The logic followed here is,

Logic: (First Term / 2) x 5 = Second Term

For (16 : 40):

(16 / 2) x 5 = 8 x 5 = 40 (Correct)

For (28 : 70):

(28 / 2) x 5 = 14 x 5 = 70 (Correct)

Applying the logic to find the missing term (34 : ?) :

First Term = 34

→ 34 / 2 = 17

→ 17 x 5 = 85

Thus, the number that corresponds to 34 is 85.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given Expression: T + Z # S @ Q % R We analyze the expression to decode the family structure:

1. T + Z: T is married to Z.
2. Z # S: Z is the father of S.
3. S @ Q: S is the sister of Q.
4. Q % R: Q is the brother of R.

Family Tree Representation:

Z is the father of S, Q, and R. T is the wife of Z. Therefore, T is the mother of R.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

BODMAS Rule:

According to the question, the letters are interchanged as follows:

Now, given the equation: 37 G 3 D 108 F 6 A 51 D 27 = ?

After interchanging the specified letters, the new equation is:

37 × 3 − 108 ÷ 6 + 51 − 27 = ?

Perform operations according to BODMAS:

→ 37 × 3 − 108 ÷ 6 + 51 − 27

→ 37 × 3 − 18 + 51 − 27

→ 111 + 51 − 18 − 27

→ 162 − 18 − 27

→ 144 − 27

→ 117

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is,

Option 1. MK → OL

Option 2. PN → RO 

Option 3. IG → KJ 

Option 4. FD → HE

Thus, the letter-cluster that DOES NOT belong to that group is IG-KJ.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given:

Statement: A recent study by a famous child psychologist reveals that children below the age of seven years must be kept away from virtual entertainment via electronic devices.

Course of Action:

I. The government must promote awareness programmes for all the citizens stating the harms caused to the children by electronic devices - True (Because, if a study highlights a risk to child development, spreading awareness is a logical and practical step to help the public make informed decisions.)

II. Parents must enrol their children to nearby schools - False (Because, enrolling children in schools does not directly address the issue of electronic device usage at home or the specific findings of the psychologist's study.)

So, Only I follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given:

Dinesh starts from point A and drives 5 km towards the north.

He then takes a right turn and drives 4 km to reach a point B.

Yash starts from point X, which is 3 km west of point A,

And drives 3 km towards the south.

He then takes a left turn and drives 7 km to reach point Y.

Movement of both the person is,

So, the shortest distance between point Y and point B is 8 km.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The given words are: EGO, FLY, GEL, HAM.

The operations are:

• Each vowel (A, E, I, O, U) is changed to the letter immediately following it (+1).
• Each consonant is changed to the letter immediately preceding it (-1).

 

The letter-clusters formed are FFP, EKX, FFK, and GBL.

The clusters in which no vowel appears are FFP, FFK, and GBL.

There are three such letter-clusters.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given: A certain number of people are sitting in a row, facing north.

Only two people sit between A and C.

D sits third to the right of A.

B sits fourth to the left of C.

If no other person is sitting in the row,

So, there are 11 persons seated in the row.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is,

Compare 'the one thing I' and 'is to one listen' → Common word is 'one'. Common code is 'as'.

Therefore, one = as.

Compare 'is to one listen' and 'thing like others to' → Common word is 'to'. Common code is 'ik'.

Therefore, to = ik.

Now, 

→ The remaining words in this phrase are 'is' and 'listen'.

→ The remaining codes are 'uj' and 'ol'.

Since there are no other phrases provided containing 'is' or 'listen', we cannot definitively distinguish between these two codes.

Thus, the possible code for listen is either uj or ol.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given: Eight people are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each in such a way that there is equal distance between adjacent persons.

In row 1, A, D, G and F are seated and all of them are facing the south.

In row 2, P, R, N and Z are seated and all of them are facing the north.

Thus, each person faces another person from the other row.

R sits to the immediate right of N. Only two people sit between F and A. N faces F.

The one who faces G sits to the immediate left of Z. P does not sit at any of the extreme ends.

So, R faces D.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is.

Thus, the letter-cluster that DOES NOT belong to that group is KIP.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given: A certain number of people are sitting in a row, facing north.

Q sits ninth to the left of S.

R sits third to the right of S.

T sits to the immediate left of R.

Only one person sits between T and U.

P sits third to the right of R.

If no other person is sitting in the row, then the total number of persons seated in the row is 16.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The given equation is:

(63 ÷ 7) + (12 × 9) + (21 × 2) – 48 = 85

Option 2: Interchange 7 and 9

• The number 7 is replaced by 9.
• The number 9 is replaced by 7.

The new equation becomes:

(63 ÷ 9) + (12 × 7) + (21 × 2) – 48 = 85

Now, we solve the equation following the BODMAS rule:

= (63 ÷ 9) + (12 × 7) + (21 × 2) − 48

= 7 + 84 + 42 − 48

= 91 + 42 − 48

= 133 − 48

= 85

Since 85 = 85, the equation is correct.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is,

Given analogy: # : JED :: VSP : %

Analysis of All Options:

Option 1) # = PRT, % = SWY

For # (PRT) to JED:

For VSP to % (SWY):

Option 2) # = DFG, % = JUY

For # (DFG) to JED:

For VSP to % (JUY):

Option 3) # = DKX, % = BMV

For # (DKX) to JED:

For VSP to % (BMV):

Both pairs follow the same pattern: (+6, -6, +6).

Option 4) # = POJ, % = ZFU

For # (POJ) to JED:

For VSP to % (ZFU):

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Thus, the missing number in the series is 154.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The given words are: QOU, RAG, BUN, PER.

The operations are:

• Each vowel is changed to the letter immediately following it (+1).
• Each consonant is changed to the letter immediately preceding it (-1).

The letter-clusters formed are PPV, QBF, AVM, and OFQ.

The clusters in which no vowel appears are PPV and QBF.

There are two such letter-clusters.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is.

Thus, the letter-cluster that DOES NOT belong to that group is SCE.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The number of people who are neither Actors nor Musicians is the section of the Educator circle that does not overlap with any other circle.

So, the number of Educators who are neither Actors nor Musicians is 14.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is,

Logic: (First Term)³ = Second Term

For (6 : 216):

6 x 6 x 6 = 216 (Correct)

for (9 : 729):

9 x 9 x 9 = 729 (Correct)

Applying the logic to find the missing term (8 : ?) :

First Term = 8

→ 8 x 8 x 8 = 512

Thus, the number that corresponds to 8 is 512.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is,

Option 1. HK → GJ 

Option 2. NQ → MP 

Option 3. PS → OR  

Option 4. LO → KM 

Thus, the letter-cluster that DOES NOT belong to that group is LO-KM.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The correct answer is President of India.

Key Points

• Article 72 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President of India to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit, or commute the sentence of any person convicted of an offense.
• The President exercises these powers in cases where the punishment or sentence is given under laws relating to matters within the Union's executive power.
• This power extends to offenses against laws enacted by Parliament, sentences imposed by courts-martial, and death sentences.
• The President's pardoning power is an important aspect of India's criminal justice system and is meant to correct judicial errors or offer mercy in exceptional circumstances.
• It is a discretionary power that the President exercises based on recommendations made by the Ministry of Home Affairs.

Additional Information

• Prime Minister (Option 1):
• The Prime Minister is the head of the government and leads the executive branch but does not have the constitutional power to grant pardons.
• He/she advises the President on various matters through the Council of Ministers but cannot independently exercise pardoning powers.
• Attorney General of India (Option 2):
• The Attorney General is the highest law officer in India and serves as the chief legal advisor to the government.
• While the Attorney General provides legal opinions and represents the government in legal cases, they do not have the authority to pardon or commute sentences.
• Chief Justice of India (Option 4):
• The Chief Justice of India heads the judiciary and the Supreme Court but does not possess the executive power to grant pardons.
• The judiciary can review the validity of decisions made by the executive but does not have the constitutional authority to issue pardons.

The correct answer is agriculture.

Key Points

• The Diwan-i amir-i kohi was a specialized department established by Muhammad Bin Tughlaq, who ruled Delhi from 1325 to 1351.
• This department was dedicated to the promotion and management of agriculture and aimed at increasing agricultural productivity across the empire.
• The department focused on providing loans (known as takavi loans) to farmers for irrigation, purchasing seeds, and other agricultural necessities.
• It played a critical role in implementing land reforms and ensuring the efficient use of agricultural resources under Muhammad Bin Tughlaq's reign.
• The initiative demonstrated Muhammad Bin Tughlaq's progressive vision for economic development, though the schemes often faced challenges due to administrative inefficiency.

Additional Information

• Major Experiments & Reforms (Often Failed):
• Transfer of Capital: Moved capital from Delhi to Daulatabad (Devagiri), causing immense hardship and dissent.
• Token Currency: Introduced copper coins as substitutes for silver, devaluing them and leading to economic chaos.
• Agricultural Reforms: Established a Department of Agriculture (Diwan-i-Kohi), introduced crop rotation, and created state farms, but failed during famine.
• Expeditions: Launched costly campaigns, including a failed one into the Himalayas, potentially aiming for China.

