DSSSB PGT (Maths) Official Paper (Held On: 19 Jul, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

According to the given information,

Possible code for "my" Either 'ol' or 'yu'.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

I. The roadwork to replace the underground water pipes in city X is scheduled for tomorrow morning → Cause (This describes an action being taken—replacing underground water pipes. For this work to occur safely and effectively, the water flow must be stopped).

II. There will be no water supply tomorrow morning to an entire area in city X from 6:00 a.m. to 12 noon → Effect (This describes the result of that action—a scheduled water outage for the residents of that area).

Because the roadwork (the activity) is the reason why the water supply needs to be cut off, Statement I logically precedes and triggers Statement

II. I is the cause and II is its possible effect.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

A certain number of people are sitting in a row, facing north.

1. D sits third from the right end.
2. Only three people sit between A and D.
3. Only two people sit between A and E.
4. E sits second from the left end.
5. If no other person is sitting in the row.

 

11 person sitting in the row.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

In row 1-E, M, I and T are seated and all of them are facing south.

In row 2-C, A, R and S are seated and all of them are facing north.

1. T sits second to the left of M.
2. A sits second to the right of C.
3. Only two people sit between C and S.
4. E faces R. 

I and S represents both people sitting at extreme ends of the line.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

According to the given information,

Shortest distance between point Band Z = (45 - 37) + 14 = 8 + 14 = 22km

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given words : DRY AGE FIB ETA 

Each vowel is changed to the letter immediately following it in the English alphabetical order and each consonant is changed to the letter immediately preceding it in the English alphabetical order.

New words : CQX  BFF  EJA FSB

There are three (More than two) letters cluster will have no vowel.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Least possible Venn diagram,

Conclusions:

(1) No suit is a pant → Does not follow (There is no direct relation given between suit and pant. so, we can say anything definite).

(II) No coat is a pant → Follow (All coat are jacket and no jacket is pant. so, no coat is pant is follow).

Only conclusion II follows 

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Logic followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given number: 

26 - 33 - 11 - 16; 14 - 21 - 7 - 12

Logic followed here is,

First number + 7 = Second number

Second number ÷ 3 = Third number

Third number + 5 = Fourth number 

26 - 33 - 11 - 16

26 + 7 = 33

33 ÷ 3 = 11

11 + 5 = 16

14 - 21 - 7 - 12

14 + 7 = 21

21 ÷ 3 = 7

7 + 5 = 12

Similarly,

Optio (4) : 20 – 27 – 9 – 14 

20 + 7 = 27

27 ÷ 3 = 9

9 + 5 = 14

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

(1) SV-RU 

(2) JM-IK

(3) QT-PR

(4) GJ-FH

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Decoding symbols:

Given: U & T ! R @ G + S

U is brother of T, T is daughter of R, R is son of G and G is mother of S

G is T's father's mother.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given number: 

100 - 20 - 5 - 10; 60 - 12 - 3 - 8. 

Logic followed here is,

First number ÷ 5 = Second number

Second number ÷ 4 = Third number

Third number + 5 = Fourth number 

100 - 20 - 5 - 10

100 ÷ 5 = 20

20 ÷ 4 = 5

5 + 5 = 10

60 - 12 - 3 - 8

60 ÷ 5 = 12

12 ÷ 4 = 3

3 + 5 = 8

Similarly,

 Option (1) :  120 – 24 – 6 – 11 

120 ÷ 5 = 24

24 ÷ 4 = 6

6 + 5 = 11

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given Equation: 32 C 5 P 483 F 7 R 21 F 3 = ?

BODMAS Rule:

Decoding the given information:

Now replacing the signs from left to right using BODMAS Rule, we get:

⇒ 32 × 5 - 483 ÷ 7 + 21 ÷ 3

⇒ 32 × 5 - 69 + 7

⇒ 160 + 7 - 69

⇒ 167 - 69

⇒ 98

Hence, the correct option is "Option 2".

Each of P, Q, R, S, T, U and V has exam on a different day of a week, starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week. 

1. U has exam on Friday. R has exam immediately after V. 2. Q has exam on Monday. 3. Only two people have exam between R and Q. 4. S has exam on one of the days before P, but on one of the days after R.

 

Three people have exam between P and V.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Pattern followed here,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given words : VIE WAG CON WEB

In each of the words, each vowel is changed to the letter immediately following it in the English alphabetical order and each consonant is changed to the letter immediately preceding it in the English alphabetical order.

New word after changes :

UJF  VBF  BPM  VFA

There are two letter clusters which have no vowel.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Logic followed here is,

348 - 72 = 276

276 - 62 = 214

214 - 52 = 162

162 - 42 = 120

120 - 32 = 88

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

(1) OK-PR

(2) SO-TV 

(3) LH-MP

(4) IE-JL

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

The logic followed here is:

Given: $: ENP :: DKS: %

Option 1) $ = CJM, % = KOX → CJM : ENP :: DKS: KOX

Option 2) $ = AJL, % = HOW→ AJL : ENP :: DKS: HOW​

Option 3)  $ = CLD, % = DOW  → CLD : ENP :: DKS: DOW

Option 4) $ = AJK, % = EOX →  AJK : ENP :: DKS: EOX

Hence, "Option (2)" is the correct answer$.

The correct answer is All long pea plants.

Key Points

• When a heterozygous long pea plant (Tt) is crossed with a homozygous dominant long pea plant (TT), the offspring inherit either the dominant allele (T) or both dominant alleles (T).
• The genotype of the offspring can only be TT or Tt, both of which express the dominant trait of long plants.
• Since the dominant allele (T) is responsible for the long plant phenotype, all offspring will be long plants.
• The phenotypic ratio of long plants to dwarf plants is 100% long plants (no dwarf plants).
• This outcome is explained by the Mendelian principle of dominance, where the dominant allele masks the effect of the recessive allele (t).

Additional Information

• Mendelian Inheritance:
• Gregor Mendel, known as the father of genetics, discovered the principles of inheritance through experiments on pea plants (Pisum sativum).
• His work established the concepts of dominance, segregation, and independent assortment.
• Dominant traits are expressed even if only one dominant allele is present, while recessive traits require two recessive alleles for expression.
• Phenotypic Ratio:
• The phenotype is the observable physical trait, such as plant height (long or dwarf).
• In this case, since the dominant allele (T) is present in all offspring, the phenotypic ratio is 100% long plants.
• Genotypic Possibilities:
• The genotypes of the offspring can only be TT (homozygous dominant) or Tt (heterozygous).
• Both genotypes result in the long plant phenotype due to the presence of the dominant allele.
• Applications of Mendelian Genetics:
• Mendelian genetics is widely used in plant breeding to develop desirable traits such as disease resistance, higher yield, and improved quality.
• It also forms the foundation for understanding inheritance patterns in humans and other organisms.

Important Points

• Pea Plant Traits:
• Mendel studied seven traits in pea plants, including plant height, seed shape, seed color, pod shape, pod color, flower position, and flower color.
• These traits exhibit simple dominance-recessive inheritance patterns.
• Dominance Principle:
• The dominant allele is always expressed in the phenotype if it is present, even in a heterozygous condition.
• In this case, the allele for long plants (T) is dominant over the allele for dwarf plants (t).
• Experimental Cross:
• A cross between Tt (heterozygous) and TT (homozygous dominant) results in offspring with genotypes of either TT or Tt.
• No recessive allele (t) is present in the offspring, so all plants are phenotypically long.

The correct answer is Tsang Po.

Key Points

• The Brahmaputra River is known as Tsang Po in Tibet.
• In Tibet, the river originates from the Angsi Glacier, located near Mount Kailash, in the Mansarovar region.
• The term "Tsang Po" means "the purifier" in the Tibetan language, reflecting the cultural and spiritual significance of the river in the region.
• As the river flows eastward through the Tibetan Plateau, it is referred to as the Yarlung Tsangpo, before entering Arunachal Pradesh in India where it is called the Brahmaputra.
• The river takes a sharp turn around the Namcha Barwa mountain, forming a deep gorge that is one of the largest in the world, before entering India. This turn is known as the Great Bend of the Yarlung Tsangpo.

Additional Information

• Brahmaputra River Overview:
• The Brahmaputra River is one of the major rivers in Asia, flowing through Tibet (China), India, and Bangladesh.
• It is approximately 2,900 kilometers long, making it one of the longest rivers in the world.
• The river is known by different names in different regions: Tsang Po in Tibet, Brahmaputra in India, and Jamuna in Bangladesh.
• Geographical and Cultural Significance:
• The Brahmaputra serves as a lifeline for millions of people, supporting agriculture, fishing, and transport.
• The river is revered in various cultures and religions, particularly in Hinduism and Tibetan Buddhism.
• Environmental Features:
• The Brahmaputra River is known for its floodplains, which are fertile and support extensive agriculture.
• The river basin is rich in biodiversity, hosting numerous species of flora and fauna, including the Gangetic dolphin.
• It is prone to annual flooding, which can cause significant damage but also enrich the soil with silt deposits.
• Other Names of the Brahmaputra:
• In Tibet: Tsang Po or Yarlung Tsangpo.
• In India: Brahmaputra.
• In Bangladesh: Jamuna (lower stretches).
• Important Tributaries:
• In Tibet: Nyang Chu and Lhasa River.
• In India: Subansiri, Manas, and Dibang.
• In Bangladesh: Teesta and Meghna.

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

Key Points

• Chithirai Festival is one of the most prominent festivals celebrated in the South Indian state of Tamil Nadu, particularly in the city of Madurai.
• The festival marks the wedding of Goddess Meenakshi and Lord Sundareshwara, both of whom are revered deities at the Meenakshi Amman Temple in Madurai.
• This grand celebration is held during the Tamil month of Chithirai (April-May) and spans over two weeks.
• The first part of the festival involves the coronation of Goddess Meenakshi and the procession celebrating her marriage to Lord Sundareshwara.
• The second part of the festival celebrates the journey of Lord Alagar (Lord Vishnu) from his temple at Alagar Kovil to Madurai to attend the celestial wedding.
• The festival attracts thousands of devotees and tourists annually, showcasing the rich cultural heritage and religious traditions of Tamil Nadu.

Additional Information

• Meenakshi Amman Temple:
• The Meenakshi Amman Temple is located in Madurai, Tamil Nadu, and is dedicated to Goddess Meenakshi (a form of Parvati) and Lord Sundareshwara (a form of Shiva).
• It is an architectural marvel and is famous for its intricate carvings, towering gopurams, and vibrant sculptures.
• The temple serves as the focal point for the Chithirai Festival.
• Alagar Kovil:
• Alagar Kovil is a temple dedicated to Lord Vishnu located near Madurai.
• During the festival, Lord Alagar’s idol is carried in a grand procession from Alagar Kovil to Madurai.
• Devotees believe that Lord Alagar travels to Madurai to bless the divine wedding of Goddess Meenakshi and Lord Sundareshwara.
• Cultural Significance:
• The Chithirai Festival highlights the integration of Shaivism and Vaishnavism, two major traditions of Hinduism, through the celebration of the divine wedding.
• It is a major tourist attraction and plays a significant role in preserving the cultural and religious identity of Tamil Nadu.
• Economic Impact:
• The festival boosts local businesses and tourism, providing economic benefits to the city of Madurai and surrounding regions.
• Artisans, vendors, and performers showcase their talents during the festival, reflecting the vibrant local culture.

