, MoSPI has launched several other initiatives like the National Indicator Framework and SDG Dashboard to track India's progress on Sustainable Development Goals.
• The ministry conducts Periodic Labour Force Surveys (PLFS) and Consumer Expenditure Surveys to generate high-quality data on socio-economic indicators.
• Digital Transformation in India:
• Initiatives like eSankhyiki are part of India’s broader efforts to achieve e-governance and enhance the digital interface between the government and citizens.
• Such platforms contribute significantly to fostering a data-driven culture in governance and planning.

The correct answer is November.

Key Points

• The Indian Racing Festival, conceptualized by Racing Promotions Pvt. Ltd., is a motorsport event aimed at promoting professional car racing in India.
• This festival includes two major championships: the Indian Racing League (IRL) and the Formula 4 Indian Championship (F4IC).
• Both championships are designed to elevate India's motorsport culture, attracting talent from across the globe while fostering local talent.
• The event was scheduled to start in November 2024, aligning with the motorsport calendar and optimal weather conditions for racing activities in India.
• November is considered ideal for large-scale outdoor events due to favorable weather in most parts of India, ensuring better participation and audience attendance.

Additional Information

• Indian Racing League (IRL):
• The IRL is a professional racing championship aimed at providing a platform for Indian and international drivers to showcase their skills.
• It features city-based franchise teams, creating a fan base for motorsport enthusiasts in India.
• The league is aligned with international standards, ensuring a competitive racing environment.
• Formula 4 Indian Championship (F4IC):
• F4IC is a part of the global Formula 4 racing series, which is designed to be an entry-level championship for young drivers aspiring to reach Formula 1.
• It follows the regulations set by the Fédération Internationale de l'Automobile (FIA).
• The inclusion of F4IC in the Indian Racing Festival highlights India's growing focus on grassroots motorsport development.
• Motorsport in India:
• India has seen significant growth in motorsport over the past decade, with events like the Indian Grand Prix and the emergence of Indian drivers in international racing circuits.
• Facilities like the Buddh International Circuit have further boosted India's motorsport infrastructure.
• Weather Considerations in November:
• November is characterized by moderate temperatures and minimal rainfall in India, making it a favorable time for outdoor sports and events.
• These conditions ensure optimal track performance and safety for racers.
• Racing Promotions Pvt. Ltd.:
• The company is at the forefront of promoting motorsport in India, aiming to create a sustainable ecosystem for professional racing.
• Through initiatives like the Indian Racing Festival, they aim to put India on the global motorsport map.

Important Points

• Significance of November:
• November marks the beginning of the winter season in India, with pleasant weather conducive to hosting large-scale events.
• It also aligns with the international motorsport calendar, allowing better coordination and participation from global teams and drivers.
• Impact on Indian Motorsport:
• The Indian Racing Festival is expected to boost the popularity of motorsports in India, paving the way for future events and investments in the sector.
• It provides a platform for Indian drivers to compete and gain recognition at the international level.
• FIA's Role:
• The Fédération Internationale de l'Automobile (FIA) is the governing body for world motorsport.
• Its affiliation ensures that events like the F4IC adhere to global standards, enhancing their credibility and appeal.

The correct answer is 3) 1 and 2 only.

Key Points

• Article 19 of the Indian Constitution guarantees certain fundamental rights to Indian citizens, particularly focused on ensuring freedom.
• Statement 1: The right to form associations or unions or co-operative societies is guaranteed under Article 19(1)(c). This ensures that citizens can collectively organize for lawful purposes, including forming trade unions, political groups, or co-operative societies. Hence, this statement is correct.
• Statement 2: The right to move freely throughout the territory of India is guaranteed under Article 19(1)(d). This provides citizens the freedom to travel or reside in any part of the country without restrictions, except under reasonable grounds mentioned under Article 19(5). Hence, this statement is correct.
• Statement 3: The right to seek foreign employment is not covered under Article 19. While Article 19 guarantees certain freedoms related to movement and profession within India, seeking employment abroad does not fall within its purview. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
• The correct answer is option 3, as only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Additional Information

• Article 19:
• Article 19 provides six fundamental freedoms to Indian citizens, which include:
• (a) Freedom of speech and expression.
• (b) Freedom to assemble peaceably without arms.
• (c) Freedom to form associations or unions or co-operative societies.
• (d) Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India.
• (e) Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India.
• (g) Freedom to practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade, or business.
• These freedoms are subject to reasonable restrictions imposed by the state to maintain public order, morality, and the sovereignty of the country.
• Reasonable Restrictions: The State can impose reasonable restrictions on these rights under specific conditions:
• For the interest of the sovereignty and integrity of India, security of the state, public order, decency, or morality.
• For restrictions related to contempt of court, defamation, or incitement to an offense.
• Exceptions to Article 19: These rights are available only to Indian citizens and not to foreigners. Additionally, they can be suspended during a state of emergency under Article 358.
• Judicial Interpretations: The Supreme Court of India has clarified the scope of Article 19 in several landmark judgments, such as Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978), which expanded the interpretation of the right to personal liberty and free movement.

Important Points

• Key Distinctions: Article 19 guarantees rights limited to the territory of India. Seeking foreign employment or movement abroad falls under different legal provisions, such as those governed by the Ministry of External Affairs or immigration laws.
• Landmark Cases:
• In Romesh Thappar v. State of Madras (1950), the Supreme Court emphasized the importance of freedom of speech and expression as the foundation of all democratic organizations.
• In State of Madras v. V.G. Row (1952), the Court laid down the test for reasonable restrictions under Article 19.
• Limitations on Rights: Freedom to move freely or reside anywhere does not apply in certain areas such as scheduled tribal areas or restricted zones under special laws like the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act or the Forest Rights Act.

The correct answer is Anaemia among women (15–49 years).

Key Points

• National Family Health Survey-4 (2015–16) and National Family Health Survey-5 (2019–21) are conducted by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare to collect data on various health and demographic indicators.
• The prevalence of anaemia among women aged 15–49 years showed an increase from NFHS-4 to NFHS-5, indicating worsening nutritional health in this demographic.
• Anaemia refers to a condition where the blood lacks adequate healthy red blood cells, leading to insufficient oxygen supply to the body’s tissues. It is a critical health issue, especially among women.
• In NFHS-5, the data revealed a rise in the percentage of anaemic women compared to NFHS-4, with figures reaching alarming levels in some states of India.
• This increase in anaemia prevalence could be attributed to factors such as poor dietary habits, lack of iron and folic acid supplementation, and overall nutritional deficiencies.

