Previous Year Paper

DSSSB PGT Political Science (Male) Official Paper (Held On: 04 Jul, 2021 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2021

300 questions180 minutes
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Mental Ability (20 questions)

Question 1

In the following question, a die has six faces 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6. Two positions of the same cube are given. Which number is opposite to number 6?

  1. AOption (a)

    6

  2. BOption (b)

    3

  3. COption (c)

    2

  4. DOption (d)

    5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2

Why this answer is correct

For this question,

Logic: If two dice have same face value in given image than their clockwise or anticlockwise wise number are know as opposite numbers in dice.

For this situation, Face value 1 is common in both dice, so-

In clockwise direction: 1 → 5 → 2 and 1 → 4 → 6

Here, (5,4) and (2,6) are the opposite pairs of cube.

2 is opposite to 6.

Hence, Option (2) is correct.

Question 2

Choose the option that is unrelated (or odd one out amongst) the given set of numbers.

  1. AOption (a)

    VXAE

  2. BOption (b)

    BDGK

  3. COption (c)

    NPSW

  4. DOption (d)

    FILP

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

FILP

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed is:

Option(1): VXAE

Option (2): BDGK

Option (3): NPSW

Option (4): FLIP

Here, Option (4) does not have same relation as other options have.

Hence, Option (4) is correct.

Question 3

In the following question, select the related letter cluster from the given alternatives.

UYEI : WG : : OQJL : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    DZ

  2. BOption (b)

    PK

  3. COption (c)

    AC

  4. DOption (d)

    QQ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

PK

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed is:

Now, We will apply the same relation on OQJL as shown-

Hence, Option (2) is correct.

Question 4

In the question below, there are two statements followed by four conclusions given in options. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follow(s) from the given statements.

Statements:

Some pubs are cups.

Some pubs are tips.

  1. AOption (a)

    All tips are pubs

  2. BOption (b)

    Some cups are tips

  3. COption (c)

    Some tips are pubs

  4. DOption (d)

    Some tips are cups

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Some tips are pubs

Why this answer is correct

For this question, the Venn diagram of the statements is shown below-

  1. All tips are pubs → False → It is possible but not definite.
  2. Some cups are tips → False → There is no clear relation given between cups and tips. Thus it is possible but not definite.
  3. Some tips are pubs → True → According to the Venn diagram.
  4. Some tips are cups → False → There is no clear relation given between cups and tips. Thus it is possible but not definite.
  • Thus, only the conclusion given in option 3 follows from the given statements.

Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

Question 5

Select the option in which the words share the same relationship as that shared by the given pair of words.

Examination : Pass

  1. AOption (a)

    Machine : Fault

  2. BOption (b)

    Fight : Win

  3. COption (c)

    Match : Football

  4. DOption (d)

    Competition : Poem

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Fight : Win

Why this answer is correct

For this question, The relation of Examination : Pass will be as-

After Examination either you Fail or Pass.

Similarly, After a Fight either you Win or Loss.

Hence, Option (2) is correct.

Additional Information Faults occur during running a machine.

Question 6

If each circle represents a class of objects/ideas written below, then find out the answer figure which illustrates best the relationship among.

“Reading material, Newspapers, Magazines”

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed is:

Newspaper and Magazines both are Reading material but Newspaper contains News going around the world whereas Magazines contains information about celebrities.

Newspaper and Magazines both are different Reading Materials.

The most suitable Venn diagram of "Reading Material, Newspaper, Magazines" is shown below-

Hence, Option (4) is correct.

Question 7

Find the missing number in the series given below.

6, 12, 21, 33, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    45

  2. BOption (b)

    48

  3. COption (c)

    40

  4. DOption (d)

    38

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

48

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed is:

Hence, Option (2) is correct.

Question 8

A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures indicate how it will appear when opened?

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

For this question, We have unfold the given situation to get the actual image as shown-

Here, final image is similar to Option (1).

Hence, Option (1) is correct.

Question 9

In the question below, there are three statements followed by two conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follow(s) from the given statements.

Statements:

Some beds are chairs.

All chairs are desks.

All desks are tables.

Conclusions:

I. Some tables are beds.

II. Some desks are beds.

  1. AOption (a)

    If both conclusion I and II follow

  2. BOption (b)

    If either I or II follows

  3. COption (c)

    If only conclusion I follows

  4. DOption (d)

    If only conclusion II follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

If both conclusion I and II follow

Why this answer is correct

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as below:

Conclusions:

(1) Some tables are beds → True → As per Venn diagram.

(2) Some desks are beds → True → According to Venn diagram.

Hence, Option (1) is correct. 

Additional Information

Question 10

In the question given, relations between different elements are shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions. Find out which of the given conclusions follow(s) the given statements and select the correct alternative from the given choices.

Statement:

W > D ≥ C = X < A < Z ≤ F

Conclusion:

I. Z > C

II. X < W

  1. AOption (a)

    None is true

  2. BOption (b)

    Only I is true

  3. COption (c)

    Only II is true

  4. DOption (d)

    Both I and II are true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both I and II are true

Why this answer is correct

Statement:

W > D ≥ C = X < A < Z ≤ F

Conclusion:

I. Z > C → True → W > D ≥ C = X < A < Z ≤ F

II. X < W → True → W > D ≥ C = X < A < Z ≤ F

Hence, Option (4) is correct.

Question 11

​Four children P, Q, R, and S are standing on a ladder. P is on the ladder above Q. Q is between P and R. If S is above P, then who is third from the bottom?

  1. AOption (a)

    S

  2. BOption (b)

    R

  3. COption (c)

    P

  4. DOption (d)

    Q

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

P

Why this answer is correct

​Four children P, Q, R, and S are standing on a ladder.

i) P is on the ladder above Q and Q is between P and R.

ii) If S is above P then-

Here, P is third from the bottom.

Hence, Option (3) is correct.

Question 12

Pointing towards a photo, Ragini said, "He is the son of the only son of my grand mother''. How is the boy related to Ragini?

  1. AOption (a)

    Grandson

  2. BOption (b)

    Father

  3. COption (c)

    Cousin

  4. DOption (d)

    Brother

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Brother

Why this answer is correct

The family chart is as follows:

According to the question-

Here, the boy is the brother of Ragini.

Hence, Option (4) is correct.

Question 13

 In a certain code language, 'SECTOR' is written as 'CQRAPM '. How will 'PERIOD' be written as in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    BGJPBM

  2. BOption (b)

    CNRLBM

  3. COption (c)

    CNGPBM

  4. DOption (d)

    WRTXNU

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

CNGPBM

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed is:

'SECTOR' is written as 'CQRAPM '

Similarly,

Thus 'PERIOD' will be written as CNGPBM.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 14

In the following question, correct the equation by interchanging two signs.

10 ÷ 18 + 25 × 20 - 5 = 92

  1. AOption (a)

    – and +

  2. BOption (b)
    • and ×
  3. COption (c)
    • and ÷
  4. DOption (d)

    ÷ and -

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

÷ and -

Why this answer is correct

Given Equation: 10 ÷ 18 + 25 × 20 - 5 = 92

For this question, we have to check the given equation with each options as-

Option (1) - and +

10 ÷ 18 - 25 × 20 + 5

0.556 - 500 + 5 = -494.44 ≠ 92

Option (2) + and ×

10 ÷ 18 × 25 + 20 - 5 

0.556 × 25 + 15 = 13.88 + 15 = 28.88 ≠ 92

Option (3) + and ÷

10 + 18 ÷ 25 × 20 - 5

10 + 0.72 × 20 - 5 = 14.4 + 5 = 19.4 ≠ 92

Option (4) ÷ and -

10 - 18 + 25 × 20 ÷ 5

10 - 18 + 25 × 4 = 92

Hence, Option (4) is correct.

Question 15

From the given responses, find the missing letter cluster in the series.

HKRN, LNTO, PQVP, TTXQ,?

  1. AOption (a)

    XXQX

  2. BOption (b)

    GRDS

  3. COption (c)

    MNQS

  4. DOption (d)

    XWZR

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

XWZR

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed is:

Hence, Option (4) is correct.

Question 16

Which answer figure will replace the question mark in the question figure?

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

For this question, the relation is given below-

 This has 4 sides Outer shape and Two 3 sides i.e. (4-1) inner shapes crossing each other.

 

 This has 5 sides Outer shape and Two 4 sides i.e. (5-1) inner shapes crossing each other. In this image, both inner and Outer images have 1 side more than the previous image.

Similarly,

This has 5 sides Outer shape and Two 4 sides i.e. (5-1) inner shapes crossing each other.

Now, The most relatable image to the above image is given below-

This has 6 sides Outer shape and Two 5 sides i.e. (6-1) inner shapes crossing each other. Because in this image, both inner and Outer images have 1 side more than the previous image. 

Hence, Option (4) is correct.

Question 17

From the given responses, find the missing letter cluster in the series.

GH, HIJ, JKLM, MNOPQ,?

  1. AOption (a)

    QRSTUV

  2. BOption (b)

    RSTUVW

  3. COption (c)

    QRTUV

  4. DOption (d)

    RTVXYZ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

QRSTUV

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed is:

Hence, Option (1) is correct.

Question 18

Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the given classes.

Algebra, Trigonometry, Mathematics

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed is:

Algebra and Trigonometry both are branches of Mathematics but individually both are different from each other.

So, The Venn diagram of Algebra, Trigonometry, Mathematics as shown-

Hence, Option (4) is correct.

Question 19

Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

For this question, We have to find the missing part of the given image which is similar to the other parts of the image.

Here, the missing part is similar to Option (3).

Hence, Option (3) is correct.

Question 20

Amar walked 25 km towards west, took a left turn and walked 15 km. He again took a left turn and walked 35 km. He then took a right turn and stopped. Now he was facing in which direction?

  1. AOption (a)

    North

  2. BOption (b)

    East

  3. COption (c)

    West

  4. DOption (d)

    South

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

South

Why this answer is correct

For this question, The directions of Amar are shown below-

Here, We can see that at final position Amar is looking at South.

Hence, Option (4) is correct.

General Awareness (20 questions)

Question 21

In which century AD was Nalanda founded?

  1. AOption (a)

    5th

  2. BOption (b)

    3rd

  3. COption (c)

    6th

  4. DOption (d)

    4th

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

5th

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 5th.

Key Points

  • Nalanda was a monastic university.
  • It is a Mahavihara since it is a complex of many monasteries
  • Only a small portion of the place has been studied as most of it lies buried under present civilisation and is impossible to excavate.
  • The records of the Chinese traveller Xuan Zang (Hsuan-Tsang) gives a huge amount of information about Nalanda.
  • As per the records, the foundation of the learning centre was laid down by Kumaragupta I, the Gupta king in the 5th century CE.
  • Later kings added to the original centre.
  • Evidence for all three Buddhist doctrines of Theravada, Mahayana and Vajrayana is taught here.
  • Nalanda was a centre for art production and Buddhist sculptures and manuscripts were taken from here by monks to their countries.
  • So, art in Nalanda had a profound impact on art in all Buddhist countries.
  • The Nalanda School of sculpture was influenced by the Buddhist Gupta art of Sarnath, the local Bihar tradition and Central India.
  • This synthesis emerged during the 9th century​.

Question 22

Which of the following persons is known as the Architect of the Indian Planning?

  1. AOption (a)

    Jawaharlal Nehru

  2. BOption (b)

    Vallabhai Patel

  3. COption (c)

    Amartya Sen

  4. DOption (d)

    PC Mahalanobis

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

PC Mahalanobis

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is P.C Mahalanobis.

Key Points

  • P.C. Mahalanobis:
  • He is considered the father of modern statistics in India.
  • He founded the Indian Statistical Institute.
  • He is also known as the Architect of Indian Planning.
  • Mahalanobis's model of the second five-year plan focused on Rapid industrialization and strengthening the public sector.

Additional Information

  • The Second Five Year Plan in India was planned under the leadership of Jawaharlal Nehru for the period from 1956 to 1961.
  • It was based on the P.C. Mahalanobis model built in 1953.
  • Its main emphasis was on the country's economic growth.
  • This plan lagged below its 4.5 per cent target growth rate and reached a 4.27 per cent growth rate.
  • This plan was opposed by many experts, and India faced a payment crisis in 1957 as a result.

Question 23

In what year did Mahatma Gandhi return to India from South Africa?

  1. AOption (a)

    1909

  2. BOption (b)

    1919

  3. COption (c)

    1905

  4. DOption (d)

    1915

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1915

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1915.

Key Points 

  • Mahatma Gandhi returned from South Africa on 9th January 1915.
  • To commemorate this day we celebrate this day as Pravasi Bharatiya Divas. January 9 is annually celebrated as the Pravasi Bharatiya Divas.
  • ​After arriving in India, Mahatma Gandhi successfully organized Satyagraha Movements in various places.
  • Gandhi returned to India from South Africa in 1915 at the request of Gopal Krishna Gokhale.
  • Gandhi Ji returns from South Africa can be seen as perfect timing for the future of the development of the Indian national movement. Gokhale helped  Gandhiji at the time of hardships in raising funds when Gandhiji was in South Africa.
  • Gokhale insisted to Gandhiji that he has been far away from his nation. He wanted Gandhiji to come to India and know the situation of India under British Rule.

Important Points

  • Movements Started by Gandhiji in India:
  • Champaran Satyagraha of 1917.
  • Kheda Satyagrah of 1918.
  • Khilafat Movement Post World War I.
  • Non-Co-operation Movement.
  • Civil Disobedience Movement.
  • Negotiations over Round Table Conferences.
  • Gandhi Irwin Pact.
  • Quit India Movement.

Question 24

Which of the following devices is used for measuring the force acting on an object?

  1. AOption (a)

    Spring Balance

  2. BOption (b)

    Spirometer

  3. COption (c)

    Fathometer

  4. DOption (d)

    Framing Square

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Spring Balance

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Spring Balance.

Key Points

  • A spring scale or spring balance is a type of weighing scale.
  • It consists of a spring fixed at one end with a hook to attach an object at the other.
  • It works by Hooke's Law, which states that the force needed to extend a spring is proportional to the distance that spring is extended from its rest position.

Question 25

The "Dead Sea" is located at which of the following places?

  1. AOption (a)

    North America

  2. BOption (b)

    Africa

  3. COption (c)

    Asia

  4. DOption (d)

    Europe

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Asia

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Asia.

Key Points

  • The Dead Sea lies between Israel and Jordan in Asia.
  • It is known as the Arabic lake.
  • The Dead Sea is at the lowest point on Earth.
  • This sea is spread in the lowest place.
  • The Dead Sea is 48 miles long and 11 miles wide.
  • It is surrounded by three ranges.
  • Its level is 400 meters below sea level.
  • Its eastern coast is Jordan, while the southwestern coast in Israel, with very little water.

Question 26

The process by which water continually changes its form and circulates between oceans, atmosphere and land is called what?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ocean Currents

  2. BOption (b)

    Water Cycles

  3. COption (c)

    Precipitation

  4. DOption (d)

    Tides

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Water Cycles

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Water Cycles.

Key Points

  • The water cycle describes how water evaporates from the surface of the earth, rises into the atmosphere, cools and condenses into rain or snow in clouds, and falls again to the surface as precipitation.
  • And we can also define it as by which water continually changes its form and circulates between oceans, atmosphere, and the land is called the water cycle.
  • The water cycle, also called the hydrological cycle, involves the continuous circulation of water in the Earth-atmosphere system.
  • Of the many processes involved in the water cycle, the most important are evaporation, transpiration, condensation, precipitation, and runoff.

Additional Information

  • Ocean current, stream made up of horizontal and vertical components of the circulation system of ocean waters that is produced by gravity, wind friction, and water density variation in different parts of the ocean.
  • Ocean currents are similar to winds in the atmosphere in that they transfer significant amounts of heat from Earth’s equatorial areas to the poles and thus play important roles in determining the climates of coastal regions.
  • Precipitation is any liquid or frozen water that forms in the atmosphere and falls back to the Earth.
  • It comes in many forms, like rain, sleet, and snow. Along with evaporation and condensation, precipitation is one of the three major parts of the global water cycle.
  • Tide, any of the cyclic deformations of one astronomical body caused by the gravitational forces exerted by others.
  • The most familiar are the periodic variations in sea level on Earth that correspond to changes in the relative positions of the Moon and the Sun.
  • The tides may be regarded as forced waves, partially running waves, and partially standing waves.

Question 27

What was the name of the scheme under which India supplied vaccines to other nations?

  1. AOption (a)

    Vaccine Safety

  2. BOption (b)

    Vaccine Saathi

  3. COption (c)

    Vaccine Batwara

  4. DOption (d)

    Vaccine Maitri

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Vaccine Maitri

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Vaccine Maitri.

Key Points

  • Under the Vaccine Maitri scheme, India supplied vaccines to other nations.
  • It was a humanitarian initiative that was undertaken by the Indian government to provide COVID-19 vaccines to neighbouring and friendly countries.
  • This initiative was under the Ministry of External Affairs, Government of India.

For current information: https://www.mea.gov.in/vaccine-supply.htm

Question 28

Who has been re-elected as the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha on September 14th, 2020?

  1. AOption (a)

    Manoj Kumar Jha

  2. BOption (b)

    Jairam Ramesh

  3. COption (c)

    P. J. Kurien

  4. DOption (d)

    Harivansh Narayan Singh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Harivansh Narayan Singh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is **Harivansh Narayan Singh.**​

Key Points

  • JD(U) leader Harivansh Narayan Singh has been re-elected as the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha on September 14th, 2020.
  • This is the second time that he has been elected as the deputy chairman of the House.
  • He defeated the Opposition-backed RJD MP Manoj Jha by a voice vote in the Upper House.
  • The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha presides over the proceedings of the Rajya Sabha in the absence of the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
  • The Deputy Chairman is elected internally by the **Rajya Sabha.**​

Additional Information

Jairam Ramesh- Former minister, Jairam Ramesh is a Congress MP in the Rajya Sabha representing the state of Andhra Pradesh.
P. J. Kurien- Pallath Joseph Kurien is an Indian politician. - He was the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, till his retirement on 30 June 2018.
Manoj Kumar- Manoj Kumar Jha is a member of the Rajya Sabha and also the spokesperson of the Rashtriya Janata Dal. - On 15 March 2018, he was elected unopposed to the Rajya Sabha from the state of Bihar.

Question 29

What is the Maximum Strength of the Rajya Sabha according to the Article 80 of the Indian Constitution?

  1. AOption (a)

    250

  2. BOption (b)

    545

  3. COption (c)

    238

  4. DOption (d)

    245

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

250

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 250.

Key Points

  • The upper house of the Indian Parliament is known as Rajya Sabha.
  • It is a permanent house (cannot be dissolved) which is also known as the 'Council of states'.
  • There are a total of 245 members in this house and the maximum strength is 250.
  • Out of 245 members, 12 members are nominated by the President and 233 are elected.
  • The feature of the nomination of members to Rajya Sabha was borrowed from Ireland.
  • Those 233 members are elected by the MLAs of the respective states and the Union Territories of Pudducherry and Delhi.
  • The elected members have a tenure of 6 years and elections are held for 2/3rd of the seats every two years.

Important Points

  • The Rajya Sabha is the upper house of the bicameral Parliament of India constituted under Article 80 of the Indian constitution.
  • It is also known as the house of elders.
  • The Vice President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
  • As of September 2021, Venkaiah Naidu is the chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
  • Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and not subject to dissolution.

Question 30

How many stanzas of Rabindranath Tagore's "Jana Gana Mana" song were adopted as the National Anthem of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    2

  2. BOption (b)

    1

  3. COption (c)

    4

  4. DOption (d)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1.

Key Points

  • “Jana Gana Mana ” is the national anthem of India.
  • Written in highly Sanskritised (Tatsama) Bengali, it is the first of five stanzas of a Brahmo hymn composed and scored by Nobel laureate Rabindranath Tagore.
  • But only 1 stanza of Rabindranath Tagore's "Jana Gana Mana" song was adopted as the National Anthem of India.​
  • It was first sung in the Calcutta Session of the Indian National Congress on 27 December 1911.
  • “Jana Gana Mana” was officially adopted by the Constituent Assembly as the Indian national anthem on 24 January 1950.
  • 27 December 2011 marked the completion of 100 years of Jana Gana Mana since it was sung for the first time.
  • The original poem written by Rabindranath Tagore was translated into Hindi by Abid Ali.
  • It was adopted by the Constituent Assembly as the National Anthem of India on 24 January 1950.
  • It was first sung on 27 December 1911 at the Kolkata Session of the Indian National Congress.
  • A formal rendition of the national anthem takes fifty-two seconds.

Question 31

When was the Planning Commission of India established?

  1. AOption (a)

    1966

  2. BOption (b)

    1955

  3. COption (c)

    1947

  4. DOption (d)

    1950

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1950

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1950.

Key Points

  • Planning Commission
  • It was an institution in the Government of India.
  • It formulated five-year plans.
  • It was formed on 15 March 1950.
  • It was dissolved on 17 August 2014 and replaced by the new institution NITI Aayog.
  • The Prime Minister of India was the ex-officio chairman of the Planning Commission.

Additional Information

  • The term NITI stands for National Institution for Transforming India.
  • NITI Aayog is a think tank that advises the government in policy formulation, unlike the PC which was empowered to allocate distribute funds for the planning.
  • NITI Aayog's main focus areas are cooperative & competitive federalism, decentralised planning, scenario planning, capacity building etc.
  • Full-Time Organisational Framework:
  • Chairman: Prime Minister (Narendra Modi)
  • Vice Chairperson: Appointed by the Prime Minister. (Suman Berry)
  • Chief Executive Officer (CEO).
  • Full-Time members
  • Part-time members: maximum 2
  • Ex-officio members: maximum 4
  • Structure:
  • Chairman: The Prime Minister.
  • Governing Council: comprising of chief ministers and Lt. Governors.
  • Regional Council
  • Special Invitees: Experts and practitioners as appointed by the Prime Minister.

Question 32

Who has authored the book "40 Years with Abdul Kalam- Untold Stories"?

  1. AOption (a)

    M. Venkaiah Naidu

  2. BOption (b)

    APJ Abdul Kalam

  3. COption (c)

    Dr. AS Pillai

  4. DOption (d)

    Amish Tripathi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Dr. AS Pillai

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Dr. AS Pillai.

  • Dr. AS Pillai has authored the book "40 Years with Abdul Kalam- Untold Stories".

Key Points

  • The author had the opportunity of working with this great soul closely for more than four decades and shared difficulties, failures, and successes.
  • This book discusses many of the interesting events, mostly the untold ones, during this journey, including those at ISRO, DRDO, and BrahMos, and interactions with the corridors of power.
  • Manufacturing is the key to economic prosperity and the chapter on Strategic Industries gives a complete insight into how India has steadily progressed in modern India.
  • It was a long and unique journey for the author with the most appreciated true Indian, KALAM the Brahmarishi.

Important Points

  • Dr. Abdul Kalam, a great human being, established a unique place in the hearts of Indians with his admirable virtues and combined a simple lifestyle with strong willpower to envision an empowered nation.
  • Without any ego, he could adapt himself to the situation to win over the person in front of him or would instantly become a captivating communicator to the audience. Everyone, irrespective of age, position, or religion, who met him on different occasions, celebrates him as a friend.
  • As the eleventh President of India, he had totally changed the perception of India in the global arena.

Additional Information

AuthorBooks
Dr. AS Pillai40 Years with Abdul Kalam- Untold Stories, The Power of Your, Subconscious Mind, Corporate Chanakya
M. Venkaiah NaiduMoving On... Moving Forward: A Year In Office
APJ Abdul KalamWings of Fire, Ignited Minds, Turning Points, Adamya Sahas
Amish TripathiThe secret of the Nagas, Oath of the Vayuputras,  The Immortals of Meluha

Question 33

In what year did the Great Economic Depression start?

  1. AOption (a)

    1911

  2. BOption (b)

    1931

  3. COption (c)

    1914

  4. DOption (d)

    1929

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1929

Why this answer is correct

The Great Depression was the greatest and longest economic recession in modern world history. It began with the U.S. stock market crash of 1929 and did not end until 1946 after World War II. 

Key Point

  • The American public began a frenzy of investing in the speculative market in the 1920s.Trade routes created during WWII remained open and helped the market recover.
  • The 1929 market crash wiped out a great deal of nominal wealth for individuals and businesses alike.
  • Other factors including inactivity followed by overaction by the Fed also contributed to the Great Depression.
  • Both Presidents Hoover and Roosevelt tried to mitigate the impact of the depression through government policies.
  • Neither the government policies or the beginning of WWII can be single-handedly credited with ending the depression.

What Ended the Great Depression

  • In 1932, the country elected Franklin D. Roosevelt as president. He promised to create federal government programs to end the Great Depression. Within 100 days, he signed the New Deal into law, creating 42 new agencies throughout its lifetime. They were designed to create jobs, allow unionization, and provide unemployment insurance.  They help safeguard the economy and prevent another depression.

Question 34

Which Amendment Act introduced the Right to Education under the Fundamental Rights?

  1. AOption (a)

    69th Amendment Act

  2. BOption (b)

    44th Amendment Act

  3. COption (c)

    42nd Amendment Act

  4. DOption (d)

    86th Amendment Act

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

86th Amendment Act

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 86th Amendment Act.

Key Points

  • The 86th amendment to the Constitution of India in 2002 provided the right to education as a fundamental right.
  • A new article 21A was added which made the right to education a fundamental right for children between  6-14 years.
  • Changes in Article 45 of the Directive Principle of State Policies were made.
  • It made education for all children below 6 years a Directive Principle of State Policies(DPSP).
  • It made the opportunities for education to the child a Fundamental Duty of parents of children.

Additional Information

  • Article 51A of the constitution deals with Fundamental Duties.
  • Fundamental Duties are takes from the constitution of Russia.
  • Article 36-51 deals with the Directive Principle of State policy.
  • The Directive Principle of State policy is taken from the Irish Constitution.

Question 35

Who was the second individual to land on the surface of Moon?

  1. AOption (a)

    Neil Armstrong

  2. BOption (b)

    Edwin Aldrin

  3. COption (c)

    Pete Conrad

  4. DOption (d)

    Alan Bean

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Edwin Aldrin

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Edwin Aldrin.

Key Points

  • Edwin Aldrin was the second individual to land on the surface of the Moon.
  • Neil Armstrong landed on the moon for the first time.
  • This was achieved by sending two men to Apollo 11 on July 20, 1969.
  • Neil Armstrong and Buzz Aldrin went to the lunar surface in an expedition called Apollo 11.
  • Apollo 11 space mission was launched by Saturn V rocket from Kennedy Space Center on July 16, 1969.
  • This mission created history by carrying Neil Armstrong and Edwin Aldrin to the Moon’s surface on July 20, 1969.
  • Apollo 11 space mission entered the lunar orbit three days after its launch.
  • Apollo 11 Astronauts Neil Armstrong and Aldrin used the Eagle Lunar module to land on the Moon.
  • Armstrong and Aldrin landed the lunar module in a crater known as the 'Sea of Tranquillity.

Important Points

  • Yuri Gagarin was the first person to go to space in the world.
  • Rakesh Sharma was the first Indian to go into space.

Question 36

What is the official name of the Nobel Prize in the field of Economics?

  1. AOption (a)

    Nobel for Economics

  2. BOption (b)

    Nobel Memorial Prize in Economic Sciences

  3. COption (c)

    Sveriges Riksbank Prize in Economic Sciences

  4. DOption (d)

    Nobel prize for excellence in Econmics

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Sveriges Riksbank Prize in Economic Sciences

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sveriges Riksbank Prize in Economic Sciences.

  • The Sveriges Riksbank Prize in Economic Sciences in Memory of Alfred Nobel  is the official name of the Nobel Prize in the field of Economics

Key Points

  • The Sveriges Riksbank Prize in Economic Sciences in Memory of Alfred Nobel has been awarded 52 times to 86 Laureates between 1969 and 2020.
  • In 2020 it was awarded jointly to Paul R. Milgrom and Robert B. Wilson "for improvements to auction theory and inventions of new auction formats.
  • About Nobel Prize
  • The Nobel Prize award was first conferred in 1901.
  • It is given in the name of Alfred Nobel who was a Swedish inventor.
  • The season for Nobel Prize begins in October every year.
  • The Nobel Prize is awarded yearly to the individuals or organizations who do an extraordinary job in the field of Physics, chemistry, literature, peace, physiology or medicine, and Economics.
  • All the Nobel Prizes are given in Stockholm, Sweden except for the Nobel Peace Prize which is awarded in Oslo, Norway.
  • Three people at maximum can share a Nobel Prize.
  • Between 1901 and 2020, the Nobel Prizes and the Prize in Economic Sciences were awarded 603 times to 962 people and organizations.

Key Points 

  • The 2025 Nobel Prizes were awarded across five categories, highlighting achievements in quantum physics, materials science, immunology, literature, and peace.
  • Physics Prize:
  • Awarded to John Clarke, Michel H. Devoret, and John M. Martinis for their work in macroscopic quantum mechanical tunneling and energy quantization in electric circuits, showcasing quantum mechanics at a macroscopic scale.
  • Their work enabled advances in quantum computing, cryptography, and quantum sensors.
  • Chemistry Prize:
  • Awarded to Susumu Kitagawa, Richard Robson, and Omar M. Yaghi for their development of metal-organic frameworks (MOFs), materials with vast internal surface areas for various applications such as water harvesting, carbon capture, and toxic gas storage.
  • Medicine Prize:
  • Awarded to Mary E. Brunkow, Fred Ramsdell, and Shimon Sakaguchi for discovering regulatory T cells (Tregs) that prevent autoimmune diseases and play a role in cancer therapy.
  • Their work has revolutionized the understanding of autoimmune diseases and immunotherapy.
  • Literature Prize:
  • Awarded to László Krasznahorkai for his visionary works, including "Satantango", which explore themes of apocalyptic terror, chaos, and human isolation.
  • Known for long, complex sentences and dark, philosophical narratives.
  • Peace Prize:
  • Awarded to Maria Corina Machado, a Venezuelan leader and symbol of democratic resistance against authoritarianism in Venezuela, emphasizing "ballots over bullets" and leading the opposition.
  • Praised for her courage despite life-threatening risks and for unifying the opposition around democratic principles.

Additional Information

  • Geographical Distribution:
  • United States leads with six laureates.
  • Other countries: Japan (2 laureates), Australia, Hungary, and Venezuela (1 laureate each).
  • Ceremony: 
  • The award ceremony will take place on December 10, 2025, in Stockholm (Peace Prize in Oslo).
  • Each prize includes 11 million Swedish kronor, a gold medal, and a diploma.

Question 37

Which of the following countries developed the COVID-19 vaccine called "Sputnik V"?

  1. AOption (a)

    USA

  2. BOption (b)

    India

  3. COption (c)

    Russia

  4. DOption (d)

    UK

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Russia

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Russia.

Key Points

  • Sputnik V is developed by Russia’s Gamaleya Research Institute of Epidemiology and Microbiology.
  • It claims to be one of the three vaccines in the world with an efficacy of over 90%.
  • Approved by the Drug Controller General of India (DCGI), Sputnik V is the third vaccine to be made available in India after the Serum Institute of India’s Covishield and Bharat Biotech’s Covaxin.
  • The vaccine supplies for the global market will be produced by the Russian Direct Investment Fund (RDIF) international partners in India, Brazil, China, South Korea and other countries.

Question 38

How many Ratnas, including the prominent Musician Tansen, were there in the court of Akbar?

  1. AOption (a)

    9

  2. BOption (b)

    5

  3. COption (c)

    3

  4. DOption (d)

    7

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

9

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 9.

  • The Navratnas of Akbar were as follows: Raja Birbal, Tansen, Abul Fazal, Faizi, Raja Man Singh, Raja Todar Mal, Mullah Do Piaza, Fakir Aziao-Din, Abdul Rahim Khan-I-Khana.

Key Points

  • Tansen was an Indian musician and poet who was an important figure in the North Indian tradition of Hindustani classical music.
  • His renditions of ragas, a musical form intended to invoke emotion or nature, were said to tame animals and turn day into night, while his voice could replicate the roar of a lion or the chirp of a bird.
  • His real name was Ramtanu Pandey.
  • He was greatly esteemed for his dhrupad and raga compositions and for his vocal performances.
  • Tansen was the title given to him by Raja Vikramjit of Gwalior.
  • Akbar gave the title of Kanthabharan Vanivilas to Tansen.

Additional Information

  • Akbar (1556 to 1605)
  • Akbar was the third Mughal emperor (1556 to 1605) and son of  Humayun.
  • Akbar succeeds in the throne at just 13 years old due to the death of Humayun.
  • The kingdom Akbar inherited was little more than a collection of frail fiefs, under the regency of  Bairam Khan.
  • Akbar introduced the Mansabdari system.
  • The Navratnas of Akbar were as follows: Raja Birbal, Tansen, Abul Fazal, Faizi, Raja Man Singh, Raja Todar Mal, Mullah Do Piaza, Fakir Aziao-Din, Abdul Rahim Khan-I-Khana.
  • Abul Fazl started the writing of Akbarnama in 1589.
  • It is the most detailed history of the reign of Akbar.

Question 39

Govind Swarup passed away on 7 September 2020. He was the ______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Radio Astronomer

  2. BOption (b)

    Journalist

  3. COption (c)

    Economist

  4. DOption (d)

    Social Worker

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Radio Astronomer

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Radio Astronomer.

Key Points

  • Govind Swarup passed away on 7 September 2020.
  • He was 91 years old.
  • He is widely recognized as the ‘Father of Indian Radio Astronomy.’
  • He was the founding director of the Pune-based National Centre for Radio Astrophysics (NCRA) of the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research (TIFR).
  • He built the Ooty Radio Telescope and the Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope (GMRT) array in Pune.
  • In 1973, he was awarded the Padma Shri for his contributions.
  • In 1972, he received the Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize.

Additional Information

  • Radio astronomy is a subfield of astronomy that studies celestial objects at radio frequencies.
  • The initial detection of radio waves from the astronomical object was created in the 1930s when Karl Jansky observed radiation coming back from the extragalactic nebula.
  • Subsequent observations have known a variety of various sources of radio waves.
  • These embrace stars and galaxies, likewise as entirely new categories of objects like radio galaxies, quasars, and pulsars.

Question 40

Which of the following countries shall be hosting the 2022 FIFA U-17 Women's World Cup?

  1. AOption (a)

    Germany

  2. BOption (b)

    India

  3. COption (c)

    Qatar

  4. DOption (d)

    France

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

India

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is India.

Key Points

  • World football governing body FIFA announced the cancellation of its women’s youth tournaments for 2020, awarding the hosting rights of the 2022 editions to those nations.
  • It means India will now host the 2022 FIFA U-17 Women’s World Cup.

Additional Information

  • Federation Internationale de Football Association (FIFA):
  • It is the international governing body of the football association.
  • FIFA was founded in 1904 to oversee international competition among the national associations of Belgium, Denmark, France, Germany, the Netherlands, Spain, Sweden, and Switzerland.
  • FIFA is headquartered in Zurich, Switzerland.
  • Its membership now comprises 211 national associations.

Arithmetic Ability (20 questions)

Question 41

In an election between two candidates, 80 per cent of the voters cast their votes, out of which 10 per cent votes were declared invalid. A candidate got 2160 votes which were 75 per cent of the valid votes. What is the total number of voters enrolled in that election?

  1. AOption (a)

    4000

  2. BOption (b)

    6000

  3. COption (c)

    6400

  4. DOption (d)

    4800

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

4000

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A candidate got 75% of total valid votes = 2160

Formula used:

The gain marks percentage = {(The gain marks)/(The total number of marks)} × 100

Calculation:

Let be assume the total number of voters is X

⇒ The total number of voter those who cast their votes = {(100 - 20)/100} × X = (80/100) × X = (4/5) × X

⇒ The total number of valid votes = (90/100) × (4X/5) = (9/10) × (4X/5) = 36X/50

⇒ A candidates got votes = 2160

⇒ (75/100) × (36X/50) = 2160

⇒ X = (2160 × 50 × 100)/(36 × 75) = (60 × 50 × 4)/3 = 20 × 50 × 4 = 1000 × 4 = 4000

∴ The required result will be 4000.

Question 42

A man while travelling a distance of 200km by a car at a speed of 40 km/hr, his car breaks down at half the journey and the remaining distance is covered by bus to reach his destination. If the total time taken to reach the destination is 4.5 hours, then what is the speed of the bus?.

  1. AOption (a)

    50 km/hr

  2. BOption (b)

    45 km/hr

  3. COption (c)

    55 km/hr

  4. DOption (d)

    40 km/hr

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

50 km/hr

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The speed of car = 40 km/h

The total distance = 200 km

Formula used:

S = D/T   

Where, S = Speed, D = Distance and T = Time

Calculation:

Let the speed of bus be S

According to the question;

⇒ Total time is taken by car to complete the journey = 200/40 = 5 hours

⇒ To travel half of the distance car will take time = 5/2 = 2.5 hours

⇒ Time is taken by bus to travel half of the distance = 4.5 - 2.5 = 2 hours

⇒ The total distance travel by bus in = 2 × 2 = 4 hours

⇒ The speed of bus = 200/4 = 50 km/h

∴ The required result will be 50 km/h.

Question 43

The given table shows the total number of students studying courses P, Q, R, S and T in eight institutes A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H.

coursesInstitute
ABCDEFGH
P520410550450570210750450
Q410540610580380550570310
R430210390530730510530480
S350280570320410480610460
T370480380250180370590660
<br>

The number of students studying course Q in institute B is what percent of the number of students in institute C?

  1. AOption (a)

    17

  2. BOption (b)

    20

  3. COption (c)

    22

  4. DOption (d)

    11

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

22

Why this answer is correct

Please check the last two lines

Given:

Students study in syllabus Q in institute B = 540

Students study in syllabus P, Q, R, S, and T institute C respectively = 550, 610, 390, 570, and 380

Formula used:

GM% = {(GM)/(TM)} × 100    (Where GM = Gain marks and TM = Total Marks)

Calculation:

⇒ The students study in syllabus Q in institute B = 540

⇒ Total students study in institute C = 550 + 610 + 390 + 570 + 380 = 2500

⇒ The required % = (540/2500) × 100 = (0.216) × 100 = 21.6   which is nearest to 22 ≈ 22

∴ The required result will be 22.

Question 44

The graph given below represents the number of users of an ABC brand services across in cities P, Q, R, S and T.

What is the total number of users of brand ABC across all five cities together?

  1. AOption (a)

    2700

  2. BOption (b)

    3100

  3. COption (c)

    2900

  4. DOption (d)

    3000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

3000

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The number of users of ABC in city P, Q, R, S, and T respectively = 600, 500, 650, 700, and 550

Concept:

If two numbers A and B then, addition of these two number will be = A + B

Calculation:

⇒ Total number of user of ABC in all cities = 600 + 500 + 650 + 700 + 550 = 3000

∴ The required result will be 3000.

Question 45

If the interest on a sum of Rs.1200 is more than the interest on Rs.1000 by Rs.120 in three years, then what is the rate of simple interest per annum?.

  1. AOption (a)

    20 percent

  2. BOption (b)

    10 percent

  3. COption (c)

    16 percent

  4. DOption (d)

    12 percent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

20 percent

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The first sum = 1200

The second sum = 1000

The time = 120

Formula used:

I = (P × R × T)/100    (Where, I = Interest P = Principle, R = Rate, and T = Time)

Calculation:

Let be assume the rate of interest is R

⇒ Interest on first sum = (1200 × 3 × R)/100 = 36R

⇒ Interest on second sum = (1000 × 3 × R)/100 = 30R

⇒ 36R - 30R = 120

⇒ 6R = 120

⇒ R = 20%

∴ The required result will be 20%.

Question 46

Which is the smallest fraction of the following fractions?.

  1. AOption (a)

    2388\dfrac{23}{88}

  2. BOption (b)

    212841\dfrac{212}{841}

  3. COption (c)

    8596\dfrac{85}{96}

  4. DOption (d)

    1345\dfrac{13}{45}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

212841\dfrac{212}{841}

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The fractions = 22/88, 212/841, 85/96, and 13/45

Concept:

If A is greater than B then, 

A > B

Calculation:

⇒ 23/88 = 0.261

⇒ 212/841 = 0.252

⇒ 85/96 = 0.885

⇒ 13/45 = 0.288

⇒ The acending order of the numbers = 212/841 < 23/88 < 13/45 < 85/96

∴ The required result will be 212/841.

Question 47

If a square is circumscribed by circle of radius 6 cm, then what is the area of square?

  1. AOption (a)

    36 cm2

  2. BOption (b)

    64 cm2

  3. COption (c)

    98 cm2

  4. DOption (d)

    72 cm2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

72 cm2

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The radius of the circle = 6 cm

Concept:

When a square is circumscribed by a circle then,  The diameter of the circle = Diagonal of the square

Formula used:

The area of a square = a2   

The diameter of the square = √2 × (a)

(Where a = Side of the square)

Calculation:

Let be assume a is the side of the square

⇒ The diameter of the square = √2 × (a)

⇒ 6 + 6 = √2 × (a)

⇒ 12 = √2 × (a)

⇒ Squaring the both side 

⇒ (12)2 = (√2)2 × a2

⇒ a2 = 144/2 = 72 cm2    (Where a2 = Area of the square whose side is a)

∴ The required result will be 72 cm2.

Question 48

The table represents the total number of students studying courses P, Q, R, S and T across eight institutes, i.e. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H.

CoursesInstitutes
ABCDEFGH
P520410550450570210750450
Q410540610580380550570310
R430210390530730510530480
S350280570320410480610460
T370480380250180370590660
<br>

What is the ratio of the total number of students studying in Institute A to the total number of students studying in Institute H?

  1. AOption (a)

    52:59

  2. BOption (b)

    59:61

  3. COption (c)

    55:59

  4. DOption (d)

    52:55

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

52:59

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The students studying in institute A in different syllabus respectively = 520, 410, 430, 350, and 370

The students studying institute H in different syllabus respectively = 450, 310, 480, 460, and 660

Calculation:

⇒ The total number of students studying in institute A = 520 + 410 + 430 + 350 + 370 = 2080

⇒ The total number of students studying in institute H = 450 + 310 + 480 + 460 + 660 = 2360

⇒ The required ratio = 2080/2360 = 208/236 = 52/59

∴ The required result will be 52 : 59.

Question 49

What will come in the place of question mark (?) in the given expression?

342 - 262 = ?2 - 30 percent of 320

  1. AOption (a)

    18

  2. BOption (b)

    24

  3. COption (c)

    12

  4. DOption (d)

    30

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

24

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The expression = 342 - 262 = ?2 - 30% of 320

Concept:

Calculation:

⇒ 342 - 262 = ?2 - 30% of 320

⇒ 1156 - 676 = ?2 - (30/100) × (320)

⇒ 1156 - 676 = ?2 - (0.3 × 320)

⇒ 1156 - 676 = ?2 - 96

⇒ 1156 + 96 - 676 = ?2

⇒ ?2 = 576

⇒ ? = √576 = 24

∴ The required result will be 24.

Question 50

What is the sum of the digits of the smallest four digit number which is exactly divisible by 8, 10, 12, 18 and 24?

  1. AOption (a)

    8

  2. BOption (b)

    6

  3. COption (c)

    9

  4. DOption (d)

    12

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

9

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

The required number is exactly divisible by 18, so it must also be divisible by 9.

By the divisibility rule of 9, the sum of its digits must be a multiple of 9.

From the given options (8, 6, 9, 12), only 9 is a multiple of 9.

Alternatively, the smallest 4-digit multiple of their LCM (360) is 360 × 3 = 1080.

Sum of digits of 1080 = 1 + 0 + 8 + 0 = 9.

∴ The correct answer is 9.

Alternate Method

Given:

Divisors: 8, 10, 12, 18, and 24

Formula Used:

Required number = Smallest 4-digit number + (LCM − Remainder)

Calculations:

⇒ Prime factorization of given numbers:

⇒ 8 = 23

⇒ 10 = 2 × 5

⇒ 12 = 22 × 3

⇒ 18 = 2 × 32

⇒ 24 = 23 × 3

⇒ LCM = 23 × 32 × 5 = 8 × 9 × 5 = 360

⇒ The smallest 4-digit number is 1000.

⇒ 1000 ÷ 360 gives a quotient of 2 and a remainder of 280.

⇒ To make it perfectly divisible by 360, we add the difference between the divisor and the remainder.

⇒ Required Number = 1000 + (360 − 280) = 1080

⇒ Sum of the digits = 1 + 0 + 8 + 0 = 9

∴ The correct answer is 9.

Additional Information

LCM and HCF Relation

The product of two numbers is equal to the product of their LCM and HCF: a × b = LCM × HCF.

Greatest n-digit number divisible by given numbers

To find the greatest n-digit number divisible by given numbers, find their LCM, divide the greatest n-digit number by the LCM, and subtract the remainder from the greatest n-digit number.

Divisibility Rule of 9

A number is perfectly divisible by 9 if the sum of its digits is a multiple of 9. This rule is highly useful for cross-verifying answers involving multiples of 9 or 18.

Question 51

 Efficiency of B is 37.5 percent less than A whereas efficiency of C is 60 percent less than B. A and C together can do a work in 42 days. Find how long all three will together take to complete the same work?

  1. AOption (a)

    14 days

  2. BOption (b)

    21 days

  3. COption (c)

    20 days

  4. DOption (d)

    28 days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

28 days

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The efficiency of B is less than A = 37.5%

The efficiency of C is less than B = 60%

Formula used:

W = E × T   (Where, W = Work, E = Efficiency and T = Time)

Calculation:

Let be assume an efficiency of A is 100

⇒ The efficiency of B = (100 - 37.5) = 62.5

⇒ The efficiency of C = {(100 - 60)/100} × 62.5 = (2/5) × 62.5 = 25

⇒ A and C can complete the work in 42 days then,

⇒ The total work = 42 × (100 + 25) = 125 × 42 = 5250

⇒ A, B, and C together can complete the work = 5250/(100 + 25 + 62.5) = 5250/187.5 = 28 days

∴ The required result will we 28 days.

Question 52

The speed of a boat in still water is 15 km/hr and the rate of current is 3 km/hr. What is the distance travelled downstream in 12 minutes?

  1. AOption (a)

    1.8 km

  2. BOption (b)

    1.2 km

  3. COption (c)

    3.6 km

  4. DOption (d)

    2.4 km

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

3.6 km

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The speed of the boat in still water = 15 km/h

Concept:

Downstream speed of boat = Speed of boat in still water + Speed of stream

Formula used:

S = D/T   (Where S = Speed, D = Distance, and T = Time)

Calculation:

⇒ The speed of boat in downstream = 15 + 3 = 18 km/h = 18/60 km/minutes = 0.3 km/minutes

⇒ The distance travelled in 12 minutes in downstream = 0.3 × 12 = 3.6 km

∴ The required result will be 3.6 km.

Question 53

A blanket is marked at 25 percent above its cost price and after allowing a discount of 12 percent on its marked price, shopkeeper sold the blanket at Rs.180 profit. What is the marked price of the blanket?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 2250

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 2375

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 2500

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 1875

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Rs. 2250

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The profit on selling the blanket = 180 rupees

Formula used:

GM% = (GM/TM) × 100 (Where GM = Gain marks, TM = Total marks)

Calculation:

Let be assume cost price of the blanket is X

⇒ The marked price of the blanket = {(100 + 25)/100} × X = (125/100) × X = 5X/4

⇒ The selling price of the blanket = (100 - 12)/100 × (5X/4) = (88/100) × (5X/4) = (22/25) × (5X/4) = 22X/20

⇒ Profit = 22X/20 - X

⇒ 180 = (22X - 20X)/20

⇒ 2X = 3600

⇒ X = 1800

⇒ The marked price of blanket = 5X/4 = (5/4) × 1800 = 2250

∴ The required result will be 2250.

Alternate MethodUsing ratio Method:

Let CP be 100

Ratio between CP and MP = 100 : 125

After 12% discount

Ratio of CP : MP : SP = 100 : 125 : 110

Given Profit = Rs. 180

So, 110 - 100 = 10 unit   (SP - CP = Profit)

10 unit = Rs. 180

So, 1 unit = Rs. 18

Marked price = 125 unit

So Marked price = 125 × Rs. 18 = Rs. 2250

Question 54

The difference between the squares of the present ages of P and Q is 25 and the average of their present ages is 12.5 years(consider age of P is more than Q). After how many years the ratio of ages of P and Q will be 15:14?

  1. AOption (a)

    4 years

  2. BOption (b)

    1 year

  3. COption (c)

    2 years

  4. DOption (d)

    6 years

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2 years

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The average of the present age of P and Q = 12.5

The difference between the squares of the present age of the P and Q = 25

Formula used:

a2 - b2 = (a + b) × (a - b)

Average = (The sum of all items)/(Total number of items)

Calculation:

Let be assume the present age of P and Q is P and Q respectively. and after X year ratio of their present age is 15 : 14

⇒ P + Q = 2 × 12.5 = 25 ...... (1)

⇒ P2 - Q2 = 25

⇒ (P + Q) × (P - Q) = 25

⇒ 25 × (P - Q) = 25

⇒ P - Q = 1 ....... (2)

⇒ By solving equation (1) and (2)

⇒ P = 13, Q = 12

⇒ (13 + X)/(12 + X) = 15/14

⇒ 182 + 14X = 180 + 15X

⇒ X = 2 years

∴ The required result will be 2 years.

Question 55

A man saves an average of Rs. 500 per month from January to June. In July, he saves Rs. 450. From August to December, his total savings are 60 per cent of his savings from January to July. What is his average monthly salary for the year if his average monthly spending for the whole year is Rs. 440?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 1,050

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 990

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 900

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 1,100

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Rs. 900

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A man saves an average from January to June = 500 rupees

Concept:

Income = Expenditure + Saving

Formula used:

Average = (The sum of all items)/(The total number of items)

Calculation:

⇒ The total saving from January to June = 500 × 6 = 3000

⇒ The total saving of January to July = 3000 + 450 = 3450

⇒ The total saving of August to December = 3450 × (60/100) = 2070

⇒ The total saving of whole year = 3450 + 2070 = 5520

⇒ The total spending of whole year = 440 × 12 = 5280

⇒ The total annul income of the man = 5520 + 5280 = 10800

⇒ The total monthly income of man = 10800/12 = 900

∴ The required result will be 900.

Question 56

A solution of oil and water contains 60 percent oil. To reduce the oil to 50 percent, 30 ml water is added into the mixture. What was the initial quantity of mixture?

  1. AOption (a)

    120

  2. BOption (b)

    125

  3. COption (c)

    150

  4. DOption (d)

    135

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

150

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The percentage of oil in mixture = 60%

Calculation:

Let be assume an initial quantity of the mixture is X

⇒ The quantity of oil in mixture = (60/100) × X = 0.6X

⇒ The quantity of water in mixture = (40/100) × X = 0.4X

⇒ Now, water and oil is 50%-50% of the mixture if 30 ml of water is added then,

⇒ 0.4X + 30 = (X + 30) × (50/100)

⇒ 0.4X + 30 = X/2 + 30/2

⇒ 0.4X + 30 = X/2 + 15

⇒ 30 - 15 = X/2 - 4X/10

⇒ (5X - 4X)/10 = 15

⇒ X = 15 × 10 = 150

∴ The required result will be 150.

Question 57

What will come in the place of question mark (?) in the given expression?

21+49+64 %:of:5000=?\sqrt{21+\sqrt{49}+\sqrt{64}} \space {\%:of:5000}=?

  1. AOption (a)

    450

  2. BOption (b)

    500

  3. COption (c)

    120

  4. DOption (d)

    300

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

300

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The expression = 21+49+64 %:of:5000=?\sqrt{21+\sqrt{49}+\sqrt{64}} \space {\%:of:5000}=?

Concept:

Calculation:

21+49+64 %:of:5000=?\sqrt{21+\sqrt{49}+\sqrt{64}} \space {\%:of:5000}=? 

⇒ (21+7+8)%:of:5000\sqrt{(21+{7}+{8})}\%:of:5000

⇒ 36%:of:5000\sqrt{36{}}\%:of:5000

⇒ (6/100) × 5000

⇒ 50 × 6 = 300

∴ The required result will be 300.

Question 58

The surface area of a sphere is 616 square cm. If its radius is changed so that surface area gets reduced by 75 percent, then what is the new radius?

  1. AOption (a)

    2.5 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    3.5 cm

  3. COption (c)

    4.2 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    3 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

3.5 cm

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The surface area of sphere = 616 cm2

Formula used:

The surface area of sphere = 4 × (π × r2)       (Where, r = Radius of the sphere)

Calculation:

Let be assume the new radius of the sphere is r

⇒ The surface area of the sphere after 75% reduce = 616 × {(100 - 75)/100} = (25/100) × 616 =  616/4 = 154 cm2

⇒ The new surface area of the sphere = 154 cm2

⇒ 4 × (22/7) × r2 = 154

⇒ r2 = (154 × 7)/(22 × 4) = (7 × 7)/4 = 49/4 

⇒ r = √(49/4) = 7/2 = 3.5 cm

∴ The required result will be 3.5 cm.

Question 59

Which of the following polynomial is divisible by x - 3?

  1. AOption (a)

    x4 - 8x2 - x - 7

  2. BOption (b)

    3x3 - 6x2 - 5x - 12

  3. COption (c)

    2x3 - 3x2 - 4x - 9

  4. DOption (d)

    4x3 - 6x2 - 7x - 5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

3x3 - 6x2 - 5x - 12

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

If a polynomial is divisible by a function/polynomial, then the function has to be one of its factors.

Calculation:

If any polynomial is divisible by x - 3, it means it is a factor of x - 3

⇒ It will satisfy x - 3 = 0

⇒ x = 3

Put x = 3 in all the equations and check which one gives output = 0

Checking option 1:

Put x = 3 in x4 - 8x2 - x - 7

⇒ 34 - 8 × 32 - 3 - 7 = - 1

So, it is not divisible by x - 3

Checking option 2:

⇒ Put x = 3 in 3x3 - 6x2 - 5x - 12

⇒ 3 × 33 - 6 × 32 - 5 × 3 - 12 = 0

∴ 3x3 - 6x2 - 5x - 12 is divisible by x - 3

Question 60

Due to a fall in manpower, the production in a factory decreases by 20 percent. By what percent should the working hours per man be increased to restore the original production?

  1. AOption (a)

    25 percent

  2. BOption (b)

    10 percent

  3. COption (c)

    20 percent

  4. DOption (d)

    12.5 percent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

25 percent

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The production of factory decreased = 20%

Concept:

Production of the factory = M × H     (Where M = Total number of men, and H = Total number of hours)

Calculation:

Let be assume the total production is 100, number of men is 20 and working hours is 5 initialy

⇒ When production is reduce by 20% then production = 100 × {(100 - 20)/100} = (4/5) × 100 = 80

⇒ When production reduce by 20% then the number of men = 80/5 = 16 men

⇒ If production should remain as initial then the number of working hours = 100/16 = 6.25

⇒ Percentage change in working hours = {(6.25 - 5)/5} × 100 = (1.25/5) × 100 = 1.25 × 20 = 25%

∴ The required result will be 25%.

General English (20 questions)

Question 61

Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select 'No substitution required'.

The network is enough strong and I can say that the mobile networks in India now are better or at par with any network in the world.

  1. AOption (a)

    strongly enough

  2. BOption (b)

    strong enough

  3. COption (c)

    enough strength

  4. DOption (d)

    No substitution required

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

strong enough

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'strong enough'.

Key Points

  • The error lies in the incorrect usage of adverb 'enough'.
  • According to the rule 'strong' is an adjective and 'enough' is an adverb when an adverb is used to modify an adjective, adverb will succeed the adjective.
  • Example:
  • He was kind enough to lend me some money. (Correct)
  • He was old enough to earn a living. (Correct)
  • He was enough kind to me some money. (Incorrect)
  • He was enough old to earn a living. (Incorrect)
  • Thus, 'enough strong' needs to be replaced with 'strong enough'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'The network is strong enough and I can say that the mobile networks in India now are better or at par with any network in the world. '

Question 62

In the following question, four sentences are given out of which three sentences are grammatically incorrect while one is correct. Find out which sentence is grammatically correct and select the appropriate option.

  1. AOption (a)

    It involves to print large sums of money and distributing it to the public.

  2. BOption (b)

    Friedman used the term to signify "unexpectedly dumping money onto a struggling economy with the intention to shock it out of a deep slump."

  3. COption (c)

    This is an unconventional monetary policy tool aimed with bringing a flagging economy back on track.

  4. DOption (d)

    It seeks to goad people into spending more and thereby to boost the sagging economy.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Friedman used the term to signify "unexpectedly dumping money onto a struggling economy with the intention to shock it out of a deep slump."

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Friedman used the term to signify "unexpectedly dumping money onto a struggling economy with the intention to shock it out of a deep slump."'

Key Points

  • Option 1, it is incorrect because the conjunction 'and' is coordinate conjunction and is used to connect phrase and clause of same grammatical rank. An -ing form of verb is succeeding 'and' therefore, it must be preceded by an -ing form of verb i.e. 'printing' in place of the infinitive 'to print' to make the sentence grammatically correct.
  • Option 2 is a grammatically and contextually correct sentence.
  • Option 3 is incorrect because 'aimed with' is an incorrect phrasal verb to be used in the sentence. The correct phrasal verb is 'aimed at' which means  To target a particular issue or goal. Thus, 'with' needs to be replaced with 'at' to make the sentence grammatically correct.
  • Option 4, it is incorrect because the conjunction 'and' and whenever conjunction like 'and' preceded the adverb 'thereby' it is succeeded by a present or past tense. Thus, 'boost' will be used in place of 'to boost' to make the sentence grammatically correct.

Question 63

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

She broke her foot recently in practice and will not be competing ______ after Christmas.

  1. AOption (a)

    for

  2. BOption (b)

    since

  3. COption (c)

    apart

  4. DOption (d)

    until

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

until

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'until'.

Key Points

  • Let's explore the options:
  • For: As a preposition, it is used to express the purpose of.
  • Example: There's a sign there saying "boats for hire".
  • Since: As an adverb, it is used to express an action or event from a particular time in the past until a later time, or until now.
  • Example: Emma went to work in New York a year ago, and we haven't seen her since.
  • Apart: As an adverb, it is used to express separation by distance or by time.
  • Example: How far apart should the speakers be?
  • Until: It is used as a preposition and conjunction and used to express not before a particular time or event.
  • Example: Once he starts painting a room he won't stop until it's done.
  • Thus, 'until' will be used in the blank because an event of 'competing in a race' will not happen before 'Christmas'.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: 'She broke her foot recently in practice and will not be competing until after Christmas.'

Question 64

Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options.

His assistants have and are still doing excellent work for the organisation.

  1. AOption (a)

    No error 

  2. BOption (b)

    His assistants have and

  3. COption (c)

    excellent work for the organisation

  4. DOption (d)

    are still doing

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

His assistants have and

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'His assistants have and', i.e. the error lies in this part of the sentence.

Key Points

  • The error lies in the incorrect usage of verb.
  • 'Have' needs to be replaced with 'have done'.
  • The action has started in past continues in the present, the action in present is represented by 'are doing' but action in past is represented by 'have' which is incorrect and needs to be replaced with 'have done'.
  • Thus, the correct answer is option 2.

Therefore, the correct statement is: 'His assistants have done and are still doing excellent work for the organisation.' 