Important Points

• Historical Background:
• The Chithirai Festival has been celebrated for centuries and is deeply rooted in Tamil Nadu’s religious and cultural traditions.
• It reflects the importance of Meenakshi Amman Temple as a spiritual center in Tamil Nadu.
• Tourism:
• The festival attracts tourists from across the globe, showcasing India’s rich cultural heritage.
• Madurai is often referred to as the Temple City, and the Chithirai Festival adds to its reputation as a prominent cultural destination.
• Religious Observances:
• Devotees participate in various rituals, including special poojas, processions, and cultural performances.
• The festivities emphasize communal harmony and devotion among the participants.
• Global Recognition:
• The Chithirai Festival is celebrated with grandeur and has gained international recognition for its cultural and spiritual significance.
• It highlights the unique blend of tradition, architecture, and devotion in Tamil Nadu.

The correct answer is Athanasius Nikitin.

Key Points

• Athanasius Nikitin was a Russian merchant and traveler from Tver, Russia, who is known for his travel account titled "A Journey Beyond the Three Seas."
• He visited Bidar, the capital of the Bahmani Sultanate, during the reign of Mahmud Gawan in the late 15^th century.
• Nikitin's journey to India started in 1466 and lasted until 1472, making him one of the earliest European travelers to document his experiences in India.
• His travelogue provides detailed descriptions of the socio-economic conditions, culture, and trade practices of the Indian subcontinent, including Bidar.
• He observed and recorded the administrative practices, military strength, and the grandeur of the Bahmani Sultanate, which was at its peak during his visit.

Additional Information

• Niccolò de' Conti:
• An Italian merchant and explorer who visited India during the early 15^th century.
• He traveled extensively in southern India and provided valuable insights about the Vijayanagara Empire.
• His accounts are among the earliest European descriptions of India but have no connection to Bidar or Mahmud Gawan.
• Bartholomeu Dias:
• A Portuguese explorer who is famous for being the first European to sail around the southern tip of Africa, known as the Cape of Good Hope, in 1488.
• He had no documented travels to India or connections to Bidar or Mahmud Gawan.
• Domingo Paes:
• A Portuguese traveler who visited India in the early 16^th century.
• He is known for his detailed accounts of the Vijayanagara Empire, especially the reign of King Krishna Deva Raya.
• His writings are a significant source of information about the Vijayanagara court but do not pertain to Bidar or Mahmud Gawan.
• Mahmud Gawan:
• Mahmud Gawan was a Persian-origin statesman and prime minister (vizier) of the Bahmani Sultanate during the 15^th century.
• He implemented administrative reforms, strengthened the sultanate's military, and promoted education by establishing the Madarsa of Mahmud Gawan in Bidar.
• His tenure as prime minister marked the peak of the Bahmani Sultanate's power and influence.

Important Points

• A Journey Beyond the Three Seas:
• The travelogue written by Athanasius Nikitin is a significant historical document that provides a first-hand account of India during the 15^th century.
• It highlights the economic prosperity and cultural diversity of the Indian subcontinent.
• Bidar:
• Bidar was the capital of the Bahmani Sultanate from the mid-15^th century.
• It was a major center of culture, education, and trade during Mahmud Gawan's time.
• The city is renowned for its architectural landmarks, including the Mahmud Gawan Madrasa and Bidar Fort.

The correct answer is Arunachal Pradesh.

Key Points

• The Subansiri River is a significant tributary of the Brahmaputra River, which flows through the northeastern part of India.
• The river originates in the Tibetan Himalayas and enters India through the state of Arunachal Pradesh.
• After flowing through Arunachal Pradesh, the Subansiri River continues its journey into Assam, where it merges with the Brahmaputra.
• The Subansiri is known for its hydroelectric potential, and the construction of the Subansiri Lower Dam on this river is one of India's largest hydropower projects.
• It is often referred to as the “Gold River” because of the presence of alluvial gold deposits in its riverbed in the past.
• The river plays a crucial role in the ecology and economy of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam by supporting agriculture, fisheries, and water needs.

Additional Information

• Brahmaputra River System:
• The Brahmaputra is one of the major rivers in Asia, originating from the Angsi Glacier in Tibet (China) and known as the Yarlung Tsangpo in Tibet.
• It flows through Tibet, India (Arunachal Pradesh and Assam), and Bangladesh, where it is known as the Jamuna before merging into the Bay of Bengal.
• The Brahmaputra River system has several tributaries, with the Subansiri being one of the largest on the northern bank.
• The river is known for its annual flooding, which provides fertile silt to the agricultural lands but also causes significant damage.
• Geographical Features of Arunachal Pradesh:
• Arunachal Pradesh is located in the northeastern part of India and is known as the “Land of the Rising Sun” due to its geographical location.
• The state is characterized by rugged mountains, deep river valleys, and dense forests. It is home to several rivers like the Subansiri, Siang, Kameng, and Lohit.
• Arunachal Pradesh shares international borders with Bhutan, China, and Myanmar, making it strategically significant for India.
• The state is rich in biodiversity and cultural heritage, with numerous tribes residing in harmony with nature.
• Subansiri Lower Hydroelectric Project:
• The Subansiri Lower Project is a large hydroelectric project with a capacity of 2000 MW, being constructed on the Subansiri River at the border of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.
• The dam has faced delays due to environmental concerns and protests from local communities, who fear its impact on the downstream ecology and livelihoods.
• It is expected to significantly contribute to India's renewable energy goals once operational.
• Other Tributaries of the Brahmaputra:
• Important tributaries of the Brahmaputra include the Teesta, Manas, Lohit, Dibang, and Dhansiri, apart from the Subansiri.
• These rivers contribute to the Brahmaputra’s vast water volume, making it one of the largest river systems in the world.

Important Points

• Alluvial Gold: The Subansiri River was historically known for alluvial gold deposits, though commercial exploitation is no longer significant.
• Ecological Importance: The river sustains rich biodiversity, including fish species that are vital for local communities and ecosystems.
• Strategic Significance: The Subansiri River and its basin are strategically important due to their location near India's border with China.
• Flood Management: The Brahmaputra and its tributaries, including the Subansiri, are notorious for causing floods in Assam during the monsoon season, necessitating robust flood management systems.

The correct answer is 1881.

Key Points

• The first complete Census in India was conducted in the year 1881 under the British administration.
• This exercise was carried out under the supervision of W.C. Plowden, who was the Census Commissioner for India at that time.
• The census covered the entire Indian subcontinent, excluding some territories under princely states.
• The census of 1881 is considered the first systematic and synchronized attempt at collecting demographic, social, and economic data from the entire country.
• It marked the beginning of a decennial census tradition in India, which has continued uninterrupted since then, except for delays caused by exceptional circumstances such as pandemics or war.

Additional Information

• Background:
• Before 1881, attempts at population enumeration were made sporadically in certain regions of India, such as the 1830s census in the North-Western Provinces.
• These efforts were not uniform or systematic across the country, leading to the need for a standardized process.
• Significance of the 1881 Census:
• It was the first synchronous census, meaning it was conducted simultaneously across British-controlled territories.
• The data collected included population figures, caste, religion, occupation, literacy, and age distribution.
• It provided a foundation for future censuses and the development of administrative and social policies in India.
• Subsequent Censuses:
• After 1881, a census has been conducted every 10 years in India, following a decennial pattern.
• In post-independence India, the first census was conducted in 1951.
• Modern Census Framework:
• The Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India, appointed under the Ministry of Home Affairs, oversees the census operations today.
• The most recent census in India was conducted in 2011, with the next census scheduled for 2021, though it faced delays due to the COVID-19 pandemic.

Important Points

• Option Analysis:
• 1881: This is the correct answer, as the first complete and synchronized census was conducted in this year.
• 1901: While significant as the first census of the 20^th century, it was not the first complete census.
• 1880: This year is incorrect as no census was conducted in 1880.
• 1951: This was the first census conducted after India's independence, but it was not the first complete census overall.
• Historical Impact:
• The census of 1881 set a precedent for systematic data collection in India, influencing administrative, social, and economic policies.
• It also highlighted the diversity of India's population in terms of religion, caste, and language.

The correct answer is Unable to access basic necessities.

Key Points

• Rural areas are often characterized by limited access to essential services and infrastructure. This includes a lack of proper sanitation, clean drinking water, and reliable electricity.
• Many people in rural areas face difficulties in accessing basic necessities such as food, clothing, and shelter due to poverty and limited economic opportunities.
• While efforts are being made to improve infrastructure and services, rural communities often lag behind urban areas in terms of development and access to amenities. Hence, this statement is correct.
• Options such as "access to quality education" and "access to quality health facilities" are typically more prevalent in urban and developed areas, not rural regions.
• Although rural areas are often associated with agricultural activities, the statement "unable to access agricultural activities" is incorrect because farming is a primary occupation in these areas.

Additional Information

• Key Characteristics of Rural Areas:
• Rural areas are typically defined by their low population density and small settlements compared to urban areas.
• The economy in rural regions is often centered around agriculture, livestock rearing, forestry, and artisanal crafts.
• Infrastructure like roads, schools, and healthcare facilities is usually underdeveloped compared to urban areas.
• Challenges in Rural Areas:
• Poverty: A significant portion of the rural population lives below the poverty line, impacting their access to basic necessities.
• Education: Many rural areas lack proper educational facilities, leading to lower literacy rates compared to urban regions.
• Healthcare: Access to healthcare services is limited due to the absence of hospitals, medical professionals, and adequate facilities.
• Employment: Job opportunities are scarce, with most residents relying on seasonal agricultural work, which is highly dependent on weather conditions.
• Government Initiatives for Rural Development:
• Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Gramin): Aims to provide affordable housing to the rural poor.
• National Rural Health Mission (NRHM): Focuses on improving healthcare infrastructure and services in rural areas.
• Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA): Guarantees 100 days of wage employment to rural households to enhance livelihood security.
• PM Gram Sadak Yojana: Seeks to improve road connectivity in rural areas.
• Examples and Data:
• As per the 2011 Census of India, about 68.8% of India's population resides in rural areas.
• A report by the NITI Aayog (2022) highlights that over 25% of rural households do not have access to clean drinking water.
• The World Bank notes that improving rural infrastructure can significantly reduce poverty and boost rural development.

Important Points

• Education in Rural Areas:
• The government has launched schemes like Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan to improve educational access in rural areas.
• Despite these initiatives, rural schools often face challenges such as teacher shortages, lack of infrastructure, and poor quality of education.
• Healthcare in Rural Areas:
• Programs like Ayushman Bharat aim to provide affordable healthcare to rural populations.
• However, a study by the Rural Health Statistics (2022) revealed a shortfall of 80% in specialist doctors at Community Health Centers in rural India.
• Access to Agricultural Activities:
• Agriculture remains the backbone of rural economies, with over 70% of rural households dependent on it for their livelihood.
• Government initiatives like the PM-Kisan Scheme and Soil Health Card Scheme aim to boost agricultural productivity and rural incomes.

