The logic followed here is.

Thus, the letter-cluster that DOES NOT belong to that group is KNP.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

BODMAS Rule:

According to the question, the symbols are interchanged as follows:

Now, given the equation: 96 − 15 ÷ 21 + 7 × 81 = ?

After interchanging the specified symbols, the new equation is:

96 + 15 × 21 ÷ 7 − 81 = ?

Perform operations according to BODMAS:

→ 96 + 15 × 21 ÷ 7 − 81

→ 96 + 15 × 3 − 81

→ 96 + 45 − 81

→ 141 − 81

→ 60

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given analogy: # : QTP :: EHD : %

Analysis of All Options:

Option 1) # = ORN, % = GJF

For # (ORN) to QTP:

For EHD to % (GJF):

Both pairs follow the same pattern: (+2, +2, +2). Therefore, Option 1 is correct.

Option 2) # = OLP, % = GHK

For # (OLP) to QTP:

For EHD to % (GHK):

The patterns (+2, +8, 0) and (+2, 0, +7) do not match.

Option 3) # = PRN, % = KLJ

For # (PRN) to QTP:

For EHD to % (KLJ):

The patterns (+1, +2, +2) and (+6, +4, +6) do not match.

Option 4) # = PTN, % = KJF

For # (PTN) to QTP:

For EHD to % (KJF):

The patterns (+1, 0, +2) and (+6, +2, +2) do not match.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

The logic followed here is,

Logic: First Number x 1.1 = Second Number

Verification of Given Pairs :

7 is related to 7.7

→ 7 x 1.1 = 7.7 (Correct)

12 is related to 13.2

→ 12 x 1.1 = 13.2 (Correct)

Applying the Logic to find the relation for 14 :

First Number = 14

→ 14 x 1.1 = 15.4

Thus, the number that corresponds to 14 is 15.4.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Statement: The number of cases of waterborne diseases in Town X has surged in the past few months due to contamination of the town's water supply.

Course of Action:

I. Public awareness campaigns should be initiated to educate residents on proper water treatment methods and hygiene practices. - True (Because, educating the public on immediate safety measures like boiling water or using filters helps reduce the spread of disease while the main supply is contaminated.)

II. Authorities should conduct regular testing of the town's water supply to ensure its safety. - True (Because, regular testing is a necessary administrative step to identify the source of contamination, monitor water quality, and prevent future outbreaks.)

So, Both I and II follow.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The given three-digit numbers are: 478, 645, 321, 563, 124.

Logic: Add 2 to the first digit of every number, then check if the new first digit is exactly divisible by the second digit.

 

There is only One number (645) where the new first digit (8) is exactly divisible by the second digit (4).

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given

Statements:

Some cables are wires.

Some wires are nickel.

No nickel is silver.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is:

Conclusions:

I. Some cables are silver - False (There is no direct relationship established between cables and silver; it is a possibility, but not a definite conclusion).

II. All wires are silver - False (There is no direct relationship established between wires and silver; it is a possibility, but not a definite conclusion).

So, Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given: A certain number of people are sitting in a row, facing north.

The number of people to the left of D is equal to the number of people to the right of D.

E sits immediately to the left of D.

D sits fourth to the left of B.

Only three people sit between B and F.

F sits at one of the ends.

C sits 14^th to the left of F.

Only one person sits between A and C.

A sits fifth from the left end.

So, 17 people are sitting in the row.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is,

Logic: (First Number x 3) / 5 = Second Number

Verification of the given pairs :

Pair 1 (65 : 39): (65 / 5) x 3 = 13 x 3 = 39 (Correct)

Pair 2 (80 : 48): (80 / 5) x 3 = 16 x 3 = 48 (Correct)

Applying the logic to find the relation for 95 :

First Number = 95

→ 95 / 5 = 19

→ 19 x 3 = 57

Thus, the number that corresponds to 95 is 57.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is,

Decoding Steps:

1. Compare the letters in 'EARN' and 'RANS':

The common letters are A, R, and N.

The common digits are 9, 0, and 2.

The only remaining letter in 'RANS' is S.

The only remaining digit in the code 9026 is 6.

Thus, the code for S is 6.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) 'DFB':

Option 2) 'NPL':

Option 3) 'LNI':

Option 4) 'RTP':

The clusters DFB, NPL, and RTP all follow the +2, -4 pattern. However, LNI follows a +2, -5 pattern, which makes it the odd one out.

Thus, the letter-cluster that DOES NOT belong to that group is LNI.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is.

Thus, the letter-cluster that DOES NOT belong to that group is UQN.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.

The given three-digit numbers are: 352, 692, 259, 381, 462.

Logic: Add 2 to the first digit of every number, then check if the new first digit is exactly divisible by the second digit.

 

There are Two numbers (352 and 462) where the new first digit is exactly divisible by the second digit.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Thus, the missing number in the series is 201.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4.

The logic followed here is.

For 'KR-PN':

For 'HO-MJ':

For 'DK-IF':

For 'OV-TQ':

Thus, the letter-cluster that DOES NOT belong to that group is KR-PN.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

BODMAS Rule:

According to the question, the symbols are interchanged as follows:

Now, given the equation: 14 − 3 + 111 × 3 ÷ 29 = ?

After interchanging the specified symbols, the new equation is:

14 × 3 − 111 ÷ 3 + 29 = ?

Perform operations according to BODMAS:

→ 14 × 3 − 111 ÷ 3 + 29

→ 14 × 3 − 37 + 29

→ 42 + 29 − 37

→ 71 − 37

→ 34

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given: Manik starts from Point A and drives 14 km towards East.

He then takes a left turn, drives 32 km, turns left and drives 45 km.

He then takes a left turn and drives 46 km.

He takes a final left turn, drives 31 km and stops at Point P.

Movement of Manik is,

He should drive 14 km north in order to reach Point A again.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given: A, B, C, D, W, X, Y and Z are sitting around a square table, facing the centre of the table.

Some of them are sitting at the corners while some are sitting at the exact centres of the sides.

Only three people sit between A and W.

A does not sit at any of the corners.

B sits third to the left of W.

D sits second to the left of A.

Only X sits between W and D.

Y is an immediate neighbour of A.

Z sits second to the left of W.

And C sits at the remaining place.

So, four people sit between C and D, when counted from the left of C.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Required Relationship: S is the mother of E. 

Analyzing Option 1: S % I * N # C + E

S % I: S is the wife of I. 

I * N: I is the father of N. 

N # C: N is the brother of C. 

C + E: C is the sister of E. 

Option 1:

Family Tree Representation (Relevant Part):

Thus, Option 1 will make the statement 'S is the mother of E' true.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given: A certain number of people are sitting in a row, facing north.

Q is sitting 5^th to the right of P.

P is sitting 2^nd to the right of T.

Only 6 people are sitting between Q and S.

So, the total number of persons seated in the row is 15.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The correct answer is CSIR–Central Road Research Institute (CSIR–CRRI) and School of Planning and Architecture (SPA), New Delhi.

Key Points

• The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the CSIR–Central Road Research Institute (CSIR–CRRI) and the School of Planning and Architecture (SPA), New Delhi, in June 2025.
• The MoU was aimed at reducing road dust pollution in the National Capital Region (NCR), which is a significant contributor to air pollution in the area.
• CSIR–CRRI specializes in road development research, including mitigation of road dust, which is one of the major sources of particulate matter (PM10 and PM2.5) in urban areas.
• SPA, New Delhi, brings expertise in urban planning and sustainable solutions to address pollution issues caused by urban infrastructure.
• This collaboration aligns with the government’s ongoing efforts to improve air quality in NCR and promote sustainable urban development practices.

Additional Information

• Option 2: NITI Aayog and Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru
• NITI Aayog is India’s policy think tank, focusing on economic and developmental strategies for the country.
• IISc Bengaluru is known for its research in science and technology but is not directly involved in tackling road dust pollution in NCR.
• While both organizations contribute to environmental research, they were not part of this specific MoU with CAQM in June 2025.
• Option 3: Ministry of Road Transport and CSIR–National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (CSIR–NEERI)
• The Ministry of Road Transport deals with road safety and transportation policies, while CSIR–NEERI focuses on environmental research and management.
• Although these institutions are engaged in addressing environmental challenges, they were not the signatories of the June 2025 MoU on road dust pollution in NCR.
• Option 4: CSIR–National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (CSIR–NEERI) and Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Delhi
• CSIR–NEERI and IIT Delhi are well-known for their contributions to environmental and technological research, respectively.
• However, this pair did not sign the MoU with CAQM in June 2025 to address road dust pollution in NCR.
• Road Dust Pollution in NCR:
• Road dust is a significant contributor to air pollution in urban areas, particularly in Delhi-NCR, which experiences high levels of particulate matter (PM10 and PM2.5).
• The issue arises from unpaved roads, vehicular emissions, construction activities, and poor maintenance of urban infrastructure.
• Mitigation measures include better road maintenance, greening initiatives, vacuum-based cleaning of roads, and stricter construction regulations.

The correct answer is 3.6 × 10⁶ J.

Key Points

• 1 kWh (kilowatt-hour) is a unit of energy commonly used in electricity billing and is equal to 3.6 × 10⁶ joules.
• This equivalence comes from the definition of power (in watts) and time (in seconds): 1 kWh = 1000 watts × 3600 seconds = 3,600,000 joules.
• The joule (J) is the SI unit of energy, and it is defined as 1 joule = 1 watt × 1 second.
• 1 kWh represents the amount of energy consumed when a device with a power rating of 1 kilowatt operates for 1 hour.
• This conversion is vital in energy-related calculations, including electricity consumption and energy production.