The correct answer is Labour Force – Work Force.

Key Points

• The term Labour Force refers to the total number of people who are either employed or actively seeking employment.
• The Work Force is a subset of the Labour Force, consisting of individuals who are currently employed.
• The difference between Labour Force and Work Force, i.e., Labour Force – Work Force, represents the number of unemployed individuals who are willing to work but do not have jobs.
• This figure is used to calculate the unemployment rate, which is a critical indicator of a nation's economic health.
• Unemployment includes those who are part of the Labour Force but not engaged in any economic activity, even though they are willing and available to work.

Additional Information

• Key Types of Unemployment
• Frictional: Short-term, voluntary job searching (e.g., new grad or person switching jobs); often a sign of healthy labor mobility.
• Structural: Mismatch of skills or location; technology (automation) or industry shifts (e.g., coal miners in a green economy) causes this, requiring retraining, notes Unstop and BYJU'S, as explained in Vajiram & Ravi, Unacademy and YouTube.
• Cyclical: Tied to business cycles; increases during recessions (e.g., fewer construction workers during housing downturns).
• Seasonal: Occurs at specific times of the year (e.g., farm laborers, tourism workers).
• Disguised (Hidden): More people working than needed for output; common in agriculture, where removing some workers doesn't decrease production (zero marginal productivity).

The correct answer is Tripura.

Key Points

• Ganga Puja is a significant religious festival celebrated in the northeastern state of Tripura.
• The festival is primarily observed by tribal communities such as the Tripuri, Reang, and Jamatia tribes.
• It involves worshiping the River Ganga to seek blessings for protection from natural calamities such as floods and for prosperity in agriculture.
• The rituals include offerings, prayers, and sacrifices made near the banks of rivers or streams, symbolizing devotion to nature and water bodies.
• Ganga Puja reflects the deep cultural and spiritual connection of the tribal communities with natural elements and resources.

Additional Information

• Mizoram
• Mizoram is known for its diverse tribal festivals, such as Chapchar Kut, celebrated to mark the end of the jhum cultivation process.
• Chapchar Kut involves traditional dances, music, and cultural activities reflecting the heritage of the Mizos.
• Another major festival is Anthurium Festival, which highlights the importance of floriculture and tourism in the state.
• Sikkim
• Sikkim is renowned for its Buddhist festivals, such as Losar, the Tibetan New Year celebration.
• Other significant festivals include Saga Dawa, commemorating the life of Lord Buddha, and Phang Lhabsol, which celebrates the protector deity of Sikkim, Mount Kanchenjunga.
• These festivals showcase the state's rich Buddhist traditions and cultural vibrancy.
• Assam
• Assam is famous for its Bihu festivals, marking the agricultural cycles of the state.
• Among the three Bihu festivals, Bohag Bihu celebrates the Assamese New Year, Magh Bihu marks the end of the harvesting season, and Kati Bihu is observed during the sowing season.
• Other notable festivals include Ambubachi Mela, held at the Kamakhya Temple, and Majuli Raas, showcasing dramatic performances based on Lord Krishna's life.

The correct answer is Artificial sweeteners.

Key Points

• Aspartame, Saccharin, and Sucralose are artificial sweeteners, substances used to sweeten food and beverages without adding calories.
• These compounds are many times sweeter than sugar, allowing for smaller quantities to achieve the desired sweetness.
• Aspartame: It is a low-calorie artificial sweetener approved for use in various food products. It is approximately 200 times sweeter than sucrose and commonly found in diet sodas, sugar-free gum, and other low-calorie products.
• Saccharin: This is one of the oldest artificial sweeteners, discovered in 1879. It is non-caloric and up to 300–400 times sweeter than sugar, often used in tabletop sweeteners and processed foods.
• Sucralose: A calorie-free sweetener made from sugar through a chemical process that replaces hydrogen-oxygen groups with chlorine atoms, making it 600 times sweeter than sugar and stable at high temperatures, ideal for baking.

Additional Information

• Artificial food preservatives:
• These are substances added to food to prevent spoilage caused by microorganisms, oxidation, or enzymatic reactions.
• Common examples include sodium benzoate, citric acid, and ascorbic acid.
• Preservatives are used to extend the shelf life of food products and maintain their quality during storage and transportation.
• Artificial food colours:
• Artificial food colours are synthetic chemicals added to food to enhance its appearance or restore the color lost during processing.
• Examples include Tartrazine (yellow), Sunset Yellow, and Brilliant Blue.
• These are regulated by food safety authorities to ensure they are safe for consumption.
• Artificial fat stabilising agents:
• These are additives used in food processing to maintain the stability of emulsions, such as in salad dressings, mayonnaise, and ice creams.
• Examples include lecithin, mono- and diglycerides, and polysorbates.
• They help prevent the separation of oil and water phases in food products.

The correct answer is Gopi Thotakura.

Key Points

• Gopi Thotakura, an Indian-origin entrepreneur and philanthropist, became the first Indian space tourist to venture into space through the Blue Origin NS-25 mission in May 2024.
• He is the second Indian to travel to space after Rakesh Sharma, who flew aboard the Soviet Soyuz T-11 in 1984.
• Blue Origin, founded by Jeff Bezos, is a private aerospace company that provides suborbital spaceflight experiences through its New Shepard spacecraft.
• The NS-25 mission was designed to provide tourists with a unique opportunity to experience weightlessness and view Earth from the edge of space.
• Gopi Thotakura's achievement marked a milestone in India's representation in private space tourism ventures.

Additional Information

• Meenakshi Aggarwal
• There is no record of Meenakshi Aggarwal being involved in space tourism or related ventures.
• Her mention in this context might be hypothetical or irrelevant.
• Ritu Karidhal
• Ritu Karidhal is an accomplished Indian scientist and aerospace engineer who played a key role in ISRO's Mars Orbiter Mission (Mangalyaan) and Chandrayaan-2 mission.
• Dubbed as the "Rocket Woman of India," she is known for her contributions to India's space exploration initiatives but has not participated in space tourism missions.
• Srinivas Laxman
• Srinivas Laxman is a veteran journalist and space science writer who has extensively covered India's space missions.
• Although he has contributed greatly to publicizing India's space achievements, he is not associated with space tourism or space travel.

The correct answer is Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali.

Key Points

• The 92^nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003, added four languages to the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution: Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali.
• The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution lists the official languages recognized by the Constitution of India.
• Prior to the amendment, there were 18 languages in the Eighth Schedule; the addition of these four languages increased the total to 22 official languages.
• These languages were included in response to demands from various linguistic communities for recognition and preservation of their languages.
• The amendment was published in the Gazette of India on 8 January 2004, following its enactment in 2003.

Additional Information

• The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution:
• The Eighth Schedule initially recognized 14 languages in 1950.
• It has undergone several amendments to include more languages, with the latest being the 92^nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003.
• Currently, it includes 22 languages, reflecting India's linguistic and cultural diversity.
• Languages included in the Eighth Schedule are eligible for development and promotion by the government, ensuring their preservation and growth.

The correct answer is Persian.

Key Points

• 'Tabaqat-i-Nasiri' is a medieval historical text written by Minhaj-i-Siraj, a renowned Persian historian.
• The text was originally composed in Persian, which was widely used as the language of administration and scholarship during the medieval period in India.
• It provides an extensive account of the history of the Delhi Sultanate, covering the period from the Ghaznavid dynasty to the early years of the Slave dynasty.
• Minhaj-i-Siraj served as a court historian to Sultan Nasiruddin Mahmud, which is evident in the detailed and systematic approach taken in writing this text.
• 'Tabaqat-i-Nasiri' is organized into 23 sections or “tabakat,” reflecting the chronological and dynastic categorization of historical events.

Additional Information

• Urdu:
• Urdu is a modern Indo-Aryan language that evolved during the Mughal period, primarily in northern India.
• It is heavily influenced by Persian, Arabic, and Turkish, but was not the primary language used in medieval historical texts such as 'Tabaqat-i-Nasiri.'
• Urdu gained prominence as a literary and cultural language much later, during the Mughal era, especially under the patronage of poets like Mir Taqi Mir and Ghalib.
• Arabic:
• Arabic was a sacred and scholarly language in medieval India, used predominantly for religious texts, theological discourses, and Islamic jurisprudence.
• While Arabic influenced Persian, 'Tabaqat-i-Nasiri' was written in Persian, which served as the lingua franca of the courts and administration.
• Arabic was rarely used for historical chronicles in the Indian subcontinent during this period.
• Sindhi:
• Sindhi is an ancient Indo-Aryan language spoken predominantly in the Sindh region (modern-day Pakistan and parts of India).
• While Sindhi has a rich literary tradition, it was not used for writing historical texts like 'Tabaqat-i-Nasiri,' which were primarily intended for courtly and administrative audiences.
• Sindhi literature is known for poetry and devotional writings, but its scope in medieval historiography remained limited.

