According to the question, The path of aman shown below-

Here, we can see that final point is in East direction from the starting point.

Distance = 380 - 200 = 180m.

Hence, Option (3) is correct.

The mirror image of given image is shown below-

Hence, Option (4) is correct.

According to the question, Venn diagram of statements are given below-

Conclusions:

(1) No P is A → True (As No A is P)

(2) All G are P → False (According to Statement 1, All P are G vise-versa not allowed)

(3) All G are A → False (As there is no True relation given between G and A)

Hence, Option (3) is correct.

Vehicles: Car, Bus, Truck, Bike, Airplane, etc.

Whereas Parts of Vehicles are Tyre, Headlight, Engine, Fuel tank etc.

The tyre can not be placed in the category of Vehicles.

Hence, Option (2) is correct.

According to the question,

Statement 1: No of Grapes that are not oranges is 18.

As shown here, No of Grapes that are not oranges is 9 + 4 + 5 = 18.

Hence, Statement 1 is True.

Statement 2: Total numbers in 'long' are 31.

As shown, Total numbers in 'long' are 3 + 9 + 11 + 8 = 31.

Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

Now we have to answer the incorrect statements.

Hence, Option (3) is correct.

According to the question.

"Cars are white and blue" has been written as "@ # 9 at km", "white red and" as "lp # km", and "cars great" as "@ pr".

If we compare "Cars are white and blue" and "Cars great", the common part is "Cars".

Now we will compare the codes of both above "@ # 9 at km" and "at pr", the common part is "at".

That means "Cars" has been coded as "at" and "grate" has been coded as "pr".

Now we will compare "Cars are white and blue" and "White red and", the common part is "White and".

We will compare the codes of both above "@ # 9 at km" and "lp # km", the common part is "# km".

That means "red" has been coded as "lp".

Now if we have to code the "great red", it will be as "pr lp".

 Hence, Option (4) is correct.

According to the question,

A clerk is related to an office.

We know that clerks work in offices.

Similarly,

A doctor works in a Hospital.

Hence, Option (2) is correct.

We will see some other examples of this as;

A gardener works in a Garden.

A Mechanic works in a Workshop.

To solve this we have to unfold the above situation as-

The final answer is the same as Step 3.

Hence, Option (4) is correct.

According to the given information-

Now, P + Q × R - S ÷ T will be shown as-

(1) T is the son of R → False → (We don't have gender information of T.)

(2) P is Paternal Grandfather of S → False (P is the maternal grandfather of S)

Hence, Option (1) is correct.

The positions of the letters according to the English alphabet series:

The pattern follows;

 Here, QALID is wrong in the series.

Hence, Option (1), QALID is correct.

Total boys are 6 as P, Q, R, S, T, and U.

Q is second to the right of S.

R is the second right of Q.

Now combining both statements-

P is fourth to the left of U. U is not sitting on the extreme ends of the row i.e. U should be placed between Q and R than only we can arrange P as 4^th left of U.

Now Blank placed will be with boy T.

T is sitting second to the right of P.

Hence, Option (2) is correct.

According to the Statements, The Venn Diagram is shoen below-

Conclusions:

(1) Some C is B → False → There is No true relation between B and C.

(2) No N is B → False → According to the Statement 1.

Hence, Option (4) is correct.

According to the question, price order can be written as shown below-

1. The price of G3 is less than two doors only.

_ > _ > G₃ > _ > _ > _

2. The price of G1 is less than G3 but higher than G4.

G₃ > G₁ > G₄

The value of G3 is less than that of G2.

G₂ > G₃

If the value of G6 is maximum

G₆ > _ > _ > _ > _ > _

After combining all the statements, we get 3 possibilities:

1. G6 > G₂ > G₃ > G1 > G4 > G₅
2. G6 > G2 > G3 > G5 > G1 > G4
3. G6 > G2 > G3 > G1 > G5 > G4

(1) Price of G1 is less than G5 → False → it is possible but not definite as per the above 3 cases.

(2) Price of G4 is more than G5 → False → it is possible but not definite as per the above 3 cases.

Hence, Option (3) is correct.

According to the question, we have find the no of purses which are not black i.e. we have to find the number which is only lies into the only in purse region.

We have shown below in the shaded part- 

Here, Only 6 no of purses which are not black.

Hence, Option (4) is correct.

The logic followed is:

Decoding the information, 

Option (1)

15C5A11B27D3 = 67

= 15 × 5 + 11 - 27 ÷ 3 = 67

= 15 × 5 + 11 - 9 = 67

= 75 + 11 - 9 = 67

= 86 - 9 = 67

= 77 ≠ 67

Option (2)

14A11B62C17D31 = 14 + 11 - 62 × 17 ÷ 31

= 14 + 11 - 2 × 17

= 14 +11 - 34

= 25 - 34 = -9

Option (3) 

44D11A63C2B74 = 44 ÷ 11 + 63 × 2 - 74 

= 4 + 63 × 2 - 74 

= 4 + 126 - 74

= 130 - 74 = 56

Option (4) 

36C7D9A11B12 = 36 × 7 ÷ 9 + 11 - 12

 = 4 × 7 + 11 - 12

= 28 + 11 - 12

= 39 - 12 = 27

Hence, Option (1) is correct.

Net Rotation = Rotation in Anti-clockwise - Rotation in Clockwise

Net Rotation = (290 + 345) - (145 + 400)

Net Rotation = 90^o in ACW.

Hence, Option (1) is correct.

The positions of the letters according to the English alphabet series:

The pattern for this code is as follows;

Now accorrding to the same logic is appear in-

Hence, Option (1) is correct.

Checking options one by one;

Option (1) 

× and - 

36 + 37 × 42 ÷ 14 - 3 = 144

Option (2) 

• and+

36 - 37 + 42 ÷ 14 × 3 = 8

Option (3) 

• and ÷

36 ÷ 37 - 42 + 14 × 3 = 0.9729

Option (4)

• and ÷

36 + 37 ÷ 42 - 14 × 3 = -5.11

Hence, Option (2) is correct.

The positions of the letters according to the English alphabet series:

The pattern follows here is;

Here, Because of KRM the series order gets distrubed.

Hence, Option (2) is correct.

This question is based on series addition pattern.

Step 1-

Here, an Extra term is added in the column.

Step 2-

After adding an extra term to the column in the above step, here they have another extra term in the row now.

Now this pattern will follow in the upcoming steps accordingly.

Step 3-

Now another term will be added in the column as shown-

This image is the same as shown in Option (2).

