DSSSB PGT (Political Science) Official Paper (Held On: 15 Jul, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

A, B, C, Q, X, Y, and Z are sitting in a row facing North.

1. No one stands to the right of Q. (Q is at the extreme right end).
2. X is a fellow neighbor of Q and A. (This means X is sitting between Q and A).
3. There are only three people between A and C.
4. Only Z stands between B and C.
5. Y, the only person left will occupy the vacant position.

 

• 1) AX: Immediate neighbors.
• 2) YC: Not immediate neighbors
• 3) BY: Immediate neighbors.
• 4) XQ: Immediate neighbors.

Clearly, YC does not belong to the same group as the others are pairs of immediate neighbors.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.

Given:

The statement highlights the social and economic transformation in rural India due to solar energy, including improved living standards, health benefits, and employment generation.

Reason I is a direct cause, as solar energy-based applications have clearly contributed to improving the standard of living in rural areas through access to clean energy and economic opportunities.

Reason II is also a possible cause, because solar energy is a part of the broader category of renewable energy sources, which are widely recognized for delivering social and economic benefits. The advantages mentioned in the statement are consistent with the general impact of renewable energy adoption.

Since both reasons are capable of explaining the observation independently, both I and II are possible causes.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given:

Six persons (A, B, C, D, M, N) live on floors 1 (bottom) to 6 (top).

1. No one lives above M.

2. Only two people live between the floors of M and C.

 

3. D lives below C but above B.

4. Only two people live between the floors of N and D.

 

5. Placing the remaining person.

 

Thus, the people living below A is 3.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = (First Number × 4) + 5

For 19 : 81

⇒ (19 × 4) + 5

⇒ 76 + 5 = 81.

For 25 : 105

⇒ (25 × 4) + 5

⇒ 100 + 5 = 105.

Applying the same logic to

47 : ?

⇒ (47 × 4) + 5

⇒ 188 + 5 = 193.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is.

In place LOS, the correct letter is LOP.

Thus, the letter-cluster that DOES NOT belong to that group is LOS.

 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is :

Thus, the missing number in the series is 158.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

For GD-IE-KM

For IF-KG-MO

 

Option 1) LI-NJ-PR

This pair follows the pattern exactly.

Option 2) KJ-MI-OS

This does not follow the pattern (second letters shift by -1 and +10).

Option 3) LI-MJ-PS

This does not follow the pattern (shifts are +1, +1 then +3, +9).

Option 4) KI-MJ-OS

This does not follow the pattern (last shift for second letter is +9 instead of +8).

Thus, only LI-NJ-PR follows the logic.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Decoding the Symbols:

Given Expression: M ~ I * G ? H > T

M ~ I:  means 'M is the brother of I'.

I * G: I is the daughter of G'.

G ? H: means 'G is the father of H'.

H > T: means 'H is the wife of T'.

Family tree:

 

So, M is the wife's brother of T.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4.

Given the numbers:

524, 735, 192, 476, 265

The operation is to arrange all the numbers in ascending order and compare their positions with the original sequence.

 

The positions of none of the numbers remain unchanged.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

BODMAS Rule:

Given:

 

Now, given the equation: 39 A 3 D 24 A 2 C 69 B 4 D 19 = ?

After interchanging the specified letters, the new equation is:

39 ÷ 3 − 24 ÷ 2 + 69 × 4 − 19 = ?

Perform operations according to BODMAS:

→ 39 ÷ 3 − 24 ÷ 2 + 69 × 4 − 19

→ 13 − 12 + 69 × 4 − 19

→ 13 − 12 + 276 − 19

→ 13 + 276 − 12 − 19

→ 289 − 12 − 19

→ 277 − 19

→ 258

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is.

For 'NQ-TO':

For 'LO-RM':

For 'IL-OJ':

For 'PS-VR':

Thus, the letter-cluster that DOES NOT belong to that group is PS-VR.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4" .

The logic followed here is.

For 'KM-HJ':

For 'VW-PU':

Not following the same logic.

For 'OQ-LN':

For 'GI-DF':

Thus, the letter-cluster that DOES NOT belong to that group is VW-PU.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2" .

As per the given information:

City L is to the south of City M and City N is to the east of City L.

City P is to the west of City N and City Q is to the north of City P. City M is to the north-west of City Q.

Thus, City P is in the east direction from City L.

Hence, the correct answer is Option (3).

The given coded langauge is:

Thus, according to the given codes 'ne rh' is the code for the words 'rain juice'.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2;

The logic followed here is:

Thus, the missing term in the given series is QJ 25. 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = (First Number × 3) + 1

Applying the logic to find X:

In the first pair, we have X : 124.

⇒ (X × 3) + 1 = 124

⇒ 3X = 124 – 1

⇒ 3X = 123

⇒ X = 123 ÷ 3 = 41

Applying the logic to find Y:

In the second pair, we have 33 : Y.

⇒ (33 × 3) + 1 = Y

⇒ 99 + 1 = Y

⇒ Y = 100

Thus, the value of X and Y is 41, 100.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

BODMAS Rule:

According to the question, the signs are interchanged as follows:

Now, given the equation: 16 × 44 − 4 ÷ 4 + 5 = ?

After interchanging the specified signs, the new equation is:

16 + 44 ÷ 4 − 4 × 5 = ?

Perform operations according to BODMAS:

→ 16 + 44 ÷ 4 − 4 × 5

→ 16 + 11 − 4 × 5

→ 16 + 11 − 20

→ 27 − 20

→ 7

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

I. Some grinders are mixers → True (As all mixers are grinders, so some grinders are mixers is True)

II. No crusher is a grinder → False (As no crusher is a mixer and all mixers are grinders, so no crusher is a grinder is not a definite relation)

Here, Only conclusion I follows.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.

Given:

ARM PIN BUT DEN

The consonants are changed by moving each one to the next letter in the English alphabetical order (+1), while the vowels remain unchanged.

Thus, three of the letter clusters (QIO, CUU, and EEO) have at least two vowels.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

Given :

Seven people (B, C, D, H, I, J, K) have exams from Monday to Sunday.

1. Only C has exam before K.

2. Only three persons have exam between B and K.

 

3. Only three persons have exam between I and D.

4. J has exam before D and after H (H < J < D).

5. Placing H and J in the remaining slots (Thursday and Friday):

Since H is before J, H is on Thursday and J is on Friday.

Final Arrangement

 

Thus,I has the exam on Wednesday. The people after I are H, J, B, and D. This is a total of four people.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The correct answer is 4.1%.

Key Points

• As per the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) 2021-22, the unemployment rate in India was 4.1%.
• This data refers to the usual status (principal status plus subsidiary status), which considers employment over a long reference period.
• The unemployment rate of 4.1% represents an improvement compared to previous years, showing signs of recovery in the labor market post the COVID-19 pandemic.
• The survey is conducted by the National Statistical Office (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
• The PLFS is India’s primary source of official labor statistics, providing insights into employment, unemployment, and labor force participation rates.

Additional Information

• Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS):
• The PLFS was launched by the NSO in 2017 to provide quarterly estimates of unemployment and labor force participation for urban areas and annual estimates for both rural and urban areas.
• The survey collects data on employment, unemployment, wages, and other workforce-related metrics.
• It uses two key measures of unemployment: the usual status (long-term) and the current weekly status (short-term).
• The findings of the PLFS play a crucial role in shaping labor policies and economic strategies in India.

The correct answer is Medium of exchange.

Key Points

• Money acts as a medium of exchange by facilitating transactions between buyers and sellers, eliminating the complexities of the barter system.
• This function allows goods and services to be exchanged efficiently without the need for a double coincidence of wants, which was a major limitation of barter.
• It provides a standard value for goods and services, enabling the smooth functioning of trade and economic activities.
• Money reduces transaction costs in an economy by enabling individuals to trade without directly swapping goods or services.
• In modern economies, various forms of money such as cash, bank deposits, and digital payments serve as mediums of exchange.

Additional Information

• Functions of Money
• Money performs several key functions in an economy:
• Medium of exchange: Facilitates trade by acting as a common medium for transactions.
• Store of value: Preserves purchasing power for future use.
• Unit of account: Provides a standard measure for pricing goods and services.
• Standard of deferred payment: Enables credit transactions and future payments.

The correct answer is Akhand Path.