The correct answer is Article 280.

Key Points

• The Finance Commission of India is constituted under Article 280 of the Constitution of India. This is a constitutional body that is formed by the President of India every five years or at such earlier time as he considers necessary.
• The primary function of the Finance Commission is to recommend the distribution of tax revenues between the Central Government and the State Governments, as well as among the states themselves.
• The Finance Commission is tasked with defining the financial relations between the Union and the States of India, ensuring equitable distribution of financial resources.
• The Commission also takes into account factors such as population, area, income disparities, and administration expenses while making its recommendations.
• The first Finance Commission of India was constituted in 1951 under the chairmanship of K.C. Neogy. The recommendations of the Finance Commission are advisory in nature and not binding on the government.

Additional Information

• Composition of the Finance Commission:
• The Finance Commission consists of a Chairman and four other members, who are appointed by the President of India.
• The qualifications and terms of service of the members are determined by the President.
• Functions of the Finance Commission:
• Distribution of the net proceeds of taxes to be shared between the Centre and the States, and the allocation between the States themselves.
• Determining the principles governing grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
• Advising on any financial matter referred to it by the President in the interest of sound financial management.
• 15^th Finance Commission:
• The 15^th Finance Commission was constituted in 2017 under the chairmanship of N.K. Singh.
• Its recommendations cover the period from 2021-22 to 2025-26.
• Key Articles Related to Financial Distribution in India:
• Article 268: Duties levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by the States.
• Article 269: Taxes levied and collected by the Union but assigned to the States.
• Article 270: Taxes levied and distributed between the Union and the States.

Important Points

• The Finance Commission is vital for maintaining fiscal federalism in India by ensuring a balanced distribution of financial resources between the Centre and the States.
• The recommendations of the Finance Commission are laid before the Parliament along with an explanatory memorandum as to the action taken on them.
• The Finance Commission plays a critical role in addressing regional disparities by providing grants and allocating resources equitably.
• It also considers the impact of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) on the financial resources of the Centre and the States.

The correct answer is Rao Inderjit Singh.

Key Points

• As of July 2024, Rao Inderjit Singh is serving as the Minister of State (Independent Charge) overseeing the portfolios of Statistics and Programme Implementation, Planning, and Corporate Affairs in the Government of India.
• Rao Inderjit Singh has a prominent political career and is a Member of Parliament from Haryana. He has held various key positions in the government.
• The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation is responsible for the coordination of statistical activities in the country and the implementation of statistical programs.
• The Ministry of Corporate Affairs regulates corporate governance and administration in India, focusing on the Companies Act, Limited Liability Partnership Act, and other related laws.
• Rao Inderjit Singh has been instrumental in ensuring efficient governance and implementation of these portfolios, addressing key developmental and administrative challenges.

Additional Information

• Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation:
• This ministry was established in 1999 and plays a critical role in data collection and analysis for policy-making and governance.
• It is responsible for the coordination of statistical activities in India, including the National Sample Survey Organization (NSSO) and the Central Statistics Office (CSO).
• The ministry oversees programs like GDP estimation, various economic indices, and surveys for national development.
• Ministry of Corporate Affairs:
• This ministry is responsible for administering laws related to companies and corporate governance, including the Companies Act, 2013.
• It supervises regulatory bodies like the Registrar of Companies (RoC), the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT), and the Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO).
• The ministry oversees initiatives to improve the Ease of Doing Business in India and corporate compliance mechanisms.
• Planning Commission/Think Tank:
• The Planning Commission was replaced by NITI Aayog in 2015 to provide strategic and policy-driven recommendations to the government.
• NITI Aayog focuses on sustainable development goals, cooperative federalism, and fostering innovation and entrepreneurship.
• Rao Inderjit Singh:
• He is a senior leader of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) and has represented Gurugram constituency in the Lok Sabha.
• He has held ministerial positions in earlier governments and has contributed significantly to policy formulation and governance.

Important Points

• Statistics and Programme Implementation:
• The ministry plays a vital role in monitoring government programs and schemes to ensure accountability and efficiency.
• It provides statistical data essential for planning and decision-making processes across various sectors.
• Corporate Affairs:
• The ministry ensures compliance with corporate laws and promotes transparency in corporate governance.
• It supports initiatives to enhance corporate social responsibility (CSR) and improve investor confidence.
• Planning:
• The strategic planning overseen by NITI Aayog and related bodies contributes to long-term sustainable development.
• It addresses socio-economic challenges and focuses on achieving the goals outlined in the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development.

The correct answer is 1929.

Key Points

• The slogan of 'Purna Swaraj' (Complete Independence) was adopted as the official goal of the Indian National Congress during its Lahore session in December 1929.
• This historic resolution was passed under the presidency of Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, marking a significant milestone in India's struggle for independence.
• The resolution declared that 26 January 1930 would be observed as Independence Day, encouraging Indians to pledge themselves to the struggle for achieving complete independence.
• The Lahore session also set the tone for the Civil Disobedience Movement, which was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1930.
• The adoption of 'Purna Swaraj' reflected a more assertive approach by the Congress, moving away from dominion status to demanding full independence from British rule.

Additional Information

• Lahore Session of 1929:
• The session was held in Lahore (now in Pakistan), which was a prominent center for political activity during India's freedom struggle.
• Jawaharlal Nehru presided over the session, marking his emergence as a prominent leader in the freedom movement.
• The resolution of 'Purna Swaraj' declared that India's goal was complete independence, rejecting British dominion status.
• Key Events Following the Resolution:
• 26 January 1930 was celebrated as India's first Independence Day, where people across the country pledged to fight for complete independence.
• The resolution led to the launch of the Civil Disobedience Movement by Mahatma Gandhi, beginning with the famous Dandi March in March 1930.
• Historical Significance:
• The adoption of 'Purna Swaraj' marked a shift in the Indian National Congress's strategy, as it moved from seeking gradual reforms to demanding complete independence.
• This resolution inspired mass participation in the freedom struggle and unified Indians in their fight against colonial rule.
• Other Related Developments:
• The Indian Constitution later adopted 26 January as Republic Day in 1950, honoring the significance of the first Independence Day celebrated in 1930.
• The Lahore session symbolized the growing influence of leaders like Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhas Chandra Bose in the freedom movement.

Important Points

• Dominion Status vs. Complete Independence:
• Before 1929, the Congress aimed for dominion status, which would grant India self-governance under the British crown.
• The 'Purna Swaraj' resolution rejected dominion status and demanded complete independence, signaling a decisive break from earlier demands.
• Role of Jawaharlal Nehru:
• Nehru, as the session's president, played a key role in advocating for complete independence and rallying support for the resolution.
• His leadership at Lahore established him as one of the most influential leaders in the Indian freedom struggle.
• Impact of the Resolution:
• The resolution galvanized Indians to participate in the freedom movement, with widespread support for the Civil Disobedience Movement.
• It became a rallying point for subsequent actions against British rule, culminating in India's independence in 1947.

The correct answer is Purnima Devi Barman.

Key Points

• Purnima Devi Barman, an environmentalist from Assam, has been awarded the prestigious Whitley Gold Award (Green Oscar) 2024 for her exceptional conservation efforts.
• She is renowned for her work in preserving the greater adjutant stork, locally known as "Hargila," which is critically endangered according to the IUCN Red List.
• Purnima is the founder of the Hargila Army, a group of women dedicated to protecting the bird and its habitat by promoting awareness and sustainable practices in Assam.
• The Whitley Gold Award is an international recognition given by the Whitley Fund for Nature for outstanding contributions to wildlife conservation.
• Her conservation efforts have not only saved the species but also empowered local communities, especially women, through eco-friendly initiatives such as weaving and crafts.

Additional Information

• Greater Adjutant Stork:
• The greater adjutant stork is a large bird that is native to South and Southeast Asia. It is classified as critically endangered due to habitat loss and hunting.
• Its population is primarily concentrated in Assam, India, and some parts of Cambodia.
• The bird plays an essential role in the ecosystem as a scavenger, helping to clean up organic waste and maintain environmental balance.
• Whitley Fund for Nature:
• The Whitley Fund for Nature is a UK-based charity that supports grassroots conservation leaders working in their home countries.
• It awards the Whitley Gold Award, commonly referred to as the "Green Oscar," to individuals who demonstrate exceptional leadership and success in biodiversity conservation.
• Winners receive financial support, international recognition, and networking opportunities to further their conservation efforts.
• Hargila Army:
• The Hargila Army is a community-driven conservation group founded by Purnima Devi Barman.
• It focuses on protecting nesting sites, raising awareness, and fostering sustainable livelihoods among women in Assam.
• Through their efforts, the population of greater adjutant storks in Assam has seen significant improvement.
• Empowering Women through Conservation:
• Purnima’s initiatives have integrated conservation with women empowerment by training local women in eco-friendly crafts such as weaving traditional textiles.
• These activities provide financial independence while promoting conservation awareness.
• The approach has made the Hargila Army a model for community-based conservation efforts globally.

Important Points

• Sanjay Gubbi: Known for his work in conserving tiger habitats in Karnataka, but not associated with the conservation of the greater adjutant stork.
• Bibhab Kumar Talukdar: A conservationist from Assam working on rhino protection but not awarded the Whitley Gold Award 2024.
• Jadav Payeng: Famous as the "Forest Man of India" for his efforts in afforestation in Majuli, Assam. He has not received the Whitley Gold Award.
• Purnima Devi Barman: Recognized globally for her work in protecting the greater adjutant stork and awarded the Whitley Gold Award 2024.

The correct answer is quasi-judicial.

Key Points

• The Election Commissioner of India performs several quasi-judicial functions in addition to administrative tasks.
• Quasi-judicial functions are those where the Election Commissioner acts as an authority to resolve disputes and interpret laws related to elections.
• These functions include addressing complaints related to electoral malpractice, resolving disputes about the recognition of political parties, and deciding issues related to the allocation of election symbols.
• The Election Commission has the power to disqualify candidates if they violate election laws, such as engaging in corrupt practices or failing to submit election expenditure reports.
• These quasi-judicial roles are crucial in ensuring that the electoral process remains fair, transparent, and in accordance with the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
• Hence, the correct answer is quasi-judicial.