Hence, Option (2) is correct.

The correct answer is B. B. Lal.

• B. B. Lal won Padma Vibhushan 2021.

Key Points

• Braj Basi Lal, better known as B. B. Lal, is an Indian archaeologist.
• He was the Director-General of the Archaeological Survey of India from 1968 to 1972 and has served as Director of the Indian Institute of Advanced Studies, Shimla.
• Lal also served on various UNESCO committees.
• He received the Padma Bhushan Award from the President of India in 2000.
• And he was awarded India's second-highest civilian award the Padma Vibhushan in 2021.

Important Points

• Padma Awards one of the highest civilian Awards of the country are conferred in three categories, namely, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri.
• The Awards are given in various disciplines/ fields of activities,
• Art, social work, public affairs, science and engineering, trade and industry, medicine, literature and education, sports, civil service, etc.
• Padma Vibhushan is awarded for exceptional and distinguished service.
• Padma Bhushan for distinguished service of a high order.
• Padma Shri for distinguished service in any field.
• The awards are announced on the occasion of Republic Day every year.
• These awards are conferred by the President of India.
• This year the President has approved the conferment of 119 Padma Awards.
• The list comprises
• 7 Padma Vibhushan
• 10 Padma Bhushan
• 102 Padma Shri Awards.
• 29 of the awardees are women
• 10 persons from the category of Foreigners/NRI/PIO/OCI
• 16 Posthumous awardees
• 1 transgender awardee.

Additional Information

• 7 Padma Vibhushan:

The correct answer is Only I.

Key Points

• The second layer of the atmosphere is found above the troposphere is Stratosphere.​  ​
• Also, it protects life from harmful radiation from the sun.
• It extends up to 50 km in height.
• This layer is very dry as it contains little water vapour.
• It provides some advantages for flight because it is above stormy weather and has steady, strong, horizontal winds.
• The ozone layer is present in this layer.

Additional Information

• An atmosphere is a blanket of gases that surrounds Earth.
• The atmosphere contains the air that we breathe It also helps retain the sun’s heat and prevents it from escaping back into space.
• Layers of Earth’s atmosphere are divided into five different layers as
• ​​Troposphere (the lowest layer of Earth’s atmosphere)
• Stratosphere (second layer)
• Mesosphere (third layer)
• Thermosphere (fourth layer)
• Exosphere (outermost layer of the atmosphere)​

The correct answer is 2.

• Plant tissues are basically of 2 types.

Key Points

• A tissue is a cluster of cells, that are alike in configuration and work together to attain a specific function.
• Different types of plant tissues include permanent and meristematic tissues
• Meristematic tissue:
• These tissues have the capability to develop by swift division.
• They assist in the major growth of the vegetation. Growth in length and growth in diameter of the plant is carried about by these cells.
• The Meristematic cells are cubical, living cells with a big nucleus.
• These cells are meticulously crammed with no intercellular spaces.
• Depending on the section where the meristematic tissues are existing, they are categorized as intercalary, lateral and apical meristems.
• Permanent tissues:
• These cells have lost their ability to distribute but are specialized to offer elasticity, flexibility and strength to the plant.
• These tissues can be additionally categorized into:
• Simple Permanent Tissue: They can be classified into sclerenchyma, collenchyma and parenchyma based on their purpose.
• Complex Permanent Tissue: These tissues include phloem and xylem.
• Xylem is valuable for the transportation of water and solvable constituents.
• It is made up of xylem parenchyma, fibres, vessels and tracheids.
• Phloem is valuable in the transportation of food particles.
• Phloem consists of phloem parenchyma, phloem fibres, companion cells, sieve cells and sieve tubes.

The correct answer is 69.

Key Points

• India’s final tally at the 18^th Asian Games in Jakarta and Palembang, Indonesia.
• 69 medals – 15 gold, 24 silver and 30 bronze to surpass the medal count from the 2010 Games in Guangzhou, China and match the gold medal tally from the first-ever Asian Games in 1951.
• The games saw India create new national records, register some firsts –
• The first medal in sepak takraw.
• Rahi Sarnobat became the first Indian woman to win the Asian Games gold in shooting.
• Vinesh Phogat became the first Indian woman to win gold in wrestling.
• The Games got underway with Neeraj Chopra as the flag bearer at the opening ceremony.
• Ravi Kumar and Apurvi Chandela winning the first medal, India.
• The last and culminates on September 2 with Rani Rampal as the flag bearer at the closing ceremony.

Additional Information

• The Asian Games, also known as Asiad, is a continental multi-sport event held every four years among athletes from all over Asia.
• The Games were regulated by the Asian Games Federation from the first Games in New Delhi, India, until the 1978 Games.
• Next Event: 2022
• Last event: 2018 Asian Games in Jakarta-Palembang, Indonesia
• First event: 1951 Asian Games in New Delhi, India
• Motto 2018: Ever Onward
• Motto 2022: Heart to Heart, @Future
• Occur every: Four years
• Purpose: Multi-sport event for nations in Asia

The correct answer is 1175 - 1192.

• Prithviraj Chauhan ruled Delhi during 1175 - 1192.

Key Points

• Prithvirāja III, popularly known as Prithviraj Chauhan, was an Indian king from the Chahamana (Chauhan) dynasty.
• From the very early years, Prithvi Raj showed his sharpness and brilliance by learning all military skills.
• It was believed he mastered the skills of aiming the target based on its sound, known as the “Shabdbhedi” technique.
• He succeeded to the throne of Ajmer at the age of thirteen, in 1179, after the demise of his father in a battle.
• Prithviraj’s grandfather Angam, the ruler of Delhi, declared Prithviraj Chauhan the heir to the throne of Delhi.

Additional Information 

• Prithviraj Chauhan’s Battles
• ​As Prithviraj was still a minor when he ascended the throne, his mother, Karpuradevi, was his regent.
• Prithviraj’s historical wars and victories over Chandela kings in 1182 A.D. were significant in fetching immense riches to his treasury.
• Prithvi Raj battled against Mohammed Ghori the Afghan ruler in 1191 at the first battle of terrain and emerges victorious.
• After capturing Prithviraj Chauhan, Muhammad of Ghor reinstated him as a Ghurid vassal.
• This theory is supported by the fact that coins issued by Prithviraj after the battle of Tarain had his own name on one side and Muhammad’s name on the other.
• During its peak, the empire of Prithviraj Chauhan extended from the foothills of the Himalayan in the north to the foothills of Mount Abu in the south.
• Prithviraj Raso was written by Chand Bardai.