Additional Information

• Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR):
• MMR refers to the number of maternal deaths per 100,000 live births.
• India has been making progress in reducing MMR, with efforts such as Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) and Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY).
• From NFHS-4 to NFHS-5, MMR showed a decline, highlighting improved healthcare access for pregnant women. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
• Infant Mortality Rate (IMR):
• IMR indicates the number of infant deaths (under 1 year of age) per 1,000 live births.
• IMR has decreased from NFHS-4 to NFHS-5 due to improved neonatal care and increased institutional deliveries.
• India has implemented programs like Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram (RBSK) and Mission Indradhanush to address infant health. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
• Total Fertility Rate (TFR):
• TFR represents the average number of children born to a woman during her reproductive years.
• India's TFR has shown a decline from NFHS-4 to NFHS-5, reaching below the replacement level of 2.1 in many states.
• This decline is attributed to increased awareness of contraception and family planning measures. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
• Anaemia among women:
• Anaemia prevalence among women has increased from NFHS-4 to NFHS-5, highlighting a concerning trend in nutritional health.
• Efforts to combat anaemia include Anemia Mukt Bharat and distribution of iron and folic acid tablets under government schemes.
• This rise signifies the need for enhanced dietary interventions and health education. Hence, this statement is correct.

Important Points

• Anaemia Mukt Bharat:
• Launched by the Government of India in 2018 under the National Health Mission to reduce anaemia prevalence among children, adolescents, and women.
• Focuses on seven strategies, including prophylactic iron supplementation, deworming, and behavior change communication.
• Aims to achieve a significant reduction in anaemia cases by 2022.
• Government Health Programs:
• Programs like Poshan Abhiyaan and Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) emphasize improving nutrition among women and children.
• Efforts are focused on addressing micronutrient deficiencies, including iron, to combat anaemia.

The correct answer is Kanishka.

Key Points

• The Fourth Buddhist Council was convened under the patronage of Kanishka, the ruler of the Kushan Empire, in the 1^st century CE.
• It was held at Kundalavana (believed to be in Kashmir).
• The council was presided over by two prominent scholars: Vasumitra (as president) and Ashvaghosha (as deputy).
• The primary objective of the council was to compile, classify, and preserve the teachings of Buddha, leading to the division of Buddhism into two main sects: the Hinayana and Mahayana.
• This council marked the formalization and spread of Mahayana Buddhism, which later gained prominence in Central Asia, China, and other regions.

Additional Information

• Kanishka:
• Kanishka was one of the greatest rulers of the Kushan Empire, ruling during the 1^st to 2^nd century CE.
• He is known for his contribution to the spread of Buddhism and for promoting art, culture, and religion.
• His reign marked the adoption of Buddhism as a state religion and the construction of significant Buddhist monuments, such as the Kanishka Stupa.
• Kanishka's empire stretched across regions of Central Asia, Northern India, and parts of present-day Afghanistan and Pakistan.
• Other Buddhist Councils:
• First Buddhist Council: Held at Rajgir under King Ajatashatru's patronage after Buddha's death in 483 BCE, focused on compiling Buddha's teachings.
• Second Buddhist Council: Held at Vaishali under King Kalashoka in 383 BCE, addressing disputes over monastic practices.
• Third Buddhist Council: Convened by Emperor Ashoka at Pataliputra in the 3^rd century BCE, aimed to purify the Buddhist community of corrupt practices and heretical views.
• Hinayana vs Mahayana:
• Hinayana: Focuses on individual liberation and adheres strictly to the original teachings of Buddha.
• Mahayana: Emphasizes compassion and the role of bodhisattvas, promoting the idea of collective salvation.
• Impact of the Fourth Buddhist Council:
• It solidified the division between the Hinayana and Mahayana schools of thought.
• It played a crucial role in spreading Buddhism beyond India, especially into Central Asia and China.
• The council led to the documentation of Buddhist teachings in Sanskrit, a significant shift from the earlier use of Pali and Prakrit languages.

Important Points

• Role of Vasumitra and Ashvaghosha:
• Vasumitra: Presided over the council and contributed to the compilation of Buddhist scriptures.
• Ashvaghosha: A renowned poet and philosopher, he played a vital role in documenting and propagating Buddhist teachings.
• Buddhist Scriptures:
• The council focused on compiling the Mahayana texts, marking a significant development in Buddhist literature.
• Key texts such as the Mahavibhasa were compiled during this period.
• Kanishka's Contribution:
• His support for Buddhism helped it gain prominence in regions beyond the Indian subcontinent.
• Under his reign, Buddhist art and culture flourished, with the Gandhara and Mathura schools of art reaching their zenith.

The correct answer is Pulakesin II.

Key Points

• Pulakesin II, a ruler of the Chalukya dynasty, is credited with defeating the powerful ruler Harshavardhana around 630 CE. This victory marked a significant event in Indian history.
• After his victory, Pulakesin II assumed the title of 'Dakshinapatheshvara', which means 'Lord of the South'. This title symbolized his control over the Deccan region and his dominance as a ruler.
• Pulakesin II ruled over a vast territory that included parts of modern-day Karnataka, Maharashtra, and Andhra Pradesh. His kingdom was one of the most prosperous and culturally rich regions during his reign.
• Harshavardhana was a powerful ruler of northern India, and his defeat by Pulakesin II demonstrated the strength and military prowess of the Chalukya dynasty.
• Pulakesin II's reign is also noted for his patronage of art, architecture, and literature, with significant contributions to the development of Dravidian temple architecture and inscriptions like the Aihole inscription, which provides details of his achievements.

Additional Information

• Harshavardhana:
• Harshavardhana was a ruler of the Vardhana dynasty, based in northern India. He ruled from 606 to 647 CE and was known for his administrative capabilities and patronage of Buddhism.
• His empire extended over the regions of present-day Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Punjab, and parts of Rajasthan.
• The defeat of Harsha by Pulakesin II marked a rare instance where a northern ruler's ambitions were checked by a southern power.
• Chalukya Dynasty:
• The Chalukyas were an influential dynasty that ruled parts of southern and central India between the 6^th and 12^th centuries CE.
• Their capital was at Badami (formerly known as Vatapi), and they are well-known for their contributions to temple architecture, particularly rock-cut temples.
• The Aihole and Pattadakal temple complexes, recognized as UNESCO World Heritage Sites, were constructed during their reign.
• Aihole Inscription:
• The Aihole inscription, written by the court poet Ravikirti, celebrates Pulakesin II's achievements and military conquests, including his victory over Harsha.
• This inscription is an essential source of information about the Chalukya dynasty and the socio-political conditions of that era.
• Other Options Explained:
• Mahendravarman: He was a ruler of the Pallava dynasty and is not associated with defeating Harshavardhana.
• Narasimhavarman I: Another Pallava ruler known for his victory over Pulakesin II, but he did not defeat Harshavardhana.
• Pulakesin I: The founder of the Chalukya dynasty and predecessor of Pulakesin II. He laid the foundation for the dynasty's rise but was not involved in the conflict with Harshavardhana.

