DSSSB PGT (English) Official Paper (Held On: 07 Jul, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

The logic follows here is :-

Given letter groups: IOP, NUO, VEO, AIP

Operation rules:

• Vowels (A, E, I, O, U) are replaced by the immediately following letter.
• Consonants are replaced by the immediately preceding letter.

Applying the operations to each group:

IOP: I (vowel) → J; O (vowel) → P; P (consonant) → O.

New group: JPO (Contains vowel 'O')

NUO: N (consonant) → M; U (vowel) → V; O (vowel) → P.

New group: MVP (No vowels)

VEO: V (consonant) → U; E (vowel) → F; O (vowel) → P.

New group: UFP (Contains vowel 'U')

AIP: A (vowel) → B; I (vowel) → J; P (consonant) → O.

New group: BJO (Contains vowel 'O')

Analyzing the newly formed groups: JPO, MVP, UFP, BJO.

Only one group (MVP) contains no vowels.

Thus, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The question asks for the expression where P is the sister of the father of Z's wife. Breakdown of the required relationship: Z has a wife (Let her be V). V has a father (Let him be T). T has a sister (P). So we need: Z's wife → Father of wife → Sister of Father.

Decoding Option 4: P ? R : T % V × Z

V × Z: V is the wife of Z.

T % V: T is the father of V.

R : T: R is the mother of T.

P ? R: P is the daughter of R.

Thus, the expression that means P is the sister of the father of Z's wife is P ? R : T % V × Z.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (n² - n) = 2^nd number

For X : 42

⇒ 7² - 7 = 49 - 7 = 42. (Matches X = 7)

For 10 : Y

⇒ 10² - 10 = 100 - 10 = 90. (Matches Y = 90)

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given: Roman starts from point A and walks 30 m towards East.

He turns left, walks 45 m and then turns right, walks 10 m 4, then turns right, walks 25 m, reaches point B and stops.

Mohan starts walking from point Z which is 5 m south of point A.

He walks 25 m west, turns right, walks 25 m and stops at point X. 

So, the shortest distance between point X and point B is 65 m.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Thus, the missing term in the series is HMR -37.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

Given: A certain number of people are sitting in a row facing north.

Only one person is sitting between O and I.

U is sitting fourth to the left of Y.

O is sitting second to the right of P.

Only three people are sitting between Y and P.

T is sitting second to the right of Y.

If no other person is sitting in the row, then the total number of people sitting in the row is 13.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Thus, the missing term in the series is 87.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3";

Based on the logical deduction from the statements provided, here is the detailed breakdown:

Given Statements:

• All jeans are trousers.
• All trousers are pants.
• Some trousers are shirts.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is:

Conclusions:

I. Some pants are shirts - True (Since all trousers are pants and some trousers are shirts, the part of trousers that are shirts must also be pants).

II. Some jeans are shirts - False (While jeans are inside trousers, and some trousers are shirts, there is no definitive information that the "shirt" circle overlaps with the "jeans" circle).

So, Only conclusion I follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given numbers: 378, 845, 427, 253, 276

The largest number is: 845

The third digit of the largest number is: 5 (845)

The smallest number is: 253

The second digit of the smallest number is: 5 (253)

So, the addition of the third digit of the largest number and the second digit of the smallest number is:

→ 5 + 5 = 10.

The correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

For 'VR - OF':

For 'DZ - WO':

For 'LH - EW':

For 'OK - HZ':

Thus, the letter-cluster that DOES NOT belong to that group is VR - OF.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given: A, B, C, D, W, X, Y, and Z are sitting around a square table, facing the center. Some of them sit at the corners while others sit exactly in the center of the sides.

C sits second to the right of A.

Only three people sit between Z and Y.

Z is an immediate neighbour of A.

Only three people sit between A and D when counted from the left of A.

A sits at a corner.

W sits to the right of C.

X is not an immediate neighbour of Y.