The correct answer is He is the Chairperson of Business Advisory Committee of the Parliament.

Key Points

• The Prime Minister of India is not the Chairperson of the Business Advisory Committee (BAC) of the Parliament; this role is undertaken by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha in the case of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha in the case of the Rajya Sabha.
• The Business Advisory Committee is responsible for allocating time for the discussion of legislative and other business brought before the House.
• The Prime Minister, being the head of the government, does not assume this role as it falls under the domain of parliamentary procedural management led by the presiding officers of the respective Houses.
• Hence, this statement is factually incorrect regarding the role of the Prime Minister of India.

Additional Information

• Key Roles & Functions:
• Head of Government: Leads the executive branch and the Council of Ministers.
• Chief Advisor: Serves as the main link and advisor to the President, informing them of government decisions.
• Cabinet Leader: Presides over cabinet meetings, assigns ministerial portfolios, and can recommend ministers for dismissal.
• Legislative Link: Communicates cabinet decisions to the President and guides appointments of key officials.
• National Representative: Represents the country in international forums.
• Head of Key Bodies: Leads entities like the Nuclear Command Authority, NITI Aayog, and Dept. of Atomic Energy.

The correct answer is Lakshadweep.

Key Points

• According to the Census 2011, Lakshadweep is the most literate union territory in India, with a literacy rate of 91.85%.
• It surpassed other union territories in terms of literacy due to the implementation of effective educational policies and programs.
• The high literacy rate in Lakshadweep is attributed to universal primary education, high enrollment ratios, and community-driven educational initiatives.
• Special emphasis on the education of women and marginalized communities has contributed significantly to the overall literacy rate.
• Efforts such as the establishment of quality schools and the active participation of the local administration have played a crucial role in achieving this milestone.

Additional Information

• Daman and Diu
• Daman and Diu had a literacy rate of 87.07% as per Census 2011, making it one of the most literate union territories in India.
• The literacy drive in Daman and Diu focused on improving educational infrastructure and promoting adult education programs.
• Despite significant progress, it falls behind Lakshadweep in terms of overall literacy rate.
• Andaman and Nicobar Islands
• The Andaman and Nicobar Islands recorded a literacy rate of 86.63% in Census 2011.
• Efforts to improve literacy in the region include government schemes, vocational training programs, and the establishment of schools in remote areas.
• The geographical challenges of the islands have posed certain limitations to achieving higher literacy rates.
• Chandigarh
• Chandigarh had a literacy rate of 86.77% as per Census 2011.
• It is known for having a robust educational infrastructure with numerous schools, colleges, and institutions for higher education.
• However, the literacy rate of Chandigarh is lower compared to Lakshadweep.

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• In 2011-12, the national poverty line was calculated based on the Tendulkar Committee methodology, which emphasized consumption expenditure.
• Madhya Pradesh had a poverty level higher than the national average during this period, with a significant percentage of its population living below the poverty line.
• The state’s poverty rate was influenced by factors such as low agricultural productivity, lack of industrialization, and inadequate employment opportunities.
• As per the data from the Planning Commission, Madhya Pradesh exhibited a poverty level of approximately 31.6%, which was higher than the national average of 21.9% in 2011-12.
• Efforts to reduce poverty in Madhya Pradesh have included various state and central government schemes targeting rural development, employment generation, and social welfare.

Additional Information

• Karnataka:
• The state’s poverty rate was approximately 20.9%, as reported by the Planning Commission.
• Initiatives such as the Karnataka Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme have contributed to poverty reduction in the state.
• Andhra Pradesh:
• The state benefitted from agricultural development and welfare programs such as the Indira Kranti Patham (IKP) aimed at rural poverty alleviation.
• Efforts like promoting self-help groups and microfinance have played a key role in reducing poverty levels.
• West Bengal:
• The state has focused on rural development and poverty alleviation programs, such as the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA).
• Urban areas of West Bengal have seen significant economic growth, contributing to poverty reduction.

Important Points

• Poverty is measured using consumption expenditure surveys conducted by the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO).
• The Tendulkar Committee’s methodology considers factors such as calorie intake, education, and health expenditures.
• States with high poverty levels often face challenges related to unemployment, low agricultural productivity, and lack of access to basic services.
• Government schemes like the Public Distribution System (PDS), MGNREGA, and National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) have been critical in addressing poverty across India.

The correct answer is Uttarakhand.

Key Points

• The 'Pirul Lao-Paise Pao' campaign is an environmental and economic initiative launched by the Uttarakhand government.
• This initiative focuses on collecting pine needles (locally called "pirul") from forests to reduce the risk of forest fires in the state.
• Pine needles are highly flammable and contribute significantly to forest fires, which are a recurring problem in Uttarakhand's forested areas.
• Under this scheme, the collected pine needles are used to produce biofuel, briquettes, and other eco-friendly products, thereby creating employment opportunities for local communities.
• The campaign is aligned with the state’s broader goals of environmental conservation and sustainable development.

Additional Information

• Sikkim
• Sikkim is known for its organic farming initiatives and was declared India's first organic state in 2016.
• The state has implemented the "Sikkim Organic Mission" to promote sustainable agricultural practices and eliminate the use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides.
• Sikkim also focuses on eco-tourism and is home to Kanchenjunga National Park, a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
• Uttar Pradesh
• Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state in India and is known for its cultural heritage, including the Taj Mahal, a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
• The state has implemented several welfare schemes such as "One District, One Product" (ODOP) to promote indigenous products and crafts.
• It is also a major agricultural producer, contributing significantly to India’s food grain output.
• Himachal Pradesh
• Himachal Pradesh is known for its mountainous terrain and tourism, with destinations like Shimla, Manali, and Dharamshala.
• The state has launched initiatives like the "Himachal Grihini Suvidha Yojana" to provide LPG connections to households and reduce indoor air pollution.
• Hydropower is a significant sector in Himachal Pradesh, contributing to its economy and energy generation.

The correct answer is 82.27 metres.

Key Points

• Neeraj Chopra achieved a throw of 82.27 metres to secure the gold medal in the men's javelin throw event at the Federation Cup 2024.
• The Federation Cup 2024 was held in Bhubaneswar, Odisha, and is officially known as the 27^th National Federation Senior Athletics Competition.
• Neeraj Chopra is India's star javelin thrower and Tokyo 2020 Olympic gold medalist, known for consistently remarkable performances in international and national competitions.
• While Neeraj Chopra’s personal best is 89.94 metres, his 82.27-metre throw at this event was sufficient to claim the top spot.
• The Federation Cup serves as a qualification event for various international tournaments, making Neeraj's performance pivotal in the context of future championships.

Additional Information

• Key Indian Javelin Throwers
• Kishore Jena: Finished in the top ranks at the 2023 Asian Games and 2023 World Championships.
• Annu Rani: The current national record holder for Indian women in javelin.
• Shivpal Singh: An Olympian and Asian Championship medalist.
• Davinder Singh Kang: First Indian to qualify for a World Championship final.

The correct answer is Jhelum River.

Key Points

• The Jhelum River is known as 'Vitasta' (or Vetesta) in Sanskrit, a name derived from ancient Indian texts like the Rigveda and Nilmata Purana.
• The river originates from Verinag Spring located at the foot of the Pir Panjal range in Jammu and Kashmir, India.
• It is one of the five rivers of the Punjab region, eventually joining the Chenab River in Pakistan.
• The Jhelum holds religious and historical significance, being associated with the ancient Vedic era and referenced in Hindu mythology.
• It plays a vital role in the irrigation system of both India and Pakistan under the Indus Waters Treaty.

Additional Information

• Krishna River:
• The Krishna River originates from the Mahabaleshwar region in Maharashtra and is one of the longest rivers in India.
• It flows through Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh before emptying into the Bay of Bengal.
• The Krishna River is not referred to as 'Vetesta' in Sanskrit; instead, it is historically linked to names like Krishnaveni.
• Brahmaputra River:
• The Brahmaputra River originates from the Angsi Glacier near the Mansarovar Lake in Tibet, where it is known as Tsangpo.
• It flows through Tibet, India (Assam), and Bangladesh, eventually merging with the Ganges and forming the world’s largest delta.
• The Brahmaputra is not called 'Vetesta'; instead, it has various regional names like Jamuna in Bangladesh.
• Yamuna River:
• The Yamuna River, a major tributary of the Ganges, originates from the Yamunotri Glacier in Uttarakhand, India.
• It flows through northern India, including states like Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, and Delhi, before merging with the Ganges at Prayagraj (Allahabad).

The correct answer is NABARD.