Additional Information

• Functions of the Election Commission of India:
• The Election Commission is responsible for conducting free and fair elections in India for the Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of the President and Vice-President.
• It ensures compliance with election laws and the Model Code of Conduct during elections.
• The Commission has the authority to supervise, direct, and control the entire process of elections.
• It is empowered to postpone or cancel elections in case of extreme situations like violence or natural disasters.
• Quasi-judicial Powers:
• Quasi-judicial powers involve the interpretation and application of laws in resolving disputes.
• The Election Commission has the authority to settle disputes between political parties regarding recognition and election symbols.
• It can take action against candidates who violate election laws, such as engaging in corrupt practices or overspending.
• Representation of the People Act, 1951:
• This act is a key legislation governing the conduct of elections in India.
• It provides rules regarding the qualification and disqualification of candidates, registration of political parties, and election expenditure.
• The Election Commission enforces the provisions of this act to ensure legal compliance during elections.
• Important Characteristics of Quasi-judicial Functions:
• They are impartial and aim to interpret laws without bias.
• They involve procedures similar to judicial proceedings, such as hearings and evidence evaluation.
• Quasi-judicial decisions are legally binding and enforceable.
• Examples of Quasi-judicial Bodies in India:
• National Green Tribunal (NGT)
• Central Information Commission (CIC)
• Competition Commission of India (CCI)
• Election Commission of India

Important Points

• Judicial vs. Quasi-judicial:
• Judicial functions are performed by courts and involve the resolution of disputes based on strict legal rules.
• Quasi-judicial functions are performed by bodies like the Election Commission and involve applying legal principles to specific situations without being a formal court.
• Administrative vs. Quasi-judicial:
• Administrative functions involve routine tasks like organizing elections and managing logistics.
• Quasi-judicial functions involve resolving disputes and enforcing election laws.
• Significance of Quasi-judicial Powers:
• They ensure the integrity and transparency of the electoral process.
• They safeguard democratic principles by resolving disputes fairly and impartially.
• They provide accountability by enforcing legal provisions and penalizing violations.

The correct answer is Canada.

Key Points

• The framers of the Indian Constitution borrowed the idea of ‘vesting residuary powers with the Centre’ from the Constitution of Canada.
• In the Indian Constitution, residuary powers are mentioned under Article 248 and are assigned to the Union Parliament.
• This contrasts with the federal systems of countries like the United States, where residuary powers are vested with the states.
• The Canadian model influenced India due to its quasi-federal structure, which combines elements of both federal and unitary systems.
• Residuary powers allow the Centre to legislate on matters not enumerated in the Union List, State List, or Concurrent List.

Additional Information

• Federal System:
• A federal system is a form of government where powers are divided between a central authority and its constituent units (states or provinces).
• India is often described as a quasi-federal state due to its strong centralizing tendencies.
• Residuary Powers in India:
• Residuary powers are those powers that are not explicitly mentioned in any of the three lists of the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
• These powers are exclusively vested in the Parliament under Article 248.
• Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution:
• The Seventh Schedule contains three lists: the Union List, the State List, and the Concurrent List.
• The Union List comprises subjects on which only the central government can legislate, while the State List is for state legislatures.
• The Concurrent List allows both the Union and State governments to legislate on shared matters.
• Canadian Influence on Indian Federalism:
• The Canadian Constitution inspired India’s approach to residuary powers to ensure a strong central authority.
• Like Canada, India also employs a system where certain powers are centralized to maintain national integrity and uniformity.

The correct answer is Hola Mohalla.

Key Points

• Hola Mohalla is a significant Sikh festival celebrated to showcase the martial skills, bravery, and valor of the Sikh community.
• The festival was started by the 10^th Sikh Guru, Guru Gobind Singh, in 1701, with the primary aim of preparing Sikhs for self-defense and warfare.
• It typically takes place the day after Holi and is celebrated with martial demonstrations such as mock battles (Gatka), swordsmanship, archery, and horse riding.
• The event is celebrated on a grand scale at Anandpur Sahib, a city in Punjab that holds immense religious and historical significance for Sikhs.
• During Hola Mohalla, there are also religious recitations, kirtans (devotional songs), and langars (community kitchens), reflecting the Sikh values of equality, community service, and unity.

Additional Information

• Guru Nanak Jayanti:
• Guru Nanak Jayanti, also known as Gurpurab, marks the birth anniversary of Guru Nanak Dev Ji, the first Sikh Guru.
• It is primarily a religious festival celebrated with prayers, processions, and kirtans, and does not involve martial displays.
• The festival typically falls in the Kartik Purnima month of the Hindu calendar.
• Bandi Chhor Divas:
• This festival commemorates the release of Guru Hargobind Ji, the sixth Sikh Guru, along with 52 princes, from imprisonment.
• It coincides with Diwali and is celebrated by lighting lamps and visiting Gurudwaras.
• Unlike Hola Mohalla, it is not centered around martial skills but emphasizes the themes of freedom and justice.
• Vaisakhi:
• Vaisakhi is celebrated as the harvest festival and also marks the foundation of the Khalsa Panth by Guru Gobind Singh in 1699.
• It is a religious and cultural festival involving prayers, processions, and community meals, but it does not specifically focus on demonstrating martial prowess.
• Significance of Anandpur Sahib:
• Anandpur Sahib is the birthplace of the Khalsa Panth, established by Guru Gobind Singh in 1699.
• The town is a major site for Sikh pilgrimages and a focal point for the Hola Mohalla celebrations.

Important Points

• Gatka:
• Gatka is a traditional Sikh martial art form practiced during Hola Mohalla.
• It involves the use of swords, sticks, and shields and is a display of skill, discipline, and physical strength.
• Community Aspect:
• The festival promotes the Sikh values of seva (selfless service) and sangat (community gathering).
• Langars are organized to provide free meals to everyone, irrespective of caste, creed, or religion.
• Religious Significance:
• Hola Mohalla serves as a reminder of the Sikh community's commitment to justice, equality, and self-defense.
• It also reinforces the teachings of Guru Gobind Singh and the importance of spiritual and physical preparation.

The correct answer is Kannada.

Key Points

• Kannada is the official language of the state of Karnataka and is widely spoken by the people of the region.
• It holds the status of a classical language of India, which signifies its rich heritage, ancient origins, and unique literary contributions.
• The language is known for its ancient literature, including works dating back to the 9^th century, such as the Kavirajamarga, which is one of the earliest known literary texts in Kannada.
• Kannada has a long literary tradition, including contributions from poets and scholars like Pampa, Ranna, and Basavanna. It has a strong connection to Indian history and culture.
• The Government of India granted Kannada the status of a classical language in 2008, making it one of the few Indian languages to receive this honor.

Additional Information

• Classical Language Status:
• Languages granted classical status in India include Sanskrit, Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam, and Odia.
• A classical language must meet specific criteria, such as antiquity over 1500 years and a rich literary tradition.
• Kannada met these requirements due to its long history and significant contributions to Indian literature.
• Ancient Kannada Literature:
• The earliest recorded history of Kannada literature begins with Kavirajamarga, written in the 9^th century.
• Prominent poets like Pampa, Ranna, and Janna contributed significantly to Kannada literature during the medieval period.
• Philosophical and devotional works, such as those by Basavanna, also enriched Kannada literature.
• Modern Kannada Literature:
• In the modern era, Kannada literature has seen contributions from authors like Kuvempu, who is regarded as one of the greatest Kannada writers.
• Kannada literature encompasses a wide range of genres, including poetry, novels, drama, and essays.
• It has received national recognition with several Jnanpith Awards given to Kannada writers.
• Other Indian Languages:
• Telugu: Predominantly spoken in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana, it also holds classical language status.
• Tamil: Spoken mainly in Tamil Nadu, it is one of the oldest languages and has classical status.
• Malayalam: A classical language spoken in Kerala, known for its vibrant literary tradition.

Important Points

• Classical Languages of India:
• India's classical languages are recognized for their rich heritage, ancient origins, and unique literary contributions.
• The recognition helps preserve, promote, and celebrate these languages globally.
• Kannada's Literary Achievements:
• Kannada has won 8 Jnanpith Awards, the highest literary honor in India.
• The literary works cover diverse themes, including philosophy, devotion, history, and modern issues.
• Prominent writers like Kuvempu and U. R. Ananthamurthy have elevated Kannada literature to international acclaim.

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• Madhya Pradesh is a landlocked state located in the central region of India, with no significant access to coastal or marine resources, making fisheries a less prominent source of livelihood in rural areas.
• Fisheries are generally more prevalent in coastal states such as Kerala, Gujarat, and Maharashtra, where marine resources are abundant, providing employment to a significant portion of the population.
• In Madhya Pradesh, rural livelihoods are predominantly dependent on agriculture, forest produce, and animal husbandry, rather than fisheries. While there are some freshwater fish farming activities in the state, they are not a major source of income for most rural communities.
• States like Kerala and Gujarat have extensive coastal areas and access to rich marine biodiversity, making fisheries an integral part of their economy and a significant source of rural employment.
• Therefore, compared to the other states mentioned (Gujarat, Kerala, and Maharashtra), fisheries are not a major livelihood source in Madhya Pradesh.

Additional Information

• Fisheries in Gujarat:
• Gujarat has a long coastline of approximately 1,600 km, which supports a thriving marine fishing industry.
• The state is among the top producers of marine fish in India, contributing significantly to the export of seafood.
• Major fishing activities include the harvesting of prawns, mackerel, and pomfret.
• Fisheries in Kerala:
• Kerala is known for its rich marine biodiversity and extensive backwaters, making it a major hub for fisheries.
• The state has a long tradition of fishing, with a significant portion of the rural population relying on it for livelihood.
• Fisheries contribute substantially to Kerala's economy, with exports of products like shrimp, sardines, and tuna.
• Fisheries in Maharashtra:
• Maharashtra has a coastline of approximately 720 km, supporting both marine and inland fisheries.
• Fishing activities in the state provide employment to thousands of coastal residents, especially in districts like Ratnagiri and Sindhudurg.
• The state is a key player in the production of fish species like Bombay duck, mackerel, and prawns.
• Agriculture in Madhya Pradesh:
• Madhya Pradesh is often referred to as the "Heart of India" and is primarily an agrarian state.
• The state is a leading producer of crops like wheat, soybean, and pulses, which form the backbone of its rural economy.
• Livelihoods in rural areas depend heavily on farming, forestry, and allied activities rather than fisheries.

Important Points

• India's Fisheries Sector:
• India is the second-largest producer of fish in the world, with fisheries contributing significantly to the country's GDP.
• The fisheries sector supports the livelihood of over 28 million people, particularly in coastal states.
• Major fish-producing states include Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala.
• Freshwater Fisheries in Landlocked States:
• States like Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, and Rajasthan focus on freshwater aquaculture, such as pond and reservoir fisheries.
• However, the scale of these activities is much smaller compared to marine fisheries in coastal states.
• The government promotes schemes like the Blue Revolution to enhance fish production in inland regions.

The correct answer is Deepthi Jeevanji.

Key Points

• Deepthi Jeevanji, an Indian para-athlete, set a world record in the women's 400m T20 category at the Para Athletics World Championship 2024 held in Kobe, Japan.
• The T20 category in para-athletics is specifically for athletes with an intellectual impairment, showcasing their exceptional athletic abilities.
• Deepthi's performance was a significant milestone for India, emphasizing the country’s rising presence in the field of para sports.
• The Para Athletics World Championship is a globally recognized event organized by the International Paralympic Committee (IPC), providing a platform for athletes with disabilities to compete at the highest level.
• This achievement by Deepthi highlights her dedication, rigorous training, and ability to overcome challenges, serving as an inspiration for aspiring para-athletes in India and worldwide.