The correct answer is 136.

• Article 136 of the Indian constitution is related to the special leave to appeal by the supreme court.

Key Points

• Article 136 Constitution of India: Special leave to appeal by the Supreme Court
• Notwithstanding anything in this Chapter, the Supreme Court may, in its discretion, grant special leave to appeal from any judgment, decree, determination, sentence, or order in any cause or matter passed or made by any court or tribunal in the territory of India.
• Nothing in clause (1) shall apply to any judgment, determination, sentence or order passed or made by any court or tribunal constituted by or under any law relating to the Armed Forces.

​

• The Federal Court of India was created as per the Government of India Act 1935.
• After independence, the Federal Court and the Judicial Committee of the Privy Council were replaced by the Supreme Court of India, which came into being in January 1950.
• Including the CJI, there are 34 judges in the Supreme Court.
• The Current Chief Justice of India (CJI) is Sharad Arvind Bobde.
• There is only 1 Supreme Court in India. And, there are 25 High Courts.

​

Additional Information

• Important Articles

The correct answer is Only 1.

• Above the following pair, Only 1​ is correct.

Key Points

• Asexual Reproduction:
• It occurs in lower invertebrates and lowers chordates and plants with simple organizations.
• It is always uni-parental.
• Gametes are not formed.
• No fertilization or fusion of gametes occurs.
• It involves only mitosis.
• Daughter organisms are genetically identical to the parent.
• Multiplication occurs rapidly, of which prokaryotes such as bacteria are good examples.
• Since there is no variation, so it does not contribute to the evolution of the species.
• There are several methods of asexual reproduction such as

fragmentation, budding, spore formation and vegetative propagation.

Additional Information

• Sexual Reproduction:
• It occurs almost in all types of animals and mostly in higher plants.
• It is bi-parental.
• Sexual reproduction involves the fusion of male and female gametes
• Gametes are always formed.
• Fertilization takes place.
• It involves both meiosis and mitosis.
• Daughter organisms are genetically different from their parents.
• Multiplication is not as rapid as in asexual reproduction.
• Since there are variations, so it contributes to the evolution of the species.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

• Mohamed Salah Hamed Mahrous Ghaly is an Egyptian professional footballer.
• He plays as a forward for Premier League club Liverpool and captains the Egypt national team.
• Considered one of the best players in the world, he is known for his finishing, dribbling, and speed.
• Dhanraj Pillay Yadav is a retired Indian field hockey player and former captain of the Indian national team.
• He also looks after the Air India Sports Promotion Board as a Joint Secretary based in Mumbai.
• For the last 5 years, Dhanraj is overseeing the SAG Hockey Academy in Gujarat funded by the Gujarat Government.
• from the above explanation, both the players and their fields are right.

Additional Information

• International Sports Trophies and Cups:

The correct answer is Shashi Tharoor.

• The book Inglorious Empire was written by Shashi Tharoor.

Key Points

• Inglorious Empire arose from a speech given by Dr. Shashi Tharoor in May 2015 at the Oxford Union in support of the motion Britain Owes Reparations to Her Former Colonies, focusing on British exploitation of India.
• Shashi Tharoor is an Indian politician, writer, and former international diplomat.
• He has been serving as a Member of Parliament, Lok Sabha from Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala, since 2009.
• He was formerly Under-Secretary-General of the United Nations and contested for the post of Secretary-General in 2006.
• He has also written hundreds of columns in many famous publications like
• The New York Times
• The Washington Post
• In 2019, Dr. Shashi Tharoor got the Sahitya Academy Award for his book 'An Era of Darkness' in a non-fiction category in the English language.
• His books provide an insight into the Indian culture, its position in modern society, and how it evolved into one of the largest democracies in the world.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Real Exchange Rate.

• The Real Exchange Rate is the ratio of the value of the domestic currency to the foreign currency.

Key Points

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

• Both 1 and 2 pair of an Article of Indian Constitution - Content is correct.

Key Points

• Article 18 in The Constitution Of India 1949
• ​Abolition of titles:
• No title, not being a military or academic distinction, shall be conferred by the State No citizen of India shall accept any title from any foreign State.
• No person who is not a citizen of India shall, while he holds any office of profit or trust under the State, accept without the consent of the President any title from any foreign State.
• No person holding any office of profit or trust under the State shall, without the consent of the President, accept any present, emolument, or office of any kind from or under any foreign State Right to Freedom
• Article 53 in The Constitution Of India 1949
• ​The executive power of the Union:
• The executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with this Constitution.
• Without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing provision, the supreme command of the Defence Forces of the Union shall be vested in the President and the exercise thereof shall be regulated by law.
• Nothing in this article shall be deemed to transfer to the President any functions conferred by any existing law on the Government of any State or other authority
• prevent Parliament from conferring by law functions on authorities other than the President.
• So both the option is correct regarding the articles of Indian Constitution.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

• Veena – Tata Vadya and Flute – Sushira Vadya pair of instruments is correct.

Key Points             

• Tata Vadya (String Instruments) or Chordophones are Stringed instruments.
• The tata vadya is a group of musical instruments in which sound is made by the vibration of a chord or a string.
• The vibrations are made by plucking a string or bowing on a string that has been stretched or pulled tight.
• The pitch of the note produced depends on the length of the vibrating wire or string, the degree of tightening of the string.
• The duration for which the sound lasts also marginally depends on the vibrating string’s length.
• Examples of string instruments
• Tanpura or Tambura, Veena, Sarod, Dilruba, Violin, Santoor, Surbahar, and Rabab.
• ​Sushira Vadya (Wind Instruments)
• ​ Now also known as Aerophones, these instruments have various holes in which the air is blown and resonated or vibrates creating different tones or sounds.
• A very common example of such kind is a Flute which was also the favourite of Krishna.
• According to Sangita Damodara, these were also liked by Gandharvas.
• The frequency of the sound and the tone can be controlled by the pressure of air blown in it.
• Examples of aerophones.
• Shehnai, Nadaswaram, Magudi, Alghoza, Kombu or Shringa and Harmonium
• ​That is why both the options are correct.

The correct answer is Only 2.