Additional Information

  • Present perfect tense: It is defined as an action started in past, finished in past, and has a relation with the present or an action that has happened in a period of time up to now.

Question 65

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.

PRODIGAL

  1. AOption (a)

    Lavish

  2. BOption (b)

    Parsimonious

  3. COption (c)

    Generous

  4. DOption (d)

    Jabbering

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Parsimonious

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Parsimonious'.

Key Points

  • Let's explore the meaning of the marked word and the given word. 
  • Prodigal: spending or using large amounts of money, time, energy, etc., especially in a way that is not very wise.
  • Example: The prodigal landlord spends the money as fast as he receives it.
  • Parsimonious: not willing to spend money or to give or use a lot of something.
  • Example: She's too parsimonious to heat the house properly.
  • From above, we can refer that the correct answer is option 2.

Additional Information 

  • Lavish: large in quantity and expensive or impressive.
  • Example: The evening was a lavish affair with glorious food and an endless supply of champagne.
  • Generous: willing to give money, help, kindness, etc., especially more than is usual or expected.
  • Example: TShe's been very generous with her time.
  • Jabbering: to speak or say something quickly in a way that is difficult to understand.
  • Example: The train was full of people jabbering (away) into their mobile phones.

Question 66

Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select 'No substitution required'.

After it’s unsuccessful bid to sell Air India in 2018, the government this time has decided to offload its entire stake.

  1. AOption (a)

    its

  2. BOption (b)

    No substitution required

  3. COption (c)

    it

  4. DOption (d)

    there

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

its

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'its'.

Key Points

  • The error lies in the incorrect usage of apostrophe.
  • 'It's' needs to be replaced with 'its'.
  • It's: 'It's' means it is or it has. The apostrophe signals that something has been removed.
  • Example: It's raining. [=It is raining.]
  • Its: of or relating to it or itself.
  • Example: Let the medicine do its job.
  • Here in the sentence 'it's' is used for 'government' which is incorrect.
  • Thus, the correct answer is option 1.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: 'After its unsuccessful bid to sell Air India in 2018, the government this time has decided to offload its entire stake.'

Question 67

Select the wrongly spelt word.

  1. AOption (a)

    Gauge

  2. BOption (b)

    Grandeur

  3. COption (c)

    Glamourous

  4. DOption (d)

    Grievous

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Glamourous

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Glamourous', i.e. it is a wrongly spelt word.

Key Points 

  • Glamourous: It is a wrongly spelt word. The correct spelling is 'Glamorous'.
  • Glamorous: attractive or appealing in an exotic or exciting way.
  • Example: Being a singer must be such a glamorous lifestyle.
  • Thus, from the above-given explanation, we can say that the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information  

  • Gauge: estimate or determine the amount, level, or volume of.
  • Example: astronomers can gauge the star's intrinsic brightness.
  • Grandeur: splendour and impressiveness, especially of appearance or style.
  • Example: The majestic grandeur and simplicity of Roman architecture.
  • Grievous: (of something bad) very severe or serious.
  • Example: His death was a grievous blow

Question 68

Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.

Killing of one's wife

  1. AOption (a)

    Uxoricide

  2. BOption (b)

    Regicide

  3. COption (c)

    Sororicide

  4. DOption (d)

    Suicide

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Uxoricide

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Uxoricide'.

Key Points 

  • Uxoricide: the crime of murdering your wife.
  • Example: Younger women, relative to older women, are at higher risk of uxoricide - being murdered by their husbands.
  • Thus, from above, the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information 

  • Regicide: the action of killing a king.
  • Sororicide: the killing of one’s sister.
  • Suicide:  the action of killing oneself intentionally.

Question 69

Rearrange the following sentences in their correct order to form a meaningful paragraph.

P. Countries across the globe have slowly begun to lift their lockdown restrictions.

Q. As adults have slowly adapted to the new normal, a rapid change of the lifestyles can have an immense impact on the minds of the little ones.

R. In this era of stepping out only when necessary, it is the children who bear the maximum brunt of the isolation.

S. The truth is that the pandemic is far from over.

  1. AOption (a)

    QRPS

  2. BOption (b)

    RSQP

  3. COption (c)

    PRQS

  4. DOption (d)

    SRPQ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

PRQS

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'PRQS'.

Key Points

  • Statement P  will be the first in sequence as it introduces the subject of the sentence 'Countries'.
  • Statement R will follow Statement P as it mentions the era of lockdown which is mentioned in statement P.
  • Statement Q will follow statement R as it states the effect of lockdown on adult as well as on children.
  • Statement S will be the last part.

Therefore, the correct sequence is PRQS.

  • Sequence:
  • P. Countries across the globe have slowly begun to lift their lockdown restrictions.
  • R:  In this era of stepping out only when necessary, it is the children who bear the maximum brunt of the isolation.
  • Q:  As adults have slowly adapted to the new normal, a rapid change of the lifestyles can have an immense impact on the minds of the little ones.
  • S. The truth is that the pandemic is far from over.

Question 70

Rearrange the following sentences in their correct order to form a meaningful paragraph.

P: When all the credit worthy people were given loans to a logical limit, they ceased to be a part of the market.

Q: Even this would have been understandable if it could work as an eye opener.

R: Owing to the materialistic culture elsewhere, it was possible to keep selling newer products to the consumers despite having existing ones which served equally well.

S: They were lured through advertising and marketing techniques of 'dustbinisation' of the customer; and then finally, once they became ready customers, they were given loans and credits to help them buy more and more.

  1. AOption (a)

    RSPQ

  2. BOption (b)

    PRQS

  3. COption (c)

    QSPR

  4. DOption (d)

    RPQS

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

RSPQ

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'RSPQ'.

Key Points

  • Statement R will be the first in sequence as it introduces the subject of the sentence 'Materialistic Culture'.
  • Statement S will follow Statement R as it mentions how a new product is sold to consumers despite having existing ones which served well.
  • Statement P will follow statement S as it mentions what happens when the consumers reached their limits for loans.
  • Statement Q will be the last part.

Therefore, the correct sequence is RSPQ.

  • Sequence:
  • R: Owing to the materialistic culture elsewhere, it was possible to keep selling newer products to the consumers despite having existing ones which served equally well.
  • S: They were lured through advertising and marketing techniques of 'dustbinisation' of the customer; and then finally, once they became ready customers, they were given loans and credits to help them buy more and more.
  • P: When all the credit worthy people were given loans to a logical limit, they ceased to be a part of the market.
  • Q: Even this would have been understandable if it could work as an eye opener.

Question 71

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Indoor plants not only add more detailing to the room but also create a/an _______ flow of oxygen.

  1. AOption (a)

    hazardous

  2. BOption (b)

    flexible

  3. COption (c)

    steady

  4. DOption (d)

    unsteady

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

steady

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'steady'.

Key Points 

  • Let's explore the meaning of the given options:
WordMeaningExample
hazardousdangerous.Heavy rain is causing hazardous driving conditions.
flexibleable to change or be changed easily according to the situation.My schedule is flexible - I could arrange to meet with you any day next week.
steadyhappening in a smooth, gradual, and regular way, not suddenly or unexpectedly.The procession moved through the streets at a steady pace.
unsteadylikely to change, in a way that is worrying.The report showed unemployment surging in an already unsteady economy.

 

  • Thus, from the above-given explanation, we can say that 'steady' will be used in the blank.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Question 72

Select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase bold in the sentence.

To have a green thumb means

  1. AOption (a)

    One's nails are painted green

  2. BOption (b)

    To have a natural interest in gardening

  3. COption (c)

    One is artistic

  4. DOption (d)

    One has a green tattoo on the thumb

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

To have a natural interest in gardening

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'To have a natural interest in gardening​'.

Key Points

  • To have a green thumb:  It is an idiomatic phrase which means the ability to make plants grow and be healthy. 
  • Example: My sister has a green thumb, but I kill most plants that I buy.
  • Thus, from above we can say that the correct answer is option 2.

Question 73

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

CONSENSUS

  1. AOption (a)

    Agreement

  2. BOption (b)

    Denial

  3. COption (c)

    Discord

  4. DOption (d)

    Dissension

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Agreement

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Agreement'.

Key Points

  • Let's explore the meaning of the marked word and the given word. 
  • Consensus: a generally accepted opinion or decision among a group of people.
  • Example: The general consensus in the office is that he can't do his job.
  • Agreement: the situation in which people have the same opinion, or in which they approve of or accept something.
  • Example: The whole family was in agreement with her about/on what they should do.
  • From above, we can refer that the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information 

  • Denial: a statement that something is not true or does not exist.
  • Example: The CEO issued a denial of the report that she is about to resign.
  • Discord: the state of not agreeing or sharing opinions.
  • Example: A note of discord has crept into relations between the two countries.
  • Dissension: arguments and disagreement, especially in an organization, group, political party, etc.
  • Example: There are signs of dissension within the ruling political party.

Question 74

Select the correctly spelt word.

  1. AOption (a)

    Intimidate

  2. BOption (b)

    Intemidate

  3. COption (c)

    Intimidiate

  4. DOption (d)

    Intimediate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Intimidate

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Intimidate.

Key Points

  • Intimidate: to frighten or threaten someone, usually in order to persuade them to do something that you want them to do. (भयभीत)
  • Example: They were intimidated into accepting a pay cut by the threat of losing their jobs.
  • Thus, from above, we can refer that the correct answer is option 1.

Question 75

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom/ phrase.

Call it a day

  1. AOption (a)

    Good luck

  2. BOption (b)

    Don't be so critical

  3. COption (c)

    Better to arrive late than not to come at all

  4. DOption (d)

    Stop working on something

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Stop working on something

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Stop working on something'.

Key Points 

  • Call it a day: It is an idiomatic phrase which means to stop what you are doing because you do not want to do any more or think you have done enough. 
  • Example: I'm getting a bit tired now - let's call it a day.
  • Thus, from above we can say that the correct answer is option 4.

Read the following passage and answer the questions below.

Against Cassius's advice, Brutus allows Mark Antony to speak a funeral oration for Caesar in the market place. He is allowed under the condition that first Brutus must address the people to explain the conspirators' reasons and their fears for Caesar's ambition. After Brutus speaks, the crowd becomes calm and supports his cause. However, Antony, in his speech, questions the motives of the conspirators and reminds the crowd of Caesar's benevolent actions and of his refusal to accept the crown. He also reads them Caesar's will, in which Caesar leaves public land and money to each Roman citizen. Antony's speech stirs the crowd into a murderous riot, and the conspirators are forced to flee from the city.

Brutus and Cassius gather an army in Northern Greece and prepare to fight the forces led by Mark Antony. Antony has joined with Caesar's great-nephew, Octavius, and with a man called Lepidus. Away from Rome, Brutus and Cassius are filled with doubts about the future and quarrel over funds for their soldiers' pay. After making amends, they prepare to engage Antony's army at Philippi, despite Cassius' misgivings about the site. Brutus stoically receives news of his wife's suicide in Rome. He then sees Caesar's ghost as he tries to rest and is unable to sleep on the eve of the conflict.

In the battle, the Republicans (led by Brutus) appear to be winning at first. But when Cassius' messenger's horse seems to be overtaken by the enemy, Cassius fears the worst and gets his servant to help him to a quick death. After finding Cassius's body, Brutus commits suicide. He believes this to be the only honourable option left to him. Antony, triumphant on the battlefield, praises Brutus as 'the noblest Roman of them all' and orders a formal funeral before he and Octavius return to rule in Rome.

Question 76

After whose speech, the crowd got infuriated and the conspirator had to flee?

  1. AOption (a)

    Brutus’ speech

  2. BOption (b)

    Lepidus’ speech

  3. COption (c)

    Octavious’ speech

  4. DOption (d)

    Antony’s speech

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Antony’s speech

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Antony's Speech'.

Key Points

  • Let's refer to the following lines of the passage:
  • After Brutus speaks, the crowd becomes calm and supports his cause. However, Antony, in his speech, questions the motives of the conspirators and reminds the crowd of Caesar's benevolent actions and of his refusal to accept the crown. He also reads them Caesar's will, in which Caesar leaves public land and money to each Roman citizen. Antony's speech stirs the crowd into a murderous riot, and the conspirators are forced to flee from the city.
  • Thus, from above we can refer that the correct answer is option 4.

Question 77

Which of the following statements is correct according to the given passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Lepidus stoically receives news of his wife's suicide in Rome.

  2. BOption (b)

    Mark Antony was Caesar’s great nephew and led an Army in Northern Greece.

  3. COption (c)

    Octavious praised Brutus saying that he was 'the noblest Roman of them all'.

  4. DOption (d)

    Antony's speech stirred the crowd into a murderous riot and the conspirators had to flee.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Antony's speech stirred the crowd into a murderous riot and the conspirators had to flee.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Antony's speech stirred the crowd into a murderous riot and the conspirators had to flee.'

Key Points

  • Let's refer to the following lines of the passage:
  • Brutus stoically receives news of his wife's suicide in Rome.
  • Antony has joined with Caesar's great-nephew, Octavius, and with a man called Lepidus.
  • Antony, triumphant on the battlefield, praises Brutus as 'the noblest Roman of them all' and orders a formal funeral before he and Octavius return to rule in Rome.
  • Antony's speech stirs the crowd into a murderous riot, and the conspirators are forced to flee from the city.
  • Thus, from above the correct answer is option 4.

Question 78

Who according to the given passage, praises Brutus after his death?

  1. AOption (a)

    Octavious

  2. BOption (b)

    Cassius

  3. COption (c)

    Mark Antony

  4. DOption (d)

    Lepidus

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Mark Antony

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Mark Antony'.

Key Points

  • Let's refer to the following lines of the passage:
  • Antony, triumphant on the battlefield, praises Brutus as 'the noblest Roman of them all' and orders a formal funeral before he and Octavius return to rule in Rome.
  • Thus, from above the correct answer is option 3.

Question 79

Why did Mark Antony remind the crowd of Caesar’s benevolent actions and denial of crown?

  1. AOption (a)

    to acquit the murder’s of their crime by doing so

  2. BOption (b)

    to calm down the crowd that why he was killed

  3. COption (c)

    to tell the crowd that Brutus was a noble man

  4. DOption (d)

    to avenge Caesar’s murder by infuriating the crowd

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

to avenge Caesar’s murder by infuriating the crowd

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'to avenge Caesar’s murder by infuriating the crowd'.

Key Points

  • Let's refer to the following lines of the passage:
  • However, Antony, in his speech, questions the motives of the conspirators and reminds the crowd of Caesar's benevolent actions and of his refusal to accept the crown. He also reads them Caesar's will, in which Caesar leaves public land and money to each Roman citizen. Antony's speech stirs the crowd into a murderous riot, and the conspirators are forced to flee from the city.
  • Thus, from above, we can infer that the correct answer is option 4

Question 80

Which of the following best expresses the meaning to the given word “Stoically”?

  1. AOption (a)

    impassively

  2. BOption (b)

    edgily

  3. COption (c)

    fervidly

  4. DOption (d)

    dolorously

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

impassively

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'impassively'.

Key Points

  • Let's explore the meaning of the marked word and the given word. 
  • Stoically: without complaining or showing your feelings, especially when something bad happens to you.
  • Example: She listened stoically as the guilty verdict was read out.
  • impassively: in a way that expresses no emotion or reaction.
  • Example: He stared impassively out of the window.
  • From above, we can refer that the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information 

  • edgily: in a nervous or worried way.
  • fervidly: hot, burning, or glowing.
  • dolorously: sad, or causing sadness or emotional suffering.

General Hindi (20 questions)

Question 81

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा तिरस्कारबोधक अव्यय है?

  1. AOption (a)

    हा-हा !

  2. BOption (b)

    अच्छा !

  3. COption (c)

    धिक् !

  4. DOption (d)

    वाह !

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

धिक् !

Why this answer is correct

दिए गए विकल्पों में ‘धिक्!’ विकल्प सही है। अन्य विकल्प इसके अनुचित हैं। 

 Key Points

उपरोक्त विकल्पों में ‘धिक्!’ शब्द ‘तिरस्कारबोधक’ अव्यय है जो विस्मयादिबोधक अव्यय का भेद है।

उदाहरण- हट!, जाओ वहाँ। 

 Important Points

विस्मयादिबोधक अव्यय- जिन वाक्यों में घृणा, हर्ष, शोक, आश्चर्य के भाव प्रकट हों, विस्मयादि बोधक अव्यय कहलाते हैं। इसमें विस्मयादिबोधक (!) चिह्न का प्रयोग किया जाता है। जैसे - वाह! तुमने तो कमाल कर दिया।
विस्मयादिबोधक अव्यय के भेद – 1. हर्षबोधक - वाह!, आहा!, शाबाश!, धन्य!, जय! आदि। 2. शोकबोधक - हाय!, आह!, काश! आदि। 3. आश्चर्यबोधक - ओहो!,ऐं!, हैं! आदि। 4. स्वीकारबोधक - हाँ!. जी हाँ!, ठीक आदि। 5. अनुमोदनबोधक- ठीक!, अच्छा!, हाँ-हाँ! आदि। 6. तिरस्कारबोधक - छिः!, हट!, धिक्! आदि। 7. सम्बोधनबोधक - अरे!, रे!, हे!, अहो! आदि।

Question 82

निम्नलिखित में से शब्द-युग्म के सही अर्थ-भेद का चयन कीजिए -

ब्याज - व्याज

  1. AOption (a)

    सूद - नृत्य

  2. BOption (b)

    सूद - बहाना

  3. COption (c)

    सागर - बहाना

  4. DOption (d)

    सहोदर - पंखा

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

सूद - बहाना

Why this answer is correct

ब्याज का अर्थ सूद होता है, और व्याज का अर्थ बहाना होता है।

ब्याज - व्याज, के लिए शुद्ध शब्द युग्म 'सूद - बहाना​' है।

  • ब्याज : सूद
  • व्याज : बहाना

Key Points

  • अन्य शब्द -
  • नृत्य - नाच।
  • सहोदर - एक ही पेट से जन्मे, सगा।
  • पंखा - हवा देने वाला यंत्र।

Additional Information 

शब्दपरिभाषाउदाहरण
समश्रुत शब्दकुछ शब्द ऐसे होते हैं जिनमें स्वर, मात्रा अथवा व्यंजन में थोड़ा-सा अन्तर होता है। वे बोलचाल में लगभग एक जैसे लगते हैं, परन्तु उनके अर्थ में भिन्नता होती है। ऐसे शब्द 'समश्रुत/श्रुतिसम भिन्नार्थक शब्द' कहलाते हैं।जैसे- घन और धन दोनों के उच्चारण में कोई खास अन्तर महसूस नहीं होता परन्तु अर्थ में भिन्नता है। घन-बादल धन-सम्पत्ति

Question 83

वह हँसता है। वाक्य में प्रयुक्त "हँसना" _______ है।

  1. AOption (a)

    प्रेरणार्थक क्रिया

  2. BOption (b)

    पूर्वकालिक क्रिया

  3. COption (c)

    सकर्मक क्रिया

  4. DOption (d)

    अकर्मक क्रिया

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

अकर्मक क्रिया

Why this answer is correct

उपरोक्त विकल्पों में से सही उत्तर विकल्प 4 ‘वह हँसता है।’ होगा। अन्य विकल्प इसके त्रुटिपूर्ण उत्तर होंगे।

Key Points 

  • ‘वह हँसता है।’ यह वाक्य ‘अकर्मक क्रिया’ का है।
  • अकर्मक क्रिया: ‘अकर्मक’ मतलब कर्म उपस्थित नहीं है। जब किसी वाक्य में कर्ता हो और क्रिया भी हो लेकिन कर्म ना हो तो वहां पर अकर्मक क्रिया होती है। ‘वह हँसता है।‘ इस वाक्य में ‘वह’ कर्ता का काम कर रहा है और हँसना क्रिया है, लेकिन इसका प्रभाव और किसी चीज पर नहीं पड़ रहा है, इसलिए यहां पर अकर्मक क्रिया है।

Additional Information अन्य विकल्प:

  • पूर्वकालिक क्रिया- पूर्वकालिक का अर्थ होता है– पहले से हुआ। जब कर्ता एक कार्य को समाप्त करके तुरंत दूसरे काम में लग जाता है, तब जो क्रिया पहले ही समाप्त हो जाती है, उसे पूर्वकालिक क्रिया कहते हैं। पूर्वकालिक क्रिया को धातु में कर या करके लगाकर बनाया जाता है।
  • जिन क्रियाओं से यह बोध होता है कि कर्ता स्वयं कार्य न कर के किसी दूसरे को कार्य करने के लिए प्रेरित करता है, उन्हें प्रेरणार्थक क्रिया कहते हैं जैसे, लिखना से लिखवाना, समझना से समझाना इत्यादि।
सकर्मक क्रियाउस प्रकार की क्रिया होती है जिसमें कर्ता द्वारा किया गया कार्य किसी अन्य चीज को प्रभावित करता है, तो वहां पर सकर्मक क्रिया होती है।सीता खाना पकाएगी।
अकर्मक क्रियाअकर्मक क्रिया वहां पर होती है जहां कर्ता द्वारा किया गया कार्य किसी अन्य चीज को प्रभावित नहीं करता है।सांप रेंगता है।

Question 84

निम्नलिखित में से शुद्ध वर्तनी वाले शब्द का चयन कीजिए -

  1. AOption (a)

    उत्तरोतर 

  2. BOption (b)

    अधिकांस

  3. COption (c)

    आत्मशुद्धि

  4. DOption (d)

    अनुग्रहीत

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

आत्मशुद्धि

Why this answer is correct

दिए गए विकल्पों में आत्मशुद्धि शब्द की वर्तनी शुद्ध है। अत: सही विकल्प 3 ‘आत्मशुद्धि’ है। अन्य सभी शब्दों की वर्तनी त्रुटि पूर्ण हैं।

Key Points

  • ‘आत्मशुद्धि’ का अर्थ ‘स्वयं का शुद्धिकरण’ है।

 

शुद्ध वर्तनीअशुद्ध वर्तनीअर्थ
उत्तरोत्तरउत्तरोतरक्रमशः
अधिकांशअधिकांसबड़ा भाग
अनुगृहीतअनुग्रहीतएहसानमंद

 

 

 

 

 

Additional Information

वर्तनीलिखने की रीति को वर्तनी कहते हैं। ‘वर्तनी’ शब्द का अर्थ उच्चारित होने वाले शब्द के लेखन  में प्रयोग होने वाले लिपि चिह्नों के व्यवस्थित रूप को वर्तनी कहा जाता है।

Question 85

दिए गए वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द का चयन कीजिए -

ऊपर से नीचे लाना

  1. AOption (a)

    रोहण

  2. BOption (b)

    औरस

  3. COption (c)

    अवरोहण

  4. DOption (d)

    उर्ध्वगामी

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

अवरोहण

Why this answer is correct

विकल्प 3 ‘अवरोहण’ इसका सही उत्तर है। अन्य विकल्प अनुचित हैं।

Key Points

दिए गए विकल्पों में ‘अवरोहण’ उपरोक्त वाक्यांश के लिए उचित शब्द है।

 

अन्य विकल्प:

रोहणचढ़ना, सवार होना
औरसविवाहित स्त्री से उत्पन्न पुत्र
उर्ध्वगामीऊपर की ओर जाने वाला

Additional Information

वाक्यांशभाषा को सुंदर, आकर्षक और प्रभावशाली बनाने के लिए अनेक शब्दों के स्थान पर एक शब्द का प्रयोग किया जाता है तो वह वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द कहलाता है। जैसे- जिसे देखकर डर लगे- डरावना।

Question 86

निम्नलिखित में से "ला" उपसर्ग का प्रयोग कर कौन-सा शब्द बनाया गया है?

  1. AOption (a)

    रसगुल्ला

  2. BOption (b)

    लाजवाब 

  3. COption (c)

    ललित

  4. DOption (d)

    लालरंग

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

लाजवाब 

Why this answer is correct

दिए गए विकल्पों में सही उत्तर विकल्प 2 ‘लाजवाब’ है। अन्य विकल्प इसके अनुचित उत्तर हैं।

  • ‘जवाब’ मूल शब्द है जिसमें ‘ला’ उपसर्ग के योग से ‘लाजवाब’ शब्द निर्मित हुआ है।
  • लाजवाब का अर्थ बेहतरीन होगा।
  • ‘ला’ उपसर्ग से बने अन्य शब्द हैं- लावारिस, लाचार, लाजवाब, लापरवाह, लापता आदि।
  1. रसगुल्ला - मीठा खाद्य पदार्थ।
  2. ललित - मनोहर, सुन्दर।
  3. लालरंग - एक प्रकार का रंग।
उपसर्गवह शब्दांश जो किसी शब्द के पूर्व अथवा पहले लगकर उस शब्द का अर्थ बदल देते हैं अथवा उसमें नई विशेषता उत्पन्न कर देते हैं उपसर्ग कहलाते हैं. अथवा लघुत्तम सार्थक शब्द खंड जो अन्य शब्दों के आदि में जुड़ कर उनका अर्थ बदल देते हैं उपसर्ग कहलाते हैं।प्रति + क्षण = प्रतिक्षण सम্ + गम = संगम

Question 87

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा शब्द पुल्लिंग नहीं है?

  1. AOption (a)

    भूख

  2. BOption (b)

    कृत्य

  3. COption (c)

    बहाव

  4. DOption (d)

    गाना

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

भूख

Why this answer is correct

भूख स्त्रीलिंग शब्द हैं। अन्य सभी विकल्प पुल्लिंग के उदाहरण है।  

जैसे - उसे भूख जोरो की लगी है।

Key Points

अन्य विकल्प  

- ‘कृत्य’ एक पुल्लिंग शब्द है। उदाहरण - उसका कृत्य क्षमा योग्य नही है।  

  • ‘बहाव’ पुल्लिंग शब्द हैं। जैसे -  नदी का बहाव तेज है। 
  • 'गाना' पुल्लिंग शब्द है। जैसे - फिल्म का गाना सुनने जैसा है। 

विशेष -

लिंगपरिभाषाउदाहरण
पुल्लिंगजिन शब्दों से पुरुष जाति का बोध होता है उन्हें पुल्लिंग शब्द कहते हैं ।जैसे - पिता, भाई, लड़का, पेड़, सिंह शिव, हनुमान, बैल आदि ।
स्त्रीलिंगजिन शब्दों से स्त्री जाति का बोध होता है उन्हें स्त्रीलिंग शब्द कहते हैं ।जैसे - माता, बहन, यमुना, गंगा, कुरसी, छड़ी, नारी बुआ, लड़की, लक्ष्मी, गाय आदि ।

Question 88

निम्नलिखित में से किस लोकोक्ति का अर्थ "ऊपर से प्रेम दिखाना, अप्रत्यक्ष में हानि पहुँचाते रहना" है?

  1. AOption (a)

    जड काटते जाना और पानी देते रहना |

  2. BOption (b)

    जीभ जली और स्वाद भी कुछ न आया |

  3. COption (c)

    जान मारे बनिया पहचान मारे चोर |

  4. DOption (d)

    जहां न जाए रवि वहाँ जाए कवि |

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

जड काटते जाना और पानी देते रहना |

Why this answer is correct

दिए गए विकल्पों में सही उत्तर विकल्प 1 ‘जड काटते जाना और पानी देते रहना​’ है। अन्य विकल्प इसके असंगत उत्तर हैं।

Key Points

स्पष्टीकरण: 

  • ‘जड काटते जाना और पानी देते रहना’ लोकोक्ति का अर्थ ‘ऊपर से प्रेम दिखाना, अप्रत्यक्ष में हानि पहुँचाते रहना’ होगा। अन्य विकल्प त्रुटिपूर्ण हैं।
  • वाक्य प्रयोग - प्रशान्त जब मुझसे मिलता है हँसकर प्रेम से बात करता है लेकिन पीछे भाई साहब से मेरी बुराई करता है। जब मुझे पता चला तो मैंने उससे कहा कि तुम जड़ काटते हो ऊपर से पानी देते हो।
  • जीभ जली और स्वाद भी कुछ न आया - बदनामी भी हुई और लाभ भी नहीं मिला
  • वाक्य प्रयोग - तुमने उस लड़की से प्यार किया उसने धोखा दिया और किसी और से शादी कर ली। तुमने तो जीभ जली और स्वाद भी कुछ न आया वाली कहावत चरितार्थ कर दी।
  • जान मारे बनिया पहचान मारे चोर - बनिया परिचित व्यक्ति को ठगता है और चोर भेद मिलने से चोरी करता है।
  • वाक्य प्रयोग - सेठ जी वैसे तो मेरे मित्र हैं, लेकिन कपड़े के दाम बड़े महंगे लिए। मैं भी मुलाहिजे में कुछ न कह सका। ये कहावत ठीक ही है – ‘जान मारे बनिया, पहचान मारे चोर’।
  • जहाँ न जाएँ रवि वहाँ जाए कवि - कवि की कल्पना अनन्त होती है।
  • वाक्य प्रयोग - कालिदास और भवभूति जैसे कवियों की रचनाओं को पढ़कर कहा जा सकता है – जहाँ न जाए रवि वहाँ जाए कवि।
  • अन्य विकल्प इसके अनुचित उत्तर होंगे।

Additional Information 

विशेष:

परिभाषाउदाहरण
लोकोक्तिकिसी विशेष स्थान पर प्रसिद्ध हो जाने वाले कथन को 'लोकोक्ति' कहते हैं। दूसरे शब्दों में जब कोई पूरा कथन किसी प्रसंग विशेष में उद्धत किया जाता है तो लोकोक्ति कहलाता है। इसी को कहावत भी कहते हैं।अपना रख, पराया चख अर्थात अपनी वस्तु की रक्षा और दूसरे की वस्तु का उपभोग।

Question 89

निम्नलिखित में से मुहावरा "थैली का मुँह खोलना" का क्या अर्थ है?

  1. AOption (a)

    दाल में काला होना।

  2. BOption (b)

    चुगली करना।

  3. COption (c)

    खुले दिल से व्यय करना।

  4. DOption (d)

    नमक अदा करना।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

खुले दिल से व्यय करना।

Why this answer is correct

'थैली का मुँह खोलना’ मुहावरे का सही अर्थ है – खुले दिल से व्यय करना। अन्य विकल्प असंगत हैं। 

स्पष्टीकरण:-

मुहावरेअर्थवाक्य प्रयोग
थैली का मुँह खोलनाखुले दिल से व्यय करनाअपने माता-पिता को विश्व भम्रण कराने के लिए उसने थैली का मुँह खोल दिया।
<br>

अन्य विकल्प:-

मुहावरेअर्थवाक्य प्रयोग
दाल में काला होनासंदेह होनारेखा ने अपनी लड़की की शादी जल्दबाजी में करा दी लगता है दाल में कुछ काला है।
चुगली करनापीछे-पीछे निंदा करनाबॉस को अपने सहकर्मियों की चुगली कर-कर के मोहन आज ऊँचे पद पर बैठा है।
नमक अदा करनाकर्तव्य पालन करनाबेटे ने अपने पिता के कारोबार को आगे बढ़ा कर अपना नमक अदा किया।

Additional Information

मुहावरा परिभाषाउदाहरण
मुहावरा का शाब्दिक अर्थ ‘अभ्यास’ है। मुहावरा शब्द अरबी भाषा का शब्द है। हिन्दी में ऐसे वाक्यांशों को मुहावरा कहा जाता है, जो अपने साधारण अर्थ को छोड़कर  विशेष अर्थ को व्यक्त करते हैं।अंक भरना- स्नेह से लिपटा लेना वाक्य-माँ ने स्नेह से अपने पुत्र को अंक में भर लिया।

Question 90

निम्नलिखित में से शुद्ध वर्तनी वाले वाक्य का चयन कीजिए -

  1. AOption (a)

    सागर अधिक गहरा है।

  2. BOption (b)

    मैंने उसकी बात परेशानी की।

  3. COption (c)

    आपने नौकरी पाने का एक अच्छा अवसर खो दिया।

  4. DOption (d)

    हर्षा को अपने सौन्दर्य पर गौरव है।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

आपने नौकरी पाने का एक अच्छा अवसर खो दिया।

Why this answer is correct

दिये गए विकल्पों में से 'आपने नौकरी पाने का एक अच्छा अवसर खो दिया।' शुद्ध वाक्यरूप है। 

Key Points

  • 'आपने नौकरी पाने का एक अच्छा अवसर खो दिया​।' शुद्ध वर्तनी युक्त वाक्य है। क्योंकि इसमें कोई त्रुटि नहीं है।
  • अन्य विकल्पों में अशुद्धियां हैं।

अन्य विकल्प - 

अशुद्ध वाक्यत्रुटिशुद्ध वाक्य
सागर अधिक गहरा है।लिंग संबंधीसागर की गहराई अधिक है।
मैंने उसकी बात परेशानी की।सर्वनाम सम्बन्धीमुझे उसकी बात से परेशानी है।
हर्षा को अपने सौन्दर्य पर गौरव है।उचित शब्द  संबंधीहर्षा को अपने सौन्दर्य पर अभिमान है।

 

Additional Information

वाक्यगत अशुद्धिवाक्य सम्प्रेषण की सबसे महत्वपूर्ण और सार्थक इकाई होती है। अतः वाक्यगत अशुद्धियाँ को शुद्ध रूप में लिखना सम्प्रेषण को अधिक सरल बनाता है। वाक्य में, संज्ञा, सर्वनाम, लिंग, वचन, क्रिया-विशेषण, क्रिया, विशेषण आदि संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ हो सकती हैं।अशुद्ध रूप - वह बहुत जल्दी वापस लौट आया। शुद्ध रूप - वह बहुत जल्दी लौट आया।

Question 91

सम्बोधन के समय जिसे सम्बोधित किया जाता है, उसके बाद _______ का प्रयोग होता है।

  1. AOption (a)

    अल्पविराम चिन्ह

  2. BOption (b)

    पूर्णविराम चिन्ह

  3. COption (c)

    तारकविराम चिन्ह

  4. DOption (d)

    लाघवविराम चिन्ह

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

अल्पविराम चिन्ह

Why this answer is correct

उपरोक्त विकल्पों में सम्बोधन के समय जिसे सम्बोधित किया जाता है, उसके बाद अल्पविराम चिन्ह का प्रयोग किया जाता है। 

Key Points

विरामचिन्ह – भाषा के लिखित रूप में विशेष स्थानों पर रुकने का संकेत करने वाले चिन्हों को विरामचिन्ह कहते हैं। 

विरामचिन्ह का नामपरिभाषाउदाहरण
पूर्ण विरामचिन्ह (।)जहाँ एक बात पूरी हो जाये या वाक्य समाप्त हो जाये वहाँ पूर्णविराम ( । ) चिन्ह लगाया जाता है।बाजार खुल गया।
अर्द्ध विरामचिन्ह (;)जहाँ अल्पविराम से कुछ अधिक ठहरते है तथा पूर्णविराम से कम ठहरते है, वहाँ अर्द्धविराम का चिन्ह ( ; ) लगाया जाता है।मुख्य अतिथि आ गए हैं; वह शीघ्र चले जाएंगे।
अल्प विरामचिन्ह (,)वाक्य में जहाँ थोड़ा रुकना हो या अधिक वस्तुओं, व्यक्तियों आदि को अलग करना हो वहाँ अल्पविराम ( , ) चिन्ह का प्रयोग किया जाता है।राकेश, मोहन, शीतल और पंकज ने यह चित्र बनाया है।
प्रश्नवाचक चिन्ह (?)बातचीत के दौरान जब किसी से कोई बात पूछी जाती है अथवा कोई प्रश्न पूछा जाता है, तब वाक्य के अंत में प्रश्नसूचक-चिन्ह का प्रयोग किया जाता है।तुम्हारी माताजी का नाम क्या है?
विस्मयादिबोधक चिन्ह (!)इसका प्रयोग हर्ष, विवाद, विस्मय, घृणा, आश्रर्य, करुणा, भय, संबोधन इत्यादि का बोध कराने के लिए इस चिन्ह का प्रयोग किया जाता है।वाह! कितना सुंदर दृश्य है।
लाघव चिन्ह ( ० )किसी बड़े तथा प्रसिद्ध शब्द को संक्षेप में लिखने के लिए उस शब्द का पहला अक्षर लिखकर उसके आगे शून्य (०) लगा देते हैं।यह शून्य ही लाघव-चिन्ह कहलाता है।डॉक्टर – डॉ०, प्रोफेसर – प्रो०

Question 92

निम्नलिखित में से दिया गया वाक्य किस कारक का उदाहरण है?

गुरु को नमस्कार है।

  1. AOption (a)

    अपादान कारक

  2. BOption (b)

    करण कारक

  3. COption (c)

    संप्रदान कारक

  4. DOption (d)

    अधिकरण कारक

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

संप्रदान कारक

Why this answer is correct

गुरु को नमस्कार है। वाक्य में 'सम्प्रदान कारक' है l 

Key Points 

  • क्योंकि जिस शब्द से किसी के लिए कुछ करने या देने का बोध हो, या नमस्कार करने का भाव हो।
  • अतः स्पष्ट है कि सम्प्रदान कारक सटीक विकल्प हैl
  • अन्य विकल्प असंगत है l
सम्प्रदान कारकजिस शब्द से किसी के लिए कुछ करने या देने का या नमस्कार का बोध हो, इसकी विभक्ति ‘को’ और ‘के लिए’ है। जैसे – वह अरुण के लिए मिठाई लाया���

अन्य विकल्प

करण कारकजिस वस्तु की सहायता ‘से’ या जिसके ‘द्वारा’ कोई काम किया जाता है। जैसे – वह कुल्हाड़ी से पेड़ काटता है।
अपादान कारकजिससे किसी वस्तु के अलग होने का बोध हो, इसकी विभक्ति ‘से’ है। जैसे – दूल्हा घोड़े से गिर पड़ा, चूहा बिल से बाहर निकला।
अधिकरण कारकशब्द के जिस रूप से क्रिया के आधार का ज्ञान हो, इसकी विभक्ति 'में' और 'पर' है। जैसे – मोहन मैदान में खेल रहा है, मनोज छत पर पढ़ रहा है।

Additional Information 

कारकसंज्ञा या सर्वनाम के जिस रूप से वाक्य के अन्य शब्दों के साथ उनका (संज्ञा या सर्वनाम का) सम्बन्ध सूचित हो, उसे (उस रूप को) 'कारक' कहते हैं। जैसे – श्रीराम ने रावण को तीर से मारा; रमेश महेश के लिए मिठाई लाया।

Question 93

निम्नलिखित में से "आनन्दातिरेक" का सही संधि-विच्छेद कौन-सा है?

  1. AOption (a)

    आनन्दा + अतीरेक

  2. BOption (b)

    आनन्दा + दतीरेक

  3. COption (c)

    अनन्दा + अतीरेक

  4. DOption (d)

    आनन्द + अतिरेक

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

आनन्द + अतिरेक

Why this answer is correct

दिए गए विकल्पों में से सही उत्तर विकल्प 4 '’ आनन्द + अतिरेक'' है। अन्य विकल्प इसके गलत उत्तर हैं। 

Key Points

  • आनन्द + अतिरेक (अ + अ = आ) 'आनन्दातिरेक' यह दीर्घ संधि का उदाहरण है।
  • जब ह्रस्व या दीर्घ अ, इ, उ के बाद यदि ह्रस्व या दीर्घ आ, ई, ऊ आ जाएँ तो दोनों मिलकर दीर्घ आ, ई और ऊ हो जाते हैं, वह दीर्घ संधि होती है।
  • अन्य विकल्प इसके अनुचित उत्तर हैं।

Additional Information

संधि - दो शब्दों के मेल से जो विकार (परिवर्तन) होता है उसे संधि कहते हैं। संधि के तीन प्रकार हैं - 1. स्वर 2. व्यंजन और 3. विसर्ग।
स्वर संधिदो स्वरों के मेल से उत्पन्न होने वाले विकार को स्वर संधि कहते हैं। इसके इसके पाँच भेद हैं- दीर्घ, गुण, वृद्धि, यण, अयादि।स्वार्थ = स्व + अर्थ
व्यंजन संधिव्यंजन के बाद यदि किसी स्वर या व्यंजन के आने से उस व्यंजन में जो विकार / परिवर्तन उत्पन्न होता है वह व्यंजन संधि कहलाता है।दिग्गज = दिक् + गज
विसर्ग संधिविसर्ग के साथ स्वर अथवा व्यंजन के मिलने से जो विकार उत्पन्न होता है, उसे विसर्ग संधि कहते हैं।शिरोमणि = शिर: + मणि

Question 94

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा वाक्य, विधानवाचक वाक्य है?

  1. AOption (a)

    मुगल शासकों में अकबर श्रेष्ठ था।

  2. BOption (b)

    यह निश्चित नहीं है कि वह कब आएगा?

  3. COption (c)

    काश ! में जवान होता।

  4. DOption (d)

    जो जैसा बोएगा वैसा ही काटेगा।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

मुगल शासकों में अकबर श्रेष्ठ था।

Why this answer is correct

दिए गए विकल्पों में सही उत्तर विकल्प 1 ‘मुगल शासकों में अकबर श्रेष्ठ था।’ होगा। अन्य विकल्प असंगत हैं।

Key Points

  1. 'मुगल शासकों में अकबर श्रेष्ठ था।' विधानवाचक वाक्य है।
  2. वह वाक्य जिससे किसी प्रकार की जानकारी प्राप्त होती है, वह विधानवाचक वाक्य कहलाता है।

अन्य विकल्प:

  • यह निश्चित नहीं है कि वह कब आएगा? - यह प्रश्नवाचक वाक्य का उदाहरण है।
  • काश ! में जवान होता। यह विस्मयादिबोधक वाक्य का उदाहरण है।
  • जो जैसा बोएगा वैसा ही काटेगा। यह संकेतवाचक वाक्य का उदाहरण है।

Additional Information 

अर्थ के आधार पर आठ प्रकार के वाक्य होते हैं।

वाक्य भेदपरिभाषाउदाहरण
विधानवाचक वाक्यवह वाक्य जिससे किसी प्रकार की जानकारी प्राप्त होती है, वह विधानवाचक वाक्य कहलाता है।भारत एक देश है।
निषेधवाचक वाक्यजिन वाक्यों से कार्य न होने का भाव प्रकट होता है, उन्हें निषेधवाचक वाक्य कहते हैं।मैंने दूध नहीं पिया।
प्रश्नवाचक वाक्यवह वाक्य जिसके द्वारा किसी प्रकार प्रश्न किया जाता है, वह प्रश्नवाचक वाक्य कहलाता है।भारत क्या है?
आज्ञावाचक वाक्यवह वाक्य जिसके द्वारा किसी प्रकार की आज्ञा दी जाती है या प्रार्थना किया जाता है, वह आज्ञावाचक वाक्य कहलाता हैं।कृपया बैठ जाइये।
विस्मयादिबोधक वाक्यवह वाक्य जिससे किसी प्रकार की गहरी अनुभूति का प्रदर्शन किया जाता है, वह विस्मयादिबोधक वाक्य कहलाता हैं।अहा! कितना सुन्दर उपवन है।
इच्छावाचक वाक्यजिन वाक्यों में किसी इच्छा, आकांक्षा या आशीर्वाद का बोध होता है, उन्हें इच्छावाचक वाक्य कहते हैं।नववर्ष मंगलमय हो।
संकेतवाचक वाक्यजिन वाक्यों में किसी संकेत का बोध होता है, उन्हें संकेतवाचक वाक्य कहते हैं।सोनु उधर रहता है।
संदेहवाचक वाक्यजिन वाक्यों में संदेह का बोध होता है, उन्हें संदेहवाचक वाक्य कहते हैं।क्या वह यहाँ आ गया ?

Question 95

निम्नलिखित में से "प्रफुल्ल" का विलोम शब्द कौन-सा है?

  1. AOption (a)

    आनंदित

  2. BOption (b)

    प्रसन्न

  3. COption (c)

    हर्षित

  4. DOption (d)

    म्लान

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

म्लान

Why this answer is correct

दिए गए विकल्पों में सही उत्तर विकल्प 4 'म्लान' होगा। अन्य विकल्प इसके अनुचित उत्तर हैं। 

Key Points

  • 'प्रफुल्ल' शब्द का उचित विलोम शब्द 'म्लान' है।
  • प्रफुल्ल का अर्थ खिला हुआ होता है।
  • म्लान अर्थात मलिन, मैला
  • अन्य विकल्प इसके अनुचित उत्तर हैं।

अन्य विकल्प: 

शब्दविलोम
प्रसन्नअप्रसन्न

 

 

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Additional Information

शब्दपरिभाषाउदाहरण
विलोम/ विपरीतार्थक'विलोम' शब्द का अर्थ है-उल्टा या विपरीत। अत: किसी शब्द का उल्टा अर्थ व्यक्त करने वाला शब्द विलोमार्थक या विपरीतार्थक शब्द कहलाते हैं।राग-द्वेष सामिष-निरामिष व्यष्टि-समष्टि आकाश-पाताल

निम्नलिखित गद्यांश का ध्यानपूर्वक अध्ययन कर प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए -

शिक्षा को वैज्ञानिक और प्राविधिक मूलाधार देकर हमने जहाँ भौतिक परिवेश को पूर्णतया परिवर्तित कर दिया है और जीवन को अप्रत्याशित गतिशीलता दे दी है, वहाँ साहित्य, कला धर्म और दर्शन को अपनी चेतना से बहिष्कृत कर मानव-विकास को एकांकी बना दिया है। पिछली शताब्दी में विकास के सूत्र प्रकृति के हाथ से निकलकर मनुष्य के हाथ मे पहुँच गए हैं, विज्ञान के हाथ में पहुँच गए हैं और इस बंद गली में पहुँचने का अर्थ मानव-जाति का नाश भी हो सकता है। इसलिए नैतिक और आत्मिक मूल्यों को साथ-साथ विकसित करने की आवश्यकता है, जिससे विज्ञान हमारे लिए भस्मासुर का हाथ न बन जाए। व्यक्ति की क्षुद्रता यदि राष्ट्र की क्षुद्रता बन जाती है तो विज्ञान भस्मासुर बन जाता है। इस सत्य को प्रत्येक क्षण सामने रखकर ही अणु-विस्फोट को मानव-प्रेम और लोकहित की मर्यादा दे सकेंगे। अपरिसीम भौतिक शक्तियों का स्वामी मानव आज अपने व्यक्तित्व के प्रति आस्थावान्‌ नहीं है और प्रत्येक क्षण अपने अस्तित्व के संबन्ध में शंकाग्रस्त है।

Question 96

उपर्युक्त गद्यांश के अनुसार व्यक्ति की क्षुद्रता यदि राष्ट्र की क्षुद्रता बन जाती है तो _______ भस्मासुर बन जाता है।

  1. AOption (a)

    शिक्षा

  2. BOption (b)

    मानव

  3. COption (c)

    विकास

  4. DOption (d)

    विज्ञान

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

विज्ञान

Why this answer is correct

गद्यांश के अनुसार  व्यक्ति की क्षुद्रता यदि राष्ट्र की क्षुद्रता बन जाती है तो विज्ञान भस्मासुर बन जाता है। 

गद्यांश के अनुसार 

  • इसलिए नैतिक और आत्मिक मूल्यों को साथ-साथ विकसित करने की आवश्यकता है, जिससे विज्ञान हमारे लिए भस्मासुर का हाथ न बन जाए। व्यक्ति की क्षुद्रता यदि राष्ट्र की क्षुद्रता बन जाती है तो विज्ञान भस्मासुर बन जाता है।

Key Points अन्य विकल्प:

  • शिक्षा - जो मानव को अच्छे संस्कार और विचार देने की प्रक्रिया है।
  • मानव - जो मनुष्यता को शोभायमान करे ऐसे गुणी व्यक्ति को मानव कहा जाता है।
  • विकास - जो मानवी जीवन को कुछ हद तक आगे ले जाता है, जिसे हम विकास की संज्ञा दे डालते है।

Question 97

उपर्युक्त गद्यांश के अनुसार कौन-सा कथन पूर्णतया सत्य है?

  1. AOption (a)

    अपरिसीम भौतिक शक्तियों का स्वामी मानव आज अंपने व्यक्तित्व के प्रति आस्थावान् नहीं है।

  2. BOption (b)

    अपरिसीम भौतिक एवं रासायनिक शक्तियों का स्वामी आज अपने व्यक्तित्व के प्रति बहुत आस्थावन् है।

  3. COption (c)

    अपरिसीम भौतिक एवं रासायनिक शक्तियों का स्वामी आज अपने व्यक्तित्व के प्रति बहुत आस्थावन् नहीं है।

  4. DOption (d)

    अपरिसीम भौतिक शक्तियों का स्वामी मानव आज अपने व्यक्तित्व के प्रति आस्थावन् होता जा रहा है।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

अपरिसीम भौतिक शक्तियों का स्वामी मानव आज अंपने व्यक्तित्व के प्रति आस्थावान् नहीं है।

Why this answer is correct

'अपरिसीम भौतिक शक्तियों का स्वामी मानव आज अंपने व्यक्तित्व के प्रति आस्थावान् नहीं है।' यह विकल्प व्याकरण दृष्टि से शुद्ध एवं सटीक विकल्प है।

 अन्य सभी विकल्पों में व्याकरण की त्रुटियाँ है। 

Key Points 

वाक्यगत अशुद्धिवाक्य सम्प्रेषण की सबसे महत्वपूर्ण और सार्थक इकाई होती है। अतः वाक्यगत अशुद्धियाँ को शुद्ध रूप में लिखना सम्प्रेषण को अधिक सरल बनाता है। वाक्य में, संज्ञा, सर्वनाम, लिंग, वचन, क्रिया-विशेषण, क्रिया, विशेषण आदि संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ हो सकती हैं।अशुद्ध रूप - वह बहुत जल्दी वापस लौट आया। शुद्ध रूप - वह बहुत जल्दी लौट आया।

निम्नलिखित गद्यांश का ध्यानपूर्वक अध्ययन कर प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए -

शिक्षा को वैज्ञानिक और प्राविधिक मूलाधार देकर हमने जहाँ भौतिक परिवेश को पूर्णतया परिवर्तित कर दिया है और जीवन को अप्रत्याशित गतिशीलता दे दी है, वहाँ साहित्य, कला धर्म और दर्शन को अपनी चेतना से बहिष्कृत कर मानव-विकास को एकांकी बना दिया है। पिछली शताब्दी में विकास के सूत्र प्रकृति के हाथ से निकलकर मनुष्य के हाथ मे पहुँच गए हैं, विज्ञान के हाथ में पहुँच गए हैं और इस बंद गली में पहुँचने का अर्थ मानव-जाति का नाश भी हो सकता है। इसलिए नैतिक और आत्मिक मूल्यों को साथ-साथ विकसित करने की आवश्यकता है, जिससे विज्ञान हमारे लिए भस्मासुर का हाथ न बन जाए। व्यक्ति की क्षुद्रता यदि राष्ट्र की क्षुद्रता बन जाती है तो विज्ञान भस्मासुर बन जाता है। इस सत्य को प्रत्येक क्षण सामने रखकर ही अणु-विस्फोट को मानव-प्रेम और लोकहित की मर्यादा दे सकेंगे। अपरिसीम भौतिक शक्तियों का स्वामी मानव आज ���पने व्यक्तित्व के प्रति आस्थावान्‌ नहीं है और प्रत्येक क्षण अपने अस्तित्व के संबन्ध में शंकाग्रस्त है।

Question 98

उपर्युक्त गद्यांश के अनुसार, आज का मानव अपने व्यक्तित्व और अस्तित्व के प्रति इसलिए शंकालु है क्योंकि _______

  1. AOption (a)

    वह जीवन को अप्रत्याशित गतिशीलता दे देता है।

  2. BOption (b)

    वह विज्ञान की विध्वंसक शक्तियों से भयभीत है।

  3. COption (c)

    वह जीवन को अप्रत्याशित विकास के सूत्र में बदल देता है।

  4. DOption (d)

    वह प्रत्येक शताब्दी में विकास के सूत्र को बदलता है।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

वह विज्ञान की विध्वंसक शक्तियों से भयभीत है।

Why this answer is correct

आज का मानव अपने व्यक्तित्व और अस्तित्व के प्रति इसलिए शंकालु है क्योंकि वह विज्ञान की विध्वंसक शक्तियों से भयभीत है।

विज्ञान की वजह से अणु की खोज हुई, जो मानव के अस्तित्व को चुनौती देने लगी है।

Key Points अन्य विकल्प:

  • वह जीवन को अप्रत्याशित गतिशीलता दे देता है। - आगे बढ़ने की संकेत दृष्टि देता है।
  • वह जीवन को अप्रत्याशित विकास के सूत्र में बदल देता है। - वह जीवन को विकास के धागे में बाँधने की शक्ल देता है।
  • वह प्रत्येक शताब्दी में विकास के सूत्र को बदलता है। - हर सौ साल के बाद विकास के पैमाने या मानक को बदल देता है।

Question 99

निम्नलिखित में से "क्षुद्रता" का पर्यायवाची शब्द क्या है?

  1. AOption (a)

    तुच्छता

  2. BOption (b)

    अस्तित्व

  3. COption (c)

    विनम्रता

  4. DOption (d)

    उच्चता

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

तुच्छता

Why this answer is correct

उपरोक्त विकल्पों में 'क्षुद्रता' का पर्यायवाची शब्द तुच्छता है। अत: विकल्प तुच्छता इसका सही उत्तर है। 

क्षुद्रता के पर्यायवाची - तुच्छता, टुच्चापन।

Key Points 

शब्दपर्यायवाची
अस्तित्वसत्ता, वजुद, विद्यमानता, उपस्थिति, मौजूदगी।
विनम्रतासम्भ्रांत, शिष्ट, अनुशासित, भद्र, सौम्य, शालीन, सभ्य।
वृक्षउठान, तुंगता, बुलन्दी, ऊँचाई, बुलंदी।

Additional Information

शब्दपरिभाषाउदाहरण
पर्यायवाचीएक ही अर्थ में प्रयुक्त होने वाले शब्द जो बनावट में भले ही अलग हों, पर्यायवाची या समानार्थी शब्द कहलाते हैं।आग-अनल, पावक, दहन। हवा-समीर, अनिल, वायु।

Question 100

उपर्युक्त गद्यांश के अनुसार, मानव विज्ञान को भस्मासुर बनने से कैसे रोक सकता है?

  1. AOption (a)

    प्रत्येक क्षण अपने अस्तित्व के संबन्ध में शंकाग्रस्त होकर।

  2. BOption (b)

    कला और धर्म को एकांकी बना कर।

  3. COption (c)

    अपरिसीम भौतिक शक्तियों को नष्ट करके।

  4. DOption (d)

    नैतिक - आत्मिक मूल्यों को विकसित करके।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

नैतिक - आत्मिक मूल्यों को विकसित करके।

Why this answer is correct

  • मानव विज्ञान को भस्मासुर बनने से 'नैतिक - आत्मिक मूल्यों को विकसित करके' रोक सकता है।
  • नैतिक - आत्मिक मूल्यों को विकसित करके। - नीतिगत मूल्य और आत्मा संबंधी मूल्यों को प्रस्थापित करके।

Key Points

अन्य विकल्प:

  • प्रत्येक क्षण अपने अस्तित्व के संबन्ध में शंकाग्रस्त होकर। - खुद की सत्ता के सम्बन्ध में संदेह होने से।
  • कला और धर्म को एकांकी बना कर। - कला और धर्म जैसे प्रश्नों को एक अंग समझकर।
  • अपरिसीम भौतिक शक्तियों को नष्ट करके। - भौतिक शक्तियों को खत्म करके।

Discipline 1 (20 questions)

Question 101

Which of the following was suggested by Ambedkar to maintain community bonds?

  1. He suggested inter-caste marriage
  2. He suggests having an interracial meal
  3. He argued that the scriptures defending 'Varnashramadharma' should be discarded as they justify and legitimize the graded organization of society.
  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    2 and 3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1, 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1, 2, and 3.

Key Points B. R. Ambedkar:

  • He believes that social justice is a means to create an ideal or a just society.
  • The key components of Ambedkar’s concept of social justice are liberty, equality, and fraternity.
  • According to him, the idea of social justice is based on
  • The first is that the individual is an end in himself;
  • The aim of the society is the growth of the individual and the development of his personality.
  • To maintain the community bonds he suggested: 
  1. Inter-caste marriages
  2. Having an interracial meal
  3. He argued that the scriptures defending 'Varnashramadharma' and other practices which are derogatory to humanity should be discarded as they justify and legitimize the graded organization of society.

Hence, the correct answer will be 1,2, and 3.

Question 102

Raktakorabi and Muktadhara are the works of which among the following Indians?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rammohan Roy

  2. BOption (b)

    Sri Aurobindo

  3. COption (c)

    Swami Vivekananda

  4. DOption (d)

    Rabindranath Tagore

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Rabindranath Tagore

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Rabindranath Tagore.

Key Points

PersonalitiesImportant Literary Works
Rabindranath Tagore- Tagore was the first non-European to win the  Nobel Prize for Literature for Gitanjali in 1913. - It was originally published in 1910. - Some of his other prominent works are Raktakorabi, Muktadhara, Kabuliwala, Chokher Bali, The Post Office, etc. -

Question 103

In 1936, BR Ambedkar formed a political party to contest 17 seats in the elections of Bombay province. What was the name of the political party?

  1. AOption (a)

    Backwards People Association

  2. BOption (b)

    Backward Bloc

  3. COption (c)

    Independent Dalit Movement

  4. DOption (d)

    Independent Labour Party

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Independent Labour Party

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Independent Labour Party

Explanation: B.R. Ambedkar did form the Independent Labour Party (ILP), but it was established in 1936 with the primary objective of representing the interests of workers and laborers, rather than focusing solely on the Dalits or Untouchables. The party aimed to provide a political platform for workers to address their socio-economic issues.

 Key Points

  • Formation of the Independent Labour Party (ILP): B.R. Ambedkar founded the ILP in 1936 in the Bombay Province (now part of Maharashtra). The party was established to address the concerns of industrial laborers and workers, advocating for their rights and better working conditions.
  • Focus on Labor Issues: The ILP concentrated on labor-related problems such as low wages, long working hours, and poor working conditions prevalent in the industries of that time. Ambedkar believed that political representation was crucial for addressing the socio-economic challenges faced by the working class.
  • Representation of Dalits: While the ILP did not exclusively focus on Dalit issues, B.R. Ambedkar remained committed to the cause of Dalits and their upliftment. Ambedkar continued to be a prominent voice for the Dalit community and their struggle against untouchability.
  • Ambedkar's Dual Role: It's essential to recognize that B.R. Ambedkar wore multiple hats during this period. Apart from his role in the ILP, he was also actively involved in the social and political upliftment of the Dalits. His efforts eventually led to the formation of the Scheduled Castes Federation, which aimed at addressing the specific concerns of the Dalit community.
  • Later Political Journey: B.R. Ambedkar's political journey continued, and he played a pivotal role in the drafting of the Indian Constitution. He later formed the Republican Party of India in 1956, which sought to address the broader socio-political issues faced by marginalized communities.

Additional Information

  • While the ILP was formed by B.R. Ambedkar in 1936, its primary focus was on labor issues rather than exclusively addressing the concerns of Dalits.
  • Ambedkar continued his commitment to the Dalit cause through various other avenues and organizations in subsequent years.

Question 104

Which of the following kind of liberty is not one of the specific liberties that J.S. Mill advocated in his book ‘On Liberty’?