Key Points

• Akhand Path is the Sikh practice of a continuous, uninterrupted recitation of the entire Guru Granth Sahib, the holy scripture of Sikhism, over a span of approximately 48 hours.
• The practice is usually conducted during significant events, such as the celebration of the birth anniversaries of Sikh Gurus, weddings, or festivals like Gurpurabs.
• It is a community-oriented activity where members of the Sikh community take turns to recite the scripture, ensuring the continuous flow of the reading without interruption.
• The Akhand Path symbolizes devotion, unity, and the unbroken connection with the divine teachings of the Sikh Gurus as enshrined in the Guru Granth Sahib.
• The tradition holds immense spiritual significance in Sikhism, reflecting the importance of the Guru Granth Sahib as the eternal Guru of Sikhs.

Additional Information

• Kirtan
• Kirtan refers to the devotional singing of hymns from the Guru Granth Sahib.
• It is a vital part of Sikh worship and is performed during religious gatherings in Gurudwaras.
• Unlike Akhand Path, Kirtan involves musical renditions and is not a continuous recitation.
• It serves as a medium to connect with the divine and understand the teachings of Sikh Gurus through music.
• Hola Mohalla
• Hola Mohalla is a Sikh festival that usually falls a day after the Hindu festival of Holi.
• It was initiated by Guru Gobind Singh Ji as a gathering of Sikhs for military exercises and mock battles, showcasing valor and martial skills.
• Today, it is celebrated with processions, displays of martial arts, and Kirtan, but it is not related to the recitation of the Guru Granth Sahib.
• Paryushana
• Paryushana is a Jain festival, not related to Sikhism.
• It involves fasting, prayer, and introspection, focusing on self-purification and forgiveness.
• The festival is observed annually by both Svetambara and Digambara Jain communities.

The correct answer is Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.

Key Points

• The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) is the nodal ministry in India tasked with promoting renewable energy sources like solar, wind, biomass, and hydropower.
• India has set an ambitious target to achieve 500 GW of non-fossil fuel capacity by 2030, as part of its commitment to the Paris Agreement and its Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs).
• The MNRE has been instrumental in formulating policies, implementing programs, and coordinating efforts to accelerate renewable energy adoption.
• Under its leadership, India has already achieved significant milestones, including becoming the world’s third-largest producer of renewable energy.
• Key initiatives by MNRE include the National Solar Mission, National Wind-Solar Hybrid Policy, and schemes to promote biomass and small hydropower projects, all contributing to the 500 GW target.

Additional Information

• Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change (MoEF&CC):
• The MoEF&CC is responsible for environmental conservation and climate change mitigation but does not directly lead renewable energy initiatives.
• It plays a supportive role by framing policies for sustainable development and ensuring compliance with environmental regulations related to renewable energy projects.
• The ministry represents India at international climate negotiations, such as the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
• Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas:
• This ministry focuses primarily on fossil fuel management, including crude oil, natural gas, and petroleum products.
• While it supports energy transition efforts, its role is limited to promoting cleaner fuels like compressed natural gas (CNG) and liquefied natural gas (LNG).
• The ministry also works on biofuels like ethanol blending in petrol but does not lead the renewable energy capacity-building initiatives.
• Ministry of Power:
• The Ministry of Power deals with electricity generation, transmission, and distribution but works in collaboration with MNRE for renewable energy integration into the power grid.
• It oversees schemes such as the Green Energy Corridor to facilitate the transmission of renewable energy from generation sites to demand centers.
• However, the primary responsibility for renewable energy capacity building lies with the MNRE.

The correct answer is It converts light energy into chemical energy.

Key Points

• Photosynthesis is a biochemical process in plants where light energy from the sun is converted into chemical energy in the form of glucose.
• The process primarily occurs in the chloroplasts of plant cells, which contain a pigment called chlorophyll that absorbs sunlight.
• Photosynthesis involves two stages: light-dependent reactions (where sunlight is used to split water molecules and generate energy carriers such as ATP and NADPH) and light-independent reactions or Calvin cycle (where atmospheric carbon dioxide is fixed into glucose).
• The overall equation for photosynthesis is: 6CO₂ + 6H₂O + light energy → C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂.
• Photosynthesis is essential for sustaining life on Earth as it produces oxygen, which is vital for most living organisms, and forms the base of the food chain by creating organic matter.

Additional Information

• Photosynthesis
• Photosynthesis is a critical process for life on Earth, providing food and oxygen.
• It is a unique feature of autotrophic organisms such as plants, algae, and cyanobacteria.
• The process is also responsible for maintaining the balance of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.

The correct answer is Chauri Chaura incident.

Key Points

• The Chauri Chaura incident occurred on February 4, 1922, in the Gorakhpur district of Uttar Pradesh, where a violent clash between protesters and the police led to the death of 22 policemen.
• The event marked a turning point in the Non-Cooperation Movement, which had been launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1920 to resist British rule through nonviolent means.
• Following the incident, Gandhi, who strongly believed in nonviolence, decided to suspend the movement on February 12, 1922, to prevent further violence.
• The decision to withdraw the movement was controversial, as some leaders like Subhas Chandra Bose and Jawaharlal Nehru viewed it as a setback to the Indian struggle for independence.
• The suspension of the Non-Cooperation Movement led to a period of introspection and the eventual evolution of new strategies in the freedom struggle, including the Civil Disobedience Movement.

Additional Information

• Second Round Table Conference
• The Second Round Table Conference was held in London from September to December 1931.
• It was attended by Mahatma Gandhi as the sole representative of the Indian National Congress.
• The conference focused on discussing the future constitutional framework for India but failed to reach a consensus due to differences between Indian leaders and British officials.
• It was unrelated to the Non-Cooperation Movement, which had already ended in 1922.
• Salt March
• The Salt March, also known as the Dandi March, was a significant event in the Indian independence movement led by Gandhi in March-April 1930.
• It was a part of the Civil Disobedience Movement and protested against the British monopoly on salt production and taxation.
• While it was a landmark event, it occurred much later than the Non-Cooperation Movement and had no direct connection with its end.
• Jallianwala Bagh massacre
• The Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place on April 13, 1919, in Amritsar, Punjab.
• British troops led by General Dyer opened fire on a peaceful gathering, killing hundreds of unarmed civilians.
• This tragic event intensified anti-British sentiments and played a role in the launch of the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1920.
• However, the massacre occurred before the movement and was not related to its conclusion.

The correct answer is Landing a rover and helicopter on Mars.

Key Points

• The Mangalyaan-2 mission is proposed as India's second interplanetary mission to Mars, following the success of Mangalyaan (Mars Orbiter Mission) in 2013.
• The primary goal of Mangalyaan-2 is to land a rover and helicopter on the Martian surface, marking a significant leap in India's space exploration capabilities.
• This mission aims to study the Martian atmosphere, surface, and sub-surface, as well as search for signs of life and collect data for future manned missions.
• ISRO is working on advanced technologies for landing and mobility on Mars, including a helicopter similar to NASA's Ingenuity, which was successfully deployed on Mars in 2021.
• Mangalyaan-2 is part of India's broader ambition to become a global leader in space exploration and demonstrate its technological capabilities in interplanetary missions.

Additional Information

• The Mangalyaan program, also known as the Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM), is a flagship initiative by ISRO to explore Mars.
• The first mission, launched in 2013, made India the first Asian nation to reach Martian orbit and the fourth space agency globally to do so.
• Mangalyaan-2 aims to build upon the success of MOM by attempting a soft landing and deploying advanced technologies like rovers and helicopters.
• The program highlights India's cost-effective approach to space exploration and its growing prominence in the global space community.

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh.

Key Points

• Uttar Pradesh will host the MotoGP race at the Buddh International Circuit in 2025, a result of the agreement signed with Dorna Sports, the organizer of MotoGP.
• The Buddh International Circuit (BIC) is located in Greater Noida, Uttar Pradesh, and was previously known for hosting Formula 1 races between 2011 and 2013.
• The MotoGP event, branded as the "Grand Prix of Bharat," will be a historic milestone, marking the first MotoGP race in India.
• This initiative is expected to boost tourism, infrastructure, and economic growth in Uttar Pradesh, as well as promote motorsports culture in the country.
• Uttar Pradesh's government is actively supporting such international events to position the state as a hub for global sporting activities.