So, 4 people sit between B and W when counted from the left of W.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

For, LUNG - UGNL - GNUL

Also for, AMEN - MNEA - NEMA

Similarly, Option 1) OXES - XSEO - SEXO follow the same logic:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given:

32 D 1 A 16 B 54 C 27 = ?

By using the BODMAS rule:

By, decoding the given symbols we get.

Substituting the given operator in the given expression:

⇒ 32 × 1 + 16 - 54 ÷ 27

⇒ 32 × 1 + 16 - (54 ÷ 27)

⇒ (32 × 1) + 16 - 2

⇒ 32 + 16 - 2

⇒ 48 - 2

⇒ 46

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Statement: Despite being famous for its high-quality silk production, Region X has not emerged as a major exporter in the global silk export market.

This observation highlights a gap between production quality and market reach. High-quality production does not automatically guarantee export dominance if logistical or market barriers exist.

Reason I: Region X lacks direct access to major international trade routes → True (It is a possible cause because geographical isolation or poor infrastructure significantly increases shipping costs and transit times, making products less competitive globally regardless of their quality.

Reason II: There is a greater demand for cotton than silk in the global market → **True (**It is a possible cause because even if silk is high quality, it is a luxury niche. If the global market is dominated by a preference for cheaper, more versatile textiles like cotton, the total volume of silk exports will naturally remain limited.)

So, Both I and II are possible causes.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The given interchange rules are: ‘+’ ↔ ‘−’ and ‘×’ ↔ ‘÷’.

The original equation: 25 ÷ 2 + 20 × 2 − 4 = ? + 12

After applying the interchange rules to the whole equation, the new equation is:

25 × 2 − 20 ÷ 2 + 4 = ? − 12

Now, we solve the left-hand side (LHS) following the BODMAS rule:

= 25 × 2 − 20 ÷ 2 + 4

= 50 − 20 ÷ 2 + 4

= 50 − 10 + 4

= 40 + 4

= 44

Substituting the value back into the modified equation:

44 = ? − 12

? = 44 + 12

? = 56

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Thus,The series has NPJ, but should be NPI.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

For 'ACG':

For 'HJN':

For 'WYC':

For 'PQT':

Thus, the letter-cluster that DOES NOT belong to that group is PQT.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given : P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V each have an exam on a different day of the week, starting on Monday and ending on Sunday.

1. Q has an exam on Wednesday.

2. P has his exam just before S, T has his exam just after S, and T has his exam just before U.

3. Exactly 4 people have an exam between U and V. None of whom have an exam on Monday.

V has an exam on Tuesday and P has an exam on Thursday.

The person between them is Q (Wednesday).

There is 1 person between P and V.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

1. Compare 'no one is serious' and 'society and one care' → Common word is 'one'. Common code is 'sx'. Therefore, one = sx.
2. Compare 'society and one care' and 'is the garden and' → Common word is 'and'. Common code is 'mm'. Therefore, and = mm.
3. Now, looking at the phrase 'society and one care' (jm mm sx tr):

    → We have identified 'one' = sx and 'and' = mm.

    → The remaining words in this phrase are 'society' and 'care'.

    → The remaining codes are 'jm' and 'tr'.

4. Since there are no other phrases provided containing 'society' or 'care', we cannot definitively distinguish between these two codes.

Thus, the possible code for society is either jm or tr.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1^st number)³ = 2^nd number; (2^nd number × 4) = 3^rd number; (3^rd number + 5) = 4^th number.

Now,

For, 2 – 8 – 32 – 37

⇒ 2³ = 8

⇒ 8 × 4 = 32

⇒ 32 + 5 = 37

For, 3 – 27 – 108 – 113

⇒ 3³ = 27

⇒ 27 × 4 = 108

⇒ 108 + 5 = 113

Similarly, checking Option 1: 6 – 216 – 864 – 869

⇒ 6³ = 216

⇒ 216 × 4 = 864

⇒ 864 + 5 = 869

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The correct answer is Mysore inscription.