Additional Information

• Para Athletics World Championship:
• The Para Athletics World Championship is held biennially and is one of the most prestigious events for para-athletes globally.
• It provides opportunities for athletes with disabilities to showcase their talent in various track and field events.
• The championship is organized by the International Paralympic Committee (IPC), which governs para-sports worldwide.
• The 2024 edition was hosted in Kobe, Japan, a city known for its accessibility and commitment to inclusivity in sports.
• Deepthi Jeevanji:
• Deepthi Jeevanji is a rising star in Indian para-athletics who specializes in track events.
• Her achievement in the 400m T20 category reflects her dedication and resilience as a para-athlete.
• She has undergone intense training and preparation to compete at the international level, representing India on a global stage.
• Her record-breaking performance is a testament to her skill and determination, inspiring the next generation of para-athletes.
• India’s Contribution to Para Sports:
• India has been actively promoting para-sports through organizations like the Paralympic Committee of India, which supports athletes in their journey.
• The government has introduced various schemes, such as the Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS), to provide financial assistance and training facilities to para-athletes.
• Indian para-athletes have been making significant strides in international events like the Paralympics, World Championships, and Asian Para Games.
• Examples of successful Indian para-athletes include Devendra Jhajharia, Mariyappan Thangavelu, Sumit Antil, and Avani Lekhara, who have won medals in global competitions.
• T20 Category in Para Athletics:
• The T20 category is designed for athletes with intellectual impairments, allowing them to compete in track and field events.
• Athletes undergo classification to determine their eligibility for this category, ensuring fair competition.
• This category emphasizes the importance of inclusivity and provides opportunities for athletes to excel despite their challenges.
• Events under this category include sprints, middle-distance races, and other track events.

Important Points

• Recognition of Para-Athletes:
• Para-athletes like Deepthi Jeevanji are recognized for their contributions to sports and are often honored with awards such as the Arjuna Award and Padma Shri.
• Sports authorities, sponsors, and the government play a crucial role in promoting para-sports and supporting athletes.
• Global Impact:
• Achievements in para-sports highlight the importance of inclusivity and inspire societies to support individuals with disabilities.
• Countries worldwide are adopting measures to enhance accessibility and opportunities for para-athletes.
• India's Sports Infrastructure:
• India has been investing in improving sports facilities and training centers for para-athletes, such as the National Institute of Sports in Patiala.
• Efforts are being made to create accessible facilities that cater to the needs of athletes with disabilities.
• Prominent Para-Athletics Events:
• Major events include the Paralympic Games, Asian Para Games, and World Para Athletics Championships.
• These events play a vital role in fostering a spirit of competition and camaraderie among para-athletes globally.

The correct answer is plant growth.

Key Points

• Meristematic tissues in plants are specialized tissues responsible for active cell division, which facilitates plant growth. These tissues are primarily found in regions where growth occurs, such as the tips of roots and shoots.
• These tissues are made up of undifferentiated cells that have the ability to divide and differentiate into various types of cells. This division contributes to the elongation, thickening, and overall development of the plant.
• Meristematic tissues are classified into three types based on their location: apical meristems (found at root and shoot tips), intercalary meristems (present in the internodes or base of leaves), and lateral meristems (responsible for secondary growth, such as the thickening of stems and roots).
• The activity of meristematic tissues results in the formation of permanent tissues that perform specialized functions, such as transport, storage, and photosynthesis, aiding in the overall growth and development of the plant.
• The other options, such as cell communication, water conduction, and food storage, are specific functions of specialized tissues like phloem, xylem, and parenchyma, respectively, and are not directly related to meristematic tissues.

Additional Information

• Types of Meristematic Tissues:
• Apical Meristem: Found at the tips of roots and shoots, this tissue is responsible for the primary growth of the plant, leading to an increase in length.
• Intercalary Meristem: Located at the internodes or base of leaves, this tissue helps in regrowth and elongation of certain plant parts, especially in grasses.
• Lateral Meristem: Found along the sides of stems and roots, it is responsible for secondary growth, leading to an increase in the girth or thickness of the plant. Examples include the vascular cambium and cork cambium.
• Functions of Meristematic Tissues:
• Facilitates cell division and contributes to the formation of new tissues.
• Helps in the formation of permanent tissues, such as xylem, phloem, parenchyma, and collenchyma.
• Plays a key role in the repair and regeneration of damaged plant parts.
• Comparison with Other Plant Tissues:
• Parenchyma: Responsible for storage and photosynthesis.
• Xylem: Specialized for water conduction throughout the plant.
• Phloem: Aids in the transport of food produced during photosynthesis.
• Examples of Plant Growth:
• Primary Growth: Elongation of roots and shoots due to apical meristem activity.
• Secondary Growth: Thickening of stems and roots due to lateral meristem activity.
• Plants like trees and shrubs exhibit both primary and secondary growth, while herbaceous plants primarily show primary growth.

Important Points

• Cell Communication: This is a function of signaling molecules like hormones, and it occurs across various plant tissues, not specifically linked to meristematic tissues.
• Water Conduction: Performed by xylem, a vascular tissue that transports water and minerals from roots to other parts of the plant.
• Food Storage: A function of specialized storage tissues like parenchyma cells, which store starch, proteins, and other nutrients.
• Food Transport: Conducted by phloem, which carries the products of photosynthesis from leaves to other parts of the plant.

The correct answer is Vijayanagar Empire.

Key Points

• The term 'Karnataka Samarajyamu' was used by contemporaries to refer to the Vijayanagar Empire, highlighting its prominence and influence in the Karnataka region.
• The Vijayanagar Empire was established in 1336 by Harihara I and Bukka Raya I, under the guidance of the sage Vidyaranya. It became a symbol of cultural, political, and economic excellence in South India.
• This empire was renowned for its contributions to art, architecture, and administration. The capital, Hampi, served as a major cultural and trade center and is now a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
• The empire played a significant role in resisting the invasions of the Delhi Sultanate and protecting the Hindu traditions and culture during its rule.
• The Vijayanagar rulers promoted the Kannada, Telugu, and Tamil languages, along with Sanskrit, reflecting the diverse yet unified nature of their administration.

Additional Information

• Vijayanagar Empire:
• The empire spanned across the Deccan Plateau, including present-day Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala.
• The rulers were patrons of temple architecture. Temples like the Virupaksha Temple in Hampi and the Vittala Temple are famous examples of the architectural grandeur of the empire.
• The empire reached its zenith during the reign of Krishna Deva Raya (1509–1529), who was known for his administrative skills, military prowess, and cultural patronage.
• The Vijayanagar economy was well-organized, with a focus on trade, agriculture, and industry. The empire traded spices, precious stones, and textiles with countries such as Portugal, Persia, and Southeast Asia.
• Other Empires Mentioned:
• Chalukya Empire: The Chalukya dynasty ruled parts of South India between the 6^th and 12^th centuries. They were known for their contributions to temple architecture, such as the Pattadakal group of monuments.
• Rashtrakuta Empire: The Rashtrakutas ruled from the 8^th to 10^th centuries. They are famous for constructing the Kailasa Temple at Ellora, a remarkable monolithic structure.
• Chola Empire: The Cholas, prominent in Tamil Nadu, were known for their naval prowess and contributions to temple architecture, such as the Brihadeeswarar Temple in Thanjavur.
• Key Features of Vijayanagar Rule:
• The empire maintained a strong military to protect its territories and resist invasions.
• It was a hub for trade and commerce, facilitating economic prosperity.
• The rulers were tolerant of different religions, although they primarily patronized Hinduism.

Important Points

• Fall of Vijayanagar: The empire declined after the Battle of Talikota in 1565, where it faced a decisive defeat by the combined forces of the Deccan Sultanates.
• Despite its fall, the legacy of Vijayanagar continues to influence South Indian culture, particularly in the realms of art and architecture.
• The ruins of Hampi remain a testament to the grandeur and significance of the Vijayanagar Empire.

The correct answer is depreciation.

Key Points

• The expenditure incurred on the normal repair and maintenance of a machine by a firm is categorized as depreciation. This represents the loss of value or wear and tear of the machine over time.
• Depreciation is a non-cash expense used in accounting to allocate the cost of a tangible asset over its useful life. It ensures that the asset's cost is systematically charged to the firm's expenses.
• Normal repairs and maintenance are considered a part of the ongoing operational costs to keep the machine in working condition. This cost does not increase the productive capacity or lifespan of the machine.
• The concept of depreciation applies to assets like machinery, buildings, vehicles, and equipment, as they lose value due to usage, wear, and obsolescence.
• Such expenses are accounted for in the firm's financial statements to accurately reflect the cost associated with utilizing the machine for production or operations.

Additional Information

• Gross Investment:
• Gross investment refers to the total expenditure on acquiring new capital assets and replacing worn-out assets. It includes both depreciation and net investment.
• It is not related to normal repair costs but involves the purchase or creation of new assets that add to the firm's capital stock.
• Capital Assets:
• Capital assets are long-term assets like property, machinery, and equipment that a firm uses in its operations to generate income.
• Normal repair costs are not classified as the purchase of capital assets but as maintenance expenses to keep the asset functional.
• Final Consumption Expenditure:
• This refers to the total spending by households and firms on goods and services for immediate use or consumption.
• Repair costs for machinery are not considered as consumption expenditure but as operational or maintenance expenses.
• Depreciation:
• Depreciation accounts for the reduction in the value of an asset due to wear and tear, aging, or obsolescence.
• It is recorded as an expense in a firm's income statement and helps in allocating the cost of the asset over its useful life.
• Routine repairs and maintenance costs are directly related to managing the depreciation of the asset.

Important Points

• Difference between Capital and Revenue Expenditure:
• Capital Expenditure: Involves spending on acquiring or upgrading physical assets like machinery, buildings, or equipment. These are long-term investments.
• Revenue Expenditure: Includes costs incurred in the day-to-day functioning of the business, such as repairs, maintenance, and utility bills.
• Normal repair costs are categorized under revenue expenditure, not capital expenditure.
• Accounting Treatment of Depreciation:
• Depreciation is recorded as an expense in the firm's profit and loss statement.
• It reduces the book value of an asset over time and reflects the asset's true value in the balance sheet.
• Various methods like Straight-Line Method and Diminishing Balance Method are used to calculate depreciation.
• Examples of Depreciation:
• A machine purchased for ₹10,00,000 and expected to last for 10 years will incur annual depreciation of ₹1,00,000 if the Straight-Line Method is used.
• Vehicles, office furniture, and factory equipment are other examples of depreciable assets.

Given:

Investment of A = ₹6,00,000

Investment of B = ₹9,00,000

Total investment = 6,00,000 + 9,00,000 = ₹15,00,000

Total profit is 10% more than total investment

⇒ Total profit = 110% of 15,00,000

⇒ Total profit = 1.10 × 15,00,000 = ₹16,50,000

40% of profit is shared equally

Remaining 60% is shared in the ratio of investments

Formula used:

Equal share = 40% of profit ÷ 2

Remaining profit share ∝ Investment ratio

Calculations:

⇒ 40% of total profit = 0.40 × 16,50,000 = ₹6,60,000

⇒ Equal share of A = 6,60,000 ÷ 2 = ₹3,30,000

⇒ Remaining profit = 16,50,000 − 6,60,000 = ₹9,90,000

⇒ Investment ratio A : B = 6,00,000 : 9,00,000 = 2 : 3

⇒ A’s share from remaining profit = 9,90,000 × 2 ÷ 5

⇒ A’s share = ₹3,96,000

Total profit received by A:

⇒ 3,30,000 + 3,96,000 = ₹7,26,000

∴ A received ₹7,26,000 as profit.