Important Points

• The title 'Dakshinapatheshvara' was significant as it symbolized the ruler's control over the southern region of India.
• Pulakesin II's reign marked the zenith of the Chalukya dynasty's power and influence in southern India.
• The Chalukyas were known for their military strength, administrative efficiency, and contributions to art and culture.

The correct answer is Assam.

Key Points

• Assam faced severe floods and landslides during April 2022 due to pre-monsoon showers and the onset of the southwest monsoon.
• More than 6 lakh people were affected across 27 districts of Assam during this period.
• Heavy rainfall caused rivers like the Brahmaputra and its tributaries to overflow, leading to inundation of agricultural lands and residential areas.
• Several areas experienced landslides, particularly in hilly regions such as Dima Hasao district, disrupting transportation and communication networks.
• The government deployed National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) teams for rescue operations and provided relief materials to affected areas.
• Assam experiences annual floods due to its location in the Brahmaputra River basin, making it one of the most flood-prone states in India.

Additional Information

• Geographical Context of Assam:
• Assam is located in the northeastern part of India and is characterized by the Brahmaputra River, which flows through its length.
• Its geographical location makes it prone to floods and landslides, particularly during the monsoon season.
• The state has several tributaries such as Dihing, Subansiri, and Manas, which also contribute to flooding during heavy rains.
• Impact of Floods in Assam:
• Floods in Assam cause widespread damage to agriculture, affecting the livelihoods of farmers.
• They also disrupt transportation and lead to the loss of lives and property.
• Hilly areas often experience landslides, blocking roads and cutting off access to remote regions.
• Government Measures:
• The Assam government, along with the NDRF and State Disaster Response Force (SDRF), conducts rescue and relief operations during floods.
• Flood mitigation measures such as the construction of embankments, dredging of rivers, and improved warning systems are continuously being developed.
• Flood-Prone States in India:
• Other states prone to flooding include Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, and West Bengal, which also lie in major river basins.
• However, Assam remains one of the worst-affected states due to the unique behavior of the Brahmaputra River, which carries heavy sediment loads.

Important Points

• Brahmaputra Floods:
• The Brahmaputra River is known for its frequent flooding due to heavy rainfall and melting snow from the Himalayas during the monsoon season.
• The river's wide basin and high sedimentation contribute to its unpredictable nature, often leading to disasters in Assam.
• National Disaster Response Force (NDRF):
• The NDRF is a specialized force created for disaster response and rescue operations in India.
• It played a critical role in managing the 2022 Assam floods by rescuing stranded individuals and providing relief materials.
• Climate Change Impact:
• Climate change has intensified monsoon patterns, leading to erratic rainfall and increased flooding in regions like Assam.
• Mitigation measures such as river basin management and afforestation are being considered to combat these challenges.

The correct answer is Seventh Schedule.

Key Points

• The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India specifies the division of powers between the Union and the States.
• It consists of three lists:
• Union List: Contains subjects of national importance on which only the Parliament can legislate, such as defense, foreign affairs, atomic energy, and railways.
• State List: Contains subjects of state importance on which only the state legislatures can legislate, such as police, public health, and agriculture.
• Concurrent List: Contains subjects of common interest to both the Union and States, such as education, marriage, and bankruptcy. Both the Union and State governments can legislate on these subjects, but in case of conflict, the Union law prevails.
• The inclusion of the Seventh Schedule ensures a clear federal structure, with well-defined areas of jurisdiction for both the Union and the States.
• This division of powers is vital for maintaining the autonomy of states while ensuring a strong central authority in matters of national importance.
• The Seventh Schedule has been amended multiple times to reflect changing socio-political and economic realities in India.

Additional Information

• Fifth Schedule:
• The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states other than those in the Sixth Schedule.
• It provides special provisions for the protection and development of tribal communities.
• The Governor of a state has a pivotal role in the administration of these areas, including the power to modify or repeal laws applicable to them.
• Second Schedule:
• The Second Schedule of the Constitution contains provisions related to the salaries, allowances, and privileges of key constitutional functionaries such as the President, Governors, Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts, and the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG).
• It ensures that these dignitaries are compensated fairly and enjoy privileges commensurate with their responsibilities.
• First Schedule:
• The First Schedule specifies the names of states and union territories and their respective territorial jurisdictions.
• It has been amended multiple times to accommodate the creation of new states and union territories, such as the bifurcation of Andhra Pradesh to create Telangana in 2014.
• Federal Features of the Indian Constitution:
• The Indian Constitution is considered quasi-federal, as it exhibits both federal and unitary characteristics.
• Federal features include a written Constitution, a clear division of powers, an independent judiciary, and a bicameral legislature.
• Unitary features include a strong central government, single citizenship, and the power of the Union government to override states in certain situations.

Important Points

• Union List: Includes 97 subjects (originally) such as defense, foreign affairs, and atomic energy.
• State List: Includes 66 subjects (originally) such as police, public order, and agriculture.
• Concurrent List: Includes 47 subjects (originally) such as marriage, education, and bankruptcy.
• In case of a conflict between Union and State laws on a subject in the Concurrent List, the Union law prevails.
• The distribution of powers is enshrined in Articles 245-255 of the Constitution.

The correct answer is Potassium.

Key Points

• Potassium is classified as a major mineral required by the human body because it is essential for various physiological functions.
• It plays a crucial role in maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance, ensuring that cells, tissues, and organs function properly.
• Potassium is vital for nerve signaling and muscle contractions, including the regulation of heart rhythms.
• Adequate levels of potassium are necessary to maintain blood pressure and reduce the risk of hypertension and stroke.
• It is commonly found in foods like bananas, oranges, potatoes, spinach, and beans, making it easily accessible through a balanced diet.