Key Points

• NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development) was established on 12 July 1982, based on the recommendations of the Shivaraman Committee.
• It was formed to promote sustainable and equitable agricultural and rural development through credit support, development programs, and infrastructure creation.
• NABARD is responsible for regulating and refinancing regional rural banks (RRBs), cooperative banks, and other financial institutions that provide credit to agriculture and rural development sectors.
• The institution also focuses on capacity building and the promotion of rural innovations to improve the livelihoods of farmers and rural communities.
• NABARD plays a pivotal role in implementing government schemes related to agriculture, microfinance, and rural development, including the Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF).

Additional Information

• LIC (Life Insurance Corporation of India):
• LIC is a state-owned insurance and investment corporation established on 1 September 1956 under the LIC Act of 1956.
• It primarily provides life insurance services to individuals and groups and is the largest life insurance company in India.
• LIC does not deal with agricultural credit or rural development financing directly.
• IFCI (Industrial Finance Corporation of India):
• IFCI was established in 1948 as the first development financial institution in India.
• Its primary role is to provide medium and long-term financial assistance to the industrial sector in India.
• While IFCI supports industrial development, it is not associated with promoting agricultural credit or rural development.
• ICICI (Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India):
• ICICI was established in 1955 as a financial institution to provide project financing and industrial credit.
• It has since evolved into a major private-sector bank in India, offering diverse financial services.
• ICICI does not specialize in agricultural credit or rural development.

The correct answer is Epithelial.

Key Points

• Meristematic tissues are composed of actively dividing cells responsible for the growth of plants.
• These tissues are classified into three types based on their location: Apical, Intercalary, and Lateral meristem.
• The function of meristematic tissues includes primary growth (increase in length) and secondary growth (increase in girth) of plants.
• Epithelial tissue is not a type of meristematic tissue; instead, it is an animal tissue that lines organs and surfaces, functioning in protection, secretion, and absorption.
• The absence of epithelial tissue in plants highlights its irrelevance to plant growth and development.

Additional Information

• Apical Meristem:
• Located at the tips of roots and shoots, apical meristem is responsible for the elongation of the plant body.
• It aids in primary growth, contributing to the formation of leaves, flowers, and other structures.
• Apical meristems produce new cells continuously to facilitate vertical growth.
• Intercalary Meristem:
• Found in the internodes or base of leaves, intercalary meristem helps in the rapid elongation of certain parts of plants.
• This type of meristematic tissue is particularly prominent in monocotyledonous plants, such as grasses.
• It allows plants to recover from grazing or mechanical damage.
• Lateral Meristem:
• Located along the sides of stems and roots, lateral meristem contributes to the thickening (secondary growth) of plants.
• Examples include vascular cambium and cork cambium, which produce secondary tissues such as wood and bark.
• Lateral meristem is a key component in the growth of woody plants.
• Epithelial Tissue:
• Epithelial tissue is found in animals and serves as a protective layer covering organs, cavities, and surfaces.
• It is classified into types such as squamous, cuboidal, and columnar epithelium based on cell shape.
• Its primary functions include protection, secretion, absorption, and filtration.
• Unlike meristematic tissues, epithelial tissues are not involved in plant growth or development.

The correct answer is Power of superintendence over courts dealing with armed forces.

Key Points

• The High Courts in India do not have the power of superintendence over courts or tribunals that deal with armed forces.
• Courts dealing with armed forces fall under the jurisdiction of separate laws such as the Army Act, 1950, and are overseen by military tribunals like the Armed Forces Tribunal (AFT).
• The Armed Forces Tribunal Act, 2007, provides for the establishment of the AFT, which exclusively handles disputes and complaints related to the service matters of armed forces personnel.
• The power of superintendence of High Courts is generally restricted to subordinate courts and tribunals within their respective territorial jurisdiction, as per Article 227 of the Indian Constitution.
• The absence of superintendence over military courts reflects the distinct legal framework governing the armed forces, separate from the civilian judicial system.

Additional Information

• Power to issue writs:
• Under Article 226 of the Indian Constitution, High Courts have the power to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights and for other purposes.
• This power makes High Courts a key guardian of fundamental rights at the state level.
• Types of writs include habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto, and certiorari.
• Power to appoint officers and servants of High Courts:
• Under Article 229 of the Constitution, the Chief Justice of a High Court is empowered to appoint officers and servants of the court.
• This authority ensures the smooth functioning and administration of the High Court.
• Such appointments are subject to rules made by the Chief Justice, with the approval of the Governor of the state.
• Power to transfer cases to itself from subordinate courts:
• Under Section 24 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC), High Courts have the authority to transfer cases from one subordinate court to another or to itself.
• This power is used to ensure the fair and efficient administration of justice.
• It applies to both civil and criminal cases.

The correct answer is Only B is correct..

Key Points

• The outermost range of the Himalayas is known as the Shiwaliks or the Sub-Himalayan Range.
• Shiwaliks extend from the Indus River in the west to the Brahmaputra River in the east, covering a vast portion of northern India.
• They consist of unconsolidated sediments brought down by rivers from the higher ranges and have an average height ranging between 600–1500 meters.
• The Shiwalik range is characterized by narrow valleys known as 'Duns,' such as Dehradun and Kotli Dun.
• Statement B is correct because the Shiwaliks form the outermost range of the Himalayas, while Statement A is incorrect as the easternmost boundary of the Himalayas is marked by the Namcha Barwa peak in Arunachal Pradesh, not the Tista River.

Additional Information

• Physical & Geographical Features of the Himalayas:
• Extreme Heights: Home to Earth's highest peaks, including Mount Everest (8,848.86 m).
• Arc Shape & Extent: A vast crescent-shaped range stretching about 2,400 km from the Indus to the Brahmaputra.
• Parallel Ranges: Divided into distinct parallel belts (Great/Himadri, Lesser/Middle, Outer/Siwalik).
• Glaciers: Contains massive glaciers (e.g., Siachen, Gangotri) that are crucial water sources.
• Deep Gorges: Cut by incredibly deep river gorges due to significant erosion.

The correct answer is Shuddhi Movement.

Key Points

• The Shuddhi Movement, initiated by Swami Dayanand Saraswati and later popularized by the Arya Samaj, aimed at the reconversion of individuals who had left Hinduism for other religions.
• It was a significant step towards preserving Hindu identity and countering mass conversions by Christian missionaries and Islamic proselytizers.
• The movement played a critical role during the late 19^th and early 20^th centuries and was particularly strong in regions like Punjab and Uttar Pradesh.
• The Shuddhi Movement also worked towards spreading education, eradicating untouchability, and promoting social reforms within the Hindu community.
• This movement is considered an integral part of the Hindu revivalist efforts in colonial India.

Additional Information

• Swadeshi Movement
• It was a nationalist movement that emerged during the partition of Bengal in 1905, led by leaders like Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Bipin Chandra Pal, and Lala Lajpat Rai.
• The movement called for boycotting British goods and promoting indigenous products to strengthen India's economy.
• It also emphasized the ideas of self-reliance (Atmanirbhar Bharat) and resistance against colonial exploitation.
• The Swadeshi Movement laid the foundation for future mass movements during India’s freedom struggle.
• Ahmadiya Movement
• Founded by Mirza Ghulam Ahmad in 1889 in Punjab (present-day Pakistan), this movement aimed to reform Islam and counter Christian missionaries' efforts.
• The Ahmadiya Movement emphasized rationality, spirituality, and social reform, and it rejected jihad in its militant form.
• The movement played a role in spreading Islam to Western countries and countering misconceptions about the religion.
• However, it faced criticism and opposition from orthodox Muslim groups.
• Eki Movement
• The Eki Movement focused on eradicating caste distinctions and promoting unity among various communities.
• It was spearheaded in certain parts of India to bridge social and religious divides.
• The movement worked towards unifying lower-caste groups and providing them with a platform for societal equality and dignity.

The correct answer is September.

Key Points

• The Ladakh Harvest Festival is celebrated in September every year.
• This festival marks the end of the harvesting season and is one of the most important cultural events in Ladakh.
• It showcases the rich cultural heritage of Ladakh through traditional dance, music, and vibrant processions.
• The festival attracts tourists from all over the world, giving them a glimpse of the local lifestyle, handicrafts, and cuisines.
• During this festival, monasteries and villages are decorated, and various sports, including archery and polo, are organized to celebrate the occasion.

Additional Information

• Major Festivals of Ladakh:
• Hemis Festival: Celebrates Guru Padmasambhava's birth with elaborate masked dances (Chams) at Hemis Monastery.
• Losar: The Ladakhi New Year, marked by offerings, chanting, and festivities lasting days.
• Sindhu Darshan Festival: Honors the Indus (Sindhu) River near Leh, symbolizing unity and heritage.
• Ladakh Festival: A general cultural showcase of the region's traditions.