Additional Information

• Karnataka
• Karnataka is home to the Madras Motor Race Track and the upcoming Chikkaballapur circuit. Although it has a strong motorsports culture, it is not hosting MotoGP in 2025.
• Bangalore, the capital city, is known for hosting events like Indian National Rally Championships and other motorsport activities.
• Tamil Nadu
• Tamil Nadu hosts the Madras Motor Race Track (MMRT), India's first permanent race track, located in Chennai.
• The MMRT is known for hosting national-level racing events but lacks the infrastructure to host international MotoGP events.
• Maharashtra
• Maharashtra has not been associated with large-scale international motorsports events like MotoGP or Formula 1.
• The state has been more prominent in hosting cultural and traditional sports events rather than motorsports.
• Buddh International Circuit (MotoGP Details)
• The Buddh International Circuit (BIC) was originally built for Formula 1 and hosted the Indian Grand Prix from 2011 to 2013.
• The track is 5.125 kilometers long with 16 turns, making it ideal for high-speed racing events like MotoGP.
• The introduction of MotoGP to India aims to promote motorsport culture and attract global attention to Indian infrastructure and sporting capabilities.

The correct answer is Muharram.

Key Points

• Muharram is not a festival but a significant religious observance for Muslims, particularly Shia Muslims.
• It marks the beginning of the Islamic New Year and is the first month of the Islamic lunar calendar.
• The 10^th day of Muharram, known as Ashura, commemorates the martyrdom of Imam Hussain, the grandson of Prophet Muhammad, in the Battle of Karbala.
• Unlike Eid celebrations, Muharram is a solemn occasion observed with mourning and remembrance, especially by Shia Muslims.
• It is observed through processions, prayers, and recitations of the tragic events of Karbala, with no festive aspect associated with it.

Additional Information

• Eid-ul-Fitr
• It is a major Islamic festival celebrated at the end of the holy month of Ramadan, marking the conclusion of fasting.
• The festival is also known as the "Festival of Breaking the Fast."
• Muslims offer special prayers called Salat al-Eid, visit family and friends, and give charity (Zakat al-Fitr) to the needy.
• The occasion is joyous and symbolizes gratitude to Allah for strength during Ramadan.
• Eid-ul-Zuha (Eid al-Adha)
• It is also called the "Festival of Sacrifice" and is celebrated to honor the willingness of Prophet Ibrahim to sacrifice his son as an act of obedience to Allah.
• Muslims perform the ritual of Qurbani (animal sacrifice) to commemorate this event.
• The meat of the sacrificed animal is distributed among family, friends, and the poor.
• This festival occurs during the Islamic month of Dhul-Hijjah, coinciding with the annual Hajj pilgrimage.
• Milad-un-Nabi
• It is the observance of the birth anniversary of Prophet Muhammad, also known as Mawlid or Eid-e-Milad.
• The day is celebrated with prayers, sermons, and recitations of the life and teachings of the Prophet.
• Muslims decorate their homes and mosques, distribute food, and organize processions in honor of the Prophet.
• The observance varies among Islamic sects, with some celebrating it on the 12^th day of Rabi-ul-Awwal, while others may not mark it as a festival.

The correct answer is Eastern Uttar Pradesh.

Key Points

• The original core of the Gupta Empire was located in the region of Eastern Uttar Pradesh and parts of present-day Bihar.
• The Gupta Empire was founded by Chandragupta I in the early 4^th century CE, and its initial capital was believed to be located in Pataliputra (modern-day Patna).
• This region was strategically significant due to its fertile plains, proximity to important trade routes, and access to the Ganges River.
• The Gupta rulers utilized the resources and geographical advantages of this region to expand their empire and establish a golden age of art, culture, and science in India.
• Eastern Uttar Pradesh and the adjacent areas became the cultural and political center of the empire, allowing the Guptas to exercise strong administrative control.

Additional Information

• Eastern Kerala
• Kerala is located in the southern part of India and was never associated with the Gupta Empire.
• During the Gupta period, Kerala was primarily governed by the Chera dynasty, which was known for its trade relations with the Roman Empire.
• The Chera rulers focused on maritime trade and cultural development, distinct from the Gupta Empire’s influence in northern India.
• Odisha
• Odisha, located in eastern India, was under the influence of regional dynasties during the Gupta period, such as the Kalinga rulers.
• Although the Guptas did exert some influence over Odisha during their territorial expansions, it was not part of the empire's original core.
• Odisha is known for its unique cultural and architectural heritage, such as the Sun Temple at Konark, but it remained distinct from the Gupta Empire’s initial heartland.

The correct answer is 18.

Key Points

• As of November 2024, there are 18 biosphere reserves in India recognized for the protection of flora, fauna, and the overall ecosystem.
• These biosphere reserves aim to conserve biodiversity, promote research, and support the sustainable use of natural resources.
• Some notable biosphere reserves include Nilgiri, Sunderbans, Gulf of Mannar, and Nanda Devi.
• Out of the 18 reserves, 12 biosphere reserves have been included in UNESCO's World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR), such as the Nilgiri, Pachmarhi, and Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserves.
• The program aligns with the Man and Biosphere (MAB) Programme initiated by UNESCO to enhance ecological balance and sustainability.

Additional Information

• Biosphere Reserves in India
• Biosphere reserves are areas of terrestrial and coastal ecosystems that promote the conservation of biodiversity with the involvement of local communities.
• They are divided into three zones: the core zone (protected area), the buffer zone (research and education), and the transition zone (sustainable economic activities).
• India's biosphere reserves are home to unique species of plants, animals, and microorganisms, making them critical for research and conservation efforts.

The correct answer is Himachal Pradesh.

Key Points

• According to the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) 2019-20, Himachal Pradesh recorded the highest percentage of women participation in the labour force in India.
• The Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) for women in Himachal Pradesh stood significantly higher compared to the national average.
• Himachal Pradesh has a robust rural economy with high participation of women in agricultural activities, horticulture, and small-scale industries, which contribute to the labour force statistics.
• Government initiatives and policies promoting women’s empowerment and employment opportunities, such as self-help groups and skill development programs, have also played a key role.
• The state’s cultural and social environment encourages active participation of women in economic activities.

Additional Information

• Tamil Nadu
• Tamil Nadu is known for its industrial growth, with women participating significantly in sectors such as textiles, IT, and manufacturing.
• Government programs like Amma Skill Training Scheme aim to enhance women’s employability.
• Kerala
• Kerala has a high literacy rate and better gender equality indicators.
• Programs like Kudumbashree focus on empowering women economically through self-help groups.
• Maharashtra
• Maharashtra has a diverse economy with women participating in agriculture, industries, and services.
• Urbanization and industrialization have led to women’s involvement in organized sectors, but rural female LFPR remains relatively low.
• Government initiatives like Mahila Arthik Vikas Mahamandal (MAVIM) support women entrepreneurs and self-employment.

Important Points

• Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS)
• The PLFS is conducted by the National Statistical Office (NSO) to measure key employment and unemployment indicators in India.
• It provides data on Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR), Worker Population Ratio (WPR), and Unemployment Rate (UR).
• The survey aims to track the dynamics of the labour market and inform policy-making for employment generation.

The correct answer is 60 days.

Key Points

• Article 279A of the Constitution, inserted through the 101^st Constitutional Amendment Act, provides for the establishment of the GST Council.
• As per Article 279A(1), the President of India must constitute the GST Council within 60 days of the commencement of Article 279A.
• The GST Council is a constitutional body designed to govern and regulate the Goods and Services Tax (GST) system in India.
• The GST Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister and includes representatives from all states and union territories with legislatures.
• The primary role of the GST Council is to make recommendations on various aspects of GST, including tax rates, exemptions, and laws.

Additional Information

• GST Council
• The GST Council is a key decision-making body for ensuring uniformity in GST laws across the country.
• It is empowered to make recommendations on tax rates, exemptions, threshold limits, and dispute resolution mechanisms.
• Decisions in the GST Council are made based on a voting system where the central government has one-third of the votes, and state governments collectively hold two-thirds of the votes.
• This unique structure ensures a federal approach, with equal participation from the central and state governments.

The correct answer is Shunga.