Additional Information

• Other Minerals Explained:
• Molybdenum: It is a trace mineral that plays a role in enzyme function, but it is not classified as a major mineral. It is needed in very small amounts.
• Selenium: Selenium is another trace mineral that acts as an antioxidant and supports thyroid function, but it is not a major mineral.
• Chromium: Chromium helps in insulin regulation and glucose metabolism, but it is a trace element, not a major mineral.
• Major Minerals: Major minerals, like potassium, calcium, sodium, and magnesium, are required in larger amounts compared to trace minerals.
• Potassium Deficiency:
• A lack of potassium can lead to hypokalemia, causing symptoms like fatigue, muscle weakness, and irregular heart rhythms.
• Severe deficiency can result in life-threatening complications such as paralysis and respiratory failure.
• Recommended Daily Allowance (RDA):
• The World Health Organization (WHO) recommends a daily intake of 3,500–4,700 mg of potassium for adults.
• Pregnant and lactating women may require slightly higher amounts to support fetal development and milk production.
• Role in Preventing Diseases:
• Potassium-rich diets are associated with a lower risk of developing cardiovascular diseases, kidney stones, and osteoporosis.
• It helps mitigate the effects of excessive sodium intake, which is linked to high blood pressure.

Important Points

• Sources of Potassium:
• Common foods rich in potassium include sweet potatoes, avocados, tomatoes, lentils, and yogurt.
• Processed foods often lack potassium and are high in sodium, making them less ideal for maintaining mineral balance.
• Interaction with Sodium:
• Potassium and sodium work together to maintain cellular function and fluid balance.
• High sodium intake can disrupt this balance, emphasizing the importance of a diet rich in potassium.
• Clinical Monitoring:
• Individuals with kidney disease or those taking certain medications (like diuretics) need to monitor potassium levels to prevent complications.
• Excess potassium, known as hyperkalemia, can be dangerous and requires medical intervention.
• Historical Context:
• Research on potassium's role in human health dates back to studies in the 20^th century, highlighting its importance in electrolyte management.
• Guidelines for daily potassium intake have been periodically updated by organizations like the FDA and WHO.

Given:

Loss percentage = 10%

Selling price at 81% of marked price = 81% of marked price

Formula Used:

Cost price = Selling price / (1 - Loss percentage)

Profit percentage = [(Selling price - Cost price) / Cost price] × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Selling price at 81% of marked price = 0.81 × Marked price

⇒ Cost price = (0.81 × Marked price) / (1 - 0.10)

⇒ Cost price = (0.81 × Marked price) / 0.90

⇒ Cost price = 0.9 × Marked price

⇒ Selling price at 95% of marked price = 0.95 × Marked price

⇒ Profit percentage = [(0.95 × Marked price - 0.9 × Marked price) / (0.9 × Marked price)] × 100

⇒ Profit percentage = [(0.05 × Marked price) / (0.9 × Marked price)] × 100

⇒ Profit percentage = (0.05 / 0.9) × 100

⇒ Profit percentage = 5.555...%

⇒ Profit percentage = 559559

%

∴ The correct answer is 559559

%.

Given:

A's investment = ₹35,000

B's investment = ₹20,000

C's investment = ₹15,000

B worked for 5 months

C joined after 5 months

Total profit = ₹84,250

Formula Used:

Profit share ratio = (Investment × Time)

Individual profit share = (Individual ratio / Total ratio) × Total profit

Calculation:

⇒ A's contribution = ₹35,000 × 12 = ₹4,20,000

⇒ B's contribution = ₹20,000 × 5 = ₹1,00,000

⇒ C's contribution = ₹15,000 × 7 = ₹1,05,000

⇒ Total ratio = ₹4,20,000 + ₹1,00,000 + ₹1,05,000 = ₹6,25,000

⇒ B's profit share = (₹1,00,000 / ₹6,25,000) × ₹84,250

⇒ B's profit share = ₹13,480

∴ The correct answer is ₹13,480.

Given:

Simple Interest (SI) = ₹ 324

Rate of Interest (R) = 3% per annum

Time (T) = 4 years

Formula Used:

SI = (P × R × T) / 100

Amount (A) = Principal (P) + Simple Interest (SI)

Calculation:

⇒ 324 = (P × 3 × 4) / 100

⇒ 324 = (12P) / 100

⇒ P = (324 × 100) / 12

⇒ P = 2,700

⇒ A = P + SI

⇒ A = 2,700 + 324

⇒ A = 3,024

∴ The correct answer is ₹ 3,024.

Given:

Initial speed of the bus = 14 km/hr

Reduction in speed = 63%

Formula Used:

New speed = Initial speed × (1 - Reduction percentage / 100)

Calculation:

⇒ Reduction percentage = 63 / 100 = 0.63

⇒ New speed = 14 × (1 - 0.63)

⇒ New speed = 14 × 0.37

⇒ New speed = 5.18 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 5.18 km/hr.

Given:

A and B together can do a piece of work in 20 days.

B alone can do the same work in 100 days.

Formula Used:

Work done per day = 1 / Time taken.

LCM method for total work calculation.

Calculation:

⇒ Total work = LCM of 20 and 100 = 100 units.

⇒ Work done by A and B together in 1 day = Total work / Time taken by A and B together = 100 / 20 = 5 units/day.

⇒ Work done by B alone in 1 day = Total work / Time taken by B = 100 / 100 = 1 unit/day.

⇒ Work done by A alone in 1 day = Work done by A and B together - Work done by B alone = 5 - 1 = 4 units/day.

⇒ Time taken by A alone = Total work / Work done by A in 1 day = 100 / 4 = 25 days.

∴ The correct answer is 25.

Given:

8-digit number: 2587p973

Divisibility rule: Sum of digits of a number divisible by 9

Formula Used:

Sum of digits of the number = 2 + 5 + 8 + 7 + p + 9 + 7 + 3

If sum of digits is divisible by 9, the number is divisible by 9.

Calculation:

⇒ Sum of digits = 2 + 5 + 8 + 7 + p + 9 + 7 + 3

⇒ Sum of digits = 41 + p

To be divisible by 9:

⇒ (41 + p) mod 9 = 0

⇒ 41 mod 9 = 5

⇒ (5 + p) mod 9 = 0

⇒ p = 4

∴ The correct answer is 4.

Given:

First 92 natural numbers.

Formula Used:

Sum of squares of first n natural numbers = n × (n + 1) × (2n + 1) / 6

Average = (Sum of squares) / n

Calculation:

⇒ Sum of squares = 92 × (92 + 1) × (2 × 92 + 1) / 6

⇒ Sum of squares = 92 × 93 × 185 / 6

⇒ Sum of squares = 1585080 / 6

⇒ Sum of squares = 264180

⇒ Average = 264180 / 92

⇒ Average = 2869.5

∴ The correct answer is 2869.5.