Given:

Percentage of salary spent on food and travel = 45%

Percentage of remaining salary spent on books = 1/5

Remaining savings = ₹13,200

Formula Used:

Total salary = Remaining savings ÷ (1 - percentage spent on food and travel - percentage spent on books)

Remaining salary after food and travel = Total salary × (1 - percentage spent on food and travel)

Calculation:

⇒ Remaining salary after food and travel = Total salary × (1 - 0.45)

⇒ Salary spent on books = Remaining salary after food and travel × 1/5

⇒ Remaining savings = Remaining salary after food and travel - Salary spent on books

⇒ ₹13,200 = Total salary × (1 - 0.45) × (1 - 1/5)

⇒ ₹13,200 = Total salary × 0.55 × 0.8

⇒ ₹13,200 = Total salary × 0.44

⇒ Total salary = ₹13,200 / 0.44

⇒ Total salary = ₹30,000

∴ The correct answer is 30,000.

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹5,000

Rate of interest (R) = 5% per annum

Time (T) = 2 years

Compounding frequency = Half-yearly

Formula Used:

Compound Interest (CI) = A - P

Amount (A) = P × (1 + r/n)^n×t

Calculation:

⇒ n (number of times interest is compounded per year) = 2

⇒ r = 5% = 5 / 100 = 0.05

⇒ A = 5000 × (1 + 0.05 / 2)^2×2

⇒ A = 5000 × (1 + 0.025)⁴

⇒ A = 5000 × (1.025)⁴

⇒ A = 5000 × 1.103812890625

⇒ A = 5519.06

⇒ CI = A - P

⇒ CI = 5519.06 - 5000

⇒ CI = 519.06

∴ The correct answer is ₹519.06.

Given:

Speed from A to B = 12 km/h

Speed from B to A = 36 km/h

Formula Used:

Average speed for two-way journey = (2 × Speed₁ × Speed₂) / (Speed₁ + Speed₂)

Calculation:

⇒ Average speed = (2 × 12 × 36) / (12 + 36)

⇒ Average speed = (2 × 432) / 48

⇒ Average speed = 864 / 48

⇒ Average speed = 18 km/h

∴ The correct answer is 18.

Given:

Average of 13 numbers = 7

Each number is multiplied by 7

Formula Used:

New average = Old average × Multiplication factor

Calculation:

⇒ New average = 7 × 7

⇒ New average = 49

∴ The correct answer is 49.

Given:

First discount = 10%

Second discount = 20%

Formula Used:

Single discount percentage = A + B - (A × B) / 100

Calculation:

⇒ A = 10, B = 20

⇒ Single discount percentage = 10 + 20 - (10 × 20) / 100

⇒ Single discount percentage = 30 - 200 / 100

⇒ Single discount percentage = 30 - 2

⇒ Single discount percentage = 28%

∴ The correct answer is 28%.

Given:

⇒ A man can do the work in 10 days

⇒ A woman can do the work in 12 days

Concept Used:

⇒ Work per day = 1 ÷ number of days

⇒ Total work = 1 unit

Calculation:

⇒ Work done by 1 man in 1 day = 1 ÷ 10

⇒ Work done by 1 woman in 1 day = 1 ÷ 12

⇒ Work done by 2 men in 1 day

⇒ = 2 × (1 ÷ 10)

⇒ = 1 ÷ 5

⇒ Work done by 3 women in 1 day

⇒ = 3 × (1 ÷ 12)

⇒ = 1 ÷ 4

⇒ Pattern of work

⇒ Day 1 → 2 men

⇒ Day 2 → 3 women

⇒ Work repeats alternately

⇒ Work done in 2 days

⇒ = (1 ÷ 5) + (1 ÷ 4)

⇒ = (4 + 5) ÷ 20

⇒ = 9 ÷ 20

⇒ Work done in 4 days

⇒ = 2 × (9 ÷ 20)

⇒ = 18 ÷ 20

⇒ = 0.9

⇒ Remaining work

⇒ = 1 − 0.9

⇒ = 0.1

⇒ Next day is men’s turn

⇒ Work done by men in 1 day = 1 ÷ 5 = 0.2

⇒ Time needed for remaining work

⇒ = 0.1 ÷ 0.2

⇒ = 0.5 day

Final Answer:

⇒ Total time = 4 + 0.5

⇒ Total time = 4.5 days

Given:

⇒ First expression = x² − 2x − 8

⇒ Second expression = x² − px − 28

⇒ HCF = (x − 4)

Concept Used:

⇒ If (x − a) is a factor of a polynomial, then substituting x = a gives zero

Calculation:

⇒ Since (x − 4) is a factor, put x = 4

For first expression:

⇒ 4² − 2×4 − 8

⇒ 16 − 8 − 8

⇒ 0 (satisfies)

For second expression:

⇒ 4² − p×4 − 28

⇒ 16 − 4p − 28

⇒ −12 − 4p = 0

⇒ 4p = −12

⇒ p = −3

Final Answer:

⇒ Value of p = −3

Given Data from Pie Chart:

⇒ Accounts = 20%

⇒ Finance = 25%

⇒ HR = 20%

⇒ Audit = 15%

Concept Used:

⇒ Percentage comparison = (Required part ÷ Base part) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Total of Accounts and Finance

⇒ = 20 + 25

⇒ = 45%

⇒ Total of HR and Audit

⇒ = 20 + 15

⇒ = 35%

⇒ Required percentage

⇒ = (45 ÷ 35) × 100

⇒ = 1.2857 × 100

⇒ = 128.57%

Final Answer:

⇒ Accounts and Finance clerks form 128.57% of HR and Audit clerks

Given:

Amount added = ₹360

Fraction of the total amount = 1/3

Final total amount = ₹480

Formula Used:

Total amount = Fraction × Total amount + Added amount

Calculation:

⇒ Let the total amount be x.

⇒ (1/3) × x + ₹360 = ₹480

⇒ (1/3) × x = ₹480 - ₹360

⇒ (1/3) × x = ₹120

⇒ x = ₹120 × 3

⇒ x = ₹360

∴ The correct answer is ₹360.

Given: Time by pipe A = 25 min

Time by pipe B = 30 min

Combined rate = 2600 litres/min

Concept Used:

Rate of work = 1 / time

Total rate = sum of individual rates

Calculation:

⇒ Rate of A = 1/25

⇒ Rate of B = 1/30

⇒ Total rate = 1/25 + 1/30

⇒ LCM of 25, 30 = 150

⇒ Total rate = (6 + 5)/150

⇒ Total rate = 11/150 tank/min

⇒ 11/150 tank = 2600 litres

⇒ Full tank = 2600 × (150/11)

⇒ = (2600 × 150)/11

⇒ = 3,90,000/11 litres

⇒ = 35,454.54 litres (approx.)

∴ Capacity of tank = 3,90,000/11 litres.

Given:

Discount 1 = 20%

Discount 2 = 30%

Discount 3 = 40%

Formula Used:

Single Discount Equivalent = 1 - (1 - d₁) × (1 - d₂) × (1 - d₃)

Calculation:

⇒ Single Discount Equivalent = 1 - (1 - 0.20) × (1 - 0.30) × (1 - 0.40)

⇒ Single Discount Equivalent = 1 - (0.80 × 0.70 × 0.60)

⇒ Single Discount Equivalent = 1 - 0.336

⇒ Single Discount Equivalent = 0.664

⇒ Single Discount Equivalent = 66.4%

∴ The correct answer is 66.4%.

Given:

Volume of the prism = 270 cm³

Base altitude = 12 cm

Base side = 9 cm

Formula Used:

Volume of a triangular prism = (1/2 × base side × base altitude) × height

Calculation:

⇒ 270 = (1/2 × 9 × 12) × height

⇒ 270 = (1/2 × 108) × height

⇒ 270 = 54 × height

⇒ height = 270 / 54

⇒ height = 5 cm

∴ The correct answer is 5 cm.

Given:

Average of 13 numbers = 7

Each number is multiplied by 3

Formula Used:

New average = Old average × Multiplier

Calculation:

⇒ New average = 7 × 3

⇒ New average = 21

∴ The correct answer is 21.

Given:

Number of people who visited the zoo on Sunday = 900

Number of people who visited the zoo on Monday = 540

Formula Used:

Percentage decrease = ((Decrease in value / Original value) × 100)

Calculation:

⇒ Decrease in number of people = 900 - 540 = 360

⇒ Percentage decrease = (360 / 900) × 100

⇒ Percentage decrease = 40%

∴ The correct answer is 40%.

Given:

Principal (P) = Sum of money

Time (T) = 10 years

Final Amount (A) = 2 × Principal

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) / 100

A = P + SI

Calculation:

⇒ Final Amount (A) = 2 × P

⇒ P + SI = 2P

⇒ SI = 2P - P = P

⇒ (P × R × T) / 100 = P

⇒ R × T = 100

⇒ R × 10 = 100

⇒ R = 100 / 10

⇒ R = 10%

∴ The correct answer is 10%.

Given:

Side of the cube = 13 cm

Formula Used:

Total Surface Area (TSA) = 6 × (side)²

Lateral Surface Area (LSA) = 4 × (side)²

Difference = TSA - LSA

Calculation:

⇒ TSA = 6 × (13)²

⇒ TSA = 6 × 169

⇒ TSA = 1014 cm²

⇒ LSA = 4 × (13)²

⇒ LSA = 4 × 169

⇒ LSA = 676 cm²

⇒ Difference = TSA - LSA

⇒ Difference = 1014 - 676

⇒ Difference = 338 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 338 cm².

Given:

Ravi's investment = ₹26,000

Reeta's investment = ₹78,000

Profit ratio = Equal (1:1)

Ravi invested for 12 months.

Reeta joined after 'x' months.

Formula Used:

Profit ratio = (Investment × Time)

Since Ravi and Reeta's profit is equal, their investment × time values must also be equal.

Calculation:

Ravi's profit = 26,000 × 12

Reeta's profit = 78,000 × (12 - x)

Equating profits:

⇒ 26,000 × 12 = 78,000 × (12 - x)

⇒ 3,12,000 = 78,000 × (12 - x)

⇒ 3,12,000 = 9,36,000 - 78,000x

⇒ 78,000x = 9,36,000 - 3,12,000

⇒ 78,000x = 6,24,000

⇒ x = 6,24,000 / 78,000

⇒ x = 8

∴ The correct answer is 8.

Given:

Vendor sold 29 chocolates for ₹1.

Profit = 100%.

Formula Used:

Profit % = (Selling Price - Cost Price) / Cost Price × 100.