Additional Information

• Option 1: 36 × 10² J
• This value is incorrect as it underestimates the energy equivalent of 1 kWh.
• 36 × 10² J equals 3600 J, which is the energy consumed by a device with a power of 1 watt running for 1 hour (not 1 kilowatt-hour).
• Option 3: 36 × 10⁴ J
• This value is also incorrect as it represents 360,000 J, which is lower than the actual energy equivalent of 1 kWh.
• This may result from confusion between kilowatts and watts in the calculation.
• Option 4: 36 × 10³ J
• This value is incorrect because it represents 36,000 J, far lower than the actual value of 1 kWh (3.6 × 10⁶ J).
• Again, this might be a miscalculation of the power or time units.
• Topic Overview: Energy Conversion
• Energy conversion between different units is a critical concept in physics and engineering.
• 1 kWh is a practical unit often used in electricity bills to represent energy consumption or generation.
• Knowing how to convert kWh to joules helps in understanding energy efficiency, power ratings, and cost calculations.
• Other common energy units include calories, BTU (British Thermal Unit), and electron volts (eV).

The correct answer is West Bengal.

Key Points

• Pata Naach is a traditional folk dance performed by the Kurmi and Santhal tribes in West Bengal.
• This dance is characterized by its vibrant movements, rhythmic music, and cultural storytelling, reflecting the tribal heritage of the region.
• The Kurmi and Santhal tribes primarily reside in rural areas of West Bengal, and Pata Naach serves as a medium to celebrate their festivals, harvest seasons, and other community gatherings.
• The dance form is accompanied by traditional musical instruments such as the dhol, flute, and cymbals, which add to its cultural richness.
• Pata Naach is an integral part of the tribal identity and showcases the unique traditions, beliefs, and customs of the Kurmi and Santhal tribes in West Bengal.

Additional Information

• Bihar:
• Bihar is known for its diverse cultural heritage and folk dances such as Jat-Jatin, Bidesia, and Sohar.
• Jat-Jatin is a popular folk dance performed during monsoons, depicting themes of love and separation.
• Bidesia highlights the struggles of migrant workers and is often performed in rural areas.
• Manipur:
• Manipur is renowned for its classical dance form, Ras Leela, and folk dances like Thang Ta and Cholom.
• Thang Ta is a martial dance showcasing Manipuri warriors' skill and agility.
• Cholom involves synchronized drum performances and is a highlight of Manipuri festivals.
• Nagaland:
• Nagaland is known for its tribal dances such as Chang Lo and War Dance, which are performed during community festivals.
• These dances reflect the Naga tribes' traditions, bravery, and connection with nature.
• Music and costumes play a significant role in their performances, showcasing the vibrant culture of the region.
• Main Theme:
• Folk dances in India serve as an expression of cultural identity and heritage, deeply rooted in the traditions of specific communities and tribes.
• Each dance form represents the lifestyle, beliefs, and values of the community it belongs to, making them an integral part of India's diverse cultural tapestry.

The correct answer is S Anand.

 

Key Points

• 'Finding My Way' is a collaborative work written by Venkat Raman Singh Shyam and S Anand.
• Venkat Raman Singh Shyam is a renowned Gond artist known for his traditional tribal art style.
• S Anand is a writer, editor, and publisher deeply committed to social justice issues and marginalized communities.
• The book 'Finding My Way' blends art and storytelling to portray Venkat Raman Singh Shyam's life journey and the struggles of Dalit and Adivasi communities.
• It is an autobiographical graphic novel that highlights the cultural heritage and challenges of indigenous communities.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Ravi Kumar
• Ravi Kumar is not associated with the book 'Finding My Way'.
• He is a common name across various fields, but there is no known collaboration with Venkat Raman Singh Shyam for any literary work.
• Option 2: Amrita Sher-Gil
• Amrita Sher-Gil was a renowned Indian painter often referred to as one of the pioneers of modern Indian art.
• She belonged to the pre-independence era and is not connected to 'Finding My Way'.
• Her works primarily focused on Indian rural life and cultural themes, but she is not linked to Venkat Raman Singh Shyam or S Anand.
• Option 4: Subodh Gupta
• Subodh Gupta is a contemporary Indian artist known for his sculptures and installations created from everyday objects.
• He is not associated with the book 'Finding My Way'.
• His work focuses on themes of globalization, consumerism, and Indian identity but is unrelated to the autobiographical narrative of Venkat Raman Singh Shyam.
• Main Theme: 'Finding My Way'
• The book is a graphic novel exploring identity, art, and the socio-cultural struggles of marginalized communities.
• Venkat Raman Singh Shyam uses Gond art to narrate his own story as well as the collective experience of indigenous communities in India.
• S Anand, as the co-author, contributed to shaping the narrative and bringing out the depth of the themes in the book.
• This work is a unique combination of visual artistry and storytelling that highlights important social issues.

The correct answer is 1868.

Key Points

• Jamsetji Nusserwanji Tata founded the Tata Group in 1868, marking the beginning of one of India's largest and most successful business conglomerates.
• The Tata Group was established as a trading company under the name Tata & Sons, with a focus on textiles and trading activities.
• Jamsetji Tata is widely regarded as the "Father of Indian Industry" due to his visionary approach to industrialization and his contributions to India's economic development.
• The foundation of the Tata Group laid the groundwork for the establishment of pioneering companies in steel, energy, hospitality, chemicals, and more.
• Today, the Tata Group operates in over 100 countries across six continents and has a diverse portfolio of businesses, including Tata Steel, Tata Consultancy Services (TCS), Tata Motors, and more.

Additional Information

• Option 1 (1875)
• While this date does not mark the founding year of the Tata Group, it is significant as Jamsetji Tata established the Empress Mills, a textile company, in Nagpur in 1877. The mill became one of the first major industrial enterprises of the Tata Group.
• Empress Mills was known for its innovation and high-quality textiles and contributed significantly to India's industrial growth.
• Option 2 (1889)
• 1889 is not the founding year of the Tata Group, but during this period, Jamsetji Tata expanded his business ventures and laid the foundation for significant industrial projects, including his dream of establishing India's first steel plant.
• Jamsetji's vision for a steel plant was realized posthumously, with the establishment of Tata Steel in 1907 by his successors.
• Option 3 (1864)
• 1864 is not associated with the founding of the Tata Group but is close to the timeline when Jamsetji Tata began his entrepreneurial journey as a trader.
• He gained valuable experience during this time, which helped him establish Tata & Sons in 1868.
• Main Theme: Tata Group
• The Tata Group is one of India's most renowned multinational conglomerates, with operations spanning industries such as steel, automotive, information technology, hospitality, and chemicals.
• Jamsetji Tata's vision included industrialization, education, and philanthropy, and he was instrumental in shaping India's economy and social landscape.
• The Tata Group is known for its commitment to corporate social responsibility, ethical business practices, and innovation.
• Prominent Tata companies include Tata Steel, Tata Motors, Tata Consultancy Services (TCS), Tata Power, and Indian Hotels Company Limited (IHCL).

The correct answer is Marginal product of an input.

Key Points

• The marginal product of an input refers to the additional output that is produced when one additional unit of input is used, while keeping all other inputs constant.
• It is represented mathematically as the derivative of the total product function with respect to the input, signifying the rate of change of output.
• The marginal product is a key concept in production theory and is used to analyze resource allocation and efficiency in economic systems.
• As more units of an input are added, the marginal product initially increases due to specialization but eventually decreases due to the law of diminishing returns.
• Understanding the marginal product helps firms determine the optimal level of input usage to maximize profits and minimize costs.

Additional Information

• Intermediate product of an input
• An intermediate product is a semi-finished good that is used as an input in the production process to produce a final product.
• It does not refer to the change in output per unit of input but rather to a step in the production process.
• Examples include raw materials like steel used in car manufacturing or fabric used in clothing production.
• Intermediate products are not the focus of marginal productivity but are vital components of supply chains.
• Nominal product of an input
• The term "nominal product" is not commonly used in economics or production theory. It may be confused with nominal GDP or nominal values, which are measured in current prices without adjusting for inflation.
• In the context of production, the nominal product might inaccurately suggest a measure of total output without emphasizing the marginal or real changes resulting from input variation.
• Economic analysis typically focuses on real output or marginal changes, not nominal metrics.
• Final product of an input
• The final product is the end result of a production process, ready for consumption or use by the end-user or consumer.
• Unlike the marginal product, which measures incremental changes, the final product signifies the cumulative outcome of combining all inputs.
• For example, a car is the final product of inputs such as steel, labor, and machinery.
• The concept of the final product is distinct from the marginal product, as it does not measure the contribution of a single additional unit of input.
• Theme of the question
• The question explores the concept of productivity and resource allocation in production theory.
• Marginal product analysis is crucial for determining the optimal input levels to maximize efficiency and profitability.
• Understanding the relationships between inputs and outputs forms the basis of decision-making in economics and business.

The correct answer is Stronger national borders.

Key Points

• Globalisation is characterized by the increasing interconnectedness and interdependence of countries worldwide, primarily through trade, technology, and cultural exchange.
• Stronger national borders contradicts the core concept of globalisation, which promotes the removal or reduction of trade barriers and the free movement of goods, services, people, and capital.
• Instead of reinforcing national boundaries, globalisation seeks to integrate economies, enabling seamless international cooperation and interaction.
• The process of globalisation encourages open markets, cross-border partnerships, and the adoption of liberalized trade policies.
• Thus, the idea of stronger national borders is inconsistent with the fundamental principles of globalisation, making it the correct answer.