Given:

Radius of the spherical metal ball = 21 cm

Side of each metal block = 21 cm

Number of blocks = 4

\(\pi = \frac{22}{7}\)

Formula Used:

Volume of sphere = \(\frac{4}{3} \pi r^3\)

Volume of cube = side³

Unused metal volume = Volume of sphere - (Volume of one cube × Number of blocks)

Calculation:

⇒ Volume of sphere = \(\frac{4}{3} × \frac{22}{7} × 21 × 21 × 21\)

⇒ \(\frac{4 × 22 × 21 × 21 × 21}{3 × 7}\)

⇒ \(\frac{38808}{7}\)

⇒ 5544 cm³

⇒ Volume of one cube = 21 × 21 × 21

⇒ 9261 cm³

⇒ Volume of four cubes = 4 × 9261

⇒ 37044 cm³

⇒ Unused metal volume = 5544 - 37044

⇒ 1764 cm³

∴ The correct answer is 1764.

Given:

Salary = ₹9,015 per month

Savings = 40% of salary

Formula Used:

Expenses = Salary - Savings

Savings = (Savings % × Salary) / 100

Calculation:

⇒ Savings = (40 × 9,015) / 100

⇒ Savings = ₹3,606

⇒ Expenses = 9,015 - 3,606

⇒ Expenses = ₹5,409

∴ The correct answer is ₹5,409.

Solution:

Given:

Sumant can do the work in 15 days

Kumar can do the work in 45 days

Sumant’s 1-day work = 1/15

Kumar’s 1-day work = 1/45

They work alternately for 3 days each, starting with Sumant.

Step 1: Work done in one full cycle (6 days)

Work by Sumant in 3 days:

= 3 × 1/15

= 1/5

Work by Kumar in 3 days:

= 3 × 1/45

= 1/15

Total work in 6 days:

= 1/5 + 1/15

LCM of 5 and 15 = 15

= 3/15 + 1/15

= 4/15

Step 2: Number of complete cycles

Total work = 1

Number of cycles = 15 ÷ 4 = 3

Work done in 3 cycles:

= 3 × 4/15

= 12/15 = 4/5

Time taken:

= 3 × 6 = 18 days

Step 3: Remaining work

= 1 − 4/5

= 1/5

Next turn is Sumant.

Time taken by Sumant:

= (1/5) ÷ (1/15)

= 3 days

Step 4: Total time

= 18 + 3

= 21 days

Final Answer:

The work will be completed in 21 days.

Given:

Score difference = 16

Higher score = 66% of their sum

Formula Used:

Total sum = x + y

Higher score = 0.66 × Total sum

Score difference = Higher score - Lower score

Calculation:

Let the scores be x (higher) and y (lower).

⇒ x = 0.66 × (x + y)

⇒ x = 0.66x + 0.66y

⇒ x - 0.66x = 0.66y

⇒ 0.34x = 0.66y

⇒ x/y = 0.66/0.34

⇒ x/y = 33/17

Also, x - y = 16

Let y = 17k and x = 33k.

⇒ 33k - 17k = 16

⇒ 16k = 16

⇒ k = 1

⇒ x = 33 × 1 = 33

⇒ y = 17 × 1 = 17

⇒ Total sum = x + y = 33 + 17 = 50

∴ The correct answer is 50.

Given:

Cost price of the car = ₹477,000

Repair cost = ₹86,000

Profit percentage = 5%

Formula Used:

Total cost price = Cost price + Repair cost

Selling price = Total cost price × (1 + Profit percentage/100)

Calculation:

⇒ Total cost price = ₹477,000 + ₹86,000

⇒ Total cost price = ₹563,000

⇒ Selling price = ₹563,000 × (1 + 5/100)

⇒ Selling price = ₹563,000 × 1.05

⇒ Selling price = ₹591,150

∴ The correct answer is ₹591,150.

Given:

Radius (r) = 13 cm

Height (h) = 22 cm

Formula Used:

Curved Surface Area (CSA) of a right circular cylinder = 2 × π × r × h

Calculation:

⇒ CSA = 2 × π × 13 × 22

⇒ CSA = 572π cm²

∴ The correct answer is 572π cm².

Given:

Proportion: 13 : 70 :: 26 : x

Formula Used:

If a : b :: c : d, then (a × d) = (b × c)

Calculation:

⇒ (13 × x) = (70 × 26)

⇒ 13x = 1820

⇒ x = 1820 / 13

⇒ x = 140

∴ The correct answer is 140.

Given:

Number = 706705

Options: 15, 13, 5, 10

Formula Used:

A number is divisible by 5 if its last digit is 0 or 5.

A number is divisible by 10 if its last digit is 0.

Calculation:

⇒ Last digit of 706705 is 5.

⇒ 706705 is divisible by 5.

⇒ Last digit of 706705 is not 0.

⇒ 706705 is not divisible by 10.

∴ The correct answer is 5.

Given:

Average of three numbers = 20

First number = 15

Second number = 26

Formula Used:

Average = (Sum of numbers) / Total numbers

Sum of numbers = Average × Total numbers

Calculation:

⇒ Sum of numbers = 20 × 3

⇒ Sum of numbers = 60

⇒ Third number = Sum of numbers − (First number + Second number)

⇒ Third number = 60 − (15 + 26)

⇒ Third number = 60 − 41

⇒ Third number = 19

∴ The correct answer is 19.

Given:

Selling price 1 (SP₁) = ₹600

Selling price 2 (SP₂) = ₹1,230

Profit at SP₂ = 2.6 × Nominal Loss

Formula Used:

Loss = Cost Price (CP) - SP₁

Profit = SP₂ - CP

Profit = 2.6 × Loss

Calculation:

⇒ Loss = CP - 600

⇒ Profit = 1,230 - CP

⇒ 1,230 - CP = 2.6 × (CP - 600)

⇒ 1,230 - CP = 2.6CP - 1,560

⇒ 1,230 + 1,560 = 2.6CP + CP

⇒ 2,790 = 3.6CP

⇒ CP = 2,790 / 3.6

⇒ CP = 775

∴ The correct answer is 775.

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹18,550

Rate of interest (R) = 20% per annum

Time (T) = 2 years

Formula Used:

Compound Interest Formula: A = P × (1 + R/100)^T

Calculation:

⇒ A = 18,550 × (1 + 20/100)²

⇒ A = 18,550 × (1 + 0.2)²

⇒ A = 18,550 × (1.2)²

⇒ A = 18,550 × 1.44

⇒ A = 26,712

∴ The correct answer is 26,712.

Given:

Total expenditure = ₹810,000

Expenditure on cement = 20% of total expenditure

Formula Used:

Expenditure on cement = (Percentage of cement × Total expenditure) / 100

Calculation:

⇒ Expenditure on cement = (20 × 810,000) / 100

⇒ Expenditure on cement = 16,200,000 / 100

⇒ Expenditure on cement = ₹1,68,750

∴ The correct answer is ₹1,68,750.