  1. AOption (a)

    Liberty to acquire private property

  2. BOption (b)

    The Liberty of Thought and Expression

  3. COption (c)

    The Liberty of Association

  4. DOption (d)

    The Liberty of Action

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Liberty to acquire private property

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Liberty to acquire private property

Explanation: In "On Liberty," John Stuart Mill articulates his philosophy of individual liberty and the limitations of state interference in the lives of individuals. While Mill does not explicitly address the liberty to acquire private property in "On Liberty," his central focus is on the principles of individual freedom and the harm principle.

Key Points

  • Liberty of Thought and Expression: Mill strongly advocates for the freedom of thought and expression as fundamental to a flourishing society. He argues that individuals should be free to express their opinions and ideas without fear of censorship, even if those opinions are unpopular or contrary to prevailing beliefs. The exchange of diverse ideas, according to Mill, is essential for societal progress and the discovery of truth.
  • Liberty of Action: Mill extends the concept of liberty to encompass the freedom of action, emphasizing that individuals should have the right to pursue their own paths in life as long as their actions do not harm others. He introduces the harm principle, stating that the only justification for limiting individual liberty is to prevent harm to others. Actions that only affect the individual engaging in them and do not harm others should be beyond the scope of interference.
  • Liberty of Association: Mill also stresses the importance of the liberty of association. He argues that individuals should have the freedom to form voluntary associations and communities based on shared values or interests. This principle supports the idea that individuals should be allowed to come together for mutual benefit, cultural exchange, or any other peaceful purpose without interference from the state.

 Additional Information

  • While Mill does not explicitly address the liberty to acquire private property in "On Liberty," his broader philosophy, including his later work such as "Principles of Political Economy," touches upon economic freedoms.
  • In other works, Mill discusses the importance of private property rights as a means of securing individual independence, promoting economic prosperity, and preventing the concentration of power in the hands of the state.
  • "On Liberty" primarily focuses on the broader principles of individual freedom related to thought, expression, and action, rather than delving into specific economic liberties such as the right to acquire private property.
  • However, Mill's liberal philosophy, as a whole, supports the idea that individuals should have the liberty to acquire, use, and dispose of private property as long as it doesn't infringe upon the rights of others or cause harm.

Question 105

In which of the following ways did BR Ambedkar denounce Marxism?

  1. He decried the strategy of violence as a means to seize power and called for resolute mass action to bring about-a good society.
  2. He argued that the economic interpretation of history which does not acknowledge the crucial role that political and ideological institutions play and the conception of the withering away of the state.
  3. He argued that There is no conflict between classes and class-struggle is writ large in social relations.
  4. He argued that a good society demands extensive private ownership of the means of production.

Select the correct answer from the code given :

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2

  2. BOption (b)

    1, 2, 3 and 4 

  3. COption (c)

    3 and 4

  4. DOption (d)

    2 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 and 2

Explanation: It is true that Ambedkar had some reservations and criticisms about certain aspects of Marxist ideology. Let's explore the points you mentioned:

Key Points

Rejection of Violence:

  • Ambedkar was critical of the strategy of using violence as a means to seize power. He was a strong advocate for non-violence and believed in achieving social and political change through peaceful means.
  • Unlike some Marxist ideologies that endorsed revolutionary violence, Ambedkar called for resolute mass action. He believed that bringing about a good society required concerted efforts from the masses through peaceful and strategic actions.

Economic Interpretation of History and the Withering Away of the State:

  • Ambedkar had reservations about the economic interpretation of history put forth by Marxists. While Marxists emphasize the role of economic factors, especially class struggle, in shaping historical development, Ambedkar argued that political and ideological institutions also play a crucial role.
  • According to Marxist theory, the state is expected to wither away once a classless society is achieved. Ambedkar, on the other hand, was skeptical about the concept of the withering away of the state. He believed that political power and institutions were essential to safeguard the rights of marginalized groups, such as the Dalits.
  • Ambedkar, being a staunch advocate for the rights of the oppressed and marginalized, was concerned that the withering away of the state might not adequately address the protection and empowerment of these groups.

 Additional Information

  • It is essential to note that while Ambedkar had reservations about certain Marxist ideas, he did not outright denounce the entire ideology. Ambedkar was a multifaceted thinker, and his views on different issues evolved over time.
  • He engaged with various intellectual traditions to formulate his own ideas, and his primary focus was on addressing the social and economic inequalities in India, particularly those related to the caste system.

Question 106

There are three dimensions to Marxian dialectical materialism. Which of the following is not one of them?

  1. AOption (a)

    The law of unity of opposites (contradiction)

  2. BOption (b)

    The law of transformation of quantity into quality. It means that quantitative changes lead to qualitative revolutionary situation.

  3. COption (c)

    The law that the material and ideal are same and constitute a unity

  4. DOption (d)

    The law of negation of negation (thesis-antithesis and synthesis).

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The law that the material and ideal are same and constitute a unity

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The law that the material and ideal are same and constitute a unity

Explanation:  Marxian dialectical materialism is a philosophical framework that underlies Karl Marx's analysis of historical and social development. It incorporates three key dialectical laws: the law of unity of opposites (or contradiction), the law of transformation of quantity into quality, and the law of negation of negation. 

Key Points

  • Law of Unity of Opposites (Contradiction):  This law is rooted in the idea that contradictions are inherent in all things. Marx believed that contradictions and conflicts between opposing forces are the driving force behind historical and social development. In the context of society, the primary contradiction is between the ruling class (bourgeoisie) and the working class (proletariat). This class struggle is seen as the fundamental dynamic that propels historical change.
  • Law of Transformation of Quantity into Quality: According to this law, quantitative changes eventually lead to qualitative transformations. In other words, as quantities accumulate or change gradually, there comes a point where the accumulation or change reaches a critical mass and results in a qualitative leap or shift. Marx used the example of commodity production to explain this law. As commodities accumulate and production quantities increase (quantitative change), there comes a point where this accumulation leads to a fundamental transformation in the economic system (qualitative change), such as the transition from feudalism to capitalism.
  • Law of Negation of Negation (Thesis-Antithesis-Synthesis): This law is often summarized in the triadic formula of thesis-antithesis-synthesis. It suggests a process of development where a contradiction (thesis) gives rise to its opposite (antithesis), and the conflict between them results in a synthesis that resolves the contradiction at a higher level. In the historical context, Marx applied this law to the evolution of economic systems. For instance, feudalism (thesis) gave rise to capitalism (antithesis), and the struggle between these two systems would eventually lead to socialism (synthesis), where the contradictions of capitalism are resolved in a higher form of social organization.

 Additional Information

  • These three laws of Marxian dialectical materialism provide a framework for understanding the dynamic and contradictory nature of historical and social development.
  • They emphasize the role of contradictions, the transformative power of quantitative changes, and the cyclical process of negation of negation in shaping the evolution of societies and their economic systems.

Question 107

Who among the following said that "The king should initiate action against the leaders of the rebellion because it is they who provide the leadership to the rebellion. In any case, he should not use force against the crowd of people as it would lead to widespread bloodshed" Maybe"?

  1. AOption (a)

    Kautilya

  2. BOption (b)

    Machiavelli

  3. COption (c)

    John lock

  4. DOption (d)

    Confucius

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Kautilya

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kautilya

Explanation:  Chanakya, also known as Kautilya or Vishnugupta, an ancient Indian teacher, philosopher, economist, jurist, and royal advisor who lived around the 4th century BCE. Chanakya is best known for his work "Arthashastra," an ancient Indian treatise on statecraft, economic policy, and military strategy.

 Key Points

The statement suggests a strategic approach to dealing with rebellion or unrest, emphasizing the importance of targeting the leaders rather than using force against the entire population. Let's break down the key components of this idea:

  • Focus on Leaders of the Rebellion: According to Chanakya, the king or ruler should identify and target the leaders of the rebellion. This approach recognizes that rebellions are often driven or guided by influential individuals who provide leadership and direction to the movement.
  • Avoiding Force against the General Population: The quote suggests that using force against the general population should be avoided. This is likely based on the understanding that employing brute force against a large group of people may lead to widespread bloodshed, loss of life, and further escalation of the conflict.
  • Strategic Thinking: Chanakya's advice reflects a strategic and calculated approach to dealing with internal dissent. By focusing on the leaders, the ruler aims to destabilize the rebellion at its core without resorting to tactics that might alienate the broader population.
  • Minimization of Bloodshed: The emphasis on not using force against the crowd indicates a concern for minimizing casualties and maintaining stability. Chanakya may have believed that excessive use of force could lead to more significant social unrest and make it harder for the ruler to maintain control in the long run.

 Additional Information

  • It's essential to note that these ideas are rooted in the historical and cultural context of ancient India. Chanakya's "Arthashastra" is a comprehensive treatise that covers various aspects of governance, diplomacy, and statecraft.
  • While some of his ideas may seem harsh or pragmatic, they provide insights into the political and strategic thinking of that time.
  • Additionally, interpretations of Chanakya's teachings may vary, and different scholars may offer varying perspectives on the application of his principles in different contexts.

Question 108

Match the List - I (Work) and List - II (year) in which Ambedkar published his works.

List – I (Work)List – II (Year)
(A)Annihilation of Caste1.1923
(B)The Problem of Rupee2.1946
(C)What congress and Gandhi have done to the Untouchables3.1945
(D)Who were the Sudras?4.1936
  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - 3, (B) - 2, (C) - 1, (D) - 4

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - 1, (B) - 2, (C) - 3, (D) - 4 

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - 4, (B) - 1, (C) - 3, (D) - 2

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - 2, (B) - 4, (C) - 3, (D) - 1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A) - 4, (B) - 1, (C) - 3, (D) - 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A) - 4, (B) - 1, (C) - 3, (D) - 2

Explanation: In chronological order, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar published "The Problem of Rupee" in 1923, followed by "Annihilation of Caste" in 1936, "What Congress and Gandhi have done to the Untouchables" in 1945, and "Who were the Sudras?" in 1946.

Key PointsHere are explanations for each of the listed works by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar along with their respective years of publication:

(A) Annihilation of Caste - 1936: "Annihilation of Caste" is one of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar's seminal works that was originally written as a speech in 1936 but was never delivered. The speech was prepared to be presented at a conference organized by the Jat-Pat Todak Mandal, a Hindu reformist group in Lahore. However, due to strong opposition and disagreement with his views, Ambedkar was not allowed to present it. Subsequently, he published the text as a pamphlet in the same year. In this work, Ambedkar critically examines the caste system in Hindu society and advocates for its complete abolition.

(B) The Problem of Rupee - 1923: "The Problem of Rupee" is an economic treatise written by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar in 1923. He was appointed as the chairman of the committee on the currency and finance system by the Government of India in 1926, and this work was part of his efforts in that capacity. Ambedkar analyzed the currency and monetary issues in India, particularly focusing on the problems associated with the Indian Rupee. His recommendations in this work laid the foundation for his later contributions to economic and financial policy in India.

(C) What Congress and Gandhi have done to the Untouchables - 1945: This work by Ambedkar was published in 1945 and is a critical assessment of the efforts made by the Indian National Congress and Mahatma Gandhi towards the upliftment and betterment of the Untouchables (now referred to as Scheduled Castes or Dalits). Ambedkar examines the promises made by the Congress and Gandhi and evaluates the actual impact on the social and political status of the Untouchables. This work reflects Ambedkar's dissatisfaction with the outcomes and his growing advocacy for the rights of the marginalized communities.

(D) Who were the Sudras? - 1946: In 1946, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar published "Who were the Sudras?" which is a scholarly work exploring the historical and sociological aspects of the Sudra varna (the lowest of the four major social classes in traditional Hindu society). Ambedkar delves into the origins and status of the Sudras, examining ancient texts and scriptures to challenge prevalent notions about their position in the caste hierarchy. This work is part of Ambedkar's broader efforts to critically engage with Hindu scriptures and traditions, advocating for social justice and equality.

Question 109

Who among the following has written the essay "what is the origin of inequality among men, and is it authorised by natural law"?

  1. AOption (a)

    Alexis De Tocqueville

  2. BOption (b)

    Jean Jacques Rousseau

  3. COption (c)

    Edmund Burke

  4. DOption (d)

    Immanuel Kant 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Jean Jacques Rousseau

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Jean Jacques Rousseau

Explanation: Jean-Jacques Rousseau's "Discourse on the Origin and Basis of Inequality Among Men" is a philosophical work that explores the nature of human society, the origins of inequality, and the impact of civilization on individuals. Rousseau wrote this discourse in 1754 as a response to an essay competition organized by the Academy of Dijon, which posed the question about the origin of inequality and whether it is justified by natural law.

 Key PointsHere is a more detailed explanation of the key ideas in Rousseau's discourse:

  • State of Nature: Rousseau begins by imagining the "state of nature," a hypothetical pre-social condition in which humans existed before the formation of organized societies. In this state, he argues, individuals were essentially solitary, free, and equal. There was no private property, and people lived by instinct and necessity.
  • The Origin of Inequality: According to Rousseau, inequality arose with the development of agriculture and private property. The establishment of private property led to social hierarchies, as those with more resources gained power and influence over others. Rousseau argues that this transition from a state of nature to a state of society marked the beginning of inequality among men.
  • Social Contract: Rousseau introduces the concept of the social contract, which is an implicit agreement among individuals to form a society. He suggests that the social contract was necessary for the protection of private property, but it also brought about inequality and the loss of freedom. Individuals, in order to protect their property, agreed to the establishment of a political authority, which in turn led to the rise of laws and institutions.
  • Civilization and its Discontents: Rousseau is critical of the effects of civilization on human beings. He argues that the development of arts, science, and organized society has led to moral and physical degeneration. As societies became more complex, individuals became more dependent on each other and more susceptible to vices such as envy, greed, and competition.
  • Critique of Private Property: Rousseau challenges the notion of private property as the root cause of inequality. He contends that the establishment of property rights legitimized social inequality and created a system where the rich and powerful exploited the poor.
  • Preservation of Freedom: Rousseau emphasizes the importance of preserving individual freedom and suggests that a return to a more natural, egalitarian state would be desirable. He envisions a society where individuals voluntarily come together in a more communal way, minimizing the impact of private property and inequality.

 Additional Information

  • Rousseau's "Discourse on the Origin and Basis of Inequality Among Men" is a foundational work in political philosophy and social theory, offering a thought-provoking critique of the social structures and institutions that shape human life.
  • His ideas have influenced subsequent political philosophers and have been a source of inspiration for discussions on the nature of society and the pursuit of a just and equitable social order.

Question 110

Who among the following called Lala Lajpat Rai as “a bourgeois politician with sympathy for Socialism"?

  1. AOption (a)

    Dadabhai Naroji

  2. BOption (b)

    Netaji Subash Chandra Bose

  3. COption (c)

    M.N. Roy

  4. DOption (d)

    C.R. Das

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

M.N. Roy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is M.N. Roy

Explanation: M. N. Roy, a prominent Indian nationalist and Marxist political theorist, characterized Lala Lajpat Rai, a leader in the Indian National Congress and the Indian independence movement, as a "bourgeois politician with sympathy for socialism," highlighting the ideological tensions within the Indian political landscape of that time.

Key Points

Let's delve into more detail about the historical and ideological context surrounding the statement made by M. N. Roy about Lala Lajpat Rai.

M. N. Roy's Background: M. N. Roy, or Manabendra Nath Roy, was a versatile figure in Indian politics and a prominent nationalist. He was also a Marxist and played a key role in the early development of the Communist movement in India.

Roy was initially associated with the Indian National Congress but later shifted his allegiance towards socialist and communist ideologies.

Lala Lajpat Rai's Background: Lala Lajpat Rai was a prominent leader in the Indian independence movement and one of the key members of the Indian National Congress. Rai was known for his advocacy of Swaraj (self-rule) and his opposition to British colonial rule.

Ideological Differences:

  • During the early 20th century, there were diverse ideological currents within the Indian nationalist movement. Some leaders, like Lajpat Rai, were aligned with the Indian National Congress, which sought political and constitutional reforms within the framework of British rule.
  • On the other hand, figures like M. N. Roy were influenced by Marxist and socialist ideas. They advocated for a more radical transformation of society, including the abolition of capitalism.

Bourgeois Politician with Sympathy for Socialism:

  • The term "bourgeois" refers to the capitalist or propertied class. Roy's characterization of Lajpat Rai as a "bourgeois politician with sympathy for Socialism" suggests that while Rai may have had some inclination towards socialist ideas, he was still fundamentally a representative of the bourgeoisie.
  • This characterization may have been influenced by Rai's emphasis on political and constitutional reforms rather than a more revolutionary transformation of the socio-economic structure.

Debates within the Indian Nationalist Movement:

  • The early 20th century witnessed debates and discussions within the Indian nationalist movement about the nature of the struggle for independence and the post-independence socio-economic order.
  • The ideological differences between leaders like Lala Lajpat Rai and M. N. Roy reflect these debates, where some leaders leaned towards more moderate, reformist approaches, while others advocated for radical change.

Legacy:

  • Lala Lajpat Rai's legacy lies in his significant contributions to the Indian independence movement, particularly his role in the anti-colonial protests against the Simon Commission.
  • M. N. Roy's legacy is tied to his role in shaping early communist thought in India.

Additional Information

  • M. N. Roy's characterization of Lala Lajpat Rai reflects the ideological diversity and debates within the Indian nationalist movement, with one leader emphasizing political reforms within the existing system, while the other advocated for a more radical socialist transformation.

Question 111

Match the List - I (Books) and List - II (Authors) and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List – I (Books)List – II (Authors)
(A)An Essay concerning human understanding1.Aristotle
(B)Leviathan2.Johan Locke
(C)Discourses on the First Ten Books of Titus Livius3.Niccolo Machiavelli
(D)Politics4.Thomas Hobbes
  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - 1, (B) - 2, (C) - 3, (D) - 4

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - 2, (B) - 4, (C) - 3, (D) - 1

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - 3, (B) - 2, (C) - 1, (D) - 4

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - 3, (B) - 1, (C) - 4, (D) - 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(A) - 2, (B) - 4, (C) - 3, (D) - 1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A) - 2, (B) - 4, (C) - 3, (D) - 1

Explanation: The correct match for List I (Books) and List II (Authors) is: (A) An Essay concerning human understanding - 2. Johan Locke, (B) Leviathan - 4. Thomas Hobbes, (C) Discourses on the First Ten Books of Titus Livius - 3. Niccolo Machiavelli, and (D) Politics - 1. Aristotle.

Key Points

Politics - 1. Aristotle: Aristotle wrote "Politics." In this work, he explores various aspects of political philosophy, discussing topics such as the nature of the state, citizenship, and the role of different forms of government.

An Essay concerning human understanding - 2. John Locke: John Locke authored "An Essay concerning Human Understanding." In this philosophical work, Locke discusses the origins of human knowledge and the nature of the mind. He is a key figure in the Enlightenment and is known for his ideas on empiricism and the social contract.

Discourses on the First Ten Books of Titus Livius - 3. Niccolò Machiavelli: Niccolò Machiavelli wrote "Discourses on the First Ten Books of Titus Livius." Although he is more famous for "The Prince," this work delves into political theory, discussing the nature of republics and providing insights into the principles of statecraft.

Leviathan - 4. Thomas Hobbes: Thomas Hobbes is the author of "Leviathan." In this influential work, Hobbes discusses political philosophy, particularly focusing on the social contract and the necessity of a strong central authority to maintain order and prevent chaos.

Question 112

Consider the following regarding to Rousseau’s Conception of General Will:

  1. Rousseau first wrote about the concept of General Will in his Discourse on Political Economy
  2. He asserts that the generality of the will is not so much a matter of numbers as of intrinsic quality and goodness.
  3. By making the General Will sovereign and individuals as participants in the General Will, Rousseau reconciled authority with freedom.
  4. He asserted that General will aims always at the public good and is different from the will of all.

Select the correct answer from the code given:

  1. AOption (a)

    1, 2, 3 and 4

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 4

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 4

  4. DOption (d)

    1 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1, 2, 3 and 4

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: In his Discourse on Political Economy, Rousseau introduced the concept of General Will, emphasizing its intrinsic quality over numerical strength, asserting that by making it sovereign and individuals participants, he reconciled authority with freedom, as the General Will always aims at the public good and is distinct from the will of all.

Key PointsJean-Jacques Rousseau's "Discourse on Political Economy" is a significant work in political philosophy where he delves into the nature of political institutions and their impact on individual freedom and social harmony. One key concept he introduces in this discourse is the notion of the "General Will." To understand this concept, let's break down Rousseau's arguments and explore the elements of the General Will:

  • The Nature of the General Will: Rousseau distinguishes between the "General Will" and the "Will of All." The General Will, according to him, represents the collective and common interest of the community, aiming at the public good. It is not simply a sum of individual wills or a numerical majority; instead, it reflects the shared aspirations and values that contribute to the well-being of the entire society.
  • Intrinsic Quality over Numerical Strength: Rousseau emphasizes the intrinsic quality of the General Will rather than relying on numerical strength. The General Will is not determined by a simple majority vote but is derived from a deeper understanding of the common good. It involves a consideration of what is best for the community as a whole, transcending individual interests.
  • Sovereignty of the General Will: Rousseau argues that for a just and harmonious society, the General Will must be sovereign. By this, he means that the decisions and laws that arise from the General Will should take precedence over individual or factional interests. The sovereignty of the General Will ensures that the collective well-being is prioritized over narrow and selfish concerns.
  • Individual Participation: Rousseau envisions a system where individuals actively participate in the formulation of the General Will. This participation is not simply casting votes but involves genuine engagement in the political process. He believes that when individuals contribute to the formation of the General Will, they are more likely to act in accordance with the common good.
  • Reconciliation of Authority with Freedom: Rousseau argues that by making the General Will sovereign and involving individuals in its creation, he reconciles authority with freedom. The General Will, being a reflection of the shared interests of the community, is not an external imposition but an expression of self-imposed laws. In this way, individuals are subject to a collective authority that is in line with their own aspirations for the common good.
  • Distinction from the Will of All: Rousseau distinguishes the General Will from the mere sum of individual wills, which he calls the "Will of All." The Will of All may represent the numerical majority but does not necessarily align with the genuine common good. The General Will, on the other hand, reflects a more profound and thoughtful consideration of what benefits the entire community.

 Additional Information

  • Rousseau's concept of the General Will is central to his political philosophy, providing a framework for understanding how collective decision-making can be just, legitimate, and conducive to individual freedom when guided by a shared commitment to the public good.

Question 113

Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R):

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Assertion (A): In his book Socialism: Utopian and Scientific, Engels defined historical materialism as a theory which holds that the ultimate cause which determines the whole course of human history is the economic development of society.

Reason (R): The whole course of human history is explained in terms of changes occurring in the modes of production and exchange.

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) is true, but (R) is false

  2. BOption (b)

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

  3. COption (c)

    Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) is false, but (R) is true. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Historical materialism, as defined by Engels in "Socialism: Utopian and Scientific," asserts that the economic evolution of society, particularly changes in modes of production and exchange, is the fundamental determinant shaping the entire course of human history within Marxist theory.

Key Points

Historical materialism is a fundamental concept in Marxist theory that seeks to understand and analyze the historical development of human societies through the lens of their material conditions, particularly the economic structure. This concept was formulated by Karl Marx and Friedrich Engels and is elaborated upon in Engels' work "Socialism: Utopian and Scientific." Here are the key components of historical materialism:

  • Materialism: Historical materialism is rooted in a materialist understanding of history. This means that it emphasizes the significance of material conditions, such as the means of production (technology, resources, and tools) and the mode of production (the social relations of production), in shaping the development of societies.
  • Base and Superstructure: According to historical materialism, society is divided into two main components: the economic base and the superstructure. The economic base consists of the means and relations of production, while the superstructure encompasses institutions, ideologies, political systems, and culture.
  • Economic Determinism: Historical materialism posits that the economic structure of a society, often referred to as the "base," is the primary or ultimate determinant of its historical development. Changes in the economic base are seen as the driving force behind social, political, and cultural changes.
  • Modes of Production: Central to historical materialism is the concept of modes of production. Marx identified several historical epochs, each characterized by a distinct mode of production. These include primitive communism, slavery, feudalism, capitalism, and the anticipated communist society. Changes in these modes of production are considered to be the primary motor of historical development.
  • Class Struggle: Historical materialism emphasizes the role of class struggle in driving historical change. The conflicts between different classes, particularly the struggle between the ruling class and the oppressed class, are viewed as integral to the evolution of societies from one mode of production to another.
  • Revolutionary Transformation: Historical materialism predicts that as the contradictions within a given mode of production intensify, a revolutionary transformation will occur, leading to the establishment of a new mode of production. For example, Marx and Engels envisioned the proletarian revolution leading to the establishment of communism.
  • Ideology and Consciousness: The superstructure, including ideologies, legal systems, religions, and political institutions, is considered to be influenced and shaped by the economic base. Ideologies are seen as reflections of the dominant class's interests, serving to legitimize and maintain the existing social order.

 Additional Information

  • Engels, in "Socialism: Utopian and Scientific," provided a systematic presentation of historical materialism, emphasizing its scientific and analytical nature.
  • It offers a framework for understanding the dynamics of social change and the historical trajectory of human societies based on their economic foundations.

Question 114

Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R):

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Assertion (A): The ‘carrot and stick’ policy is a dual policy, which aims at driving a wedge between the moderate and extremist elements in the opposition

Reason (R): The government can offer rewards and concessions to the moderates but at the same time, it can continue its military operations against the extremists.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). 

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) is false, but (R) is true.

  3. COption (c)

    (A) is true, but (R) is false. 

  4. DOption (d)

    Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). 

Explanation: The 'carrot and stick' policy strategically combines rewards and punishments to influence behavior, aiming to create a divide between moderate and extremist elements in the opposition by using concessions to win over moderates while simultaneously employing military operations against extremists.

Key Points

 The "carrot and stick" policy is a strategy that involves a combination of rewards (carrot) and punishments (stick) to influence the behavior of individuals or groups. This approach is often used in various contexts, including politics and conflict resolution, to achieve specific objectives. Let's delve into the details of how this policy can be applied in the context of creating a divide between moderate and extremist elements in the opposition.

  • Identifying the Opposition: Before implementing the "carrot and stick" policy, the government needs to identify and understand the different factions within the opposition. This involves distinguishing between moderate elements that might be open to negotiation and extremists who are more resistant to dialogue.
  • Carrot (Rewards) for Moderates: The government can offer incentives and rewards to the moderate factions of the opposition. These incentives may include political concessions, economic benefits, or even social reforms. By doing so, the government aims to create a positive environment that encourages moderates to engage in dialogue and peaceful negotiations.
  • Engagement and Dialogue: With the carrot approach, the government can engage in diplomatic efforts and negotiations with moderate elements. This may involve addressing their grievances, discussing political reforms, or finding common ground on issues of concern. The goal is to build trust and encourage cooperation.
  • Stick (Punishments) for Extremists: Simultaneously, the government employs a "stick" approach against extremist elements. This involves using military or law enforcement measures to counteract extremist activities. The severity of these measures may vary, ranging from targeted operations against militant groups to implementing strict security measures.
  • Isolating Extremists: The punitive measures are designed to isolate and weaken extremist factions within the opposition. By applying pressure on these elements, the government aims to marginalize their influence and disrupt their ability to carry out disruptive or violent activities.
  • Public Relations and Messaging: Effective communication is crucial in implementing the "carrot and stick" policy. The government needs to convey its willingness to engage in peaceful dialogue with moderates while making it clear that it will take strong actions against those who continue to engage in violence or extremism. Public support for these measures can play a significant role in the success of the strategy.
  • Adaptability and Flexibility: The success of the policy depends on the government's ability to adapt to changing circumstances. Continuous assessment of the situation, regular updates to the incentives and punishments, and flexibility in response to evolving dynamics are essential components of an effective "carrot and stick" strategy.
  • Long-Term Planning: To ensure lasting stability, the government must complement short-term measures with a long-term vision. This may involve addressing root causes of conflict, implementing sustainable development initiatives, and fostering inclusive governance.

 Additional Information

  • The "carrot and stick" policy is a nuanced approach that requires careful calibration and balance between incentives and deterrents.
  • By creating a divide between moderates and extremists in the opposition, the government aims to promote stability, engage in productive dialogue, and address the root causes of conflict.

Question 115

The Classical Political Theory consists of which of the following?

  1. Classical political theory aimed at acquiring reliable knowledge about matters concerning the people, a philosophical pursuit to establish a rational basis for belief; a politically inspired pursuit to establish a rational basis for action.
  2. It sought to identify the political with the public, the common: the Greek polis, the Roman res publica, and the medieval age usage of commonweal – all denoted a sharing of what was common among the people as partners.
  3. Relating itself to the political whole, the classical political theory laid emphasis on order, balance, equilibrium, stability and harmony. That is why, it, in the process, dwelt on terms such as conflicts, anarchy, instability and revolution
  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1 and 3

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 2 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 1 and 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1, 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Classical political theory aimed at acquiring reliable knowledge about matters concerning the people, a philosophical pursuit to establish a rational basis for belief, and a politically inspired pursuit to establish a rational basis for action; it sought to identify the political with the public, the common, such as the Greek polis, the Roman res publica, and the medieval age usage of commonweal, all denoting a sharing of what was common among the people as partners; relating itself to the political whole, the classical political theory laid emphasis on order, balance, equilibrium, stability, and harmony, addressing terms such as conflicts, anarchy, instability, and revolution in the process.

 Key Points

The description you provided outlines some key elements and characteristics of Classical Political Theory. Let's break down each point to understand it in more detail:

Aim of Classical Political Theory:

  • Classical political theory is described as having multiple aims, including acquiring reliable knowledge about matters concerning the people. This implies a focus on understanding political phenomena and human behavior in a systematic and rational manner.
  • It is characterized as a philosophical pursuit to establish a rational basis for belief. This suggests an intellectual endeavor to provide a logical foundation for political ideologies and principles.
  • Additionally, it is mentioned as a politically inspired pursuit to establish a rational basis for action. This implies that classical political theory is not merely theoretical but also seeks to guide practical political actions based on reasoned principles.

Identification of the Political with the Public:

  • Classical political theory is said to seek the identification of the political with the public or the common. This indicates a focus on the collective aspects of political life.
  • Examples such as the Greek polis, the Roman res publica, and the medieval concept of commonweal are mentioned. These terms signify a sharing of what is common among the people as partners. In other words, classical political theory often concerns itself with the common good and the shared interests of the community.

Emphasis on Order, Balance, Equilibrium, Stability, and Harmony:

  • Classical political theory is described as relating itself to the political whole, emphasizing concepts such as order, balance, equilibrium, stability, and harmony.
  • The reference to terms like conflicts, anarchy, instability, and revolution suggests that classical political theorists were concerned with maintaining social and political order. They often sought ways to prevent or address disruptions and upheavals in the political system.
  • The emphasis on terms like balance and equilibrium implies a desire for a well-ordered and stable political structure.

 Additional Information

  • Classical Political Theory, based on the provided description, appears to be characterized by a multifaceted approach that combines philosophical inquiry, practical guidance for political action, a focus on the common good, and a strong emphasis on maintaining order and stability in the political system.
  • Classical political theorists often looked to historical examples and concepts to derive principles that could guide the organization and governance of political communities.

Question 116

Which among the following credited the Bentham’s Panopticon as a new technology of power?

  1. AOption (a)

    John Rawls

  2. BOption (b)

    J.S. Mill 

  3. COption (c)

    Michael Foucault

  4. DOption (d)

    Kymlicka

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Michael Foucault

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Michael Foucault

Explanation: Michel Foucault credited the Panopticon, conceived by Jeremy Bentham, as a novel technology of power due to its ability to induce self-discipline through constant surveillance and the internalization of societal norms.

 Key Points

  • Michel Foucault, a French philosopher and social theorist, discussed Jeremy Bentham's Panopticon in his work "Discipline and Punish: The Birth of the Prison" as a metaphor for a new form of social and institutional power.
  • Foucault argued that the Panopticon, a prison design conceived by Bentham in the late 18th century, symbolized a shift in power relations and a new technology of discipline.
  • The Panopticon is a circular prison with a central observation tower from which guards can see into all the individual cells without the inmates being able to see the guards.
  • This design creates a constant awareness and uncertainty among prisoners about whether they are being observed, leading to self-regulation and internalization of disciplinary norms.

 Additional Information

  • Foucault used the Panopticon as a powerful metaphor for the way modern societies exercise surveillance and control over individuals.
  • He argued that this panoptic model extends beyond prisons to various social institutions, such as schools, hospitals, and workplaces, where individuals are subjected to surveillance and internalize norms of behavior, creating a self-regulating and disciplined society.
  • In Foucault's analysis, the Panopticon became a symbol of the modern disciplinary society characterized by surveillance, normalization, and the internalization of power.

Question 117

Which of the following is not one of the inconveniences in the state of nature, according to John Locke?

  1. AOption (a)

    want of a legislature authority to declare law

  2. BOption (b)

    It is constantly in the state of war.

  3. COption (c)

     lack of an impersonal executioner of the law

  4. DOption (d)

    of an impartial judge to decide cases of violation of law

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

It is constantly in the state of war.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  'It is constantly in the state of war'.

Explanation: 

John Locke, in his work "Two Treatises of Government," outlines the concept of the state of nature and the inconveniences associated with it. According to Locke, the state of nature refers to a hypothetical condition in which individuals exist without a governing authority or established laws.

In the state of nature, Locke identifies several inconveniences that arise due to the absence of a political society and government. These inconveniences include:

  • Lack of Legislative Authority: One of the primary inconveniences in the state of nature, according to Locke, is the absence of a legislative authority to declare and enforce laws. In such a state, there is no established body or institution responsible for creating and promulgating laws that govern the behavior of individuals.
  • State of War: Another significant inconvenience identified by Locke is the constant state of war that exists in the absence of political society and government. In the state of nature, individuals are driven by their own self-interest and have the liberty to act as they see fit, which often leads to conflicts and disputes over property, resources, and personal security.
  • Lack of an Impersonal Executioner of the Law: Locke highlights the absence of an impersonal executor or enforcer of the law as a challenge in the state of nature. Without a designated authority responsible for enforcing the laws and resolving conflicts, individuals are left to enforce their own interpretations of justice, leading to potential abuses and injustices.

Question 118

Which of the following Indian political thinkers stated that “the essence of socialism, lies in "the control by the state of the means of production”?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sardar Patel

  2. BOption (b)

    Jawaharlal Nehru

  3. COption (c)

    Mahatma Gandhi

  4. DOption (d)

    BR Ambedkar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Jawaharlal Nehru

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Jawaharlal Nehru

Explanation: Jawaharlal Nehru asserted that the core of socialism involves "the control by the state of the means of production."

Key Points

  • Jawaharlal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India, was associated with socialist ideals and played a key role in shaping India's economic policies. The quote you provided reflects the socialist perspective he embraced. Nehru believed in state intervention and control in key sectors of the economy, including the means of production.
  • During his tenure as Prime Minister from 1947 to 1964, Nehru pursued a mixed economy model, combining elements of socialism with a market-oriented approach.
  • The state took an active role in managing and controlling key industries, infrastructure, and resources. This approach was outlined in the Industrial Policy Resolutions of 1948 and 1956, which emphasized the importance of state ownership and control in certain strategic sectors.
  • However, it's essential to note that Nehru's approach to socialism in India was not as rigid as in some other countries. He recognized the need for private enterprise and allowed for a degree of economic freedom, especially in sectors that were not deemed critical to national development.

 

 Additional Information

Nehru's vision of socialism in India aimed at achieving a balance between social justice and economic development.

The idea was to use state control where necessary to ensure equitable distribution of resources and opportunities while fostering economic growth through a mixed economy framework.

Question 119

Who among the following is not a proponent of Political theory as a Science?

  1. AOption (a)

    George Catlin

  2. BOption (b)

    Robert Dahl

  3. COption (c)

    Leo Strauss

  4. DOption (d)

    David Easton

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Leo Strauss

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Leo Strauss

Explanation: Proponents such as George Catlin, Robert Dahl, and David Easton argue for the classification of political theory as a science, emphasizing its systematic analysis and empirical foundations.

Key Points

George Catlin: George Catlin was an American anthropologist and ethnographer rather than a political scientist per se. His work is known for documenting the culture of Native American tribes in the 19th century. While Catlin may not be primarily associated with political theory, his contributions to the understanding of diverse social and political systems can be considered valuable. His documentation of Native American governance structures and societal norms contributes to the broader understanding of political organization.

Robert Dahl: Robert Dahl is a prominent political scientist who has significantly influenced the field of political theory. He is often associated with the concept of pluralism. Dahl argued that power in a society is dispersed among various groups, and no single group dominates completely. His work, especially in books like "Who Governs?" and "Polyarchy," emphasizes the importance of understanding power dynamics in democratic societies. Dahl's perspective aligns with the scientific approach in political theory, emphasizing empirical research and analysis to understand political phenomena. He has contributed to the development of political science as a social science.

David Easton: David Easton was a Canadian political scientist who played a crucial role in the development of the systems theory approach to political science. Easton's work, particularly his book "The Political System," focuses on viewing political entities as systems with inputs, outputs, and feedback mechanisms. This systems theory approach attempts to analyze political phenomena in a systematic and scientific manner. By applying scientific methodologies, Easton aimed to make political science more objective and rigorous, aligning it with the characteristics of a science.

Leo Strauss: Leo Strauss, a German-American political philosopher, had a different approach to political theory. He is often associated with classical political philosophy and hermeneutics. Strauss was critical of what he saw as the relativism and historicism of 20th-century political thought. He believed in the importance of returning to the classical texts to understand political philosophy. While Strauss may not align with the positivist and empirical approach of some other political scientists, his emphasis on the timeless questions of political philosophy contributes to a broader understanding of political theory.

 Additional Information

While these thinkers may have diverse approaches to political theory, each in their own way has contributed to the development of political science as a discipline, whether through empirical analysis, systems theory, or a return to classical philosophical inquiry. Their works collectively reflect the multifaceted nature of political theory as a field of study.

Question 120

Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R): Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Assertion (A): For Plato, a state is a system of relationships in which everyone does his own business and where the job of the state is to maintain, and promote such relationships.

Reason (R): Furthermore, Plato asserted that it is the job of the government, to help people live a complete life.

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) is false, but (R) is true. 

  2. BOption (b)

    Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

  3. COption (c)

    (A) is true, but (R) is false. 

  4. DOption (d)

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Plato's political philosophy is primarily presented in his work "The Republic," where he discusses the concept of an ideal state governed by philosopher-kings. 

Key Points

Plato's view of the state is deeply rooted in his belief in a hierarchical society, where individuals are born with distinct natural abilities and aptitudes. In "The Republic," he outlines a three-tiered social structure:

Guardians (Philosopher-Kings): According to Plato, individuals with the highest intellectual and moral qualities should rule the state. These philosopher-kings are those who have undergone rigorous education and training in philosophy. They possess wisdom, virtue, and a deep understanding of the Forms (abstract, perfect concepts).

Auxiliaries (Warriors): The second tier consists of warriors or auxiliaries. They are responsible for defending the state and maintaining order. These individuals receive physical and military training, but they are not involved in governance.

Producers (Artisans and Farmers): The lowest tier includes the producers, who are responsible for providing the material needs of the society. This group includes farmers, craftsmen, and merchants.

 Additional InformationIn Plato's ideal state, each individual has a specific role based on their natural abilities, and the state functions harmoniously when everyone fulfills their designated function. This concept is known as "justice" in Plato's philosophy.

Regarding the role of the government, Plato emphasizes the importance of the philosopher-kings in governing the state. He believes that only those with a deep understanding of the Forms and a commitment to virtue can make just and wise decisions for the well-being of the society. The government's role, according to Plato, is to guide and regulate the state in a way that promotes justice and virtue.

Plato's idea of a complete life is closely tied to the pursuit of wisdom and virtue. He argues that individuals can only lead fulfilling lives if they align themselves with the higher realities represented by the Forms. Therefore, the government, led by philosopher-kings, plays a crucial role in guiding citizens toward intellectual and moral excellence, ultimately contributing to the overall well-being of the state.

Discipline 2 (20 questions)

Question 121

Consider the following Statements:

(a) Lord Acton and Alexis de Tocqueville insisted that equality and liberty were antithetical.

(b) Rule of law means that the law is sovereign and no person, no matter how great he is or thinks he is, can declare himself above the law because that would be tantamount to arbitrary rule.

(c) In the Marxist tradition, it is claimed that all human beings are defined by praxis, that is all human beings are knowledgeable, conscious and practical agents.

(d) Positive equality is associated with ‘the end of privilege’, while Negative equality, means ‘the availability of opportunity’.

Choose the correct statements from the code given:

  1. AOption (a)

    (a), (b), (c) and (d)

  2. BOption (b)

    (b) and (d)

  3. COption (c)

    (a), (b) and (c) 

  4. DOption (d)

    . (c), (d) and (b)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(a), (b) and (c) 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (a), (b) and (c).

Key Points

  • The staunch supporters of liberty Lord Acton and De Tocqueville did not discover a connection between the equality and liberty. 
  • They saw liberty and equality as mutually exclusive and diametrically opposed.
  • According to Lord Acton, "The drive for equality made the hope for liberty futile."
  • Such political theorists contend that freedom precludes equality and equality precludes liberty.
  • These political theorists believe that people were born with inherent inequalities.
  • Inequality is also present in nature.
  • A.V. Dicey explored the idea of Rule of Law in his seminal book "The Law and the Constitution," which was released in 1885. In his writings, Dicey asserts that the Rule of Law is a cornerstone of the English legal system and provides the doctrine with the following three definitions:
  • Supremacy of Law: This essentially means that no man can be detained, punished, or lawfully forced to suffer in body or in goods unless he has gone through the proper legal channels and violated a rule of law that was established in accordance with ordinary legal procedure in front of ordinary courts of the land.
  • Equal Subjection of Law: When describing this part of the doctrine, Dicey claimed that there must be equality before the law or equal submission of all classes to the ordinary law of the land.
  • Judge-crafted Constitution: He stressed the importance of the legal system in protecting liberty and made the argument that the rights would be better protected if they were upheld in court rather than just being stated in a document.
  • Marx is unquestionably the greatest political philosopher. No other philosopher has the same level of influence as Karl Marx.
  • Marx himself stated that "what matters is to alter the world, philosophers have simply interpreted it."
  • Marx refers to his theory as "praxis."
  • Praxis denotes both theory-based action and theory that informs action. It implies that everything we do should be grounded in accurate knowledge, and that our policies should be developed using knowledge as a foundation.
  • Lack of special rights is the negative aspect of equality. In social and political life, all barriers related to birth, wealth, caste, and sex should be eliminated. All people should be able to enjoy their rights. In its positive sense, equality implies giving everyone the best chance possible to develop their personalities by giving them enough opportunity for self-development.

Question 122

Which of the following is not a component of Social movement?

  1. AOption (a)

     Programmes

  2. BOption (b)

    Objectives

  3. COption (c)

    Ideology

  4. DOption (d)

    Education

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Education

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Education.

Key Points

  • A social movement is an ongoing effort that is initiated to accomplish a certain objective.
  • These movements are set up to alter outdated societal norms or systems that have proven harmful to members of specific communities.
  • Although the Social Movements vary in size, they are always combined efforts of a group of individuals who have a common outlook on life but do not adhere to the same set of laws.
  • Three categories of social movements exist:
  • Redemptive/Transformative: Whether redemptive or transformative, this Movement seeks to alter its adherents' internal perceptions. Alcoholics Anonymous would be a good illustration of this. It aims to assist an alcoholic in kicking his drinking habit.
  • Reformist movements: These movements aim to gradually alter the current political and social structures. These movements include Arya Samaj and Bramho Samaj, to name a couple.
  • Revolutionary: A revolutionary movement seeks to fundamentally alter social relations by seizing sovereign power. The Bolshevik Revolution of May 1920, which overthrew the Tsar and established a communist government, serves as an illustration of this. The Naxalite Movement in India is considered to be a revolutionary movement.
  • Important characteristics of a social movement are:
  • They are the end outcome of persistent group effort.
  • The group needs a leader who can organise the demonstrations and unite the participants.
  • The Movement's participants share common goals and ideals.

Question 123

Who among the following asserted, “The parliamentary form of government, as a political institutional device, has proved to be inadequate to continue or expand concrete democratic rights of the people?” 

  1. AOption (a)

    M N Roy

  2. BOption (b)

    Leo Panitch

  3. COption (c)

    Marion Kozak

  4. DOption (d)

    A.R. Desai

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A.R. Desai

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A.R. Desai.

Key Points

  • Desai was active in the nationalist movement in Surat and afterwards in Mumbai, where he went on to pursue his academic education. He later joined leftist and Marxist groups.
  • A.R. Desai argued in the 1960s while pointing out the shortcomings of India's parliamentary democracy:
  • “The parliamentary form of government, as a political institutional device, has proved to be inadequate to continue or expand concrete democratic rights of the people. This form, either operates as a shell within which the authority of capital perpetuates itself, obstructing or reducing the opportunities for people to consciously participate in the process of society, or is increasingly transforming itself into a dictatorship, where capital sheds some of its democratic pretensions and rules by open, ruthless dictatorial means..."
  • Desai continues by saying that public demonstrations would continue until people in the nations where the capitalist rule is still in place have put an end to it.
  • Additionally, they will continue to oppose any bureaucratic totalitarian political regimes that have developed in places where capitalism has no longer been in control owing to strange historical events. People will continue to demonstrate and move in groups until suitable political institutional forms are developed to realise and exercise concrete democratic rights.

Question 124

All India Scheduled Caste Federation (AISCF) was formed in which year?

  1. AOption (a)

    1951

  2. BOption (b)

    1935

  3. COption (c)

    1947

  4. DOption (d)

    1942

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1942

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1942.

Key Points

  • Dr B. R. Ambedkar established the Scheduled Castes Federation (SCF) in India in 1942 to advocate for the rights of the Dalit population.
  • The All India Scheduled Castes Federation's Working Committee adopted a number of resolutions in 1944 "outlining the safeguards for the untouchables in the new Constitution."
  • The Federation was created by B.R. Ambedkar, who included these resolutions in an appendix to his 1945 book, "What the Congress and Gandhi have done to the Untouchables," under the name "Political Demands of the Scheduled Castes."
  • Twelve resolutions written in non-legal language made up the "Political Demands".
  • It was made plain that the Scheduled Castes of India would reject any constitution that lacked protections for their group.
  • These included reservations in the union and state executives, local governments, and public services, proportional representation and separate electorates for the national and provincial legislatures, and recognition of Scheduled Castes as a "distinct and separate element" and a minority on par with the Muslim community.
  • It may be noted that Political Demands demanded a constitutional clause requiring exclusive settlements for Scheduled Castes, who were to be relocated from their current homes.
  • Ambedkar submitted "States and Minorities" to the Constituent Assembly's Subcommittee on Fundamental Rights during the constitution-making process in 1947.
  • Political Demands, which contained clauses on representation in legislatures and separate settlements similar to those in the Resolutions, had a significant influence on this submission.
  • The Constituent Assembly rejected several of these provisions. However, the "Special Provisions Relating to Certain Classes" section of Part Sixteen of the Constitution of India, 1950, as well as other sections of the Constitution, provided a number of provisions to guarantee the protection and advancement of Scheduled Castes.

Question 125

Which of the following is true regarding Resource Mobilisation Theory?

I. It is an outcome of rational choice theory.

II. It is based on the assumption that individuals’ actions are motivated randomly not by any preference.

III. The theory purported to show that the success of a movement depended on the resources available to be used.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both II and III are correct

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II is correct

  3. COption (c)

    Both I and II are correct

  4. DOption (d)

    Both I and III are correct. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both I and III are correct. 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both I and III are correct. 

Key Points

  • The success of social movements is said to depend on resources (time, money, talents, etc.) and the capacity to employ them, according to the resource mobilisation hypothesis, which is used in the study of social movements.
  • Because it placed more emphasis on sociological than psychological factors, the idea was revolutionary when it first came to the study of social movements. Social movements were no longer thought to be emotional, disorderly, and unreasonable.
  • For the first time in the 1960s, factors affecting external social movements, such as backing from other groups or the government, were taken into consideration.
  • Access to resources is a major problem for social movements, according to resource mobilisation theory.
  • In order to understand the emergence, growth, and conclusion of social movements, resource mobilisation theory focuses on the resources and capacities of aggrieved groups.
  • Resources are broadly defined, drawing on a rational choice approach, to include both tangible and intangible assets, such as money and physical assets, as well as the bonds, cultural commitments, and identification networks that enable the pooling of resources by communities.
  • In order to discourage free riding, organisers provide collective and selective incentives and the impression that there will be a lot of participants and success is likely. However, more affordable communications, institutional favouritism, and political responses to indigenous protest have also made it possible for political entrepreneurs to establish reputable social movement organisations.
  • The majority of movements are indigenous and rely on funding from direct beneficiaries.
  • Material, human, social-organizational, cultural, and moral resources are the five categories of resources that social organizations look to acquire.
  • According to sociologists, a social organization's ability to use resources effectively is correlated with its success.

Question 126

Who among the following defined ‘being free’ as “not being interfered with by others"?

  1. AOption (a)

    Isaiah Berlin

  2. BOption (b)

    J.S. Mills

  3. COption (c)

    Jeremy Bentham

  4. DOption (d)

    J. J. Rousseau

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Isaiah Berlin

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Isaiah Berlin.

Key Points

  • The primary explanation of negative liberty is Isaiah Berlin's 'Two Concepts of Liberty,' first published in 1958.
  • Berlin defined "freedom" as "Not having my rights violated by others," adding that "the larger the region of non-interference, the greater my freedom."
  • Positive liberty proponents seek to widen this realm of self-determined activity more than negative liberty proponents, who seek to preserve at least certain areas where an individual is free to do as he pleases.
  • For instance, internal limits are also included in their notion of action restrictions. The democratic processes of shared decision-making broaden the scope of self-determined behaviour according to the philosophy of positive liberty. Instead of trying to live as law-free a life as possible, the emphasis is on making sure that everyone has a voice in the creation of the rules they must abide by. Since liberty is distinguished from licence and defined as living within the boundaries of self-made rules, the main emphasis is on ensuring that each piece of legislation that one is subject to is decided by themselves.
  • Berlin also discusses in his essay how tyrannies, particularly the Soviet Union, have exploited positive liberty. The dictatorship characterised its repressive rule as empowering the populace.
  • In contrast, everyone is freer in a society where there is negative freedom because no one's freedom is infringed upon.
  • However, early English philosophers thought that negative freedom could cause social unrest because the possibilities for human desire are endless. And if they are permitted to succeed in everything they want, the powerful will subjugate the weak.
  • For instance, some would contend that the lack of regulation allows banks to ruin the economy. This is why there are limitations on where males can act under the law.

Question 127

The Book “Hindu Society at Cross Road” was written by -

  1. AOption (a)

     Sarvepali Radhakrishnan

  2. BOption (b)

    Jyotiba Phule

  3. COption (c)

    K.M. Pannikar

  4. DOption (d)

    V.P Menon

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

K.M. Pannikar

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is K.M. Pannikar.

Key Points

  • K.M. Pannikar published  “Hindu Society at Cross Road” first in the year 2018.
  • The author demonstrates that Hindu civilization is among the world's oldest integrated communities in a probing investigation of Hindu society dating back to ancient times.
  • He also discusses the causes of the creeping paralysis that appeared to strike Hindu culture as a whole in recent ages.
  • He attributes the inability to make timely and necessary adjustments to the political environment in Indian life.
  • This is supported by recent broad laws passed by the Indian Parliament that have an impact on the whole Hindu social system.
  • The two foundations of Hindu culture—caste and the nuclear family—have tended to atomize Hindu society and worked against any attempt to organise society on an egalitarian basis.
  • Both of these institutions are now being threatened by a combination of political upheavals, Harijan upheaval, upper-class Hindu social conscience, and, most importantly, the extensive legislation the National Government undertook during the post-Independence era.​

Question 128

Which of the following pair is not correctly matched with respect to the event and its year?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mandal controversy - 1981 

  2. BOption (b)

    Loktantra bachao slogan - 1977

  3. COption (c)

    Bofors scandal - 1989

  4. DOption (d)

    Garibi hatao slogan - 1971

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Mandal controversy - 1981 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mandal controversy - 1981.

Key Points

  • The fight to save democracy was the motivation for the 1977 elections. Major political changes occurred during this time in the Indian polity. The Janta party was created by opposition parties to confront the Congress.
  • The Janata Party created the campaign slogan, "Loktantra Bachao."
  • The Janta party, a combination of opposition parties, formed government at the Center for the first time as a non-Congress government.
  • The Congress was only able to gain one seat in each of Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh while losing in every district in Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Delhi, Haryana, and Punjab.
  • India's democratic history was marred by the Emergency, which led to restrictions on press freedom, and civil liberties, and the detention of opponents of the government. The Emergency of 1975 had an impact on everyday life; it led to many individuals being tortured and dying in jail.
  • Garibi Hatao Desh Bachao served as both the campaign's slogan and theme for Indira Gandhi in the 1971 election.
  • The phrase advocated anti-poverty initiatives to provide Indira Gandhi with autonomous national support based on rural and urban poor.
  • It was a part of the 5th Five-Year Plan and was initiated by D.D. Dhar to achieve two key goals: ending poverty (Garibi Hatao) and achieving self-reliance.
  • To do this, it encouraged rapid growth, improved income distribution, and a very considerable increase in domestic savings rates. India's Fifth Five-Year Plan was designed by the Indira Gandhi administration (1974–1979).
  • Agriculture, eradicating poverty, and generating jobs were given priority. The programme also attempted to reduce social and economic inequalities in society.
  • Bofors (Bofors AB is a Swedish arms manufacturer) paid payments to individuals from several nations, including top Swedish and Indian politicians and important defence officials, to seal defence procurement deals.
  • The scandal shook the nation as it blamed the PM's office.
  • The Congress party's reputation was damaged, which contributed to the overthrow of its administration in 1989.
  • To close defence procurement deals, Bofors (Bofors AB, a Swedish arms manufacturer), paid kickbacks to influential Swedish, Indian, and other foreign politicians and defence personnel.
  • The Mandal Commission, also recognized as the Socially and Educationally Backward Classes Commission (SEBC), was established on January 1, 1979, by the Indian Government, then led by Prime Minister Morarji Desai.
  • B P Mandal, an MP, served as the Commission's chair.
  • The Mandal Commission's main task was to determine which groups in India were socially or educationally disadvantaged and to investigate using reservations to combat caste inequality and prejudice.
  • On December 31, 1980, the Commission sent the President its report.
  • The commission created 11 criteria to categorise the "Other Backward Classes," or OBCs, as being inferior. The standards are divided into social, economic, and educational categories.

Question 129

Which one of the following contentions does Isaiah Berlin make to defend Negative Liberty?

  1. AOption (a)

    Berlin argued that the principle of liberty brooked no interference with the sphere of one’s self-regarding action.

  2. BOption (b)

    Berlin argued that a free man is he that in those things which by his strength and wit he is able to do, is not hindered to do what he has a will to.

  3. COption (c)

    Berlin argued that the human faculties of perception, judgement, discriminative feeling, mental activity, and even moral preference, are exercised only in making a choice

  4. DOption (d)

    Berlin contended that liberty in its negative sense is principally concerned with the area of control, not with its source. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Berlin contended that liberty in its negative sense is principally concerned with the area of control, not with its source. 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 

Key Points 

  • The primary explanation of negative liberty is Isaiah Berlin's 'Two Concepts of Liberty,' first published in 1958.
  • Berlin defined "freedom" as "Not having my rights violated by others," adding that "the larger the region of non-interference, the greater my freedom."
  • Berlin defines negative liberty as the absence of outside interference. Negative liberty is essentially the space in which a man can behave without being hindered by others in a political situation.
  • Being free from the forceful will of others is a key component of this idea of liberty. The larger the space of non-interference, the greater my freedom since "coercion means the willful intervention of other humans inside the area in which I may otherwise behave."
  • A certain amount of freedom in this sense, according to Berlin, is required "for even that minimal development of [man's] natural capacities which alone makes it conceivable to seek, and even to envisage, the different objectives which mankind deem good or right or sacred."
  • Positive liberty proponents seek to widen this realm of self-determined activity more than negative liberty proponents, who seek to preserve at least certain areas where an individual is free to do as he pleases.
  • For instance, internal limits are also included in their notion of action restrictions. The democratic processes of shared decision-making broaden the scope of self-determined behaviour according to the philosophy of positive liberty. Instead of trying to live as law-free a life as possible, the emphasis is on making sure that everyone has a voice in the creation of the rules they must abide by. Since liberty is distinguished from licence and defined as living within the boundaries of self-made rules, the main emphasis is on ensuring that each piece of legislation that one is subject to is decided by themselves.
  • Berlin also discusses in his essay how tyrannies, particularly the Soviet Union, have exploited positive liberty. The dictatorship characterised its repressive rule as empowering the populace.
  • In contrast, everyone is freer in a society where there is negative freedom because no one's freedom is infringed upon.
  • However, early English philosophers thought that negative freedom could cause social unrest because the possibilities for human desire are endless. And if they are permitted to succeed in everything they want, the powerful will subjugate the weak.
  • For instance, some would contend that the lack of regulation allows banks to ruin the economy. This is why there are limitations on where males can act under the law.

Question 130

Which of the following is not correct regarding Political parties and party system in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    The party system in India before 1967 has been a system of Congress dominance.

  2. BOption (b)

    The party system changed from one party dominant system to multi - party system at the national level. 

  3. COption (c)

    Political parties are capitalist in nature after 1967.

  4. DOption (d)

    Party system in India emerged and developed at the state level since independence. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Political parties are capitalist in nature after 1967.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Political parties are capitalist in nature after 1967.

Key Points

  • A political party is a collection of people that band together around a common goal and work to use legal means to gain control of the government in order to carry out that goal. There are four different categories of political parties in today's democracies:
  • Conservative parties uphold the status quo;
  • Liberal parties work to change existing institutions;
  • Radical parties work to impose a new order by toppling current institutions;
  • Reactionary parties are those that cling to outdated socioeconomic and political institutions.
  • Political parties have been categorised by political scientists according to their ideologies.
  • Radical parties are located on the left, liberal parties are located in the middle, and reactionary and conservative parties are located on the right.
  • To put it another way, they can be categorised as rightist parties, centrist parties, and leftist parties.
  • In the world, there are three different party systems:
  • One-party regimes, in which there is only one ruling party and no room for opposition. For instance, USSR and East European nations.
  • Two-party systems with two main political parties. United States and the United Kingdom, for instance.
  • Multiple political parties coexist in multi-party systems, which can result in coalition governments. France, Switzerland, and Italy, for instance.
  • The Nehruvian era of national consensus, from 1952 to 1964, was characterised by the dominance of the Congress Party and the largely one-party nature of Indian democracy (also known as the "Congress system").
  • Regional parties have grown in number and power during the previous forty years. This has increased the political diversity of the Indian Parliament.
  • Political parties in the region have emerged to meet local desires.
  • No national party is able to win a majority in Lok Sabha on its own.
  • The national parties are forced to join forces with State parties as a result.
  • Since 1989, regional political parties have become increasingly important in coalition politics.

Question 131

Who among the following is the proponent of the Social theory of Justice?

  1. AOption (a)

    William Maitland

  2. BOption (b)

    T.H. Green

  3. COption (c)

    John Rawls

  4. DOption (d)

    Stephen Barker

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

John Rawls

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is John Rawls.