Key Points

• The Shunga dynasty was established by Pushyamitra Shunga after overthrowing the Mauryan Empire in 185 BCE.
• Pushyamitra Shunga, who was a Brahmin commander-in-chief of the Mauryan army, assassinated the last Mauryan ruler Brihadratha and declared himself king.
• The Shunga dynasty ruled over parts of North and Central India, including the regions of Magadha, Pataliputra, and present-day Uttar Pradesh.
• The Shunga dynasty is known for its contributions to art, culture, and religion, especially the revival and promotion of Brahmanical traditions.
• During the Shunga rule, significant developments occurred in the field of architecture, including the construction and renovation of stupas, such as the stupa at Sanchi.

Additional Information

• Gupta Dynasty
• The Gupta dynasty came into power in the 3^rd century CE, much later than the fall of the Mauryan Empire.
• It is often referred to as the Golden Age of India due to advancements in science, mathematics, astronomy, literature, and art during their rule.
• Famous rulers of this dynasty include Chandragupta I, Samudragupta, and Chandragupta II (Vikramaditya).
• The Guptas are also known for their promotion of Hinduism and the construction of temples.
• Saka Dynasty
• The Sakas, also known as Scythians, were a group of Central Asian nomadic tribes who invaded India in the 1^st century BCE.
• They established their rule in western and northwestern India, particularly in regions like Gujarat, Rajasthan, and Maharashtra.
• The most notable Saka ruler was Rudradaman I, known for the Junagarh inscription, written in Sanskrit.
• The Sakas were eventually defeated by the Gupta rulers in the 4^th century CE.
• Pala Dynasty
• The Pala dynasty ruled in Bengal and Bihar from the 8^th to the 12^th century CE, long after the Mauryan Empire had fallen.
• They are known for their patronage of Buddhism and the establishment of famous universities such as Nalanda and Vikramashila.
• Famous Pala rulers include Gopala, Dharmapala, and Devapala.
• The Palas played a significant role in spreading Buddhism to Southeast Asia and Tibet.
• Mauryan Empire
• The Mauryan Empire (321–185 BCE) was one of the largest and most powerful empires in ancient India, founded by Chandragupta Maurya.
• Its most notable ruler, Ashoka the Great, is remembered for his promotion of Buddhism and his efforts to spread it across Asia.
• The empire's decline began after Ashoka's death, with weak successors and internal unrest, eventually leading to its overthrow by Pushyamitra Shunga.

The correct answer is Article 155.

Key Points

• Article 155 of the Indian Constitution specifies that the Governor of a state shall be appointed by the President of India.
• The Governor serves as the constitutional head of a state and acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister.
• The appointment of the Governor is at the discretion of the President and is not subject to any legislative approval or confirmation.
• The term of office for a Governor is generally five years, but they serve at the pleasure of the President, meaning they can be removed before the completion of their term.
• The Governor is responsible for ensuring that the state government functions in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution, and they have various powers related to legislation, finance, and executive functions.

Additional Information

• Article 163
• Article 163 provides for a Council of Ministers to aid and advise the Governor of a state.
• It states that the Governor shall act on the advice of the Council of Ministers except in cases where the Constitution requires them to act in their discretion.
• The discretionary powers of the Governor include reserving a bill for the President’s consideration, recommending President's Rule in the state, and more.
• Article 162
• This Article explains the extent of the executive power of the state.
• The executive power of a state extends to matters over which the state legislature has authority to make laws.
• It also mentions that in cases of overlapping jurisdiction between the central and state governments, the executive authority of the state is subject to the executive power of the Union.
• Article 156
• Article 156 outlines the tenure of the Governor.
• A Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President and can be removed by the President at any time.
• The term of the Governor is fixed at five years, but they may continue to hold office until their successor is appointed.

The correct answer is Telugu.

Key Points

• Telugu is the official and most widely spoken language in Andhra Pradesh.
• It belongs to the Dravidian language family and is one of the six classical languages of India.
• Telugu is spoken by over 80 million people worldwide, primarily in the states of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
• The Telugu script is derived from the ancient Brahmi script and is known for its rounded characters.
• In Andhra Pradesh, Telugu is used for administrative purposes, education, and communication, making it the predominant language in the state.

Additional Information

• Tamil
• Tamil is another Dravidian language and is widely spoken in Tamil Nadu, Puducherry, and Sri Lanka.
• It is one of the oldest languages in the world and has a rich literary tradition dating back over 2,000 years.
• While Tamil is not commonly spoken in Andhra Pradesh, it is recognized for its cultural and historical significance in southern India.
• Kannada
• Kannada is the official language of Karnataka and belongs to the Dravidian language family.
• It has a significant literary heritage with epics like "Kavirajamarga" and "Vachanas" contributing to its prominence.
• Though Kannada is spoken by some border communities in Andhra Pradesh, it is not the primary language of the state.
• Malayalam
• Malayalam is predominantly spoken in Kerala and the Lakshadweep Islands and is another Dravidian language.
• It has a complex script with characters derived from the ancient Grantha script.
• Malayalam does not have a significant presence in Andhra Pradesh due to its geographical and cultural distance.

The correct answer is Option 2: Pakistan and Afghanistan.

Key Points

• The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 (CAA) provides special provisions for granting Indian citizenship to individuals from Pakistan, Afghanistan, and Bangladesh.
• The Act applies specifically to Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi, and Christian religious minorities who faced religious persecution in these countries.
• To be eligible, individuals must have entered India before December 31, 2014.
• The Act reduces the residency requirement for citizenship from 11 years to 5 years for these specific groups.
• The CAA does not apply to Muslim refugees or individuals from any other neighboring countries like Nepal, Bhutan, or Sri Lanka.
• This Act aims to offer protection and citizenship to persecuted minorities while excluding illegal migrants from its purview.

Additional Information

• Citizenship Act, 1955: The primary law defining how to become an Indian citizen (birth, descent, registration, naturalisation, territory) and how to lose it, heavily amended over time.
• Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2003: Introduced rules for illegal migrants and clarified citizenship by birth, restricting it if parents weren't citizens.

The correct answer is Puducherry.

Key Points

• According to the National Multidimensional Poverty Index Progress Review (2023), Puducherry has the highest percentage of multidimensionally poor individuals among Union Territories in India.
• The report measures poverty beyond income levels, considering factors like education, health, and living standards to classify multidimensional poverty.
• Puducherry's higher poverty rate highlights regional disparities and challenges in ensuring equitable development in smaller Union Territories.
• Efforts to combat poverty in Puducherry are hindered by limited resources and a smaller industrial base, leading to gaps in infrastructure and employment generation.
• The government has been implementing targeted schemes for poverty alleviation, but the lack of access to quality healthcare, education, and basic services continues to impact the multidimensionally poor population.

Additional Information

• National Multidimensional Poverty Index
• The National Multidimensional Poverty Index is based on the global MPI methodology developed by the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI).
• It considers three dimensions of poverty: health, education, and standard of living, with 12 indicators such as nutrition, school attendance, and sanitation.
• The index aims to provide a comprehensive analysis of poverty to assist policymakers in identifying areas requiring targeted interventions.
• The 2023 progress review highlights significant reductions in poverty in certain states and Union Territories, while emphasizing the need for focused efforts in regions like Puducherry.

The correct answer is A disease present from birth.

Key Points

• Congenital diseases are conditions or disorders that are present at the time of birth.
• These diseases can result from genetic factors, environmental influences during pregnancy, or a combination of both.
• Examples of congenital diseases include congenital heart defects, cleft lip and palate, and Down syndrome.
• Some congenital diseases are hereditary (passed from parents to offspring through genes), while others may occur due to complications during fetal development.
• Congenital diseases can range from mild to severe and may impact physical, intellectual, or functional development.

Additional Information

• A disease that occurs in old age (Option 1):
• This refers to age-related diseases that typically develop during the later stages of life.
• Examples include Alzheimer's disease, osteoporosis, and arthritis.
• These diseases are not congenital as they arise due to aging and lifestyle factors rather than being present at birth.
• A disease caused by vitamin deficiency (Option 3):
• Diseases caused by a lack of essential vitamins are classified as deficiency diseases.
• Examples include scurvy (vitamin C deficiency), rickets (vitamin D deficiency), and beriberi (vitamin B1 deficiency).
• These are acquired diseases and not congenital since they result from inadequate nutrition.
• A disease caused by bacteria (Option 4):
• Bacterial diseases are caused by pathogenic bacteria invading the body.
• Examples include tuberculosis (caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis), typhoid (caused by Salmonella typhi), and cholera (caused by Vibrio cholerae).
• These diseases are infectious and acquired, not congenital.