Given:

Mohan's speed = 20 km/hr

Sohan's speed = 18 km/hr

Race distance = 4 km

Sohan starts x meters ahead of Mohan

Formula Used:

Time = Distance / Speed

Relative distance = x meters = x / 1000 km

Calculation:

Time taken by Mohan = 4 / 20 hours

⇒ Time taken by Mohan = 1 / 5 hours

Time taken by Sohan = (4 - x / 1000) / 18 hours

Since both finish at the same time, their times are equal:

⇒ 1 / 5 = (4 - x / 1000) / 18

⇒ 18 × (1 / 5) = 4 - x / 1000

⇒ 18 / 5 = 4 - x / 1000

⇒ 3.6 = 4 - x / 1000

⇒ x / 1000 = 4 - 3.6

⇒ x / 1000 = 0.4

⇒ x = 0.4 × 1000

⇒ x = 400

∴ The correct answer is 400.

The correct answer is 'did they'.

 

Key Points

• The sentence uses a negative statement, "No one remembered the date," which requires a positive question tag.
• Since "no one" is singular, the verb "did" applies, but the question tag turns the focus to "they," which is commonly used in such contexts.
• Option 1 ("didn’t he") and Option 4 ("did he") are incorrect because "he" does not match the subject "no one."
• Option 3 ("didn’t they") is incorrect because the negative form "didn’t" is unnecessary in the question tag.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: "No one remembered the date, did they?"

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "didn’t he" is incorrect because the subject "no one" refers to people in general, not an individual.
• Option 3: "didn’t they" is incorrect because the negative form in the question tag contradicts the sentence structure.
• Option 4: "did he" is incorrect because it does not align with the plural implication of "no one."

The correct answer is: Impresario.

Key Points

• The word "curator" refers to someone who manages or oversees a museum, gallery, or collection. (संग्रहाध्यक्ष)
• Example: The curator organized an exhibit showcasing ancient artifacts.
• The word "impresario" refers to a sponsor who organizes, books, and stages public entertainment events, such as music concerts, plays, or shows. (प्रबंधक)
• Example: The impresario brought together talented artists for a spectacular musical performance.
• Hence, in the context of the question, the most appropriate word is "impresario", as it perfectly describes the role of someone who sponsors and stages public entertainment events.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Impresario.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Curator (संग्रहाध्यक्ष): Someone who manages a museum or is in charge of organizing exhibitions.
• Example: The curator ensured the artifacts were displayed safely and attractively.
• Auctioneer (नीलामीकर्ता): A person who conducts auctions and sells items to the highest bidder.
• Example: The auctioneer sold the painting for a record-breaking price.
• Dilettante (शौकिया कलाकार): Someone who takes up an art or activity for amusement but lacks serious commitment or knowledge.
• Example: As a dilettante, she dabbled in painting but never took formal lessons.

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. "put her heart before her wallet".

Key Points

• The idiom "took a leaf out of someone’s book" means to imitate or follow the example of someone else. (किसी और के उदाहरण का अनुसरण करना)
• Example: After observing her friend's success, she decided to take a leaf out of her book and start her own business.
• The idiom "put her money where her mouth is" refers to taking actions that back up one's words or promises. (अपनी बातों या वादों का पालन करना)
• Example: If she believes so strongly in this cause, she should put her money where her mouth is and donate.
• The correct idiom "put her heart before her wallet" signifies prioritizing emotions or personal values over financial gain. (भावनाओं को वित्तीय लाभ से ऊपर रखना)
• Example: By staying to care for her parents, she clearly put her heart before her wallet.
• Another idiom, "bit off more than she could chew", means taking on a task that is too difficult to manage. (ऐसा काम लेना जो संभालने में कठिन हो)
• Example: She bit off more than she could chew by agreeing to organize two major events at the same time.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: Took a leaf out of someone’s book (किसी और का उदाहरण लेना): Means to learn or copy someone's example.
• Example: He took a leaf out of his mentor's book to improve his leadership skills.
• Option 2: Put her money where her mouth is (अपनी बात साबित करने के लिए कार्रवाई करना): Means to follow through on what one says or supports.
• Example: She always donates generously to the causes she talks about, putting her money where her mouth is.
• Option 3: Bit off more than she could chew (अपने सामर्थ्य से अधिक काम लेना): Refers to trying to do something that is too difficult or ambitious.
• Example: By starting two new businesses at once, he bit off more than he could chew.

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Haste makes waste.

Key Points

• The phrase "Haste makes waste" means that acting too quickly or carelessly often results in mistakes or undesirable outcomes. (जल्दबाजी बेकार होती है)
• Example: Rushing through the project led to several errors, proving once again that haste makes waste.
• The proverb in the question emphasizes the importance of taking time and ensuring quality in work, rather than rushing and compromising the results.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Haste makes waste.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: Fortune favors the bold (भाग्य साहसी का साथ देता है): This means that people who take risks are more likely to succeed.
• Example: She quit her secure job to start her own company because she believed that fortune favors the bold.
• Option 3: Too many cooks spoil the broth (ज्यादा लोगों से काम खराब होता है): This means that when too many people are involved in a task, it can lead to confusion and a poor outcome.
• Example: The project failed because everyone wanted to implement their own ideas. Too many cooks spoil the broth.
• Option 4: Strike while the iron is hot (अवसर पर ही काम करना चाहिए): This means that one should take advantage of an opportunity while it is still available.
• Example: He decided to strike while the iron was hot and invested in the company when its shares were low.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'embellisement'.

• The correct spelling would be 'embellishment'.
• The word 'embellishment' is a noun which means 'a decorative detail or feature added to something to make it more attractive'. (सजावट)
• For Example -
• The architect added embellishments to the building to enhance its aesthetic value.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'embellisement'.

Additional Information

Let's understand why the other options are incorrect - 

• Option 1: Embelishment - Incorrect spelling as it misses a second 'l'.
• Option 2: Embelleshment - Incorrect spelling as it uses 'e' instead of 'i'.
• Option 3: Embellishment - Correct spelling.
• Option 4: Embellishement - Incorrect spelling as it adds an extra 'e'.

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. 34251

 

Key Points

• The paragraph begins with sentence 3, which establishes the chronological context ("Until the middle of the twentieth century") and the primary state of global production at that time.
• Sentence 4 follows as it uses the demonstrative phrase "these countries" to refer back to the countries mentioned in sentence 3, while explaining the nature of cross-border movement.
• Sentence 2 is the third sentence because it provides a specific historical example (Colonies like India) to illustrate the exchange of raw materials and finished goods mentioned in sentence 4.
• Sentence 5 follows to summarize the primary method of global connection during this period, which was "Trade."
• Sentence 1 is the final sentence as it provides a historical boundary, clarifying that this trade-centric model existed before the rise of Multinational Corporations (MNCs).