Key Points

• Kaziranga National Park is a protected area in the northeast Indian state of Assam.
• Spread across the floodplains of the Brahmaputra River, its forests, wetlands, and grasslands are home to tigers, elephants, and the world’s largest population of Indian one-horned rhinoceroses.
• Ganges River dolphins swim in the park’s waters.
• It’s visited by many rare migratory birds, and gray pelicans roost near Kaziranga village.
• 'Project Rhino' started in 1987.
• Rhinoceros are protected in Kaziranga national park of Assam.
• Manas sanctuary of Assam.

Additional Information

• Jim Corbett National Park is a forested wildlife sanctuary in northern India’s Uttarakhand State.
• Rich in flora and fauna, it’s known for its Bengal tigers.
• Animals, including tigers, leopards, and wild elephants, roam the Dhikala zone.
• On the banks of the Ramganga Reservoir, the Sonanadi zone is home to elephants and leopards, along with hundreds of species of birds.
• Lion is protected in Gir national park in Junagarh of Gujarat.
• Indian wild ass sanctuary also known as the wild ass wildlife sanctuary is located in the little rann of Kutch in Gujarat.

The correct answer is Sanskrit.​

Key Points

• By the time the Persians conquered both, the then Indian subcontinent and Greece in the 5^th century BCE, 'Sindhu' became 'Hindus' to mark the 'land of Hindus'.
• From the Greek Herodotus (4^th century BC) 'Hindus' evolved to 'Indos' and made its first-ever appearance in Old English in the 9^th century.
• Finally, in the 17^th century as 'Indos' made way to Modern English the name 'India' came into existence.
• Although the name was inspired by the Indus, the river now runs mostly through Pakistan, Jammu & Kashmir in India and western Tibet.

Additional Information

• When the first Constitution of India came into existence on 26^th January 1950 Bharat was thought to be the other official name of the Republic of India.
• Derived from the Sanskrit term 'Bharata' that means 'the cherished', this name dates back to the ancient 'Hindu Puranas' (Hindu scriptures) that tell the story of the legendary Emperor Bharata.
• The first conqueror of the entire Indian subcontinent and the Republic of India.
• Bharata is believed to be the founder of the famous Bharata dynasty.
• Therefore, after he conquers the Indian land where he and his descendants dwelt.
• It started to be known as 'Bharatavarsa,' where varsa meant 'land' or 'continent'.
• The other popular name of India is Hindustan.
• ​This is yet another name that has historical significance.
• Hind is the Persian equivalent of Iranian Sindh that refers to the Indo-Aryans while 'stan' in Persian means 'land' or 'country,' much like 'sthana' in Sanskrit that means 'place'.
• During the British Raj in India, the term 'Hind' was widely used for the north and northwestern subcontinents of India where Indo-Aryan culture was strongly based.
• Today, Hindustan is no longer the official name of India, but it is a popularly used term for India.

The correct answer is Only III.

• Among all the given taxes Gift Tax is not an Indirect tax.

Key Points

• A gift tax is a federal tax applied to an individual giving anything of value to another person.
• For something to be considered a gift, the receiving party cannot pay the giver full value for the gift, though they may pay an amount less than its full value.
• Hence, the gift tax is not an indirect tax.
• The taxation system in India is such that the taxes are levied by the Central Government and the State Governments.
• Some minor taxes are also levied by the local authorities such as the Municipality and the Local Governments.

​

Additional Information

• Broadly taxes are divided into two categories:

• Sales tax is an additional amount of money you pay based on a percentage of the selling price of goods and services that are purchased.
• Excise duty is a form of tax imposed on goods for their production, licensing, and sale.
• Excise Duty is a form of indirect tax which is generally collected by a retailer or an intermediary from its consumers and then paid to the government.
• Customs duty is a form of indirect tax which is imposed at the time of both import and export of goods and services.
• The milestone goods and services tax (GST), which was launched on 1^st July 2017.
• And it is one indirect tax for the whole of India.

The correct answer is April 30.

The Ayushman Bharat Diwas is celebrated on April 30 in India.

Key Points

• The Ayushman Bharat Diwas is celebrated to achieve twin missions.
• They are to promote health and wellness to the poor and also to provide insurance benefits to them.
• The day aims to promote affordable medical facilities in remote areas of the country based on the Socio-Economic Caste Census database.
• It will also promote health and wellness and provide insurance benefits to the poor.

Additional Information

Important Days:

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

Bharatnatyam is the classical dance of Tamilnadu.

Key Points

• Bharatnatyam is the oldest Indian classical dance
• It originated hundreds of years ago in the state of Tamilnadu.
• This dance form expresses the religious themes and spiritual ideas of South India.
• The ancient Tamil epic Silappatikaram contains the description of Bharatnatyam.

Additional Information

• The Sangeet Natak academy currently confers classical status on eight Indian classical dance styles:

Important Points

• Sangeet Natak Academy (India’s National Academy) recognizes only eight classical dances of India, however, the Ministry of Culture also considers Chhau Dance as a classical dance of India, making the total number of classical dances in India as nine.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

• Awadh Kisan Sabha, also known as Awadh Kisan sabha, was formed by Jawaharlal Nehru, Baba Ramachandra, and others.
• It was formed to fight against the landlords and talukdars, who demanded exorbitant taxes and rents.
• In June 1920, Jawaharlal Nehru began going around the villages in Awadh, talking to the villagers, and trying to understand their grievances.
• By October, the Awadh Kisan Sabha was set up headed by Jawaharlal Nehru, Baba Ramchandra, and a few others.
• Within a month, over 300 branches had been set up in the villages around the region.
• Baba Ram Chandra (1864/1875 – 1950) was an Indian trade unionist who organized the farmers of Oudh, India into forming a united front to fight against the abuses of landlords in the 1920s and 1930s.

Additional Information

• Jawahar Lal Nehru-
• He was the first Prime Minister of India and an independence activist.
• Baba Ramchandra-
• He led a peasant movement in Awadh against Talukdars and Landlords.
• He demanded a reduction of rent, abolition of Begar, and the boycott of landlords.

The correct answer is Oxygen.

Oxygen is released during the process of photosynthesis.

Key Points

• Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants produce glucose.
• It involves the conversion of carbon dioxide gas, water, and minerals the plants take in from their surroundings into sugar and gaseous oxygen.
• Photosynthesis involves the intake of carbon dioxide and the release of oxygen.
• The release of oxygen is due to the photolysis of water in order to fill the gap in the photosystem created by the excitement of electrons.