Key Points

• Dhamma-Lipi refers to the inscriptions by Emperor Ashoka, which were meant to propagate his policy of Dhamma, emphasizing moral and ethical living.
• The Fourteen Rock Edicts are spread across various regions in India and provide insights into Ashoka's principles of governance and Dhamma. These are considered authentic examples of Dhamma-Lipi.
• Seven Pillar Edicts contain inscriptions that emphasize Ashoka's focus on welfare policies and ethical governance, making them crucial examples of Dhamma-Lipi.
• The Kalinga inscription highlights Ashoka's remorse after the Kalinga War and his subsequent adoption of Dhamma for governance and peace. It is a significant example of Dhamma-Lipi.
• The Mysore inscription is not associated with Ashoka's Dhamma-Lipi. It is historically unrelated to the propagation of Ashoka's Dhamma principles and is primarily linked to the region’s local history.
• Thus, the Mysore inscription is the correct answer as it is not an example of Dhamma-Lipi prescribed by Ashoka.

Additional Information

• Fourteen Rock Edicts:
• These edicts are spread across locations like Girnar (Gujarat), Dhauli (Odisha), and Kalsi (Uttarakhand).
• They outline Ashoka's principles of Dhamma, including compassion, tolerance, and welfare of the people.
• They were written in languages like Prakrit and scripts like Brahmi.
• Seven Pillar Edicts:
• These inscriptions are found on pillars erected at places like Sarnath and Vaishali.
• They emphasize policies like non-violence, ethical governance, and respect for all religions.
• The pillars were often carved out of sandstone and served as markers of Ashoka's commitment to Dhamma.
• Kalinga inscription:
• Found in Dhauli and Jaugada, Odisha, these inscriptions represent Ashoka's remorse after the Kalinga War.
• They highlight his decision to adopt Dhamma as the guiding principle for governance.
• Kalinga inscriptions are considered pivotal in understanding Ashoka's transformation into a benevolent ruler.
• Mysore inscription:
• These inscriptions are unrelated to Ashoka's Dhamma-Lipi.
• They primarily pertain to the local history of Mysore, including the rule of Tipu Sultan and the Wodeyar dynasty.
• They do not propagate Ashoka's principles of Dhamma and are not considered part of his inscriptions.
• Important Points:
• Emperor Ashoka ruled during the 3^rd century BCE and is known for his adoption of Buddhism and the propagation of Dhamma.
• His inscriptions are spread across India, Nepal, Pakistan, and Afghanistan, showcasing the vast extent of his empire.
• These inscriptions are crucial for understanding the socio-political and religious landscape of ancient India.

The correct answer is Article 250.

Key Points

• Article 250 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to legislate on any matter in the State List during the period when a Proclamation of Emergency is in force.
• Under this article, laws made by the Parliament on matters from the State List remain effective only during the period of emergency and cease to be effective six months after the emergency ends.
• The Proclamation of Emergency can be declared under Article 352, which relates to threats due to war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
• This provision ensures the central government has the authority to maintain national integrity and security during extraordinary situations, overriding the federal division of powers between the Union and the States.
• Article 250 is a vital constitutional provision to address governance challenges during emergencies and protect the sovereignty and security of the nation.

Additional Information

• Emergency Provisions in the Indian Constitution:
• Emergency provisions are contained in Articles 352 to 360 of the Indian Constitution.
• They allow the central government to assume greater powers during times of crisis, overriding the federal structure temporarily.
• Types of emergencies include National Emergency (Article 352), State Emergency (Article 356), and Financial Emergency (Article 360).
• State List:
• The State List is one of the three lists in the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
• It consists of subjects on which only state legislatures can make laws, such as police, public health, and agriculture.
• During emergencies, the Parliament can legislate on these subjects under specific provisions like Article 250.
• Role of Parliament During Emergency:
• Parliament becomes the supreme legislative authority and can legislate on matters from the State List under provisions like Articles 250 and 353.
• It ensures coordinated governance across the nation, especially in areas requiring immediate and uniform action.
• Such laws are temporary and cease to have effect after the emergency ends, unless validated by the Parliament.
• Historical Instances:
• India has witnessed three national emergencies: 1962 (China War), 1971 (Pakistan War), and 1975 (Internal Disturbance).
• During these emergencies, provisions like Article 250 were invoked to centralize legislative powers and address challenges effectively.