The correct answer is Long river basin, medium river basin and small river basin.

Key Points

• Drainage basins in India are classified on the basis of the size of their watershed area into long river basins, medium river basins, and small river basins.
• Long river basins are those with a watershed area of more than 20,000 square kilometers. Examples include the Ganga, Brahmaputra, and Indus river basins.
• Medium river basins have watershed areas ranging from 2,000 to 20,000 square kilometers. Examples include the Subarnarekha, Pennar, and Mahi rivers.
• Small river basins include rivers with watershed areas less than 2,000 square kilometers. These are typically smaller rivers and streams, often found along the coasts and in hilly regions.
• This classification helps in effective water resource management and planning for flood control, irrigation, and other purposes.

Additional Information

• Himalayan River Basins, Peninsular River Basins, and Coastal River Basins
• This classification is based on the geographical location of river basins in India, not on watershed size.
• Himalayan River Basins include rivers like the Ganga, Brahmaputra, and Indus, which are perennial and fed by glaciers and rainfall.
• Peninsular River Basins include rivers like the Godavari, Krishna, and Cauvery, which are mostly rain-fed and have a seasonal flow.
• Coastal River Basins consist of smaller rivers along the eastern and western coasts, characterized by short lengths and swift flows.
• Major, Minor, and Insignificant River Basins
• This classification is based on their importance and contribution to water resources and agriculture.
• Major river basins are those like the Ganga and Brahmaputra, with extensive catchment areas and significant roles in agriculture and industry.
• Minor river basins are smaller than major basins but still contribute to regional water resources.
• Insignificant river basins have limited scope and impact on water resources and agriculture.
• Perennial, Seasonal, and Dry River Basins
• This classification is based on the flow characteristics of the rivers.
• Perennial rivers flow throughout the year, primarily fed by glaciers and rainfall (e.g., Ganga, Brahmaputra).
• Seasonal rivers flow during the monsoon and dry up in other seasons (e.g., Peninsular rivers like Godavari and Krishna).
• Dry river basins are those with minimal or no flow most of the year, often in arid and semi-arid regions.

Given:

Profit of 'A' = 35%

Loss of 'B' = 20%

Profit of 'C' = 50%

Price paid by 'D' = ₹31,995

Formula Used:

Final Selling Price = Initial Cost Price × (1 + Profit/100) × (1 - Loss/100) × (1 + Profit/100)

Calculation:

⇒ ₹31,995 = Cost Price of 'A' × (1 + 35/100) × (1 - 20/100) × (1 + 50/100)

⇒ ₹31,995 = Cost Price of 'A' × 1.35 × 0.8 × 1.5

⇒ ₹31,995 = Cost Price of 'A' × 1.62

⇒ Cost Price of 'A' = ₹31,995 / 1.62

⇒ Cost Price of 'A' = ₹19,750

∴ The correct answer is ₹19,750.

Solution:

Given:

A can build wall in 36 days → 1-day work = 1/36

B can build wall in 60 days → 1-day work = 1/60

C destroys wall in 72 days → 1-day work = −1/72

Work pattern:

Day 1 → A works

Day 2 → B works

Day 3 → C works

This cycle repeats.

Step 1: Work done in 3 days

= 1/36 + 1/60 − 1/72

LCM of 36, 60 and 72 = 360

= 10/360 + 6/360 − 5/360

= 11/360

So, in every 3 days, work done = 11/360

Step 2: Number of full 3-day cycles

Total work = 1

Work done in 32 cycles:

= 32 × 11/360

= 352/360

= 44/45

Remaining work:

= 1 − 44/45

= 1/45

Time taken for 32 cycles:

= 32 × 3 = 96 days

Step 3: Next day (A works)

A’s 1-day work = 1/36

Time required:

= (1/45) ÷ (1/36)

= 36/45

= 4/5 day

Step 4: Total time

= 96 + 4/5

= 96.8 days

Final Answer:

The wall will be completed in 96.8 days.

Given:

Number of bikes sold in July = X₁

Number of bikes sold in August = X₂

Number of bikes sold in September = X₃

Number of bikes sold in October = X₄

Number of bikes sold in December = X₅

Formula Used:

If X_m = X_n, then the number of bikes sold in month m is equal to that in month n.

Calculation:

⇒ Compare X₁, X₂, X₃, X₄, and X₅.

⇒ X₃ = X₅ (Number of bikes sold in September = Number of bikes sold in December).

∴ The correct answer is 4) September and December.

Given:

Simple Interest (SI) = ₹ 630

Rate of Interest (R) = 6% per annum

Time (T) = 2 years

Formula Used:

SI = (P × R × T) / 100

Amount (A) = Principal (P) + SI

Calculation:

⇒ ₹ 630 = (P × 6 × 2) / 100

⇒ ₹ 630 = (P × 12) / 100

⇒ P = (₹ 630 × 100) / 12

⇒ P = ₹ 5,250

⇒ A = P + SI

⇒ A = ₹ 5,250 + ₹ 630

⇒ A = ₹ 5,880

∴ The correct answer is ₹ 5,250.

Given:

Percentage of men = 20%

Percentage of women = 40%

Percentage of children = 100% - 20% - 40% = 40%

Average weight of men = 45 kg

Average weight of women = 60 kg

Average weight of children = 40 kg

Formula Used:

Group average weight = (Percentage of men × Average weight of men + Percentage of women × Average weight of women + Percentage of children × Average weight of children) / 100

Calculation:

⇒ Group average weight = [(20 × 45) + (40 × 60) + (40 × 40)] / 100

⇒ Group average weight = [900 + 2400 + 1600] / 100

⇒ Group average weight = 4900 / 100

⇒ Group average weight = 49 kg

∴ The correct answer is 49.

Given:

Total sum = 555

Second part = 4/5 × first part

Third part = 5/6 × second part

Formula Used:

First part + Second part + Third part = Total sum

Fourth proportional = (Second part × Third part) / First part

Calculation:

Let the first part = x.

⇒ Second part = 4/5 × x = (4x)/5

⇒ Third part = 5/6 × Second part = 5/6 × (4x)/5 = (20x)/30 = (2x)/3

Sum of all parts = Total sum

⇒ x + (4x)/5 + (2x)/3 = 555

⇒ LCM of denominators 5 and 3 = 15

⇒ (15x)/15 + (12x)/15 + (10x)/15 = 555

⇒ (37x)/15 = 555

⇒ x = (555 × 15)/37

⇒ x = 225

First part = 225

Second part = (4 × 225)/5 = 180

Third part = (2 × 225)/3 = 150

Fourth proportional = (Second part × Third part) / First part

⇒ (180 × 150) / 225

⇒ 27000 / 225

⇒ 120

∴ The correct answer is 120.

Given:

The difference between the number of boys and girls = 48% of the sum of the number of boys and girls.

The number of boys is greater than the number of girls.

Formula Used:

Let the number of boys = b, and the number of girls = g.

The difference between boys and girls = b - g.

Sum of boys and girls = b + g.

Given, b - g = 48% of (b + g).

Ratio = b : g.

Calculation:

⇒ b - g = (48/100) × (b + g)

⇒ b - g = 0.48 × (b + g)

⇒ b - g = 0.48b + 0.48g

⇒ b - 0.48b = g + 0.48g

⇒ 0.52b = 1.48g

⇒ b/g = 1.48/0.52

⇒ b/g = 148/52

⇒ b/g = 37/13

∴ The correct answer is 37 : 13.

Given:

Marked price of the watch = ₹2,800

First discount rate = 20%

Selling price after both discounts = ₹2,000

Formula Used:

First discounted price = Marked price × (1 - First discount rate/100)

Second discount rate = [(First discounted price - Selling price) / First discounted price] × 100

Calculation:

⇒ First discounted price = ₹2,800 × (1 - 20/100)

⇒ First discounted price = ₹2,800 × 0.8

⇒ First discounted price = ₹2,240

⇒ Second discount rate = [(₹2,240 - ₹2,000) / ₹2,240] × 100

⇒ Second discount rate = [₹240 / ₹2,240] × 100

⇒ Second discount rate = 0.1071 × 100

⇒ Second discount rate = 10.71%

∴ The correct answer is 10.71%.