Given:

HCF = 8

LCM = 6200

One number = 248

Formula used:

Product of two numbers = HCF × LCM

Second number = \(\dfrac{\text{Product of two numbers}}{\text{One number}}\)

Calculation:

Product of two numbers = HCF × LCM

⇒ Product = 8 × 6200 = 49600

Second number = \(\dfrac{\text{Product of two numbers}}{\text{One number}}\)

⇒ Second number = \(\dfrac{49600}{248}\) = 200

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Given:

Production in 1990 = 40,000 tonnes

Production in 1991 = 60,000 tonnes

Formula used:

Average = (Sum of observations) ÷ (Number of observations)

Calculation:

Average of 1990 and 1991 = (40 + 60) ÷ 2

⇒ Average = 100 ÷ 2 = 50,000 tonnes

Now, from the bar graph:

Production in 1994 = 50,000 tonnes

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Given:

Ramendra can complete the work in 15 days

Somendra can complete the work in 12 days

Total contracted money = ₹54,000

Formula used:

Efficiency ∝ 1 ÷ Time

Share ∝ Efficiency

Calculation:

Ramendra’s efficiency = 1 / 15

Somendra’s efficiency = 1 / 12

Efficiency ratio = (1 / 15) : (1 / 12)

⇒ Efficiency ratio = 12 : 15 = 4 : 5

Total ratio = 4 + 5 = 9

Ramendra’s share = (4 ÷ 9) × 54000

⇒ Ramendra’s share = 4 × 6000 = ₹24,000

∴ The share of Ramendra is ₹24,000.

Given:

A can do work in 36 days

B can do work in 54 days

C can do work in 72 days

Formula used:

Total work = Sum of (Work Rate × Time)

Calculations:

Let total days = x

Work rate of A = 1 / 36, Work rate of B = 1 / 54, Work rate of C = 1 / 72

A worked for (x − 8) days

B worked for (x − 12) days

C worked for x days

LCM of 36, 54, 72 = 216

⇒ A’s rate = 6 / 216

⇒ B’s rate = 4 / 216

⇒ C’s rate = 3 / 216

⇒ Total work:

⇒ [6(x − 8) + 4(x − 12) + 3x] / 216 = 1

⇒ 6x − 48 + 4x − 48 + 3x = 216

⇒ 13x − 96 = 216

⇒ 13x = 312

⇒ x = 24

∴ Total number of days required = 24 days.

Given:

Value of 9.46\(\overline{7}\) as a vulgar fraction

Formula used:

If a number has a repeating decimal, it can be converted to a vulgar fraction using algebra.

Calculation:

Let x = 9.46\(\overline{7}\)

⇒ x = 9.467777...

Multiply by 10 to shift the decimal:

⇒ 10x = 94.677777...

Multiply by 1000 to shift the repeating part:

⇒ 1000x = 9467.777...

Subtract to eliminate the repeating part:

⇒ 1000x - 10x = 9467.777... - 94.677777...

⇒ 990x = 9373

⇒ x = 9373/990

⇒ x = \(9\frac{421}{900}\)

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹5000

Rate of interest = 4% per annum

Total time = 18 months

Ravi → Compounded half-yearly for 18 months

Ramesh → Compounded annually for 1 year, then Simple Interest for next 6 months

Formula used:

Compound Interest Amount = P × (1 + r/100)ⁿ

Simple Interest = P × r × t / 100

Calculations:

Ravi:

Half-yearly rate = 4 / 2 = 2%

Number of half-years = 18 / 6 = 3

⇒ Amount = 5000 × (1 + 2/100)³

⇒ Amount = 5000 × (1.02)³ = 5306.04

⇒ Ravi’s Interest = 5306.04 − 5000 = 306.04

Ramesh:

After 1 year (CI annually):

⇒ Amount = 5000 × (1 + 4/100)

⇒ Amount = 5000 × 1.04 = 5200

Next 6 months (SI):

⇒ SI = 5200 × 4 × 6 / (100 × 12)

⇒ SI = 104

⇒ Final Amount = 5200 + 104 = 5304

⇒ Ramesh’s Interest = 5304 − 5000 = 304

Difference:

⇒ 306.04 − 304 = 2.04

∴ Ravi receives ₹2.04 more interest than Ramesh.

Given:

Total students = 50

Average weight of all students = 48 kg

Average weight of boys = 55 kg

Average weight of girls = 45 kg

Formula used:

Total weight = Average × Number

Calculation:

Total weight of class = 50 × 48 = 2400 kg

Let number of girls = x

Then number of boys = 50 − x

Total weight of boys = 55 × (50 − x)

Total weight of girls = 45 × x

⇒ 55(50 − x) + 45x = 2400

⇒ 2750 − 55x + 45x = 2400

⇒ 2750 − 10x = 2400

⇒ 10x = 350

⇒ x = 35

∴ The number of girls is 35.

Given:

Distance of race = 500 m

Time taken by A = 18 s

Time taken by B = 25 s

Formula used:

Speed = Distance ÷ Time

Distance covered by B when A finishes = Speed of B × Time taken by A

Calculation:

Speed of B = 500 ÷ 25 = 20 m/s

Distance covered by B when A finishes:

⇒ Distance = 20 × 18 = 360 m

Distance by which A beats B:

⇒ 500 - 360 = 140 m

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Given:

Ratio of investments of U : V : W = 2 : 3 : 4

Ratio of time (in months) = 6 : 8 : 7

Formula used:

Profit ∝ Capital × Time

Percentage = (Difference / V’s share) × 100

Calculations:

U’s share ∝ 2 × 6 = 12

V’s share ∝ 3 × 8 = 24

W’s share ∝ 4 × 7 = 28

Profit ratio = 12 : 24 : 28

Difference between U and W = 28 − 12 = 16

⇒ Required % = 16 / 24 × 100 = 66.67%

∴ The required percentage is 66.67%.

Given:

The average of 13 numbers = 8

Each number is multiplied by 2

Formula used:

New average = Old average × Multiplication factor

Calculation:

⇒ New average = 8 × 2

⇒ New average = 16

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Given:

Time (t) = 4 years

Simple Interest = Principal (P)

We need to find the rate (r) in % per year.

Formula used:

Simple Interest (SI) = \(\frac{P \times r \times t}{100}\)

Amount (A) = Principal (P) + Simple Interest (SI)

Calculation:

Since the amount doubles the principal:

A = 2P

⇒ SI = A - P = P

⇒ \(\frac{P \times r \times t}{100} = P\)

⇒ \(\frac{r \times t}{100} = 1\)

⇒ \(\frac{r \times 4}{100} = 1\)

⇒ r = \(\frac{100}{4}\)

⇒ r = 25%

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Given:

Radius (r) = 20 cm

Formula used:

Surface area of a sphere = 4πr²

Calculation:

Surface area = 4 × 3.14 × 20²

⇒ Surface area = 4 × 3.14 × 400

⇒ Surface area = 5024 cm²

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Given:

Investment ratio of X : Y : Z = 5 : 6 : 7

Total profit = ₹27,000

Formula used:

Share of profit = \(\dfrac{\text{Individual's Ratio}}{\text{Total Ratio}} \times \text{Total Profit}\)

Positive difference = \(\text{Share of Y} - \text{Share of X}\)

Calculation:

Total ratio = 5 + 6 + 7 = 18

Share of X = \(\dfrac{5}{18} \times 27000\) = 7500

Share of Y = \(\dfrac{6}{18} \times 27000\) = 9000

Positive difference = 9000 - 7500 = 1500

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Given:

Selling Price of Battery 1 (SP1) = ₹650, Profit = 30%

Selling Price of Battery 2 (SP2) = ₹950, Loss = 5%

Formula used:

Cost Price = Selling Price × 100 / (100 ± Profit or Loss)

Overall Gain/Loss % = (Total SP − Total CP) / Total CP × 100

Calculations:

For Battery 1:

⇒ CP1 = 650 × 100 / 130 = 500

For Battery 2:

⇒ CP2 = 950 × 100 / 95 = 1000

Total CP = 500 + 1000 = 1500

Total SP = 650 + 950 = 1600

⇒ Gain = 1600 − 1500 = 100

⇒ Gain % = 100 / 1500 × 100 = \(6\frac{2}{3}%\)

∴ Overall gain = \(6\frac{2}{3}%\).

Given:

A woman travelled at a speed of 20 m/min for 100 min and at a speed of 50 m/min for 70 min.

Formula used:

Average speed = Total distance travelled / Total time taken

Calculation:

Total distance travelled = Distance at 20 m/min + Distance at 50 m/min

⇒ Total distance = (20 × 100) + (50 × 70)

⇒ Total distance = 2000 + 3500 = 5500 m

Total time taken = 100 min + 70 min = 170 min

Average speed = Total distance / Total time

⇒ Average speed = 5500 / 170 = m/min

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Given:

Circumference of base of dome = 17.6 m

Cost of painting per 100 cm² = ₹10

Formula used:

Circumference of circle = 2πr

Curved Surface Area of hemisphere = 2πr²

Calculations:

⇒ 2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × r = 17.6

⇒ r = 17.6 × 7 / 44 = 2.8 m

Curved Surface Area = 2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × (2.8)²

⇒ CSA = \(\frac{44}{7}\) × 7.84 = 49.28 m²

⇒ Area in cm² = 49.28 × 10000 = 492800 cm²

⇒ Cost per cm² = 10 / 100 = 0.1

⇒ Total Cost = 492800 × 0.1 = ₹49280

∴ Cost of painting the dome = ₹49,280.