Additional Information

• Increased international trade
• One of the major aspects of globalisation is the growth of international trade, which involves the exchange of goods and services across borders.
• It leads to the integration of global economies, allowing countries to specialize in industries where they have a comparative advantage.
• This fosters economic growth, creates jobs, and promotes innovation in participating nations.
• Movement of people across borders
• Globalisation facilitates the migration of people for education, employment, and better living standards.
• This movement contributes to cultural diversity and helps transfer skills and knowledge across countries.
• It also supports the global economy by addressing labor shortages and creating remittance flows.
• Faster communication technologies
• Advancements in communication technologies, such as the internet and mobile devices, have played a crucial role in accelerating globalisation.
• These technologies enable real-time communication, efficient information exchange, and the global spread of ideas and innovation.
• They have made it easier for businesses to operate on a global scale and for individuals to connect across borders.

The correct answer is Persian.

Key Points

• Nowruz, also known as the Persian New Year, is a traditional festival celebrated by Iranians and other related cultural groups to mark the beginning of the new year.
• It is celebrated on the vernal equinox (around March 20 or 21), symbolizing renewal and the arrival of spring.
• During the Sultanate period in India, Nowruz was observed as a grand festival, especially under the reign of rulers who followed Persian customs and traditions.
• The celebration of Nowruz in India was introduced by the Delhi Sultanate rulers who had strong cultural and political ties with Persia.
• Nowruz included rituals such as exchanging gifts, feasting, and organizing grand celebrations at the royal court to mark the occasion.

Additional Information

• Afghans:
• Afghanistan, influenced by Persian culture, also celebrates Nowruz. However, the question specifically pertains to the Sultanate period in India.
• The Afghan rulers who invaded India during the Sultanate period were not the ones to introduce Nowruz celebrations in the subcontinent.
• Turks:
• The Turks who ruled during the Sultanate period were primarily influenced by Persian culture and traditions.
• While Turks adopted Persian customs, they were not the originators of the Nowruz celebration.
• Arabs:
• Arabs did not traditionally celebrate Nowruz as it is not a part of Arab culture or Islamic traditions.
• The Arab influence in India during the Sultanate period was more focused on trade and the spread of Islam rather than Persian cultural practices like Nowruz.
• Nowruz:
• Nowruz is recognized by UNESCO as an intangible cultural heritage of humanity.
• The festival is observed in many countries, including Iran, Afghanistan, parts of Central Asia, and among the Parsi community in India.
• It is associated with Zoroastrianism, an ancient Persian religion, and has been celebrated for over 3,000 years.

The correct answer is Article 74(1).

Key Points

• Article 74(1) of the Indian Constitution provides for the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister to aid and advise the President in the exercise of his functions.
• It ensures a parliamentary system of governance where the President acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
• The advice tendered by the Council of Ministers is binding on the President as per the 42^nd Amendment Act, 1976.
• The provision reinforces the democratic principle of collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature.
• It plays a crucial role in maintaining harmony between the President, who is the constitutional head, and the Council of Ministers, which exercises real executive powers.

Additional Information

• Article 79(1):
• Article 79 deals with the composition of the Parliament of India.
• It states that the Parliament shall consist of the President, the Council of States (Rajya Sabha), and the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
• This article establishes the structure of the Indian Parliament, a bicameral legislative body.
• Article 94(1):
• Article 94 outlines the provisions related to the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
• It mentions the circumstances under which the Speaker or Deputy Speaker may vacate their office, including resignation or ceasing to be a member of the Lok Sabha.
• This article does not pertain to the Council of Ministers or their role in advising the President.
• Article 84(1):
• Article 84 specifies the qualifications required for membership in the Parliament.
• It includes conditions such as citizenship of India, minimum age requirements, and other qualifications prescribed by law.
• This article is unrelated to the functioning of the Council of Ministers or their advisory role to the President.
• Main Theme:
• The question primarily revolves around the constitutional provisions concerning the relationship between the President and the Council of Ministers.
• Article 74(1) forms the backbone of India's parliamentary democracy by ensuring that the President exercises his powers based on the advice of the elected representatives.

The correct answer is Mysore.

Key Points

• The Central Institute of Indian Languages (CIIL) is located in Mysore, Karnataka, India.
• It was established in 1969 under the Department of Higher Education, Ministry of Education, Government of India.
• The institute aims to coordinate and develop Indian languages through research, teaching, and training.
• CIIL is renowned for promoting linguistic harmony and supporting language development across India.
• The institute conducts various programs like language documentation, teacher training, and research to preserve and promote India’s linguistic diversity.

Additional Information

• Bhubaneswar
• Bhubaneswar is the capital city of Odisha and is known as the "Temple City of India".
• It is famous for its ancient temples, including the Lingaraja Temple and Mukteswara Temple.
• Bhubaneswar is a prominent center for education and technology in eastern India.
• Hyderabad
• Hyderabad is the capital city of Telangana and is popularly known as the "City of Pearls."
• It houses numerous historical landmarks, including the Charminar and Golconda Fort.
• Hyderabad has emerged as a major hub for the information technology industry in India.
• Patna
• Patna is the capital city of Bihar and is one of the oldest continuously inhabited cities in the world.
• It has historical significance as it was a major center during the Maurya and Gupta empires.
• Patna is home to ancient sites like Kumhrar, which contains ruins of the Mauryan period.
• Main Theme: Central Institute of Indian Languages
• The Central Institute of Indian Languages plays a key role in preserving and promoting India's linguistic heritage.
• It supports the development of official languages and classical languages recognized by the Indian government.
• CIIL collaborates with various universities and research institutions to enhance linguistic studies and promote multilingual education.

The correct answer is 34.

Key Points

• There are 34 Directorates of Census Operations functioning under the aegis of the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India.
• These Directorates are located in various states and union territories, ensuring the smooth execution of census-related activities.
• The Directorates work directly under the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, headquartered in New Delhi.
• They are tasked with conducting the decennial census and other vital statistics collection efforts across India.
• The Census of India is one of the largest administrative exercises in the world and is conducted under the Census Act, 1948.

Additional Information

• Option 1: 41
• The number 41 does not align with the actual count of Directorates of Census Operations in India.
• India has 34 Directorates, which are distributed across all states and union territories for census execution.
• Option 3: 31
• While the number 31 might seem plausible, it is not accurate as per the official records of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India.
• The Census Operations are conducted in all states and union territories, requiring 34 Directorates for comprehensive coverage.
• Option 4: 37
• The number 37 is incorrect as per the official census administration structure.
• The actual number is 34, which ensures efficient execution and monitoring of census activities across India.
• Census of India Overview:
• The Census of India is conducted every 10 years and is a vital administrative exercise to collect demographic and socio-economic data.
• It is conducted under the supervision of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India, a statutory authority functioning under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
• The Census provides critical data for policymaking, resource allocation, and governance at the national and state levels.
• The first census in India was conducted in 1872, and since 1951, it has been conducted regularly every decade.

The correct answer is About 10.7%.

Key Points

• As per the India Employment Report 2024, 10.7% of migrants in 2021 migrated due to employment purposes.
• Migrants move in search of better job opportunities, improved wages, and sustainable livelihoods, contributing to the workforce in urban and industrial areas.
• The migration for employment is largely categorized under economic migration, which plays a significant role in boosting urban labor markets and economic activity.
• India has witnessed a steady increase in work-related migration, primarily driven by rural-to-urban migration for skilled and unskilled labor.
• The report highlights the importance of addressing challenges faced by migrant workers, such as social security, housing, and access to healthcare.

Additional Information

• About 7.7%
• This figure represents a smaller proportion of migrants who moved for employment purposes, which is less significant compared to the actual migration percentage.
• Migration due to employment at this level would indicate limited opportunities or lack of significant economic drivers for migration.
• Such a low percentage might pertain to migration driven by seasonal or temporary employment.
• About 9.7%
• This percentage falls closer to the correct answer but is still lower than the reported figure in the India Employment Report 2024.
• It might indicate employment-driven migration in specific sectors or regions but does not capture the overall national figure.
• About 8.7%
• This percentage is another hypothetical value that underestimates the actual migration percentage due to employment purposes.
• Such figures might reflect migration in earlier years or in specific states, not the comprehensive national data from 2021.
• Migration Theme
• Migration in India is influenced by factors such as employment, education, marriage, and family relocation.
• Economic migration, particularly for employment, constitutes a significant portion of overall migration, as highlighted by the India Employment Report.
• Policy interventions like social security and skill development are crucial to supporting migrant workers and ensuring their economic stability.

The correct answer is 2000.

Key Points

• The first-ever National Agriculture Policy (NAP) of India was announced in the year 2000 by the Ministry of Agriculture.
• The policy aimed to achieve a growth rate of 4% per annum in the agricultural sector on a sustainable basis.
• Its core objectives included the development of rural infrastructure, ensuring food security, conservation of natural resources, and promoting equitable growth in the agricultural sector.
• It emphasized a farmer-centric approach, focusing on increasing productivity, profitability, and sustainability through the use of modern technologies and improved agricultural practices.
• The policy also emphasized the importance of diversification of agriculture and encouraged the development of allied sectors like fisheries, animal husbandry, and horticulture.