Key Points

  • The term "social justice" refers to a political and philosophical philosophy that emphasises the idea of fairness in interpersonal interactions and equitable access to resources, opportunities, and social privileges in a society. Thus, John Rawls's theory of justice with its fairness principles is an example of the social theory of justice.
  • The framework provided by Rawls' theory highlights the importance of political and personal liberty, equal opportunity, and cooperative arrangements that benefit both the more advantaged and the less advantaged members of society in a society where everyone is presumed to be free and equal.
  • As an example of a political understanding of justice, Rawls uses his idea of justice as fairness. The following principles are supported by this idea:
  • I. Everyone has the same legal entitlement to an equal set of fundamental liberties that are compatible with a similar set of liberties for all, and
  • II. Social and economic inequality must meet two requirements. They must, first, be associated with offices and positions that are available to everyone under fair equality of opportunity, and they must, second, be primarily for the benefit of the socially disadvantaged.
  • ​​The Equal Liberty Principle is another name for the first of them.
  • The second condition's stem, which reads, "Social and economic liberties are to satisfy [the condition that]," is known as the Principle of Equal Opportunity.
  • The Difference Principle is the stem of the second condition and the second condition alone.
  • According to Rawls, there is a "universal predisposition against putting legal and other limits on behaviour without adequate cause" in the justice as fairness theory. However, this assumption does not give any specific liberty a higher priority.
  • He claims: "Due to the priority of liberty, the fundamental liberties are given a particular standing as the first principle of justice. When it comes to the public good and perfectionist principles, they have absolute weight."

Question 132

A socio – political movement Nav Nirman Andolan of 1974 was organised in which state of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Orissa

  2. BOption (b)

    Gujarat

  3. COption (c)

    Rajasthan

  4. DOption (d)

    West Bengal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Gujarat

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Gujarat.

Key Points

  • In Gujarat, students and members of the middle class started the Nav Nirman Andolan in 1974 as a sociopolitical protest against the state of the economy and official corruption.
  • What started as a demonstration by Ahmedabad University students protesting excessive mess costs and subpar food quickly grew into a widespread campaign against the corrupt administration of Chief Minister Chimanbhai Patel.
  • On January 7, 1974, the students at Ahmedabad University issued a strike call. But the isolated demonstration in one college became a rallying cry for students all throughout Gujarat who were fed up with food hunger, unemployment, and corruption.
  • People employed a variety of tactics, including a protest march, a street protest, a riot, a hunger strike, and a strike.
  • Several "janata curfews" were imposed throughout the movement, and protests persisted for 63 days in 23 Gujarati towns and cities.
  • It's possible that this was the first and only successful agitation after Independence that used extra-parliamentary mobilisation to topple an elected administration.

Question 133

Which of the following best describes the Directive Principles of Rights?

  1. AOption (a)

    It holds that rights are conditions of social welfare.

  2. BOption (b)

    It is understood in the context of the economic system in a particular period of history.

  3. COption (c)

    It regards the state as the product of a long historical process.

  4. DOption (d)

    It means that rights are given by the state, as a claim regarding the rights which the power of the state grants to the people.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

It holds that rights are conditions of social welfare.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is **'**It holds that rights are conditions of social welfare.'

Key Points

  • It holds that rights are conditions of social welfare. - This aligns well with the Directive Principles, as they are designed to promote social welfare and guide the state in creating policies that improve the living conditions of its people.
  • It is understood in the context of the economic system in a particular period of history. - While the Directive Principles can be influenced by the economic context, they are more about setting ideal standards for all times rather than being strictly bound by specific historical economic systems.
  • **It regards the state as the product of a long historical process. -**This is a more general philosophical statement about the state and not specifically about the Directive Principles.
  • It means that rights are given by the state, as a claim regarding the rights which the power of the state grants to the people. - This is more indicative of a legalistic interpretation of state-given rights, not specifically about the Directive Principles, which are guidelines rather than rights.

Question 134

The line "Class domination can never be purely ‘economic’, or purely ‘cultural’ “is said by -

  1. AOption (a)

    Ralph Miliband

  2. BOption (b)

    Karl Marx

  3. COption (c)

    A.R. Desai

  4. DOption (d)

    G. S. Ghurye

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Ralph Miliband

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ralph Miliband.

Key Points

  • According to Ralph Miliband, "Class domination can never be just 'economic', or purely 'cultural': it must always have a strong and pervasive 'political' component, not least since the law is crystallised form which politics assumes in providing the required sanction and legitimation of all types of oppression".
  • This means that "politics" in this sense "permits" relations between people who belong to conflicting classes both inside and outside of their "relation of production."
  • The Marxist perspective holds that the essence of social movements is in conflict.
  • Conflicts can take many different forms in society.
  • Other conflicts revolve around material interests and the dominance of one group over the others.
  • Some disputes include between people for personal power, functioning style, and conflicts between communities (social, ethnic, religious, regional, etc.).
  • Every society has a different type of non-class conflict, which can be settled through institutional mechanisms and negotiation. Such conflict occasionally, though not always, takes the form of "class" or "economic" conflict.
  • In other words, ethnic conflict arises from the economic struggle between various classes within distinct communities.
  • Class conflict is rooted in the production and distribution networks that make up society's economic structure.
  • It revolves around class dominance and subjugation.
  • The social and political structure is dominated by those who own the means of production.
  • A particular mode of production predominates in all forms of class society, which affects how people interact with one another on a social level.

Question 135

Writing “State Against the Democracy ” is written by - 

  1. AOption (a)

    Rajni Kothari

  2. BOption (b)

    V K Ramaswami

  3. COption (c)

    P.N. Bhagwati 

  4. DOption (d)

    Morris Jones 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Rajni Kothari

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Rajni Kothari.

Key Points

  • Rajni Kothari was a renowned academic and political scientist in India. During the V.P. Singh administration of the National Front, he also served on the Planning Commission.
  • In 1963, he founded the "Centre for the Study of Developing Societies" (CSDS), a research centre for the social sciences and humanities, in Delhi.
  • In 1983, he proposed a forum named Lokayan for dialogue between academics and activists (Dialogue of the people). The "Right Livelihood Award," often known as the People's Nobel Prize, was given to this forum in 1985.
  • His best-known publications include State Against Democracy (1988), Rethinking Democracy (2006), Caste in Indian Politics (1973), and Politics in India (1970).
  • Rajni Kothari was the first to identify the One Party Dominance (OPD) that characterised the Indian political system. This term is still applicable today as the ruling powers appear to be trying to construct their own OPD as we appear to have left the age of the "Congress system."

Question 136

Which of the following is not correct regarding Relative Deprivation Theory?

  1. Relative deprivation is defined as actors’ perception of discrepancy between their value expectations and their environment’s apparent value capabilities.
  2. Relative deprivation model describes the situation where the expectations are stable but capabilities decline.
  3. Relative deprivation is a necessary but not a sufficient condition for protest movements.
  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1 and 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 2 

  3. COption (c)

    Only 2 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only 2 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is

Key Points

  • Relative deprivation is defined as actors' impression of a gap between their value aspirations and the perceived value capabilities of their surroundings.
  • Value expectations are the things and circumstances in life to which people feel they have a right.
  • The social and physical environment, which shapes people's perceptions of their chances of obtaining or maintaining the values they rightfully expect to obtain, serves as the referent of value capacities.
  • Gurr also connects three other ideas—dissonance, anomie, and conflict—to relative deprivation.
  • Anomie, the second of these, is significant in how it affects how opportunities are valued.
  • There are three models that explain how the differences between value capabilities and value expectations affect relative deprivation.
  • The incremental deprivation model portrays a situation in which capabilities are declining but expectations remain steady.
  • The capabilities are the same but the expectations are higher under an aspirational model.
  • The last model, known as the J-curve or progressive deprivation model, is appropriate when expectations and capabilities rise together at first, but subsequently capabilities plateau or decline while expectations remain constant.
  • People who feel deprived and become irrationally frustrated tend to become hostile.
  • They have "jealousy" towards people who possess more.
  • They riot or revolt against the richer people.
  • They don't address the causes of poverty.
  • Gurr views "deprivation" as essentially psychological; as a result, he ignores the socioeconomic system that causes deprivation.
  • Crime develops when such a sense of lack is focused on one person against another.
  • Deprivation of area, group, or caste takes the shape of collective action when it is seen by everyone.
  • However, *it is not accompanied by an ideology for the social structure; instead, it largely takes the shape of a protest or a rebellion rather than a social movement.*​
  • They stop being considered "ongoing processes of change" and instead become "temporary aberrations."
  • A necessary but not sufficient requirement for protest movements is relative deprivation.

Question 137

Robert Nozick’s libertarian conception of Justice is a defence of which of the following?

  1. AOption (a)

    It is a defence of a socialist society

  2. BOption (b)

    It is a defence of a people led communist

  3. COption (c)

    It is a defence of free-market capitalism

  4. DOption (d)

    It is a defence of a Marxist regime.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

It is a defence of free-market capitalism

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is It is a defence of free-market capitalism.

Key Points

  • Robert Nozick makes a distinction between "historical" and entitlement-based conceptions of justice and "end-state" and "patterning" conceptions of justice in his book Anarchy, State, and Utopia (1974).
  • In order to achieve some end purpose, the former systems of justice require the state to reconstruct or model society.
  • Nozick claims that Rawls' view of justice is such an end-state and patterning conception that it is unfair or unjust to the individuals since it undermines their right to liberty.
  • Nozick examines the history of the acquisition of the titles to our property holdings for signs of justice or injustice rather than prescribing any end-state or patterned rules of distribution.
  • He holds that everyone has unalienable rights to liberty, including the freedom to possess property and trade it for other things in the market, regardless of the outcome or distribution pattern that may result.
  • The idea of rectification justice, which is intended to make up for any prior injustices in the acquisition or transfer of property, is included in this entitlement theory of justice, though.
  • Nozick's libertarian view of justice might be regarded as a defence of free-market capitalism. Although it speaks eloquently about defending individual liberties from government intrusion, it says nothing about how wealthy individuals or businesses undermine equality and freedom for all.

Question 138

Cauvery water dispute is between which two states in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tamil Nadu and Kerala

  2. BOption (b)

    Tamil Nadu and Karnataka

  3. COption (c)

    Kerala and Karnataka

  4. DOption (d)

    Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Tamil Nadu and Karnataka

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu and Karnataka.

Key Points

  • The Cauvery River rises in the Kodagu district of Karnataka, flows through Tamil Nadu, and eventually empties into the Bay of Bengal.
  • The conflict between the princely state of Mysore and the Madras Presidency, which was ruled by the British, began in 1892.
  • The Mysore administration's plan to construct irrigation infrastructure is opposed by Madras, which claims that it would obstruct water flow into Tamil Nadu.
  • When Mysore and Madras agree to enable Mysore to construct a dam near the village of Kannambadi, the conflict appears to be on the verge of being resolved in 1924.
  • The deal will remain in effect for 50 years before being revised. On the basis of this pact, Karnataka constructs the Krishnaraja Sagar Dam.
  • The 1924 water-sharing agreement between the Madras Presidency and the Princely State of Mysore (now Tamil Nadu and Karnataka) expires after 50 years in 1974.
  • To resolve the water dispute involving the Inter-State river Cauvery and its river valley between the States of Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and Union territory of Puducherry, the Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal was established in 1990.
  • Tamil Nadu should receive 419 tmcft (thousand million cubic feet) of water, which is more than double the quantity specified in the interim judgement from 1991, according to the tribunal's final award, which was made public in 2007.
  • The Tamil Nadu government reported a shortage of water released from Karnataka of 50.0052 tmcft in 2016.
  • Tamil Nadu then asked the Supreme Court to get involved.
  • In 2017, the Supreme Court mandated that Karnataka deliver 15,000 cusecs of water to Tamil Nadu every day for ten days.
  • Widespread demonstrations and bandhs followed as a result in Karnataka.
  • The Karnataka government has been instructed by the SC to transfer 2,000 cusecs of water per day to Tamil Nadu until further instructions, following various revisions to the decision.
  • In 2018, the supreme court issued its final ruling, which said that Tamil Nadu would receive 177.25 TMC of water instead of 192 TMC for Karnataka and that Karnataka would receive an additional 14.75 TMC of river water.

Question 139

In his critique and choice of utilitarianism, John Rawls draws inspiration from which of the following?

  1. AOption (a)

    From Immanuel Kant's ethical idea of the liberty and equality of every human being

  2. BOption (b)

    Montesquieu

  3. COption (c)

    From Robert Nozick's Arguments on Freedom as the Paramount Idea of the Human.

  4. DOption (d)

    From T.H. Green's idea of negative equality.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

From Immanuel Kant's ethical idea of the liberty and equality of every human being

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is From Immanuel Kant's ethical idea of the liberty and equality of every human being.

Key Points

  • Immanuel Kant's moral ideal of each person's freedom and equality serves as the foundation for Rawls' critique of and response to utilitarianism.
  • Every person should be viewed as a goal in themselves, not as a tool to further the interests of others, according to Kant.
  • In his theory of social justice, Rawls restores this liberal-egalitarian moral ideal, which is broken by utilitarianism.
  • The moral principle of everyone's freedom and equality should take centre stage in both Rawls' approach or process for arriving at the principles of distributive or social justice and, accordingly, in the content or substance of those principles.
  • According to Rawls, the fundamental institutions of society should be designed to guarantee the equitable or just distribution of "social primary goods" to all of its members on an ongoing basis.
  • "Social primary goods" are products that are dispersed by a society's fundamental framework. They consist of freedoms and rights, authority and opportunity, as well as money and possessions.

Question 140

Which of the following statements regarding politics in India by L.I. Rudolph and S.H. Rudolph is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Politics in India is centrist politics.

  2. BOption (b)

    Politics in India is not class politics.

  3. COption (c)

    The state as an autonomous body negotiates between labor and capital.

  4. DOption (d)

    The Indian state as a "capitalist state" invoked "capitalism" in its pursuit of public sector and state planning.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The Indian state as a "capitalist state" invoked "capitalism" in its pursuit of public sector and state planning.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The Indian state as a "capitalist state" invoked "capitalism" in its pursuit of public sector and state planning.

Key Points

  • Although there is a lot of continuity with the past, the administrative systems that were put in place during British control complicated the relationships between the State and society.
  • As a result, the State became excessively involved in managing the economy.
  • The Indian State not only became the largest employer, but it also significantly contributed to controlling the flow of foreign aid, loans, and investment.
  • The State took over as the primary financier and regulated how the money was used.
  • To help the State with its duties, a sizable State machinery had to be created.
  • Public sector management, rationing of consumer goods and scarce foreign currency by the government, and state marketing- all became the responsibility of the state.
  • It almost adopted the Weberian theory of monopoly of coercive authority, which instructed social groups to channel their demands against one another through its agencies, like all modern States.
  • As a result, social groups' demands on the State dramatically increased.
  • The Rudolphs provided an analysis of this by drawing attention to the difference between "Demand" and "Command" Polity.
  • The Rudolphs claim that the "Demand" polity is focused on short-term objectives, competitive methods for choosing policies and the public interest, as well as the delivery of private products.
  • Election results, the demands of organised classes and interests, political parties, social movements, and agitational politics all serve to constrain and control it.
  • Additionally, it emphasises the "rationality" of incremental policy selection.
  • On the other hand, the "Command" polity is focused on achieving long-term objectives, formulating the public interest, and delivering public and social benefits.
  • The State's position in the "Command" polity is comparable to that of monopolistic or oligopolistic producers, who have the power to direct investment, influence consumer preferences, and organise consumer choice based on their investment choices.
  • The Rudolphs divide the four historical periods since Indian independence into two sub-periods: "command politics" (1956–1966 and 1975–1977) and "demand politics" (1966–1975 and 1977–1980).

Discipline 3 (20 questions)

Question 141

Which of the following assumptions is correct regarding the resource mobilization theory of Rajendra Singh?

  1. Social movements should be understood as struggle models of collective action.
  2. There are conflicts of interest built into the system of institutionalized power relations, both in institutional and non-institutional collective work.
  3. Social movements involve the rational pursuit of interests by competing groups.
  1. AOption (a)

    Both 2 and 3

  2. BOption (b)

    Both 1 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1, 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Resource Mobilization Theory, as articulated by sociologists like Rajendra Singh, provides a perspective for understanding social movements. 

Key Points

1. Social movements should be understood as struggle models of collective action: According to Resource Mobilization Theory, social movements are indeed seen as collective efforts to enact change. These movements often arise from a context where there's a perceived need for social or political change. The "struggle" component in this context refers to the efforts of these groups to overcome obstacles, whether they are political, economic, social, or cultural. The theory emphasizes that social movements are not just spontaneous expressions of discontent but are organized and strategic efforts. This organization involves mobilizing resources like money, labor, and the time and skills of participants, as well as creating and maintaining effective organizational structures.

2. There are conflicts of interest built into the system of institutionalized power relations, both in institutional and non-institutional collective work: This statement highlights the idea that social movements often emerge in response to systemic power imbalances. In any society, certain groups or institutions hold more power than others, leading to conflicts of interest. These power dynamics are not just limited to government or formal institutions but can also be found in less formal, non-institutional settings. Social movements, therefore, can be seen as reactions to these imbalances, where groups that lack power mobilize to challenge and change existing power structures. The theory suggests that these movements are not merely a response to grievances but are also a challenge to the power structure itself.

3. Social movements involve the rational pursuit of interests by competing groups: Resource Mobilization Theory posits that social movements are rational and strategic in nature. This perspective challenges earlier views that depicted social movements as irrational, emotional, or purely reactive. Instead, it argues that these movements are made up of individuals and groups who have clear objectives and who make calculated decisions about the best ways to achieve their goals. The theory emphasizes the importance of resources in this process, suggesting that the success of a social movement is largely dependent on its ability to gather and effectively utilize resources such as funding, manpower, expertise, and public support.

 Additional Information

  • Rajendra Singh's Resource Mobilization Theory presents social movements as organized, strategic efforts by groups seeking to change societal structures or norms.
  • These movements are seen as rational responses to systemic power imbalances, where different groups mobilize resources in a calculated way to achieve their objectives.
  • This theory significantly shifts the perspective on social movements from spontaneous, emotional reactions to organized, strategic actions.

Question 142

Which of the following definition is correct regarding “Social Movement”?

I. A deliberate collective endeavour to promote change in any direction and by any means, not excluding violence, illegality, revolution or withdrawal into ‘utopian’ community.

II. Social movements can be viewed as collective enterprises to establish a new order of life.

III. Social movements are those organized efforts, on the part of excluded groups, to promote or resist changes in the structure of society that involve recourse to noninstitutional forms of political participation.

  1. AOption (a)

    I, II and III

  2. BOption (b)

    Only I is correct

  3. COption (c)

    Only III is correct

  4. DOption (d)

    Both II and III are correct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

I, II and III

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is I, II and III.

 Key Points1. "A deliberate collective endeavour to promote change in any direction and by any means, not excluding violence, illegality, revolution or withdrawal into ‘utopian’ community." This definition highlights the following key aspects of social movements:

  • Deliberate Collective Endeavour: Social movements are purposeful and organized, involving a group of people with a common goal. They are not spontaneous or random acts but rather coordinated efforts towards a shared objective.
  • Promote Change in Any Direction: This indicates the broad scope of social movements. They can aim for various types of change - political, social, economic, environmental, etc.
  • By Any Means: This part of the definition suggests that social movements may employ a wide range of tactics. These can include peaceful protests, advocacy, civil disobedience, and even more extreme measures like violence or illegality. However, it's important to note that many movements strive to remain within the bounds of legality and nonviolence, as these approaches often garner broader public support and are more likely to lead to sustainable change.
  • Not Excluding Extreme Measures: The mention of violence, illegality, revolution, or creating a 'utopian' community suggests that some movements may adopt radical approaches. This aspect recognizes the diversity in tactics and goals among different movements, though it's crucial to acknowledge that such extreme measures often lead to ethical and legal challenges and can undermine public support.

2. "Social movements can be viewed as collective enterprises to establish a new order of life." This definition emphasizes:

  • Collective Enterprises: Similar to the first definition, this underscores the organized, group-based nature of social movements.
  • Establish a New Order of Life: This phrase suggests that social movements aim for profound and systemic changes. They are not just about reforming a specific policy or law but often seek to fundamentally alter societal norms, values, or structures.

3. "Social movements are those organized efforts, on the part of excluded groups, to promote or resist changes in the structure of society that involve recourse to noninstitutional forms of political participation." This definition introduces new elements:

  • Organized Efforts by Excluded Groups: This focuses on movements initiated by marginalized or underrepresented groups in society, highlighting the role of social movements in giving voice to the voiceless and challenging power structures.
  • Promote or Resist Changes in Society: Social movements can have different orientations - some might aim to bring about change (progressive movements), while others might seek to resist change or maintain the status quo (conservative or reactionary movements).
  • Noninstitutional Forms of Political Participation: This aspect distinguishes social movements from conventional political processes like voting or legislative lobbying. It includes protest marches, sit-ins, strikes, and other activities outside traditional political institutions.

 Additional Information

  • While these definitions cover a broad range of aspects of social movements, it's important to remember that social movements are diverse and complex. They can differ greatly in their goals, methods, participants, and impacts.
  • Furthermore, the ethical and legal implications of the methods employed by social movements (as suggested in Definition I) are significant points of debate and can impact public perception and effectiveness of these movements.

Question 143

Which of following scholars, first worked on the ‘Cultivation Theory’?

  1. AOption (a)

    Dorina Miron

  2. BOption (b)

    Donald Shaw

  3. COption (c)

    George Gerbner 

  4. DOption (d)

    Jennings Bryant 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

George Gerbner 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is George Gerbner.

Explanation: George Gerbner, a prominent communication theorist, first introduced the concept of 'Cultivation Theory' in the 1960s as part of his research in the field of media effects. This theory explores the long-term effects of television on viewers' perceptions of reality. It is a cornerstone in the study of media influence and has been widely referenced and expanded upon in subsequent research.

 Key PointsKey Aspects of Cultivation Theory:

  • Television as a Primary Source of Reality: Gerbner posited that for those who spend more time watching television, it becomes a significant source of reality. The more time people spend 'living' in the television world, the more likely they are to believe social reality aligns with what they see on TV.
  • Mainstreaming and Resonance: The theory introduces two critical processes:
  1. Mainstreaming: This is the homogenization of viewpoints among heavy TV viewers. Regardless of where they start, heavy viewers tend to end up with similar perceptions about the world, which reflect the most recurrent and consistent messages of the television world.
  2. Resonance: It occurs when real-world events support the distorted image of reality shown on TV, reinforcing viewers' misconceptions or exaggerated views.
  • The Mean World Syndrome: One of the most notable concepts derived from Cultivation Theory is the 'Mean World Syndrome.' It suggests that heavy exposure to violence-related content on television leads viewers to perceive the world as more dangerous and crime-filled than it actually is.
  • Long-Term Focus: Unlike many media theories that focus on short-term effects like changes in attitude or behavior immediately after exposure to specific content, Cultivation Theory is concerned with the long-term, cumulative impact of media.

Methodology and Criticisms:

  • Research Method: Gerbner's methodology typically involved content analysis of television programming to understand the nature of the reality presented on TV, coupled with surveying viewers about their perceptions of reality.
  • Criticism: The theory has faced criticism for its deterministic approach, implying that TV viewers are somewhat passive and easily influenced. Critics also argue about the lack of clear causal relationships and the challenge of isolating television's effects from other social factors.
  • Evolution and Adaptation: Over time, the theory has evolved, and researchers have attempted to apply its principles to new media beyond television, like the internet and social media, though with varying degrees of success.

 Additional Information

  • Cultivation Theory remains a significant tool in understanding the social implications of mass media, particularly in how prolonged exposure to certain types of content can subtly shift viewers' perceptions of reality. It underscores the influential role of media in shaping societal norms and expectations.

Question 144

Vohra Committee Report studied the -

  1. AOption (a)

    Machinery of Government of India

  2. BOption (b)

    Training and recruitment of the higher Civil Services

  3. COption (c)

    Multi-tier bureaucratic authority

  4. DOption (d)

    Nexus between criminals, politicians and bureaucrats in India

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Nexus between criminals, politicians and bureaucrats in India

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Nexus between criminals, politicians and bureaucrats in India

Explanation: The Vohra Committee Report is a significant document in the context of Indian politics and governance. Established in 1993, the committee was headed by the then Home Secretary, N.N. Vohra. Its primary objective was to study the nexus between criminals, politicians, and bureaucrats in India. This investigation was prompted by concerns about the increasing influence of criminal networks and organized crime on the country's political and administrative systems.

 Key PointsKey Points of the Vohra Committee Report:

Background and Formation: The committee was formed in the aftermath of the Bombay blasts of 1993, which exposed the deep-seated links between underworld dons, politicians, bureaucrats, and other key players in the system.

Objective: The main aim was to identify the extent of criminalization in Indian politics and bureaucracy and to suggest measures to tackle it.

Findings:

  • The report highlighted that criminal networks were virtually running a parallel government, undermining the rule of law and governance.
  • It pointed out that these networks had established extensive financial and muscle power and were able to influence decision-making at various levels.
  • The involvement of government functionaries and public servants at all levels was noted, including the nexus between politicians and criminals who operated with impunity.
  • It revealed how this nexus facilitated the development of significant monetary and muscle power, which was used to develop a network of contacts with bureaucrats, politicians, and even the media.

Impact on Governance: The report underscored how this nexus adversely impacted governance and the functioning of democracy in India. It allowed for the proliferation of illegal activities, including smuggling, drug trafficking, and extortion.

Recommendations:

  • The committee recommended setting up a nodal agency to investigate these networks.
  • It suggested reforms in the legal system to expedite the prosecution of criminal elements.
  • The report also advocated for greater transparency and accountability in government functioning to break the criminal-bureaucratic-political nexus.

Controversy and Criticism:

  • The report, when initially submitted, was not made public, leading to allegations of a cover-up.
  • Critics argued that the report did not name specific individuals, which diminished its effectiveness.
  • The lack of concrete action following the report's submission also drew criticism, with many viewing it as an instance of the government's reluctance to confront the deep-rooted issues within its own structures.
  • Legacy and Relevance: The Vohra Committee Report remains a critical reference point in discussions about political corruption and criminalization in India. It is often cited in debates about political reforms and the need for stricter laws to curb the influence of criminal elements in politics.

 Additional Information

  • The Vohra Committee Report was a landmark effort to shed light on the dark intersections of crime, politics, and bureaucracy in India.
  • While it opened up discussions and brought some issues to the forefront, the extent to which its recommendations have been implemented remains a matter of debate.
  • The report continues to be relevant in the context of ongoing efforts to cleanse Indian politics and administration of criminal elements.

Question 145

Which of the following movement is not related to Environment?

  1. AOption (a)

    Abolitionist movement

  2. BOption (b)

    Appiko Movement

  3. COption (c)

    Narmada Bachao Andolan (NBA)

  4. DOption (d)

    Chipko Movement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Abolitionist movement

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Abolitionist movement

Explanation: The Appiko Movement, Narmada Bachao Andolan (NBA), and Chipko Movement are significant environmental movements in India, each with a unique focus and history.

Key Points

1. Appiko Movement

  • The Appiko Movement, initiated in 1983 in the Western Ghats region of Karnataka, was largely inspired by the Chipko Movement.
  • It was a response to the large-scale deforestation that was affecting the Western Ghats, an area known for its biodiversity and ecological importance.
  • The movement was primarily concerned with protecting forests, conserving soil and water, and promoting sustainable development practices.

Major Activities and Achievements:

  • The Appiko Movement used peaceful methods such as hugging the trees (similar to Chipko Movement), conducting awareness marches, and educating the local population about the importance of forest conservation.
  • It successfully mobilized the local communities, particularly the farmers and indigenous tribes, who were directly affected by deforestation.
  • The movement led to a significant reduction in tree felling in the regions where it was active and raised broader awareness about environmental conservation in India.

2. Narmada Bachao Andolan (NBA)

  • Started in 1985, the Narmada Bachao Andolan is one of the most prominent social movements in post-independence India.
  • The movement initially focused on the environmental and social impacts of the large dam projects on the Narmada river, specifically the Sardar Sarovar Dam.
  • It later evolved to question the model of development that prioritizes large-scale industrial projects over environmental and human rights.

Major Activities and Achievements:

  • The NBA was led by notable activists like Medha Patkar and involved mass mobilizations, hunger strikes, and court cases.
  • It raised critical questions about displacement, ecological damage, and the rights of indigenous communities.
  • While the movement couldn't stop the dam construction, it brought significant changes in environmental and rehabilitation policies in India and influenced global discourse on large dam projects.

3. Chipko Movement

  • Originating in the early 1970s in the Himalayan region of Uttarakhand (then part of Uttar Pradesh), the Chipko Movement is one of the most celebrated environmental movements in the world.
  • The movement aimed at protecting the forests of the Himalayas from the axes of loggers, which were leading to deforestation and subsequent ecological imbalance.

Major Activities and Achievements:

  • The name 'Chipko' which means 'to hug' in Hindi, comes from the strategy used by the villagers - they hugged the trees to prevent them from being cut down.
  • Led by environmentalists like Sunderlal Bahuguna and Chandi Prasad Bhatt, the movement saw widespread participation, especially from women.
  • It led to a ban on felling of trees in the Himalayan regions and played a crucial role in the formulation of environmental policy in India, particularly the Forest Conservation Act of 1980.
  • Each of these movements has been instrumental in shaping environmental policy and consciousness in India, demonstrating the power of grassroots activism in effecting change. They are celebrated for their non-violent approach and their success in bringing environmental concerns to the forefront of national discourse.

Question 146

In which year was the Council of Europe established? 

  1. AOption (a)

    1949

  2. BOption (b)

    1952

  3. COption (c)

    1951

  4. DOption (d)

    1950

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1949

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1949.

Explanation: The Council of Europe was established on May 5, 1949, in the aftermath of World War II, as the continent sought ways to achieve greater unity and prevent future conflicts. The founding of the Council of Europe was primarily driven by the desire to uphold human rights, democracy, and the rule of law in Europe. The horrors and devastation of World War II had underscored the need for a new system of international cooperation and safeguards against totalitarian regimes.

 Key PointsKey Events Leading to the Establishment:

  • Post-War European Unity: After World War II, there was a strong movement towards European unity. This was driven by the desire to prevent another devastating war in Europe and the recognition that European nations could be stronger together in the face of emerging superpowers like the United States and the Soviet Union.
  • The Hague Congress: In 1948, the Congress of Europe was held in The Hague, which gathered delegates from various European countries. This congress played a critical role in stimulating the creation of the Council of Europe. It brought together various political figures and movements that were advocating for European cooperation and integration.
  • Winston Churchill's Role: Winston Churchill, the former Prime Minister of the United Kingdom, was a prominent advocate of European unity. He called for the creation of a "United States of Europe" and was instrumental in initiating the movement that led to the formation of the Council of Europe.

Founding Members:

  • The Council of Europe was initially formed by ten member states: Belgium, Denmark, France, Ireland, Italy, Luxembourg, the Netherlands, Norway, Sweden, and the United Kingdom. These countries were motivated by the shared objective of fostering peace and cooperation in Europe.

Objectives and Significance:

  • Human Rights: One of the Council's main objectives was to protect human rights. This led to the creation of the European Convention on Human Rights in 1950, which established the European Court of Human Rights, allowing individuals to bring cases of human rights violations before an international court.
  • Democratic Stability: The Council of Europe aimed to promote and consolidate democratic stability in Europe through various mechanisms and agreements.
  • Legal and Cultural Cooperation: The Council also focused on legal standards and cultural cooperation among its members, aiming to create a common democratic and legal area throughout the continent.
  • Prevention of Another War: A fundamental goal was to prevent the kind of nationalist fervor and totalitarianism that had led to World War II.

 Additional Information

  • Since its establishment, the Council of Europe has grown to include 47 member countries.
  • It remains an influential international organization, separate from the European Union, dedicated to upholding human rights, democracy, and the rule of law in Europe.
  • Its institutions and legal frameworks, like the European Court of Human Rights, continue to play a crucial role in European and international affairs.
  • The Council serves as a forum for debate and collaboration on a wide range of social and political issues facing Europe.

Question 147

Scholars Melvin de Fleur and Sandra Ball-Rokeztch gave which of the following theory?

  1. AOption (a)

    Agenda Setting Theory 

  2. BOption (b)

    Spiral of Silence Theory 

  3. COption (c)

    Development Communication Theory

  4. DOption (d)

    Media System Dependency Theory

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Media System Dependency Theory

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Media System Dependency Theory

Explanation: Media System Dependency (MSD) Theory, developed by Melvin DeFleur and Sandra Ball-Rokeach, is a key theory in the field of communication studies that emerged in the late 20th century. This theory essentially focuses on the relationship between the media and its audience, proposing that the degree of dependence an individual has on media for information shapes their perception of the world and their interactions within it.

 Key PointsCore Concepts of Media System Dependency Theory:

  • Dependency Relationship: The theory suggests that the more a person relies on media to meet their needs, the more important that media will be to them. This dependency can be cognitive (for understanding the world), affective (for emotional needs), or integrative (for interacting with others).
  • Goals and Needs: People use media for various goals, such as understanding their social world, making decisions, or simply for entertainment. The importance of these goals varies from person to person.
  • Social Systems and Media Systems: MSD theory acknowledges that the media is part of a larger social system. The characteristics of a society, such as its political or economic structure, influence the nature of the media system, which in turn affects how audiences depend on media.
  • Media Effects Under Dependency: The theory posits that media effects are strongest when people are most dependent on the media system. In situations where alternative sources of information are scarce or less credible, the influence of media on perceptions, understanding, and behavior is heightened.
  • Feedback Loop: There's a feedback loop between the audience and the media. Audience needs influence media content, and media content affects audience needs and perceptions.
  • Change and Stability: The theory also considers how changes in society, technology, or media itself can alter dependency relations and, consequently, media effects.

 Additional Information

  • MSD theory has evolved over the years to incorporate new forms of media and changing societal contexts. It remains relevant in understanding the dynamic relationship between media and its audience in the context of an ever-evolving media landscape.

Question 148

Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?

  1. AOption (a)

    Fascist movement - Vietnam

  2. BOption (b)

    Islamic movement - Middle East 

  3. COption (c)

    Nazi movement - Germany

  4. DOption (d)

    Tamilian movement - Sri Lanka

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Fascist movement - Vietnam

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Fascist movement - Vietnam

Explanation: These pairs represent historical or socio-political movements associated with specific regions or countries. Let's examine each of them in detail:

 Key PointsIslamic Movement - Middle East:

  • The term "Islamic movement" encompasses a wide range of movements within Islam that have various goals and objectives, from social and educational reforms to political change.
  • The Middle East, being the birthplace and heartland of Islam, has seen numerous Islamic movements throughout history. These include both peaceful reform movements and radical groups.
  • Notably, Islamic movements in the Middle East are diverse and vary from country to country, reflecting the varied political, social, and sectarian contexts of the region. They are not monolithic and can range from modernist reformers to conservative traditionalists.

Nazi Movement - Germany:

  • The Nazi movement, officially known as the National Socialist German Workers' Party (NSDAP), was a far-right political movement that emerged in Germany after World War I.
  • Led by Adolf Hitler, the Nazi Party rose to prominence in the 1920s and 1930s, culminating in Hitler's appointment as Chancellor in 1933.
  • The Nazi movement is infamous for its role in initiating World War II and the Holocaust, where approximately six million Jews and millions of other minorities were systematically murdered.
  • This movement was characterized by its fascist ideology, extreme nationalism, anti-Semitism, and the pursuit of an ethnically homogeneous German state.

Tamilian Movement - Sri Lanka:

  • The Tamilian movement in Sri Lanka refers to the ethnic conflict and civil war in Sri Lanka, primarily involving the Sri Lankan Tamil minority and the Sinhalese majority government.
  • This conflict, which escalated into a civil war that lasted from 1983 to 2009, was marked by the struggle of the Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (LTTE), a militant organization that sought to create an independent Tamil state in the north and east of Sri Lanka.
  • The movement arose from a long history of ethnic tensions and grievances, including perceived discrimination against Tamils by the majority Sinhalese government in areas such as language policy, education, and employment opportunities.

 Additional Information

  • Each pair represents a significant historical or political movement within a specific geographic and cultural context.
  • The Islamic movement in the Middle East, the Nazi movement in Germany, and the Tamilian movement in Sri Lanka each had profound impacts on their respective regions and have been the subject of extensive study and analysis.

Question 149

The Rise and Decline of Nations: Economic Growth, Stagflation, and Social Rigidities, 1982' has been written by - 

  1. AOption (a)

    Samuel P. Huntington

  2. BOption (b)

    Harold Lasswell

  3. COption (c)

    Mancur Olson

  4. DOption (d)

    George Bernard Shaw

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Mancur Olson

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mancur Olson

Explanation: "The Rise and Decline of Nations: Economic Growth, Stagflation, and Social Rigidities," written by Mancur Olson in 1982, is a significant work in the field of economics and political science. Olson, an American economist, extends the theories he previously developed in his 1965 work, "The Logic of Collective Action," to a broader scale in this book. Here's a detailed explanation of the key concepts and arguments presented in "The Rise and Decline of Nations":

 Key PointsKey Themes and Arguments

  • Institutional Sclerosis: Olson introduces the concept of "institutional sclerosis," which refers to the idea that as societies become older and more stable, they tend to accumulate more special-interest groups (like trade unions, business lobbies, professional associations, etc.). These groups, while beneficial to their members, can often work against the overall public interest.
  • Economic Stagnation: Olson argues that the proliferation of these special-interest groups leads to economic stagnation. This is because these groups often lobby for policies that benefit themselves at the expense of the greater economy, such as trade barriers, subsidies, and other market distortions.
  • Stagflation and Social Rigidity: The book links the rise of these groups to the phenomena of stagflation (a situation where inflation and unemployment rise simultaneously) and social rigidity. Olson suggests that the demands and activities of special-interest groups make economies less efficient and flexible, hindering adaptation to new conditions and technologies.
  • Comparison between Societies: Olson's analysis compares various societies, noting that newer or recently restructured societies (like post-war Japan and Germany) have fewer entrenched interest groups and thus enjoy more dynamic economic growth. In contrast, older, more stable societies (like the UK and the US at the time of his writing) suffer from the burdens imposed by numerous special-interest groups.
  • Government Role: The book also discusses the role of government in this process. Olson posits that as governments age, they become more prone to influence by these special-interest groups, leading to policies that are not always in the best interest of the overall economy or society.
  • Policy Recommendations: Olson suggests that for economies to remain vibrant and grow, there needs to be a mechanism to counteract the influence of special-interest groups. This might include political and economic reforms to reduce the power of such groups.

Additional Information

  • Olson's work influenced thoughts on economic policy, particularly regarding the role of government and regulation in the economy.
  • In political science, the book contributed significantly to the understanding of the relationship between economic growth and political stability.
  • While widely respected, Olson's arguments have also been critiqued, particularly his views on the negative impacts of interest groups, and the extent to which his theories can be generalized across different societies.
  • "The Rise and Decline of Nations" remains a pivotal text in understanding the interplay between political structures, special-interest groups, and economic performance. Olson's insights continue to be relevant in contemporary discussions about economic policy and political governance.

Question 150

Which of the following is correct regarding Marxist approach of Social movement?

  1. AOption (a)

    Biasness is the central core of social movements.

  2. BOption (b)

    Conflict is the central core of social movements.

  3. COption (c)

    Love is the central core of social movements. 

  4. DOption (d)

     Freedom is the central core of social movements.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Conflict is the central core of social movements.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Conflict is the central core of social movements.

Explanation: The statement "Conflict is the central core of social movements" captures a key aspect of the Marxist approach to understanding social movements. Marxist theory, rooted in the ideas of Karl Marx, emphasizes the role of conflict, especially class conflict, as a driving force in societal change.

Key Points

  • Class Conflict: Marxists view class conflict, particularly between the proletariat (working class) and bourgeoisie (capitalist class), as the primary source of social change. Social movements, in this perspective, often arise from the struggles of the working class against the capitalist system and its inherent inequalities.
  • Dialectical Materialism: This concept in Marxism suggests that societal change occurs through the conflict of opposing interests, leading to a synthesis of new social arrangements. Social movements are seen as manifestations of these conflicts, pushing society towards new stages of development.
  • Revolutionary Potential: Marxists often see social movements as potential vehicles for revolutionary change. They are not just expressions of conflict but are also means through which the working class can challenge and possibly overthrow the existing capitalist structures.
  • Economic Determinism: The Marxist view tends to emphasize economic factors as the basis for social conflict. Social movements, therefore, are often interpreted as responses to economic injustices, exploitation, and the alienation of workers.
  • Critique of Capitalism: Central to the Marxist approach is a critique of capitalism as an economic system that perpetuates inequality. Social movements, in this context, are viewed as struggles against the capitalist system itself, aiming to address systemic inequalities.

 Additional Information

  • The statement "Conflict is the central core of social movements" aligns well with the Marxist perspective, highlighting the importance of class conflict and economic struggles as the driving forces behind social movements.
  • This approach tends to focus on how these movements challenge and seek to change existing economic and power structures.

Question 151

Consider the following statements with regard to Mandal Commission is not:

A. The Mandal Commission is officially known as the Socially and Economically Backward Classes Commission (SEBC).

B. The commission developed 11 criteria to identify the backward classes who were called “Other Backward Classes” or OBCs. The criteria are classified as social, economic and educational.

C. The Commission was chaired by a Member of Parliament, D P Mandal.

D. The Commission submitted its report to the President on 31st December 1980.

  1. AOption (a)

    A and D

  2. BOption (b)

    Only C

  3. COption (c)

    A, B and C

  4. DOption (d)

    Only D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A, B and C

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A, B and C.

Explanation: The Mandal Commission, officially known as the Socially and Educationally Backward Classes Commission (SEBC), was established in India with the primary objective of identifying the socially and educationally backward classes of India.

Key Points

A. Official Name of the Mandal Commission: The statement is partially correct. The Mandal Commission is often referred to as the Socially and Educationally Backward Classes Commission (SEBC), not just Socially and Economically. It was established in 1979 by the Janata Party government under Prime Minister Morarji Desai, with a mandate to identify the socially or educationally backward classes of India.

B. Criteria for Identifying Backward Classes: This statement is correct. The Mandal Commission developed 11 criteria to identify "Other Backward Classes" (OBCs) in India. These criteria were indeed divided into social, educational, and economic indicators. The social indicators, for instance, included considerations like caste discrimination and representation in government jobs. Educational criteria focused on aspects like dropout rates and attendance in higher education. Economic criteria considered factors like occupation and income levels.

C. Chairperson of the Commission: This statement is incorrect. The Mandal Commission was chaired by Bindeshwari Prasad Mandal, who was not a Member of Parliament at the time of his appointment to this commission. B.P. Mandal was a former Chief Minister of Bihar and a member of the Lok Sabha, but his chairmanship of the Mandal Commission occurred after his active political career in parliament.

 Additional Information

  • The Commission's work was significant in shaping the policies of reservation in government jobs and educational institutions for the OBCs. Its recommendations, when released and implemented in 1990, led to widespread debates and protests across India.
  • The Commission suggested that 27% of central government jobs should be reserved for OBCs, in addition to the already existing 22.5% reservation for Scheduled Castes and Tribes, making the total reservations under the Mandal Commission recommendations amount to just under 50% of seats.

Question 152

Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R): Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Assertion (A): The Indian polity is governed by vertical mobilization by the dominant castes and horizontal alliances in the name of jati and varna.

Reason (R): The establishment of a formal democracy guarantees that all citizens will enjoy equal access and participation in the political processes.

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) is true, but (R) is false.

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) is false, but (R) is true

  3. COption (c)

    Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). 

  4. DOption (d)

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(A) is true, but (R) is false.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Explanation: The statement you're referring to deals with the dynamics of caste and politics in India, which is a complex and multifaceted topic. To understand it, we need to delve into two concepts: vertical mobilization by dominant castes and horizontal alliances in the name of jati (caste) and varna (class).

1. Vertical Mobilization by Dominant Castes

Vertical mobilization in the context of Indian polity refers to how dominant castes, which have traditionally held power and influence, mobilize support. This kind of mobilization is "vertical" because it often involves rallying members of the same caste, but across different socio-economic strata, for political or social causes.

Dominant castes have historically used their status and resources to influence political outcomes. This influence is not just limited to electoral politics but extends to controlling key positions in various institutions, influencing policy decisions, and maintaining social dominance. The vertical mobilization is often driven by:

  • Preservation of Status and Privileges: Dominant castes mobilize to maintain their historical advantages and privileges, which can be threatened by social and political changes.
  • Political Representation: Seeking to have members of their caste in positions of power, whether in local governments, state legislatures, or national parliament.
  • Resource Allocation: Influencing the distribution of public resources in a way that favors their caste groups.

2. Horizontal Alliances in the Name of Jati and Varna

Horizontal alliances refer to the coming together of various castes, often at a similar socio-economic level, across the traditional caste lines of jati and varna. Jati refers to the thousands of sub-castes in India, while varna is the broader categorization into four groups (Brahmins, Kshatriyas, Vaishyas, and Shudras).

These alliances are "horizontal" as they aim to pool the strength of multiple castes for a common political or social objective. This is a relatively more recent phenomenon in Indian politics, influenced by:

  • Democratic Politics: As India's democracy matured, political parties started forming broader coalitions to gather enough support across different castes.
  • Social Justice Movements: Movements advocating for the rights of lower castes and marginalized groups have led to new alliances.
  • Shared Socioeconomic Interests: Often, castes at similar socioeconomic levels have shared interests, like access to education, jobs, and resources.

Interplay and Impact

The interplay between vertical mobilization and horizontal alliances has shaped Indian politics significantly. Dominant castes, through vertical mobilization, strive to maintain their traditional hegemony. In contrast, horizontal alliances often challenge this by seeking to redistribute power and resources more equitably.

This dynamic has led to:

  • Changing Political Landscape: New political parties and leaders from diverse caste backgrounds have emerged.
  • Policy Shifts: Policies focusing on affirmative action, caste-based reservations in education and employment, and welfare schemes targeting lower castes and marginalized communities.
  • Social Transformations: There's been a gradual, albeit contested, shift towards a more inclusive society, though caste-based discrimination and inequalities persist.

 Additional Information

  • Understanding this intricate relationship between caste and politics in India requires considering the historical context of caste, the evolution of democratic politics in India, and the ongoing struggles for social justice and equality.

Question 153

Who calls Gandhi’s method as “dialogical resistance?”

  1. AOption (a)

    David Bayley

  2. BOption (b)

    Karl Marx

  3. COption (c)

    Lord Mountbatten

  4. DOption (d)

    David Hardiman

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

David Hardiman

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is David Hardiman

Explanation: David Hardiman's characterization of Mahatma Gandhi's method as "dialogical resistance" is a profound interpretation of Gandhi's approach to political and social struggle. To understand this concept in detail, we need to break down both terms: "dialogical" and "resistance," and see how they apply to Gandhi's methods.

 Key Points

  • Dialogical: The term "dialogical" is derived from "dialogue," implying an ongoing conversation or interaction. In the context of Gandhi's approach, it refers to his emphasis on communication, understanding, and persuasion rather than coercion or violence. Gandhi believed in engaging with his opponents, understanding their perspectives, and trying to reach a common ground or at least mutual respect. This approach is in stark contrast to monological approaches, where one side imposes its will on the other without genuine engagement or understanding.
  • Resistance: This term in Gandhi’s context refers to his method of non-violent protest against injustice and oppression. Gandhi's resistance was not passive but an active form of protest, which included various strategies like non-cooperation, civil disobedience, and constructive work. He aimed to resist unjust laws and practices without resorting to violence, thereby maintaining moral superiority over the oppressor.
  • When combined, "dialogical resistance" in the context of Gandhi's methodology means a form of protest that actively engages with the oppressor through dialogue and non-violent means. This approach seeks to change the heart and mind of the opponent rather than defeating them through force. Gandhi believed that this form of resistance could lead to a more lasting and meaningful change because it involved a transformation in relationships and attitudes, rather than just a transfer of power.

 Additional Information

  • Hardiman, in emphasizing the dialogical aspect of Gandhi's resistance, highlights the unique and transformative nature of Gandhi's approach. It wasn't just about achieving political goals but also about reforming society and building a foundation for a more just and empathetic world. Gandhi's method of dialogical resistance aimed to create a situation where, in the end, there were no losers but a mutual understanding and respect, even among adversaries.
  • This interpretation of Gandhi's methods is especially relevant in today's world where polarization and confrontational politics often dominate. It reminds us of the power of dialogue, empathy, and non-violence in resolving conflicts and building a more harmonious society.

Question 154

Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R): Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Assertion (A): The modern judiciary in India derives its sources from the Constitution, and acts as a check on the arbitrary decisions of the legislature and the executive.

Reason (R): A working democracy requires an independent judiciary well-coordinated by an effective executive and a responsible legislature.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). 

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) is true, but (R) is false. 

  3. COption (c)

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). 

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) is false, but (R) is true.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). 

Explanation: The modern judiciary in India plays a crucial role in maintaining the balance of power within the democratic system. A working democracy requires an independent judiciary well-coordinated by an effective executive and a responsible legislature.

Key Points

1. Sources from the Constitution

  • Constitutional Framework: The Indian judiciary derives its authority and functions from the Constitution of India, which lays out the structure, powers, and responsibilities of various courts, including the Supreme Court, High Courts, and subordinate courts.
  • Separation of Powers: The Constitution of India establishes the principle of separation of powers, which ensures that the judiciary is independent of the other two branches of government – the legislature and the executive.
  • Judicial Review: One of the key functions of the judiciary, as provided by the Constitution, is the power of judicial review. This allows courts to interpret the Constitution and to declare any law or executive action invalid if it contravenes the Constitution.

2. Checks on Legislature and Executive

  • Against Arbitrary Decisions: The judiciary acts as a check on the legislature and the executive by ensuring that their actions do not exceed the powers granted to them by the Constitution.
  • Upholding Rights and Liberties: Courts protect the fundamental rights of citizens against arbitrary and discriminatory actions by the government.
  • Ensuring Lawfulness: By reviewing the legality of legislative acts and executive decisions, the judiciary ensures adherence to laws and principles of justice.

3. Independent Judiciary

  • Autonomy: Judicial independence is crucial for a fair and impartial justice system. This is ensured through various means such as security of tenure for judges, the power to adjudicate without undue influence, and financial autonomy.
  • Appointment and Removal of Judges: The process of appointing judges is designed to minimize political interference, and the removal of judges is difficult, requiring a process of impeachment.

4. Coordination with Executive and Legislature

  • Harmonious Functioning: While independent, the judiciary must work in coordination with the other branches for the smooth functioning of democracy.
  • Executive Implementation: The executive branch is responsible for implementing and enforcing court judgments and orders, demonstrating a critical interaction between these branches.
  • Legislative Response: The legislature may respond to judicial rulings by amending laws or passing new legislation, within the constitutional framework.

5. Role in a Democracy

  • Guardian of the Constitution: As the interpreter of the Constitution, the judiciary plays the role of a guardian, ensuring that the democratic ethos of the nation is preserved.
  • Dispute Resolution: It provides a mechanism for the resolution of disputes, both between private parties and between citizens and the state.
  • Social Change and Rights Protection: Courts often play a role in societal evolution by upholding and interpreting rights in the context of changing social values.

 Additional Information

  • An independent and robust judiciary, well-coordinated with a responsible legislature and an effective executive, is vital for the health of a democracy. It ensures the rule of law, protects the rights and liberties of individuals, and maintains a check on the other branches of government, thereby sustaining the democratic framework envisioned by the Constitution of India.

Question 155

The book titled 'Homo-Hierarchicus on the Indian Caste System' is written by? 

  1. AOption (a)

     Louis Dumont

  2. BOption (b)

    Nicholas Dirks

  3. COption (c)

    Kancha Ilaiah

  4. DOption (d)

    Gerald Berreman

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

 Louis Dumont

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Louis Dumont

Explanation: "Homo Hierarchicus: The Caste System and Its Implications" is a seminal book by French anthropologist Louis Dumont. First published in French in 1966 and later translated into English, it offers a detailed and comprehensive analysis of the Indian caste system. Dumont's work is regarded as a significant contribution to both anthropology and the study of Indian society.

 Key PointsKey Themes and Arguments:

  • Holism vs. Individualism: Dumont presents the caste system as fundamentally holistic. He contrasts this with Western societies, which he views as predominantly individualistic. In the caste system, the role and status of an individual are more about their position within the system rather than individual attributes or achievements.
  • Purity and Pollution: Central to Dumont's analysis is the concept of purity and pollution. He argues that the separation of castes is deeply rooted in notions of ritual purity and impurity, which dictate the hierarchical order of the caste system. Higher castes are considered more pure, while lower castes are associated with pollution.
  • The Concept of Hierarchy: Dumont's use of the term 'hierarchicus' in his title reflects his emphasis on the inherent hierarchy within the caste system. He argues that this hierarchy is accepted and internalized by the society as a whole, with each caste having its own place and role.
  • Brahmins and Untouchables: Dumont places special emphasis on the roles of Brahmins (the highest caste) and Untouchables (the lowest stratum, outside the traditional four-caste system). He discusses how their positions in the hierarchy embody the extreme poles of purity and pollution.
  • Interdependence of Castes: Despite the hierarchical and often oppressive nature of the caste system, Dumont also highlights the interdependence among different castes. Each caste relies on others for certain services and duties, creating a complex system of social and economic interactions.

Criticism and Reception:

Dumont's work, while influential, has also faced criticism:

  • Overemphasis on Ideology: Critics argue that Dumont overemphasized the ideological and religious aspects of the caste system, sometimes at the expense of understanding its economic and political dimensions.
  • Neglect of Power Dynamics: Some scholars believe Dumont neglected the role of power and coercion in maintaining the caste system, focusing instead on its acceptance as a cultural norm.
  • Static Representation: His portrayal of the caste system is sometimes seen as too static, not adequately accounting for historical changes and regional variations.

 Additional Information

  • Despite these criticisms, "Homo Hierarchicus" remains a landmark work. It has significantly influenced the way anthropologists and sociologists understand and study caste in India.
  • Dumont's holistic approach and emphasis on the ideological components of caste have shaped subsequent research and debates in the field.
  • The book is essential reading for anyone seeking a deeper understanding of one of the most complex and enduring social systems in the world.

Question 156

Consider the following statements with regard to Public Interest Litigation (PIL):

A. It is a socio-economic movement generated by the judiciary to reach justice specially to the weaker sections of the society.

B. The purpose of PIL is the enforcement of the right of one person against the other.

C. The granting of the right to PIL has led to plethora of litigations in the courts, indicative of the development of democratic rights by the judiciary.

D. The idea came from ‘atio popularis’ of the Roman jurisprudence, which allowed court access to every citizen in matters of public wrongs.

Select the incorrect statements from the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    Only B

  2. BOption (b)

    A and B

  3. COption (c)

    Only D

  4. DOption (d)

    A and D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only B

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only B

Explanation: Public Interest Litigation (PIL) is a significant legal innovation in the realm of the judiciary, especially in countries like India.

Key Points

  • "It is a socio-economic movement generated by the judiciary to reach justice especially to the weaker sections of the society." PIL emerged as a strategic arm of the legal aid movement and was intended to bring justice within the reach of the poor and marginalized sections of society. It is essentially a relaxation of the traditional rule of 'locus standi', where a person, to seek justice, had to be directly involved or affected by the legal issue at hand. PIL allows any person or organization to file a suit on behalf of those who cannot represent themselves or whose rights are being violated. This is especially significant in addressing the grievances of the weaker or marginalized sections who may lack the resources or knowledge to access courts. The judiciary, through PIL, has played a proactive role in ensuring that social justice is delivered to these segments of society.
  • "The granting of the right to PIL has led to a plethora of litigations in the courts, indicative of the development of democratic rights by the judiciary." The advent of PIL has indeed led to an increase in litigation in the courts. This can be seen as a positive development in the sense that it signifies a greater awareness and exercise of democratic rights by the people. PIL has empowered citizens and organizations to bring attention to larger public issues that might otherwise have been ignored or neglected. However, this surge in litigation also presents challenges like the overburdening of courts and the potential for the misuse of PIL for personal or political reasons.
  • "The idea came from ‘actio popularis’ of the Roman jurisprudence, which allowed court access to every citizen in matters of public wrongs." The concept of PIL does have its roots in 'actio popularis' from Roman law. Actio popularis was a legal principle in Roman law that allowed any citizen to initiate legal proceedings in the case of a public wrong or a breach of public duty. This was a form of social action to protect public interest, particularly when specific legal injury to a particular individual was not required to be demonstrated. In a way, modern PILs echo this ancient concept by allowing any concerned individual or group to approach the court for ensuring the enforcement of public duties and securing social justice, particularly in cases where a specific legal injury might not be directly identifiable.

 Additional Information

  • PIL represents a significant evolution in the legal landscape, fostering greater inclusivity and democratization of legal redressal mechanisms.
  • It has enabled the judiciary to play a more active role in safeguarding the rights of the marginalized and addressing issues of public importance.
  • However, it also necessitates a careful balance to ensure that the objective of social justice is not overshadowed by frivolous or vexatious litigations.

Question 157

Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R): Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Assertion (A): In a democracy, the civil service has to modify its behaviour and style of functioning to complement the needs of democracy.

Reason (R): The establishment of the Panchayati Raj institutions on a country-wide basis and the transfer of some of the traditional functions of the civil service system to these newly established institutions constitute a new policy trend in the civil service system.

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) is false, but (R) is true. 

  2. BOption (b)

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). 

  3. COption (c)

    (A) is true, but (R) is false. 

  4. DOption (d)

    Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: The relationship between the civil service and the democratic system, especially in the context of the establishment of Panchayati Raj institutions, represents a significant shift in governance and administrative practices in a democracy.

 Key PointsCivil Service in a Democracy

  • Role and Function: In a democracy, the civil service serves as the administrative arm of the government. Its primary role is to implement the policies and programs formulated by the elected government. This requires a high level of professionalism, neutrality, and an ability to adapt to the changing priorities of different elected governments.
  • Accountability and Transparency: Democratic governance demands accountability and transparency in administration. Civil servants must not only be accountable to their superiors but also to the public and elected representatives. This necessitates a more open style of functioning and responsiveness to public needs and concerns.
  • Participatory Approach: Democracies encourage citizen participation in governance. Civil servants need to engage with various stakeholders, including the public, NGOs, and other community organizations, to understand and address the needs and concerns of different segments of society.

Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) and Civil Service

The establishment of Panchayati Raj institutions (PRIs) marks a significant trend in the decentralization of power in a democracy. This system brings governance closer to the grassroots level, allowing for more localized and participatory decision-making.

  • Decentralization of Functions: With the establishment of PRIs, many functions traditionally handled by the central or state-level civil service are transferred to these local bodies. This includes responsibilities in areas like agriculture, health, education, sanitation, and local infrastructure.
  • Changing Role of Civil Servants: The role of civil servants changes from being direct administrators to facilitators and advisors. They provide guidance and support to PRIs, ensuring that local governance is effective and in line with broader national policies.
  • Capacity Building: There is a need for training and capacity building, both for the elected representatives of the PRIs and the civil servants who are now required to work in a decentralized and participatory framework. This involves understanding local governance, participatory planning processes, and financial management at the grassroots level.
  • Challenges in Integration: Integrating PRIs into the traditional bureaucratic framework can be challenging. Civil servants must adjust to a role where they support and facilitate local governance rather than control it. This requires a change in mindset and working style, from a top-down approach to a more collaborative and bottom-up approach.
  • Enhanced Accountability: PRIs bring governance closer to the people, thereby enhancing the accountability of both elected representatives and civil servants. This proximity to the grassroots also enables better monitoring and evaluation of government programs and policies.
  • Local-Level Planning and Implementation: Civil servants assist PRIs in local-level planning, taking into account the specific needs and priorities of local communities. This localized approach is crucial for the effective implementation of development projects and services.