Given:

Cost of the bicycle in 2021 = ₹7,500

Percentage increase = 25%

Formula used:

New cost = Old cost × (1 + (Percentage increase ÷ 100))

Calculation:

New cost = 7500 × (1 + (25 ÷ 100))

⇒ New cost = 7500 × (1 + 0.25)

⇒ New cost = 7500 × 1.25 = 9375

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Given:

Marked Price (MP) = ₹2,280

Discount = 25%

Profit = 14%

Formula used:

Selling Price (SP) = MP × (1 - Discount/100)

Cost Price (CP) = SP / (1 + Profit/100)

Calculation:

SP = ₹2,280 × (1 - 25/100)

⇒ SP = ₹2,280 × 75/100 = ₹1,710

CP = SP / (1 + 14/100)

⇒ CP = ₹1,710 / 1.14 = ₹1,500

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Given:

Selling price at profit (SP1) = ₹1,600

Selling price at loss (SP2) = ₹1,400

Profit % = Loss %

Desired profit % = 20%

Formula used:

Cost Price (CP) = \(\frac{SP1 + SP2}{2}\)

Selling Price for desired profit = \((CP + \frac{Profit %}{100} \times CP)\)

Calculation:

CP = \(\frac{1600 + 1400}{2}\) = ₹1,500

Selling Price for 20% profit = \((1500 + \frac{20}{100} \times 1500)\)

⇒ Selling Price = ₹1,500 + ₹300 = ₹1,800

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Given:

Number is first decreased by 20%

Then increased by 20%

Final number is 80 less than original number

Formula used:

Successive percentage change

x → x × (1 − 20/100) × (1 + 20/100)

Calculation:

Let original number = x

After 20% decrease = x × 80/100

After 20% increase = x × 80/100 × 120/100

⇒ Final value = x × 96/100

Given final value is 80 less than original

⇒ x − x × 96/100 = 80

⇒ x(1 − 96/100) = 80

⇒ x × 4/100 = 80

⇒ x = 2000

∴ The original number is 2000.

The correct answer is: Option 4 (a white elephant).

Key Points

• The phrase "a white elephant" refers to something that is expensive to maintain and is ultimately useless or burdensome. (बेकार और महंगा सामान)
• Example: The newly built stadium turned out to be a white elephant as it remained unused after the tournament.
• The sentence describes the government’s infrastructure project as a waste of money and useless, which aligns with the meaning of "a white elephant." (यह परियोजना महंगी और अनुपयोगी साबित हुई।)

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4 (a white elephant).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• A bull in a china shop (हाथी की तरह बर्ताव करने वाला व्यक्ति): Refers to a clumsy person who causes damage or confusion in a situation.
• Example: He was like a bull in a china shop, knocking over everything as he walked through the narrow aisle.
• A dark horse (अनजान या अप्रत्याशित विजेता): Refers to someone who is not well-known but unexpectedly achieves success.
• Example: The new candidate turned out to be a dark horse in the election, winning by a significant margin.
• A pink elephant (कल्पनाओं में देखी गई चीज़, अक्सर नशे में): Refers to hallucinations, often associated with drunkenness or delirium.
• Example: After drinking too much, he said he saw a pink elephant dancing in the room.

The correct answer is: Transform.

Key Points

• The word "Metamorphose" means to change or transform into a completely different form or nature, especially in a way that is surprising or magical. (परिवर्तन करना)
• Example: Caterpillars metamorphose into butterflies during their life cycle.
• "Transform" refers to changing something in appearance, character, or condition significantly. (रूपांतरण करना)
• Example: A good teacher can transform a student's understanding of difficult concepts.
• Hence, "Transform" is the synonym for "Metamorphose".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Transform.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Transmit (प्रेषित करना): To send or pass something from one person, place, or thing to another.
• Example: The radio tower transmits signals across the city.
• Preserve (संरक्षित करना): To keep something in its original state or protect it from decay or harm.
• Example: We must preserve historical monuments for future generations.
• Rely (निर्भर रहना): To depend on someone or something for support or help.
• Example: You can rely on him to complete the project successfully.

The correct answer is 'elders'.

 

Key Points

• The word 'elders' is the plural form of 'elder' and is used to refer to older people collectively.
• The sentence implies respecting older people in general, which makes the plural form 'elders' appropriate.
• Option 1: 'elder' is incorrect because it refers to a single older person and doesn't fit the context.
• Option 3: 'olders' is grammatically incorrect and not commonly used in English.
• Option 4: 'older' is an adjective and cannot be used as a noun in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: "We should always respect our elders."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: 'elder' is used for a singular older person and does not fit the plural context.
• Option 3: 'olders' is not a valid English word.
• Option 4: 'older' is an adjective and cannot be used as a noun in this case.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• Sentence D is the first sentence because it sets the historical context and introduces the idea of recording connections in Mesopotamia.
• "Somewhere between three and four thousand years ago in Mesopotamia, now modern-day Iraq, people began recording connections they saw in the world that they thought would allow them to understand how things worked and what might be coming in the future."
• Sentence C follows as it provides concrete examples of the recorded connections, moving from medical to esoteric omens.
• "These ranged from medical symptoms — 'if his temporal blood vessels have collapsed and his eyes are blurred, he will die' — to more esoteric connections — 'if there is an eclipse, the king will die'."
• Sentence B is the third sentence because it reflects on the plausibility of such connections with the benefit of historical hindsight.
• "In the second case, there is a pair of connections that we no longer think of as scientifically plausible, if only because the 3000 years of subsequent history have failed to bear out this connection."
• Sentence A is the fourth as it adds a specific historical practice showing how seriously the eclipse omen was treated at the time.
• "Still, at the time, people took it very seriously, even going to considerable lengths to protect the king by appointing a substitute king who could sit on the throne during the eclipse."
• The correct sequence is DCBA.

 

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"Somewhere between three and four thousand years ago in Mesopotamia, now modern-day Iraq, people began recording connections they saw in the world that they thought would allow them to understand how things worked and what might be coming in the future. These ranged from medical symptoms — 'if his temporal blood vessels have collapsed and his eyes are blurred, he will die' — to more esoteric connections — 'if there is an eclipse, the king will die'. In the second case, there is a pair of connections that we no longer think of as scientifically plausible, if only because the 3000 years of subsequent history have failed to bear out this connection. Still, at the time, people took it very seriously, even going to considerable lengths to protect the king by appointing a substitute king who could sit on the throne during the eclipse."

The correct answer is 'first six new computers'.

 

Key Points

• The phrase "first six new computers" is grammatically correct and logically sequenced.
• The adjective order rule in English is followed: quantity (six), opinion or quality (new), and numbering or ranking (first).
• Options 2, 3, and 4 are grammatically incorrect because they disrupt the logical sequence of adjectives.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "The IT department installed the first six new computers in the lab today."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "six new first computers" is incorrect because the adjective order is illogical.
• Option 3: "six computers new first" is incorrect because it disrupts the proper order of modifiers.
• Option 4: "first new six computers" is incorrect as the sequence of adjectives is not correct.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Ended.

Key Points

• The idiom "bit the dust" means to fail, end, or stop being successful. (असफल होना या समाप्त होना)
• Example: Many startups bit the dust during the economic downturn.
• In the given sentence, the idiom refers to the end of the person's cricket career.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Ended.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: Reached success (सफलता प्राप्त करना): Refers to achieving a goal or accomplishment.
• Example: After years of hard work, she finally reached success in her career.
• Option 2: Started (शुरू करना): Refers to beginning something.
• Example: He started his journey towards becoming a professional cricketer at a young age.
• Option 4: Created a sensation (संसार में हलचल पैदा करना): Refers to causing excitement or widespread attention.
• Example: The young singer created a sensation with her debut album.

The correct answer is 'is she'.

 

Key Points

• The statement uses the negative form "isn't" to indicate that Pournami is not coming with us.
• In question tags, a positive question tag is used with a negative statement.
• Option 1 ("was she") is incorrect because the verb tense does not match the present tense of the statement.
• Option 2 ("were she") is incorrect as it is grammatically incorrect to use "were" with "she" in this case.
• Option 4 ("do she") is incorrect as it does not align with the auxiliary "is" used in the main statement.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: "Pournami isn't coming with us, is she?"

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "was she" is incorrect because the statement is in the present tense, not the past tense.
• Option 2: "were she" is incorrect as "were" is not grammatically correct with "she" in this context.
• Option 4: "do she" is incorrect because "do" cannot be used with "she" and does not match the auxiliary verb "is" in the main statement.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'infirmery'.