 

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"Until the middle of the twentieth century, production was largely organised within countries. What crossed the boundaries of these countries were raw material, food stuff and finished products. Colonies such as India exported raw materials and food stuff and imported finished goods. Trade was the main channel connecting distant countries. This was before large companies called multinational corporations emerged on the scene."

The correct answer is: Mitigate.

Key Points

• The word "exacerbate" means to make a problem, bad situation, or negative feeling worse. (बिगाड़ना या अधिक खराब करना)
• Example: The lack of resources exacerbated the challenges faced by the team.
• "Mitigate" refers to making something less severe, serious, or painful. It is the antonym of "exacerbate." (कम करना या राहत देना)
• Example: The implementation of new policies helped to mitigate the risks of the project.
• Hence, the antonym of "exacerbate" in this context is "mitigate."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Mitigate.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Postulate (सिद्धांत मानना): To suggest or assume the existence of something as a basis for reasoning or argument.
• Example: Scientists often postulate theories based on observed phenomena.
• Intensify (तेज करना या बढ़ाना): To make something stronger or more extreme.
• Example: The heavy rainfall intensified the flood situation in the region.
• Repudiate (अस्वीकार करना): To reject or refuse to accept something.
• Example: The politician repudiated the allegations against him during the press conference.

The correct answer is 'will they'.

 

Key Points

• The sentence contains a negative statement ("They won't be late"), and the question tag must be positive.
• In question tags, the auxiliary verb ("will") is repeated, and the subject ("they") is retained.
• Option 2 is incorrect because using a negative tag ("won't they") after a negative statement is grammatically wrong.
• Options 3 and 4 are also incorrect as they do not follow the rules of forming question tags.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "They won't be late, will they?"

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "won't they" is incorrect because it repeats the negative form unnecessarily.
• Option 3: "would they" is incorrect as it changes the auxiliary verb, which is not appropriate in this context.
• Option 4: "do they" is incorrect because it does not match the auxiliary verb in the main sentence.

The correct answer is 'conciliatory'.

 

Key Points

• The word "conciliatory" means intending to pacify or make peace.
• In the given sentence, the speaker initially intended to adopt a peaceful approach, but was infuriated due to the other person’s behaviour.
• Options 1, 2, and 4 do not fit the context of adopting a peaceful approach:
• Option 1: Proactive suggests taking initiative but does not relate to pacification.
• Option 2: Adulatory means excessively praising, which is irrelevant here.
• Option 4: Peremptory means insisting on immediate obedience, which contrasts with a peaceful approach.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: "I had intended to adopt a conciliatory approach, but his demeanour infuriated me."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: Proactive is incorrect because it does not imply a peaceful approach.
• Option 2: Adulatory is incorrect because it means excessive praise, which does not fit the context.
• Option 4: Peremptory is incorrect because it implies imperiousness, which is the opposite of conciliatory.

The correct answer is 'tenuous'.

 

Key Points

• The word "tenuous" means weak, insubstantial, or flimsy, which perfectly describes the connection between the suspect and the crime in the given sentence.
• The sentence highlights that the link is based solely on a single, unreliable witness, further emphasizing the weak nature of the connection.
• Option 1: "surreptitious" is incorrect because it means secret or stealthy, which does not fit the context.
• Option 3: "innocuous" is incorrect because it means harmless or inoffensive, which is unrelated to the context.
• Option 4: "facetious" is incorrect because it means treating serious issues with inappropriate humor, which is not relevant to the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: "The link between the suspect and the crime was tenuous, based solely on a single, unreliable witness."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "surreptitious" is incorrect as it refers to something done secretly, which does not align with the sentence.
• Option 3: "innocuous" is incorrect as it means harmless, which is unrelated to the weak link implied in the sentence.
• Option 4: "facetious" is incorrect as it refers to humor, which is irrelevant in this context.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• The paragraph discusses the trade relationship between Britain and India during the colonial period, with a focus on the flow of goods and trade surplus.
• Sentence 3 is the first sentence as it introduces how British manufactures dominated the Indian market:
• "Over the nineteenth century, British manufactures flooded the Indian market."
• Sentence 1 follows as it highlights the increase in exports from India to Britain and other countries:
• "Food grain and raw material exports from India to Britain and the rest of the world increased."
• Sentence 4 is the third sentence as it compares the value of British exports to India and imports from India:
• "But the value of British exports to India was much higher than the value of British imports from India."
• Sentence 5 follows as it introduces the concept of Britain having a trade surplus with India:
• "Thus, Britain had a ‘trade surplus’ with India."
• Sentence 2 concludes as it explains how Britain used this surplus to balance its trade deficits with other countries:
• "Britain used this surplus to balance its trade deficits with other countries."
• The correct sequence is 31452.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"Over the nineteenth century, British manufactures flooded the Indian market. Food grain and raw material exports from India to Britain and the rest of the world increased. But the value of British exports to India was much higher than the value of British imports from India. Thus, Britain had a ‘trade surplus’ with India. Britain used this surplus to balance its trade deficits with other countries."

The correct answer is 'licentious'.

 

Key Points

• The word "licentious" refers to a lifestyle that is morally unrestrained, especially in relation to sexual activities or personal indulgence.
• The sentence contrasts his puritanical and conscientious behaviour with a lifestyle that is the opposite of such disciplined morality.
• Option 1: "liberal" does not match the extreme contrast required in the sentence.
• Option 2: "vainglorious" refers to excessive pride, which is unrelated to the context.
• Option 4: "regressive" refers to moving backward or being conservative, which does not fit the context either.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: "His puritanical and conscientious behaviour was in no way reflective of his licentious lifestyle."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "liberal" implies open-mindedness or generosity, but it does not contrast strongly with "puritanical" behaviour.
• Option 2: "vainglorious" denotes pride or vanity, which does not align with the lifestyle described.
• Option 4: "regressive" relates to backward-thinking or conservative behaviour, which is not applicable here.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'mispelling'.

• The correct spelling would be 'misspelling'.
• The word 'misspelling' is a noun which refers to an incorrect spelling of a word. (गलत वर्तनी)
• For Example -
• The teacher corrected the misspelling in the student's essay.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'mispelling'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Civilisation - the stage of human social and cultural development and organization considered most advanced (सभ्यता)
• Insatiable - impossible to satisfy (अतृप्त)
• Archaeology - the study of human history and prehistory through the excavation of sites and analysis of artifacts (पुरातत्व)

The correct answer is: Clarity.