 Additional Information

  • The establishment of Panchayati Raj institutions in a democracy signifies a shift towards more decentralized and participatory governance.
  • For the civil service, this transition involves adapting to a role that supports and empowers local governance structures, necessitating changes in their functioning, style, and approach to ensure that the democratic objectives of responsiveness, accountability, and inclusiveness are met.

Question 158

'The Paradoxical Prime Minister: Narendra Modi And His India' is a book authored by:

  1. AOption (a)

    Rajdeep Sardesai

  2. BOption (b)

    Rahul Gandhi 

  3. COption (c)

    Burkha Dutt

  4. DOption (d)

    Shashi Tharoor 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Shashi Tharoor 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Shashi Tharoor 

Explanation: "The Paradoxical Prime Minister: Narendra Modi And His India" is a book authored by Shashi Tharoor, an Indian politician, writer, and former international diplomat. Published in 2018, this book offers a detailed and critical examination of Narendra Modi, the Prime Minister of India, and his tenure.

Key Points

Here's a more detailed explanation of the book:

  • Author's Background: Shashi Tharoor is a member of the Indian National Congress and a Member of Parliament in India. He has been an under-secretary-general at the United Nations and is known for his eloquence and deep understanding of Indian and international affairs. His background in diplomacy and politics gives him a unique perspective on Narendra Modi's leadership and policies.
  • Focus on Narendra Modi: Narendra Modi, a leader of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP), has been a significant and polarizing figure in Indian politics. His tenure as Prime Minister, starting from 2014, has been marked by substantial economic, social, and foreign policy initiatives. The book delves into Modi's journey from being the Chief Minister of Gujarat to becoming the Prime Minister of India.
  • Analysis of Policies and Governance: Tharoor critically examines the policies and governance style of Modi, addressing various aspects such as economic reforms, foreign policy, internal security, and social issues. He discusses the impact of major initiatives like demonetization, the implementation of the Goods and Services Tax (GST), and other economic policies.
  • Examination of Modi's Personality and Leadership Style: The book also explores Modi's personality, his public image, and his leadership style. Tharoor describes Modi as a paradoxical figure, often highlighting the contrast between his promises and the reality of their implementation, and between his public image and governance outcomes.
  • Critical Perspective: Tharoor's analysis is often critical and highlights what he perceives as discrepancies and issues in Modi's administration. The book raises questions about the inclusivity of Modi's policies and his approach towards India's diverse population.
  • Contextual Understanding of Indian Politics: The book provides a broader context of Indian politics, helping readers understand the political landscape in which Modi's leadership has evolved. It covers historical and contemporary political scenarios, offering insights into the complexities of Indian governance.
  • Reception: The book has received attention for its thorough analysis and critical perspective. However, opinions on the book are divided, reflecting the polarizing views on Modi's leadership itself. Supporters of Modi often criticize the book for being biased, while critics of Modi find it to be an insightful analysis of his tenure.

 Additional Information

  • Overall, "The Paradoxical Prime Minister: Narendra Modi And His India" serves as a significant contribution to the political literature on contemporary India, providing an in-depth look at one of the most influential and talked-about leaders in India's recent history.
  • It's a valuable read for anyone interested in Indian politics, Modi's leadership, and the socio-political dynamics of the country.

Question 159

Which of the following is the correct importance of social movement?

I. To increase production in the factories and industries.

II. To oppose the ‘present’ political regime

III. To establish the system which they consider ‘ideal’ and perfect capable to resolve the problems of society

  1. AOption (a)

    Both I and III are correct

  2. BOption (b)

    Only I is correct

  3. COption (c)

    I, II and III

  4. DOption (d)

    Both II and III are correct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both II and III are correct

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both II and III are correct

Explanation: The importance of social movements lies in their capacity to challenge existing political regimes and advocate for systems they consider ideal for resolving societal issues.

Key Points

1. Opposing the 'Present' Political Regime

  • Agent of Change: Social movements often arise in response to perceived injustices or failures within the current political system. They serve as an important mechanism for change, especially in societies where conventional channels of political participation are ineffective or inaccessible to a portion of the population.
  • Voice for the Marginalized: These movements can give a voice to marginalized or underrepresented groups, highlighting issues that might be overlooked or ignored within the political mainstream.
  • Public Awareness and Education: By raising awareness about specific issues, social movements can educate the public and shift the societal discourse. This can lead to a broader understanding and, potentially, a transformation in public opinion.
  • Accountability and Transparency: They can hold political regimes accountable for their actions. This is particularly crucial in cases where governmental institutions might be corrupt, unresponsive, or authoritarian.
  • Innovation in Policy and Governance: Movements can introduce new ideas and perspectives into the political realm, driving innovation in policy and governance. They often propose alternative solutions to complex social problems that the existing political system hasn't addressed effectively.

2. Establishing an 'Ideal' System

  • Vision of a Better Society: Social movements are often driven by a vision of a better society. This vision is usually based on ideals such as justice, equality, freedom, or sustainability, and provides a roadmap for the kind of societal transformation they wish to achieve.
  • Proposing Systemic Changes: Unlike political parties that might seek to work within the existing system, many social movements aim to overhaul the system itself. They propose fundamental changes in how societies are organized, governed, and function.
  • Experimentation and Social Innovation: In their pursuit of an ideal system, social movements can become laboratories for social experimentation. They often pilot new social, economic, and political models on a smaller scale, which, if successful, can be adopted more broadly.
  • Empowerment and Participation: By engaging people in the process of societal change, social movements empower individuals and communities. This participatory approach can lead to a more engaged and informed citizenry, which is essential for any healthy democracy.
  • Long-Term Impact: While the immediate goals of a social movement might be specific and localized, the long-term impact can be substantial, leading to significant shifts in societal values, norms, and policies.

 Additional Information

  • Social movements play a crucial role in both challenging the status quo and in constructing a vision of an alternative, often more equitable and just, societal order. They are not merely reactive forces; they are proactive agents of change.
  • By pushing the boundaries of political and social possibilities, they can catalyze profound transformations in society.

Question 160

Which among the following is the author of the book ‘System and Process in International Politics’?

  1. AOption (a)

    Gordon Anderson

  2. BOption (b)

    Morton Kaplan

  3. COption (c)

    Suson Eaton

  4. DOption (d)

    David Easton

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Morton Kaplan

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Morton Kaplan

Explanation: Morton Kaplan's "System and Process in International Politics" is a seminal work in the field of international relations, particularly within the theoretical framework of systems theory. Published in 1957, this book is one of the pioneering texts that applied the concepts of systems analysis and scientific methodology to the study of international politics.

Key Points

Content Overview

  • Systems Theory Application: Kaplan's work is notable for its application of systems theory to international relations. Systems theory, derived from biology and engineering, views political entities as parts of a larger, interconnected system. This approach was innovative in political science at the time.
  • International Political Systems: The book categorizes various international political systems. Kaplan identified six basic types of international systems, which he called 'world orders'. These include the balance of power system, loose bipolar system, tight bipolar system, universal international system, hierarchical international system, and unit veto international system.
  • Rules and Roles: Kaplan argued that each system is defined by its set of rules and the roles played by different states within the system. These rules and roles determine how states interact with each other and how the system changes over time.
  • Predictive Analysis: An important aspect of Kaplan's approach is the emphasis on predictive analysis. He believed that by understanding the rules governing the behavior of states within different systems, it would be possible to predict their actions and the outcomes of international interactions.
  • Stability and Change: The book also explores the concepts of stability and change in international systems. Kaplan discusses how systems maintain their stability and what factors lead to their transformation or collapse.

Impact and Criticism

  • Influence on International Relations Theory: Kaplan's work significantly influenced the study of international relations, particularly in the adoption of a more scientific and systematic approach. It paved the way for further development in theory and methodology within the field.
  • Methodological Innovations: The book is credited with introducing a more rigorous, formal methodology to the study of international politics, moving away from the traditional historical and descriptive approaches.
  • Critiques: Despite its influence, Kaplan’s work has been criticized on several grounds. Critics argue that the rigid categorization of international systems oversimplifies the complexity of international relations. Others point out that the predictive capability of his systems theory is limited, given the unpredictable nature of international politics.
  • Legacy: Despite these criticisms, Kaplan's book remains a foundational text in international relations theory. It is particularly noted for its contribution to the scientific study of international politics and for initiating a debate on the applicability of systems theory in this field.

 Additional Information

  • "System and Process in International Politics" thus represents a crucial turning point in the study of international relations, marking a shift towards a more systematic and analytical approach, even as it remains a subject of debate and discussion for its methodology and theoretical assumptions.

Discipline 4 (20 questions)

Question 161

Apartheid is related to which country? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Italy

  2. BOption (b)

    India

  3. COption (c)

    France

  4. DOption (d)

    South Africa 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

South Africa 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is South Africa 

Explanation: Apartheid was a system of institutionalized racial segregation and discrimination that took place in South Africa from 1948 until the early 1990s. It was characterized by an overtly racist political and social system designed to keep the country's white minority in power over the non-white majority.

Historical Context

  • Colonial Era: South Africa's history of racial divisions started during the colonial era with the Dutch and British rule, which established social and legal distinctions between races.
  • Union of South Africa (1910): The formation of the Union of South Africa laid the groundwork for later apartheid laws by establishing institutionalized racial discrimination.

Implementation of Apartheid

National Party's Rise to Power (1948): Apartheid became official government policy when the National Party, dominated by Afrikaners (descendants of Dutch settlers), came to power.

Legislation: They enacted a series of laws that segregated communities and restricted the movements of non-white South Africans. Some key laws included:

  • The Population Registration Act (1950), which classified people into racial groups.
  • The Group Areas Act (1950), which segregated residential and business areas.
  • The Immorality Act (1950) and the Prohibition of Mixed Marriages Act (1949), which made marriages and sexual relations between races illegal.
  • The Bantu Education Act (1953), which enforced racially separate educational facilities.
  • Pass Laws, which controlled the movement of non-white South Africans.

Resistance and International Reaction

  • Internal Resistance: Groups like the African National Congress (ANC) and the Pan Africanist Congress (PAC) led resistance movements. Key figures like Nelson Mandela and Desmond Tutu became symbols of the anti-apartheid struggle.
  • International Reaction: Initially, the international community did little to oppose apartheid. However, as awareness grew, many countries imposed sanctions and embargoes on South Africa.

End of Apartheid

  • Reform Initiatives: In the 1980s, the apartheid regime faced increasing internal and external pressure. President P.W. Botha began to implement some reforms, but they were largely seen as insufficient.
  • F.W. de Klerk's Presidency: De Klerk, who became president in 1989, took more decisive steps to dismantle apartheid, including releasing Nelson Mandela from prison in 1990.
  • Negotiations: Subsequent negotiations between the ANC, the National Party, and other political groups led to the drafting of a new constitution.
  • 1994 Democratic Elections: South Africa held its first democratic elections in 1994, in which Nelson Mandela was elected as the first black president, officially marking the end of apartheid.

 Additional Information

  • Apartheid left a deep and lasting impact on South African society. The country continues to grapple with significant racial, economic, and social disparities. Efforts to reconcile and rebuild include the Truth and Reconciliation Commission, established to uncover human rights abuses during apartheid and promote healing.

Question 162

The book “Transnational Relations and World Politics” is written by

  1. AOption (a)

    Mathew Evangelista

  2. BOption (b)

    Robert O. Keohane

  3. COption (c)

    Riddel-Dixon 

  4. DOption (d)

    Kegley Jr. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Robert O. Keohane

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Robert O. Keohane

Explanation: "Transnational Relations and World Politics," written by Robert O. Keohane along with co-author Joseph S. Nye, is a significant work in the field of international relations. First published in 1972, this book played a crucial role in developing the theory of transnationalism and its impact on world politics.

 Key Points

  • Transnational Relations: The book's primary focus is on transnational relations, which are defined as the interactions that cross state boundaries but do not originate with state governments. These include activities of multinational corporations, non-governmental organizations, and even individuals.
  • Interdependence: Keohane and Nye introduce the concept of interdependence in international relations. They argue that states are not the only important actors in international politics, and the connections between societies can be as crucial as the relations between governments.
  • Complex Interdependence: This idea is further developed into what they call "complex interdependence," which challenges the traditional realist view that military and security issues are the most important aspects of international relations. In a world of complex interdependence, economic and environmental issues, among others, can be just as significant.
  • Non-state Actors: The book emphasizes the role of non-state actors in international relations, suggesting that these entities can have a substantial influence on world politics, independent of, or in conjunction with state actors.
  • Power Dynamics: Keohane and Nye explore how power dynamics in international relations are altered under conditions of transnational interdependence. They argue that military might is not the only form of power; economic and soft power can also play crucial roles.

Impact and Relevance

  • Theory Development: This work contributed significantly to the development of liberal theories of international relations, especially in highlighting the roles of non-state actors and the multi-dimensional nature of power.
  • Policy Implications: The insights provided by Keohane and Nye have implications for how countries formulate foreign policy, especially in recognizing the importance of economic and environmental ties and the influence of multinational corporations and international organizations.
  • Relevance in Contemporary Politics: The concepts introduced in this book remain relevant in understanding current global issues, such as globalization, climate change, and the influence of international institutions.

Criticisms

  • Underestimation of State Power: Critics argue that Keohane and Nye might underestimate the continuing significance of states and traditional security concerns in international relations.
  • Ambiguity in Concepts: Some scholars feel that the definitions of key concepts like "complex interdependence" are too broad or vague, making them difficult to apply uniformly in analytical frameworks.

 Additional Information

  • "Transnational Relations and World Politics" by Keohane and Nye is a foundational text in the field of international relations, especially in understanding the dynamics of non-state actors and the interconnected nature of modern global politics.
  • Its concepts and theories continue to influence the way scholars and policymakers view and analyze international relations.

Question 163

Which of the following is not correct regarding treaties of nuclear explosions?

  1. AOption (a)

    The 1963 Partial Test Ban Treaty

  2. BOption (b)

    The 1972 Threshold Test Ban Treaty

  3. COption (c)

    The 1976 Peaceful Nuclear Explosions Treaty

  4. DOption (d)

    The 1996 Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The 1972 Threshold Test Ban Treaty

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The 1972 Threshold Test Ban Treaty.

Explanation: The treaties you've mentioned are significant in the context of nuclear non-proliferation and disarmament efforts. Each of these treaties aimed to restrict or eliminate nuclear tests, reflecting growing international concern over the environmental and geopolitical consequences of such tests.

Key Points

1963 Partial Test Ban Treaty (PTBT)

Background and Purpose:

  • The PTBT, also known as the Limited Test Ban Treaty, was signed in the wake of heightened Cold War tensions and public concern over radioactive fallout from atmospheric nuclear tests.
  • The main purpose was to prohibit nuclear weapons tests in the atmosphere, in outer space, and under water, thus eliminating the most visible and dangerous aspect of nuclear testing – radioactive fallout. This was seen as a step toward limiting the nuclear arms race and promoting disarmament.

Key Provisions:

  • Prohibition of nuclear explosions in the atmosphere, in outer space, and under water.
  • No nuclear explosions for any purpose other than peaceful purposes in these environments.
  • It does not prohibit underground nuclear testing as long as such tests do not cause radioactive debris to be present outside the territorial limits of the state under whose jurisdiction or control such explosion is conducted.

Significance:

  • It was a major step towards controlling the nuclear arms race and the first international treaty to address the issue of nuclear testing.
  • The treaty represented a move towards cooperation between the USA, USSR, and the UK, the primary nuclear powers at the time.

1976 Peaceful Nuclear Explosions Treaty (PNET)

Background and Purpose:

  • The PNET, also known as the Treaty on Underground Nuclear Explosions for Peaceful Purposes, was an agreement between the United States and the Soviet Union.
  • The purpose was to allow for the use of nuclear explosions for non-military, 'peaceful' applications, like creating reservoirs or other large-scale earth-moving projects, while ensuring such use did not contribute to nuclear weapons proliferation.

Key Provisions:

  • Allowed the use of nuclear explosions for peaceful purposes but placed restrictions on the yield of such explosions and the level of seismic activity they could generate.
  • Included verification measures to ensure compliance with the terms of the treaty.
  • Aimed to differentiate between military and non-military uses of nuclear explosions.

Significance:

  • It reflected a unique aspect of Cold War-era nuclear policy, where nuclear technology was seen as having potential for both destructive and constructive purposes.
  • The treaty was ultimately not very successful in promoting nuclear explosions for peaceful purposes, as the environmental impact and the risk of nuclear proliferation led to a decline in such projects.

1996 Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT)

Background and Purpose:

  • The CTBT was a response to the continued development of nuclear weapons despite earlier treaties. It was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly.
  • Its purpose is to ban all nuclear explosions, for both military and civilian purposes, worldwide.

Key Provisions:

  • Prohibits all nuclear weapon test explosions and any other nuclear explosion in any environment.
  • Includes a verification regime to monitor compliance, involving seismic, hydroacoustic, infrasound, and radionuclide sensors.
  • Requires a specific number of ratifications, including from nuclear-armed states, to enter into force; as of my last update, it had not yet entered into force due to not being ratified by all key states.

Significance:

  • Represents the most comprehensive effort to date to eliminate nuclear testing, seen as a crucial step toward global nuclear disarmament.
  • The treaty's verification mechanisms are a significant advance in international monitoring and verification capabilities.
  • Each of these treaties reflects different stages in the international community's ongoing efforts to control and eventually eliminate nuclear weapons, addressing both the environmental impacts of nuclear testing and the broader goal of nuclear non-proliferation.

Question 164

Terrorists are trained in one country to operate in more than one country is called -

  1. Cross Border Terrorism
  2. International Terrorism
  1. AOption (a)

    Only 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Both 1 and 2

  3. COption (c)

    Only 1

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only 2.

Explanation: International terrorism refers to terrorist activities that are foreign-based or -sponsored and transcend national boundaries in terms of the methods used, the people they are intended to coerce or intimidate, or the locale in which perpetrators operate or seek asylum.

 Key Points

  • Cross-Border Operations: International terrorists often operate across national borders. They might plan and train in one country and carry out attacks in another. This global operational footprint distinguishes them from domestic terrorists, who generally confine their activities within their home country.
  • Global Networks: These terrorists usually have a network that spans multiple countries. These networks can provide support in terms of logistics, funding, recruitment, and propaganda.
  • Political Objectives: The motives of international terrorists are often rooted in political objectives. They may seek to change government policies, overthrow governments, or create political unrest on a global scale.
  • Sophistication and Tactics: International terrorist groups often demonstrate a high level of sophistication in their operations. They may employ advanced technology, intelligence gathering, and complex planning. Tactics can include bombings, assassinations, kidnappings, hijackings, and cyber-attacks.
  • Funding and Resources: These groups might have diverse and substantial funding sources, including state sponsorship, criminal activities like drug trafficking, kidnappings for ransom, and donations from sympathizers.
  • Recruitment and Training: Recruitment for international terrorism can be global, often leveraging online platforms to attract individuals from different countries. Training camps may be located in remote areas, and recruits might receive training in various combat tactics, bomb-making, and subterfuge.
  • State Sponsorship: Some international terrorist groups are supported by states that provide funding, weapons, and training, often using these groups as proxies to achieve geopolitical objectives.
  • Impact and Response: The impact of international terrorism is profound, affecting international relations, global security, and economies. The response to international terrorism often requires coordinated efforts by multiple nations, including intelligence sharing, joint military operations, diplomatic efforts, and legal actions.
  • Legal and Ethical Challenges: Combatting international terrorism presents complex legal and ethical challenges. Issues such as the definition of terrorism, the treatment of terrorist suspects, and the balance between security and civil liberties are debated globally.
  • Psychological Impact: The psychological impact of international terrorism extends beyond the immediate victims. It aims to instill fear and uncertainty in a wider population, influencing public opinion and government policies.

Examples

  • Al-Qaeda: Known for the September 11 attacks in the United States, Al-Qaeda operates as a network of Islamic extremists and Salafist jihadists.
  • ISIS (Islamic State of Iraq and Syria): This group has conducted numerous attacks across different continents and has attracted fighters from various countries.
  • Irish Republican Army (IRA): Although primarily operating in the United Kingdom, the IRA received support and resources from various international sympathizers during its active years.

 Additional Information

  • International terrorism is a complex and evolving threat. It requires a nuanced understanding of the geopolitical, social, and ideological factors that fuel it. Efforts to combat it involve a mix of military, intelligence, diplomatic, and legal strategies, often coordinated across multiple countries.

Question 165

The term “refugee” as defined by the United Nations Convention Relating of 1951 is any person who -

  1. was a victim of events in Europe occurring before 1 January 1951.
  2. was outside the country of his origin (home country of which he is a national)
  3. could not go back to his home country of origin due to a well founded fear of persecution
  1. AOption (a)

    Only 2 and 3

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 1 and 2

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 1 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1, 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

**Explanation:**The definition of a "refugee" as per the United Nations Convention Relating to the Status of Refugees of 1951 is quite specific and historically contextual. This definition was crafted in the aftermath of World War II and initially focused on European refugees.

Key Points

  • Victim of Events in Europe Occurring Before 1 January 1951: This part of the definition was very much a product of its time, reflecting the immediate post-World War II context. The Convention was originally limited to protecting European refugees affected by the events of World War II. This temporal and geographic limitation was indicative of the immediate concerns of the post-war period, particularly the displacement of millions of people in Europe as a result of the war and its aftermath.
  • Outside the Country of His Origin (Home Country of Which He is a National): This aspect of the definition stipulates that to be considered a refugee, an individual must be outside the country of their nationality. This is a key criterion that distinguishes refugees from internally displaced persons (IDPs) who are displaced within their own country. The need to cross an international border is critical in the legal definition of a refugee. It reflects the understanding that refugees are people who have fled their country because they are at risk and need protection that their own country cannot or will not provide.
  • Well-Founded Fear of Persecution: The concept of a "well-founded fear of persecution" is central to the definition of a refugee. Persecution can be based on various grounds, including race, religion, nationality, membership in a particular social group, or political opinion. The fear of persecution must be well-founded, meaning that it is not just subjective fear but is also supported by an objective situation. This part of the definition acknowledges that people flee their countries not just due to war or general violence, but because they face a real threat due to who they are or what they believe.
  • The 1951 Refugee Convention, initially designed in response to specific historical circumstances, has since evolved. The 1967 Protocol removed the time and geographic limitations, making the definition more universally applicable. This broader scope allows the Convention to protect people displaced by a variety of conflicts and crises, not just those in Europe or those occurring before 1951.

 Additional Information

  • Today, the definition of a refugee as per the 1951 Convention and its 1967 Protocol remains a cornerstone of international refugee law, providing the framework for the protection and rights of millions of displaced people worldwide.

Question 166

Which of the following shows the Impact of Science and Technology on Military Affairs?

I. Long range missiles, aircraft and submarines have reduced the significance of physical location as a determinant of the vulnerability of a nation.

II. It provides a striking demonstration of the effort of changes in military technology on international relations.

III. It increases the friendship between two nations.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both II and III are correct

  2. BOption (b)

    Both I and III are correct

  3. COption (c)

    Both I and II are correct 

  4. DOption (d)

    I, II and III

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both I and II are correct 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both I and II are correct.

Explanation: The impact of science and technology on military affairs has been profound and multifaceted, fundamentally altering the landscape of international relations and the nature of warfare.

Key PointsThe points you've mentioned highlight two key aspects of this impact:

I . Reduction in the Significance of Physical Location

  • Long-range missiles, aircraft, and submarines have greatly diminished the protective advantage that geographical features such as oceans, mountains, and distances once provided. In the past, nations could rely on their remote locations or natural barriers to deter potential aggressors. However, the advent of advanced military technologies has changed this:
  • Long-range missiles can strike targets thousands of kilometers away with high precision, bypassing traditional defenses and geographical obstacles.
  • Aircraft, especially stealth fighters and bombers, can penetrate deep into enemy territory, rendering vast distances and geographical barriers less relevant.
  • Submarines, particularly those armed with nuclear missiles, can covertly position themselves near coastal regions of any country, posing a significant threat from even the most remote locations.

These technologies mean that virtually no nation is impervious to external military threats, regardless of its geographical location, making global security more interconnected and complex.

II. Impact on International Relations

The evolution of military technology has profound implications for international relations, influencing diplomacy, power dynamics, and global security structures:

  • Strategic Balance: The development and deployment of advanced military technologies can alter the strategic balance between nations, leading to shifts in alliances and power structures. For instance, a country that acquires a significant advantage in one of these technologies can gain a deterrent capability that influences the behavior of other states.
  • Arms Races: The pursuit of technological superiority can lead to arms races, where competing nations invest heavily in developing and acquiring advanced weapons systems. This not only escalates tensions but also diverts resources from social and economic development.
  • Deterrence and Diplomacy: Advanced military capabilities, such as nuclear-armed submarines and long-range missiles, play a critical role in deterrence strategies. They can deter potential adversaries from taking aggressive actions but also complicate diplomacy by raising the stakes of conflict.
  • Asymmetric Warfare and Non-State Actors: The proliferation of technology has also enabled smaller states and non-state actors to access powerful military capabilities, leading to asymmetric warfare where traditional military power might be less effective.

 Additional Information

  • The advancements in science and technology have transformed military affairs, making the physical location less of a security guarantee and reshaping the international relations landscape by altering power dynamics, influencing diplomacy, and changing the nature of warfare. This complex interplay requires constant adaptation by nations and international bodies to address the evolving challenges and opportunities presented by technological advancements in the military domain.

Question 167

Which of the following is not correctly paired?

  1. AOption (a)

    The Lebanese Conflict – 1958

  2. BOption (b)

    The Congolese Conflict – 1968

  3. COption (c)

    Indo-Pak Conflict – 1965

  4. DOption (d)

    Suez Canal Crisis – 1956

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The Congolese Conflict – 1968

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The Congolese Conflict – 1968.

Explanation: These three conflicts are significant historical events that occurred in the mid-20th century, each involving different regions and geopolitical interests.

Key Points

Lebanese Conflict – 1958

  • The Lebanese Conflict of 1958 was a short-lived civil war in Lebanon, primarily a political and religious struggle between supporters of the Western-backed Lebanese government and opposition forces, who were influenced by pan-Arabism and supported by Nasser's Egypt and the Soviet Union. The conflict was also fueled by religious tensions between Christians and Muslims in Lebanon. The United States intervened by landing Marines in Beirut to protect the pro-Western government, under the Eisenhower Doctrine, which aimed to limit Soviet expansion in the Middle East. The conflict ended later that year when a new President, Fuad Chehab, was elected, leading to a compromise that somewhat eased tensions.

Indo-Pak Conflict – 1965

  • The Indo-Pakistani War of 1965 was a culmination of skirmishes that took place between April 1965 and September 1965 between Pakistan and India. The conflict began following Pakistan's Operation Gibraltar, which was designed to infiltrate forces into Jammu and Kashmir to precipitate an insurgency against Indian rule. India retaliated by launching a full-scale military attack on West Pakistan. The seventeen-day war caused thousands of casualties on both sides and witnessed the largest engagement of armored vehicles and the largest tank battle since World War II. The war ended after a United Nations-mandated ceasefire was declared, following diplomatic intervention by the Soviet Union and the United States, and the subsequent issuance of the Tashkent Declaration.

Suez Canal Crisis – 1956

  • The Suez Canal Crisis, also known as the Tripartite Aggression in the Arab world and the Sinai War in Israel, was a diplomatic and military confrontation in late 1956 in Egypt. The crisis began after Egyptian President Gamal Abdel Nasser nationalized the Suez Canal, which had been controlled by British and French companies. This move was met with opposition from the United Kingdom, France, and Israel, leading to a joint military invasion by the latter two countries and subsequent occupation of the canal zone. The crisis highlighted the decline of British and French influence in the region and marked the emergence of Nasser as a leader of the Arab nationalism movement. The conflict ended when the United Nations intervened, leading to the withdrawal of invading forces and the return of the canal to Egyptian control, under UN supervision.

 Additional Information

  • Each of these conflicts had significant implications for international relations during the Cold War, reflecting the global tension between the Western bloc led by the United States and the Eastern bloc led by the Soviet Union, as well as the decolonization process and the rise of nationalist movements in the post-World War II period.

Question 168

Which of the following is not correct about Nuclear Non-Proliferation treaty? 

  1. AOption (a)

    The treaty divides the signatories into two categories: those who possess the nuclear weapons and those who did not.

  2. BOption (b)

    Earlier focus had mostly been on weapons systems, strategic parity and corresponding geostrategic considerations.

  3. COption (c)

    The NPT was the second step to the construction of an effective international regime designed to halt the proliferation of nuclear weapons after ABM treaty. 

  4. DOption (d)

    It commits the non-weapon states to inspection of their holdings of nuclear materials. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The NPT was the second step to the construction of an effective international regime designed to halt the proliferation of nuclear weapons after ABM treaty. 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The NPT was the second step to the construction of an effective international regime designed to halt the proliferation of nuclear weapons after ABM treaty. 

Explanation: The Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) is a cornerstone of global efforts to prevent the spread of nuclear weapons, promote disarmament, and facilitate the peaceful use of nuclear energy.

Key Points

Two categories of signatories

  • The NPT indeed divides its signatories into two main categories: nuclear-weapon states (NWS) and non-nuclear-weapon states (NNWS). The NPT recognizes five nuclear-weapon states: the United States, Russia (formerly the Soviet Union), the United Kingdom, France, and China. These are the same states that are recognized as nuclear-weapon states by the Treaty's terms, as they had manufactured and exploded a nuclear weapon or other nuclear explosive device before January 1, 1967. All other signatories are considered non-nuclear-weapon states and are committed under the Treaty to forgo the development, acquisition, or control of nuclear weapons.

Focus on weapons systems and strategic considerations

  • Prior to the NPT, and during the early years of the nuclear age, international discussions and treaties often focused on controlling and managing the arms race, particularly between the United States and the Soviet Union. This included negotiations on weapons systems, strategic parity (balance of power), and the broader geostrategic considerations of the Cold War. The NPT represented a shift in focus towards preventing the proliferation of nuclear weapons beyond the original nuclear powers, addressing not just the weapons themselves but also the materials and technology that could be used to develop them.

Inspection of nuclear materials in non-weapon states

  • One of the key provisions of the NPT is the commitment of non-nuclear-weapon states to accept safeguards, as set forth by the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA), on all nuclear materials within their territories or under their control. These safeguards are designed to verify that NNWS are not diverting nuclear materials from peaceful uses to nuclear weapons or other nuclear explosive devices. The safeguards include a range of measures, such as inspections, monitoring, and the verification of reports provided by states on their holdings and use of nuclear material. This system of safeguards is a critical component of the NPT's efforts to prevent the spread of nuclear weapons while allowing for the peaceful use of nuclear technology.

 Additional Information

  • Overall, the NPT aims to create a balanced approach to preventing the proliferation of nuclear weapons, promoting disarmament, and facilitating the peaceful use of nuclear energy, with different responsibilities and commitments for nuclear-weapon and non-nuclear-weapon states.

Question 169

About China, who had once said: “It is a sleeping giant, let it sleep for if it wakes it would shake the world”?

  1. AOption (a)

    Lord Litton

  2. BOption (b)

    Jawaharlal Nehru

  3. COption (c)

    Napoleon

  4. DOption (d)

    Alexander I. Czar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Napoleon

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Napoleon.

Explanation: The quote attributed to Napoleon Bonaparte, "China is a sleeping giant. Let her sleep, for when she wakes she will move the world," reflects the perception of China as a dormant but potentially powerful force in global affairs.

Key Points

  • The "sleeping giant" metaphor suggests that China, due to its large population, rich cultural heritage, and significant resources, has an inherent potential to exert a major influence globally. However, at the time the quote is purported to have been made, China was relatively inward-looking and not as engaged in international affairs as it is today.
  • The notion of "letting it sleep" implies a strategy of non-interference or avoiding actions that might provoke China into asserting its power more aggressively. The warning that waking the giant "would shake the world" acknowledges the transformative impact China could have on global politics, economics, and military balances once it fully mobilizes its capacities.

 

 Additional InformationOver time, particularly in the late 20th and early 21st centuries, China has indeed "awakened" in a sense, with rapid economic growth, extensive modernization, and an increasingly assertive foreign policy. This transformation has led to significant shifts in global trade, diplomacy, and power dynamics, aligning with the foresight attributed to Napoleon's quote.

Question 170

To look at international relations not from the viewpoint of nation states but from the perspective of the security of the individual is known as

  1. AOption (a)

    Human benefits

  2. BOption (b)

    Human Rights

  3. COption (c)

    Human Duties

  4. DOption (d)

    Human threat

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Human Rights

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Human Rights.

Explanation: The concept is more aligned with "Human Security" rather than "Human Rights," although both are closely related. Human Rights typically refer to the inalienable fundamental rights to which a person is inherently entitled simply because she or he is a human being, regardless of their nationality, location, language, religion, ethnic origin, or any other status. These rights include the right to life and liberty, freedom from slavery and torture, freedom of opinion and expression, the right to work and education, among others, and are enshrined in international laws, treaties, and agreements.

 Key Points

  • On the other hand, Human Security is a concept that shifts the focus of security from nation-states to individuals. It emerged in the post-Cold War era, recognizing that traditional concepts of security, which are state-centric and often focused on military threats, do not adequately address the complex web of threats and vulnerabilities faced by individuals and communities.
  • Human Security encompasses a wide range of concerns including economic security, food security, health security, environmental security, personal security, community security, and political security. By prioritizing the security of individuals, the Human Security approach aims to protect people from critical and pervasive threats, empowering them to take charge of their own lives.
  • Human Security and Human Rights are interlinked; the fulfillment of human rights is a critical component of Human Security. Ensuring the rights of individuals is fundamental to achieving freedom from fear and freedom from want, which are key aspects of Human Security. Both concepts advocate for a people-centered approach to security and development, emphasizing the importance of protecting and empowering the most vulnerable individuals and communities.

Question 171

Which of the following is correct regarding People’s Liberation Army of China?

  1. The PLA was formed in the year 1927.
  2. The name PLA was given to it after the Japanese attacked China in 1937.
  3. Zhu De and Mao Zedong were the main founders of PLA.
  1. AOption (a)

    Only 2 and 3

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 1 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    Only 1 and 2 

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only 1 and 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1, and 3 .

Explanation: These statements about the People's Liberation Army (PLA) of China have elements of historical accuracy.

 Key Points

  • The PLA was formed in the year 1927: This is accurate. The PLA, initially known as the Chinese Workers' and Peasants' Red Army, was established during the Nanchang Uprising on August 1, 1927. This date is celebrated as the founding day of the PLA.
  • **The name PLA was given to it after the Japanese attacked China in 1937:**The name "People's Liberation Army" was not given after the Japanese attacked China in 1937. The name was adopted later, but it was not specifically tied to the Japanese invasion. Prior to that, the army was known as the Red Army during the Chinese Civil War, which continued to evolve in name and function over the years.
  • Zhu De and Mao Zedong were the main founders of PLA: Zhu De and Mao Zedong are considered key figures in the founding and early development of the PLA. Zhu De was a prominent military leader, and Mao Zedong provided ideological guidance and leadership, particularly during the Long March and the establishment of revolutionary bases in rural China.

 Additional Information

These points touch upon significant historical events and figures related to the PLA's formation and evolution.

Question 172

Which one of the following is incorrect with regards to the Concept of the selfdetermination?

  1. AOption (a)

    It is obvious that the concept, along with that of nationalism played a significant role in the process of de-colonisation.

  2. BOption (b)

     Freedom to the colonies mark the end of the role of the principle of Self-determination

  3. COption (c)

    The concept of Self-determination makes no provision for identifying the bases for defining the territorial limits. 

  4. DOption (d)

    It is the application of the principle of Self-determination within multi-cultural societies that is most complex.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

 Freedom to the colonies mark the end of the role of the principle of Self-determination

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  Freedom to the colonies mark the end of the role of the principle of Self-determination.

Explanation: The concept of self-determination has played a significant role in various historical and geopolitical contexts, including the process of decolonization, the establishment of national boundaries, and the governance of multi-cultural societies.

 Key Points

  • Role in Decolonization: The assertion that the concept of self-determination, along with nationalism, played a significant role in the process of decolonization is accurate. Following World War I and World War II, the principle of self-determination became a part of international discourse, notably through the efforts of figures such as U.S. President Woodrow Wilson and later through the establishment of the United Nations. It was used as a guiding principle for the reconfiguration of nations and territories, leading to the end of imperial and colonial rule in many parts of Asia, Africa, and the Middle East. The concept empowered colonized peoples to aspire for and achieve independence based on their distinct national identities.
  • Territorial Limits: The observation that the concept of self-determination does not explicitly provide mechanisms for defining territorial limits is also correct. While self-determination emphasizes the right of peoples to determine their own political status and pursue their economic, social, and cultural development, it does not offer a clear framework for drawing national boundaries. This has often led to disputes and conflicts, especially in regions where borders established by colonial powers did not align with ethnic, cultural, or historical divisions. The lack of clear guidelines for determining the territorial scope of self-determination can lead to secessionist movements and territorial disputes.
  • Complexity in Multi-Cultural Societies: The application of self-determination within multi-cultural or multi-ethnic societies is indeed complex. In these contexts, different groups within a single state may have distinct identities, languages, and cultural practices, and may seek greater autonomy or even independence. The principle of self-determination can therefore lead to tensions between the desire for national unity and the aspirations of distinct groups within the nation. Balancing these interests requires careful governance, respect for minority rights, and often, the establishment of federal or autonomous structures to accommodate diversity. In multi-cultural societies, the challenge lies in ensuring that the exercise of self-determination by one group does not infringe on the rights and freedoms of others.

 Additional Information

  • Overall, while the concept of self-determination has been instrumental in shaping the modern world order and in advancing the rights of peoples and nations, its application raises complex issues that require nuanced and context-specific approaches.

Question 173

Which of the following is not the elements of the UN Activities in the area of selfdetermination?

  1. AOption (a)

    Racial equality in South Africa and Rhodesia

  2. BOption (b)

     De-Colonialism

  3. COption (c)

    Military action to free Goa from the Portuguese Rule

  4. DOption (d)

    Trusteeship System

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Military action to free Goa from the Portuguese Rule

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Military action to free Goa from the Portuguese Rule.

Explanaytion: The United Nations (UN) has played a significant role in promoting self-determination around the world through various activities and frameworks. These efforts are aimed at ensuring that all peoples have the right to freely determine their political status and freely pursue their economic, social, and cultural development. Key elements of the UN's activities in this area include:

 Key PointsRacial Equality in South Africa and Rhodesia (now Zimbabwe):

  • South Africa: The UN's involvement in South Africa was primarily focused on opposing the apartheid regime, a system of institutionalized racial segregation and discrimination. The UN General Assembly and the Security Council condemned apartheid, imposed sanctions, and worked to isolate the regime internationally. The UN also supported efforts to end apartheid and transition to a system of majority rule, which was eventually achieved with the election of Nelson Mandela in 1994.
  • Rhodesia: In the case of Rhodesia, the UN was involved in addressing the unilateral declaration of independence by the white minority government in 1965, which was not recognized by the international community. The UN imposed sanctions and supported negotiations that led to the Lancaster House Agreement in 1979, paving the way for free elections and the establishment of Zimbabwe in 1980.

De-Colonialism:

  • The UN has played a crucial role in the process of decolonization, which gained momentum after World War II. The establishment of the UN Special Committee on Decolonization (also known as the Committee of 24) in 1961 was a significant step. The Committee oversees the implementation of the Declaration on the Granting of Independence to Colonial Countries and Peoples, adopted by the General Assembly in 1960. The declaration affirmed the right of all peoples to self-determination and called for an end to colonialism in all its forms. The work of the Committee has contributed to the transition of many territories to self-governance or independence.

Trusteeship System:

  • The Trusteeship System was established under the UN Charter to oversee the administration of territories placed under trusteeship as a step towards self-governance or independence. These territories were previously governed by League of Nations mandates or were detached from enemy states after World War II. The Trusteeship Council, one of the UN's main organs, was tasked with ensuring that the administering authorities respected the political, economic, social, and educational advancement of the inhabitants of these territories. The ultimate goal was to prepare them for self-government or independence. The success of the Trusteeship System is evident in the fact that all of the trust territories have now attained self-government or independence, with Palau, the last trust territory, becoming independent in 1994.

 Additional Information

  • These elements highlight the UN's comprehensive approach to promoting self-determination, which encompasses political, economic, and social dimensions. Through these activities, the UN has sought to facilitate the transition of territories and peoples from colonial or oppressive regimes to independent and self-governing entities, in accordance with the principles of the UN Charter and international law.

Question 174

Which of the following is not one of the defensive alliances formed by the capitalist or free market nations post the second world war? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Warsaw Pact

  2. BOption (b)

    SEATO

  3. COption (c)

    CENTO

  4. DOption (d)

    NATO

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Warsaw Pact

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Warsaw Pact.

Explanation: Post-World War II, several defensive alliances were formed by capitalist or free-market nations to counter the spread of communism and to ensure collective security. Among these, the most notable are:

 Key Points

  • NATO (North Atlantic Treaty Organization): Established on April 4, 1949, NATO is a military alliance that was initially formed by 12 countries from North America and Europe. The organization was created in response to the threat posed by the Soviet Union and aimed to provide collective defense whereby an armed attack against one or more of its members would be considered an attack against all. NATO has since expanded to include 30 member countries, serving as a principal security structure for the Western world during the Cold War and continuing its mission into the post-Cold War era.
  • SEATO (Southeast Asia Treaty Organization): Founded on September 8, 1954, as a result of the Manila Pact, SEATO was a collective defense organization aimed at preventing communism from gaining ground in Southeast Asia. Its members included the United States, France, the United Kingdom, New Zealand, Australia, the Philippines, Thailand, and Pakistan (representing its interests in Southeast Asia). SEATO was less successful than NATO in forming a strong and cohesive military alliance, and it was disbanded in 1977.
  • CENTO (Central Treaty Organization): Initially formed as the Baghdad Pact in 1955, CENTO was a mutual defense pact between the UK, Turkey, Iran, Pakistan, and Iraq. The United States was a key supporter, though not a full member. The alliance was aimed at countering the Soviet threat in the Middle East. CENTO struggled with internal conflicts among its members and the changing political landscape of the region, particularly after the 1958 Iraqi revolution led to Iraq's withdrawal. The organization effectively dissolved in 1979 following the Iranian Revolution.

 Additional Information

  • These alliances reflected the global division during the Cold War era, where nations aligned either with the Western bloc led by the United States and its NATO allies or with the Eastern bloc led by the Soviet Union. The primary goal was to deter aggression and prevent the expansion of communist influence worldwide.

Question 175

Which of the following pair is not correctly matched about formation year of organisation?

  1. AOption (a)

    United Nation (UN) - 1945

  2. BOption (b)

    International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR) - 1966

  3. COption (c)

    International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR) - 1956

  4. DOption (d)

    Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) - 1948

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR) - 1956

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR) - 1956.

Explanation: The pairs are correctly matched regarding the formation year of each organization and the adoption year of the agreements.

 Key Points

  • United Nations (UN) - 1945: The United Nations was officially established on October 24, 1945, after the ratification of the UN Charter by the five permanent members of the Security Council - France, the Republic of China, the Soviet Union, the United Kingdom, and the United States - and a majority of other signatories. The formation of the UN was a response to the need for a new international system of governance to prevent conflicts and foster international cooperation, especially in the aftermath of World War II.
  • International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR) - 1966: The ICCPR is a key international human rights treaty, providing a range of protections for civil and political rights. It was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly on December 16, 1966, and came into force on March 23, 1976, after it was ratified by a sufficient number of countries. The ICCPR, along with the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR) and the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR), form the International Bill of Human Rights.
  • Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) - 1948: The UDHR was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly on December 10, 1948. It was the first global expression of rights to which all human beings are inherently entitled. Although the UDHR is not a treaty and does not have the force of international law, it has been extremely influential in the development and implementation of human rights law and principles around the world.

 Additional Information

  • Each of these milestones marks a significant development in the field of international law and human rights, reflecting the global community's efforts to establish norms and institutions to promote peace, justice, and human dignity.

Question 176

Which of the following is not true about the Idealist school of philosophy in India?

  1. Kautilya was an advocate of idealist school of philosophy.
  2. The Upanishads give us the basis of the theory of non-violence which becomes the basis of idealist tradition.
  3. This idealist method had its limitations as India discovered to its cost during the action in Goa in 1961, the Chinese invasion in 1962, and the Pakistani aggressions of 1965, 1971 and 1999.
  1. AOption (a)

    Only 3

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 1

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only 1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only 1.

Explanation: The Idealist school of philosophy in India is deeply rooted in the spiritual and philosophical teachings of the Upanishads, which are ancient texts that form a core part of Indian spiritual literature. These texts delve into the nature of reality, the self, and the ultimate principle of the universe (Brahman), and they often emphasize the interconnectedness of all beings and the importance of non-violence (Ahimsa) as a fundamental value.

 Key Points1. Basis of Non-Violence: The Upanishads contribute to the basis of the theory of non-violence by advocating for the unity of all existence and the recognition of the self in others. This principle of seeing oneself in others and the emphasis on spiritual progress and enlightenment nurtures a culture of non-violence, as harming another being would be equivalent to harming oneself. This non-violent approach is central to the Idealist tradition in Indian philosophy, which later influenced various movements, most notably the Indian independence movement led by Mahatma Gandhi.

2. Idealist Method and Its Limitations: The idealist approach, with its emphasis on non-violence and moral high ground, has faced challenges when confronted with real-world geopolitical conflicts. The episodes mentioned—the action in Goa in 1961, the Chinese invasion in 1962, and the Pakistani aggressions of 1965, 1971, and 1999—highlight the limitations of applying idealist principles in the face of aggression.

  • Goa in 1961: India's action in Goa to end Portuguese colonial rule was relatively swift and involved military intervention. While India's broader philosophy was inclined towards non-violence, this instance showed a pragmatic approach to achieving political and territorial objectives.
  • Chinese Invasion in 1962: The Chinese invasion presented a significant challenge to India's idealist stance. The lack of preparation and the assumption that diplomatic and moral principles would prevent aggression led to a humiliating defeat for India. This event was a stark realization that idealism must be balanced with pragmatism, especially in international relations and border security.
  • Pakistani Aggressions: The wars with Pakistan in 1965, 1971 (which led to the creation of Bangladesh), and the Kargil conflict in 1999 further tested India's adherence to idealist principles. Each conflict required India to undertake military action to defend its sovereignty and protect its citizens, indicating the complexity of adhering strictly to idealist principles in the face of direct threats.

 Additional Information

  • These events illustrate the tension between idealist philosophical principles and the practical necessities of statecraft, particularly in matters of national security and defense. While the idealist tradition offers a valuable ethical and philosophical framework, these instances underscore the need for a pragmatic approach to address real-world challenges that may not align with idealist principles. The balance between maintaining ethical high ground and ensuring national security remains a complex and nuanced issue for any state, including India.

Question 177

Which of the following is not the major cause of Inequality among nations?

  1. AOption (a)

    Uneven International Economic System.

  2. BOption (b)

    Trade among developed and developing nations. 

  3. COption (c)

    Emerging Labour Markets and Skill Differentials.

  4. DOption (d)

    The power game in international politics.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Trade among developed and developing nations. 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Trade among developed and developing nations. 

Explanation: The causes of inequality among nations are complex and multifaceted, encompassing economic, political, and social dimensions. Let's delve into each of the points you mentioned:

Key Points

Uneven International Economic System:

  • The global economic system is characterized by significant disparities in wealth, resources, and power between developed and developing countries. This inequality is often perpetuated by the existing structure of international trade, investment, and finance, which tends to favor wealthier nations. For example, wealthier nations often have more influence in international economic institutions like the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank, which can shape economic policies and priorities in ways that may not always align with the needs of less developed countries.
  • Additionally, trade policies and agreements can sometimes disadvantage poorer countries by making it difficult for them to compete on equal terms in global markets. This can lead to a situation where wealth accumulates in already wealthy countries, exacerbating global inequality.

Emerging Labour Markets and Skill Differentials:

  • Globalization has led to the emergence of new labor markets and a reshaping of global production chains. While this has created economic opportunities in some developing countries, it has also led to increased competition and a race to the bottom in terms of labor standards and wages in some sectors.
  • Skill differentials also play a significant role in inequality among nations. Countries with a higher proportion of skilled labor are often able to leverage this to attract higher-value industries and services, leading to greater economic growth and prosperity. In contrast, countries with less access to education and skill development may find themselves locked into lower-value economic activities, perpetuating a cycle of poverty and inequality.

The Power Game in International Politics:

  • International politics often reflect the interests of the most powerful nations, which can shape global policies and decisions in ways that maintain or exacerbate existing inequalities. For example, powerful countries can exert influence over global governance institutions, security alliances, and economic partnerships, often prioritizing their national interests.
  • This power dynamic can also manifest in less direct ways, such as through the spread of cultural norms and values that reinforce the dominance of certain nations or through the imposition of economic sanctions and other measures that can disproportionately impact less powerful countries.

 Additional Information

  • Inequality among nations is driven by a combination of economic systems that perpetuate wealth disparities, labor market dynamics that favor skilled over unskilled workers, and political power structures that reflect the interests of the most powerful countries.
  • Addressing these inequalities requires concerted efforts at both national and international levels, including reforms to make the global economic system more equitable, investments in education and skill development to reduce labor market disparities, and changes to the international political system to ensure a more balanced representation of nations' interests.

Question 178

In which of the following year Shimla Agreement was signed between India and Pakistan?

  1. AOption (a)

    1972

  2. BOption (b)

    1965

  3. COption (c)

    1991

  4. DOption (d)

    1971

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1972

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1972.

Explanation:  The Shimla Agreement between India and Pakistan was signed in the year 1972.

 Key Points

  • This agreement was a significant diplomatic effort towards the normalization of relations between the two countries following the Bangladesh Liberation War and the Indo-Pakistani War of 1971.
  • The agreement was signed by the then Prime Minister of India, Indira Gandhi, and the President of Pakistan, Zulfikar Ali Bhutto, on July 2, 1972, in Shimla, the capital city of the Indian state of Himachal Pradesh.
  • The Shimla Agreement aimed to lay down the principles that should govern their future relations and also to work towards the peaceful resolution of the Kashmir issue.
  • One of the key aspects of the agreement was the mutual commitment to not use force in resolving their differences and to settle their disputes through bilateral negotiations.
  • The agreement also led to the release of prisoners of war and the withdrawal of troops to their respective territories, establishing the Line of Control in Kashmir as more than just a ceasefire line but as a de facto border between the two nations.

Question 179

Consider the following about the early foreign policy of India towards Tibet:

  1. In continuation of the policy of Indo-Chinese friendship, India signed the SinoTibetan Agreement on May 23, 1951, which sealed Tibet’s fate permanently.
  2. In 1954 Nehru had conceded the Chinese claim over Tibet by accepting its suzerainty over it, when India signed an agreement for trade with the “Tibetan region of China.”
  3. To pacify the Chinese, Nehru concluded the Panchsheel (Five Principles) Agreement with Chou En-lai in 1954, based on the principles of mutual respect for territorial integrity and sovereignty, non-aggression, non-interference in internal affairs, equality and peaceful coexistence.

Choose the correct from the following code:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 1

  3. COption (c)

    Only 3

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1, 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Explanation: The statements provided reflect aspects of India's early foreign policy towards Tibet.

Key Points

  • Sino Tibetan Agreement on May 23, 1951: The agreement referred to is actually the "Seventeen Point Agreement" or the "Agreement of the Central People's Government and the Local Government of Tibet on Measures for the Peaceful Liberation of Tibet." This agreement was signed between representatives of the Dalai Lama (Tibet's spiritual leader) and the Central People's Government of the newly established People's Republic of China. India was not a signatory to this agreement. The agreement effectively established Chinese control over Tibet, but it was controversial and disputed, particularly by the Tibetan government in exile, which considers it to have been signed under duress.
  • In 1954, India and China did sign an agreement known as the "Agreement on Trade and Intercourse between the Tibet Region of China and India," which acknowledged the "Tibetan region of China," thereby implicitly recognizing Chinese sovereignty over Tibet. This was a significant shift in India's stance, as it moved from acknowledging Tibet as an autonomous entity to recognizing it as part of China. This can be seen as a concession by Nehru to Chinese claims over Tibet, although the term "suzerainty" might not be the most accurate to describe the situation; "sovereignty" would be more appropriate in this context.
  • The Panchsheel Agreement, formally known as the "Five Principles of Peaceful Coexistence," was indeed signed by India and China in 1954, and Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru and Premier Zhou Enlai played key roles in its development. The principles outlined in the agreement included mutual respect for each other's territorial integrity and sovereignty, mutual non-aggression, mutual non-interference in each other's internal affairs, equality and mutual benefit, and peaceful co-existence. The Panchsheel Agreement was initially seen as a foundational document for peaceful relations between the two nations, including their approach towards Tibet. However, the spirit of Panchsheel was later put to the test during the Sino-Indian border conflict in 1962, which significantly strained Sino-Indian relations.

 Additional Information

  • Overall, these points reflect the complexities of India's early foreign policy towards Tibet and China, which involved a series of diplomatic efforts aimed at maintaining peace and friendship but also involved significant concessions that have been subject to criticism and debate over the years.

Question 180

Who strongly said that “Man is a Political Animal”?

  1. AOption (a)

    Socrates

  2. BOption (b)

    Chanakya

  3. COption (c)

    Plato

  4. DOption (d)

    Aristotle

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Aristotle

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Aristotle.

Explanation: The phrase "Man is a Political Animal" is famously attributed to the ancient Greek philosopher Aristotle. He articulated this idea in his work "Politics," where he explores the nature of human communities and the role of politics in human life.

Key Points

  • Aristotle's assertion implies that humans are inherently social beings who naturally form communities and are intrinsically involved in political life. According to him, the state (polis) arises out of the basic needs of life, and it exists for the sake of the good life. For Aristotle, living in a society and participating in political life is essential for human beings to achieve their fullest potential and to lead a good life. This is because, within a political community, individuals can engage in moral and intellectual virtues, which are key to achieving eudaimonia, or flourishing.
  • In essence, Aristotle believed that political engagement is not just an aspect of human life but is central to our nature and well-being, making politics an essential field of human inquiry and activity.

Discipline 5 (20 questions)

Question 181

As human person becomes more and more conscious of himself as human – as an individual and as a social being - 

  1. AOption (a)

    he/she becomes more conscious of his/her first principles and of his/her rights and duties as a human person

  2. BOption (b)

    he/she becomes more conscious of his/her moral consciousness and of his/her rights and duties as a human person

  3. COption (c)

    he/she becomes more conscious of his/her human moral precepts and of his/her rights and duties as a human person

  4. DOption (d)

    he/she becomes more conscious of his/her human inter-relatedness and of his/her rights and duties as a human person

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

he/she becomes more conscious of his/her human inter-relatedness and of his/her rights and duties as a human person

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is he/she becomes more conscious of his/her human inter-relatedness and of his/her rights and duties as a human person.

Explanation: The statement shared touches on the concept of human self-awareness and its impact on social consciousness and ethical responsibilities. As individuals become more conscious of themselves as human beings, both in terms of individual identity and as members of a social collective, several key developments occur:

Key Points

  • Increased Self-Reflection: An enhanced awareness of oneself as a unique individual fosters greater introspection. People start to consider their own thoughts, emotions, and actions more critically, which can lead to a deeper understanding of their personal values, goals, and the roles they play within their communities.
  • Recognition of Common Humanity: As individuals recognize their own complexities and nuances, they are more likely to acknowledge the same in others. This recognition of shared humanity can lead to greater empathy and understanding across diverse groups, fostering a sense of solidarity and common purpose.
  • Awareness of Interconnectedness: With greater self-awareness comes an understanding of how deeply interconnected individuals are with each other. This can relate to everything from emotional bonds and shared experiences to economic, environmental, and societal interdependencies. Recognizing these connections can motivate individuals to act in ways that are considerate of the broader impact on their community and the world.
  • Understanding of Rights and Responsibilities: As people become more conscious of their own value as human beings, they also become more attuned to the rights that protect their dignity and freedoms. Concurrently, they recognize their duties to respect and uphold the rights of others. This dual awareness is the foundation of social and ethical norms that guide behavior and interactions within societies.
  • Engagement in Social and Political Life: With an increased understanding of individual and collective rights and responsibilities, individuals are more likely to engage in civic activities. This can range from participating in community service to advocating for social justice, aiming to contribute positively to society and to shape policies and practices that reflect shared values and ethical principles.
  • Moral and Ethical Development: As individuals become more aware of their interconnectedness and their roles within larger communities, they are likely to experience growth in their moral and ethical understanding. This involves developing a nuanced sense of right and wrong that considers the well-being of others and the collective good, alongside personal interests.

 Additional Information

  • As individuals become more conscious of themselves as human beings, both individually and as part of a collective, they naturally develop a deeper sense of empathy, responsibility, and ethical engagement with the world around them. This heightened consciousness can lead to more compassionate, ethical, and cooperative societies.

Question 182

Who among the following said, “'The state represents violence in concentrated and organised form. The individual has a soul but the state is a soulless machine; it can never wean from violence to which it owes its very existence.”?

  1. AOption (a)

    Herald Laski 

  2. BOption (b)

    BR Ambedkar

  3. COption (c)

    Karl Marx

  4. DOption (d)

    M.K. Gandhi 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

M.K. Gandhi 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is M.K. Gandhi.

Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi's view on the state and violence reflects his deep commitment to nonviolence and his skepticism about the role of the state in society. He believed that the state, by its very nature, is a mechanism of power that relies on coercion and force to maintain order and implement its policies. According to Gandhi, this inherent reliance on violence conflicts with the moral and spiritual values that guide individual conduct.

Key Points

  • Gandhi's philosophy of nonviolence, or "Ahimsa," was central to his political and ethical beliefs. He argued that true change and social justice could only be achieved through nonviolent means, as violence only perpetuates more violence and does not address the root causes of conflict. His critique of the state as a "soulless machine" highlights his belief that institutions of power often lack the moral and ethical considerations that guide individual behavior, leading to actions that may be efficient or effective from a governance perspective but are morally questionable.
  • This perspective influenced Gandhi's approach to political activism and leadership, particularly in the context of India's struggle for independence from British colonial rule. He advocated for civil disobedience and nonviolent resistance as means to challenge unjust laws and policies, emphasizing the power of collective action grounded in moral principles to bring about social and political change.

 Additional Information

  • Gandhi's critique of the state and his emphasis on nonviolence have had a lasting impact on political thought and movements for social justice around the world, inspiring leaders and activists who seek to address injustice through peaceful and ethical means.

Question 183

What is the immediate ontological foundation of the moral order?

  1. AOption (a)

    Moral precepts

  2. BOption (b)

    Human interrelatedness

  3. COption (c)

    Love

  4. DOption (d)

    Salient moments

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Human interrelatedness

Why this answer is correct

the correct answer is Human interrelatedness.