• The correct spelling would be 'infirmary'.
• The word 'infirmary' is a noun which refers to a place in a large institution for the care of those who are ill or injured. (चिकित्सालय)
• For Example -
• The patient was rushed to the infirmary for immediate medical attention.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'infirmery'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other words in the sentence:

• Incapacitated - deprived of strength or power. (असमर्थ)
• Amenities - desirable or useful features or facilities of a place. (सुविधाएं)
• Equipped - supplied with the necessary items for a particular purpose. (सुसज्जित)

The correct answer is 'most beautiful'.

 

Key Points

• The superlative form "most beautiful" is used to compare one item with all others in a group.
• Here, the sentence compares the dress with all other dresses, so the superlative degree is appropriate.
• Options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect because they do not use the correct superlative form.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: "This dress is the most beautiful of them all."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "beautiful" is incorrect because it is not a superlative form, which is required in the context of comparison.
• Option 3: "much beautiful" is grammatically incorrect as it does not follow proper comparative or superlative structure.
• Option 4: "more beautiful" is incorrect because it is a comparative form, but the sentence requires a superlative form.

The correct answer is: Traitorous.

Key Points

• The word "Treacherous" refers to something or someone who is guilty of or involving betrayal or deception. It also can describe hazardous situations or conditions. (धोखेबाज़, विश्वासघाती)
• Example: He was caught in a treacherous act of leaking confidential information to the enemy.
• "Traitorous" means betraying trust, disloyal, or involving betrayal. (विश्वासघाती)
• Example: Her traitorous actions led to the downfall of the organization.
• Thus, "Traitorous" is the most appropriate synonym for "Treacherous."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Traitorous.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Faithful (विश्वासयोग्य): Loyal, remaining true to someone or something.
• Example: The dog was faithful to its owner and stayed by his side all the time.
• Honest (ईमानदार): Truthful and sincere in behavior.
• Example: She is known for her honest opinions, even in difficult situations.
• Prejudiced (पक्षपाती): Showing bias or preconceived opinion.
• Example: His prejudiced views made it difficult for him to accept new ideas.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• The paragraph introduces the concept of sugar regulation in the body and the functioning of insulin.
• Sentence C is the first sentence as it describes the need for sugar regulation:
• "Every cell in the body needs sugar as an energy source, but too much sugar can be toxic to cells, and this equilibrium needs to be regulated by a lock and key system."
• Sentence A follows as it explains the key mechanism of the system:
• "The key to the system is the pancreatic hormone, insulin, through which the body attempts to manage blood sugar levels and ensure that cells receive the right amount of energy."
• Sentence D is the third sentence because it elaborates on how the system works:
• "Cells cover themselves with locks that respond perfectly to insulin keys to facilitate the entry of sugar into cells."
• Sentence B is the fourth as it highlights the limitation of the system:
• "Unfortunately, this lock and key system doesn’t always perform like this."
• The correct sequence is CADB.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"Every cell in the body needs sugar as an energy source, but too much sugar can be toxic to cells, and this equilibrium needs to be regulated by a lock and key system. The key to the system is the pancreatic hormone, insulin, through which the body attempts to manage blood sugar levels and ensure that cells receive the right amount of energy. Cells cover themselves with locks that respond perfectly to insulin keys to facilitate the entry of sugar into cells. Unfortunately, this lock and key system doesn’t always perform like this."

The correct answer is 'has he'.

 

Key Points

• The question tag must match the auxiliary verb used in the main clause. Here, the auxiliary verb "hasn't" is present in the sentence.
• Since the main clause is in the negative form ("hasn't"), the question tag must be in the affirmative form, i.e., "has he."
• Options 1, 2, and 4 are grammatically incorrect as they do not match the tense or subject-verb agreement of the main clause.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: "Ahmed hasn't composed a symphony, has he?"

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "have he" is incorrect because the auxiliary "have" does not match the main clause.
• Option 2: "had he" is incorrect because "had" is in the past tense, which does not match the present perfect tense of the main clause.
• Option 4: "did he" is incorrect because "did" is in the past tense and does not align with the present perfect tense of the main clause.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'apacolypse'.

• The correct spelling would be 'apocalypse'.
• The word 'apocalypse' is a noun which means 'a great disaster or a prophetic revelation, especially concerning the end of the world'. (प्रलय)
• For Example -
• Many ancient cultures have myths about an apocalypse that destroys the earth.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'apacolypse'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Archaic - very old or old-fashioned (प्राचीन)
• Opine - (मत प्रकट करना)
• Herald - to be a sign that something is about to happen (सूचक)

The correct answer is: Hoarse.

Key Points

• The word "Hoarse" means having a rough or harsh sound, often due to a sore throat or shouting. (कर्कश आवाज़)
• Example: After cheering loudly at the game, her voice became hoarse.
• This aligns with the given group of words "Rough and harsh."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Hoarse.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Hoax (धोखा): A humorous or malicious deception.
• Example: The news about the alien invasion turned out to be a hoax.
• Hobble (लंगड़ाना): To walk in an awkward way, typically because of pain or injury.
• Example: He hobbled across the room after injuring his ankle.
• Hoary (प्राचीन): Old and trite; gray or white with age.
• Example: The hoary tales of ancient warriors are often passed down through generations.

The correct answer is: Grumble.

Key Points

• The word "Complain" means to express dissatisfaction or annoyance about something. (शिकायत करना)
• Example: She complained about the poor service at the restaurant.
• "Grumble" refers to complaining in a bad-tempered or muttered way. It is often associated with expressing dissatisfaction in a low voice. (बड़बड़ाना)
• Example: He grumbled about having to work late on a Friday night.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Grumble.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Gruesome (डरावना): Causing horror or disgust.
• Example: The crime scene was too gruesome for some officers to handle.
• Grunt (गुर्राना): A low, short guttural sound, often made by animals or humans expressing effort or irritation.
• Example: The worker grunted as he lifted the heavy box.
• Grunge (गंदगी): A style or genre of music or fashion associated with a disheveled and messy aesthetic.
• Example: The band played grunge music inspired by the 1990s Seattle scene.

The correct answer is: Option (4) i.e. Fraudulent trade practices and exploitation.

Key Points

• The passage states that the main function of the Consumer Protection Act is to protect consumers from fraudulent trade practices and all kinds of exploitation in the marketplace.
• It aims to provide redressal for consumer grievances and safeguard against unfair dealing.
• The other options (government regulations, competition, price fluctuations) are not mentioned as aims of the Act.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Fraudulent trade practices and exploitation

Additional Information

• Option 1: Not mentioned in the passage.
• Option 2: The Act is not about business competition, but about consumer protection.
• Option 3: The Act does not address price fluctuations.

The correct answer is: Option (3) i.e. The Act has significantly reduced fraudulent trade practices in the marketplace.

Key Points

• The passage refers to the Act as a “landmark legislation” that protects consumers from fraudulent practices and exploitation, and says it has made the consumer movement “powerful, broad-based, effective, and people-oriented.”
• This implies that the Act has had a significant positive impact by reducing fraudulent trade practices in the marketplace.
• The other options are not supported by the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is- The Act has significantly reduced fraudulent trade practices in the marketplace.

Additional Information

• Option 1: The Act is described as effective, not ineffective.
• Option 2: The passage does not say fraudulent practices have been completely eradicated.
• Option 4: The passage does not indicate an increase in fraudulent practices.

The correct answer is: Option 1) Honest i.e. "Honest".

Key Points

• The word "Fraudulent" means dishonest or involving deceit, especially criminal deception. (धोखाधड़ीपूर्ण)
• Example: The company was found guilty of fraudulent activities.
• "Honest" means free of deceit; truthful and sincere. (ईमानदार)
• Example: The honest man returned the lost wallet to its owner.
• Hence, we can infer that the antonym of 'Fraudulent' is 'Honest'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1) Honest i.e. "Honest".

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Hostile (विरोधी): Unfriendly; antagonistic.
• Example: The atmosphere was hostile and tense during the negotiations.
• Respectful (सम्मानजनक): Feeling or showing deference and respect.
• Example: The students were respectful towards their teacher.
• Primary (प्राथमिक): Of chief importance; principal.
• Example: Education is the primary focus of the government's policies.

The correct answer is: Option (1) i.e. The importance of the Consumer Protection Act in protecting consumers.

Key Points

• The passage focuses on the significance of the Consumer Protection Act as a landmark legislation aimed at safeguarding consumers from exploitation and unfair trade practices.
• It highlights the Act’s objectives, principles, and positive impact on empowering consumers and providing mechanisms for redressal.
• The other options are not the central focus; the passage does not emphasize awareness challenges, redressal difficulties, or limitations of the Act.

Therefore, the correct answer is- The importance of the Consumer Protection Act in protecting consumers

Additional Information

• Option 2, 3, 4: These are aspects related to the Act, but the passage’s main theme is its importance and positive impact in consumer protection.

The correct answer is: Option (1) i.e. It provides them with legal recourse for resolving grievances.

Key Points

• The passage states that the Consumer Protection Act gives consumers the right to complain to an authority about grievances and seek speedy redressal and compensation for losses or injuries suffered.
• This means the Act has a direct and practical impact, empowering consumers to address unfair practices and resolve issues in daily transactions.
• The other options are either not supported or contradicted by the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is- It provides them with legal recourse for resolving grievances.