Shortcut Trick

For a period of 2 years, the difference between Compound Interest (CI) and Simple Interest (SI) is calculated using the formula: Difference = P × (R ÷ 100)².

Given: P = ₹73,300 and R = 7%.

Difference = 73,300 × (7 ÷ 100) × (7 ÷ 100) = 733 × 0.49.

Difference = 359.17.

Rounding to one decimal place, we get ₹359.2.

∴ The correct answer is ₹359.2.

Alternate Method

Given values: Principal (P) = ₹73,300, Rate (R) = 7% per annum, Time (T) = 2 years.

Formula used: Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100 and Compound Interest (CI) = P × [(1 + R ÷ 100)^T − 1].

Principal ₹73,300 7% Year 1 Int. ₹5,131 7% Difference ₹359.17 Difference (CI − SI) = Interest on Interest

⇒ SI for 2 years = (73300 × 7 × 2) ÷ 100 = 733 × 14 = ₹10,262

⇒ CI for 2 years = 73300 × [(1 + 0.07)² − 1]

⇒ CI = 73300 × [1.1449 − 1] = 73300 × 0.1449 = ₹10,621.17

⇒ Difference = CI − SI = 10,621.17 − 10,262 = 359.17

⇒ Difference (rounded to 1 decimal place) = ₹359.2

∴ The correct answer is ₹359.2.

Additional Information

Difference for 3 Years

The difference between CI and SI for 3 years is P(R/100)² × (3 + R/100).

Effective Rate of Interest

For 2 years at R%, the effective CI rate is (2R + R²/100)%, while the SI rate is 2R%.

CI and SI Relation for 2 Years

CI = SI × (1 + R/200) for a period of 2 years.

Given:

Profit percentage = 20%

Milk is sold at cost price.

Formula Used:

Profit % = (Volume of water / Volume of milk) × 100

Total mixture = Volume of milk + Volume of water

Calculation:

Let the volume of milk = 100 liters (assume for simplicity).

Profit = 20% of cost price of milk.

Since profit is due to the addition of water (which is free), the volume of water added = 20% of the volume of milk.

⇒ Volume of water = 20% of 100 = 20 liters.

Total mixture = Volume of milk + Volume of water = 100 + 20 = 120 liters.

Percentage of water in the mixture = (Volume of water / Total mixture) × 100

⇒ Percentage of water = (20 / 120) × 100

⇒ Percentage of water = 16.67%

∴ The correct answer is 16.67%.

Given:

Speed from X to Y = 40 km/hr

Speed from Y to X = 50 km/hr

Formula Used:

Average speed = (2 × Speed₁ × Speed₂) / (Speed₁ + Speed₂)

Calculation:

⇒ Average speed = (2 × 40 × 50) / (40 + 50)

⇒ Average speed = (2 × 2000) / 90

⇒ Average speed = 4000 / 90

⇒ Average speed = 44.44 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 44.44.

Given:

Investment by A = ₹2,800

Investment by B = ₹5,400

Investment by C = ₹4,800 (joined 4 months later)

Difference between C's share and A's share = ₹412

Formula Used:

Profit share is proportional to investment × time.

Total profit = Sum of individual shares.

Calculation:

⇒ A's investment duration = 12 months

⇒ B's investment duration = 12 months

⇒ C's investment duration = 8 months

⇒ A's share ratio = ₹2,800 × 12 = ₹33,600

⇒ B's share ratio = ₹5,400 × 12 = ₹64,800

⇒ C's share ratio = ₹4,800 × 8 = ₹38,400

⇒ Total ratio = ₹33,600 + ₹64,800 + ₹38,400 = ₹136,800

⇒ C's share of profit = (₹38,400 / ₹136,800) × Total profit

⇒ A's share of profit = (₹33,600 / ₹136,800) × Total profit

⇒ Difference between C's share and A's share = ₹412

⇒ [(₹38,400 - ₹33,600) / ₹136,800] × Total profit = ₹412

⇒ ₹4,800 × Total profit / ₹136,800 = ₹412

⇒ Total profit = (₹412 × ₹136,800) / ₹4,800

⇒ Total profit = ₹11,742

∴ The correct answer is ₹11,742.

Given:

First 11 positive multiples of 20.

Formula Used:

Average = (Sum of terms) / (Number of terms)

Sum of first n multiples of a number = n × (number × (n + 1)) / 2

Calculation:

⇒ First 11 positive multiples of 20: 20, 40, 60, ..., 220.

⇒ Sum of terms = 11 × (20 × (11 + 1)) / 2

⇒ Sum of terms = 11 × (20 × 12) / 2

⇒ Sum of terms = 11 × 240 / 2

⇒ Sum of terms = 11 × 120 = 1320

⇒ Average = 1320 / 11

⇒ Average = 120

∴ The correct answer is 120.

Given:

Original radius = r

New radius = 2r

Original height = h

New height = h / 3

Formula Used:

Volume of a cone = (1 / 3) × π × r² × h

Calculation:

Original volume = (1 / 3) × π × r² × h

New volume = (1 / 3) × π × (2r)² × (h / 3)

⇒ New volume = (1 / 3) × π × 4r² × (h / 3)

⇒ New volume = (1 / 3) × (4 / 3) × π × r² × h

⇒ New volume = (4 / 3) × Original volume

∴ The correct answer is 4 / 3 times.

Given:

First 9 prime numbers: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23

Formula Used:

Sum of prime numbers = Σ(prime numbers)

Calculation:

⇒ 2 + 3 = 5

⇒ 5 + 5 = 10

⇒ 10 + 7 = 17

⇒ 17 + 11 = 28

⇒ 28 + 13 = 41

⇒ 41 + 17 = 58

⇒ 58 + 19 = 77

⇒ 77 + 23 = 100

∴ The correct answer is 100.

Given:

Total distance = 72 km

Total time = 8 hours

Walking speed = 8 km/hr

Cycling speed = 16 km/hr

Formula Used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Total time = Time on foot + Time on bicycle

Calculation:

Let the distance traveled on foot be x km.

⇒ Distance traveled on bicycle = (72 − x) km

Time taken on foot = x / 8 hours

Time taken on bicycle = (72 − x) / 16 hours

Total time = Time on foot + Time on bicycle

⇒ 8 = (x / 8) + ((72 − x) / 16)

Taking LCM of 8 and 16:

⇒ 8 = (2x + 72 − x) / 16

⇒ 8 × 16 = 2x + 72 − x

⇒ 128 = x + 72

⇒ x = 128 − 72

⇒ x = 56

∴ The correct answer is 56 km.

Given:

Time taken by A and B together to complete the task = 21 days

Time taken by B alone to complete the task = 24 days

Formula Used:

Work done in 1 day = 1 / Time taken

Total Work = LCM of individual times

Calculation:

⇒ Total work = LCM of 21 and 24 = 168

⇒ Work done by A and B together in 1 day = Total work / Time taken by A and B together

⇒ Work done by A and B together in 1 day = 168 / 21 = 8 units

⇒ Work done by B alone in 1 day = Total work / Time taken by B alone

⇒ Work done by B alone in 1 day = 168 / 24 = 7 units

⇒ Work done by A alone in 1 day = Work done by A and B together − Work done by B alone

⇒ Work done by A alone in 1 day = 8 − 7 = 1 unit

⇒ Time taken by A alone to complete the task = Total work / Work done by A alone in 1 day

⇒ Time taken by A alone to complete the task = 168 / 1 = 168 days

∴ The correct answer is 168.

Given:

35% of a number is 60 more than its 25%.

Formula Used:

Percentage value = (Percentage × Number) / 100

Difference = 35% of Number − 25% of Number

Calculation:

⇒ 35% of Number = (35 × Number) / 100

⇒ 25% of Number = (25 × Number) / 100

⇒ Difference = (35 × Number) / 100 − (25 × Number) / 100 = 60

⇒ (35 − 25) × Number / 100 = 60

⇒ 10 × Number / 100 = 60

⇒ Number = (60 × 100) / 10

⇒ Number = 600

∴ The correct answer is 600.

Given:

Sides of the triangle are in the ratio 10:17:21.

Perimeter of the triangle = 96 cm.

Total surface area of the prism = 2112 cm².

Formula Used:

Perimeter of triangle = sum of all sides.

Surface area of prism = Perimeter of base × height + 2 × area of base.

Volume of prism = Area of base × height.