Cost Price of 1 chocolate = Total Cost Price / Total Chocolates Bought.

Calculation:

⇒ Selling Price of 29 chocolates = ₹1.

⇒ Profit % = 100.

⇒ 100 = (1 - Cost Price) / Cost Price × 100.

⇒ 1 = (1 - Cost Price) / Cost Price.

⇒ Cost Price = 0.50.

⇒ Cost Price of 29 chocolates = ₹0.50.

⇒ Cost Price of 1 chocolate = ₹0.50 / 29.

⇒ Chocolates bought for ₹1 = 1 / (₹0.50 / 29).

⇒ Chocolates bought = 29 × 2 = 58.

∴ The correct answer is 58.

Given:

Distance between X and Y = 150 km

Relative speed of Car A and Car B = x + y

Time taken to meet = 2 hours

Distance of Y from the meeting point = 1/2 × Distance of X from the meeting point

Formula Used:

Relative speed = Distance / Time

Distance of Y from the meeting point = 1/2 × Distance of X from the meeting point

Total distance = Distance of X from the meeting point + Distance of Y from the meeting point

Time = Distance / Speed

Calculation:

⇒ Relative speed = 150 / 2

⇒ x + y = 75 km/hr

Let the time taken by Car A to travel from X to Y = t hours.

⇒ Distance covered by Car A = x × t

⇒ Distance covered by Car B in t hours = y × t

Now, on return journey:

⇒ Distance of Y from the meeting point = 1/2 × Distance of X from the meeting point

⇒ Distance of Y from the meeting point = 1/3 × 150

⇒ Distance of Y from the meeting point = 50 km

⇒ Distance of X from the meeting point = 150 - 50 = 100 km

For Car A to travel from X to Y:

⇒ x × t = 150

⇒ t = 150 / x

From the relative speed:

⇒ x + y = 75

Now, using the meeting point distances:

⇒ Distance covered by Car A = 100 km

⇒ Distance covered by Car B = 50 km

⇒ Time taken for meeting point = Distance / Speed

⇒ t = 150 / 75

⇒ t = 2 hours

∴ The correct answer is 3 hours.

The correct answer is: Virtuoso.

Key Points

• The word "Virtuoso" refers to a person who is highly skilled in or has a deep understanding of a particular area or field. (विशेषज्ञ)
• Example: The violinist was a virtuoso, captivating the audience with her flawless performance.
• "Virtuoso" emphasizes exceptional skill, mastery, or expertise in a specific domain, often related to the arts or music. (विशेषज्ञ)
• Example: He is considered a virtuoso chef, known for creating culinary masterpieces.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Virtuoso.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Rookie (नवसिखिया): A person who is new to an activity or profession, lacking experience.
• Example: As a rookie journalist, she was still learning the ropes of investigative reporting.
• Ignoramus (मूर्ख): A person who lacks knowledge or awareness in a particular field.
• Example: Despite his efforts, he was often treated as an ignoramus in scientific discussions.
• Amateur (शौक़ीन): A person who engages in a pursuit, especially a sport, on an unpaid basis or lacks professional expertise.
• Example: The amateur photographer's work was commendable, considering he had no formal training.

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. "tranquil".

Key Points

• The word "tempestuous" means characterized by strong and turbulent or conflicting emotions, or referring to very stormy and rough weather. (उग्र, तूफानी)
• Example: The couple had a tempestuous relationship, full of arguments and reconciliations.
• The word "tranquil" refers to being calm, peaceful, and free from disturbance. (शांत)
• Example: The lake was tranquil in the early morning, with not a ripple disturbing its surface.
• In the given sentence, the word "tempestuous" describes the winds, and its antonym would be "tranquil," as it refers to a calm and peaceful situation.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. "tranquil".

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Intense (तीव्र): Refers to something of extreme force, degree, or strength.
• Example: The intense heat of the desert made it difficult to walk even a short distance.
• Dreary (निराशाजनक): Refers to something dull, bleak, and lifeless.
• Example: The rainy day made the town look even more dreary than usual.
• Lenient (उदार): Refers to being permissive, merciful, or tolerant.
• Example: The teacher was lenient in grading the assignments, giving almost everyone high marks.

The correct answer is 'no fewer than'.

 

Key Points

• The phrase "no fewer than" is used to refer to a quantity that is equal to or greater than a specific number.
• This is appropriate in the context where the number of apartments is being emphasized.
• Options 1, 2, and 3 are grammatically incorrect or do not fit the context of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Complete Sentence: "Amitabh possesses no fewer than five apartments across Mumbai."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "not lesser than" is incorrect because "lesser" is not used in this comparative form.
• Option 2: "no less than" is incorrect in the context because "less" refers to uncountable quantities, whereas apartments are countable.
• Option 3: "not few than" is incorrect as it is grammatically incorrect and does not convey the intended meaning.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• The paragraph begins by introducing the concept of manipulation and its impact on behavior.
• Sentence C is the first sentence as it defines manipulation and establishes its relevance:
• "Manipulation is a designed experience crafted to change behaviour — we all know what it feels like."
• Sentence B follows as it provides examples of situations where manipulation is evident:
• "We’re uncomfortable when we sense someone is trying to make us do something we wouldn’t do otherwise, like when at a car dealership or a timeshare presentation, or when an app asks us to share our contacts."
• Sentence D is the third sentence because it introduces a contrasting perspective on manipulation:
• "Yet, manipulation can’t be all bad."
• Sentence A is the last as it provides examples of industries that thrive on manipulation:
• "If it were, what explains the numerous multi-billion-dollar industries that rely heavily on users willfully submitting to manipulation?"
• The correct sequence is CBDA.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"Manipulation is a designed experience crafted to change behaviour — we all know what it feels like. We’re uncomfortable when we sense someone is trying to make us do something we wouldn’t do otherwise, like when at a car dealership or a timeshare presentation, or when an app asks us to share our contacts. Yet, manipulation can’t be all bad. If it were, what explains the numerous multi-billion-dollar industries that rely heavily on users willfully submitting to manipulation?"

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The paragraph begins broadly by introducing the theme of Earth’s geological history (B).
• It then invites the reader to imagine witnessing ancient geological events firsthand (C).
• Next, it connects these dramatic events to their impact on the present landscape—ancient faults (A).
• Finally, it explains the significance of these faults, as records of tectonic activity and Earth’s evolution (D).
• Thus, the correct sequence is BCAD.

 

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"Exploring the Earth’s geological history reveals stories of collision, upheaval and transformation. If we were able to travel millions of years back in time, we would witness continents crashing into each other and mountains rising from the depths of the Earth. These dramatic events have left their mark on the landscape in the form of ancient faults – breaks in the Earth’s crust which serve as reminders of the planet’s dynamic past. These faults, formed through the intense pressure and movement of tectonic plates, hold within them a wealth of information about the Earth’s geological evolution."

The correct answer is: Compromising.

Key Points

• The word "confrontational" refers to someone or something inclined to confront or provoke disputes and conflicts. (विवादपूर्ण)
• Example: The employee's confrontational attitude during meetings often caused tension among team members.
• "Compromising" refers to someone willing to settle differences through mutual concessions, avoiding conflict and confrontation. (समझौतावादी)
• Example: The manager's compromising nature ensured that both parties reached a peaceful agreement.
• Hence, the antonym of 'confrontational' is 'compromising'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Compromising.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Calculative (गणनात्मक): Refers to someone who is careful, strategic, and often focused on personal gain.
• Example: His calculative decisions in business have always led to high profits.
• Cunning (चालाक): Refers to someone who is crafty, deceitful, or manipulative.
• Example: The cunning fox tricked the other animals into giving up their food.
• Caring (दयालु): Showing kindness and concern for others.
• Example: She has always been a caring friend, ready to help anyone in need.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'dilattante'.

• The correct spelling would be 'dilettante'.
• The word 'dilettante' is a noun which means 'a person who cultivates an area of interest, such as the arts, without real commitment or knowledge'. (शौकिया)
• For Example -
• He was dismissed as a mere dilettante and not a serious writer.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'dilattante'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Exacerbated - made a problem or situation worse (बिगाड़ना)
• Equanimity - mental calmness, composure, and evenness of temper, especially in a difficult situation (संतुलन)
• Pusillanimous - showing a lack of courage or determination; timid (कायर)

The correct answer is 'senior to'.

 

Key Points

• The word "senior" is always followed by "to" when comparing individuals with respect to service, rank, or position.
• The word "elder" is used to describe age and is followed by "to" but cannot be used in the context of service or rank.
• Option 1: "senior than" is grammatically incorrect as "senior" is never followed by "than."
• Option 2: "elder than" is incorrect in this context since "elder" does not relate to service.
• Option 3: "elder to" is inappropriate as the comparison is about service, not age.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Complete Sentence: "Dr. Bachchan is senior to me in service."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "senior than" is incorrect as it violates grammatical rules of comparison.
• Option 2: "elder than" is incorrect because "elder" cannot be used to denote rank or service.
• Option 3: "elder to" is inappropriate since "elder" applies to age, not service.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'shragged'.

• The correct spelling would be 'shrugged'.
• The word 'shrugged' is a verb which means 'to raise and lower the shoulders, often expressing doubt or indifference'. (कंधे उचकाना)
• For Example -
• She shrugged her shoulders when asked about the decision.

The misspelled word is 'contravention'.

• The correct spelling would be 'contravention'.
• The word 'contravention' is a noun which means 'an action that violates a law, treaty, or other ruling'. (उल्लंघन)
• For Example -
• The company's actions were in contravention of the law.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'shragged' and 'contraventions'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Markets - a regular gathering of people for the purchase and sale of provisions, livestock, and other commodities (बाजार)
• Jawboning - the use of public appeals (as by a president) to influence the policies of business and labor (बातों से राज़ी करना)
• Appreciable - large or important enough to be noticed (महत्वपूर्ण)

The correct answer is 'does she'.

 

Key Points

• The sentence contains the phrase "never acts so kindly", which is a negative statement. For negative statements, the question tag should be positive.
• The pronoun "she" agrees with the subject "Bindu".
• The auxiliary verb "does" is used because the main verb "acts" is in the simple present tense.
• Options 1, 2, and 3 are grammatically incorrect in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Complete Sentence: "Bindu never acts so kindly, does she?"

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "did she" is incorrect because the main verb is in the present tense, not the past tense.
• Option 2: "do she" is incorrect because "do" does not agree with the singular subject "she".
• Option 3: "is she" is incorrect because "is" cannot be used as an auxiliary verb with the main verb "acts".

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. "What is invaluable to one may be valuable to another."