Additional Information

• Oxygen is the chemical element with the symbol O and atomic number 8.
• It is a member of the chalcogen group in the periodic table, a highly reactive nonmetal, and an oxidizing agent that readily forms oxides with most elements as well as with other compounds.
• Helium is a chemical element with the symbol He and atomic number 2.
• It is a colourless, odourless, tasteless, non-toxic, inert, monatomic gas, the first in the noble gas group in the periodic table.
• It's boiling and melting point are the lowest among all the elements.
• Nitrogen is the chemical element with the symbol N and atomic number 7.
• It was first discovered and isolated by Scottish physician Daniel Rutherford in 1772.
• Ozone (O3) is a highly reactive gas composed of three oxygen atoms.
• It is both a natural and a man-made product that occurs in the Earth's upper atmosphere.
• (the stratosphere) and lower atmosphere (the troposphere).

The correct answer is Both I and II.

• Both Intrusive and Extrusive are a type of igneous rock.

Key Points

• Rocks are formed naturally when the tiny grains of different minerals get compressed due to the pressure exerted on them.
• The rock formation process is different for different types of rocks.
• Sedimentary rocks are formed by the accumulation or deposition of mineral or organic particles at the Earth’s surface.
• Metamorphic rocks are formed when watery hot fluids are subjected to high heat and pressure.
• Igneous rocks are formed when lava cools and solidifies.​
• ​Igneous rocks are defined as types of rocks that are formed when molten rock (rock liquefied by intense heat and pressure) cools to a solid-state.
• ​Igneous rocks are two types

Given:

A is greater than B = 25%

Concept:

If X is greater than Y by P% then,

X = {Y × (100 + P)/100}

Calculation:

⇒ A = B × (100 + 25)/100 = (125/100) × B = 5B/4

⇒ B is less than A in percentage = {(A - B)/A} × 100 = {(5B/4 - B)/(5B/4)} × 100 = (B/5B) × 100 = 20%

∴ The required result will be 20%.

Given:

Bikes in P₁, P₂, P₃, P₄, and P₅ respectively = 230, 195, 300, 40, 300

Cars in P1, P2, P3, P4, and P5 respectively = 120, 80, 240, 250, 160

Concept:

Average = (The sum of all items)/(The total number of items)

Calculation:

From statement 1

⇒ The average of cars = (120 + 80 + 240 + 250 + 160)/5 = 850/5 = 170

⇒ Hence, the statement 1 is wrong

From statement 2

⇒ Total bikes in P₁ and P₄ = 230 + 40 = 270

⇒ Total cars in P₂ and P₅ = 80 + 160 = 240

⇒ The required percentage = (270/240) × 100 = 112.5%

⇒ Hence, statement 2 is wrong

∴ The required result will be "Both 1 and 2".

Given:

The length of cuboid = 20 cm

Concept:

The volume of cuboid = (Length) × (Breadth) × (Height)

Calculation:

⇒ Breadth of the cuboid = 20 - 6 = 14 cm

⇒ The height of the cuboid = 14 - 4 = 10

⇒ The volume of the cuboid = 20 × 14 × 10 = 2800 cm³

∴ The required result will be 2800 cm³.

Given:

Number of B₁ books in A, B, C, and D respectively = 80, 72, 64, 32

Number of B₂ books in A, B, C, and D respectively = 112, 78, 42, 94

Concept:

The sum of A and B = A + B

The average = (The sum of all items)/(The total number of items)

Calculation:

⇒ G = 78 + 32 = 110

⇒ H = (112 + 78 + 42 + 94)/4 = 326/4 = 81.5

⇒ G/H = 110/81.5 = 1.3496 ≈ 1.35

∴ The required result will be 1.35.

Given:

The principle = 2000

Concept:

The simple interest = (Principle × Time × Rate)/100

Calculation:

Let be assume rate of interest is R

⇒ The simple interest = 2000 × (50/100) = 1000

⇒ 1000 = (2000 × 20 × R)/100

⇒ R = 5/2 = 2.5%

∴ The required result will be 2.5%.

Formula used:

(a + b)² = a² + b² + 2ab

a² - b² = (a + b)(a - b)

Concept used:

Rationalizing the Denominator

Calculation:

${\frac{{; 4 }}{{√ {7} + √{5}}}}$ + ${\frac{{; √7 + √5 }}{{4}}}$

⇒ ${\frac{{; 4 }}{{√ {7} + √{5}}}}$× ${\frac{{; √7 - √5 }}{{\sqrt7-\sqrt5}}}$+ ${\frac{{; √7 + √5 }}{{4}}}$

⇒ ${\frac{{; 4 \times ( √7-√5)}}{({√ {7}^2 -√{5}^2) }}}$ + ${\frac{{; √7 + √5 }}{{4}}}$

⇒ ${\frac{{; (4 √7- \ 4√5)}}{({2) }}}$ + ${\frac{{; √7 + √5 }}{{4}}}$

⇒ ${\frac{{; (8√7 -8√5 + √7+√5)}}{{4}}}$

⇒ ${\frac{{; 9√7 - 7√5 }}{{4}}}$

∴ The required value is ${\frac{{; 9√7 - 7√5 }}{{4}}}$.

Given:

A alone can complete the work = 24 days

B alone can complete the work = 36 days

Concept:

Work = Time × Efficiency

Calculation:

Let be assume they complete the 3/8 of work in X days

⇒ The efficiency of A = 1/24

⇒ The efficiency of B = 1/36

⇒ X × (1/24 + 1/36) = 3/8

⇒ X × (3 + 2)/72 = 3/8

⇒ X = 27/5

∴ The required result will be 27/5 days.

Given:

The total invested amount = 39000

Concept:

If time is same then the ratio of their profits is equal to ratio of its investments

Calculation:

⇒ The ratio of their profit A, B, and C respectively = 1440 : 1560 : 1680 = 12 : 13 : 14

⇒ The invested amount by B = {13/(12 + 13 + 14)} × 39000 = (13/39) × 39000 = 13000

∴ The required result will be 13000.

Given:

If speed increase by 20% then time decreased = 25%

If the speed of the train is 45 km/h then the time is taken to cover 200 m = 16 second

Concept:

Speed = Distance/Time

Calculation:

For statement l

Let be assume speed is S and time is T and distance is D

⇒ T = D/S     ---(1)

⇒ T = D/1.2S     ---(2)

⇒ The percentage difference in time = {(D/S - D/1.2S)/(D/S)} × 100 = {(1.2 - 1)/1.2} × 100 = (0.2/1.2) × 100 = 100/6 = 16.66%

⇒ The first statement is wrong

For statement ll

⇒ T = 200/(45 × 5/18) = (200 × 18)/(45 × 5) = 16 seconds

⇒ So, second statement is correct

∴ The required result will be "Only two".