Area of triangle = √[s(s-a)(s-b)(s-c)], where s = semi-perimeter and a, b, c are sides of the triangle.

Calculation:

⇒ Let the sides of the triangle be 10x, 17x, and 21x.

⇒ 10x + 17x + 21x = 96.

⇒ 48x = 96.

⇒ x = 2.

⇒ Sides of the triangle are 20 cm, 34 cm, and 42 cm.

⇒ Semi-perimeter, s = (20 + 34 + 42) / 2 = 48 cm.

⇒ Area of triangle = √[48(48-20)(48-34)(48-42)].

⇒ Area of triangle = √[48 × 28 × 14 × 6].

⇒ Area of triangle = √(112896) = 336 cm².

⇒ Total surface area = Perimeter of base × height + 2 × Area of base.

⇒ 2112 = 96 × height + 2 × 336.

⇒ 2112 = 96 × height + 672.

⇒ 96 × height = 1440.

⇒ Height = 1440 / 96 = 15 cm.

⇒ Volume of prism = Area of base × height.

⇒ Volume = 336 × 15.

⇒ Volume = 5040 cm³.

∴ The correct answer is 5040.

Given:

63^-13 ÷ 63^-1 × 63^-13

Formula used:

a^m ÷ aⁿ = a^{m − n}

a^m × aⁿ = a^{m + n}

Calculation:

⇒ 63^-13 ÷ 63^-1 × 63^-13

⇒ 63^{-13 − (−1)} × 63^-13

⇒ 63^-12 × 63^-13

⇒ 63^{-12 + (−13)}

⇒ 63^-25

∴ Final value = 63^-25

The correct answer is 'are you'.

 

Key Points

• A positive question tag is required to complete the sentence correctly.
• The sentence begins with a negative statement "You aren't a doctor", so the tag should be positive.
• Option 1: "are you" is grammatically correct and completes the sentence logically.
• Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect because they do not form the appropriate question tag.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "The girl questioned, 'You aren't a doctor, are you?'"

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "did you" is incorrect because it does not match the tense of the sentence.
• Option 3: "will you" is incorrect because it does not logically fit the sentence.
• Option 4: "do you" is incorrect because it does not form the appropriate question tag.

The correct answer is 'more'.

 

Key Points

• The word "more" is used to compare efficiency in this context, making it the most appropriate choice.
• The sentence implies a comparison between the anticipated efficiency and the actual efficiency of the project completion.
• Options 2, 3, and 4 are not suitable in this comparative context. Option 5 is incomplete and does not fit grammatically.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "The project was completed in a more efficient manner than anticipated."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "much" is incorrect because "much" is not used for direct comparisons in this context.
• Option 3: "most" is incorrect because it implies a superlative degree, not a comparison between two entities.
• Option 4: "very" is incorrect because it does not fit grammatically in the sentence.

The correct answer is 'haven't you'.

 

Key Points

• The question tag for a statement in the present perfect tense is formed by using the auxiliary verb "have" and adding a negation "not", followed by the subject "you."
• In this context, "haven't you" is the appropriate question tag to match the sentence "You have completed your school assignment."
• Options 2, 3, and 4 are grammatically incorrect as they do not match the tense or structure of the main statement.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "You have completed your school assignment, haven't you?"

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "do you" is incorrect because it does not align with the present perfect tense of the main sentence.
• Option 3: "are you" is incorrect because it is not used as a question tag with the verb "have" in the present perfect tense.
• Option 4: "would you" is incorrect as it refers to a conditional mood rather than forming a question tag.

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• The paragraph begins with Sentence D, which introduces the topic of tobacco's harmful effects beyond human health.
• Sentence A follows, describing one of the harmful effects of tobacco cultivation: the depletion of soil nutrients.
• Sentence B continues, elaborating on the consequences of soil nutrient depletion and the use of fertilisers.
• Sentence E then provides another dimension to the harmful effects of tobacco: its contribution to deforestation.
• Sentence C concludes the paragraph, giving a specific example of how tobacco processing contributes to environmental degradation.
• The correct sequence is DABEC.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"Tobacco's deleterious influence extends beyond human health. It is a highly erosive crop that rapidly depletes soil nutrients. This requires more fertilisers to be used which further worsens soil quality. The plant is also a major contributor to deforestation. Up to 5.4 kg of wood is required to process 1 kg of tobacco."

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'serendipitious'.

• The correct spelling would be 'serendipitous'.
• The word 'serendipitous' is an adjective which means 'occurring or discovered by chance in a happy or beneficial way'. (सौभाग्यपूर्ण)
• For Example -
• She considered their meeting at the park as a serendipitous coincidence.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'serendipitious'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Believe - accept (something) as true; feel sure of the truth of (विश्वास करना)
• Orchestrated - arrange or direct the elements of (a situation) to produce a desired effect (संचालित करना)
• Occurrence - an incident or event (घटना)

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'aquaintance'.

• The correct spelling would be 'acquaintance'.
• The word 'acquaintance' is a noun which means 'a person one knows slightly, but who is not a close friend'. (परिचित)
• For Example -
• She has a wide circle of acquaintances in the industry.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'aquaintance'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Perseverance - persistence in doing something despite difficulty or delay in achieving success (दृढ़ता)
• Indispensable - absolutely necessary (अनिवार्य)
• Unwavering - steady or resolute; not wavering (अडिग)

The correct answer is 'less'.

 

Key Points

• The word "less" is used for comparative purposes to indicate a smaller degree of accuracy.
• In this context, the sentence is comparing her interpretation of the data with the initial analyses, which makes "less" the appropriate choice.
• Options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect as they do not fit the grammatical or contextual requirements of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: "Her interpretation of the data was less accurate compared to the initial analyses."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "least" is incorrect because it represents the superlative degree, which is not suitable here.
• Option 2: "the least" is incorrect because it also represents the superlative degree and does not fit the comparative context.
• Option 4: "lesser" is incorrect because "lesser" is not used to compare accuracy in this context.

The correct answer is 'more'.

 

Key Points

• The word "more" is used to compare the degree of the adjective "measured" in this sentence.
• The sentence implies a comparison between her reaction and what might be expected in a volatile situation, making the comparative form "more" appropriate.
• Options 1, 3, 4, and 5 are grammatically or contextually incorrect in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: "Her reaction was more measured than one might expect in such a volatile situation."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "much" is incorrect as it does not fit the comparative structure of the sentence.
• Option 3: "most" is incorrect because it indicates the superlative degree, which is not suitable here.
• Option 4: "many" is incorrect as it does not make sense in the context of the sentence.

The correct answer is: Explicit.

Key Points

• The word "ambiguous" means unclear or having more than one possible meaning; something open to interpretation and not easily understood. (अस्पष्ट)
• Example: The instructions provided were ambiguous, leaving the participants confused about the next steps.
• "Explicit" refers to something that is clearly stated or expressed without any ambiguity; it is direct and easy to understand. (स्पष्ट)
• Example: The teacher gave explicit instructions to ensure everyone understood the task properly.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'ambiguous' is 'explicit'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Explicit.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Equivocal (संदिग्ध): Open to more than one interpretation; ambiguous.
• Example: His equivocal answers during the interview caused confusion among the panelists.
• Permissive (अनुमतिपूर्ण): Allowing or characterized by great freedom of behavior.
• Example: The school's permissive policies allowed students to wear casual clothes during the weekdays.
• Inflexible (अडिग): Not capable of bending or changing; rigid.
• Example: Her inflexible attitude made it difficult for the team to adapt to new ideas.

The correct answer is: dug his own grave.

Key Points

• The idiom "dug his own grave" means to take actions that ultimately lead to one's downfall or cause trouble for oneself. (अपने लिए मुसीबत खड़ी करना)
• Example: By ignoring his boss's warnings, he dug his own grave and got fired from his job.
• In the context of the sentence, the intern ignored good advice and caused trouble for himself when the system crashed. This aligns with the meaning of "dug his own grave." (अपने लिए समस्या खड़ी करना)
• Example: Despite repeated cautions, the student skipped classes and dug his own grave when he failed the exams.