Important Points

• Article 250 vs. Other Emergency Articles:
• Article 250 deals with legislative powers during emergencies, while Article 352 relates to the declaration of emergency.
• Article 356 addresses State Emergency (President’s Rule), where the Parliament assumes legislative functions of the state.
• Duration of Laws Under Article 250:
• Laws made under Article 250 remain valid only during the emergency and for six months after its termination.
• This ensures a return to normalcy and the federal division of powers post-emergency.

The correct answer is Karnam Malleswari.

Key Points

• Karnam Malleswari is the first female athlete to be awarded the prestigious Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award, which was introduced in 1991-92 by the Government of India.
• The Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award is the highest sporting honor in India, recognizing outstanding performance in sports at the international level.
• Karnam Malleswari, a weightlifter, received this award in 1995. She was honored for her exceptional achievements in weightlifting, including winning medals at international competitions like the World Weightlifting Championships and the Asian Games.
• She is also known as the "Iron Lady of India" for her dedication, strength, and remarkable performance in the field of weightlifting.
• Karnam Malleswari made history again in the 2000 Sydney Olympics, where she won a bronze medal, becoming the first Indian woman to win an Olympic medal. This achievement further solidified her as an icon in Indian sports.

Additional Information

• About Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award:
• The award was renamed as Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award in 2021 to honor the legendary hockey player Major Dhyan Chand.
• It is awarded annually by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India, to athletes who have demonstrated exceptional performance in their respective sports.
• The award includes a medallion, a certificate, and a monetary prize of ₹25 lakh (as of 2020).
• Achievements of Karnam Malleswari:
• She was born on 1 June 1975, in Andhra Pradesh, India.
• She won the World Weightlifting Championship gold medal in 1994 and 1995.
• In the 1999 Asian Weightlifting Championships, she won three silver medals.
• At the 2000 Sydney Olympics, she lifted 110 kg in the snatch and 130 kg in the clean and jerk, totaling 240 kg, which earned her the bronze medal.
• Other Options:
• Anjali Bhagwat: An Indian shooter who represented India in multiple international competitions, including the Olympics. She was awarded the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award in 2002-03 but not the first female recipient.
• MC Mary Kom: A celebrated Indian boxer and six-time world champion. She was awarded the Khel Ratna in 2009 but was not the first female recipient.
• Anju Bobby George: An Indian athlete and long jumper, known for winning a bronze medal at the 2003 World Championships. She received the Khel Ratna in 2003-04 but was not the first female recipient.
• Significance of the Khel Ratna Award:
• It encourages athletes to achieve excellence in their respective sports and brings recognition to their hard work and dedication.
• The award has played a crucial role in motivating numerous athletes to perform at their best on international platforms.

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

Key Points

• Tamil Nadu recorded the highest sex ratio among Indian states as per the 2011 Census, with a sex ratio of 996 females per 1000 males.
• The sex ratio is a key demographic indicator that highlights the number of females per 1000 males in a population.
• The state of Tamil Nadu has consistently shown better performance in terms of gender equity and social development compared to many other states.
• Factors contributing to Tamil Nadu's high sex ratio include better healthcare facilities, government welfare schemes, and awareness campaigns aimed at improving gender equality.
• Other states with commendable sex ratios include Kerala and Andhra Pradesh, but Tamil Nadu stood out as the best performer in this specific demographic measure.