Given:

The mathematical expression is :

$\dfrac{18+45\times25+12\div36\times6}{20\div5\times2+100\div25\times20}$

Concept used:

Use BODMAS

Calculations:

$\dfrac{18+45\times25+12\div36\times6}{20\div5\times2+100\div25\times20}$

⇒$\dfrac{18+1125+\dfrac{1}{3}\times6}{4\times2+4\times20}$

⇒ $\dfrac{18+1125+2}{8+80}$

⇒ 1145/88

Given:

130% of 400 = 520

95% of 540 = 51.3

Concept:

Percentage of gain marks = {(The gain marks)/(The total marks)} × 100

Calculation:

For statement 1

⇒ 400 × (130/100) = 520

⇒ Statement 1 is correct

For statement 2

⇒ 540 × (95/100) = 5.4 × 95 = 513

⇒ The statement 2 is wrong

∴ The required result will be "Only 1".

Given:

The number = 61 + 28√3

Concept:

(a + √b)² = a² + (√b)² + 2 × a × √b

Calculation:

⇒ 61 + 28√3 = 49 + 4 × (√3)² + 2 × 7 × 2 × √3

⇒ (7 + 2√3)² = 7² + (2 × √3)² + 2 × 7 × 2 × √3

⇒ So, positive square root of (61 + 28√3) = 7 + 2√3

∴ The required result will be (7 + 2√3).

Given:

Two consecutive even number

Concept:

HCF is the highest common factor of some given numbers. When we divide the numbers by their HCF, the quotients will be prime to each other.

LCM = HCF × Product of the quotients after dividing the numbers by the HCF

Calculation:

 From statement 1

⇒ The HCF of two consecutive even numbers is always multiple of 2 and is always even due to multiple of two HCF.

⇒ Hence, statement 1 is right

From statement 2

⇒ LCM of two consecutive even numbers is equal to the product of both numbers when both numbers have no common factor and if any two or more than two numbers have a common factor other than one then LCM can not calculate by the products of the number.

⇒ Hence, statement 2 is wrong

∴ The required result will be "Only 1".

Given:

The first natural number

Concept:

The average = (The sum of total number)/(The total number)

The sum of first n natural number = {n × (n + 1)}/2

Calculation:

⇒ The sum of first 34 natural number = {34 × (34 + 1)}/2 = (34 × 35)/2 = 17 × 35 = 595

⇒ The average of the number = 595/34 = 35/2 = 17.5

∴ The required result will be 17.5.

Given:

Speed of bus before = 54 km/h

Speed of bus after = 36 km/h

Concept:

Speed = Distance/Time

Calculation:

Let be assume distance is D and time is T

Before

⇒ T - 18/60 = D/54     ---(1)

After

⇒ T + 18/60 = D/36     ---(2)

⇒ By equation (1) and (2)

⇒ 54 × (T - 18/60) = 36 × (T - 18/60)

⇒ 6T - 18/10 = 4T - 18/15

⇒ 2T = 18/10 - 18/15 = 18 × (1/10 - 1/15) = 18 × (3 + 2)/(30) = 90/30 = 3

⇒ T = 3/2

⇒ D = (3/2 - 18/60) × 54 = {(90 - 18)/60} × 54 = (72 × 54)/60 = 648/10

⇒ The original speed of bus = (648/10) ÷ (3/2) = (648/10) × (2/3) = 216/5 km/h

∴ The required result will be 216/5 km/h.

Given:

The total surface area of cube = 1350 cm²

Concept:

The total surface area of cube = 6 × (Side of the cube)²

Calculation:

Let be assume the side of the cube is a

⇒ 1350 = 6 × (a)²

⇒ a² = 225

⇒ a = 15 cm

∴ The required result will be 15 cm.

Given:

The selling price of A's item = 4200

The selling price of B's item = 5400

Concept:

Profit = (Selling price of the item) - (Cost price of the item)

Loss = (The cost price of the item) - (The selling price of the item)

Calculation:

Let be assume cost price of A and B is A and B respectively

⇒ A × (100 - 40)/100 = 4200

⇒ A = (4200 × 100)/60 = 7000

⇒ B × (120/100) = 5400

⇒ B = 4500

⇒ The ratio of their cost price = 7000/4500 = 14/9

∴ The required result will be 14 : 9.

Given:

The graph shows the quantity of milk sold by 7 different shopkeepers R₁, R₂, R₃, R₄, R₅, R₆, and R₇ respectively = 120, 240, 270, 180, 110, 240, and 160

Concept:

The sum of A and B = A + B

The ratio of A and B = A : B

Calculation:

From statement 1

⇒ The sum of the maximum and minimum quantity of sold milk = 270 + 110 = 380

⇒ Hence, statement 1 is wrong

From statement 2

⇒ Sum of sold milk by R₅ and R₇ = 110 + 160 = 270

⇒ Quantity of milk sold by R₂ = 240

⇒ The ratio = 270/240 = 9:8

⇒ Hence, statement 2 is wrong

∴ The required result will be "Neither 1 nor 2".

Given:

The ratio of the cost price of table and chair = 6 : 5

Concept:

If A and B  are in the ratio a : b then, 

A = aX, and B = bX  where X is a constant

Calculation:

Let be assume cost price of the table and chair is 6X and 5X respectively

⇒ 6X - 5X = 1220

⇒ X = 1220

⇒ The cost price of chair = 5X = 5 × 1220 = 6100

∴ The required result will be 6100.

Given:

The numbers = 81, 243, 54

Concept:

HCF = Smallest power of the shared factors of given numbers

Calculation:

⇒ 81 = 3⁴

⇒ 243 = 3⁵

⇒ 54 = 3³ × 2

⇒ There is shared factor is 3 and smallest power of three is 3³

⇒ The HCF of (81, 243, 54) = 3³ = 27

∴ The required result will be 27.

The correct answer is 'Luminossity'.

Key Points

• The marked option **'Luminossity' is incorrectly spelt here that means the state of producing or reflecting bright light
• For e.g.- The luminosity of a star or sun is how bright it is.
• The correct spelling of the word is- Luminosity
• Words mentioned in options 2), 3) and 4) are correctly spelt.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

The correct answer is 'one's'.