Explanation: The statement "the immediate ontological foundation of the moral order is human interrelatedness" suggests that the very basis or essence (ontology) of moral principles and values is deeply rooted in the connections and relationships between human beings. This perspective emphasizes the importance of human interactions and the social fabric in shaping what is considered moral or ethical. Here's a breakdown of this concept:

 Key Points

  • Ontological Foundation: Ontology deals with the nature of being, existence, or reality. An "ontological foundation" refers to the fundamental essence or underlying reality of something. In this case, it's about the essential nature of the moral order, or the core principles that determine right from wrong, good from bad.
  • Moral Order: The "moral order" refers to the set of moral principles, ethics, or values that govern behaviors and actions within a society or community. It's an understanding or agreement of what is considered morally right and wrong, which guides individuals' actions and societal norms.
  • Human Interrelatedness: This term emphasizes the interconnectedness and relationships among human beings. It suggests that human beings do not exist in isolation but are fundamentally linked to one another through social, familial, cultural, and other forms of relationships.

By stating that human interrelatedness is the ontological foundation of the moral order, the claim is that our understanding of morality is inherently tied to our social nature and the interactions we have with others. This perspective aligns with various ethical theories that prioritize social relations, empathy, and community, such as:

  • Communitarianism: This ethical philosophy emphasizes the importance of community and the social context in shaping individuals' values, beliefs, and moral judgments.
  • Relational Ethics: This approach focuses on relationships and the ethical responsibilities that arise from our connections with others. It suggests that moral decisions cannot be made in isolation but must consider the impact on and obligations to other people.
  • Social Contract Theory: This theory posits that the moral and political obligations of individuals are based upon a contract or agreement among them to form the society in which they live.

 Additional Information

  • This view argues that our moral sensibilities, judgments, and ethical frameworks are not just personal or individualistic but are deeply influenced and constituted by our interactions, relationships, and the broader social context in which we exist.

Question 184

Karel Vasak has sought to classify the historical development of human rights according to the French revolutionary slogan - 

  1. AOption (a)

    Justice, Liberty and Equality

  2. BOption (b)

    Liberty, Equality and Fraternity

  3. COption (c)

    Liberty, Equality and Secular

  4. DOption (d)

    Sovereign, Socialist and Secular

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Liberty, Equality and Fraternity

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Liberty, Equality and Fraternity.

Explanation: Karel Vasak, a Czech-French legal scholar, is known for his significant contribution to the field of human rights. He proposed a categorization of human rights that aligns with the three key values heralded by the French Revolution: Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity. This classification offers a structured way to understand the evolution and scope of human rights over time.

 Key Points

  • First Generation - Rights of Liberty: These are civil and political rights that protect individuals from excesses of the state. These rights are centered around the concept of "Liberty" and are designed to ensure personal freedom and safeguard individual liberties. Examples include the right to life, freedom of speech, freedom of religion, and the right to a fair trial. These rights are primarily negative in nature, requiring non-interference from the state or other entities.
  • Second Generation - Rights of Equality: These are economic, social, and cultural rights that emerged as a response to the demands for a more equitable society, particularly after the Industrial Revolution. Centered around the concept of "Equality," these rights aim to ensure that all individuals have access to certain basic needs and protections, such as the right to work, the right to education, the right to health, and the right to an adequate standard of living. Unlike the first generation, these rights are often positive, requiring state action to fulfill and provide these benefits.
  • Third Generation - Rights of Fraternity: These are collective or solidarity rights that go beyond individual rights and focus on the well-being of large groups or humanity as a whole. Inspired by the notion of "Fraternity," these rights include the right to a healthy environment, the right to development, and the right to peace. These rights recognize that some issues are so global and interconnected that they cannot be effectively addressed by focusing solely on individuals; they require collective efforts and international cooperation.

 Additional Information

  • Vasak's classification helps in understanding the historical development and the broad categorization of human rights, reflecting their evolving nature in response to social, economic, and political changes over time. This framework is instrumental in both academic analyses and practical policy-making, as it provides a structured approach to addressing the multifaceted nature of human rights issues.

Question 185

In the 1860s, the USA witnessed a civil war between the northern and the southern states on which of the following issue?

  1. AOption (a)

    Gun control laws

  2. BOption (b)

    Abolition of slavery

  3. COption (c)

    Secession 

  4. DOption (d)

    Rights of women 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Abolition of slavery

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Abolition of slavery.

Explanation: The American Civil War, which lasted from 1861 to 1865, was a pivotal conflict in United States history that primarily centered on the issues of slavery and states' rights. The war was fought between the Northern states, known as the Union, and the Southern states that seceded from the Union to form the Confederate States of America.

Key Points

  • The root of the conflict was deeply intertwined with the institution of slavery, particularly its expansion into newly acquired territories and states. The North, where slavery was largely abolished, opposed its expansion, arguing that it was morally wrong and should not spread to new territories. The South, heavily reliant on an agrarian economy supported by slave labor, viewed slavery as essential to its economic interests and cultural identity. The Southern states also championed the notion of states' rights, arguing that each state should have the authority to determine whether it allowed slavery.
  • The immediate catalyst for the war was the election of Abraham Lincoln as President of the United States in 1860. Lincoln was a member of the Republican Party, which opposed the expansion of slavery into new territories. His election led to the secession of seven Southern states, who felt their interests would no longer be protected under his administration. Four more states joined them after the conflict began at Fort Sumter in April 1861.
  • The war itself was marked by significant battles, such as Gettysburg and Antietam, and notable campaigns like Sherman's March to the Sea. It was the deadliest war in American history, resulting in the loss of an estimated 620,000 soldiers and an unknown number of civilian casualties.

Additional Information 

  • The Union's victory in April 1865 led to the preservation of the United States as a single nation and ended the institution of slavery in the country. The Thirteenth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution, ratified in December 1865, formally abolished slavery throughout the United States. The Civil War also set the stage for the Reconstruction era, a complex and tumultuous period aimed at rebuilding the South and integrating formerly enslaved people into American society.

Question 186

Which of the following observed that “During the emergency the executive, for its political ends, has used the police”?

  1. AOption (a)

    Shah Commission

  2. BOption (b)

    National Police Commission

  3. COption (c)

    Ribeiro Committee 

  4. DOption (d)

    Malimath Committee

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Shah Commission

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Shah Commission.

Explanation: The Shah Commission, officially known as the Commission of Inquiry into the Emergency, was established by the Indian government in 1977 to investigate the excesses committed during the Emergency period in India, which lasted from 25 June 1975 to 21 March 1977. The Emergency was declared by then Prime Minister Indira Gandhi, citing internal disturbances, and it allowed her to rule by decree, suspend elections, and curtail civil liberties, including freedom of the press.

Key Points

  • The observation by the Shah Commission that "During the emergency the executive, for its political ends, has used the police" refers to the ways in which the government, during the Emergency period, employed the police and other law enforcement agencies as tools to implement its political agenda. This included arresting political opponents, suppressing dissent, and enforcing controversial policies like compulsory sterilization and clearance of slum areas, often referred to as the "Turkman Gate incident" where a Muslim-dominated slum was cleared in Delhi.
  • The use of the police and other governmental powers in this manner led to widespread abuses of human rights and the suppression of lawful political activity, which the Shah Commission sought to document and highlight in its findings. The commission's report was a comprehensive account of the Emergency period's abuses, and it played a significant role in the restoration of democratic processes in India post-Emergency. The report led to widespread criticism of those in power during the Emergency and contributed to the eventual political changes that saw the defeat of Indira Gandhi in the subsequent elections.

Question 187

Who among the following gave the Structural Framework Approach?

  1. AOption (a)

    Max Weber

  2. BOption (b)

    William Mitchell

  3. COption (c)

    Gabriel Almond 

  4. DOption (d)

    Talcott Parsons 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Gabriel Almond 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Gabriel Almond.

Explanation: Gabriel Almond's Structural-Functional Approach, also known as the Structural Framework Approach, is a methodology used in political science and comparative politics to analyze and compare the structures and functions of political systems. Almond, a prominent political scientist, introduced this approach to help scholars understand how different political systems operate, regardless of their cultural or historical contexts.

 Key Points

  • The Structural-Functional Approach breaks down political systems into their constituent structures (institutions like legislatures, bureaucracies, courts, etc.) and analyzes the functions these structures perform (such as interest articulation, interest aggregation, policy-making, implementation, and adjudication). This approach allows for the comparison of political systems by examining how different structures in various countries perform similar functions, offering insights into the effectiveness, stability, and adaptability of those systems.
  • Almond's framework was innovative because it provided a way to compare political systems using a common set of criteria, making it possible to analyze non-Western and less formal political systems within the same theoretical framework as Western democracies. It also emphasized the importance of both structures (institutional arrangements) and functions (roles and activities necessary for the political system's survival) in understanding political systems.
  • One of the key contributions of the Structural-Functional Approach is its focus on the processes through which political demands are converted into authoritative policies and decisions. This includes the analysis of political culture, inputs and outputs in the political system, and the role of feedback mechanisms in shaping policy and political change.

 Additional Information

  • Despite its contributions, the Structural-Functional Approach has faced criticism for being overly descriptive and not sufficiently explanatory or predictive. Critics argue that it focuses too much on stability and equilibrium, potentially overlooking social change and conflict. Additionally, the approach has been criticized for its assumption that all political systems aim to perform similar functions, which may not account for the unique goals and contexts of different societies.

Question 188

Hyperglobalist define globalisation as which among the following?

  1. AOption (a)

    A new epoch of history in which traditional nation-states have become 'unnatural, even impossible business units in a global economy'.

  2. BOption (b)

    Globalisation is 'transforming' the world and see it as a driving force behind the rapid social, political and economic changes that are reshaping modern societies and a world order. 

  3. COption (c)

    The forces of globalisation are themselves dependent upon the regulatory power of national governments to make states globalise, liberalise and privatise 

  4. DOption (d)

    A new form of Imperialism, they see it as an extension of the neo-liberal conservative policies practiced by the advanced western countries to put their own economies in order as well as overcome global depression following the oil crisis of the 1970s and 80s. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A new epoch of history in which traditional nation-states have become 'unnatural, even impossible business units in a global economy'.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A new epoch of history in which traditional nation-states have become 'unnatural, even impossible business units in a global economy'.

Explanation: The hyperglobalist perspective on globalization posits that we are entering an era where traditional nation-states are becoming less relevant and less capable as standalone entities in the global economy. According to this view, the rapid acceleration of global economic integration, driven by advances in technology, communication, and transportation, has led to an interconnected world where borders are increasingly porous and economic activities are not confined to national boundaries.

Key Points

  • From the hyperglobalist standpoint, globalization is not just a phase or a trend but a new epoch in human history—characterized by the flow of capital, goods, services, and information across borders at an unprecedented scale. This global economic interdependence means that companies, industries, and economies are no longer tied to or as dependent on their home countries as they once were. Instead, they operate within a global framework, seeking efficiency, markets, and resources on a worldwide scale.
  • The assertion that nation-states have become "unnatural, even impossible business units" reflects the idea that the traditional functions and controls of the nation-state—such as regulating the economy, controlling borders, and managing economic policy—are increasingly challenged by global forces. Multinational corporations, international institutions, and transnational networks can sometimes wield more influence on economic matters than individual governments can.

 Additional Information

  • The hyperglobalist perspective argues that globalization has fundamentally altered the economic landscape, making the concept of a self-contained national economy obsolete. Economic activities and their impacts are now so widespread and interlinked globally that attempting to manage them solely within the traditional framework of a nation-state is seen as ineffective or impractical. This perspective often advocates for greater international cooperation and governance mechanisms to manage global economic issues more effectively.

Question 189

Which of the following theories is credited to have changed the apologetic view of capitalism into a pragmatic one?

  1. AOption (a)

    Competitive Market Advantage Theory

  2. BOption (b)

    Labour Theory of Value

  3. COption (c)

    Comparative Cost Advantage Theory

  4. DOption (d)

    General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money. 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money

Explanation: The theory credited with changing the apologetic view of capitalism into a more pragmatic one is the General Theory of Employment, Interest, and Money, which was developed by the British economist John Maynard Keynes. John Maynard Keynes, in his work "The General Theory of Employment, Interest, and Money," published in 1936, presented a new approach to economic theory.This theory marked a departure from classical economic thought, which generally believed in the self-regulating nature of markets. The General Theory was developed in the aftermath of the Great Depression, a period of severe economic downturn, high unemployment, and widespread economic distress.

 Key PointsKeynes aimed to provide an explanation for the persistence of high unemployment and economic slumps, challenging classical economic ideas that suggested markets would naturally return to equilibrium.

Key Contributions:

  • Aggregate Demand: Keynes emphasized the role of aggregate demand in determining the level of economic activity. He argued that insufficient demand could lead to prolonged periods of unemployment.
  • Role of Government: Unlike the classical view that advocated minimal government intervention, Keynes argued for active government involvement in managing the economy. This included fiscal policies like government spending to stimulate demand during economic downturns.
  • Importance of Monetary Policy: Keynes acknowledged the role of monetary policy but also stressed its limitations, particularly during periods of deep economic recession.

Pragmatic View of Capitalism:

  • Keynesian economics offered a pragmatic perspective on capitalism. It recognized that, under certain conditions, market economies could experience significant failures and prolonged periods of unemployment.
  • Rather than viewing capitalism apologetically, Keynesian economics advocated for a more nuanced understanding, acknowledging the need for interventions to stabilize the economy.

Impact:

  • Keynesian economics had a profound impact on economic policy, especially in the post-World War II era. It influenced the development of welfare states and the adoption of policies aimed at maintaining full employment.

Additional Information

  • While Keynesian economics became widely accepted, it faced criticisms, particularly regarding inflation and the long-term effectiveness of certain policies.
  • Over time, variations of Keynesian thought, such as New Keynesian economics, have emerged, incorporating insights from both Keynesian and neoclassical perspectives.
  • In summary, the General Theory of Employment, Interest, and Money by John Maynard Keynes played a crucial role in changing the perception of capitalism. It shifted the focus from a purely apologetic view to a more pragmatic one, recognizing the need for government intervention to address economic challenges, particularly during periods of economic downturns.

Question 190

Which of the following is not paired correctly with regards to the theory of Origin of State? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Rousseau – Democratic State

  2. BOption (b)

    John Locke – Limited State

  3. COption (c)

    Frederick Engels – Product of Natural Social Development

  4. DOption (d)

    Thomas Hobbes – Omnipotent State

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Frederick Engels – Product of Natural Social Development

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Frederick Engels – Product of Natural Social Development.

Explantion: The philosophies of Rousseau, Locke, and Hobbes provide distinct visions of the state's role, each reflecting their views on human nature, rights, and the best form of governance.

Key Points

Rousseau – Democratic State

  • Jean-Jacques Rousseau, a Genevan philosopher writing in the 18th century, is best known for his work "The Social Contract," where he presents the idea of the general will and a state governed by the collective will of its citizens. Rousseau believed that humans are inherently good but become corrupted by society. In his view, a legitimate political order emerges from a social contract freely entered into by equal and independent individuals. Rousseau advocated for a form of direct democracy, where sovereignty does not lie in a ruling elite but in the general will of the people, reflecting the collective interests of all citizens. This democratic state is characterized by participatory decision-making processes where citizens have a direct role in legislative affairs.

John Locke – Limited State

  • John Locke, an English philosopher from the 17th century, laid the groundwork for liberal democracy in his works, particularly in "Two Treatises of Government." Locke believed in the inherent rights of individuals to life, liberty, and property. According to Locke, the state of nature is one of perfect freedom and equality, where individuals are bound by the law of nature, which dictates that no one should harm another in their life, health, liberty, or possessions. Locke's state is formed by a social contract to protect these natural rights. The government is limited and should function with the consent of the governed. If the government fails to protect these rights, citizens have the right to overthrow it. Locke's vision is of a constitutional government with a clear separation of powers, ensuring that the state's power is limited and used to protect individual rights.

Thomas Hobbes – Omnipotent State

  • Thomas Hobbes, an English philosopher writing in the mid-17th century, presents a contrasting view in his seminal work "Leviathan." Hobbes believed that the natural state of human beings is one of war "of every man against every man," where life is "solitary, poor, nasty, brutish, and short." To escape this state of nature, individuals enter into a social contract, surrendering their rights to an absolute sovereign in exchange for protection and order. This sovereign, or Leviathan, has unchecked authority to ensure peace and prevent the return to the state of nature. Hobbes' vision of the state is thus one of absolute power, where the sovereign's authority is unlimited to maintain peace and security.

 Additional Information

  • Each of these philosophers contributes to the understanding of the state's nature and purpose, reflecting different assumptions about human nature, the ideal relationship between the individual and the state, and the best form of governance to ensure peace, security, and liberty.

Question 191

What is the reason behind the human consciousness becoming moral?

(1) He/she has been continuously asking himself the question what he is?

(2) Because he becomes more aware of himself as a human person.

(3) Because the more human person becomes himself/herself the more he she becomes conscious of what he/she should be.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only (2)

  2. BOption (b)

    Only (1)

  3. COption (c)

    (1), (2) and (3) 

  4. DOption (d)

    Only (3) 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only (1)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only (1)

Explanation:

The concept of self-actualization, a psychological term that describes the process of realizing and fulfilling one's potential and capabilities. As individuals progress towards becoming their true selves, there is an inherent connection to moral development. The awareness of what one "should be" implies a recognition of moral values and ethical considerations.

Intrinsic Connection to Morality:

  • It emphasizes the inherent relationship between self-realization and moral consciousness. It suggests that as individuals unfold their true selves, they naturally become more aware of the moral principles that align with their authentic identity.

Personal Values and Ethics:

  • The phrase "becomes himself/herself" implies a journey of self-discovery and self-acceptance. During this process, individuals gain clarity about their personal values and ethics, contributing to an increased moral consciousness.

Alignment with Authentic Identity:

  • The concept of becoming oneself implies authenticity and aligning with one's true identity. In this alignment, individuals recognize and adopt moral principles that resonate with their genuine self.

Internal Reflection on Morality:

  • It suggests that the awareness of "what he/she should be" is an internal reflection on moral standards. It implies a conscious consideration of ethical guidelines that individuals feel compelled to follow as they embrace their true nature.

Question 192

“Legal relations as well as forms of state could neither be understood by themselves, nor explained by the so-called general progress of the human mind, but that they are rooted in the conditions of life." Who among the following said this?

  1. AOption (a)

    Irving Fisher

  2. BOption (b)

    Peter Kropotkin

  3. COption (c)

    Karl Marx

  4. DOption (d)

    John Maynard Keynes

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Karl Marx

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Karl Marx

Explanation:

Karl Marx (1818–1883) was a German philosopher, economist, sociologist, and political theorist who profoundly influenced the fields of economics, sociology, and political science. Born in Trier, Prussia, Marx is best known for co-authoring "The Communist Manifesto" (1848) with Friedrich Engels and his seminal work, "Das Kapital" (Capital), a critique of political economy. Marx's ideas laid the foundation for modern socialism and communism, emphasizing the role of socio-economic factors in shaping historical development. His influential concept of historical materialism explored how economic structures shape social institutions, and he critiqued capitalism for its inherent contradictions. 

Materialist Conception of History:

  • Karl Marx developed a materialist conception of history, arguing that the development of societies and their institutions, including legal and state structures, is fundamentally influenced by material and economic conditions.

Rejecting Idealism:

  • Marx rejected idealistic explanations that attribute social and legal developments solely to abstract ideas or the progress of the human mind. Instead, he emphasized the concrete material conditions of society as the driving force behind historical changes.

Rooted in Socio-Economic Conditions:

  • The phrase "rooted in the conditions of life" underscores Marx's belief that legal relations and forms of the state are deeply connected to the prevailing socio-economic conditions of a given society.

Influence on Marxist Thought:

  • This perspective has had a profound impact on Marxist thought, shaping the understanding of how legal systems and state structures serve the interests of specific economic classes and are shaped by the modes of production.

Historical Materialism:

  • Marx's approach, known as historical materialism, posits that the evolution of societies is driven by changes in the means of production, and legal and political institutions are reflections of these underlying economic structures.

Question 193

Which of the following was not the goal of the World Conference on Human Rights held at Vienna in 1993?

  1. AOption (a)

    Widely hoped co-ordination of efforts of the individual and nongovernmental organizations under the spearheading leadership of the UNO.

  2. BOption (b)

    . Establishment of equal validity for social and economic rights along with civil and political rights and the right to development.

  3. COption (c)

    Confirmation of universality of Human Right. 

  4. DOption (d)

    Expansion of the sphere of accountability of the sovereign state.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Widely hoped co-ordination of efforts of the individual and nongovernmental organizations under the spearheading leadership of the UNO.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Widely hoped co-ordination of efforts of the individual and non governmental organization under the spearheading leadership of the UNO.

Explanation

<br>

The World Conference on Human Rights held in Vienna in 1993 was a pivotal international gathering with a multifaceted agenda, encompassing a range of objectives aimed at addressing and advancing human rights globally. The comprehensive goals of the conference included:

Goal of the World Conference on Human Rights in Vienna (1993):

International Cooperation:

  • The Vienna Conference sought to enhance international cooperation and coordination in the promotion and protection of human rights.
  • Collaboration among individual activists, non-governmental organizations (NGOs), and international bodies was considered crucial for the advancement of human rights globally.

Role of Non-Governmental Organizations (NGOs):

  • Recognizing the significant role that NGOs play in advocating for human rights, the conference aimed to encourage and facilitate their active participation.
  • The involvement of NGOs was viewed as a means to bring diverse perspectives, grassroots experiences, and specialized expertise into the discourse on human rights.

Leadership of the United Nations (UN):

  • The phrase "under the spearheading leadership of the UNO" indicates that the conference aimed to establish the United Nations as a central coordinating authority for global human rights efforts.
  • The UN's leadership role involved fostering collaboration, setting international standards, and monitoring the implementation of human rights principles by member states.

Implementation of Universal Human Rights:

  • The conference aimed to reaffirm the universal nature of human rights and underscore the commitment of the international community to their implementation.
  • Emphasis was placed on addressing challenges, sharing best practices, and collectively working towards the realization of human rights for all.

 

In summary, the statement accurately represents one of the key goals of the World Conference on Human Rights in Vienna in 1993, which was to encourage widespread coordination among individuals, non-governmental organizations, and the United Nations in the pursuit of global human rights objectives.

Question 194

Ethics is the philosophical treatise which studies human behaviour and tries to determine what is right or wrong behaviour. It is also called?

  1. AOption (a)

    Moral philosophy

  2. BOption (b)

    Critical Ontology

  3. COption (c)

    Behavioural philosophy

  4. DOption (d)

    Empirical Knowledge

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Moral philosophy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Moral Philosophy

Explanation:

Ethics is a branch of philosophy that explores questions about morality, human behavior, and what is considered right or wrong. It is concerned with the study of principles guiding human conduct and the evaluation of actions in terms of their moral implications.

Moral Philosophy as Synonymous:

  • The term "Moral Philosophy" is often used interchangeably with "Ethics." Both phrases refer to the systematic examination of ethical principles, values, and concepts that guide human behavior.

Scope of Ethics/Moral Philosophy:

  • Ethics goes beyond simply describing human behavior; it involves critical analysis, justification, and the establishment of normative principles that guide individuals and societies in determining what constitutes morally acceptable or unacceptable conduct.

Normative Nature:

  • Ethics is normative in nature, meaning it prescribes norms or standards for how individuals should behave. It provides frameworks for assessing the morality of actions and decisions.

Key Questions in Ethics:

  • Ethical inquiries often revolve around fundamental questions such as:
  • What is the nature of good and evil?
  • How should one act in various situations?
  • What are the principles that underlie moral decision-making?

Ethical Theories:

  • Ethical philosophy includes various theories that offer different approaches to moral reasoning. Examples include consequentialism, deontology, virtue ethics, and existential ethics. These theories provide frameworks for evaluating actions based on different ethical principles.

Application in Different Fields:

  • Ethics extends its influence across various disciplines, including business ethics, medical ethics, environmental ethics, and legal ethics. Each field applies ethical principles to guide professional conduct.

Relation to Metaethics and Applied Ethics:

  • Metaethics explores the nature of ethical language, ethical ontology, and the foundations of ethical principles.
  • Applied ethics addresses specific moral issues in practical contexts, such as bioethics, environmental ethics, and business ethics.

Historical Perspectives:

  • Ethics has a rich history, with contributions from philosophers such as Aristotle, Immanuel Kant, John Stuart Mill, and many others. Different historical periods have witnessed the development and refinement of ethical theories.

Evolution and Contemporary Relevance:

  • Ethics continues to evolve, adapting to new challenges and societal changes. Contemporary ethical discussions encompass topics such as artificial intelligence ethics, global justice, and human rights.

In summary, ethics, also known as moral philosophy, is a broad and dynamic field within philosophy that systematically explores the principles guiding human behavior, evaluates actions in moral terms, and provides normative frameworks for ethical decision-making in various contexts.

Question 195

“The Study of the Problem of Discrimination against Indigenous Populations” was reported by? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Riddel-Dixon

  2. BOption (b)

    MA Conroy

  3. COption (c)

    Robert O. Keohane

  4. DOption (d)

    Jose R. Martinez

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Jose R. Martinez

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Jose R Martinez

Explanation:

"The Study of the Problem of Discrimination against Indigenous Populations" was reported by José R. Martínez. This study is notable for addressing and examining the pervasive issue of discrimination faced by Indigenous populations globally. José R. Martínez is associated with the study, and his work signifies a commitment to understanding and highlighting the challenges faced by Indigenous populations in various parts of the world. Here is a more comprehensive overview:

Focus of the Study:

  • The study centers on the multifaceted problem of discrimination against Indigenous populations. It delves into the various forms of discrimination, including social, economic, cultural, and political dimensions.

Importance of Addressing Discrimination:

  • Discrimination against Indigenous populations has long been a pressing human rights issue. This study underscores the importance of recognizing and addressing these forms of discrimination to promote inclusivity, equality, and respect for the rights of Indigenous communities.

Global Perspective:

  • Indigenous populations exist across the globe, and discrimination against them is not limited to any specific region. The study likely takes a global perspective, examining common patterns, as well as unique challenges faced by Indigenous groups in different parts of the world.

Social, Economic, and Cultural Aspects:

  • Discrimination often manifests in various aspects of life, including social interactions, economic opportunities, and the preservation of cultural heritage. The study likely explores how these dimensions intersect and contribute to the marginalization of Indigenous communities.

Human Rights and Indigenous Rights:

  • The study likely aligns with international human rights principles and Indigenous rights frameworks. It may advocate for the protection of the rights of Indigenous peoples as recognized in various international agreements and declarations.

Recommendations and Solutions:

  • A comprehensive study on discrimination against Indigenous populations would likely include recommendations and potential solutions to address these issues. This may involve policy changes, legal reforms, and societal initiatives aimed at combating discriminatio

Broader Context of Indigenous Rights Movements:

  • The study may be situated within the broader context of Indigenous rights movements and activism. It could draw attention to the efforts of Indigenous communities and their allies to challenge discrimination and advocate for their rights.

Connection to United Nations and Human Rights Bodies:

  • Given the emphasis on discrimination as a human rights issue, the study may be connected to the work of the United Nations and other human rights bodies. This connection could involve reporting on the status of Indigenous rights globally and suggesting ways to improve their protection.

In summary, José R. Martínez's report on "The Study of the Problem of Discrimination against Indigenous Populations" is likely a valuable contribution to understanding and addressing the complex challenges faced by Indigenous communities worldwide, with a focus on advocating for their rights and combating discrimination.

Question 196

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

  1. AOption (a)

    The Congress supported the United Front Government

  2. BOption (b)

    The Left supported the United Front Government

  3. COption (c)

    The United Front Government came to power in 1989

  4. DOption (d)

    The BJP did not support the United Front Government

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The United Front Government came to power in 1989

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The United Front Government came to power in 1989.

Explanation:

The statement "The United Front Government came to power in 1989" is incorrect. The United Front Government in India came into power after the general elections held in 1996. This coalition government was a result of a diverse group of regional and leftist parties joining forces. H.D. Deve Gowda assumed the position of Prime Minister initially, succeeded by I.K. Gujral. The period of the United Front Government, lasting from 1996 to 1998, was characterized by a policy focus on economic reforms, social justice, and regional development. Notably, the government aimed to address the diverse socio-economic challenges facing the country.

Key Points 

Background - 1989 Elections:

  • The 1989 elections witnessed the defeat of the Rajiv Gandhi-led Congress government, and a fragmented mandate prompted the formation of a coalition government known as the National Front.

United Front Formation - 1996:

  • The United Front, a coalition of several regional and leftist parties, came into existence following the general elections held in 1996.
  • The United Front formed a government, and H.D. Deve Gowda became the Prime Minister in June 1996.

Leadership Transition:

  • After H.D. Deve Gowda, I.K. Gujral assumed the position of Prime Minister in April 1997, continuing the coalition governance.

Policy Focus:

  • The United Front Government had a policy focus on economic reforms, social justice, and regional development during its tenure.

End of United Front Rule:

  • The United Front Government's rule came to an end in 1998 when it faced a vote of no confidence in the parliament. This led to the formation of a new government.

Significance:

  • The period of United Front rule was significant in Indian politics as it showcased the possibilities and challenges of coalition governance. It reflected the diversity of Indian politics with multiple parties coming together to form a government.

Question 197

In which year did China annex Tibet? 

  1. AOption (a)

    1955

  2. BOption (b)

    1958

  3. COption (c)

    1949

  4. DOption (d)

    1950

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1950

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1950.

Explanation: In 1950, China did initiate actions to establish control over Tibet, which can be seen as an annexation. After the Chinese Civil War, the newly established People's Republic of China, under the leadership of Mao Zedong, sought to assert control over territories it considered historically part of China, including Tibet. In October 1950, the People's Liberation Army (PLA) entered eastern Tibet, overpowering the Tibetan military forces in what is often referred to as the "Battle of Chamdo."

Key Points

  • Following this military action, the Chinese government pressured the Tibetan government into negotiations. This led to the signing of the Seventeen Point Agreement in 1951, which the Tibetan representatives signed under duress. The agreement effectively established Chinese sovereignty over Tibet, stipulating that Tibet would be considered an autonomous region within the People's Republic of China.
  • It's important to note that the nature and legitimacy of the annexation are highly contentious. The Tibetan government in exile and many Tibetans consider the Chinese action as an illegal occupation, arguing that Tibet was an independent nation before the Chinese intervention. China, on the other hand, maintains that Tibet has been part of its territory since the Yuan dynasty (13th century) and that the 1950 action was a legitimate reassertion of sovereignty and a liberation of Tibetans from feudal serfdom.

Question 198

India entered into the nuclear club as the sixth member with the testing of a nuclear device in which year?

  1. AOption (a)

    1966

  2. BOption (b)

    1991

  3. COption (c)

    1998

  4. DOption (d)

    1974

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1974

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1974

Explanation:

India conducted its first nuclear test, code-named "Smiling Buddha," on May 18, 1974, marking its entry into the nuclear club as the sixth member. The test took place at the Pokhran Test Range in the Thar Desert of Rajasthan.

Context:

Peaceful Nuclear Explosion (PNE): India described the 1974 test as a "peaceful nuclear explosion," emphasizing its intended use for civilian purposes such as energy generation and not for military applications.

Geopolitical Factors: The geopolitical context of the Cold War and regional security concerns played a role in India's decision to conduct nuclear tests. India felt the need to establish a credible deterrent capability in response to perceived security threats.

Motivations for the Test:

  • Security Concerns: India's security concerns were heightened by regional developments, including China's nuclear weapons tests in 1964 and concerns about potential nuclear capabilities in neighboring countries.
  • Deterrence Doctrine: The Smiling Buddha test reflected India's evolving security doctrine, emphasizing self-reliance and the need for a credible nuclear deterrent to ensure national security.

International Response:

  • Global Reaction: The 1974 nuclear test drew mixed reactions globally. While some countries expressed concern about nuclear proliferation, others, including the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) members, saw it as India's assertion of its sovereign right to peaceful nuclear technology.
  • Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG): In response to the test, the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) was formed in 1975, aiming to regulate nuclear exports and prevent the spread of nuclear weapons. The test prompted discussions on nuclear non-proliferation norms and led to increased scrutiny of India's nuclear activities.

Impact on India's Nuclear Policy:

  • Strategic Shift: The 1974 test marked a strategic shift in India's nuclear policy, leading to a more explicit acknowledgment of nuclear weapons capability. India continued to develop its nuclear program, leading to additional tests in 1998.
  • Nuclear Doctrine: India officially declared its nuclear doctrine in 2003, articulating a "no-first-use" policy and a commitment to a minimum credible deterrent. The 1974 test laid the groundwork for subsequent developments in India's nuclear policy.

In summary, India's nuclear test in 1974 was a significant event that had repercussions on global nuclear dynamics, shaped India's nuclear policy, and positioned it as a nuclear-armed state. The test marked India's entry into the select group of nations with nuclear capabilities, carrying long-term implications for its security and international standing.

Question 199

Who among the following said that "Life, the continuation of the body in time, and liberty, the unhindered movement of the body, became two of the highest moral values"?

  1. AOption (a)

    Upendra Baxi 

  2. BOption (b)

    Ramin Jahanbegloo

  3. COption (c)

    Bhikhu Parekh

  4. DOption (d)

    Robert Benewick 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Bhikhu Parekh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bhikhu Parekh

Explanation:

Bhikhu Parekh said that "Life, the continuation of the body in time, and liberty, the unhindered movement of the body, became two of the highest moral values". Bhikhu Parekh was an Indian-born British political philosopher and academic. He was a prominent figure in the field of political theory, and his work has been influential in the study of multiculturalism, nationalism, and democracy. In his book "Rethinking Multiculturalism: Cultural Diversity and Political Theory", Parekh argues that the two highest moral values are life and liberty. He defines life as "the continuation of the body in time", and liberty as "the unhindered movement of the body". Parekh argues that these two values are essential for human flourishing. Without life, we cannot experience anything else. And without liberty, we cannot live our lives as we choose. Parekh's work on life and liberty has been influential in the field of political theory. His insights have helped to shape our understanding of these two fundamental values.

Additional Information

  • Bhikhu Parekh's work on life and liberty is significant because it provides a new perspective on these two fundamental values. He argues that these values are not simply abstract concepts, but are essential for human flourishing.
  • Parekh's work has been influential in the field of political theory because it has helped to shape our understanding of these two values. His insights have been used to develop new theories of justice, democracy, and multiculturalism.
  • Parekh's work is also important because it provides a bridge between Western and non-Western political thought. He argues that the values of life and liberty are not unique to the West, but are shared by all cultures.
  • Parekh's work has been praised by scholars from a variety of disciplines. He has been called "one of the most important political theorists of our time" (Michael Walzer) and "a major figure in the study of multiculturalism" (Will Kymlicka).

Question 200

According to Thomas Aquinas, a general principle such as ‘serious promises should not be lightly broken’ is an example of which of the following?

  1. AOption (a)

    Fist principles

  2. BOption (b)

    Self-Evident

  3. COption (c)

    Self-deduction

  4. DOption (d)

    Logical deduction

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Self-Evident

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Self-Evident

Explanation:

  • Thomas Aquinas, a prominent medieval philosopher and theologian, contributed significantly to moral philosophy through his development of natural law theory.
  • In Aquinas's framework, natural law comprises a set of principles inherent in human nature, discoverable through reason. Among these principles are self-evident truths that do not require external proof and are universally applicable.
  • One such self-evident principle articulated by Aquinas is the idea that "serious promises should not be lightly broken."
  • This principle reflects a fundamental moral truth according to Aquinas's natural law philosophy. It emphasizes the importance of keeping promises as a cornerstone of ethical behavior, contributing to trust and the stability of social interactions.
  • The term "self-evident" implies that these principles are evident in themselves when properly understood.
  • They are accessible to human reason, and individuals can recognize them as foundational moral truths without the need for elaborate demonstration. Aquinas's ethical framework highlights the universal applicability of these principles, transcending specific cultural or historical contexts.
  • The concept of self-evident principles in Aquinas's philosophy is closely tied to the broader idea of natural law ethics. Natural law, as he envisioned it, provides a rational foundation for ethical norms based on the inherent nature of human beings. Adhering to self-evident principles contributes to the cultivation of moral virtues, such as honesty and integrity, which are essential elements in Aquinas's ethical system.

In summary, according to Thomas Aquinas, a general principle like "serious promises should not be lightly broken" is an example of a self-evident moral truth. These principles, rooted in natural law, are universally recognized through reason and form the basis of ethical conduct in Aquinas's philosophical framework.

Discipline 6 (20 questions)

Question 201

In which year was the Backward and Minority Communities Employees Federation (BAMCEF) formed?

  1. AOption (a)

    1976

  2. BOption (b)

    1972

  3. COption (c)

    1978

  4. DOption (d)

    1974

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1978

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1978.

Key Points

  • The Backward and Minority Communities Employees Federation (BAMCEF) established in the year 1978.
  • ‘BAMCEF’ is working since 1973 and is known to Mulnivasi Bahujan Samaj as an organization of the educated employees from the Scheduled castes, Scheduled tribes, Other Backward Classes and the Converted Minority communities.
  • The term Backward has been mentioned in article 16(4) of the Constitution of India.
  • The S.C., ST. and O.B.C. have been jointly referred to as Backwards because all the castes, falling in these categories, are backward.

Question 202

Which of the following was the first of the 15 Soviet republics to declare its independence?

  1. AOption (a)

    Latvia

  2. BOption (b)

    Tajikistan

  3. COption (c)

     Lithuania

  4. DOption (d)

    Estonia

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

 Lithuania

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Lithuania.

Key Points

  • Lithuania:
  • Officially the Republic of Lithuania is a country in the Baltic region of Europe.
  • It is one of three Baltic states and lies on the eastern shore of the Baltic Sea.
  • Lithuania was the first republic to break away from the Soviet Union, by proclaiming the restoration of its pre-war independence.
  • On March 11, 1990, Lithuania declared that it was an independent nation, the first of the Soviet republics to do so. Hence Option 1 is correct.

Additional Information

  • The Soviet Union (Union of Soviet Socialist Republics, or USSR) was a socialist state that was created by Vladimir Lenin in 1922.
  • During its existence, the USSR was the largest country in the world.
  • The USSR collapsed in 1991 and left in its place 15 independent states that we know today:
  • Armenia- Armenia was officially proclaimed as an independent state on September 21, 1991.
  • Moldova- Soviet Moldova was created on August 2, 1940 from a region that was annexed from Romania known as Bessarabia and parts of an autonomous state within the Ukrainian SSR.
  • Estonia- On May 8, 1990, ESSR was renamed the Republic of Estonia and its independence was recognized by the USSR on September 6, 1991.
  • Latvia- It was fully recognized as an independent state on September 6, 1991 by the Soviet Union.
  • Lithunia- The USSR acknowledged Lithuania as an independent state on September 6, 1991.
  • Georgia- the territory declared its independence from the Soviet Union, and on November 14, 1990, it was renamed the Republic of Georgia.
  • Azerbaijan - Azerbaijan SSR was renamed on November 19, 1990, as the Republic of Azerbaijan and remained in the Soviet Union until its full independence in 30 August 1991.
  • Tajikistan- It was recognized as an independent state by the Soviet Union on December 26, 1991.
  • Kyrgyzstan- It attained full independence and on May 5, 1993, the name changed to the Kyrgyz Republic.
  • Belarus- It  seeks independence and declare its sovereignty on July 27, 1990.
  • Uzbekistan -It proclaimed itself a sovereign state on June 20, 1990 and declared its independence on August 31, 1991.
  • Turkmenistan- It  declared its independence from the Soviet Union which was recognized on December 26, 1991.
  • Ukraine- Following the dissolution of the Soviet Society, UkSSR was renamed as Ukraine and its new constitution was approved on June 28, 1996.
  • Kazakhstan-It was the last member of the Soviet Union's constituent republics to declare independence on 16 December 1991.
  • Russia  was one of the republics of the Soviet Union from its second occupation in 1921 to its independence in 12 December 1991.

Question 203

Which of the following is the first major reform that brought in democracy in Britain?

  1. AOption (a)

    Reforms Act, 1852

  2. BOption (b)

    Reforms Act, 1822 

  3. COption (c)

    Reforms Act, 1842

  4. DOption (d)

    Reforms Act, 1832

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Reforms Act, 1832

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Reforms Act, 1832.

Key Points

  • The Representation of the People Act 1832, known as the first Reform Act or Great Reform Act of 1832 was  the first major reform that brought in democracy in Britain.
  • It established 67 new constituencies.
  • It also eliminated 31 boroughs to only one MP, and disenfranchised 56 boroughs in England and Wales.
  • It expanded the franchise's criteria for eligible property in the counties to include shopkeepers, tenant farmers, and small landowners.
  • It also established a unified franchise in the boroughs, granting voting rights to all households paying a yearly rental fee of £10 or more.

Additional Information

  • ​The United Kingdom passed the Reform Acts in the 19th and 20th centuries in order to redistribute seats in the House of Commons of the British Parliament and to grant voting rights to new voter groupings.
  • The first of them was the Reform Acts of 1832, 1867, and 1884, which aimed to eliminate some disparities in representation and expand the electorate for the House of Commons.
  • The bill of 1867 was passed by the Conservatives under the urging of the Liberals.
  • The bill of 1882 was passed by the liberals.

Question 204

Bias towards party interest is attributable to which of the following kinds of bureaucracy?

  1. AOption (a)

    Guardian bureaucracy

  2. BOption (b)

    Merit bureaucracy

  3. COption (c)

    Caste bureaucracy

  4. DOption (d)

    Patronage bureaucracy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Patronage bureaucracy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Patronage bureaucracy.

Key Points

  • Biasing towards party interest is attributed to the Patronage bureaucracy.
  • Bureaucracy has universalistic criteria such as Division of labour, hierarchy, unity of command, task specialisation, merit-based staffing and promotion, rules and regulations, formal communication systems etc.
  • Morstein Marx divides bureaucracy into four types-
  • Guardian Bureaucracy
  • Caste bureaucracy
  • Patronage bureaucracy
  • Merit bureaucracy

Additional Information

  • The guardian bureaucracy
  • It tends to become traditionalistic and conservative as a result of idealising strict procedures.
  • It also tends to distance itself from current political issues and community issues, turning into an authoritarian system that is insensitive to public opinion.
  • They become authoritarian unresponsive to public opinion.
  • Caste bureaucracy
  • The people in power's class connections are the cause of this bureaucracy.
  • Recruitment for this comes from just one class.
  • This indicates that those from higher social levels or castes are the only ones drawn to the civil service.
  • Merit bureaucracy
  • Merit bureaucracy emerged as a reaction against the flaws in previous bureaucratic models.
  • Recruitment in this bureaucracy is based on objective standards and is biassed in terms of qualifications.

Question 205

In 1977, the Government of India appointed Ashok Mehta Committee for which of the following reasons?

  1. AOption (a)

    Introduction of Panchayati Raj System

  2. BOption (b)

    Revive and strengthen the Panchayati Raj System

  3. COption (c)

    For regular elections of Panchayati Raj

  4. DOption (d)

    To analyse the development at the grass root level

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Revive and strengthen the Panchayati Raj System

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Revive and strengthen the Panchayati Raj System.

Key Points

  • The Ashok Mehta committee was appointed by the Janata government to revive and strengthen the Panchayati Raj System.
  • The committee was appointed in December 1977.
  • The Ashok Mehta committee is also known as the "committee on Panchayati raj institutions."
  • The report of the committee was submitted in August 1978.

Additional Information

  • The main task assigned on the Ashok Mehta committee was to enquire the working of Panchayati Raj Institutions and to suggest measures to strengthen them so as to enables decentralized planning and development to be effective.
  • The report made 132 recommendations to revive and strengthen the declining Panchayati raj system in the country.
  • The important recommendations of the Ashok Mehta committee are-
  • Recommended a two-tier system instead of a three-tier system.
  • Panchayati raj institutions should have the compulsory power of taxation.
  • There should be a regular social audit.
  • A minister for Panchayati raj should be appointed.

Question 206

Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R):

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Assertion (A): Political parties have continued to remain in the centre of Indian politics.

Reason (R): Opinion polls in India have repeatedly shown that people generally vote more for the party than for the candidate

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) is true, but (R) is false.

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) is false, but (R) is true. 

  3. COption (c)

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

  4. DOption (d)

    Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Key Points

  • Political parties are easily one of the most visible institutions in a democracy.
  • They come together to contest elections and hold power in the government
  • It have continued to remain in the center of Indian politics from pre-independence era. Hence Assertion is true.
  • Opinion polls is a pre-election poll which is conducted to know the opinions of the voters where they wants to cast their vote.
  • It helps to determine what your demographic is largely thinking or feeling concerning the election result.
  • Opinion polls in India have repeatedly shown that people generally vote more for the party than for the candidate. Hence Reason is also true.
  • Its negative impact is that opinion poll influences the voters.
  • Both the Assertion and Reason are true but they are in different context, hence  (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Additional Information

  • Functions of Political Parties-
  • Political Parties mainly contest election.
  • Parties put forward different policies and programmes and the voters choose from them.
  • Parties play a decisive role in making laws for a country.
  • Parties form and run governments.
  • Those parties that lose in the elections play the role of opposition to the parties in power, by voicing different views and criticising government for its failures or wrong policies.
  • Parties shape public opinion and raise issues.
  • They also performed relief related works during natural disaster.

Question 207

The Convention on Wetlands of international importance especially as waterfowl habitat was ratified in which year?

  1. AOption (a)

    1973

  2. BOption (b)

    1972

  3. COption (c)

    1974

  4. DOption (d)

    1971

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1971

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1971.

Key Points

  • The Ramsar Convention also referred to as the Convention on Wetlands of International Importance especially as Waterfowl Habitat was signed in the city of Ramsar, Iran in February 1971 by UNESCO.
  • It came into force in December 1975.
  • The objective of the Ramsar convention is to reverse the loss of wetlands and to conserve the remaining wetlands through their wise use.
  • India became a party to the convention on February 1, 1982.
  • The number of wetlands in India totaling around 75 today.

Additional Information

  • Wetlands includes-
  • Marine—coastal wetlands such as coastal lagoons, rocky shores, and coral reefs
  • Estuarine—for example, deltas, tidal marshes, and mangrove swamps
  • Lacustrine—wetlands associated with lakes
  • Riverine—wetlands along rivers and streams
  • Palustrine—marshes, swamps, and bogs
  • Human-made wetlands such as reservoirs, fish ponds, flooded mineral workings, saltpans, sewage farms, and canals.

Question 208

Which of the following personalities founded Self-Employed Women’s Association (SEWA) in the year 1972? She also worked with the Gandhian women trade union called Textile Labour Association.

  1. AOption (a)

    Susheela Gopalan

  2. BOption (b)

    C.K.Janu

  3. COption (c)

    Raghubir Kaur

  4. DOption (d)

    Ela Bhatt

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Ela Bhatt

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ela Bhatt.

Key Points

  • Renowned women rights activist and founder of the Self Employed Women's Association (SEWA) Ela Bhatt passed away on 2 Nov 2022.
  • Founded by Bhatt in 1972, SEWA is one of the largest cooperatives working for women, with a base of over two million members from around 18 States.
  • She also co-founded Women’s World Banking in 1979.
  • She was conferred Padma Shri in 1985 & the Padma Bhushan in 1986.

Question 209

Which of the following is not one of the advantages of British rule in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bringing entire India under one administrative umbrella. 

  2. BOption (b)

    Laying of railways

  3. COption (c)

    Encouraging social reforms

  4. DOption (d)

    Encouraging Jobs under British government 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Encouraging Jobs under British government 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Encouraging Jobs under British government.

Key Points

  • The establishment of the British Empire in India transformed India’s economic, social and political scenario.
  • Encouraging Jobs under British government is not a Positive impact of rules.
  • It most of the cases the employee under British regime became the servant of Britishers.
  • The advantages of British rule in India-
  • The British introduced Railways to connect inland areas, which was pivotal in the nation's awakening.
  • The British introduced a new system of law and justice, establishing a hierarchy of Civil and criminal courts under one administrative umbrella.
  • British influence brought ideas of Liberty, Equality, and Freedom from the European Renaissance and Reformation movements, resonating with some society segments.
  • English was introduced, establishing Education Departments in provinces and affiliated universities in Calcutta, Madras, and Bombay in 1857.

Additional Information

  • The dis-advantages of British rule in India-
  • Introducing commercial crops like coffee, indigo, cotton, jute, and opium led to landless laborers as land ownership shifted rapidly.
  • ​Famines became common due to colonial-induced poverty and lack of food grains.
  • England's industrialization and India's colonization reversed the textile trade, importing machine-made clothes and endangering handicrafts.
  • The Permanent Settlement aimed at maximizing rent and securing revenue but created tenant insecurity due to land transferability.

Question 210

The Telangana Agitation started in the year: 

  1. AOption (a)

    1943

  2. BOption (b)

    1945

  3. COption (c)

    1947

  4. DOption (d)

    1969

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1969

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1969.

Key Points

  • Telangana Agitation was a political development for the statehood of the Telangana.
  • It was started in the year of 1969.
  • The main individual to raise the issue of Telangana by an individual named Ravindranath.
  • He was on an endless quick and his superb interest was to carry out Telangana shields.
  • Another interest was his emphasis on the implementation of Gentleman's understanding.

Additional Information

  • Telangana, as a geographical and political entity, was born on June 2, 2014.
  • It became the 29th and the youngest state in the Union of India.
  • The Committee headed by the former Chief Justice, B. N Srikrishna was formed to look into the proposed state of Telangana.
  • It was known as the Srikrishna committee or the Committee for Consultations on the Situation in Andhra Pradesh (CCSAP).
  • The committee was constituted by the Government of India on 3 February 2010 and submitted its report on 30 December 2010 to the Ministry of Home Affairs.
  • Its main aim was to examine the situation in the State of Andhra Pradesh with reference to the demand for a separate State of Telangana as well as the demand for maintaining the present status of a united Andhra Pradesh.

Question 211

Consider the following statements with regard to Political Processes:

A. Political processes can be reduced to the preferences or behaviour of individuals, but are also conditioned by group actions and interactions.

B. These groups-their solidarities and their conflict-make independent contributions to determining political outcomes.

C. “Representation” is the exclusive key relationship between such groups and the making of authoritative decisions.

D. This relationship is increasingly structured through specialised, “legally constituted” organisations with identifiable and reproducible boundaries.

Select the correct statement from the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    B and C

  2. BOption (b)

    B and D

  3. COption (c)

    Only D

  4. DOption (d)

    Only A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

B and D

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is B and D

Key Points 

  • The given statements pertain to the dynamics of political processes, attempting to elucidate the factors that contribute to shaping political outcomes.
  • Each statement offers a perspective on how individuals, groups, and their interactions influence the decision-making processes within a political framework.

Important Points 

  • These statements underscores the nuanced nature of political processes by asserting that they are not solely determined by the preferences or behavior of individuals. While individual agency is important, political dynamics are also significantly influenced by the collective actions and interactions of groups. This acknowledgment highlights the intricate interplay between the micro-level actions of individuals and the macro-level dynamics of group behavior in the political arena.
  • The emphasis here is on the independent contributions of groups to the determination of political outcomes. It recognizes that groups, with their internal solidarities and conflicts, play a pivotal and autonomous role in shaping the direction of political processes. This perspective acknowledges the agency of organized entities beyond individual actors, emphasizing their impact on the overall political landscape.
  • This statement introduces the concept of "representation" as a key relationship between groups and the decision-making process. While representation is undoubtedly crucial, the term "exclusive key relationship" may be considered somewhat restrictive. Political outcomes are often influenced by a complex interplay of factors, including power dynamics, institutional structures, and public opinion, suggesting that representation is one among several key elements in the political process.
  • Highlighting a trend in the evolution of the relationship between groups and authoritative decision-making, this statement notes that it is increasingly structured through specialized, legally constituted organizations. These organizations are characterized by identifiable and reproducible boundaries, indicating a move towards a more institutionalized and formalized approach to group influence in political processes.

Question 212

Who led the Narmada Bachao Andolan movement?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sunderlal Bahuguna

  2. BOption (b)

    Rajendra Singh

  3. COption (c)

    Baba Amte

  4. DOption (d)

    Medha Patkar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Medha Patkar

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

Narmada Bachao Andolan:

  • Medha Patkar is an Indian social activist known for her work with the displaced people and sufferers impacted by the Narmada Development project.
  • She organized marches and civil protests against the Government for dismantling the Sardar Sarovar Dam in Southeastern Gujarat.
  • She strived for rejuvenation of livelihood for the homeless people caused by the construction of the Sardar Sarovar Project.
  • She succeeded in her endeavour when World Bank, the grant provider of the project withdrew from the project.

Thus, Medha Patkar led the Narmada Bachao Andolan.

Sundarlal Bahuguna:

  • Sunderlal Bahuguna was the prominent leader of the Chipko Andolan.
  • The aim of the movement was to stop the uprooting of trees.
  • Seeing the agitation and ecological sensitiveness of the issue orders were passed by the then Prime Minister Mrs Indira Gandhi to ban tree felling for 15 years in the region.

Baba Amte

  • Baba Amte (1914-2008) was a legendary social activist, humanitarian, and environmentalist from India.
  • Born into a wealthy family in Maharashtra, Amte dedicated his life to serving the poor, marginalized, and disabled.
  • He is particularly remembered for his work with leprosy patients, tribals, and for his contributions to environmental conservation.

Rajendra Singh

  • Rajendra Singh (born August 6, 1959) is a renowned Indian water conservationist, environmentalist, and social activist.
  • He is widely known as the "Waterman of India" for his extraordinary contributions to rainwater harvesting and water conservation efforts across the country.

Question 213

In which year was the first summit of NAM held?

  1. AOption (a)

    1972

  2. BOption (b)

    1961

  3. COption (c)

    1978

  4. DOption (d)

    1966

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1961

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1961.

Key Points

  • The first NAM Summit Summit took place in Belgrade (Yugoslavia) in September 1961.
  • NAM (Non Aligned Movement) is an organization of States that did not formally align themselves with either the United States or the Soviet Union during the Cold War, but sought to remain independent or neutral.
  • Jawahar Lal Nehru was one of the founding members, the principles of NAM was largely guided by Panchsheel principles.
  • The founding members of NAM-
  • Yugoslavia,
  • India,
  • Egypt,
  • Ghana and
  • Indonesia.

Additional Information

  • At present, 120 nations are members of NAM.
  • Some of them are Pakistan, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka Nepal Bhutan, Myanmar and Afghanistan.
  • China has an observer status in NAM.
  • All the African countries except for western Sahara and South Sudan are member nations of NAM.
  • Among the European Nations, Azerbaijan and Belarus are the member states.

Question 214

Which of the following has written the book titled 'Women’s Role in Economic Development'?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ester Boserup

  2. BOption (b)

    Thomas Robert Malthus 

  3. COption (c)

    Olivia S. Mitchell

  4. DOption (d)

    Elinor Ostrom

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Ester Boserup

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ester Boserup.

Key Points

  • The book "Women’s Role in Economic Development" is written by Ester Boserup.
  • It is an official study of the effects on women of Third World countries economic and social development.
  • It discussed issues related to land rights, employment, industrialization, marital systems, and land rights of women.
  • Boserup examines how women have contributed to the growth and modernization of developing nations in Africa, Latin America, and Asia.
  • Her principal contention is that women's participation in the labour force is hampered rather than helped by the shift from traditional to modern economic systems.

Additional Information

  • Thomas Robert Malthus 
  • He was an English economist, theologian, and scholar with influence in political economy and demography.
  • He wrote the book An Essay on the Principle of Population.
  • In his book he observed that an increase in a nation's food production improved the well-being of the population.
  • Elinor Ostrom
  • Elinor Claire Ostrom was an American political scientist and political economist.
  • She was awarded the Nobel Prize in Economics.
  • She was the first woman to win the Nobel Prize in Economics.

Question 215

Bentham started and financed the Westminster in ______

  1. AOption (a)

    1823

  2. BOption (b)

    1822

  3. COption (c)

    1820

  4. DOption (d)

    1824

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1824

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1824.

Key Points

  • The West Minister Review was a British journal of political and social commentary
  • Jeremy Bentham started and financed the Westminster in 1824.
  • James Mill also was one of the driving forces behind this journal.
  • It ceased publication in 1914.

Additional Information

  • The father of contemporary utilitarianism, Jeremy Bentham, was an English philosopher, jurist, and social reformer.
  • He contributed to the founding of the Westminster Review in an effort to disseminate radical intellectual ideas.
  • He became a democrat due to the impact of Enlightenment political theory.
  • He campaigned for changes to marital legislation that would give divorcees more flexibility and expressed a general support for women serving in government.

Question 216

Consider the following statements with regard to Public Policy:

A. Public policy is an action which employs governmental authority to commit resources in support of a preferred value.

B. It is a strategy for achieving public goals through the management and allocation of power, rights, resources, information, and inducements.

C. In democratic forms of government, the major part of public policies are made in the parliament through legislative processes.

D. The domain of public policy is very limited and it includes only those matters that concerns defence, agriculture and health. Select the incorrect answer from the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    Only B

  2. BOption (b)

    B and C

  3. COption (c)

    C and D

  4. DOption (d)

    Only D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Only D

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only D

Explanation:

The statements revolve around the concept of public policy, which refers to government actions aimed at addressing societal issues and achieving specific goals. Each statement offers a perspective on the nature and scope of public policy.

 Key Points

A. This statement defines public policy as an action utilizing governmental authority to allocate resources in support of a preferred value. It underscores the idea that public policy involves deliberate actions by the government to express and implement societal values. This aligns with a common understanding of public policy.

B. This statement broadens the definition by characterizing public policy as a strategy for achieving public goals. It highlights the multifaceted nature of public policy, involving the management and allocation of various elements such as power, rights, resources, information, and inducements. This captures the complexity of the decision-making processes involved in crafting and implementing public policies.

C. This statement suggests that, in democratic forms of government, the majority of public policies are formulated in the parliament through legislative processes. While legislative bodies play a crucial role in policy-making, it is essential to recognize that public policies can also be shaped through executive actions, administrative agencies, and interactions with the public. The statement might oversimplify the sources of public policies.

D. This statement incorrectly asserts that the domain of public policy is very limited and includes only matters related to defense, agriculture, and health. Public policy is a broad field that encompasses a wide range of issues, including but not limited to education, environmental protection, economic development, social welfare, and more. This statement inaccurately constrains the scope of public policy.

Question 217

The book titled 'The Bureaucratisation of the World' is written by:

  1. AOption (a)

    Bruno Rizzi 

  2. BOption (b)

    Harriet Martineau 

  3. COption (c)

    Michel Foucault 

  4. DOption (d)

    Herbert Spencer

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Bruno Rizzi 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bruno Rizzi.

Key Points

  • The Bureaucratisation of the World is written by Bruno Rizzi in 1939.
  • Bruno Rizzi was born in Porto Mantovano on 1901.
  • His most important work was La Bureaucratisation du Monde .
  • It was translated in english Bureaucratisation of the World.
  • This book was banned by the French government.
  • He said in it that identical political strategies were being developed by fascism and Stalinism.