Additional Information

• 1997
• During this period, agricultural reforms were mainly focused on liberalization and economic adjustments post-1991 economic reforms, but no formal National Agriculture Policy was introduced in 1997.
• However, the focus was on increasing agricultural exports and introducing market reforms to integrate Indian agriculture with global markets.
• 1995
• This year did not witness the announcement of a formal National Agriculture Policy.
• However, India became a founding member of the World Trade Organization (WTO) in 1995, which significantly impacted agricultural trade policies.
• The Agreement on Agriculture (AoA) under WTO came into effect, pushing India to align its agricultural trade policies with global standards.
• 2003
• No new National Agriculture Policy was announced in 2003, but several initiatives were taken to strengthen agricultural extension services and promote agro-processing industries.
• The focus was on the implementation of the 2000 Agriculture Policy's objectives, including ensuring credit flow to farmers and expanding irrigation potential.
• Main Theme
• The National Agriculture Policy of 2000 was a landmark initiative aimed at transforming Indian agriculture into a more productive, efficient, and sustainable sector.
• It emphasized the use of technology, infrastructure development, and the promotion of agricultural diversification to support rural livelihoods and food security.

The correct answer is Third.

Key Points

• India ranked third in the list of the most polluted countries in 2023, as per the 'World Air Quality Report' published by IQAir in March 2024.
• IQAir is a Swiss air quality technology company that annually releases global air quality reports based on PM2.5 levels.
• The report analyzes air pollution levels across 131 countries, considering data from monitoring stations worldwide.
• PM2.5 refers to fine particulate matter that poses severe health risks, including respiratory and cardiovascular diseases.
• India's average PM2.5 concentration in 2023 was among the highest globally, indicating significant air pollution challenges.
• Delhi remained the most polluted capital city globally, as per the report, highlighting urban pollution concerns.

Additional Information

• Option 1: First
• The most polluted country in 2023, according to the IQAir report, was Chad, with the highest average PM2.5 concentration globally.
• Chad's pollution levels were primarily driven by desert dust, biomass burning, and inadequate environmental regulations.
• Being first in this ranking signifies severe air quality degradation, impacting public health and ecosystems.
• Option 2: Second
• Pakistan ranked second in the list of most polluted countries in 2023.
• Major contributors to Pakistan's pollution include industrial emissions, vehicular exhaust, and crop residue burning.
• Urban centers such as Lahore face critical air pollution challenges, often leading to smog and health emergencies.
• Option 4: Fourth
• While India ranked third, Bahrain occupied the fourth position in the IQAir report.
• Air pollution in Bahrain is majorly driven by industrial emissions and dust storms.
• Such pollution levels impact health, visibility, and climate in the region.
• Main Theme: Air Pollution
• Air pollution refers to the contamination of air by harmful substances, including particulate matter, gases, and biological molecules.
• It is primarily caused by industrial activities, vehicular emissions, deforestation, and burning fossil fuels.
• PM2.5 and PM10 are critical indicators used to measure air quality, with PM2.5 being the most dangerous due to its ability to penetrate deep into the lungs.
• Air pollution poses severe health risks, including asthma, lung cancer, cardiovascular diseases, and premature death.
• Global initiatives like the Paris Agreement aim to reduce air pollution by limiting greenhouse gas emissions.

The correct answer is Anand Megalingam.

Key Points

• Anand Megalingam is the founder of Space Zone India, a leading private organization in India dedicated to advancing space technology and research.
• Space Zone India is recognized for its recent milestone: leading the launch of India's first reusable hybrid rocket, named RHUMI-1.
• The RHUMI-1 mission is a significant step in promoting cost-effective and sustainable space exploration, showcasing India's growing capabilities in the space sector.
• The rocket development under Anand Megalingam's leadership emphasizes innovative hybrid propulsion systems, which combine liquid and solid propellants for enhanced reusability and efficiency.
• Anand Megalingam and Space Zone India aim to inspire and involve students and young professionals in space research through initiatives like reusable rocket technology, aligning with India's ambitious space goals.

Additional Information

• K Radhakrishnan
• K Radhakrishnan is an eminent Indian space scientist and a former Chairman of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
• Under his leadership, ISRO achieved the successful launch of the Mangalyaan (Mars Orbiter Mission) in 2013, making India the first nation to succeed in its maiden Mars mission.
• He played a crucial role in the development of the Indian satellite and launch vehicle programs.
• Madhavan Nair
• Madhavan Nair is a renowned Indian aerospace engineer and a former Chairman of ISRO.
• He is credited with overseeing the successful launch of Chandrayaan-1, India's first lunar probe, in 2008.
• His tenure saw the expansion of India's satellite communication and remote sensing capabilities.
• S Somanath
• S Somanath is the current Chairman of ISRO, having assumed the position in January 2022.
• He is a specialist in launch vehicle engineering and has been instrumental in the development of the GSLV Mk III, India's heavy-lift launch vehicle.
• Under his leadership, ISRO has continued its focus on advanced space exploration missions, including the Chandrayaan-3 lunar mission and the Aditya-L1 solar mission.

The correct answer is Indus.

Key Points

• The river Indus is known as 'Singi Khamban' in Tibet, which translates to 'Lion's Mouth.'
• The Indus originates from the glaciers near Bokhar Chu in the Tibetan region of the Kailash mountain range.
• It is one of the longest rivers in the world, flowing through Tibet, India, and Pakistan, covering a length of approximately 3,180 km.
• The river holds immense historical and cultural significance, as it gave its name to the Indian civilization and the country itself.
• In Tibet, the Indus is revered as a sacred river, contributing to its identification as 'Singi Khamban.'

Additional Information

• Damodar River
• The Damodar River flows through the Indian states of Jharkhand and West Bengal.
• It is often referred to as the 'Sorrow of Bengal' due to its history of causing floods in the region.
• The river is a tributary of the Hugli River and is known for its rich coal deposits, particularly in the Damodar Valley region.
• It plays a significant role in the industrial development of Jharkhand and West Bengal.
• Ramganga River
• The Ramganga is a tributary of the Ganges River, originating in the Kumaon Himalayas in Uttarakhand.
• It flows through the Jim Corbett National Park, making it an important river for wildlife conservation.
• The river joins the Ganges near Kannauj in Uttar Pradesh.
• It supports irrigation and agriculture in the regions it flows through.
• Sarayu River
• The Sarayu is a tributary of the Ganges and is considered sacred in Hinduism.
• It flows through the Indian states of Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh.
• According to Hindu mythology, the Sarayu is associated with the city of Ayodhya, the birthplace of Lord Rama.
• The river is mentioned in several ancient Hindu texts, including the Ramayana.

The correct answer is 1952.

Key Points

• The first Lok Sabha of India was constituted in 1952 after the country's first-ever general elections were held between October 1951 and February 1952.
• It marked the beginning of parliamentary democracy in India, with Jawaharlal Nehru serving as the first Prime Minister.
• The Speaker of the first Lok Sabha was G.V. Mavalankar, who played a significant role in shaping India's parliamentary procedures.
• The first Lok Sabha consisted of 489 members, representing constituencies across India.
• The first general elections were conducted under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, which laid the foundation for India's electoral process.

Additional Information

• 1958:
• In 1958, India witnessed significant progress in industrialization, but this year is not related to the formation of the Lok Sabha.
• The year 1958 marked the initiation of the Atomic Energy Establishment Trombay (AEET), which would later become the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC).
• 1961:
• 1961 is known for the liberation of Goa from Portuguese rule, making it a part of India.
• This year has no connection with the establishment of the Lok Sabha.
• 1955:
• In 1955, the Indian Parliament adopted the resolution for creating the Industrial Policy Resolution, emphasizing the importance of public sector enterprises.
• However, the year 1955 is unrelated to the formation of the Lok Sabha.
• Main Theme:
• The Lok Sabha is the lower house of India's bicameral parliament, and its members are elected directly by the people.
• It is responsible for passing laws, debating national issues, and holding the executive accountable.
• The Lok Sabha plays a crucial role in India's governance system, ensuring representation and the functioning of democracy.

The correct answer is Vijaya Bharathi Sayani.

Key Points

• Vijaya Bharathi Sayani was appointed as the acting chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) in June 2024.
• The NHRC is responsible for protecting and promoting human rights and ensuring their enforcement in India.
• Vijaya Bharathi Sayani succeeded the previous chairperson to ensure continuity in the organization’s operations and oversight.
• Her appointment is in line with the provisions of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, which governs the NHRC.
• The chairperson of NHRC is usually a retired Chief Justice of India or a judge of the Supreme Court, as stipulated by the Act.

Additional Information

• Anupama Rao
• While Anupama Rao is not associated with the NHRC, she is a notable scholar and historian who has worked extensively on caste, gender, and social inequalities in India.
• Her contributions are primarily academic and not related to the administrative or legal framework of the NHRC.
• Rajesh Kumar
• Rajesh Kumar is a common name and does not pertain to a notable figure associated with the NHRC or its leadership in 2024.
• In general, the NHRC chairperson is chosen from among prominent legal or judicial figures, following the guidelines of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
• Ajay Singh
• Ajay Singh is also not associated with the NHRC or its leadership in 2024.
• The selection process for the NHRC chairperson involves consultation with the President of India, the Prime Minister, and other key members of the government, usually focusing on candidates with judicial or human rights expertise.
• About the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)
• The NHRC of India was established on 12 October 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
• Its primary role is to investigate complaints of human rights violations and recommend corrective measures to the government.
• The commission is composed of a chairperson, members from the judiciary, human rights experts, and ex-officio members from various government bodies.
• The NHRC also undertakes research, advocacy, and awareness programs to promote human rights in the country.

The correct answer is parasitic.