Key Points

• The word "quagmire" means a difficult or precarious situation; it can also refer to a soft, muddy land that is hard to traverse. (दलदल या कठिन स्थिति)
• Example: The company found itself in a financial quagmire due to poor management decisions.
• "Clarity" refers to the quality of being clear, understandable, or free from confusion; it is the opposite of complexity or indecision. (स्पष्टता)
• Example: Her speech brought clarity to the confusing situation, helping everyone understand the next steps.
• Hence, we can infer that the antonym of "quagmire" in this context is "clarity."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Clarity.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Paucity (कमी): Refers to a small or insufficient quantity.
• Example: The paucity of resources made it difficult for the team to complete the project.
• Amity (मित्रता): Refers to a friendly relationship or peaceful harmony.
• Example: The treaty fostered amity between the two neighboring countries.
• Inversion (उलटाव): Refers to the reversal of the normal order or position.
• Example: The inversion of roles in the play added a unique twist to the storyline.

The correct answer is: Kakistocracy.

Key Points

• The word "Kakistocracy" refers to a form of government ruled by the least suitable, able, or experienced people. (अयोग्य लोगों द्वारा शासित सरकार)
• Example: Many critics argue that the current administration is descending into kakistocracy due to the incompetence of its leaders.
• It highlights the governance by individuals who are the worst or least qualified to govern effectively.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Kakistocracy.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Oligarchy (अल्पतंत्र): A system of government in which a small group of people holds power.
• Example: The nation was ruled by an oligarchy of wealthy families who controlled the economy and political decisions.
• Theocracy (धर्मतंत्र): A form of government in which religious leaders govern the state according to religious law.
• Example: Iran is often considered a theocracy because its political system is based on Islamic law.
• Aristocracy (अभिजात वर्ग का शासन): A government ruled by a privileged class or nobility.
• Example: In the past, many European countries were ruled by aristocracies made up of wealthy landowners.

The correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Key Points

• A) The description of a quaint old house on a hill.
• This cannot be the primary focus. The house is a brief setting detail at the start; the narrative centers on Maya’s emotional journey after losing the kite.
• B) A girl's experience of losing a cherished kite and learning to cope with loss.
• This is the primary focus. The passage follows Maya receiving the kite, losing it, feeling sadness, and finding comfort and hope through her grandmother’s words—clearly a theme of coping with loss.
• C) The beauty of nature and the joy of flying kites.
• This is a secondary element. While the breeze, fields, and kite’s movement are described, they serve the emotional arc rather than being the main subject.
• D) The strong bond between a granddaughter and her grandmother.
• This is important but not central. The grandmother’s comfort highlights their bond, yet it supports the main theme of loss and resilience rather than defining the passage’s primary focus.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: Incorrect because the house is only a brief setting detail, not the central theme.
• Option 3: Incorrect because nature and kite-flying are descriptive elements that support the emotional narrative.
• Option 4: Incorrect as the bond is present but serves the larger theme of coping with loss.

The correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Key Points

• A) The frustration of dealing with strong winds.
• This is not the central connection. Strong winds appear as a plot element, but the passage focuses on Maya’s emotional response to loss, not on weather-related frustration.
• B) The excitement of receiving a new gift.
• This is present but secondary. Maya’s joy at receiving and flying the kite sets the scene, yet the narrative pivots to loss and acceptance.
• C) The importance of spending time with grandparents.
• This is supportive, not primary. The grandmother’s comfort is meaningful, but it serves the broader theme of coping with loss rather than being the main real-life connection.
• D) The experience of losing something valuable and learning to find acceptance.
• This is the most appropriate connection. The passage traces Maya’s loss, sadness, and the grandmother’s guidance toward peace and hope—clearly reflecting acceptance after losing something cherished.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: Incorrect because wind is incidental; the emotional journey is central.
• Option 2: Incorrect because initial excitement transitions into the deeper theme of acceptance after loss.
• Option 3: Incorrect because the grandmother’s role supports the main theme rather than defining it.

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Key Points

• A) Chronological order with a reflective ending.
• This best describes the structure. Events unfold in time—Maya receives the kite, flies it, loses it, feels sad—and the passage closes with her grandmother’s reflective, comforting perspective that brings acceptance and hope.
• B) Descriptive with a moral lesson.
• This is not the primary structure. While there are descriptive elements and a gentle lesson, the passage is fundamentally a narrative sequence rather than a static description.
• C) Problem-solution.
• This does not fit fully. The “problem” (losing the kite) isn’t solved; instead, it’s reframed through acceptance. The structure emphasizes reflection rather than a concrete solution.
• D) Cause and effect.
• This is secondary at best. Although wind causes the kite to drift away, the passage is organized as a chronological narrative culminating in reflection, not an analytical cause–effect exposition.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: Incorrect because the passage is narrative, not purely descriptive.
• Option 3: Incorrect because the situation isn’t resolved; it leads to acceptance, not a solution.
• Option 4: Incorrect because the organization isn’t analytical cause–effect; it’s a time-ordered story with reflection.

The correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Key Points

• A) The grandmother is always successful in comforting Maya.
• This cannot be inferred. The passage shows the grandmother comforting Maya in this instance, but it does not state she is always successful.
• B) Maya will likely get another kite soon.
• This cannot be inferred. The passage does not mention Maya receiving another kite or any plans for it.
• C) The wind in the story is portrayed as a destructive force.
• This cannot be inferred. The wind is shown as playful and strong, but not destructive—it simply carries the kite away.
• D) Maya values the kite not just as a toy but also for the feeling of freedom it represents.
• This can be inferred. The passage describes Maya’s heart soaring as the kite danced in the sky and her thrill of freedom with every gust of wind, showing that the kite symbolized more than just play—it represented freedom and joy.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: Incorrect because the passage only shows one instance of comfort, not a general rule.
• Option 2: Incorrect because there is no mention of Maya getting another kite.
• Option 3: Incorrect because the wind is not destructive, only strong and playful.

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Key Points

• A) Melancholy with a hint of comfort.
• This best reflects the tone. Maya feels sadness after losing her kite (melancholy), but her grandmother’s gentle words bring peace and hope (comfort).
• B) Informative and descriptive.
• This is not accurate. The passage is a narrative story, not an informative or factual description.
• C) Suspenseful and dramatic.
• This does not fit. The passage has no suspense or dramatic tension; it is gentle and reflective.
• D) Humorous and light-hearted.
• This is incorrect. The passage deals with loss and comfort, not humor or playfulness.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: Incorrect because the passage is not meant to inform but to narrate an emotional experience.
• Option 3: Incorrect because there is no suspense or drama in the storyline.
• Option 4: Incorrect because the tone is not humorous; it is tender and reflective.