Additional Information

• Option 2: The Act is about consumer protection, not exploitation.
• Option 3: The Act does not restrict consumer choice.
• Option 4: The Act does have practical implications.

सही उत्तर है - खाते हैं

Key Points

• 'पिज़्ज़ा' एक खाद्य पदार्थ है, जिसे 'खाया' जाता है, 'देखा' या 'कहा' नहीं जाता (संदर्भ के अनुसार)। इसलिए 'खाते' सही क्रिया है।
• अतः पूर्ण वाक्य होगा: वे पिज़्ज़ा शौक से खाते हैं।
• जिस शब्द के द्वारा किसी कार्य के करने या होने का बोध होता है उसे क्रिया कहा जाता है।
• जैसे- पीना, पढ़ना, लिखना, दौड़ना, चलना, जाना आदि।​
• घोड़ा तेज दौड़ता है।

Additional Informationकर्म की दृष्टि से क्रिया के दो भेद होते हैं –

• अकर्मक क्रिया
• सकर्मक क्रिया

संरचना या प्रयोग के आधार पर क्रिया के भेद -

• मुख्य क्रिया, सहायक क्रिया, रंजक क्रिया, संयुक्त क्रिया, सरल क्रिया,
• नामिक क्रिया, नामधातु क्रिया, प्रेरणार्थक क्रिया, पूर्वकालिक क्रिया, अनुकरणात्मक क्रिया।

सही उत्तर है - 3241

Key Points

• वाक्य के उचित क्रम -
• 3. दूसरों के साथ अनुचित
• 2. व्यवहार करने से उनके
• 4. मन में तुम्हारे प्रति
• 1. घृणा उत्पन्न हो जाएगी
• व्यवस्थित वाक्य: "दूसरों के साथ अनुचित व्यवहार करने से उनके मन में तुम्हारे प्रति घृणा उत्पन्न हो जाएगी।"

Additional Informatioपदक्रम -

• किसी वाक्य में शब्दों (पदों) के रखने का निश्चित और सही क्रम,
• जिससे वाक्य का अर्थ स्पष्ट हो, जैसे हिंदी में सामान्यतः कर्ता + कर्म + क्रिया (राम सेब खाता है) होता है;
• यह भाषा के अनुसार बदलता है और सही अर्थ के लिए अत्यंत महत्वपूर्ण है, क्योंकि क्रम बदलने से अर्थ बदल जाता है।

सही उत्तर है - प्रमाणु के

Key Points

• अशुद्ध वाक्य - प्रत्येक प्रमाणु के मिलने में एक सम था।
• दिए गये वाक्य में वर्तनी प्रयोग की त्रुटि है,
• ​यहाँ 'प्रमाणु के' सार्थक शब्द नहीं है और इससे सही अर्थ प्रकट नहीं हो रहा।
• ​अत: सार्थक शब्द 'परमाणु के' होना चाहिए।
• शुद्ध वाक्य - प्रत्येक परमाणु के मिलने में एक सम था।
• वर्तनी - किसी शब्द में आये हुए अक्षरों को मात्राओं सहित कहने या लिखने की रीति को वर्तनी कहते हैं।

Additional Information 

 कुछ अशुद्ध शब्द और शुद्ध शब्द -

'कुछ न सुनना' मुहावरे का अर्थ है - कान में तेल डालना

Key Points

• 'कान में तेल डालना' का अर्थ - कुछ न सुनना।
• वाक्य प्रयोग - मैंने उसे कितनी बार समझाया कि बुरी संगत छोड़ दो, पर उसने तो जैसे "कान में तेल डाल रखा है"।
• मुहावरा - ऐसे वाक्यांश, जो सामान्य अर्थ का बोध न कराकर किसी विलक्षण अर्थ को प्रकट करते है, उसे मुहावरा कहते है।
• जैसे : 'पगड़ी रखना' का अर्थ- इज्जत बचाना। वाक्य प्रयोग - हल्दीघाटी में झाला सरदार ने राजपूतों की "पगड़ी रख ली"।​

Important Points 

Additional Information  

सही उत्तर है - मीठा

Key Points

• वाक्य के संदर्भ और व्याकरणिक नियमों के अनुसार सही वाक्य होगा: "जो पान तुमने खाया है, वह मीठा है।"
• यहाँ 'मीठा' पान के स्वाद (गुण) को बता रहा है। अत: 'मीठा'  गुणवाचक विशेषण होगा है।
• जो शब्द संज्ञा या सर्वनाम के गुण, दोष, दशा, अवस्था, रंग, आकार आदि का बोध कराते हैं, उन्हें गुणवाचक विशेषण कहते हैं।
• जैसे - अगला, पिछला, लंबा, चौड़ा, गोल. चौकोर, दुबला, पतला, मोटा, लाल, पीला, उचित, अनुचित, पाप, लखनवी आदि।
• ​वह लड़का अच्छा है।

अन्य विकल्प -

• इकहरा : यह संख्यावाचक (आवृत्तिवाचक) विशेषण है।
• आध : यह परिमाणवाचक (अपूर्ण संख्या) विशेषण है।
• डेढ़ : यह संख्यावाचक (निश्चित संख्या) विशेषण है।

Important Points विशेषण के भेद -

1. गुणवाचक विशेषण
2. परिणामवाचक विशेषण
3. संख्यावाचक विशेषण
4. सार्वनामिक विशेषण

Additional Information 

 

'पत्थर की लकीर होना' मुहावरे का सर्वाधिक उपयुक्त अर्थ है- दृढ़ होना

Key Points

• 'पत्थर की लकीर होना' का अर्थ - दृढ़ होना,
• वाक्य प्रयोग - मेरे पिताजी ने जो कह दिया, वह समझो "पत्थर की लकीर है"; वे अपना निर्णय कभी नहीं बदलते।
• मुहावरा - ऐसे वाक्यांश, जो सामान्य अर्थ का बोध न कराकर किसी विलक्षण अर्थ को प्रकट करते है, उसे मुहावरा कहते है।
• जैसे : 'खेत रहना' का अर्थ- शहीद होना।, वाक्य प्रयोग - पाकिस्तान से मुठभेड़ में कई भारतीय सैनिक "खेत रह गए"।

Important Points 

Additional Information 

   

सही उत्तर है - 3, 1, 2, 4

Key Points 

• वाक्य के उचित क्रम -
• 3. प्रेमचंद चाहते थे कि
• 1. जीवन के ऊँचे लक्ष्य
• 2. और उदात्त छवि को भी
• 4. लेखक विस्मृत न करे
• व्यवस्थित वाक्य: प्रेमचंद चाहते थे कि जीवन के ऊँचे लक्ष्य और उदात्त छवि को भी लेखक विस्मृत न करे।

Additional Information पदक्रम -

• किसी वाक्य में शब्दों (पदों) के रखने का निश्चित और सही क्रम,
• जिससे वाक्य का अर्थ स्पष्ट हो, जैसे हिंदी में सामान्यतः कर्ता + कर्म + क्रिया (राम सेब खाता है) होता है;
• यह भाषा के अनुसार बदलता है और सही अर्थ के लिए अत्यंत महत्वपूर्ण है, क्योंकि क्रम बदलने से अर्थ बदल जाता है।

सही उत्तर है - ने

Key Points

• वाक्य के संदर्भ और व्याकरणिक नियमों के अनुसार सही वाक्य होगा: "कक्षा में अध्यापक ने सबको खेल खिलाया।"
• संज्ञा या सर्वनाम के जिस रूप से क्रिया के करने वाले का बोध हो, उसे कर्ता कारक कहते हैं।
• कर्ता कारक का विभक्ति चिन्ह ‘ने’ होता है।
• उदाहरण -
• रामू ने आम तोड़ा।
• राजेश ने सन्तरा खाया।​

Important Pointsहिन्दी में आठ कारक हैं -

Additional Information 

 

सही उत्तर है - नीरद

Key Points

• 'बादल' का पर्यायवाची शब्द - 'नीरद' होगा।
• 'बादल' के अन्य पर्यायवाची शब्द - मेघ, घन, जलद, वारिद, जलधर, पयोद, अंबुद, धराधर।
• पर्यायवाची - ऐसे शब्द जिनके अर्थ समान हों, पर्यायवाची शब्द कहलाते हैं।

अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Information 

 कुछ महत्वपूर्ण पर्यायवाची शब्द -

सही उत्तर है - गांगेच

Key Points

• 'जो बदली हुई परिस्थितियों के अनुकूल अपने को बदल सके' वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द होगा - गांगेच
• वाक्यांश के लिए उपयुक्त शब्द - अनेक शब्दों के लिए एक शब्द को प्रयुक्त करना ही वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द कहलाता है।

अन्य विकल्प -

Additional Information 

 कुछ महत्वपूर्ण वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द -