Therefore, the correct answer is: dug his own grave.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Flew off the handle (गुस्से में आना): To suddenly become very angry or lose one's temper.
• Example: She flew off the handle when she found out someone had tampered with her project.
• Broke the ice (बातचीत शुरू करना): To initiate conversation or create a relaxed atmosphere in a tense or formal situation.
• Example: The host broke the ice by sharing a funny story at the beginning of the party.
• Asked for the moon (असंभव चीज़ मांगना): To make an unreasonable or impossible request.
• Example: The employee asked for the moon when he demanded a huge raise without contributing much to the company.

The correct answer is: Pacifist.

Key Points

• The word "Pacifist" refers to a person who believes in peace and is opposed to war or violence as a means of settling disputes. (शांतिवादी)
• Example: Gandhi was a pacifist who championed non-violence and peaceful resistance against injustice.
• The word "Pessimist" refers to a person who tends to see the worst aspect of things or believes that the worst will happen. (निराशावादी)
• Example: She is a pessimist who always expects failure, even when circumstances look promising.
• Hence, the correct one-word substitute for "a person who is opposed to war and violence" is "Pacifist".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Pacifist.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Pessimist (निराशावादी): A person who expects the worst outcome in any situation.
• Example: A pessimist might believe that every effort will fail despite clear signs of potential success.
• Fatalist (भाग्यवादवादी): A person who believes that all events are predetermined and inevitable.
• Example: The fatalist resigned himself to his fate, believing that nothing could change his destiny.
• Activist (कार्यकर्ता): A person who campaigns for social or political change.
• Example: The activist organized a peaceful protest to raise awareness about climate change.

The correct answer is: Glossophobia.

Key Points

• The word "Glossophobia" refers to the fear of public speaking. It is derived from the Greek words "glossa," meaning tongue, and "phobos," meaning fear. (सार्वजनिक भाषण का डर)
• Example: Her glossophobia was so severe that she avoided all opportunities to speak in front of an audience.
• "Arachnophobia" refers to an intense fear of spiders and other arachnids. (मकड़ियों का डर)
• Example: He screamed and ran out of the room when he saw a spider on the wall.
• Hence, "Glossophobia" is the correct term for the fear of public speaking, distinguishing it from other phobias.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Glossophobia.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Arachnophobia (मकड़ियों का डर): Fear of spiders and other arachnids.
• Example: She couldn't enter the room because of her arachnophobia after spotting a spider.
• Xenophobia (अजनबियों या विदेशियों का डर): Fear or hatred of strangers or foreigners.
• Example: His xenophobia prevented him from enjoying cultural diversity in his neighborhood.
• Agoraphobia (भीड़-भाड़ या खुली जगह का डर): Fear of open or crowded spaces.
• Example: She avoided going to malls due to her agoraphobia.

The correct answer is: strict.

Key Points

• The word "lenient" means being permissive, tolerant, or not harsh in judgment or punishment. (उदार)
• Example: The teacher was lenient with her students and did not punish them for minor mistakes.
• "Strict" refers to being very rigid, severe, or demanding in adherence to rules or standards. (कठोर)
• Example: The strict parent ensured that their children followed all household rules without exception.
• Hence, the opposite of "lenient" is "strict."

Therefore, the correct answer is: strict.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Prudent (विवेकशील): Acting with or showing care and thought for the future.
• Example: It was prudent of her to save money for emergencies.
• Articulate (स्पष्ट रूप से बोलने वाला): Having the ability to speak fluently and coherently.
• Example: The articulate speaker captivated the audience with his eloquent words.
• Tolerant (सहिष्णु): Showing willingness to allow opinions or behavior that one does not necessarily agree with.
• Example: She was tolerant of different cultures and welcomed diversity in her community.

The correct answer is: Option 1) a fish out of water.

Key Points

• The word "a fish out of water" means feeling uncomfortable or out of place in a new or unfamiliar environment. (अजीब या असहज महसूस करना, जैसे मछली पानी से बाहर)
• Example: When she moved to a new country, she felt like a fish out of water because she didn’t speak the language.
• The phrase "out of his comfort zone" refers to situations where a person feels uneasy or not in their usual, familiar surroundings. (अपने आरामदायक परिवेश से बाहर होना)
• Example: He stepped out of his comfort zone and tried skydiving for the first time.
• Hence, the idiom "a fish out of water" is the most appropriate substitute for "out of his comfort zone."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1) a fish out of water.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Crying wolf (झूठी चेतावनी देना): To raise a false alarm or lie about something so often that people stop believing you.
• Example: After crying wolf so many times, no one believed him when he actually needed help.
• On thin ice (खतरे में होना): Being in a risky or precarious situation.
• Example: You’re on thin ice by skipping your assignments; the teacher might fail you.
• Up a creek without a paddle (मुसीबत में फंसना): Being in a difficult or helpless situation.
• Example: If the car breaks down in the middle of nowhere, we’ll be up a creek without a paddle.

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• The paragraph discusses the inquiry into a tragedy and the state’s response over the years.
• Sentence B is the first sentence as it introduces the victims and the challenges faced:
• "On top of all this, the victims - not just those who were infected, but the loved ones who cared for them, the parents who had to nurse their dying children, those who were orphaned have for decades been gaslit by the state in their search for truth and justice."
• Sentence A follows as it mentions the denial of inquiry and eventual announcement of one:
• "Minister after minister denied their pleas for a public inquiry, it was only in 2017 that Prime Minister Theresa May announced there would be an enquiry into this appalling tragedy that should never have happened."
• Sentence C is the third sentence as it provides details about the inquiry:
• "The enquiry, chaired by Sir Brian Langstaff, will publish its final report next month."
• Sentence D comes next as it discusses the interim report and compensation scheme:
• "But cognisant that so many living victims are on 'borrowed time' - that they are dying as a result of state failures - he published an interim report in April 2023 setting out how a compensation scheme should work so it could be instituted without delay."
• Sentence E is the last sentence as it highlights the lack of compensation and interim payout details:
• "A year later, almost 100 further victims are estimated to have died. Yet no compensation has been paid save for an interim payout of £100,000 in October 2022 that was made only to living victims and the bereaved partners of those who died."
• The correct sequence is B, A, C, D, E.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"On top of all this, the victims - not just those who were infected, but the loved ones who cared for them, the parents who had to nurse their dying children, those who were orphaned have for decades been gaslit by the state in their search for truth and justice. Minister after minister denied their pleas for a public inquiry, it was only in 2017 that Prime Minister Theresa May announced there would be an enquiry into this appalling tragedy that should never have happened. The enquiry, chaired by Sir Brian Langstaff, will publish its final report next month. But cognisant that so many living victims are on 'borrowed time' - that they are dying as a result of state failures - he published an interim report in April 2023 setting out how a compensation scheme should work so it could be instituted without delay. A year later, almost 100 further victims are estimated to have died. Yet no compensation has been paid save for an interim payout of £100,000 in October 2022 that was made only to living victims and the bereaved partners of those who died."

The correct answer is 'constructed'.

 

Key Points

• The passage discusses how cultural memory is an active process.
• The chosen word should indicate a continuous process of building and interpreting memory.
• "Constructed" fits well as it denotes the creation and formation of memory, which aligns with the context.
• Other options ("erased", "challenged", "fabricated") do not fit the context of discussing how memory is actively shaped and reinterpreted.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Complete Passage: The concept of cultural memory plays a vital role in how societies understand their collective past. Unlike individual memory, which is often fragmented and subjective, cultural memory refers to shared narratives that are passed down through generations via texts, rituals, and institutions. This form of memory is not merely a passive recollection but an active process that both reflects and (1)________ identity.

In contemporary discourse, cultural memory is often invoked to examine how nations commemorate traumatic events. Monuments, museums, and literature serve as physical and symbolic (2)________ However, cultural memory is not immune to distortion. Political agendas frequently shape what is remembered and what is (3)________ revealing power dynamics within the act of remembering.

Additionally, globalisation complicates the notion of cultural memory, as it introduces transnational narratives that may challenge or (4)________ national ones. The task for scholars, therefore, is to analyse not only what is preserved but also how memory is framed and mediated.

Ultimately, cultural memory serves as a site of both continuity and contestation, reminding us that memory is never static but constantly being (5)constructed and reinterpreted.

 

Additional Information

• Erased: "Erased" means removed or wiped out, which does not fit the context of discussing the continued shaping of memory.
• Challenged: "Challenged" means called into question, which does not reflect the idea of ongoing formation.
• Fabricated: "Fabricated" means made up or invented, which may imply falsehood rather than the genuine process described.