Key Points

• Unlike some personal pronoun(me, him, her) the form of 'one' is fixed-independent of whether it is used as a subject or object.
• It has a possessive form, namely one's. It never carries gender pronoun. It is always followed by one's.
• Unlike the possessive forms of the personal pronouns**, one's** is written with the apostrophe.
• For example:
• One's experiences shape one's expectations.
• According to the above rule and example 'one's' will be used in the given blank.
• Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

Hence, the correct answer is: One must respect one's elders without any complaints.

Additional Information

• 'Pronoun' is a word which is used in place of a noun.
• For example:
• She can be late today.
• It is my opinion.

The correct answer is 'PRQS'.

Key Points

• While arranging the part of the passage, we should find some grammatical or contextual connections between them-
• Part P starts with the noun 'China'. Hence it will be put in the first place.
• Part R further initiates the statement of what did 'China' give to lianhuanhua (literally, “connected images”) after 1949 revolution. It will be put in second place.
• Part Q concludes the above mentioned statement regarding the support to lianhuanhua (literally, “connected images”). Hence it will be the 3^rd sentence.
• The last part is S as it provides the concluding part.
• Thus, the correct order is: China, after the 1949 revolution, gave official support to lianhuanhua (literally, “connected images”) to retell the classics and opera-based histories, as well as uplifting revolutionary stories, in a highly refined, classically derived style.

The correct answer is 'both'.

Key Points

• Here 'both' should be used instead of 'either'.
• Some conjunctions given below are used in a pair known as correlative conjunctions:
• Whether...or, either...or, both...and, though...yet, etc.
• Example:
• He is both intelligent and hardworking.
• The conjunction 'both...and' is used to relate two nouns, two adjectives, and two verbs respectively.
• Since the sentence talks about the branch which is related with both philosophy and education.
• Thus, option 2 is the correct answer of the given question.

Hence, the correct sentence is: It can be considered a branch of both philosophy and education.

Additional Information

• Let's look at some more correlative conjunctions and their example:
• As well as, not only...but also, and.
• Examples:
• Ram as well as his friends is coming.
• He cheated not only his friends but also his parents.

The correct answer is 'To rain very heavily.'

Key Points

• To rain cats and dogs means to rain very heavily.
• For e.g.- I had to stay home because it was raining cats and dogs.
• Thus, it is clear from all the given options, option 4^th is correct and therefore the answer.

Additional Information

• The idiom was derived from the early phenomenon of cats and dogs drowning when it rained heavily, making it appear as if they had fallen down with the rain.

The correct answer is 'beautiful but can'.

Key Points

• The error is in part second of the sentence.
• As subject 'she' is missing in the given sentence.
• Conjunction requires a subject, here can is a conjunction, so we need a subject before it, so we would place 'she' before it.
• And can should replaced by 'may' as it is talking about a possibility not ability.
• 'Can' is used for ability and 'may' is used for possibility.

Hence, the correct sentence is: No wonder she is beautiful but she may be irritating sometimes.

The correct answer is 'Putrid'.

Key Points

• Aromatic means having a pleasant and distinctive smell.
• For e.g.- The plant is strongly aromatic​
• Putrid means decaying or rotting and emitting a fetid smell.
• For e.g.- A putrid smell drove us from the room
• ​Thus according to the above-mentioned definition, it is clear that both words Aromatic and Putrid are antonyms of each other.

Additional Information

Let's see the meaning of the other words:

• obloquy - strong public condemnation.
• odiferous - having or emitting an odour, esp a fragrant one.
• Savoury - Something savory is full of flavor, delicious and tasty

The correct answer is 'Substitution'.

Key Points

• The marked option 'Substitution'' means the action of replacing someone or something with another person or thing.
• ​For e.g.- We use saccharin in substitution for sugar.
• Words mentioned in options 1), 2) and 4) are all misspelt.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3)

The correct answer is 'site'.

Key Points

• 'Site' is a noun which means 'location'.
• 'Site' is used for the place where a structure or group of structure is to be located. It is the place or setting of something.
• A 'site' is most commonly used as a noun to mean the position or location of something especially the exact place where something will be located.
• For example:
• They decided to visit the old construction site to find some building materials.
• Thus, according to the above explanation 'site' will be used in the given blank.

Hence, the correct sentence is: When he reached the construction site everything was messed up.

Additional Information

Let's look at the uses and examples of other given options:

• Cite: It is a verb which means to mention or to make reference to.
• For example:
• She cited the journal of atmospheric sciences in her paper.
• Position: it means the place where people are sent in order to carry out a course of action.
• For example:
• The troops took up their battle positions at the front line.
• Sight: it is both a noun and a verb that refers to seeing. It can also be something that is seen.
• For example:
• After the laser treatment, her sight was perfect.

The correct answer is 'Waif'.

Key Points

• Let's explore the options:
• Aplomb: means self confidence or assurance, especially when in demanding situation.
• Torrent: means a sudden large or too large amount, especially one that seems to be uncontrolled.
• Truant: means a child who stays away from school without permission.
• Waif: means a small thin person, usually a child, who seems to have nowhere to live.
• Thus, from the above meanings correct one word substitution for the given question is 'Waif'.

The erroneous part is 'degradation poses for the physical world'.

Key Points

• In the given sentence, 'that' is a conjunction so it makes its own clause and has its own subject and verb. In the clause, the subject of the sentence is 'climate change' and 'continued ecosystem degradation' hence, there are two subjects so the verb should be a plural form.
• So we need to use "pose for" instead of "poses for."
• The meaning of pose is- to set forth or offer for attention or consideration or to come to attention as.

Hence, the correct sentence is: Science has made it clear the adverse impacts that climate change and continued ecosystem degradation pose for the physical world.

The correct answer is 'A quantity too small to make an impact'.

Key Points

• Idiom 'A drop in the ocean' means a very small amount which is unimportant compared to the cost of other things or is so small that it has very little effect on something.
• For example:
• His fee is a drop in the ocean compared with the real cost of broadcasting.
• Thus, option 3 will be the correct answer.

Additional Information

• An idiom has been used in the sentence.
• An idiom is a phrase or expression that typically presents a figurative, non literal meaning to the phrase.
• Let's take a look at some common idioms:

The correct answer is 'Support.'

Key Points

• Advocate means to speak or write in favor of; support or urge by argument; recommend publicly
• For e.g.- He advocated higher salaries for teachers.
• Support - approve of and help someone or something​
• For e.g.- The government gives £2,500 million a year to support the voluntary sector
• ​Thus according to the above-mentioned definition, it is clear that both words Advocate and Support are synonyms of each other.