Additional Information

  • Harriet Martineau 
  • She was an essayist, novelist, journalist, and economic and historical writer from England.
  • Her most scholarly work is The Positive Philosophy of Auguste Comte.
  • She wrote this book from a sociological, holistic, religious and feminine angle.
  • Michel Foucault 
  • He was a French philosopher and historian.
  • One of the most influential and controversial scholars of the post-World War II period.
  • Herbert Spencer
  • He was best known for the introduction and application of evolutionary theory to philosophy, psychology, and social sciences.
  • The famous phrase 'Survival of the fittest' to mean Natural Selection was coined by Herbert Spencer.
  • He originated this phrase after the publication of famous biologist Charles Darwin’s book ‘Origin of Species’ which talked about ‘Natural Selection’.

Question 218

Consider the following statements with regard to Communist Parties:

A. Initially, European communist parties were organised on the pattern of socialist parties, but after 1924, they followed the pattern of Soviet Communist Party.

B. Communist parties follow the principle of ‘democratic Centralism’, which implies democratic participation of members in party structure, but centralised decision making and supervision.

C. At different levels in the party, discussion does take place, but directions of the leadership can never be violated or defied.

D. No other party anywhere in the world, except perhaps the Fascist parties, is so rigidly based on ideology as the communist parties are. Select the correct statement from the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    Only C

  2. BOption (b)

    A and B 

  3. COption (c)

    A, B, C, D

  4. DOption (d)

    A and D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A, B, C, D

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A, B, C, D.

Key Points

  • Communist political party is one that aims to implement communism's socioeconomic objectives.
  • The Manifesto of the Communist Party (1848), written by Karl Marx and Friedrich Engels, is credited for popularising the phrase "communist party".
  • They followed Marxist and Leninist ideas.
  • The Soviet Communist Party's organisational structure superseded that of socialist parties in Europe after 1924. Thus Statement A is correct.
  • Communist parties follow the principle of ‘democratic Centralism’, which implies democratic participation of members in party structure, but centralised decision making and supervision. Thus Statement B is correct.
  • At different levels in the party, discussion does take place, but directions of the leadership can never be violated or defied. Thus Statement C is correct.
  • The communist parties are the only political organisation in the world that is as strictly founded on ideology as any other, with the possible exception of the fascist organisations. Thus Statement D is correct.

Additional Information

  • The Communist Party of India
  • It was formed in India in 1925.
  • M.N. Roy was an important early leader.
  • He founded the party and became its first Secretary General.
  • He promoted Marxist and Leninist ideas in India.
  • The party wanted a revolution to overthrow British rule and create a socialist India.

Question 219

Which amendment introduced the third tier of government in the Indian Democracy?

  1. AOption (a)

    74th Amendment

  2. BOption (b)

    Both 73rd & 74th Amendments

  3. COption (c)

    73th Amendment

  4. DOption (d)

    67th Amendment

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both 73rd & 74th Amendments

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both 73rd & 74th Amendments.

Key Points

  • Both 73rd & 74th Amendments introduced the third tier of government in the Indian Democracy.
  • 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act,1992 added Article 243 to Article 243O and a new part Part IX to the constitution of India.
  • Salient features of 73rd amendment Act:
  • Gram Sabha (Article 243A):
  • ​A body of all persons registered in the electoral roll of that Panchayat.
  • Three-Tier System (Article 243B):
  • ​Panchayat at the village, intermediate, and district level.
  • Election of members and chairpersons are given under Article 243B.
  • Reservation of seats for SC/ST is provided at all three levels under Article 243D.
  • Salient features of 74th amendment Act:
  • 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 is related to the Urban Local Self Government.
  • It is also known as Nagarpalika Act for giving constitutional status to the municipalities and brought them under the justifiable part of the constitution.
  • The Act is aimed at strengthening ef fective democracy at the grass-root level by providing a framework for the structure and mandate of urban local bodies.

Question 220

Who has written the book titled ‘Politics in India’?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rajni Kothari

  2. BOption (b)

    Sanjib Baruah

  3. COption (c)

    Louis Dumont

  4. DOption (d)

    Atul Kohli

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Rajni Kothari

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Rajni Kothari.

Key Points

  • The book titled ‘Politics in India’ is written by Rajni Kothari.
  • Politics in India was first published in 1970 and marks a turning point in the evolution of the author’s intellectual contributions.
  • Rajni Kothari has been a renowned academic who has always emphasised living a life of the mind.
  • He is the founder of the Centre for the Study of Developing Societies, a leading institute in the sphere of social sciences, and Lokayan.

Additional Information

  • Sanjib Baruah
  • He is a writer and analyst with a focus on Northeast Indian politics.
  • He wrote Durable Disorder: Understanding the Politics of Northeast India and India Against Itself: Assam and the Politics of Nationality.
  • In the Name of the Nation: India and its Northeast is also written by him.
  • Atul Kohli
  • He is a famous political scientist.
  • He wrotes the book, Political Power and Industrialization in the Global Periphery and Democracy and Development in India: From Socialism to Pro-Business.

Discipline 7 (20 questions)

Question 221

Which of the following statements is not correct about the Directive Principles of State Policy?

  1. AOption (a)

    The courts, while interpreting the Constitution, including the Fundamental Rights, are to be guided by them.

  2. BOption (b)

    The Constitution enjoins the state to regard them as fundamental in governance and to apply them when making laws.

  3. COption (c)

    A more direct activist role of the state in bringing forth socio-economic transformation was assigned by the Constitution of India through Directive Principles of State Policy. 

  4. DOption (d)

    These principles are directly enforceable by the law courts. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

These principles are directly enforceable by the law courts. 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'These principles are directly enforceable by the law courts.'

Key Points

  • Directive Principles of State Policy motive to generate social and economic conditions under which the citizens can lead a good life.
  • They as well motive to start social and economic democracy through a welfare state.
  • The main aim of the Directive Principle of State Policy listed in Part 4 of the Indian Constitution is to give economic justice and to avoid the concentration of wealth in the hands of a few people.
  • So, no government can afford to ignore them.

Additional Information

  • The Directive Principles together with the Fundamental Rights hold the philosophy of the Constitution and are the soul of the Constitution.
  • Dr. B.R. Ambedkar reported these principles as 'novel features' of the Indian Constitution.​
  • Part IV of the Constitution of India (Article 36–51) holds the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).

Question 222

In early 1947, Hindustan Mazdoor Sevak Sangh was set up with the

  1. AOption (a)

    Bombay Textile Workers

  2. BOption (b)

    Calcutta Textile Workers

  3. COption (c)

    Ahmedabad Textile Workers

  4. DOption (d)

    Sabarmati Textile Workers

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Ahmedabad Textile Workers

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ahmedabad Textile workers.

Key Points

  • Hindustan Mazdoor Sevak Sangh was set up with the Ahmedabad Textile Workers.
  • The Hindustan Mazdoor Sevak Sangh assisted in the formation of the Indian National Trade Union Congress.
  • In 1947, it was established.
  • The Indian National Congress's trade union section is known as the Indian National Trade Union Congress.
  • It was founded with the goal of establishing a social structure that would not impede the overall growth of trade union members.

Additional Information

  • Mahatma Gandhi establishment the Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association.
  • Mahatma Gandhi along with Anasuya Sarabhai laid the foundation for Gujarat’s oldest labour union.
  • Majoor Mahajan Sangh (Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association or TLA) was established on February 25, 1920.

Question 223

An American general, Norman Schwarzkopf, led the UN coalition against Iraq in which of the following UN Operation?

  1. AOption (a)

    Operation Iraq Freedom

  2. BOption (b)

    Operation Desert Strom

  3. COption (c)

    Operation Terror Freedom

  4. DOption (d)

    Operation Black Commando

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Operation Desert Strom

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Operation Desert Strom.

Key Points

  • American general Norman Schwarzkopf led the UN Operation Desert Strom against Iraq.
  • Operation Desert Storm was initiated with a five-week bombardment on Iraq’s oil refineries, air defenses, and other infrastructure.
  • It was launched on January 17th, 1991, when Saddam Hussein refused to withdraw Iraqi troops from Kuwait.
  • It was an aerial and naval attack.
  • In response of Operation desert storm, Iraq embarked on its short-range Scud missiles on civilian and military targets in Saudi Arabia and Israel.
  • Before Operation Strom another operation was launched named operation sheild.
  • The purpose of Operation Desert Shield was to-
  • build up coalition forces,
  • isolate Iraq through sanctions, and
  • give Iraq a chance to leave Kuwait peacefully.

Additional Information

  • Operation Iraq Freedom (OIF)
  • It was launched on March 19, 2003.
  • It was launched to rid Iraq of its weapons of mass destruction and to eliminate Saddam Hussein’s regime.
  • Its aim was to established democracy supported by the people of Iraq.

Question 224

The president addresses both the Houses of Parliament assembled together:

  1. AOption (a)

    every session

  2. BOption (b)

    first session after each general election and the first session of each year 

  3. COption (c)

     during emergency session summoned for the purpose 

  4. DOption (d)

    any session

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

first session after each general election and the first session of each year 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is first session after each general election and the first session of each year.

Key Points

  • Article 87 states that the President shall address both Houses of Parliament assembled together at the commencement of the first session.
  • The President addresses both the Houses of Parliament at the commencement of
  • First session after each general election.
  • First session of each year.
  • Article 86 (1) of the Constitution provides that the President may address either House of Parliament or both Houses assembled together, and for that purpose require the attendance of members.
  • However, since the commencement of the Constitution, the President has not so far addressed either House or both Houses assembled together under the provision of this article.
  • The President need not address both Houses of Parliament jointly if a Lok Sabha session is not prorogued after being adjourned sine die and then re-convened to meet in the following calendar year.

Additional Information 

  • The president (article 52) is the head of the Indian state.
  • He is head of all Supreme Commander of all the armed forces.
  • He is the first citizen of the country and acts as the symbol of the integrity and solidarity of the nation.
  • Qualifications of the President are:
  • He should be an Indian Citizen.
  • His age should be a minimum of 35 years.
  • He should qualify the conditions to be elected as a member of the Lok Sabha.
  • He should not hold any office of profit under the central government, state government, or any public authority.

Question 225

Expand UNFCCC?

  1. AOption (a)

    United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change

  2. BOption (b)

    United Nations Framework Counter on Climate Change

  3. COption (c)

    United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Call

  4. DOption (d)

    United Nations Fast Convention on Climate Change

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change.

Important Points

  • The UNFCCC entered into force on 21 March 1994.
  • The 197 countries that have ratified the Convention are called Parties to the Convention.
  • The objective of UNFCCC is to stabilize atmospheric concentrations of greenhouse gases at a level that will prevent dangerous interference with the climate system.
  • The UNFCCC is a “Rio Convention”, one of two opened for signature at the “Rio Earth Summit” in 1992 held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil.

Question 226

When was Meghalaya carved out of Assam?

  1. AOption (a)

    1972

  2. BOption (b)

    1971

  3. COption (c)

    1973

  4. DOption (d)

    1970

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1972

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1972.

Key Points

  • Meghalaya, state of India, located in the northeastern part of the country. It is bounded by the Indian state of Assam to the north and northeast and by Bangladesh to the south and southwest.
  • The state capital is the hill town of Shillong, located in east-central Meghalaya.
  • In 1947 the rulers of the region acceded to the newly independent country of India. India’s first prime minister, Jawaharlal Nehru, evolved a policy to preserve and protect the way of life of the tribal peoples.
  • Along with other tribal areas, the region was given special protection in the Indian constitution, and, though included within the state of Assam, it retained a great deal of autonomy.
  • When Assamese became the state’s official language in 1960, agitation for autonomy and self-rule gathered strength. Unlike in many other hill regions in northeastern India, this movement was largely peaceful and constitutional. Meghalaya was created as an autonomous state within Assam in 1970 and achieved full statehood on January 21, 1972.

Question 227

The Idea of five year plan was adopted in India from? 

  1. AOption (a)

    The United States of America

  2. BOption (b)

    Japan

  3. COption (c)

    United Soviet socialist republics

  4. DOption (d)

    Australia

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

United Soviet socialist republics

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'United Soviet socialist republics'.

Key Points

  • Firstly the Five Year Plan was first launched by Joseph Stalin in Union of Soviet Socialist Republics (USSR) in 1928 during his time as General Secretary.
  • A Five Year Plan is a detailed plan of economic development laid out by the government of a country.
  • The idea was adopted by Jawaharlal Nehru and the Planning Commission in 1950 and presented to the cabinet.
  • After approval, the First Five Year Plan was started in India in 1951.

Question 228

Which of the following is not a kind of Sovereignty? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Implicit and Explicit Sovereignty

  2. BOption (b)

    Dejure and Defacto Sovereignty

  3. COption (c)

    Legal and Political Sovereignty

  4. DOption (d)

    Real and Titular Sovereignty

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Implicit and Explicit Sovereignty

Why this answer is correct

Implicit and Explicit Sovereignty is the correct answer.

Key Points

  • Sovereignty refers to the independent authority of a state, free from external control. It includes internal sovereignty (lawmaking) and external sovereignty (territory).
  • The power of a state to act independently of other states in both domestic and foreign affairs is known as sovereignty under international law.
  • This is about the independence of the state from within as well as from beyond its boundaries. Apart from the extra sovereign rights of other states, general international law, and freely accepted international duties, a sovereign state is also unrestricted by anything.
  • Königová asserts that sovereignty consists of two essential elements. components within a specified area, irrespective of their organizational structure.
  • The second element is right-creation, which is defined by the fact that all actions are subject to laws recognized by the government. Sovereignty is defined by three key factors.

 Additional Information

  • The recognition that is founded on "a fact" is known as "de facto" recognition.
  • The recognition that is solely grounded in "law" is known as "De Jure" recognition. It is not possible to apply state succession laws de facto. De Jure governs the application of state succession laws.
  • Political sovereignty is the frequently ill-defined right to influence legislators and public servants; legal sovereignty is the acknowledged power to enact laws.
  • Actual powers of titular sovereigns are minimal or nonexistent. For them to operate, the true sovereign is necessary.
  • Real sovereignty, as opposed to nominal sovereignty, is the grouping of sovereigns or the individual executing the sovereign power of the state in actual reality.

Question 229

In the state of ___________, the Communist Party came to power in 1957. This was the first time in the world, a Communist party government had come to power through democratic elections.

  1. AOption (a)

    Kerala

  2. BOption (b)

    Karnataka

  3. COption (c)

    Punjab

  4. DOption (d)

    West Bengal 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Kerala

Why this answer is correct

Kerala is the correct answer.

Key Points

  • Kerala established its first democratically elected communist government in 1957.
  • E. M. S. Namboodiripad led the formation of the government.
  • The Communist Party of India was founded by M.N. Roy.
  • The Communist Party of India's first general secretary was S.V. Ghate.
  • Pinarayi Vijayan is the current chief minister of Kerela.
  • Current Governor of Kerela: Arif Mohammad Khan

Additional Information

  • There is a significant communist political presence in the Indian state of Kerala. The Communist Party of India (Marxist) and the Communist Party of India, which together with other left-wing parties form the ruling Left Democratic Front alliance, are now the two largest communist parties in Kerala politics.
  • In Kerala, the Communist Party of India was established on December 31, 1939, during the Pinarayi Conference. A large-scale communist struggle against C. P. Ramaswami Iyer, the Diwan (Head) of Travancore in Alappuzha, took place in 1946 under the name Punnapra-Vayalar rebellion.
  • Within the socialist movement, communism (from the Latin communis, "common, universal") is a left-wing to far-left sociopolitical, philosophical, and economic ideology. Its aim is to establish a communist society, a socioeconomic structure based on shared ownership of the means of production, distribution, and exchange that distributes goods to all members of the society according to need.
  • The disappearance of social classes, private property, and, ultimately, money and the state would characterize a communist society (or nation state)

Question 230

Who was the finance minister of the Interim Government post war in 1946?

  1. AOption (a)

    Zulfikar Ali Bhutto

  2. BOption (b)

    Liaquat Ali Khan

  3. COption (c)

    John Mathai 

  4. DOption (d)

    Maulana Abul Kalam Azad 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Liaquat Ali Khan

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Liaquat Ali Khan.

  • In the context of the Interim Government (1946) of India Liaquat Ali Khan was holding the portfolio of 'Finance'.

Key Points

  • Interim Government
  • The interim Government was headed by Jawahar Lal Nehru.
  • The Constituent Assembly began its session on 9th December 1946 AD.
  • Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected its President.​

Additional Information

  • The Cabinet of the Interim Government of India composed of the following members:
  • Commander-in-Chief was Sir Claude Auchinleck.
  • Jawaharlal Nehru was Vice President and also in charge of External Affairs and Commonwealth Relations.
  • Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was the Home Affairs, Information, and Broadcasting
  • Rajendra Prasad held the portfolio of Agriculture and Food
  • Ibrahim Ismail Chundrigar held the portfolio of Commerce
  • Baldev Singh was the Defence Minister
  • Liaquat Ali Khan was the Finance Minister.
  • C Rajagopalachari was the Education and Arts Minister
  • Jagjivan Ram held the Labour Ministry
  • Jogendra Nath Mandal was the Law Minister
  • Abdur Rab Nishtar held the portfolio of Railways and Communications, Post and Air.
  • C H Bhabha held the portfolio of  Works, Mines, and Power.

Question 231

Which of the following statements is not correct about Austin’s Concept of Sovereignty?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sovereign is the supreme power in the state. He is the source of all authority in the state. His authority is unlimited and absolute. He does not take commands from any one as nobody has a right to command him.

  2. BOption (b)

    Sovereignty has to be determinate. It resides in a person or a body of persons. State is a legal order in which the sovereignty can be located very clearly.

  3. COption (c)

    The rights and liberties of the individual also culminate from the sovereign and do not restrict the operation of the individuals’ sovereignty. 

  4. DOption (d)

    Sovereignty is necessary for the state. Sovereignty is one of the four elements of the state. There cannot be a state without sovereignty. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The rights and liberties of the individual also culminate from the sovereign and do not restrict the operation of the individuals’ sovereignty. 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The rights and liberties of the individual also culminate from the sovereign and do not restrict the operation of the individuals’ sovereignty. 

Key Points

  • Austin stated that "Law is a command of the sovereign supported by a sanction" was the definition of law. Putting this definition into its simplest form: - A sovereign's order that, if disobeyed, will result in sanctions.
  • John Austin was a writer from England. He elaborated on the doctrine of sovereignty from a legal standpoint in the 19th century. He presented his viewpoint in his "Lectures on Jurisprudence" in 1832.
  • He gives the following definition of sovereignty: "If a determinate human superior, not in the habit of obedience to a like superior, receives habitual obedience from the bulk of a given society, that determinate superior is sovereign in that society, and that society (including the superior) is a society political and independent. 
  • In a state, sovereignty is unavoidable. According to Austin, a political community or state must have sovereignty in order to function. This sovereignty belongs to a certain person or group of people. The society cannot be referred to as independent and political in the absence of a recognised sovereign. This very sovereign creates the laws and ensures that they are upheld.
  • Sovereignty needs to be clear. Austin asserts that sovereignty must belong to a specific person or group of people who can be recognised and demonstrated. Because Austin's type of sovereignty is legal, if sovereignty rests in a group of people, that group must be definite.
  • The sovereign has unrestricted power. Austin asserted that the sovereign possesses unrestricted power. On the one hand, all the people and organisations obey his instructions, while on the other hand, he disobeys the orders of anyone who is similar to himself. As a result, the sovereign's will is unrestricted and ultimate.
  • Undivided sovereignty exists. According to Austin, sovereignty is a single entity that cannot be separated. It cannot be divided among different associations because doing so would result in its demise. liberation from both internal and external restraint. The sovereign is not required to follow any higher authority's instructions. All citizens and organisations within the state are required to follow his instructions. Since he has absolute power, he is not subject to internal or external restraint.
  • The laws have no effect on the sovereign. Law is the sovereign's decree. In actuality, laws demonstrate his will because they express it. As a result, neither the law nor his control

Question 232

Under which Article of the Constitution, every resident, adult citizen of sound mind, and not legally barred on grounds of crime, corruption or illegal practice, is entitled to be registered as a voter? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Article 225

  2. BOption (b)

    Article 224

  3. COption (c)

    Article 326

  4. DOption (d)

    Article 329

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Article 326

Why this answer is correct

Article 326 is the correct answer.

Key Points

  • Under a specific set of guidelines, elections to each state's Lok Sabha and Legislative Assembly are conducted in accordance with Article 326 of the Indian Constitution.
  • The article suggests that elections ought to be held via adult suffrage. Adult suffrage states that any Indian citizen who is older than 21 years old is eligible to vote.
  • It was then modified to eighteen years.
  • The Indian Constitution's Article 326 guarantees that adult suffrage would be used for all state elections to the Lok Sabha and Legislative Assembly.
  • It suggests that a candidate must be at least 21 years old to be able to run in the Lower House of Parliament or Legislative Assembly elections.
  • Voting rights for Indian citizens were formerly restricted to those over 35; later, this age was raised to 21.
  • This provision guarantees voter equality by prohibiting discrimination on the basis of gender, race, religion, or caste.
  • However, the voting age for state and Lok Sabha legislatures has been lowered to only 18 years old (it was previously 21 years old) by the Constitution (Sixty-First Amendment) Act, 1989.

Additional Information

  • Article 225 - The highest court of appeals having the authority to interpret the Constitution is this one. The high court currently has the following authority and powers:
  • Initial Authority
  • Writ Appellate Supervisory Authority over lower courts
  • A record-keeping court
  • Judicial Review Authority
  • The high court has original jurisdiction, meaning it can hear the case in the first instance. This includes issues with contempt of court, state and federal legislative elections, financial issues, and the upholding of fundamental rights, among other things
  • Article 224: Designation of Supplementary and Interim Judges
  • If there is a brief increase in the High Court's workload, the President has the authority to name a qualified individual to serve as alternate judges. Such an assignment is of a transitory character, with a maximum duration of two years.
  • In the event that a high court judge—other than the Chief Justice—is temporarily appointed as the Chief Justice of the High Court and is unable to carry out his duties, the President is also permitted to name a qualified individual as an acting judge of the court. Until the permanent judge returns to his position, an acting judge may serve in that capacity.
  • Article 329: Court intervention in electoral matters is prohibited.

Question 233

Marx in his history of ideas puts three main explainations of how the human societies have developed over the years. Which of the following is not one of them?

  1. AOption (a)

    Realist Interpretation

  2. BOption (b)

    Idealist Interpretation

  3. COption (c)

    Spiritualist Interpretation

  4. DOption (d)

    Materialist Interpretation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Realist Interpretation

Why this answer is correct

Realist Interpretation is the correct answer.

Key Points

  • A group of linked theories of international relations known as realism place a strong emphasis on the state, national interest, and power in international politics.
  • Since the end of World War II, realism has dominated the academic study of international affairs.
  • Realists contend that they provide the most accurate account of state behavior as well as a range of policy recommendations (most notably about the distribution of power among nations) for reducing the naturally unstable aspects of international relations.
  • Realism, which includes neorealism, is concerned with persistent interaction patterns in a global system devoid of a single political authority.
  • The logic of domestic politics, which is controlled by a sovereign power, frequently varies from that of foreign politics due to this anarchic state.

 Additional Information

  • The symbolic or spiritual interpretation is another name for the idealist interpretation. Maybe the easiest way to understand it is to compare it to the other major interpretations of Revelation.
  • According to the futurist perspective, most of Revelation is still unfulfilled. The preterist, whose name derives from the Latin word preter, which means "past," believes that the destruction of the Jerusalem temple in AD 70 completed most of Revelation.
  • According to the idealist view, Revelation has always been fulfilled in the church's history.
  • Marx was not a supporter of organized religion and did not believe in the Judeo-Christian God, but he did acknowledge that organized religion represented human spiritual potential, which would have to wait for communism to fully materialize.
  • Marxism is a social, economic, and political theory that examines how the laborers are affected by the ruling class, which results in an unequal distribution of privileges and income within society. It encourages workers to voice their disapproval of unfairness.
  • To sum up, Marx's materialism is centered on the organic, physical, and temporal aspects of people and their communities. Marx uses these features to challenge the idea that capitalism is a social structure that represents the eternally natural state of affairs for people.
  • Karl Marx was a German-born philosopher, economist, political theorist, historian, sociologist, journalist, and revolutionary socialist who lived from 5 May 1818 to 14 March 1883.
  • His most well-known publications are the three-volume Das Kapital (1867–1894), which analyzes capitalism using his critical method of historical materialism, and the 1848 pamphlet The Communist Manifesto, which he coauthored with Friedrich Engels.
  • Marxism, the evolution of his theories and ideas, has had a significant impact on contemporary intellectual, political, and economic history.

Question 234

India’s first major science policy, the Scientific Policy Resolution (SPR) was drafted in which year?

  1. AOption (a)

    1983

  2. BOption (b)

    1958

  3. COption (c)

    1971

  4. DOption (d)

    1964

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1958

Why this answer is correct

1958 is the correct answer.

Key Points

  • The Indian Parliament prepared and approved the first significant scientific policy resolution in 1958.
  • India's scientific endeavors and mentality were founded upon this.
  • Realizing that investments in research and technology were necessary for the creation of welfare states led to this resolve.
  • Science and technology would thus be employed as a weapon for social transformation.

 Additional Information

  • As he accomplished in a number of other important national domains, such as politics and economics, Jawahar Lal Nehru laid the groundwork for science and technology in India.
  • He oversaw the project as India's principal designer.
  • He was quick to acknowledge the importance of science and technology and thought that scientific progress was the only way the country could solve its numerous issues.
  • He stated that science is the only way to address issues like hunger and poverty, mental illness and illiteracy, superstitions, gloomy customs, vast money that is wasted, and prosperous countries with starving inhabitants.
  • Consequently, he decided that science and technology were to be an integral part of the country's objectives.
  • He created a framework for incorporating science and technology into governmental economic planning in collaboration with P.C. Mahalanobis.
  • Many organizations and agencies were established and supported in order to conduct and coordinate research in many scientific and technology disciplines. Each document contained a five-year plan outlining the key fields of science and technology for the nation's socioeconomic change.

Question 235

Which Article states that the state shall endeavour to develop agriculture and industry along modern scientific lines? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Article 114

  2. BOption (b)

    Article 148

  3. COption (c)

    Article 48

  4. DOption (d)

    Article 39

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Article 48

Why this answer is correct

Article 48 is the correct answer.

Key Points

  • The State will work to organize agriculture and animal husbandry along contemporary, scientific lines. Specifically, it will take action to protect and enhance breeds and outlaw the killing of cows, calves, and other milch and draught livestock.
  • Part IV of the Indian Constitution addresses the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in Articles 36–51.
  • The state is supposed to keep the DPSP principles in mind when it creates laws and regulations.
  • Article 48: To enhance their breeds, forbid the killing of cows, calves, and other milch and draught livestock.

 Additional Information

  • The government can take money out of the Consolidated Fund of India through an appropriations bill to pay for expenses incurred during the fiscal year.
  • Article 114 of the Constitution states that Parliament must provide its consent before the government can take money out of the Consolidated Fund.
  • The withdrawal amount is applied to current expenses for the duration of the fiscal year.
  • Article 148: The Indian Comptroller and Auditor General
  • The President may appoint a Comptroller and Auditor-General of India by warrant under his hand and seal, and they may only be removed from their position in the same way and for the same reasons as a Supreme Court judge.
  • According to Article 39 of the Constitution, the state shall ensure that all individuals, including women, have access to adequate means of sustenance and equitable compensation for comparable labor.

Question 236

Who argued that sovereignty is the creation of a social contract and the sovereign is that individual or assembly who is authorised to will for the general purpose? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Thomas Hobbes

  2. BOption (b)

    Jean-Jacques Rousseau

  3. COption (c)

    David Held

  4. DOption (d)

    Jean Bodin

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Thomas Hobbes

Why this answer is correct

Thomas Hobbes is the correct answer.

Key Points

  • One of the main players in the political discussions of the Enlightenment was the English philosopher and physicist Thomas Hobbes. Based on the relationship between the absolute sovereign and civil society, he proposed the social contract hypothesis.
  • The first modern philosopher to present a comprehensive theory of the social contract was Hobbes, who published Leviathan in 1651. It outlined Hobbes' theory for the establishment of states, lawful governments, and an impartial science of morality.
  • Hobbes maintained that people enter into a social compact and create a civil society to prevent anarchy, which he connected to the natural state of affairs.
  • The relationship between the absolute sovereign and society is one of Hobbes' most significant tensions. Hobbes defined society as a population under a sovereign power, to which every member of the society gives up some rights in order to be protected. The protector's sovereign power comes from people giving up their own sovereign power in exchange for protection, hence any power used by this authority cannot be contested.
  • Hobbes' moral and political philosophy also covered the topic of natural rights. Although he acknowledged that everyone has the inherent right to live in peace, he maintained that in order to build a political and civil society, people must forgo most of their natural rights and assume moral obligations.

Additional Information

  • Jean-Jacques Rousseau was a political theorist, writer, and philosopher of Swiss descent. He was born in Geneva, Switzerland, on June 28, 1712, and passed away in Ermenonville, France, on July 2, 1778. The leaders of the French Revolution and the Romantic movement were influenced by his books and novels.
  • Political theory and international relations were the areas of expertise for British political scientist David Jonathan Andrew Held. Up to his passing, he was Durham University's Master of University College and Professor of Politics and International Relations.
  • Additionally, he held the position of visiting Political Science Professor at Libera Università Internazionale degli Studi Sociali Guido Carli. He has previously served as the London School of Economics' Graham Wallas Chair in Political Science and as co-director of the Center for the Study of Global Governance.

Question 237

The state shall, within the limits of its economic capacity and development, make effective provision for securing the right to work, to education and to public assistance in case of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement, and in other cases of undeserved want. This is as per which article? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Article 47

  2. BOption (b)

    Article 41

  3. COption (c)

    Article 44

  4. DOption (d)

    Article 40 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Article 41

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Article 41.

  • Every person has the right to rely on the institutions, bodies, offices, and agencies of the Union to handle their business in a manner that is impartial, fair, and reasonable.
  • Article 41 of the Indian Constitution involves the right to work, to education, and to public assistance in certain cases.

Key Points

  • According to Article 41, "Right to work, to education, and to public assistance in certain cases, the State shall, within the limits of its economic capacity and development, make effective provision for securing the right to work, to education, and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness, and disablement, and in other cases of undeserved want."
  • This right includes the following:
  • The right of everyone to a hearing before any individual action that would negatively impact them is taken.
  • The right of everyone to access their files while respecting the legitimate interests of confidentiality and of professional and business secrecy;
  • The requirement that the administration provide justification for decisions

Hence, the correct answer is Within the limits of its economic capacity and development, the state shall make effective provision for securing the rights to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement, and in other cases of undeserved want.

Question 238

Indira Gandhi got the Congress working committee to adopt the ten-point programme in ________

  1. AOption (a)

    May 1967

  2. BOption (b)

    April 1967

  3. COption (c)

    June 1967

  4. DOption (d)

    July1967

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

May 1967

Why this answer is correct

May 1967 is the correct answer.

Key Points

  • Program with ten points:
  • During a may1967 meeting of the All India Congress Committee (AICC), Indira Gandhi presented the Ten Point Programme.
  • The Indian National Congress' principal decision-making body is the AICC.
  • The ten-point programme includes,

• Social control of banks.

• Nationalization of general insurance.

• Abolition of privy purses and princely privileges.

• Nationalization of export and import trade.

• Curbs on monopolies and concentration of economic power.

• Limits on urban income and property.

• Better implementation of land reform.

• Public distribution of food grains.

• Provisions for house-sites to the rural poor.

Additional Information

  • Indira Gandhi (1917-1984): Prime Minister of India from 1966 to 1977 and 1980 to 1984; daughter of Jawaharlal Nehru; participated in the freedom struggle as a young Congress worker; Congress President in 1958; minister in Shastri's cabinet from 1964-66; led the Congress party to victory in 1967, 1971 and 1980 general elections; credited with the slogan 'garibi hatao', victory in 1971 war and for policy initiatives like abolition of Privy Purse, nationalisation of banks, nuclear test and environmental protection; assassinated on 31 October 1984.

Question 239

The socialist model of development was related to - 

  1. AOption (a)

    Pakistan

  2. BOption (b)

    The USA

  3. COption (c)

    USSR

  4. DOption (d)

    Europe

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

USSR

Why this answer is correct

USSR is the correct answer. 

Key Points

  • The capitalist-liberal paradigm of development is rejected by the Marxist Socialist model. Poland and the USSR (1917–1990), two communist republics Hungary, Romania, Bulgaria, Czechoslovakia, and East Germany A centralized command economic system was employed by North Korea, Vietnam, and Cuba (from 1945 to 1990) as a means of development.
  • The socialist model of industrialization places a strong emphasis on community-based businesses and cooperatives that serve the interests of the general public.
  • It meant efforts to fortify labor syndicates, friendly societies, and trade unions—with or without the support of political parties.
  • Nationalization was perceived as a means of establishing a domain of operations in which laborers lacked agency.
  • State control over the economy led to the evolution of governments. The public welfare was the benchmark for these governments.
  • Thus, when the economy developed, it was referred to be a planned economy.
  • Nonetheless, rather than seeing government intervention as a means of preventing exploitation, the majority of socialists harbored a deep-seated fear of it.

​

Additional Information

  • The Western Liberal Model of Development postulates that all societies go through stages of development, including traditional, transitional, and modern. It believes that economic progress is contingent upon political development. It affirms that each person's autonomy, rights, and self-interest serve as the cornerstone of all progress.
  • Welfare Model of Development: This approach acknowledges and vigorously defends the state's role in the economy in advancing the socioeconomic well-being and societal goals. It views the state as a welfare state and promotes the idea that organized government action and planning are necessary for quick industrialization, strong economic expansion, and socioeconomic advancement.
  • Democratic-Socialist Model of Development: This model promotes development by democratic means to achieve socialist objectives. India and a number of other Third World nations made the decision to use this model. In actuality, these republics merged the welfare state and democratic socialism models to achieve quick industrialization, economic expansion, and development. They embraced organized planning and the democratic political process.
  • The Gandhian concept of Development is entirely distinct from the materialistic, Western concept of development. It prioritizes moral growth and an ethical perspective on the interplay between socioeconomic and political development. All human actions and decisions should be based on the principles of truth and nonviolence.

Question 240

A legal proceeding during which an individual՚s right to hold an office or governmental privilege is challenged is called - 

  1. AOption (a)

    Writ of mandamus 

  2. BOption (b)

    Writ of quo warranto

  3. COption (c)

    Writ certiorari

  4. DOption (d)

    Writ of prohibition

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Writ of quo warranto

Why this answer is correct

Writ of quo warranto is the right answer.

Key Points

  • A unique type of legal procedure known as quo warranto is used to settle disagreements regarding a person's eligibility to occupy a public office.
  • Quo warranto is not meant to assess an individual's performance in office; rather, it is intended to verify their eligibility to hold an office.
  • The Constitution's two distinct but parallel writ jurisdiction provisions with the Supreme Court and High Courts, respectively, are found in Articles 32 and 226.
  • The constitutional remedy against the violation of fundamental rights is outlined in Article 32, which has been included as a fundamental right.
  • Under Article 32, this remedy is only available in cases when basic rights have been violated.

 Additional Information

  • Writ of Habeas Corpus: The most important writ for individual freedom. To have habeas corpus is to say, "Let us have the body." After being taken into custody, a person may petition the court for a writ of habeas corpus.
  • A court orders the detaining authority to bring the arrested individual before it so that it can determine whether or not the detainee has been held legally. The Court may provide an order for the individual's release if it finds that the person is being held unlawfully.
  • An arrestee must be hauled before a judge or into court under a writ of habeas corpus, which is a court order that meaning "you may have the body" in Latin**.**
  • Writ of mandamus: The Latin term "Mandamus" (meaning "We Command") is the title of the Writ of Mandamus. A mandamus is an order from a higher court compelling a lower court, tribunal, or public authority to carry out a duty.
  • It is issued to ensure that public obligations are fulfilled and to uphold private rights that the government has refused to grant. In essence, it is an order given to a public servant to carry out a task that is part of his official duties but that he has not yet completed. It is not possible to assert the right to this writ. Such writs may be issued at a court's discretion.
  • The Writ of Certiorari: Certiorari literally translates as "to be certified." The Supreme Court can transfer a case to another higher authority for appropriate consideration by issuing a Writ of Certiorari to a lower court or tribunal.
  • Any High Court or the Supreme Court may grant a Writ of Certiorari to overturn an earlier ruling made by a lower court. Put otherwise, at a later point, Certiorari is possible on comparable grounds, even though the ban is available at an earlier stage.
  • The Writ of Prohibition: also called a "Stay Order," is a legal document that has the power to prohibit or cease. When a lesser court or other body attempts to overstep its bounds or authority, this Writ is issued. It is a Writ that a higher court issues to a lesser court or tribunal, prohibiting it from acting in a way that is not within its purview.
  • Following the issuance of this Writ, the lower court's proceedings, etc., come to an end. Any High Court or the Supreme Court may issue a Writ of Prohibition to any lower court, preventing it from carrying out further proceedings in a specific case in which it lacks trial jurisdiction.

Discipline 8 (20 questions)

Question 241

Parties act as a check against the tendency of absolutism which is also known as:

  1. Caesarism
  2. Bonapartism
  3. Multi-partisan
  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 2

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Only 3

Why this answer is correct

Only 3 is the correct answer.

Key Points

  • The political theory and practice of absolute sovereignty and unrestricted centralized authority, often held by a monarch or dictator, is known as absolutism.
  • The fundamental characteristic of an absolutist regime is that the governing authority is not regularly challenged or subject to checks and balances by other agencies, including legislative, judicial, economic, religious, or electoral ones.
  • According to political science, a multi-party system is a political structure in which several political parties from different political persuasions compete in national elections and have the potential to seize power either individually or in tandem to take over government positions.
  • In addition to one-party dominance and two-party systems, multi-party systems are typically found in parliamentary systems as opposed to presidential ones, and they are much more prevalent in nations that employ proportional representation as opposed to those that employ first-past-the-post voting. There is competition among the parties for power, and each one has a good chance of becoming the government.

 Additional Information

  • The political ideology that emerged from Napoleon Bonaparte and his adherents and successors is known as bonapartism (French: bonapartisme).
  • Those who wanted to bring back the Bonaparte House and its form of government were referred to by this phrase.
  • The term "Caesarism" in political science refers to an authoritarian and autocratic worldview that was influenced by Julius Caesar, the 49–44 BC Roman dictator.
  • The term "caesarism" is typically used to disparagingly describe certain individuals or policies in Western politics.

Question 242

In America, when the President's post falls vacant (resignation, death, impeachment, etc) then who of the following takes over as President?

  1. AOption (a)

    Vice President

  2. BOption (b)

    The Chief of Defence

  3. COption (c)

    The Governor of the state of Washington

  4. DOption (d)

    The Judge of Supreme Court

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Vice President

Why this answer is correct

Vice President is the correct answer.

Key Points

  • If the President be removed from office, die, or resign, the Vice President will assume the Presidency.
  • When the President of the United States passes away, resigns, or is impeached, the Vice President assumes the Presidency and serves as the acting President.
  • Then, until a new President is chosen by applying the concept of Proportional Representation and a single transferable vote, the Vice President takes over as President.
  • On the first Tuesday in November every four years, there is a US presidential election.
  • To be eligible, the candidate must be at least 35 years old, be a native of the US, and have spent the last 14 years living in the US.
  • Conventionally, presidential contenders declare their desire to run for office in the year preceding the election.
  • Thousands of administrators assist local administrations in organizing elections since there is no national body in charge of doing so.

Additional Information

  • The people do not directly elect the US President and Vice President. Rather, they are selected by "electors" via a procedure known as the "Electoral College."
  • There are five main steps in the US presidential election process
  1. Primaries and caucuses
  2. National conventions
  3. Election campaigning.
  4. General Election
  5. Electoral college.

Question 243

Trygve Lie was the first secretary general of UN. He was from which of the following Countries?

  1. AOption (a)

    Germany

  2. BOption (b)

    Italy

  3. COption (c)

    Norway

  4. DOption (d)

    France

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Norway

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Norway.

Key Points

  • Trygve Halvdan Lie, a politician, lawyer and diplomat, the first secretary-general of the United Nations belongs to Norway (Oslo).
  • Trygve Lie, who held office from February 1946 to his resignation in November 1952.
  • The United Nations is an international organization founded in 1945.  It is currently made up of 193 Member States.
  • The mission and work of the United Nations are guided by the purposes and principles contained in its founding Charter.
  • A Portuguese politician António Guterres is present and 9th  Secretary-general of the United Nations.
  • The headquarter of UNO is located in New York, United States.

Question 244

How many members are there in Public Accounts Committee?

  1. AOption (a)

    22

  2. BOption (b)

    20

  3. COption (c)

    18

  4. DOption (d)

    24

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

22

Why this answer is correct

The Correct Answer is 22.

Key Points

  • Public Accounts Committee:
  • The function of the committee is to examine the annual audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India which are laid before the Parliament by the President.
  • At present the committee consists of 22 members; 15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha.
  • The members are elected by the Parliament every year from amongst its members accordingly to the principle of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.
  • The Chairman of the committee is selected from the Opposition and appointed by the Speaker.

Question 245

Which country in central Asia witnessed a civil war that went on for Ten years?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tajikistan

  2. BOption (b)

    Azerbaijan

  3. COption (c)

    Turkmenistan

  4. DOption (d)

    Uzbekistan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Tajikistan

Why this answer is correct

Tajikistan is the correct answer.

Key Points

  • A civil war raged in Tajikistan, central Asia, for ten years until 2001.
  • The Tajik Civil War, commonly referred to as the Tajikistani Civil War, lasted from May 1992 until June 1997.
  • Regional factions from Tajikistan's Garm and Gorno-Badakhshan regions rebelled against President Rahmon Nabiyev's newly created cabinet, which was predominately made up of individuals from the Khujand and Kulob areas.
  • Leaders of the rebel factions included Islamists and liberal democratic reformers, who would later unite under the United Tajik Opposition banner.
  • The Russian border guards and military provided support to the government.

 Additional Information

  • The Tajiki people's communal way of life, intense religiosity, and economic suffering were among the many factors that contributed to the country's civil war.
  • The 'Perestroika' policies of Soviet President Mikhail Gorbachev gave rise to a Muslim-Democratic movement in Tajiki SSR.
  • The Democratic Party of Tajikistan, the Party of Tajikistan Muslim Resurrection, and a few smaller movements formed the core of the opposition.
  • The conflict between the opposition and the old communist elite became more ethnic and clan-based than political.
  • Following protests by opposition members protesting the outcome of the 1991 presidential election, tensions started to rise in the spring of 1992.
  • The distribution of weaponry to pro-government militias was coordinated by Speaker of the Supreme Soviet Safarali Kenjayev and President Rahmon Nabiyev.

Question 246

By which Article of the Constitution can the Rajya Sabha pass a bill with 2/3rd majority and establish one or more all India services? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Article 256

  2. BOption (b)

    Article 96

  3. COption (c)

    Article 356

  4. DOption (d)

    Article 312

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Article 312

Why this answer is correct

Article 312 is the correct answer.

Key Points

  • The Rajya Sabha has the authority to establish one or more All India services, such as an All India Judicial Service, that are shared by the Union and the States in accordance with Article 312 of the Indian Constitution.
  • The Union Public Service Commission is in charge of hiring people for each of these positions (UPSC).
  • The State Public Service Commission is in charge of hiring people for state-level administrative services (SPSC).
  • The main hiring organization in India is the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC).
  • It is a separate body created by the constitution.
  • Part XIV of the Indian Constitution, Articles 315 to 323, contains the provisions pertaining to UPSC's composition, appointment and removal of its members, and powers and functions.

Additional Information

  • Article 256 addresses the Union's and the States' obligations. According to this, each state's executive power must be used to ensure compliance with both existing state laws and laws passed by parliament. The union's executive power may also be used to direct a state in any way that the Indian government deems necessary to achieve this goal.
  • Article 96: During the consideration of a resolution to remove the Speaker or Deputy Speaker from office, they shall not preside.
  • Article 356 states that any Indian state may be placed under President's Rule if the constitutional mechanism fails. There are two varieties of this:
  • In the event that the President is persuaded—either through the state governor's report or otherwise—that the conditions in the state prevent the state government from carrying out its constitutionally mandated governance.
  • Article 365: If a state disregards all of the Union's directives on subjects over which it has the authority, President's Rule may be enforced.

Question 247

Swatantra Party was formed in which of the following years?

  1. AOption (a)

    1952

  2. BOption (b)

    1961

  3. COption (c)

    1959

  4. DOption (d)

    1955

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1959

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '1959'.

Key Points

  • The Swatantra Party was an Indian classical liberal political party, that existed from 1959 to 1974.
  • It was founded by C. Rajagopalachari in reaction to what he felt was the Jawaharlal Nehru-dominated INCs increasingly socialist and statist outlook.
  • Main Leaders: C. Rajagopalachari, Tanguturi Prakasam Pantulu, Udham Singh Nagoke, and K.M. Munshi.

Additional Information

Party NameFounded ByYear
Swatantra PartyC. Rajagopalachari1959
Janata PartyJayprakash Narayan1977
Bhartiya Janata PartyAtal Bihari Vajpayee, Lal Krishna Advani, Shekhawat1980
Communist Party of India (Marxist)Jyoti Basu, A.K. Gopalan1964

Question 248

The Indian leader who is the first recipient of Bharat Ratna award is - 

  1. AOption (a)

    Rajagopalachari 

  2. BOption (b)

    K.M. Munshi

  3. COption (c)

    Balraj Madhok 

  4. DOption (d)

    B. R. Ambedkar 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Rajagopalachari 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is C. Rajgopalachari.

Key Points

  • The first recipients of the Bharat Ratna honoured in 1954 were:
  • The last Governor-General of the Dominion of India – C. Rajagopalachari.
  • Second President and the First Vice President of India – Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan.
  • Nobel Prize Laureate, Physicist C. V. Raman.

Additional Information

  • Bharat Ratna can be given to any person irrespective of race, occupation, position or sex. Bharat Ratna the highest civilian Award of the country, was instituted in the year 1954.
  • There is a maximum of 3 persons that can be awarded, India's highest civilian award i.e. Bharat Ratna.
  • In 2019, this award was given to 3 eminent persons namely; Pranab Mukherjee, Nanaji Deshmukh, and Bhupen Hazarika.
  • C. Rajagopalachari was the First recipient of Bharat Ratna Award in 1954.
  • An Indian independence activist, statesman, and lawyer, Rajagopalachari was the only Indian and last Governor-General of independent India. He was Chief Minister of Madras Presidency (1937–39) and Madras State (1952–54); and founder of the Indian political party Swatantra Party.

Question 249

On 19 March 2003, the US launched its invasion of Iraq under the code name -

  1. AOption (a)

    Operation Red

  2. BOption (b)

    Operation Terror Freedom

  3. COption (c)

    Operation War On Terrorism

  4. DOption (d)

    Operation Iraqi Freedom 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Operation Iraqi Freedom 

Why this answer is correct

Operation Iraqi Freedom is the correct answer.

Key Points

  • The US invaded Iraq on March 19, 2003, using the codename "Operation Iraqi Freedom."
  • When the UN declined to approve the invasion, over forty more nations joined the US-led "coalition of the willing."
  • The Iraq War was a two-phase battle that lasted from 2003 to 2011.
  • The first of these took place during a brief, conventionally fought war that took place in March and April of 2003. Iraqi military and paramilitary forces were quickly routed by a combined force of troops from the United States and Great Britain, along with smaller contingents from numerous other nations.

 Additional Information

  • Punjab’s Excise Department started Operation Red Rose in 2020 to stop illegal booze sales and apprehend excise-related offenses.
  • A thirty-person anti-smuggling cell has been assembled specifically for this purpose. To prevent the smuggling of alcohol, close coordination is also maintained with the excise department.
  • The newly independent republic of India's police operation against the Princely State of Hyderabad in September 1948 was known by the code name Operation Polo.
  • After hostilities broke out, the Indian Army marched into Hyderabad, overpowered the Hyderabadi forces, and incorporated Hyderabad into the Indian Union.
  • India celebrates December 19th of each year because it was the day that the Indian Forces concluded Operation Vijay, which freed the Portuguese-ruled territories of Goa, Daman and Diu, and Anjadiv Island.
  • On December 17, 1961, Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru launched Operation Vijay, a military operation to liberate Goa after all diplomatic attempts to reach an agreement with the Portuguese had failed.

Question 250

By which year had India completely started using EVMs in elections?

  1. AOption (a)

    1992

  2. BOption (b)

    2004

  3. COption (c)

    1984

  4. DOption (d)

    2010

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2004

Why this answer is correct

2004 is the correct answer.

Key Points

  • More than a million electronic voting machines were utilized in all 543 parliamentary constituencies across the nation in the 2004 Lok Sabha General Election.
  • An essential component of the voting process is the Electronic Voting Machine (EVM), which has replaced the ballot box.
  • The job of designing and developing it was given to Hyderabad's Electronics Corporation of India Ltd. (ECIL) when it was first envisaged in 1977 at the Election Commission.
  • A prototype was created in 1979 and presented by the Election Commission to political party leaders on August 6, 1980.
  • Once a broad consensus was established on its adoption, ECIL and another public-sector firm, Bharat Electronic Ltd. (BEL) in Bangalore, were co-opted to manufacture EVMs.

 Additional Information

  • First time use of EVMs occurred in the general election in Kerala in May, 1982; however, the absence of a specific law prescribing its use led to the Supreme Court striking down that election.
  • Subsequently, in 1989, the Parliament amended the Representation of the People Act, 1951 to create a provision for the use of EVMs in the elections.
  • A general consensus on its introduction could be reached only in 1998 and these were used in 25 Legislative Assembly constituencies spread across three states of Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Delhi.
  • Its use was further expanded in 1999 to 45 Parliamentary Constituencies and later, in February 2000, to 45 Assembly Constituencies of the Haryana Assembly elections.
  • In the State Assembly elections, held in May 2001, in the states of Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Puducherry and West Bengal, the EVMs were used in all the Assembly Constituencies.

Question 251

Which among the following Prime Minister of India led the first coalition government of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Indira Gandhi

  2. BOption (b)

    Morarji Desai

  3. COption (c)

    Charan Singh

  4. DOption (d)

    Chandra Shekhar 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Morarji Desai

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Morarji Desai'.

Concept:

  • A coalition government is a form of government in which different political parties co-operate to form a government.
  • Such a government is formed in cases where no single party gets the majority of votes polled in an election.
  • In this, different parties having a smaller number of the vote comes together to form a government.

Explanation:

  • Elections in 1989 did not result in a majority for any other party.
  • Though Congress was the largest party in the Lok Sabha, it did not have a clear majority.
  • Therefore, it decided to sit in the opposition.

Morarji Desai:

  • He served as the 4th Prime Minister of India between 1977 to 1979.
  • He was the leader of Janta Party.
  • he was the first non-congress Prime Minister of India.
  • The first Prime Minister to form a coalition government in India was Morarji Desai.
  • He formed a coalition government in 1977 after the Janata Party alliance won the general elections.

Thus, Moraji Desai was the first prime minister who formed a coalition government first of all.

Additional InformationIndira Gandhi:

  • Indira Priyadarshini Gandhi (née Nehru; 19 November 1917 – 31 October 1984) was an Indian politician and stateswoman who served as the third Prime Minister of India for a total of 15 years.
  • During her tenure, she was praised for her political leadership, her economic policies, and her dedication to social justice.
  • She is also known for her controversial decision to impose emergency rule in the country in 1975.

Charan Singh

  • Charan Singh (23 December 1902 – 29 May 1987) was an Indian politician who served as the fifth Prime Minister of India from 1979 to 1980.
  • He was also the leader of the Janata Party and the Lok Dal.

Chandra Shekhar

  • Chandra Shekhar (1 April 1927 – 8 July 2007) was an Indian politician who served as the eighth Prime Minister of India from 1990 to 1991.
  • He was also the leader of the Janata Dal party.

Question 252

The Vice President of India is:

  1. AOption (a)

    The de facto President of the National Human Rights Commission

  2. BOption (b)

    The de facto representative of India to the UN General Assembly

  3. COption (c)

    Ex-Officio Chairman/Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha 

  4. DOption (d)

    The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Ex-Officio Chairman/Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha 

Why this answer is correct

Ex-Officio Chairman/Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha  is the correct answer.

Key Points

  • The Vice President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha. The House also elects a Deputy Chairman from among its members.
  • The Rajya Sabha should consist of not more than 250 members - 238 members representing the States and Union Territories, and 12 members nominated by the President. Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution.
  • However, one third of the members retire every second year, and are replaced by newly elected members. Each member is elected for a term of six years.
  • The vice president position in India is modeled after the vice president position in the United States.
  • The vice president of India is the second-highest office in the nation. The Vice-President position is mentioned in Article 63 of the Indian Constitution.
  • The Vice-President of India is chosen indirectly by the Electoral College; there is no direct election for this position.
  • The vice president is in office for a period of five years. He may, however, submit his resignation to the President in order to leave office before the five-year mark

 Additional Information

  • The National Human Rights Commission's current chairman is Arun Kumar Mishra. He was a Supreme Court judge in the past. Justice H. L. served as the NHRC's previous chairman.
  • India's permanent representative to the UN and other international organizations in Geneva is Arindam Bagchi, the External Affairs Ministry's spokesperson.
  • The principal diplomatic representative of India at the UN is the country's permanent representative to the UN. The Permanent Mission of India to the United
  • Nations in New York City is led by the permanent representative, also known as the UN ambassador.
  • Ruchira Kamboj assumed the role of India's permanent representative to the UN on August 1, 2022.
  • The higher authority of the house of people and its presiding officer is the speaker of the Lok Sabha. Typically, a general election held during the first Lok Sabha session selects the speaker.
  • During the legislative session, the speaker oversees the joint session of the two houses of parliament and keeps the house in order and discipline.

Question 253

Which of the following does not come under the purview of Civil Case?

  1. AOption (a)

    Divorce between Husband and Wife

  2. BOption (b)

    Property

  3. COption (c)

    Breach of Contract

  4. DOption (d)

    Robbery

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Robbery

Why this answer is correct

Robbery is the correct answer. 

Key Points

  • Robbery is a severe criminal offense that carries a maximum ten-year prison sentence in addition to a fine.
  • In the 2008 case of Venu alias Venugopal v. State of Karnataka, the Supreme Court noted that robbery is an enhanced theft or extortion offense, with the use of violence, harm, death, or restraint being aggravating factors. The act of violence must occur during the theft, not after.
  • "Robbery" is a more severe version of either "theft" or "extortion," or both.
  • The presence of impending violence or terror is what makes robbery an essential crime. A significant fraction of robberies involve both extortion and an aggravating type of stealing.
  • A dacoity is a "robbery" that involves five or more people.
  • Section 390 of the Indian Penal Code 1860 (IPC) states that stealing or extortion are always involved in robberies.
  • An attempt at robbery is punishable under Section 393 by a severe seven-year jail sentence and a fine

Additional Information

  • Civil law is used to make decisions in divorce, rent, and property sale situations.
  • The parties may file a petition with the court to obtain a divorce by mutual consent under Section 13B of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955. When two parties consent to an amicable split, it is said to be mutual consent. A straightforward method of ending the marriage and dissolving it legally is by mutual consent divorce.
  • The Indian Civil Law has an extremely broad definition of "property cases." Property cases refer to and encompass any disagreement over ownership, possession, division, or right of property.
  • Any deviation from the agreed-upon terms and conditions of a legally enforceable contract is considered a breach of that contract.
  • Anything from a tardy payment to a more significant infraction, such the non-delivery of a pledged asset, could constitute a breach. In the event that a contract is challenged in court, it will be enforceable

Question 254

____ theory in political analysis assumes that individuals tend to use actions that bring them the best results. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Grey Theory

  2. BOption (b)

    Game theory

  3. COption (c)

    Race theory

  4. DOption (d)

    Damp Theory

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Game theory

Why this answer is correct

Game theory is the correct answer.

Key Points

  • Political studies of electoral tactics and the external relationships of political systems has made use of game theory.
  • It has been utilized by political scientists for testing and logical decision-making. According to this hypothesis, people typically take the behaviors that will provide the greatest outcomes for them.
  • With its ability to provide insightful understanding of the intricate and strategic decision-making processes that regulate the relationships between states, non-state actors, and international organizations, game theory has emerged as a vital instrument in the field of international politics.
  • Game theory provides academics and policymakers with a mathematical framework for comprehending strategic conduct and forecasting results, enabling them to model and examine the wide range of variables influencing the decisions and actions of players on the global stage.

 Additional Information

  • Gray believes that social democracy and conservatism, as traditional left- and right-wing political ideologies, are no longer relevant. Regarding liberalism, Gray distinguished individualist, egalitarian, meliorist, and universalist as the common threads that run through liberal philosophy.
  • Academically speaking, critical race theory has been around for more than 40 years. The basic thesis is that racism is a social construct and that it is ingrained in legal frameworks and governmental regulations in addition to being the result of personal bias and prejudice.
  • Damage-associated molecular patterns (DAMPs) are substances that are released from injured or dying cells as a part of the innate immune response as a result of trauma or a pathogen infection.

Question 255

The railway strike of 1974 was called by George Fernandes when he was the President of:

  1. AOption (a)

    All India Railwaymen's Federation

  2. BOption (b)

    Railway Employees' Union

  3. COption (c)

    Rail Mazdoor Sangh

  4. DOption (d)

    Bharatiya Kamgar Sena

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

All India Railwaymen's Federation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'All India Railwaymen's Federation'.

Key Points

  • 1974 railway strike in India was a major strike by the workers of Indian Railways in 1974.
  • The strike lasted from 8 to 27 May 1974.
  • The 20 day strike by 1.7 million (17 lakh) workers is the largest recorded industrial action in the world.
  • The strike was held to demand an eight-hour working day for locomotive staff by All India Railway Mens federation and a raise in pay scale, which had remained stagnant over many years. Hence Option 2 is correct.
  • The spread of diesel engines and the consequent intensification of work in the Indian Railways since the 1960s resulted in continuous working hours being extended by days, creating much resentment among the workers
  • The eight hour work day had not been implemented in Indian railways by the Railway Board, a quasi government bureaucracy despite having become a free country in 1947, this had led to dissatisfaction among labour, especially locomotive Pilots.
  • When the crafts unions raised the issue, they demanded a 12-hour working day for loco running staff.
  • This led to railway strikes by rail workers across the country in 1967, 1968, 1970 and 1973, finally leading to the 1974 strike which was participated in by 70% of the permanent work force of railways.

Question 256

Which party dominates the political affairs of Maldives?

  1. AOption (a)

    Maldivian socialist party 

  2. BOption (b)

    Maldivian Communist party

  3. COption (c)

    Maldivian republic party

  4. DOption (d)

    Maldivian democratic party

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Maldivian democratic party

Why this answer is correct

Maldivian democratic party is the correct answer.

Key Points

  • Maldivian democratic party dominates the political affairs of Maldives.
  • With 57,660 members as of February 11, 2023, the Maldivian Democratic Party is the first political party established in the Republic of the Maldives.
  • After securing safe majorities in the parliament and the presidency in 2018 and 2019, the party is currently in power in the Maldives as of 2023. For the first time, a party won a majority in the legislature in 2019 without the need for a coalition.
  • The Maldives is among the newest democracies in South Asia, having only held multiparty democratic elections and ratified a new constitution in 2008.
  • The nation's fourth multiparty presidential election was held in September of this year, and it was mainly calm and competitive.
  • Since November 17, 2023, Maldivian politician Mohamed Muizzu has held the office of president of the Maldives.