Key Points

• Cuscuta, also known as Amarbel, is a parasitic plant that derives its nutrition from a host plant.
• It does not perform photosynthesis as it lacks chlorophyll and depends entirely on the host plant for food and water.
• Cuscuta attaches itself to the host plant using specialized structures called haustoria, which penetrate the host's vascular tissues.
• The haustoria enable Cuscuta to extract nutrients and water from the host plant, leading to the weakening of the host.
• Parasitic plants like Cuscuta can have significant negative effects on the growth and survival of the host plant.

Additional Information

• Autotrophic:
• Autotrophic organisms produce their own food using sunlight, carbon dioxide, and water through the process of photosynthesis.
• Examples include green plants, algae, and some bacteria.
• These organisms have chlorophyll, a pigment that captures sunlight for energy.
• Saprotrophic:
• Saprotrophic nutrition involves obtaining nutrients by breaking down dead or decaying organic matter.
• Fungi and some bacteria exhibit saprotrophic nutrition.
• These organisms release enzymes to decompose organic material and absorb the nutrients.
• Symbiotic:
• Symbiosis refers to a mutually beneficial relationship between two organisms.
• In this type of nutrition, both organisms benefit from each other.
• Examples include lichens (a partnership between fungi and algae) and mycorrhizae (a relationship between fungi and plant roots).

The correct answer is 40,000 years to 11,000 years BP.

Key Points

• The Upper Palaeolithic period in India roughly spans from 40,000 years BP (Before Present) to 11,000 years BP.
• Archaeological findings from Upper Palaeolithic sites in states like Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, and Rajasthan confirm this time range.
• Evidence from these sites includes stone tools, particularly blades, burins, scrapers, and microliths, which were characteristic of this period.
• During the Upper Palaeolithic period, early humans experienced an advancement in tool-making technology, transitioning to more refined and efficient tools.
• This period also coincides with significant climatic changes, including the last Ice Age, which influenced human habitation patterns and resource utilization.

Additional Information

• Option 1: 60,000 years to 11,000 years BP
• This timeframe is inaccurate for the Upper Palaeolithic period in India.
• 60,000 years BP corresponds to the Middle Palaeolithic period, characterized by flakes and tools made using the Levallois technique.
• The Middle Palaeolithic period predates the Upper Palaeolithic and exhibits less technological refinement compared to the latter.
• Option 2: 50,000 years to 11,000 years BP
• Although closer to the correct range, 50,000 years BP is still considered part of the Middle Palaeolithic in India.
• It was during this period that humans began showing advancements in tool-making, but significant progress and microlithic tools emerged later in the Upper Palaeolithic period.
• Option 4: 70,000 years to 11,000 years BP
• 70,000 years BP corresponds to the Lower and Middle Palaeolithic periods.
• The Lower Palaeolithic period was dominated by tools like hand axes and cleavers.
• These earlier periods lack the refined stone tools and cultural advancements characteristic of the Upper Palaeolithic period.
• Main Theme: Upper Palaeolithic Period in India
• The Upper Palaeolithic period marks a significant phase in human history, showcasing advanced tool-making techniques and adaptation to changing environments.
• Human settlements during this period were primarily located near rivers and other water sources, ensuring access to resources.
• Artistic expression, including the creation of cave paintings, also emerged during the Upper Palaeolithic period, providing insights into early human culture.

The correct answer is 108

Given:

⇒ We need the average of first 11 multiples of 18

Concept Used:

⇒ Average of equally spaced numbers = (First term + Last term) ÷ 2

Calculation:

⇒ First multiple = 18 × 1 = 18

⇒ 11^th multiple = 18 × 11 = 198

⇒ Average = (18 + 198) ÷ 2

⇒ Average = 216 ÷ 2

⇒ Average = 108

Final Answer:

⇒ Average of first 11 multiples of 18 = 108

Given:

Rent = 50% of monthly salary

Transport expenses = ₹591

Grocery expenses = ₹8,835

Savings = ₹274

Formula Used:

Total monthly salary = Rent + Transport expenses + Grocery expenses + Savings

Rent = 50% of monthly salary = 0.5 × Monthly salary

Calculation:

Let monthly salary = ₹x

⇒ Rent = 0.5 × x

⇒ Total monthly salary = Rent + Transport expenses + Grocery expenses + Savings

⇒ x = (0.5 × x) + ₹591 + ₹8,835 + ₹274

⇒ x - 0.5x = ₹591 + ₹8,835 + ₹274

⇒ 0.5x = ₹9,700

⇒ x = ₹9,700 / 0.5

⇒ x = ₹19,400

∴ The correct answer is ₹19,400.

Given:

Percentage of men = 20%

Percentage of women = 40%

Percentage of children = 100% - (20% + 40%) = 40%

Average weight of men = 45 kg

Average weight of women = 60 kg

Average weight of children = 20 kg

Formula Used:

Weighted average formula: (Sum of weights of groups × respective percentage) / 100

Calculation:

⇒ Weighted average = [(45 × 20) + (60 × 40) + (20 × 40)] / 100

⇒ Weighted average = (900 + 2400 + 800) / 100

⇒ Weighted average = 4100 / 100

⇒ Weighted average = 41

∴ The correct answer is 41.

Given:

Marked Price = ₹12,175

Selling Price = ₹11,201

Discount Percentage = d%

Formula Used:

Discount = Marked Price − Selling Price

Discount Percentage (d%) = (Discount / Marked Price) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Discount = ₹12,175 − ₹11,201

⇒ Discount = ₹974

⇒ d% = (₹974 / ₹12,175) × 100

⇒ d% = 8%

∴ The correct answer is 8.

Given:

Speed for the first one-third of the journey = 12 km/hr

Speed for the second one-third of the journey = 59 km/hr

Speed for the last one-third of the journey = 61 km/hr

Formula Used:

Average Speed = Total Distance / Total Time

Total Time = Distance₁ / Speed₁ + Distance₂ / Speed₂ + Distance₃ / Speed₃

Calculation:

Let the total distance = D km

⇒ Distance covered in each part = D / 3

Time for the first part = (D / 3) / 12 = D / (3 × 12) = D / 36

Time for the second part = (D / 3) / 59 = D / (3 × 59) = D / 177

Time for the third part = (D / 3) / 61 = D / (3 × 61) = D / 183

Total Time = D / 36 + D / 177 + D / 183

⇒ Total Time = (177 × 183 × D + 36 × 183 × D + 36 × 177 × D) / (36 × 177 × 183)

⇒ Total Time = D × (32451 + 6588 + 6372) / 1163268

⇒ Total Time = D × 45411 / 1163268

Average Speed = Total Distance / Total Time

⇒ Average Speed = D / (D × 45411 / 1163268)

⇒ Average Speed = 1163268 / 45411

⇒ Average Speed ≈ 25.6 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 25.7.

Given:

A can complete the work in 16 days.

B can complete the work in 48 days.

They worked together for 3 days.

Formula Used:

Total work = LCM(A's time, B's time).

Work done by A and B together in one day = (1/A's time) + (1/B's time).

Remaining work = Total work - Work done together in 3 days.

Time taken by A to complete remaining work = Remaining work / A's efficiency.

Calculation:

⇒ Total work = LCM(16, 48) = 48 units.

⇒ Work done by A and B together in one day = (1/16) + (1/48) = (3 + 1)/48 = 4/48 = 1/12.

⇒ Work done in 3 days = 3 × (1/12) = 3/12 = 1/4.

⇒ Remaining work = Total work - Work done together = 48 × (1 - 1/4) = 48 × (3/4) = 36 units.

⇒ A's efficiency = Total work / A's time = 48 / 16 = 3 units/day.

⇒ Time taken by A to complete remaining work = Remaining work / A's efficiency = 36 / 3 = 12 days.

∴ The correct answer is 12.

Given:

Width of the canvas = 4/7 m

Options: 1) 3467, 2) 3407, 3) 3432, 4) 3372

Formula Used:

Curved surface area of a cone = π × radius × slant height

Area of canvas required = Curved surface area / Width

Calculation:

⇒ Curved surface area = π × radius × slant height

⇒ Total canvas length = Curved surface area / Width

∴ The correct answer is [final answer].

Given:

P and Q together can fill the cistern in 3 hours.

P alone can fill the cistern in 6 hours.

Formula Used:

Efficiency of work = Total work / Time taken

Total work = LCM of individual times

Calculation:

⇒ Total work = LCM of 3 and 6 = 6 units

⇒ Efficiency of P = Total work / Time taken by P = 6 / 6 = 1 unit/hour

⇒ Efficiency of P and Q together = Total work / Time taken by P and Q = 6 / 3 = 2 units/hour

⇒ Efficiency of Q = Efficiency of P and Q together − Efficiency of P = 2 − 1 = 1 unit/hour

⇒ Time taken by Q alone = Total work / Efficiency of Q = 6 / 1 = 6 hours

∴ The correct answer is 6.

Given:

Cost price = 100 (assuming 100 for simplicity)

Mark-up = 44% of cost price

Discount = 10% on marked price

Formula Used:

Marked Price = Cost Price × (1 + Mark-up%)

Selling Price = Marked Price × (1 - Discount%)

Profit% = [(Selling Price - Cost Price) / Cost Price] × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Marked Price = 100 × (1 + 44/100)

⇒ Marked Price = 100 × 1.44 = 144

⇒ Selling Price = 144 × (1 - 10/100)

⇒ Selling Price = 144 × 0.90 = 129.6

⇒ Profit% = [(129.6 - 100) / 100] × 100

⇒ Profit% = [29.6 / 100] × 100

⇒ Profit% = 29.6

∴ The correct answer is 29.6.