Key Points

• The proverb "One man's junk is another man's treasure" means that something which is considered useless or unwanted by one person might be highly valuable or useful to someone else. (एक व्यक्ति के लिए बेकार वस्तु दूसरे के लिए खजाना हो सकती है।)
• Example: An old chair thrown away by one person may be restored and sold for a good price by another.
• "Invaluable" refers to something priceless or of great value, while "valuable" represents something that has worth or importance. (अमूल्य और मूल्यवान)
• Example: To an artist, a worn-out brush might hold invaluable sentimental value, even if it seems worthless to others.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: "Sometimes you may face disappointments in your pursuits or your wishes may not be fulfilled." (कभी-कभी आप अपने प्रयासों में निराशा का सामना कर सकते हैं या आपकी इच्छाएं पूरी नहीं हो सकतीं।)
• Example: Despite working hard, she faced disappointment when her project failed.
• Option 2: "Focus on what you have and not on what you do not." (जो आपके पास है उस पर ध्यान दें, और जो नहीं है उस पर नहीं।)
• Example: She learned to appreciate her small apartment rather than longing for a bigger house.
• Option 4: "When conditions become difficult, strong people take action." (जब परिस्थितियां कठिन हो जाती हैं, तो मजबूत लोग कार्रवाई करते हैं।)
• Example: When the storm hit, the villagers worked together to rebuild their homes.

The correct answer is: Erudite.

Key Points

• The word "Erudite" refers to someone who is highly knowledgeable, scholarly, and well-educated. This term is often used to describe a person who has acquired profound knowledge through extensive reading and learning. (विद्वान)
• Example: The professor was known for his erudite lectures on ancient history.
• An erudite individual is typically admired for their intellectual depth and broad understanding of various subjects. (विद्वान)
• Example: Her erudite remarks about the topic impressed everyone in the conference.
• Hence, the term "Erudite" perfectly defines "a person who is excessively fond of acquiring knowledge".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Erudite.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Uncultured (अशिक्षित): Lacking education, refinement, or cultural knowledge.
• Example: He was mocked for his uncultured manners during the event.
• Common (सामान्य): Occurring frequently or widely; not unique or extraordinary.
• Example: It's common to see birds chirping early in the morning.
• Ignorant (अज्ञानी): Lacking awareness, knowledge, or understanding.
• Example: Many people are ignorant of the laws that protect wildlife.

The correct answer is 'much'.

 

Key Points

• The word "much" is used to indicate a large degree or extent of comparison.
• The sentence compares two cars, and "much better" is the correct expression to emphasize the comparison.
• Options 1, 2, and 3 are grammatically incorrect in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Complete Sentence: "Her car is much better than mine."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "more" is incorrect because "more better" is redundant and grammatically incorrect.
• Option 2: "very" is incorrect as it does not fit grammatically in the context of the sentence.
• Option 3: "too" is incorrect because "too better" is not a valid construction in English.

The correct answer is 'did she'.

 

Key Points

• The statement contains the word "never," which makes it negative.
• In a negative statement, the question tag should be positive.
• The auxiliary verb used in the statement is in the past tense, so the correct question tag is "did she."
• Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect as they do not match the tense or structure of the given statement.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "Madonna never performed on the stage, did she?"

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "does she" is incorrect because the verb "performed" is in the past tense, not present tense.
• Option 3: "isn't she" is incorrect because it is not a suitable question tag for the given sentence structure.
• Option 4: "is she" is incorrect as the tense does not match the statement.

The correct answer is: bitten off more than he can chew.

Key Points

• The idiom "bitten off more than he can chew" means to take on a task that is too difficult or too much to handle. (अपनी क्षमता से अधिक काम करना)
• Example: By agreeing to organize the entire wedding by himself, Tom realized he had bitten off more than he could chew.
• The given sentence talks about the bureaucrat accepting a challenging task, which fits the meaning of this idiom.

Therefore, the correct answer is: bitten off more than he can chew.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Turned down (ठुकरा दिया): To refuse or reject something.
• Example: She turned down the job offer because it didn't meet her expectations.
• Put off (टालना): To postpone or delay something.
• Example: The meeting was put off until next week due to scheduling conflicts.
• Made a mountain out of a molehill (छोटी बात को बड़ा बना देना): To exaggerate the importance of a minor issue.
• Example: Stop making a mountain out of a molehill; it's not a big problem.

The correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Key Points

• The passage explains what mutual funds are, their advantages, risks, and key considerations for investors in a clear and objective manner.
• It presents facts and guidance without urging the reader to take a particular action, and it is not focused solely on warnings or critique.
• Option 1: Critical
• Incorrect, the passage does not focus on fault-finding or negative judgment.
• Option 3: Persuasive
• Incorrect, the passage does not aim to convince the reader to invest or avoid mutual funds.
• Option 4: Cautionary
• Incorrect, while it mentions risks, the primary purpose is to inform, not just warn.

Therefore, the tone of the passage is informative.

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Key Points

• For a risk-averse investor, the most important factor is how much risk they are taking on.
• Balanced (hybrid) funds contain both debt and equity; the proportion of equity increases risk compared to pure debt funds.
• The investor should carefully consider the equity component in the balanced fund and ensure it aligns with their comfort level and risk tolerance.
• Option 2: The expense ratio of both funds, assuming a lower expense ratio always leads to better returns
• Incorrect, while expense ratio matters, risk alignment is primary for a risk-averse investor.
• Option 3: The potential for higher returns in a balanced fund, even if it involves more risk
• Incorrect, risk-averse investors should not prioritize higher returns if it comes with more risk.
• Option 4: The past performance of the debt fund to determine if it has always given positive returns
• Incorrect, past performance does not guarantee future results and should not be the sole criterion.

Therefore, the primary consideration should be the proportion of equity in the balanced fund and how it aligns with their risk tolerance.

The correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Key Points

• The passage explains what mutual funds are, highlights both their advantages and inherent risks, and emphasizes the importance of balancing risk and reward when investing.
• Option 2 accurately captures the informative and balanced approach of the passage.
• Option 1: "Mutual Funds: A Risk-Free Investment Option"
• Incorrect, the passage explicitly discusses risks involved in mutual funds.
• Option 3: "Avoiding Losses in Mutual Fund Investments"
• Incorrect, the passage is not solely about loss avoidance.
• Option 4: "Why Mutual Funds Are the Best Investment Choice"
• Incorrect, the passage does not claim that mutual funds are the best option for everyone.

Therefore, the most appropriate title is "Understanding Mutual Funds: Balancing Risk and Reward".

The correct answer is: Option 2) Aggressive i.e. Aggressive.

Key Points

• The word "Conservative" means someone who is averse to change and prefers traditional values or approaches. (रूढ़िवादी)
• Example: He has conservative views about education and believes in following old teaching methods.
• "Aggressive" refers to someone who is forceful, bold, and willing to take risks or act assertively, often in contrast to being cautious or traditional. (आक्रामक)
• Example: The company adopted an aggressive marketing strategy to outperform its competitors.
• Therefore, "Aggressive" is the most appropriate antonym of "Conservative" as it signifies a proactive and risk-taking approach, the opposite of being cautious and traditional.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Aggressive

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Stable (स्थिर): Something that is steady, unchanging, or firmly established.
• Example: The economic situation in the country is stable at present.
• Moderate (मध्यम): Not extreme; average in amount, intensity, or degree.
• Example: She prefers a moderate level of exercise instead of intensive workouts.
• Cautious (सावधान): Careful to avoid potential problems or dangers.
• Example: He is always cautious when investing his money.

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Key Points

• The most logical way to decide between actively and passively managed funds is to compare their risk-adjusted returns and consistency over various market conditions, not just look at recent performance or expense ratios alone.
• This approach gives a more complete picture of which fund aligns with the investor’s goals, risk tolerance, and market environment.
• Option 1: Invest in the actively managed fund since past performance indicates continued success
• Incorrect, past performance does not guarantee future results and should not be the sole criterion.
• Option 2: Choose the passively managed fund because it is always more cost-effective in the long run
• Incorrect, cost-effectiveness depends on performance relative to fees and may not always hold true.
• Option 4: Invest equally in both funds to balance risk and return without analysing their performance
• Incorrect, this ignores the importance of analysing fund performance and risk.

Therefore, the most logical approach is to compare the risk-adjusted returns and consistency of both funds over different market conditions.

सही उत्तर -​ को

Key Points

• गुरू शिष्य​ को ज्ञान देता है।
• संप्रदान कारक का अर्थ है 'देना'। वाक्य में कर्ता जिसके लिए कुछ क्रिया करता है या जिसे कुछ दिया जाता है, उसे संप्रदान कारक कहते हैं।
• चिह्न (विभक्ति): के लिए, को, के हेतु, के वास्ते।
• सम्प्रदान कारक के अन्य उदाहरण -
• माँ बेटे के लिए सेब लायी।
• भिखारी को दान दो।

Additional Informationहिंदी में कारक के 8 भेद होते हैं।

**सही उत्तर -**चक्रवर्ती

Key Points

• ‘सारी पृथ्वी का राजा’को चक्रवर्ती कहते है।
• ऐसे शब्द जो मिलकर एक सार्थक इकाई बनते हैं, पर पूरा वाक्य नहीं होते,उन्हें वाक्यांश कहते हैं।
• चक्रवर्ती का अर्थ समुद्रपर्यंत पृथ्वी का अधिपति।
• चक्रवर्ती -  एक विशेषण शब्द है,चक्रवर्ती।

Additional Informationअन्य विकल्प :

1. जो चक्र धारण करता है। - चक्रधर
2. हाथ में चक्र धारण करने वाला।-चक्रपाणि

अन्य उदहारण -

• जो लिखने योग्य हो - लेखनीय
• जो क्षमा करने योग्य हो - क्षम्य
• जो वर्णन से परे हो - अवर्णनीय
• जो कभी नष्ट न हो - अनश्वर
• जो पहले जन्मा हो - अग्रज
• जो बाद में जन्मा हो - अनुज
• जिसका जन्म उच्च कुल में हुआ हो - कुलीन
• जिसका जन्म निम्न कुल में हुआ हो - अंत्यज
• जो स्वयं उत्पन्न हुआ हो - स्वयंभू

सही उत्तर -CDAB 

Key PointsC. साहित्यकार का लक्ष्य केवल मनोरंजन का सामान जुटाना नहीं है।

D. उसका दर्जा इतना न गिराइए।

A. वह राजनीति केपीछेचलने वाली सच्चाई भी नहीं ।

B. बल्कि उसकेआगे मशाल दिखाती हुई चलने वाली सच्चाई है।

किसी निश्चित अर्थ का बोध कराने वाले शब्दों को सार्थक शब्द कहा जाता है। 

उदाहरण-

शुद्ध :मोहन घर जाता है 

**अशुद्ध :**घर जाता है मोहन 

Additional Information

 कुछ प्रमुख अशुद्ध वाक्यों के शुद्ध रूप:

• अशुद्ध: मैं रविवार के दिन तुम्हारे घर आऊँगा।
• शुद्ध: मैं रविवार को तुम्हारे घर आऊँगा।
• अशुद्ध: मैंने ईश्वर का दर्शन किया।
• शुद्ध: मैंने ईश्वर के दर्शन किए।
• अशुद्ध: वह नौकरी पा गया।
• शुद्ध: उसे नौकरी मिल गई।
• अशुद्ध: इस पर्वतीय क्षेत्र में सर्वस्व शांति है।
• शुद्ध: इस पर्वतीय क्षेत्र में सर्वत्र शांति है।