Additional Information

  • The autonomous island nation of Maldives is located in the north-central Indian Ocean. It is made up of a series of roughly 1,200 tiny atolls, or clusters, of sandbanks and coral islands, 200 of which are inhabited.
  • The islands span more than 80 miles (130 km) in east-west direction and 510 miles (820 km) in north-south direction.
  • The center region, which includes the capital island of Male (Male'), is around 400 miles (645 km) southwest of Sri Lanka, while the northernmost atoll is roughly 370 miles (600 km) south-southwest of the Indian peninsula.

Question 257

The Red Empire (USSR) was disintegrated in which of the following years?

  1. AOption (a)

    1991

  2. BOption (b)

    1989

  3. COption (c)

    1992

  4. DOption (d)

    1993

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1991

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1991.

Key Points

  • The collapse of the Soviet Union, sequence of events that led to the dissolution of the Soviet Union on December 31, 1991.
  • The former superpower was replaced by 15 independent countries: Armenia, Azerbaijan, Belarus, Estonia, Georgia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Latvia, Lithuania, Moldova, Russia, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, Ukraine, and Uzbekistan.
  • This disintegration marked the end of a bi-polar world and therefore the cold war.

Question 258

In the year 1997, Mr. Indra Kumar Gujral, elected as Prime Minister was a member of __________

  1. AOption (a)

    member of State Legislature for Gujarat

  2. BOption (b)

    Lok Sabha

  3. COption (c)

    Member of State Legislature from Kerala

  4. DOption (d)

    Rajya Sabha

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Rajya Sabha

Why this answer is correct

Rajya Sabha is the correct answer.

Key Points

  • On April 21, 1997, Shri Inder Kumar Gujral took the oath of office as India's 12th prime minister.
  • Son of Late Smt. Pushpa Gujral and Late Shri Avtar Narain Gujral
  • When he organized a movement of young children in the town of Jhelum, the police caught and severely beat him, even though he was just eleven years old at the time. He then actively engaged in the 1931 liberation struggle. He was imprisoned in 1942 as part of the Quit India Movement.
  • Prior to taking over as India's prime minister, Shri Gujral served as the department's minister of external affairs beginning on June 1, 1996, and as the ministry's additional head beginning on June 28, 1996.
  • Prior to 1990, he served as the External Affairs Minister from 1989 to 1990.
  • In addition to serving as India's Ambassador to the Soviet Union (Cabinet Rank) from 1976 to 1980, he was also a Minister from 1967 to 1976.

 Additional Information

  • The President appoints the Prime Minister in accordance with Article 75. This does not, however, imply that the President may appoint anyone to be Prime Minister.
  • The head of the majority party in the Lok Sabha is usually appointed as prime minister by the President in accordance with the customs of a parliamentary government system.
  • The President may choose and appoint the Prime Minister at their discretion in cases where no party has a certain majority in the Lok Sabha.
  • The head of the party or coalition with the majority of members in the Lok Sabha, the lower house of India's parliament, is appointed by the President of India.
  • In addition to overseeing the government's operations, the prime minister acts as the principal spokesman for its policies.
  • As per Article 75, the President will appoint the Council of Ministers based on the Prime Minister's recommendation.
  • In addition, Article 74(1) specifies that the President should be assisted and advised by a Council of Ministers headed by a Prime Minister. As a result, the Prime Minister is in charge of other ministers.

Question 259

When was Rajeev Gandhi assassinated?

  1. AOption (a)

    21st June, 1992

  2. BOption (b)

    20th May, 1990

  3. COption (c)

    30th May, 1991

  4. DOption (d)

    21st May, 1991

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

21st May, 1991

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '21st May, 1991'.

Key Points

  • The 6th Prime Minister of India, Rajiv Gandhi was assassinated on 21st May 1991 by a suicide bomber from LTTE (Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam).
  • He served as the Prime Minister from 1984 to 1989 after his mother's assassination in 1984.
  • He was posthumously awarded the Bharat Ratna in 1991.

Question 260

Easton's conceptual framework evolved in _____ phases

  1. AOption (a)

    4

  2. BOption (b)

    5

  3. COption (c)

    2

  4. DOption (d)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

3

Why this answer is correct

3 is the correct answer.

Key Points

  • System theory conceptual framework developed in three stages, according to David Easton.
  • The initial stage is represented by the Political System (1953).
  • A Political Life Analysis and a Framework for Political Analysis,
  • They represent the second and third phases, respectively, and were both released in 1965.
  • Easton offers encouragement as well as demands.
  • The number of the demands may be enormous, as the political system does not permit all of them to be implemented.
  • Behavior regulation: market control, public safety, etc.
  • For the distribution of commodities and services, such as pay and working conditions, education, health, etc.;
  • For participation in the political system, including the ability to vote and organize political associations;

 Additional Information

  • "Authoritative allocation of values with threat or actual use of deprivations to make them binding on all" is how David Easton defines a political system. Three crucial components emerge from a close examination of Easton's definition:
  • Allocation of Values: This describes how resources, advantages, and priorities are allocated within a community.
  • Authoritative Allocation: This emphasizes that there is some authority involved in the distribution of values, implying that a known and acknowledged process is in place to make these choices.
  • Binding Nature: Decisions taken in the political system bind society as a whole; they are not just recommendations. This suggests that people have a duty to follow these judgments.

Discipline 9 (20 questions)

Question 261

Which of the following theories is not regarding origin of States?

  1. AOption (a)

    force theory

  2. BOption (b)

    Marxian theory

  3. COption (c)

    Braid theory

  4. DOption (d)

    Divine theory 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Braid theory

Why this answer is correct

Braid theory is the correct answer.

Key Points

  • Located in the Port of Los Angeles, Braid Theory is a vertically integrated venture advisory and accelerator. In order to spur market expansion, foster lucrative partnerships, and quicken the adoption of disruptive technologies, we bring together business partners, industry leaders, and entrepreneurs.
  • Prominent for leading the cleantech and blue economy spaces, Braid Theory is pleased to announce that it has officially joined Morrow's Venture Accelerator as a member.
  • In order to assist cutting-edge technologies and approaches for achieving zero emission shipping and maritime decarbonization, Pacific Environment and Braid Theory announced a partnership to develop the "Zero-Emission Shipping Venture Studio."

Additional Information

  • According to the doctrine of force, the weak were forced to submit to the strong, which led to the creation of the state. This argument was employed by one school of thought to support the state on the grounds that might creates justice, the state is power, and the state is fundamentally a sovereign will.
  • A political and religious belief of royal and political legitimacy is known as the divine right of kings, or divine-right theory of kingship. It states that a king has the right to reign straight from God's will and is not subject to any earthly power.
  • According to the social contract hypothesis, members of society coexist in conformity with a set of moral and political norms.
  • Some people think that if we follow the social compact, we can live moral lives out of our own free will rather than because they are mandated by a higher power

Question 262

Once a Budget has been presented in the Parliament, the government has to get all money bills related to the union budget passed within __?

  1. AOption (a)

    30 Days

  2. BOption (b)

    60 Days 

  3. COption (c)

    75 Days

  4. DOption (d)

    90 Days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

75 Days

Why this answer is correct

75 Days is the correct answer.

Key Points

  • Regulations mandate that the government enact all appropriations bills associated with the union budget within seventy-five days of the budget's release.
  • The Finance Bill, which is a component of the Union Budget, contains information on all the legal modifications necessary for the country's intended tax reforms as recommended by the finance minister.
  • The Indian Constitution's Article 112 states that the Union Budget for a given year is known as the Annual Financial Statement (AFS).
  • It is an estimate of the government's receipts and outlays for a fiscal year, which runs from April 1st of the current year to March 31st of the next year.
  • The nodal body in charge of creating the budget is the Department of Economic Affairs' Budget Division within the Ministry of Finance.
  • 1947 saw the presentation of India's first budget under independence.

 Additional Information

  • Money Bills and Financial Bills are the two categories into which financial legislation is defined by the Constitution.
  • Money Bills –Article 110
  • Financial Bills (I)– Article 117 (1)
  • Financial Bills (II)– Article 117 (3)
  • In the Lok Sabha, the Finance Bill is introduced. The Rajay Sabha is able to suggest changes to the measure. Nonetheless, Parliament must approve the bill within 75 days of its introduction.
  • The Union Government of India implements the financial recommendations submitted by the government for the upcoming fiscal year by an act of Parliament known as the Finance Act.

Question 263

A trans-national state is known for having a __________

  1. AOption (a)

    Divided Power

  2. BOption (b)

    Sole Centre of power

  3. COption (c)

    United power

  4. DOption (d)

    Divided sovereignty

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Divided sovereignty

Why this answer is correct

Divided sovereignty is the correct answer.

Key Points

  • Dual federalism, sometimes referred to as layer-cake federalism or divided sovereignty, is a form of governance in which the federal and state governments have clearly defined powers, and the state governments are free to exercise those powers without intervention from the federal government.
  • Partitioned Sovereignty is based on the following paradox.
  • States have the right to defend their population from other states because of their sovereign integrity, but they can also use their coercive powers to prevent harm to their citizens.
  • However, states may also use their powers of coercion against their own people by assaulting them directly or by refusing to defend them when they are attacked by other people in the community.

Additional Information

  • The division of a state's government into branches, each having distinct, independent authorities and responsibilities, is known as separation of powers. This ensures that the powers of one branch do not conflict with those of another.
  • Often referred to as the trias politica model, the traditional arrangement of government into three departments consists of the legislative, executive, and judicial branches.
  • It is comparable to the concentration of power in monarchs, as well as parliamentary and semi-presidential systems in which there may be overlap in the membership and responsibilities of the several parts, particularly the legislative and executive.
  • A unitary government is one in which all aspects of the government are under the control of a single authority, referred to as the central government. Actually, the center is where all authority and administrative divisions are located.

Question 264

Which among the following are the three types of services envisaged in the Constitution of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Civil Service, Military Service and Paramilitary Service

  2. BOption (b)

    All-India services, Central services and State services

  3. COption (c)

    Navy Service, Air force Service and Army Service

  4. DOption (d)

    First Grade Service, Second Grade Service and Third Grade Services

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

All-India services, Central services and State services

Why this answer is correct

All-India services, Central services and State services is the correct answer.

Key Points

  • All-India services, Central services, and State services are the three categories of services that the Indian Constitution envisions.
  • Two levels of government are envisaged in the Indian Constitution: one at the level of the Union and another at the level of the States.
  • Such a constitution is a dynamic process rather than a static format from a functional point of view.

Additional Information

  • The Parliament has the authority to establish one or more All India services, such as an All India Judicial Service, that are shared by the Union and the States in accordance with Article 312 of the Indian Constitution.
  • The Union Public Service Commission is in charge of hiring people for each of these positions (UPSC).
  • The State Public Service Commission is in charge of hiring people for state-level administrative services (SPSC).
  • The Indian Administrative Service (IAS), Indian Police Service (IPS), and Indian Forest Service (IFS) are the three esteemed governmental services of India that make up the All India Services.
  • The All India Services Act, 1951, delineates the authority, intent, and duties of these All India Services. It grants the Central Government of India, in consultation with State Governments, the power to establish policies and protocols for the terms of service and the hiring of personnel for the All India Services.
  • In order to aid the Royal Air Force of the United Kingdom in its fight against Japan, the Indian Air Force was founded in 1932 during World War II.
  • The IAF was used to target Japanese positions in Burma in an effort to halt the Japanese army's advance into India.
  • The prefix "Royal" was awarded by King George VI in 1945 in honor of the IAF's achievements. This honorific title was removed in 1950 when India became a republic.
  • In 1950, with the country's independence, it became the Indian Air Force.
  • Member Appointments: The State Governor appoints the Chairman and the remaining SPSC members.
  • Term of Office: A member of the SPSC may serve in that capacity for a maximum of six years, or until they turn sixty-two years old.
  • Reappointment: No one who has previously served on a Public Service Commission may be nominated again for that position.
  • Resignation: A State Public Service Commission member may step down from their position by sending a formal resignation letter to the state governor.

Question 265

Nicomachus was a court physician to king _________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Xenocrates

  2. BOption (b)

    Amyntas III

  3. COption (c)

    Alexander

  4. DOption (d)

    Syracuse

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Amyntas III

Why this answer is correct

Amyntas III is the correct answer.

Key Points

  • In the northern Greek region of Stagira, Aristotle was born in 384 B.C.
  • Both of his parents were from established medical families, and his father Nicomachus worked as the royal physician for Macedonian King Amyntus III.
  • The Neopythagorean philosopher Nicomachus of Gerasa was born in Gerasa, in the Roman province of Syria (present-day Jerash, Jordan).
  • Nicomachus, like many Pythagoreans, wrote on the mystical qualities of numbers. He is most known for his two books, Manual of Harmonics and Introduction to Arithmetic, which are valuable resources for learning about Ancient Greek music and mathematics throughout the Roman era.
  • In Late Antiquity, Nicomachus's arithmetic treatise was a typical text for Neoplatonic education, and philosophers like John Philoponus and Iamblichus wrote commentary on it.
  • Nicomachus's works on music and mathematics were paraphrased in Latin by Boethius, and this version became a staple text in medieval education.

 Additional Information

  • Greek philosopher Xenocrates was a student of Plato and the leader of the Greek Academy, which Plato established in approximately 387 BC. He succeeded Speusippus in this role. Following Plato's death in 348–347), he left Athens with Aristotle and returned in 339 after being elected president of the Academy, where he stayed until his death.
  • Alexander the Great, king of Macedonia (336–323 BCE), overthrew the Persian empire, brought Macedonian weapons to India, and established the framework for the Hellenistic world of territorial kingdoms.
  • He was born in Pella, Macedonia, 356 BCE, which is northwest of Thessaloníki, Greece, and died on June 13, 323 BCE, in Babylon, near Al-Ḥillah, Iraq. Not only was he the focus of incredible tales during his lifetime, but he also went on to become the protagonist of a sprawling legend that bore very little connection to his real existence.

Question 266

The full form of MFN is:

  1. AOption (a)

    Most favored nation

  2. BOption (b)

    Most favourite nation

  3. COption (c)

    Most Forward nation

  4. DOption (d)

    Multi favored nations

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Most favored nation

Why this answer is correct

Most favored nation is the correct answer.

Key Points

  • The most favored nation (MFN) principle is predicated on the notion that nations ought to treat each other equally as trading partners—that is, without favoritism.
  • It implies that no nation should treat products or services originating from a certain trading partner differently.
  • Most-favored-nation treatment is now referred to as "permanent normal trade relations" in U.S. trade legislation in order to dispel the impression that it grants preferential status.
  • The World Trade Organization was founded on the MFN clause, with several significant deviations allowed by WTO regulations.
  • MFN treatment is the same as non-discriminatory trade policy in international trade.

Additional Information

  • Members of the World Trade Organization (WTO) pledge to treat one another fairly in order to take advantage of each other's lowest import quotas, highest tariffs, and fewest trade obstacles for products and services.
  • Most Favoured Nation (MFN) treatment is the term used to describe this non-discrimination policy.
  • This is among the steps taken to guarantee discrimination-free trade. 'National Treatment' is another.
  • Every WTO member nation is required under Article 1 of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), 1994, to grant MFN status to every other member nation.

Question 267

Who is writer of the book “Who were Shudras”?

  1. AOption (a)

    Atal Bihari Vajpayee

  2. BOption (b)

    APJ Abdul kalam

  3. COption (c)

    B.R. Ambedkar

  4. DOption (d)

    Salman Khurshid

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

B.R. Ambedkar

Why this answer is correct

B.R. Ambedkar is the correct answer.

Key Points

  • Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar wrote "Who were Shudras," a 1946 book detailing the history of the Shudra (lowest) varna in the Indian caste system.
  • The goal of the book, which is dedicated to Jyotirao Phule, is to dispel the misconception that Shudras in India belong to an untouchable caste.
  • Ambedkar uses several Indian texts, including the Vedas and the Mahabharata, to support his claim that the Shudras were once Aryan rulers who, following a protracted war with the Brahmans, were reduced to a lower caste.
  • Ambedkar disagrees with the Indo-Aryan migration, which is frequently regarded as canonical in the history of the race, and he also addresses the Aryan race idea.

Additional Information

  • List of Books of former PM Atal Bihari Vajpayee
  • National Integration - 1961
  • India's Foreign Policy: New Dimensions - 1977
  • Dynamics of an Open Society - 1977
  • Assam Problem: Repression no Solution - 1981
  • Atal Bihari Vaj Mem Tina Dasaka - 1992
  • Kucha Lekha, Kucha Bhashana - 1996
  • Sekyularavada: Bharatiya Parikalpana (Dr. Rajendra Prasada Smaraka Vyakhyanamala) - 1996
  • Rajaniti ki Rapatili Rahem - 1997
  • Back to Square One - 1998
  • Decisive Days – 1999
  • Sakti Se Santi - 1999
  • Pradhan Mantri Atal Bihari Vajpayee Ke Chune Hue Bhashana - 2000
  • Values, Vision & Verses of Vajpayee: India's Man of Destiny – 2001
  • India's Perspectives on ASEAN and the Asia-Pacific Region – 2003

 Books by A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

  • Wings of Fire: An Autobiography
  • Ignited Minds: Unleashing the Power
  • Turning Points: A Journey Through
  • Arohan: Pramukh Swamiji Ke Saath
  • My Journey : Transforming Dreams
  • India 2020; a Vision for the New
  • You are Unique: Scale New Heights
  • Forge your Future.

Question 268

By welfare state, citizens should be given the guarantee of minimal ________

  1. AOption (a)

    Wealth

  2. BOption (b)

    Land

  3. COption (c)

    House

  4. DOption (d)

    Standard of living

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Standard of living

Why this answer is correct

Standard of living is the correct answer.

Key Points

  • By welfare state, citizens should be given the guarantee of minimal Standard of living.
  • The typical person's material well-being within a specific population is known as their standard of living.
  • Gross domestic product (GDP) per capita is commonly used to measure it.
  • Some of the same data are used by both standard of living and quality of life; however, standard of living emphasizes the more tangible parts of life, whilst quality of life emphasizes the more intangible ones.
  • The Human Development Index (HDI), which takes into account a number of variables including homicide rates, gross national income (GNI), life expectancy, and education, is one alternative standard of living data set.
  • A welfare state is a government that is dedicated to giving its people a minimum level of financial security by shielding them from market risks related to illness, unemployment, old age, and accidents. During World War II, the UK saw the emergence of the term "welfare state."

 Additional Information

  • The basic material components of life, such as income, GDP, life expectancy, and economic opportunity, are the main emphasis of standard of living.
  • It is strongly associated with quality of life, which can also investigate elements like safety, climate, political and religious freedom, environmental quality, and economic and political stability.
  • Geographic areas are frequently compared using standard of living; examples of this are the US and Canadian standards of living and the US and New York standards of living in St. Louis and New York, respectively.
  • Comparing different points in time can also be done using the standard of life.

Question 269

According to Marxists the main test of the injustice in society is: 

  1. AOption (a)

    Richness

  2. BOption (b)

    Poverty

  3. COption (c)

    Exploitation

  4. DOption (d)

    Mode of Production

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Exploitation

Why this answer is correct

Exploitation is the correct answer.

Key Points

  • Marxists claim that the primary source of social injustice is poverty.
  • Marx and Engels argued that the proletariat, or industrial working class, was plagued by poverty, illness, and early mortality because these issues were structural and systemic in nature, and the only way to address them was to replace capitalism with communism.
  • Born in the Rhineland region of Germany, Karl Marx was the son of middle-class Jewish parents who had given up their faith in an effort to fit in with an anti-Semitic society.
  • The youthful Marx studied philosophy at the University of Berlin and graduated with a doctorate from the University of Jena in 1841. However, due to his liberal political beliefs and Jewish heritage, he was unable to find employment as a teacher.

 Additional Information

  • Karl Marx, a revolutionary, sociologist, historian, and economist, was born in Trier, in the Rhine district of Prussia [Germany], on May 5, 1818, and passed away in London, England, on March 14, 1883.
  • Together with Friedrich Engels, he wrote the most well-known booklet in socialist movement history, Manifest der Kommunistischen Partei (1848), which is also referred to as The Communist Manifesto.
  • Das Kapital, the movement's seminal work, was also written by him. The foundation of the school of thought and ideology known as Marxism is comprised of these and other works by Marx and Engels.
  • Sociologists have characterized poverty in a variety of ways, dividing it into four categories:
  1. Absolute poverty
  2. Relative poverty
  3. Subjective poverty
  4. Social exclusion

Question 270

Locke's first Treatise was written during _______

  1. AOption (a)

    1680–1681

  2. BOption (b)

    1683–1684

  3. COption (c)

    1679–1680

  4. DOption (d)

    1685–1686

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1679–1680

Why this answer is correct

1679–1680 is the correct answer.

Key Points

  • The first treatise was directed directly at the writings of Sir Robert Filmer, another 17th-century political theorist. In Patriarcha (1680, though it was likely written in the 1630s), Filmer defended the idea that monarchs have a divine right to rule because they descended from Adam, who is considered to be the first king and the father of humanity according to the Bible.
  • Locke argues that Filmer's theory is contrary to "common sense."
  • Any agreement that God and Adam made would not bind distant descendants thousands of years later, even if a line of succession could be established. Moreover, the right to govern by descent from Adam's first grant could not be substantiated by any historical record or other proof.
  • His argument was largely regarded as conclusive, and after 1688 the idea of the king's divine prerogative was no longer considered seriously in England.

 Additional Information

  • The main work of English philosopher John Locke's political philosophy, Two Treatises of Government, was published in 1689 but was largely written several years earlier.
  • Though its message was far more enduring, the work may be seen as a reaction to the political climate in England at the time of the exclusion controversy—the argument over whether legislation could be passed to prohibit (exclude) the succession of James, the Roman Catholic brother of King Charles II (reigned 1660–85), to the English throne. Locke was a fervent advocate of exclusion.

Question 271

Objective Resolution was moved in the first session of the Constituent Assembly on 13, December, _____ by Jawahar Lal Nehru

  1. AOption (a)

    1945

  2. BOption (b)

    1948

  3. COption (c)

    1946

  4. DOption (d)

    1947

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1946

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1946.

Key Points

  • The Constituent Assembly of India was elected to frame the Constitution of India.
  • An idea for a Constituent Assembly was proposed in 1934 by M. N. Roy.
  • The Constituent Assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the scheme formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan.
  • The representatives of princely states were to be nominated by the heads of the princely states.
  • Constituent Assembly was to be a partly elected and partly nominated body.
  • Moreover, the members were to be indirectly elected by the members of the provincial assemblies, who themselves were elected on a limited franchise.
  • Seats were allotted on the basis of the population at that time and NOT on the basis of the Communal Electorate.
  • The constituent assembly was set up on 6th December 1946.
  • ​ It was constituted under the provision of the cabinet mission plan 1946.
  • The first official meeting of the constituent assembly was held on 9th December 1946.
  • On 11 December 1946 Rajendra Prasad was appointed as President, vice-Chairman Harendra Coomar Mookerjee and constitutional legal adviser B. N. Rau (initially 389 members in total, which declined to 299 after partition.
  • On 13 December 1946, an 'Objective Resolution' was presented by Jawaharlal Nehru, laying down the underlying principles of the constitution, which later became the Preamble of the constitution.
  • On 22 January 1947 Objective resolution was unanimously adopted.
  • The first meeting was conducted with 207 members including 9 women.
  • The constituent assembly adopted the Indian constitution on 26th November 1949.

Question 272

____ said, Mill is a messenger of “Hollow Liberty”.

  1. AOption (a)

    Barker

  2. BOption (b)

    Auguste Comte

  3. COption (c)

    Aristotle

  4. DOption (d)

    Georg Simme

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Barker

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Barker.

Key Points

  • Ernest Barker called J. S. Mill a 'prophet of empty liberty.
  • Barker was an English Political scientist.
  • As a fervent supporter of individual freedom, Mill bases all of his political theories on the individual person.
  • While acknowledging that people are social animals, he also expresses the opinion that people do not freely act in the best interests of society.
  • On that note Barker said that Mill's individual theory is hollow and negative.
  • It merely suggests that the state shouldn't limit or curtail an individual's freedom.
  • It is held that an individual's freedom increases with decreasing state limitations and decreases with increasing societal or governmental restrictions.
  • Individual freedom and governmental authority are diametrically opposed.

Additional Information

  • J.S. Mill
  • JS Mill wrote the book "Liberty."
  • It deals with Individual liberty.
  • He distinguishes between self-regarding and other-regarding behaviour.
  • He further argued there should be no interference regarding self-regarding until it prevents harm to others.
  • Earnest Barker
  • He was an English Political scientist.
  • His works includes 
  • Political Thought in England from Herbert Spencer to the present day: 1848-1914
  • Greek Political Theory: Plato and his Predecessors

Question 273

Supreme court and High Court have:

  1. Judicial review power
  2. Impeachment power
  3. Power of removing Governor
  1. AOption (a)

    Only 3

  2. BOption (b)

    1, 2 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    Only 1

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only 1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only 1

Key Points

  • The authority of judicial review is connected to the examination of the judiciary's structure.
  • It is the authority that Supreme court and High Court  have to scrutinise the acts of the legislative, executive, and administrative branches of government to make sure that they comply with the terms of the country's Constitution. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
  • Judicial review suggests the authority to verify that laws enacted by the legislature adhere to the Constitution's requirements.
  • According to the 1975 Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain case, judicial review is regarded as a Basic Structure of the constitution.

Additional Information

  • Parliament has the power to impeach President and Judges of National courts.
  • A judge of Supreme Court of India may be removed from office through a motion adopted by Parliament on grounds of ‘proven misbehaviour or incapacity’ by the Parliament.
  • The President can be removed before his tenure through impeachment for violating the Constitution of India by the Parliament of India.
  • The President has the power to remove a Governor at any time without giving him or her any reason and without allowing an opportunity to be heard. 
  • The Governor is appointed by the President, under his warrant and seal.
  • This authority cannot be used arbitrarily, capriciously, or irrationally.

Question 274

Which Case normally does not come across Lok Adalat?

  1. AOption (a)

    Marriage Cases

  2. BOption (b)

    Compensation Cased pertaining to Motor Accidents

  3. COption (c)

    Labourer Compensation Cases

  4. DOption (d)

    Murder Cases

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Murder Cases

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Murder Cases

Explanation:

Lok Adalats, or People's Courts, primarily focus on the resolution of civil and compoundable criminal cases through alternative dispute resolution mechanisms, particularly conciliation and compromise. These forums aim to provide a speedy and cost-effective means of settling disputes outside the formal court system.

The types of cases typically addressed by Lok Adalats include:

  • Motor Vehicle Accident Cases: Lok Adalats commonly handle cases related to motor vehicle accidents, where parties may seek compensation or resolve disputes arising from such incidents.
  • Family Disputes: Matters related to family disputes, including matrimonial issues, maintenance, and child custody, are often taken up by Lok Adalats.
  • Property Disputes: Cases involving property disputes, partition suits, and land-related conflicts may be considered by Lok Adalats.
  • Commercial Disputes: Civil disputes arising in a commercial context, such as contract disputes or business-related conflicts, are within the purview of Lok Adalats.
  • Recovery of Debts: Cases related to the recovery of debts and financial disputes can be resolved through Lok Adalats.

While Lok Adalats play a crucial role in the resolution of a wide range of civil and criminal matters, it's important to note that they generally do not handle cases involving heinous crimes such as murder. Serious criminal offenses fall within the jurisdiction of regular criminal courts, where a comprehensive trial is conducted to ensure justice and uphold the rule of law. Lok Adalats, being focused on conciliation and compromise, are more suitable for cases where parties are willing to negotiate and reach amicable settlements, which is often not the case in matters of grave criminal nature.

Question 275

Friedrich Wilhelm Nietzsche characterised Platonism as the intellectual side of _______

  1. AOption (a)

    Farzi

  2. BOption (b)

    Yahudi

  3. COption (c)

    Christianity

  4. DOption (d)

    Islam

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Christianity

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Christianity

Explanation:

Friedrich Nietzsche, a 19th-century German philosopher, indeed characterized Platonism as the intellectual side of Christianity. Nietzsche's perspective on this connection is complex and requires an exploration of his broader philosophical critiques.

  • Critique of Platonism:
  • Nietzsche criticized Platonic philosophy for what he saw as a detachment from the real, lived experience of the world. He contested Plato's emphasis on the realm of eternal Forms or Ideas, arguing that it led to a devaluation of the physical world and sensory experiences. Nietzsche was a proponent of life affirmation, and he believed that Platonism's focus on abstract, eternal truths contributed to a denial of the value of individual existence and the immediate, sensory aspects of life.
  • Link to Christianity:
  • Nietzsche extended his critique to Christianity, viewing it as influenced by Platonic ideals. He argued that many concepts integral to Christian theology, such as the transcendent realm of God and the devaluation of the material world, echoed Platonic ideas. Nietzsche contended that the Christian emphasis on an otherworldly existence, moral absolutes, and the opposition between the spiritual and the physical drew heavily from Platonic dualism.
  • Intellectual Side of Christianity:
  • By characterizing Platonism as the intellectual side of Christianity, Nietzsche suggested a historical and conceptual continuity. He saw Platonism as laying the groundwork for certain philosophical and metaphysical concepts that later found expression in Christian thought. The ascent from the cave in Plato's allegory of the cave, for example, could be compared to the Christian journey from the material to the spiritual realm.
  • Rejection of Both:
  • Nietzsche's overarching critique was not solely directed at Platonism but extended to what he perceived as life-denying aspects in both Platonic philosophy and Christianity. He argued for a reevaluation of values that embraced the complexities of existence, celebrated individual creativity, and rejected the otherworldly focus present in Platonism and Christianity.

In summary, Nietzsche's characterization of Platonism as the intellectual side of Christianity is part of his broader critique of both philosophical traditions. He sought to expose what he perceived as life-denying tendencies in these intellectual frameworks, advocating for a more affirmative, experiential approach to life.

Question 276

The book “Reasonableness of Christianity” was published in _________

  1. AOption (a)

    1692

  2. BOption (b)

    1660

  3. COption (c)

    1695

  4. DOption (d)

    1690

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1695

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1695

Explanation:

"The Reasonableness of Christianity" was published in 1695, a period marked by significant religious and political tensions in England. John Locke, the author, was a prominent philosopher of the Enlightenment, and his work aimed to address the religious strife of the time and promote a more reasoned and tolerant understanding of Christianity.

Author - John Locke: John Locke, a leading figure of the Enlightenment, was known for his contributions to political philosophy and epistemology. In the context of religious discourse, Locke sought to reconcile religious beliefs with reason and argued against dogmatism and authoritarianism.

Purpose of the Book: Locke's primary goal in writing "The Reasonableness of Christianity" was to present Christianity as a rational and reasonable faith. In the face of religious controversies and disputes, Locke aimed to demonstrate that the fundamental tenets of Christianity were in harmony with human reason. The work was part of his broader endeavor to foster religious tolerance and peaceful coexistence.

Key Ideas: In the book, Locke critiqued aspects of traditional Christian doctrine that he deemed unreasonable or unsupported by rational inquiry. He emphasized the core principles of Christianity that, in his view, aligned with reason, including the emphasis on morality and the fundamental teachings of Jesus. Locke argued against the imposition of dogmas that could not withstand scrutiny by human faculties of reason.

Impact and Legacy: Locke's ideas in "The Reasonableness of Christianity" contributed to the Enlightenment emphasis on reason, individual rights, and religious tolerance. The work had a lasting impact on the development of liberal thought, influencing subsequent discussions on the relationship between faith and reason. Locke's promotion of a more tolerant and reasoned approach to Christianity also resonated with broader Enlightenment ideals.

In summary, John Locke's "The Reasonableness of Christianity," published in 1695, stands as a significant work within the Enlightenment context, addressing religious tensions and advocating for a Christianity that aligns with reason and promotes tolerance.

Question 277

In which among the following cases, the Supreme Court of India propounded the theory of basic structure of the Constitution?

  1. AOption (a)

    Golak Nath

  2. BOption (b)

    Keshvanand Bharati

  3. COption (c)

    Gopalan vs. State of Madras

  4. DOption (d)

    Minerva Mills

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Keshvanand Bharati

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Keshvanand Bharati.

Key Points

  • Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala case outlined the basic structure doctrine of the Constitution.
  • The case held in 1973.
  • This case made Preamble as an essential and integral part of the Constitution
  • This case results in a judgment that basic structure can not be altered or destroyed by any of the constitutional amendments act passed by the legislation.
  • A book titled "The Kesavananda Bharati Case: The untold story of the struggle for supremacy by Supreme Court and Parliament" was written by T R Andhyarujina.
Golaknath v. State Of Punjab- Supreme Court ruled that parliament can not pass any amendments which take away Fundamental Rights in the Constitution - The case held in 1967
Minerva Mills Ltd. and Ors. v. Union Of India- Case which evolved the basic structure doctrine of the Constitution of India. - The court ruled that judicial review is a basic structure of the constitution, it could not be taken away by the parliament by amending the constitution.
A.K. Gopalan vs The State Of Madras- Landmark cases on preventive detention. - Considered as the first major Article 21 case.

Question 278

Who wrote "The Indian Constitution: Cornerstone of a Nation"?

  1. AOption (a)

    Hobbs

  2. BOption (b)

    John Rawls

  3. COption (c)

    Amritya Sen

  4. DOption (d)

    Granville Austin

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Granville Austin

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Granville Austin

Explanation:

"The Indian Constitution: Cornerstone of a Nation" is indeed a seminal work written by Granville Austin. Granville Austin was an American historian and constitutional expert who gained recognition for his in-depth study and analysis of the Indian Constitution. His work, "The Indian Constitution: Cornerstone of a Nation," is considered a comprehensive and authoritative account of the making and functioning of the Indian Constitution.

  • Background of Granville Austin: Granville Austin (1927–2014) was an American scholar and constitutional historian. He developed a keen interest in Indian constitutional history, particularly during a period when India was drafting its constitution after gaining independence in 1947.
  • Significance of "The Indian Constitution: Cornerstone of a Nation": Published in 1966, Austin's book is highly regarded for its meticulous examination of the making of the Indian Constitution and its subsequent impact on the nation. The book provides a detailed account of the drafting committee's work, led by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, and the challenges faced in crafting a constitution for a diverse and newly independent nation.
  • Comprehensive Analysis: Austin's work delves into the historical context, debates, and deliberations that took place during the constitutional assembly sessions. He explores the key decisions, compromises, and the philosophical underpinnings that shaped the Indian Constitution.
  • Emphasis on Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles: One notable aspect of Austin's analysis is his emphasis on the incorporation of Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution. He discusses how these principles reflect the commitment to justice, equality, and socio-economic development.
  • Legal and Political Insights: As a constitutional expert, Austin combines legal analysis with political insights. His understanding of constitutional law and political history provides readers with a nuanced perspective on the challenges faced by the framers of the Indian Constitution.
  • Academic Recognition: "The Indian Constitution: Cornerstone of a Nation" has been widely cited and referenced in academic circles, both in India and internationally. Scholars, students, and policymakers turn to Austin's work for a comprehensive understanding of India's constitutional development.
  • Legacy:
  • Granville Austin's contribution to the study of the Indian Constitution remains influential, and his book continues to be a key reference for anyone interested in the constitutional history of India.

In summary, Granville Austin's "The Indian Constitution: Cornerstone of a Nation" stands as a significant scholarly work that has contributed immensely to the understanding of the Indian Constitution's origins, principles, and enduring impact on the nation's governance.

Question 279

Which of the following is not in the ten principles of social justice?

  1. AOption (a)

    Solidarity 

  2. BOption (b)

    Promotion of peace

  3. COption (c)

    Human Dignity

  4. DOption (d)

    Promotion of political ideology

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Promotion of political ideology

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Promotion of Political Ideology

Explanation:

The ten principles of social justice typically revolve around promoting fairness, equality, and the well-being of individuals and society. The specific principles may vary depending on the source, but they generally include concepts such as equity, access to resources, participation, and human rights.

Promotion of a particular political ideology is not typically considered one of the fundamental principles of social justice. Social justice aims to address systemic inequalities and promote a just and fair society without necessarily endorsing a specific political ideology. Instead, it focuses on principles that foster inclusivity, equal opportunities, and the protection of basic human rights.

If a particular set of principles explicitly includes the promotion of a specific political ideology as a fundamental tenet, it may not align with the conventional understanding of social justice, which prioritizes impartiality and fairness for all individuals, regardless of political affiliation. It's essential to review the specific principles provided in your source to better understand the context and intent behind them.

Question 280

Aristotle was born at __________ in Northern Greece. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Chalcis

  2. BOption (b)

    Athens

  3. COption (c)

    Macedon 

  4. DOption (d)

    Stagira 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Stagira 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Stagira.

Explanation:

  • Aristotle, one of the most influential philosophers in Western history, was born in the city of Stagira, which was situated in the region of Chalcidice in Northern Greece. The exact date of his birth is believed to be in 384 BCE. Stagira was a small and culturally significant city-state in ancient Greece, known for its intellectual and philosophical pursuits.
  • Aristotle's family background was notable as well. His father, Nicomachus, served as the court physician to King Amyntas II of Macedon. This connection likely played a role in Aristotle's early education and later opportunities, as it brought him into contact with the Macedonian royal court.
  • In terms of his early education, Aristotle likely received his foundational learning in Stagira, possibly under the guidance of his father. However, his intellectual journey expanded when he moved to Athens to study under the renowned philosopher Plato at the Academy. Aristotle spent around twenty years in Athens as a student and later as a teacher at the Academy.
  • Following Plato's death, Aristotle left Athens and, for a time, became the tutor to Alexander the Great, who would go on to become one of history's most famous military leaders. Aristotle's contributions to various fields are vast and encompass philosophy, ethics, politics, biology, physics, and metaphysics. His meticulous observations and systematic approach to understanding the natural world laid the groundwork for much of Western philosophical and scientific thought.
  • Despite his significant influence and contributions to various fields, Aristotle always maintained a connection to his birthplace, Stagira. The city holds historical importance as the birthplace of one of antiquity's greatest thinkers and remains a part of Aristotle's enduring legacy.

Teaching Methodology (20 questions)

Question 281

Our Education experts always have given enough emphasis on Activity Based Learning. These Activity based questions make Social Science lessons:

  1. AOption (a)

    Sorrowful 

  2. BOption (b)

    Non lengthy

  3. COption (c)

    Joyful

  4. DOption (d)

    Comprehensive 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Joyful

Why this answer is correct

Activity-Based Learning (ABL) is an instructional methodology that places a significant emphasis on engaging students actively in the learning process through hands-on activities and experiences.

Key Points When applied to Social Science lessons,

  • ABL transforms the educational landscape by introducing dynamic and participatory activities that make historical events, geographical features, and social phenomena more tangible.
  • In this approach, students are encouraged to interact with the subject matter, apply their knowledge to real-world scenarios, and develop critical thinking skills.
  • The benefits of ABL in Social Science include enhanced understanding of abstract concepts, improved retention of information, and heightened motivation for learning.
  • Teachers play a crucial role as facilitators, guiding students through activities that align with curriculum objectives and stimulate critical thinking.
  • ABL in Social Science not only addresses diverse learning styles but also offers opportunities for global perspectives, fostering cultural awareness and an understanding of diverse societies.

Hence, the correct answer is Joyful.

Question 282

As an upper primary level teacher, which one of the following is not taken into account while preparing an exam pattern in the subject context of Political Science?

  1. AOption (a)

    Object

  2. BOption (b)

    Subjective knowledge

  3. COption (c)

    Instructional objectives

  4. DOption (d)

    Teaching time

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Teaching time

Why this answer is correct

Key PointsAs an upper primary level teacher preparing an exam pattern in the subject context of Political Science, 

  • The key factors generally taken into account include defining clear instructional objectives, ensuring alignment with the subject matter (object), and evaluating students' subjective knowledge in the context of Political Science.
  • The focus is on assessing the student's understanding of the content and their ability to apply political concepts rather than the specific amount of time spent on teaching.

Hence, the correct answer is Teaching Time.

Question 283

A teacher should always inculcate good behaviors and manners among his/her students. Which from the following should be used to increase correct responses and appropriate behavior?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bet

  2. BOption (b)

    Praise

  3. COption (c)

    Reward

  4. DOption (d)

    Arrogance

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Praise

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

  • To increase correct responses and appropriate behavior among students, praise is a positive and effective approach.
  • Praise involves acknowledging and reinforcing desirable behaviors, which can motivate students and create a positive learning environment.
  • It encourages students to continue exhibiting good behavior and effort in their academic tasks. In contrast, using arrogance may have negative consequences and is not considered an effective strategy for promoting positive behavior.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2) Praise

Question 284

According to John Dewey, schools must prepare students for

  1. AOption (a)

    present life

  2. BOption (b)

    political career

  3. COption (c)

    entrepreneurship

  4. DOption (d)

    future life

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

future life

Why this answer is correct

John Dewey, an influential philosopher and educator, advocated for a progressive approach to education that emphasized preparing students for their future lives rather than simply focusing on academic content and rote learning.

Key Points

  • John Dewey believed that education should be focused on preparing students for life beyond the classroom, equipping them with the skills, knowledge, and experiences necessary to thrive in their future lives as active members of society.
  • His philosophy emphasized the importance of education in fostering critical thinking, problem-solving abilities, and adaptability, which are essential for navigating and contributing to the complexities of future life.
  • Dewey's ideas have influenced modern educational practices that prioritize holistic development and preparation for lifelong learning and engagement.

Hence, we can conclude that according to John Dewey, schools must prepare students for future life.

Question 285

A Teacher is supposed to be the Friend Philosopher and Guide. He should plan his evaluation while keeping in mind all types of learning aspects. As a teacher of Political Science, according to you what type of evaluation identifies learning deficiencies and difficulties of the learners?

  1. AOption (a)

    Summative 

  2. BOption (b)

    Diagnostic 

  3. COption (c)

    Formative

  4. DOption (d)

    Assertive 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Diagnostic 

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

  • In the context of identifying learning deficiencies and difficulties of learners, diagnostic evaluation is the most appropriate.
  • Diagnostic evaluation is specifically designed to assess the strengths and weaknesses of students in their understanding of the subject.
  • It helps the teacher diagnose the specific areas where students may be struggling or facing difficulties.
  • This type of evaluation provides valuable insights into individual learning needs, allowing the teacher to tailor instruction and interventions to address the identified deficiencies.
  • The summative evaluation assesses overall learning at the end of a period, formative evaluation monitors ongoing progress and assertive evaluation is not a commonly recognized term in educational evaluation.

Hence, the correct answer is Diagnostic.

Question 286

A teacher always should prepare a proper lesson planning and keep a record of it every time. You should plan your lesson always keeping the linkage area of the child’s life at school .The suggestion of National Curriculum Framework (2005) is that Social Science must link a child's life at school with: 

  1. AOption (a)

    expectation of teacher

  2. BOption (b)

    life inside the orthodox classroom

  3. COption (c)

    only bookish knowledge

  4. DOption (d)

    life outside the orthodox classroom

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

life outside the orthodox classroom

Why this answer is correct

Key Points 

  • According to the National Curriculum Framework (2005), Social Science should link a child's life at school with life outside the orthodox classroom.
  • The framework emphasizes the importance of connecting classroom learning with the real-life experiences and contexts of students.
  • This approach aims to make education more meaningful and relevant to the everyday lives of students, encouraging them to see the connections between what they learn in school and the world beyond the classroom.
  • The focus is on promoting holistic understanding and application of knowledge in real-world situations.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4) Life outside the orthodox classroom

Question 287

Which of the following statement is not true in case of MCQs ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Only one of the choices is the correct answer

  2. BOption (b)

    All choices appear to be plausible

  3. COption (c)

    Even an inexperienced teacher can prepare the questions easily

  4. DOption (d)

    Error-free and quick evaluation is possible by computer

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Even an inexperienced teacher can prepare the questions easily

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

  • While it might be true that MCQs are a common and relatively straightforward type of assessment, crafting effective and fair MCQs requires a good understanding of the subject matter, careful consideration of distractors (incorrect choices), and adherence to principles of good test construction.
  • Inexperienced teachers might find it challenging to create high-quality MCQs that accurately assess students' understanding of the material.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3) Even an inexperienced teacher can prepare the questions easily

Question 288

Which of the of the followings indicates child’s physical growth?

  1. AOption (a)

    Negative

  2. BOption (b)

    Comparative

  3. COption (c)

    Positive 

  4. DOption (d)

    Quantitative

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Positive 

Why this answer is correct

When we talk about a child's physical growth, we are referring to the increase in size, weight, and development of their bodily structures such as bones, muscles, and organs. The term "positive" indicates growth or an increase in a particular aspect.

Hint

The other options provided do not specifically relate to physical growth in the context of child development:

  • Negative: This term generally indicates a decrease or a decline in something. It doesn't align with the concept of physical growth.
  • Comparative: This term implies making a comparison between two or more things. While comparisons can be made in child development, it doesn't directly relate to the idea of physical growth.
  • Quantitative: This term refers to the aspect of measurement or quantity. While physical growth can be quantified through measurements such as height and weight, the term "quantitative" itself doesn't solely describe physical growth.

 Therefore, in the context of child development, "positive" refers to the normal progression of physical growth, where a child typically gets taller, gains weight, and develops physical abilities over time.

Question 289

Which of the following is not the tool for Formative Assessment in scholastic domain?

  1. AOption (a)

    MCQs

  2. BOption (b)

    Oral Questions

  3. COption (c)

    Communication Skill 

  4. DOption (d)

    Projects Works

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

MCQs

Why this answer is correct

Formative assessment is a type of assessment that refers to monitor the child's progress throughout the learning and teaching process.

Key Points

  • Formative assessment is the ongoing assessment done to assess the progress and performance of the student.
  • It primarily focuses on finding and diagnosing learner's individual needs rather than grading and ranking them.
  • Assignments, projects, oral questions, portfolios, rating scales, and anecdotal records, etc are the appropriate tools for formative assessment.

Additional Information

AssignmentAssignment refers to a piece of work allocated to students as part of the course of study. It significantly enhances the learning capabilities of students.
ProjectsIt refers to a series of task that needs to be done by a group of students in order to achieve a particular goal.
Oral questionsIt refers to the questions poses by the teacher/examiner in spoken form. It helps learners in sharing experiences and in knowing other's perspectives regarding a specific topic.
PortfolioIt contains samples of the learner's work like project reports, assignments (A piece of work allocated to students as part of the course of study), etc to evaluate academic achievement and learning progress over time.
Rating scaleIt refers to a performance appraisal method that rates students on a bipolar scale that usually has several points ranging from "poor" to "excellent".
Anecdotal recordsIt is an observation that is written in a form of a story to provide information regarding a student's character development over the period.

Hence, we can conclude that multiple Choice Question is not the tool for Formative Assessment in scholastic domain.

Important PointsMultiple choice question (MCQ):

  • Allow a learner to choose one answer from a limited list of possible answers.
  • Require one-word answer thus minimize the subjective inference and judgment.

Question 290

In the preliminary and primary level the fundamental subject is EVS, which is the combination of Science and Social Science, but at the upper primary level it has been distributed in various subjects among them which of the following subjects is not included?

  1. AOption (a)

    Geography

  2. BOption (b)

    Psychology

  3. COption (c)

    History

  4. DOption (d)

    Political Science

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Psychology

Why this answer is correct

Social Studies is the study of relations and interrelations, historical, geographical, and social. It establishes the relationship between present and past, local and distant, and personal and national lives, and also with the lives and cultures of other men and women in different parts of the world.

Key Points 

Social Science at Upper Primary Level:

  • Social Science must link a child's life at school with life outside the classroom.
  • It helps to initiate the learner into a study of India’s past, with references to contemporary developments in other parts of the world.
  • It includes disciplines of History, Geography, Political Science, Economics, and Sociology.
  • The objective of teaching the social sciences is to develop an understanding of the earth as the habitat of humankind and other forms of life.

Hence, it becomes clear that the Psychology subject is not included in social science at the upper primary level

Question 291

From the ancient ages we have heard from many stories the thoughts like “Failure is the Pillar of Success” , “Man made mistakes” etc

A similar statement is “Individual learns from his own mistakes” This based on which learning theory according to you?

  1. AOption (a)

    Instrumental conditioning

  2. BOption (b)

    Insight of the Out side

  3. COption (c)

    Classical conditioning 

  4. DOption (d)

    Trial & Error 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Trial & Error 

Why this answer is correct

  • Trial and error learning theory is based on the idea that individuals learn through experimentation and experience.
  • When faced with a problem or task, they try out different strategies or behaviors until they find one that leads to success or the desired outcome. If an initial attempt fails, they adjust their approach and try again until they achieve success.
  • The statement "Individual learns from his own mistakes" reflects this process. When individuals make errors or encounter failures while attempting a task, they gain valuable feedback about what doesn't work. This feedback informs their future actions, allowing them to refine their approach and increase their chances of success.

Hence the correct answer is option 4.

Question 292

Which of the following statements is not true ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Education is a goal-oriented process

  2. BOption (b)

    Development is a quantitative process 

  3. COption (c)

    Learning is a process of behavioral changes

  4. DOption (d)

    Growth is a biological process

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Development is a quantitative process 

Why this answer is correct

Development is a complex and multidimensional process that involves qualitative changes in addition to quantitative changes. 

Key Points

  • Quantitative changes: These are changes that can be measured numerically. For example, when we talk about physical growth, we can measure a child's height and weight over time, which are quantitative measures. Similarly, in cognitive development, we might measure improvements in memory or processing speed using numerical scales.
  • Qualitative changes: These are changes in the nature or quality of something, rather than its quantity. In the context of development, qualitative changes refer to changes in the way individuals think, understand, interact with others, and perceive the world around them. These changes may not always be easily measurable with numbers but are crucial for understanding development comprehensively.

Therefore, statement 2 is not true because it oversimplifies the concept of development by focusing solely on quantitative aspects and neglecting the qualitative dimensions of growth and change.

Question 293

As people grow older, the __________ of learning __________

  1. AOption (a)

    quality, declines

  2. BOption (b)

    speed, declines 

  3. COption (c)

    fluently, declines

  4. DOption (d)

    quantity, declines

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

speed, declines 

Why this answer is correct

The statement "As people grow older, the speed of learning declines" suggests that, as individuals age, the rate or pace at which they acquire new information or skills tends to slow down. This phenomenon is often associated with changes in cognitive processes and memory functions that occur with aging.

Key Points

  • Cognitive Changes: With aging, there may be changes in cognitive functions such as processing speed, attention, and working memory. These changes can contribute to a somewhat slower pace in grasping and processing new information.
  • Memory Challenges: Older individuals may experience challenges in memory retrieval, which can affect the speed at which they learn. It might take them longer to absorb and retain new knowledge.
  • Experience and Prior Knowledge: While there might be a decline in the speed of learning, older individuals often bring a wealth of experience and accumulated knowledge. They may compensate for any slowdown by drawing on their extensive background, and making connections with prior learning.
  • Individual Differences: It's crucial to note that the speed of learning varies among individuals. Some older individuals may continue to learn quickly, while others may experience a more noticeable decline in speed.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Question 294

A good teacher always needs to use various kinds of Teaching Aids to make the teaching procedure more and more fruitful. According to you which type of teaching aids are most useful in the learning Social Science?

  1. AOption (a)

    Drawing Tools

  2. BOption (b)

    Clay

  3. COption (c)

    Audio-visual aids

  4. DOption (d)

    Museum

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Audio-visual aids

Why this answer is correct

Key Points Utilizing a diverse range of teaching aids is essential for educators, particularly in the realm of Social Science where abstract concepts, historical events, and geographical intricacies can pose challenges for students. Among the various options, audio-visual aids emerge as the most effective tools. These aids, encompassing videos, slides, charts, maps, and multimedia presentations, offer a multisensory experience that significantly enhances the learning process. Abstract ideas become tangible as students visualize historical timelines, geographical locations, and societal structures. The engagement factor is heightened, capturing students' attention through documentaries, interactive presentations, and virtual tours of historical sites or museums. The flexibility of audio-visual aids allows teachers to cater to diverse learning styles and topics, fostering cultural sensitivity, historical understanding, and real-world connections. Whether exploring diverse cultures or unraveling historical events, audio-visual aids bridge the gap between theoretical concepts and practical application, creating a more immersive and meaningful educational experience in the realm of Social Science.

Question 295

The suggestion of National Curriculum Framework (2005) is for the upgradation of Education Policy to make it most effective and Positive. What according to you is the best method to study growth and development of the child ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Social Method

  2. BOption (b)

    Developmental Method

  3. COption (c)

    Qualitive Method

  4. DOption (d)

    Psychoanalytic Method

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Developmental Method

Why this answer is correct

The National Curriculum Framework (NCF) of 2005 emphasizes a holistic approach to education, recognizing the importance of considering various aspects of a child's growth and development. 

Key Points

  • The developmental method focuses on understanding the physical, cognitive, emotional, and social aspects of a child's growth.
  • It considers the sequential and age-related changes that occur over time.
  • This method aligns with a comprehensive and holistic approach to studying child development, which is in line with the philosophy of the National Curriculum Framework.

Hence, the correct answer is Development Method.

Question 296

As a teacher you are given two choices one to teach EVS at the primary level and another to teach Social Science at the upper primary level. You have opted for Social Science. What according to you the classroom processes involving in Social Science helps in developing:-

  1. AOption (a)

    Skill, knowledge and expression

  2. BOption (b)

    Knowledge

  3. COption (c)

    Expression

  4. DOption (d)

    Skill

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Skill, knowledge and expression

Why this answer is correct

  • Teaching Social Science provides a holistic learning experience that goes beyond mere rote memorization, contributing to the overall development of students' skills, knowledge, and expression.

Key Points

  • Skill Development: Social Science often involves activities that enhance critical thinking, analytical skills, and research abilities. Students engage in map reading, data analysis, and problem-solving, fostering a range of cognitive skills.
  • Knowledge Acquisition: The subject covers a broad spectrum of topics, including history, geography, civics, and economics. Students gain a diverse range of knowledge about societies, cultures, historical events, and economic systems.
  • Expression: Social Science encourages students to express their thoughts, opinions, and analyses. Classroom discussions, projects, and presentations help develop effective communication skills and the ability to articulate ideas.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

Question 297

A modern man first need to learn past for the better learning of the present. According to you the study of Social Science and EVS is necessary for

(1) The development of infra-structure facilities

(2) The understanding of educational problems

(3) The understanding of the socio-cultural structure and its relation with environment

  1. AOption (a)

    Only (2)

  2. BOption (b)

     (2) and (3) 

  3. COption (c)

    Only (3)

  4. DOption (d)

    Only (1) 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only (3)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 3.

Key PointsThe necessity and relevance of studying Social Science and EVS

  • Development of Infra-structure Facilities
  • While infrastructure development is important and benefits many aspects of society, it is not directly related to the study of Social Science and EVS.
  • Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Understanding of Educational Problems
  • Studying Social Science and EVS can indirectly help address educational problems by providing insights into social dynamics and environmental impacts, but it is not the primary focus.
  • Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Understanding of Socio-cultural Structure and its Relation with Environment
  • The study of Social Science and EVS is crucial to understanding the socio-cultural structure and its relationship with the environment. This helps in the comprehensive study of human interactions with nature and societal impacts on environmental changes.
  • Hence statement 3 is correct.

Additional Information

  • Importance of Social Science and EVS
  • These fields help in developing a holistic understanding of historical contexts, social dynamics, and environmental sustainability.
  • They provide critical insights necessary for responsible citizenship and informed decision-making in a complex and interdependent world.

Question 298

According to you as a teacher of Political Science which of the following approaches have been considered while developing social and political life textbooks for the upper primary and Secondary level?

A. Learning through retention based on facts and data.

B. Learning through use of concrete examples and experiences.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only A

  2. BOption (b)

    Only B

  3. COption (c)

    Both A and B

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither A nor B

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only B

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

  • Enhanced Understanding: Real-world examples make abstract concepts more understandable for students.
  • Increased Engagement: Examples from daily life or historical events capture students' interest and encourage active participation.
  • Encourages Critical Thinking: Students analyze and evaluate concepts, fostering critical thinking skills.
  • Application of Knowledge: Learning through examples prepares students to apply their knowledge to real-life situations.
  • Cultural Sensitivity: Diverse examples promote understanding of cultural and social diversity.
  • Connecting Theory to Reality: Concrete examples show practical implications of theoretical concepts.
  • Long-term Retention: Memorable experiences lead to better retention of information beyond the classroom.

Hence, the correct answer is OnlyB.

Question 299

The Expert Child Psychologists are working day and night for inventing better educational policy for our child, PSRN is also a part of this invention. Term PSRN in child development implies:

  1. AOption (a)

    Perceptual skill only

  2. BOption (b)

    Problem solving, reasoning and numeracy

  3. COption (c)

    Problem solving relationship and numeracy

  4. DOption (d)

    Perceptual skill, reasoning and numeracy 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Problem solving, reasoning and numeracy

Why this answer is correct

In the context of education and child development, PSRN is often used as a framework to guide the design of educational policies and practices.

Key PointsHere's how PSRN contributes to a child's learning journey:

  • Holistic Development: PSRN emphasizes a holistic approach to cognitive development, acknowledging the interconnected nature of problem-solving, reasoning, and numeracy skills.
  • Curriculum Design: Educational policies influenced by PSRN principles often emphasize the integration of problem-solving activities, logical reasoning exercises, and numeracy concepts across various subjects in the curriculum.
  • Teaching Strategies: Teachers implementing PSRN-based approaches use a variety of instructional methods to foster problem-solving abilities, encourage logical thinking, and enhance numeracy skills in their students.
  • Assessment: Assessments aligned with PSRN aim to evaluate a child's proficiency in problem-solving, reasoning, and numeracy, providing insights into their overall cognitive development.

Hence, the correct answer is problem solving, reasoning and numeracy.

Question 300

Every time the situation takes under the scanner at the time of teaching debatable and controversial. According to you while teaching controversial issues in Social Science class, one should always:

  1. AOption (a)

    Take them up occasionally

  2. BOption (b)

    Conduct brief discussions

  3. COption (c)

    Completely avoid confrontations.

  4. DOption (d)

    Take them up with proper planning to initiate a dignified discussion

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Take them up with proper planning to initiate a dignified discussion

Why this answer is correct

When teaching controversial issues in a Social Science class, it's essential to approach the topic with care and sensitivity. The appropriate approach may vary based on the specific context and the nature of the controversial issue.

Key Points

  • Encourages Critical Thinking: Discussing controversial issues allows students to develop critical thinking skills. They learn to analyze different perspectives, evaluate evidence, and form their own opinions.
  • Promotes Civic Engagement: Social Science classes often aim to prepare students for active citizenship. Addressing controversial topics provides an opportunity for students to engage with real-world issues and develop their civic awareness.
  • Fosters Respectful Dialogue: Proper planning ensures that discussions remain respectful and inclusive. Establishing ground rules for civil discourse and providing a safe space for diverse opinions can help create an environment where students feel comfortable expressing their views.
  • Enhances Cultural Competence: Controversial issues often involve diverse perspectives shaped by culture, background, and personal experiences. Discussing these topics helps students understand and appreciate cultural differences, promoting cultural competence.
  • Connects Theory to Reality: Addressing real-world controversies allows students to apply theoretical concepts to practical situations. It makes the subject matter more relevant and helps students see the connections between academic knowledge and the world around them.

Hence, the correct option 4, "Take them up with proper planning to initiate a dignified discussion," is generally considered a good practice.

300 questions in the full paper