Given:

Product of two numbers = 368

LCM = 92

Formula Used:

HCF × LCM = Product of numbers

Calculation:

⇒ HCF × 92 = 368

⇒ HCF = 368 / 92

⇒ HCF = 4

∴ The correct answer is 4.

Given:

Speed for the first one-third of the journey = 91 km/hr

Speed for the second one-third of the journey = 49 km/hr

Speed for the final one-third of the journey = 19 km/hr

Formula Used:

Average speed = Total distance / Total time

Total time = (Distance₁ / Speed₁) + (Distance₂ / Speed₂) + (Distance₃ / Speed₃)

Calculation:

Let the total distance = D

Distance for each part = D / 3

Time for first part = (D / 3) / 91 = D / (3 × 91) = D / 273

Time for second part = (D / 3) / 49 = D / (3 × 49) = D / 147

Time for third part = (D / 3) / 19 = D / (3 × 19) = D / 57

Total time = D / 273 + D / 147 + D / 57

Finding LCM of 273, 147, and 57 = 7641

Total time = (28D + 52D + 134D) / 7641 = 214D / 7641

Average speed = Total distance / Total time = D / (214D / 7641)

⇒ Average speed = 7641 / 214 = 35.7 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 35.7.

Given:

Selling price (SP) = ₹16,920

Loss = 6%

Desired gain = 5%

Formula Used:

Cost price (CP) = SP × 100 / (100 - Loss%)

New SP for desired gain = CP × (100 + Gain%) / 100

Calculation:

⇒ CP = ₹16,920 × 100 / (100 - 6)

⇒ CP = ₹16,920 × 100 / 94

⇒ CP = ₹18,000

⇒ New SP = ₹18,000 × (100 + 5) / 100

⇒ New SP = ₹18,000 × 105 / 100

⇒ New SP = ₹18,900

∴ The correct answer is ₹18,900.

The correct answer is ₹2,44,000

Given:

⇒ A invested = ₹3,66,000

⇒ A invested for 12 months

⇒ B joined after 3 months

⇒ So, B invested for 9 months

⇒ Profit ratio = 6 : 3

Concept Used:

⇒ Profit ratio = Capital × Time

Calculation:

⇒ Simplify profit ratio

⇒ 6 : 3 = 2 : 1

⇒ A’s investment × time : B’s investment × time

⇒ 3,66,000 × 12 : B × 9 = 2 : 1

⇒ (3,66,000 × 12) / (B × 9) = 2 / 1

⇒ 3,66,000 × 12 = 18B

⇒ 43,92,000 = 18B

⇒ B = 43,92,000 ÷ 18

⇒ B = ₹2,44,000

Final Answer:

⇒ B invested = ₹2,44,000

Given:

Simple Interest (SI) = ₹725

Time (T) = 2 years

Rate of Interest (R) = 5% per annum

Formula Used:

SI = (P × R × T) / 100

P = (SI × 100) / (R × T)

Calculation:

⇒ P = (725 × 100) / (5 × 2)

⇒ P = 72500 / 10

⇒ P = ₹7250

∴ The correct answer is ₹7250.

Given:

Monthly salary = ₹4,690

Savings = 20% of salary

Formula Used:

Savings = (Savings percentage × Salary) / 100

Expenditure = Salary - Savings

Calculation:

⇒ Savings = (20 × 4,690) / 100

⇒ Savings = ₹938

⇒ Expenditure = 4,690 - 938

⇒ Expenditure = ₹3,752

∴ The correct answer is 3,752.

Given Data from Bar Graph:

Branches D, E and F(in thousands):

⇒ D (2021) = 85

⇒ D (2022) = 95

⇒ Total of D = 85 + 95 = 180

⇒ E (2021) = 75

⇒ E (2022) = 95

⇒ Total of E = 75 + 95 = 170

⇒ F (2021) = 80

⇒ F (2022) = 90

⇒ Total of F = 80 + 90 = 170

⇒ Total sales of D, E and F

⇒ = 180 + 170 + 170

⇒ = 520

Branches A, B and C(in thousands):

⇒ A (2021) = 80

⇒ A (2022) = 105

⇒ Total of A = 80 + 105 = 185

⇒ B (2021) = 75

⇒ B (2022) = 65

⇒ Total of B = 75 + 65 = 140

⇒ C (2021) = 95

⇒ C (2022) = 110

⇒ Total of C = 95 + 110 = 205

⇒ Total sales of A, B and C

⇒ = 185 + 140 + 205

⇒ = 530

Required Ratio:

⇒ 520 : 530

⇒ Divide both sides by 10

⇒ 52 : 53

Final Answer:

⇒ Required ratio = 52 : 53

Given:

Side of equilateral triangle = 90 cm

Formula Used:

Area of equilateral triangle = (√3 / 4) × side²

Calculation:

⇒ Area = (√3 / 4) × 90²

⇒ Area = (√3 / 4) × 8100

⇒ Area = 2025√3 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 2025√3.

Given:

Distance on map = 4 cm

Scale of map = 1:366382

Formula Used:

Actual distance = (Distance on map × Scale) / 100000

Calculation:

⇒ Actual distance = (4 × 366382) / 100000

⇒ Actual distance = 1465528 / 100000

⇒ Actual distance = 14.66 km

∴ The correct answer is 14.66.

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹41,000

Rate of interest (R) = 20% p.a.

Time (T) = 1 year

Compounding = Half-yearly

Formula Used:

Compound Interest (CI) Formula: A = P × (1 + R/n)^nT

Where A = Amount, P = Principal, R = Rate of interest, n = Number of times interest is compounded per year, T = Time in years.

Calculation:

Here, R = 20% p.a., so R/n = 20/2 = 10% = 0.10

n = 2 (compounded half-yearly), T = 1 year

⇒ A = 41,000 × (1 + 0.10)²

⇒ A = 41,000 × (1.10)²

⇒ A = 41,000 × 1.21

⇒ A = ₹49,610

∴ The correct answer is ₹49,610.

The correct answer is: A + B = 7

Given:

⇒ Number = 5B013A

⇒ The number is divisible by 11

Concept Used:

⇒ Divisibility rule of 11:

⇒ Difference between sum of digits at odd places and sum of digits at even places must be 0 or a multiple of 11

Calculation:

⇒ Digits at odd places: 5, 0, 3

⇒ Sum = 5 + 0 + 3 = 8

⇒ Digits at even places: B, 1, A

⇒ Sum = B + 1 + A

⇒ Condition for divisibility:

⇒ 8 − (B + 1 + A) = 0

⇒ 8 − B − 1 − A = 0

⇒ 7 − A − B = 0

⇒ A + B = 7

Final Answer:

⇒ Possible relation between A and B is: A + B = 7

The correct answer is 'should they'.

 

Key Points

• The sentence is a negative statement ("Jamie hasn't apologised"), so the question tag must be positive.
• The subject of the sentence is "they," so the correct auxiliary verb for the tag is "should."
• Options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect because they either use the wrong auxiliary verb or do not match the subject appropriately.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: "As Jamie hasn't apologised, they should not forgive him, should they?"

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "hasn't they" is incorrect because the auxiliary verb "hasn't" does not correspond with the subject "they."
• Option 2: "has they" is incorrect because the auxiliary verb "has" does not align with the subject "they" and the negative tone of the sentence.
• Option 4: "shouldn't they" is incorrect because the tag must be positive to match the negative statement.

The correct answer is: Option 4 (Soaked).

Key Points

• The word "Parched" refers to something that is extremely dry, often due to a lack of water or moisture. (सूखा)
• Example: After hours under the scorching sun, his throat was parched, and he desperately needed water.
• "Soaked" refers to something that is completely wet or saturated with water or other liquid. (भीगा हुआ)
• Example: The heavy rain soaked her clothes completely within minutes.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'Parched' is 'Soaked'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4 (Soaked).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Scalded (झुलसा हुआ): Burned with hot liquid or steam.
• Example: He scalded his hand while pouring boiling water.
• Sick (बीमार): Feeling ill or unwell.
• Example: She felt sick after eating spoiled food.
• Sorted (सुलझाया हुआ): Arranged or organized in order.
• Example: The files were neatly sorted into folders.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'fallascious'.

• The correct spelling would be 'fallacious'.
• The word 'fallacious' is an adjective that means 'based on a mistaken belief'. (भ्रामक)
• For Example -
• The lawyer presented a convincing but fallacious argument in court.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'fallacious'.

Additional Information

Explanation of other options:

• Option 1: fallasious - Incorrect spelling.
• Option 2: fallashcious - Incorrect spelling.
• Option 3: fallacious - Correct spelling.
• Option 4: fallescious - Incorrect spelling.

The correct answer is: Leverage.

Key Points

• The word "Leverage" refers to the use of borrowed capital or credit to increase one's capacity for speculative investments. (संदिग्ध निवेशों को बढ़ाने के लिए क्रेडिट का उपयोग)
• Example: The company used financial leverage to expand its operations and maximize its profitability.
• Leverage, in a broader sense, also means using something to maximum advantage. (अधिकतम लाभ के लिए किसी चीज़ का उपयोग करना)

Therefore, the correct answer is: Leverage.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Sabotage (तोड़फोड़): The act of deliberately destroying or damaging something, especially for political or military advantage.
• Example: The workers accused the management of sabotage to prevent the union from forming.
• Sacrilege (अपवित्रता): Violation or misuse of what is regarded as sacred.
• Example: The destruction of the ancient temple was considered an act of sacrilege.
• Scourge (कोड़ा): A person or thing that causes great trouble or suffering.
• Example: Poverty remains the scourge of many developing nations.

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. "to get to the bottom of it".