Additional Information

Let's see the meaning of the other words:

• Intimidate - to frighten or threaten somebody, often in order to make him/her do something.
• Spur - to encourage an activity or development, or to cause something to develop faster
• Deny - state that one refuses to admit the truth or existence of

The correct answer is 'SQPR'.

Key Points

• While arranging the parts of the passage, we should find some grammatical or contextual connections between them-
• Part S initiates the statement 'storage of coffee' in producing countries that presents problems. It will be put in first place.
• Part Q concludes the above mentioned statement regarding storage of coffee that presents problems in warm and coastal regions. It will be put in second place.
• Part P will be put in third place as it talks about the region where moulds and parasites can cause damage.
• Part R will be the last part as in warm and coastal regions moulds and parasite can develop damage so coffee is exported as quickly as possible from those areas.
• Thus, the correct order is: The prolonged storage of coffee in the producing countries presents problems especially in the warm and humid coastal regions where moulds and parasites may develop and cause damage for that reason, coffee from those areas is exported as quickly as possible.

The correct answer is 'as to'.

Key Points

• Here 'as to' will be used instead of 'of'.
• 'As to' means with regard to or about, with respect to, concerning.
• The phrase 'as to' indicates the relationship between the question that was asked and the response.
• For example:
• As to your earlier question, I don't think i know the answer.
• Similarly in the given sentence 'There is little evidence available as to what exactly makes this more threatening' means that there is little evidence with respect to something that makes this more threatening.
• Thus, option 3 will be the correct answer.

Hence, the correct sentence is: There's little evidence available as to what exactly makes this more threatening.

Additional Information

Let's look at the uses and examples of other given options:

• On to: In the case of 'on to' the word 'on' is actually part of the verb. this is called a phrasal verb since it involves more than one word.
• For example:
• It took me forever to catch on to the joke.
• Into: it is a preposition that means to a position in or inside something, in the direction of something.
• For example:
• He threw the letter into the fire.

The correct answer is 'It is more rigorous than DOT S plus'.

Key Points

• The answer can be decided looking at the lines: To address this concern, an additional treatment regimen is undergone by patients called directly observed therapy short-term (DOT S), which closely monitors treatment adherence and completion, with the goal of efficiency and cost-effectiveness. With the emergence of MDR-T B, DOT S-plus was initiated as a more rigorous treatment strategy.
• According to the above lines it can be deduced that Directly observed treatment, short course is the name given to the tuberculosis control strategy. It is the most cost effective way to stop the spread of TB in communities. It is the best curative method for TB.
• Thus, option 2 will be the correct answer.

The correct answer is 'WHO has drafted this strategy to enhance the treatment of T B and provide good medical care experience to the T B patient'.

Key Points

• Let's explore the options:
• Option 1: it is not true. The correct statement is stop TB strategy is implemented to reduce TB on both local and national scales.
• Option 2: it is not true. The correct statement is  six aims to be implemented by all countries to reduce TB.
• Option 3: it is not true. The correct statement is it has to be implemented by all countries to reduce TB.
• Option 4: its definitely true as it has been mentioned in the passage that The WHO drafted a Stop T B Strategy, which outlines six aims to be implemented by all countries to reduce T B on both local and national scales, with the overall goal of enhancing T B treatment, health care experiences, and research.
• Thus, option 4 will be the correct answer.

The correct answer is 'Stop TB strategy'.

Key Points

• Let's explore the options:
• Option 1: it cannot be the suitable title for the given passage as it has not been mentioned in the passage that how to cure TB.
• Option 2: it cannot be the suitable title for the given passage as the WHO reports that some countries have continued to have major declines in T B cases.
• Option 3: it cannot be the suitable title for the given passage as achievements have not been mentioned in the passage.
• Option 4: going by the flow it is the best fit as it has been mentioned in the passage that The WHO drafted a Stop T B Strategy, which outlines six aims to be implemented by all countries to reduce T B on both local and national scales, with the overall goal of enhancing T B treatment, health care experiences, and research.
• Thus, option 4 will be the correct answer.

The correct answer is 'Attachment'.

Key Points

• 'Adherence' means the act, action, or quality of adhering, steady or faithful attachment, the following of a custom, rule, or law.
• For example:
• He was noted for his strict adherence to the rules.
• 'Attachment' means the state of being personally attached, a feeling of strong or constant regard for and dedication to someone, a feeling of love or strong connection to someone or something.
• For example:
• She is unlikely to give up her lifelong attachment to feminist ideas.
• According to the above explanation 'adherence and attachment' are same in their meanings, thus, make a synonym pair.
• Thus, option 4 will be the correct answer.

Additional Information

Let's look at the meanings of other given options:

• Perseverance: means the quality that allows someone to continue trying to do something even though it is difficult.
• Separate: means not the same or shared, not physically attached to another unit.
• Release: means to set free from restraint, confinement, or servitude, to relieve from something that confines, burdens, or oppresses.

The correct answer is 'DOTS'.

Key Points

• The answer can be decided looking at the lines: To address this concern, an additional treatment regimen is undergone by patients called directly observed therapy short-term (DOT S), which closely monitors treatment adherence and completion, with the goal of efficiency and cost-effectiveness. With the emergence of MDR-T B, DOT S-plus was initiated as a more rigorous treatment strategy.
• According to the above lines it can be deduced that DOTS help patient finish TB therapy as quickly as possible without unnecessary gaps. It is the most cost effective way to stop the spread of TB in communities. It never been a hindrance in maintaining the success of controlling TB.
• Thus, option 1 will be the correct answer.

आप उदयपुर से कब आए - इस वाक्य में 'कब' शब्द हमें किसी से प्रश्न पूछने की जिज्ञासा का बोध करवाता है, अतः (?) प्रश्नवाचक चिन्ह सही विकल्प होगा। 

 प्रश्नवाचक चिन्ह (?) - जिस वाक्य में किसी विषय पर कुछ सवाल करने या जानने या पूछने के विषय में भाव उत्पन्न हो वहाँ इस चिन्ह का प्रयोग होता है।

Key Points

विराम चिन्ह – भाषा के लिखित रूप में विशेष स्थानों पर रुकने का संकेत करने वाले चिन्हों को विराम चिन्ह कहते हैं।

यहाँ पर रिक्त स्थानों पर 'ने, का' सही विकल्प होगा, अन्य विकल्प अनुचित है।

Key Points

• ईश्वर ने सारी सृष्टि का निर्माण किया है'।