Key Points

• The idiom "to get to the bottom of it" means to discover the real but sometimes hidden reason or explanation for something. (मूल कारण तक पहुंचना)
• Example: The detective worked tirelessly to get to the bottom of the mystery.
• The context of the sentence talks about investigating an intricate issue, which aligns perfectly with the meaning of the idiom "to get to the bottom of it".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Taking to my heels (पलायन करना): To run away from a dangerous or unpleasant situation quickly.
• Example: When he saw the dog chasing him, he took to his heels and ran away.
• To wear the trousers (अधिकार रखना): To be the person in a relationship or situation who is in control or makes decisions.
• Example: In their family, it's obvious that she wears the trousers.
• To rule the roost (राज करना): To be the person who has the most authority or control in a particular situation.
• Example: He likes to rule the roost in the office and make all the decisions.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• The paragraph discusses the construction of a separation wall in Israel's West Bank, highlighting its implications and context.
• Sentence Q comes first because it explains the purpose of the wall and sets the stage for further elaboration:
• "This wall does not simply divide Israel from a putative Palestinian state on the basis of the 1967 borders."
• Sentence S follows as it elaborates on the wall’s expansion beyond the 1967 borders:
• "It actually takes in new tracts of Palestinian land, sometimes five or six kilometres at a stretch."
• Sentence R is next as it describes the physical structure of the wall:
• "It is surrounded by trenches, electric wires and moats; there are watchtowers at regular intervals."
• Sentence P concludes the paragraph by comparing the wall to apartheid and criticizing the lack of opposition:
• "Almost a decade after the end of South Africa's apartheid, this ghastly racist wall is going up with scarcely a peep from Israel's American allies, who are going to pay for most of it."
• The correct sequence is QSRP.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"This wall does not simply divide Israel from a putative Palestinian state on the basis of the 1967 borders. It actually takes in new tracts of Palestinian land, sometimes five or six kilometres at a stretch. It is surrounded by trenches, electric wires and moats; there are watchtowers at regular intervals. Almost a decade after the end of South Africa's apartheid, this ghastly racist wall is going up with scarcely a peep from Israel's American allies, who are going to pay for most of it."

The correct answer is 'on'.

 

Key Points

• The preposition "on" is used to indicate specific days or dates.
• In this sentence, the meeting is scheduled for a specific day ("Monday morning"), so "on" is the correct choice.
• Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect because they do not appropriately fit the context of specifying a particular day.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "The meeting has been scheduled on Monday morning."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "for" is incorrect because "for" does not specify the day in this context.
• Option 3: "at" is incorrect; "at" is used for specific times or locations, not days.
• Option 4: "in" is incorrect because "in" is used for periods or general time frames, not specific days.

The correct answer is: Option 3 (Compliant).

Key Points

• The word "Compliant" means adhering to rules, standards, or requirements. It indicates an action or entity that conforms to established guidelines. (अनुपालन)
• Example: The company ensured that all its products were compliant with international safety standards.
• In the given statement, "conforming to requirements set by the review committee" suggests that the final submission adhered to the specified standards, hence "compliant" is the correct choice.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 (Compliant).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Recessive (मंदगामी): Tending to recede or diminish, often used in genetics to refer to traits that are masked by dominant traits.
• Example: The recessive gene for blue eyes was passed down through generations.
• Dormant (सुप्त): Inactive or in a state of rest, often temporarily.
• Example: The volcano had been dormant for centuries before its recent eruption.
• Impeded (बाधित): Obstructed or delayed progress.
• Example: Traffic was impeded by the ongoing construction work on the highway.

The correct answer is 'doesn't he'.

 

Key Points

• The given sentence is a positive statement, and the question tag should be in a negative form.
• The correct auxiliary verb for the sentence is "does," as the subject is third-person singular (he).
• The contraction "doesn't he" is appropriate for forming the question tag.
• Options 1, 2, and 4 are grammatically incorrect in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: "He enjoys reading historical novels, doesn't he?"

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "haven't he" is incorrect because "haven't" is not the correct auxiliary for the subject "he."
• Option 2: "didn't he" is incorrect because the main verb "enjoys" is in the present tense, not the past.
• Option 4: "isn't he" is incorrect because "isn't" does not match the auxiliary verb required for the sentence.

The correct answer is 'pricey'.

 

Key Points

• The adjective "pricey" means expensive, which fits the context of the sentence.
• The sentence implies that Prafulla bought the outfit because it was on sale, which suggests the original price was high or "pricey."
• Options 1, 2, and 4 are irrelevant to the context of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: "Since the pricey outfit was on sale, Prafulla bought it without uncertainty."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "messy" does not fit the context, as it refers to disorder or untidiness.
• Option 2: "fragile" is irrelevant here, as it describes something delicate or easily broken.
• Option 4: "placid" refers to calmness and is unrelated to the context of the outfit being on sale.

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. "Do not worry or think about problems till you face them."

Key Points

• The proverb "Don't cross a bridge till you come to it" means that one should not worry or stress about problems or difficulties until they actually arise. (समस्या का सामना करने से पहले उसकी चिंता नहीं करनी चाहिए।)
• Example: She was worrying about how she would manage her new responsibilities, but her friend reminded her, "Don't cross a bridge till you come to it."
• Here, the correct understanding is to focus on the present and not let hypothetical worries burden you. (सही अर्थ यह है कि वर्तमान पर ध्यान केंद्रित करें और काल्पनिक चिंताओं को आप पर हावी न होने दें।)

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: "While travelling on a highway, be watchful of the traffic." (राजमार्ग पर यात्रा करते समय, यातायात पर ध्यान दें।)
• Example: It is always important to stay alert while driving on a busy highway.
• Option 3: "Go over a bridge slowly and steadily till you cross it." (एक पुल को धीरे-धीरे और लगातार पार करें।)
• Example: When crossing a narrow bridge, it is advisable to drive slowly and carefully.
• Option 4: "People’s deeds determine their success or failure." (लोगों के कार्य उनकी सफलता या विफलता निर्धारित करते हैं।)
• Example: Hard work and determination often dictate whether one succeeds or fails in life.

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. alleviate.

Key Points

• The word "exacerbate" means to make a bad situation, feeling, or problem worse. (बिगाड़ना)
• Example: His rude comments only exacerbated the tension between them.
• The word "alleviate" means to reduce, ease, or make a problem, suffering, or difficulty less severe. (कम करना)
• Example: She took medicine to alleviate her headache.
• Since the context of the statement suggests a hope to reduce the misunderstanding, the antonym of "exacerbate" (to make worse) is "alleviate" (to make better).

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. alleviate.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Aggravate (बिगाड़ना): To make a bad situation, problem, or feeling worse.
• Example: Her constant complaints only served to aggravate the problem.
• Intensify (तीव्र करना ): To make something stronger, more extreme, or more intense.
• Example: The storm is expected to intensify overnight.
• Magnify (बढ़ा-चढ़ाकर दिखाना): To make something appear larger than it is, often by exaggerating its importance.
• Example: The media tends to magnify minor issues to gain attention.

The correct answer is 'swiftly'.

 

Key Points

• The adverb "swiftly" means "quickly" or "promptly," which fits the context of the sentence.
• Hemant needed to finish his work quickly because he had an important meeting, making "swiftly" the most appropriate choice.
• Option 1: "leisurely" is incorrect as it implies working in a slow and relaxed manner.
• Option 2: "sluggishly" is incorrect because it means working in a slow and lazy manner.
• Option 3: "indolently" is incorrect as it denotes laziness or lack of effort.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Complete Sentence: "Hemant finished his work swiftly because he had an important meeting."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "leisurely" is incorrect because it contradicts the urgency implied by the sentence.
• Option 2: "sluggishly" is incorrect as it implies working in a slow and unmotivated way.
• Option 3: "indolently" is incorrect due to its meaning of laziness, which does not fit the context.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'sadle-bags'.

• The correct spelling would be 'saddle-bags'.
• The word 'saddle-bags' refers to bags that are hung over a saddle or bike, typically used for carrying items. (काठी बैग)
• For Example -
• He packed all his belongings into the saddle-bags before heading out on the journey.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'sadle-bags'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of other key words from the paragraph - 

• Odour - a distinctive smell, especially an unpleasant one (गंध)
• Perfume - a pleasant smell, often produced by flowers or manufactured as a liquid (सुगंध)
• Fantastic - imaginative or fanciful, especially in a way that is unrealistic (अलौकिक)

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• The paragraph discusses the fate of synthetic chewing gum after it is discarded, explaining its persistence and environmental impact.
• Sentence C is the first sentence as it introduces the common experience of encountering discarded gum:
• "Most people have experienced discarded gum under bench seats, school desks and on street pavements."
• Sentence D follows because it invites the reader to consider what happens after gum is spat out, building on the first sentence:
• "If the idea of chewing plastic isn’t disturbing enough, consider what happens after you spit it out."
• Sentence B is third as it explains the persistence of synthetic gum in the environment:
• "But, like other plastics, synthetic chewing gum does not biodegrade and can persist in the environment for many years."
• Sentence A is last as it details the slow breakdown process and the formation of microplastics:
• "In the environment, it will harden, crack and breakdown into microplastics, but this can take decades."
• The correct sequence is CDBA.

 

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"Most people have experienced discarded gum under bench seats, school desks and on street pavements. If the idea of chewing plastic isn’t disturbing enough, consider what happens after you spit it out. But, like other plastics, synthetic chewing gum does not biodegrade and can persist in the environment for many years. In the environment, it will harden, crack and breakdown into microplastics, but this can take decades."

The correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Key Points

• The passage presents factual information about the discovery of Heinrich events and their significance in paleoclimatology.
• It explains the scientific process and findings in a clear, objective, and educational manner, without humor, criticism, or alarm.
• Option 1: Humorous
• Incorrect, there is no attempt at humor or lightness in the passage.
• Option 2: Alarmist
• Incorrect, the passage does not exaggerate risks or induce fear.
• Option 3: Critical
• Incorrect, the passage does not critique or judge; it describes and informs.

Therefore, the tone of the passage is informative.

The correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Key Points

• The passage focuses on how Hartmut Heinrich discovered layers in sediment cores that provided evidence of sudden climate events, now known as Heinrich events.
• It highlights the significance of these events in understanding rapid changes in ocean circulation and global climate.
• Option 1: The impact of wind and ocean currents on sediment transport
• Incorrect, as the passage emphasizes iceberg transport over wind and currents.
• Option 3: The process of sediment core extraction
• Incorrect, the extraction process is only briefly mentioned as context.
• Option 4: The dangers of nuclear waste in the ocean
• Incorrect, nuclear waste is mentioned only as the initial research context, not as the theme.

Therefore, the main theme of the passage is the discovery and significance of Heinrich events.

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Key Points

• The passage states that the large sediment grains were too big to have been carried by wind or ocean currents alone.
• Hartmut Heinrich realized they must have been transported by icebergs, which carried the debris from land as they broke off from glaciers.
• Option 2: By ocean currents alone
• Incorrect, the grains were too large for currents to transport alone.
• Option 3: By underwater volcanic eruptions
• Incorrect, there is no mention of volcanic activity causing the transport.
• Option 4: By wind alone
• Incorrect, the grains were too large for wind transport alone.

Therefore, the large sediment grains were likely transported to the middle of the ocean by icebergs.

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Key Points

• In the passage, 'sediment cores' refer to columns of sediment extracted from the ocean floor that contain historical records of everything that accumulated in that location over hundreds of thousands of years.
• These cores allow scientists to study past environmental and climatic conditions.
• Option 1: Samples of nuclear waste
• Incorrect, sediment cores are not nuclear waste samples.
• Option 2: Oceanic current measurements
• Incorrect, sediment cores are physical samples, not current measurements.
• Option 4: Layers of ancient fossils
• Incorrect, while fossils may be present, the term refers to the entire column of accumulated sediment.

Therefore, 'sediment cores' refer to columns of sediment taken from the ocean floor containing historical records.

The correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Key Points

• The passage states that the layers with the most rock and mineral debris—Heinrich events—coincided with severe weakening of the Atlantic current system.
• This suggests a close relationship between Heinrich events and a decline in the strength of Atlantic currents.
• Option 1: Heinrich events strengthened the Atlantic current system.
• Incorrect, the passage describes the opposite effect.
• Option 2: Heinrich events had no impact on the Atlantic current system.
• Incorrect, the events are linked to changes in the current system.
• Option 3: Heinrich events occurred during times of strong Atlantic currents.
• Incorrect, they occurred during periods of weakened currents.

Therefore, it can be inferred that Heinrich events coincided with severe weakening of the Atlantic current system.

इसका सही उत्तर -अभ्यागत 

Key Points

 सही विकल्प - अतिथि का पर्यायवाची शब्द होगा अभ्यागत अतिथि के अन्य पर्यायवाची शब्द -  मेहमान , पाहुन, आगंतुक, अभ्यागत, आगत और गृहागत  

Additional Information पर्यायवाची शब्द वे शब्द हैं जिनका अर्थ समान या मिलता-जुलता है|पानी:  जल, वारि, नीर, सलिल

आकाश:  गगन, नभ, व्योम, अंबर

आग:  अग्नि, अनल, पावक, वह्नि

घर:   गृह, सदन, आवास, आलय

पक्षी:  खग, विहंग, पंछी, नभचर

सूरज:  रवि, सूर्य, दिनकर, भास्कर

चाँद: चंद्रमा, शशि, राकेश, मयंक

हवा:  वायु, पवन, समीर, अनिल

पेड़: वृक्ष, तरु, पादप, शाखी

गंगा: भागीरथी, सुरसरि, देवनदी, जाह्नवी

हाथी: गज, हस्ती, मतंग, कुंजर

घोड़ा: अश्व, हय, तुरंग, घोटक

आँख: नेत्र, नयन, लोचन, चक्षु

इसका सही उत्तर - अनायास कोई बड़ा लाभ मिलना |

Key Pointsसही उत्तर -अंधे केहाथ बटेर लगना,मुहावरे  का अर्थ है,अनायास कोई बड़ा लाभ मिलना अन्य विकल्प गलत है |

मुहावरा ऐसे वाक्यांश होते हैं जो सामान्य अर्थ न देकर एक विशेष, लाक्षणिक या सांकेतिक अर्थ प्रकट करते हैं। 

Additional Information अन्य उदाहरण

इसका सही उत्तर -मुझे फल पसंद हैं ,सब्जियाँ नही |

Key Points अन्य विकल्प गलत हैं

क्युकि अन्य वाक्य में वाक्य क्रम सम्बन्धी अशुद्धियां हैं |

वाक्य का सही रूप होता है कर्ता कर्म क्रिया क्रम से आयें 

Additional Information अन्य उदाहरण 

इसका सही उत्तर - वाचाल है।

Key Points

• जो बहुत बोलता हो उसे वाचाल कहते हैं।
• वाचाल का विलोम मूक होगा।
• वाचाल का अर्थ बहुत बोलना होता है, मूक का अर्थ जो बोल न सके।
• अन्य विकल्प

Additional Informationअन्य उदाहरण  -                                      

सही उत्तर - अतिशयोक्ति है |

Key Points

• अत्यधिक बढ़ा–चढ़ाकर कही गई बात को अतिशयोक्ति कहते है |
• हिंदी व्याकरण में एक वाक्यांश या शब्द-समूह के स्थान पर उपयोग किया जाने वाला एक शब्द है, जो पूरे अर्थ को संक्षेप में स्पष्ट करता है
• अन्य विकल्प -

Additional Information

सही उत्तर - चाय ठंडी हो गई क्योंकि वह देर तक रखी रही।

Key Points

• अन्य विकल्प में वाक्य क्रम सम्बन्धी अशुद्धियाँ हैं।
• हिंदी व्याकरण में वाक्य संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ मुख्य रूप से पदक्रम, लिंग ,वचन , कारक, पुनरुक्ति, और शब्द प्रयोग की त्रुटियों से होती हैं।

Additional Informationप्रमुख प्रकार और उदाहरण :

• वचन संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ:
• अशुद्ध: भारत में अनेकों राज्य हैं।
• शुद्ध: भारत में अनेक राज्य हैं।
• लिंग संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ:
• अशुद्ध: मेरी बहन दिल्ली से वापस आया है।
• शुद्ध: मेरी बहन दिल्ली से वापस आयी है।
• कारक संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ (परसर्ग):
• अशुद्ध: वह बस पर यात्रा कर रहा है।
• शुद्ध: वह बस से यात्रा कर रहा है।
• पदक्रम संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ:
• अशुद्ध: जाता वह बाजार है।
• शुद्ध: वह बाजार जाता है।

**सही उत्तर -**पकड़ नही पाए।  

Key Points

• मौका मिलते ही चोर भाग गये और लोग उसे पकड़ नही पाए।
• क्रिया का अर्थ है - किसी कार्य का करना या होना। व्याकरण में, वे शब्द जो किसी कार्य के होने, करने,
• या किसी व्यक्ति/वस्तु की अवस्था (स्थिति) को बताते हैं, क्रिया कहलाते हैं (जैसे- पढ़ना, खाना, सोना, है।

Additional Information क्रिया के अन्य उदाहरण -

• मोहन किताब पढ़ता है।
• पक्षी उड़ रहे हैं।
• बच्चा रोता है।
• वह स्कूल जा रहा है।
• मैं पानी पीता हूँ।
• घोड़ा तेज दौड़ता है।
• वह अभी सो रहा है।
• सीता मधुर गीत गाती है।
• मोर जंगल में नाचता है।

सही उत्तर - सधवा 

Key Points

• विधवा का विलोम सधवा होता है।
• विलोम का अर्थ उलटा या विपरीत होता है।
• कुमारी / कुंवारी का अर्थ अविवाहिता होता है , कुमारी तत्सम शब्द है ,कुँवारी तत्भव शब्द होता है।

अन्य विकल्प -

Additional Informationअन्य उदाहरण 

सही उत्तर - पेड़ हमें ऑक्सीजन देते हैं।

Key Points

• वर्तनी के आधार पर शुद्ध वाक्य होगा ,पेड़ हमें ऑक्सीजन देते हैं।​
• शुद्ध वर्तनी का अर्थ है - किसी शब्द को उसमें प्रयुक्त वर्णों, मात्राओं और चिह्नों के मानक और सही क्रम में लिखना​

Additional Information

• शुद्ध वर्तनी के मुख्य बिंदु:
• मात्राओं का सही ज्ञान: छोटी-बड़ी मात्राओं (इ/ई, उ/ऊ) का सही प्रयोग।
• अनुस्वार/अनुनासिक: 'ङ्', 'ञ', 'ण्', 'न्', 'म्' की जगह अनुस्वार (ं) या अनुनासिक (ँ) का सही प्रयोग।
• वर्णों का क्रम: जैसे 'आशीर्वाद' सही है, न कि 'अशीर्वाद'।
• हलंत: जहाँ आवश्यकता हो, वहाँ हलंत का सही प्रयोग करना।