Additional Information

• Sex Ratio in India:
• The overall sex ratio in India as per the 2011 Census was 940 females per 1000 males.
• The sex ratio is an important indicator of gender balance and often reflects the social and economic conditions of a region.
• Kerala recorded the highest sex ratio among all states with 1084 females per 1000 males, whereas Haryana had one of the lowest at 879 females per 1000 males.
• Factors Affecting Sex Ratio:
• Access to healthcare facilities and maternal care significantly affects the sex ratio.
• Socio-cultural practices such as gender preference, female infanticide, and selective abortions have historically skewed the sex ratio in many parts of India.
• States with better education levels and awareness have shown improved sex ratios over time.
• Steps Taken by the Government to Improve Sex Ratio:
• The Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Scheme, launched in 2015, aims at promoting gender equality and improving the status of the girl child.
• Awareness campaigns and strict enforcement of laws against gender-selective practices have been implemented in several states.
• States such as Kerala and Tamil Nadu have shown significant progress due to sustained efforts in promoting gender equity.
• State-wise Performance:
• Kerala: Known for its high literacy rate, Kerala recorded the best sex ratio among Indian states at 1084 females per 1000 males.
• Himachal Pradesh: Achieved a sex ratio of 972 females per 1000 males.
• Andhra Pradesh: Recorded a sex ratio of 993 females per 1000 males, showcasing significant gender balance.
• Tamil Nadu: The state recorded 996 females per 1000 males, reflecting its commitment to gender equity through healthcare and education initiatives.

Important Points

• Census 2011:
• The 2011 Census was the 15^th Census conducted in India.
• It provided extensive data on demographics, literacy, sex ratio, and other social indicators.
• The Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India was responsible for conducting the census under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
• Government Initiatives:
• Programs like Beti Bachao Beti Padhao and various state-level schemes aim to improve gender equity and the sex ratio.
• Awareness campaigns focusing on female education and empowerment have contributed to improving the sex ratio in states like Tamil Nadu and Kerala.
• Social Impact:
• A better sex ratio often correlates with improved social development, economic stability, and healthcare access.
• States with higher sex ratios tend to have better indicators of gender equity and women’s welfare.

The correct answer is Bimal Prafulla Ghosh.

Key Points

• Bimal Prafulla Ghosh was awarded the Dronacharya Award 2022 in the lifetime category for his exceptional contribution to football coaching in India.
• The Dronacharya Award is one of the most prestigious awards given by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India, to honor outstanding coaches in the field of sports.
• Bimal Prafulla Ghosh has been recognized for his decades-long dedication to nurturing football talent and promoting the sport in India.
• He has contributed to the development of several players who have represented India at various levels, ensuring the growth and prominence of Indian football.
• The award, announced annually, acknowledges the lifetime achievements of coaches who have made a significant impact on Indian sports through their guidance and mentorship.

Additional Information

• Dronacharya Award:
• The award is named after Dronacharya, the legendary teacher of the Pandavas and Kauravas in the Mahabharata, symbolizing excellence in coaching.
• It was instituted in 1985 to recognize coaches who have consistently produced outstanding athletes and teams.
• Winners receive a bronze statuette of Dronacharya, a certificate, ceremonial dress, and a cash prize of ₹15 lakh (as per the latest updates).
• Notable Contributions of Bimal Prafulla Ghosh:
• He has been instrumental in developing the grassroots football ecosystem in India, focusing on youth talent identification and training.
• Ghosh's coaching methods emphasize a blend of technical skills, fitness, and sportsmanship, ensuring holistic development of players.
• Other Dronacharya Awardees in 2022:
• Sujit Maan (Wrestling) – Recognized for his contributions to wrestling coaching.
• Mohammad Ali Qamar (Boxing) – Honored for his role in nurturing boxing talent in India.
• Raj Singh (Wrestling) – Awarded for his lifetime achievements in wrestling coaching.
• Football in India:
• Football is governed by the All India Football Federation (AIFF), which organizes leagues like the Indian Super League (ISL) and the I-League.
• India has a rich football history, with achievements like winning the 1951 and 1962 Asian Games and qualifying for the 1950 FIFA World Cup (though the team did not participate).

Important Points

• Significance of the Dronacharya Award:
• The award emphasizes the role of coaches in shaping the future of athletes and ensuring India's success in international sports.
• Lifetime category awards specifically honor those with long-term contributions to their respective sports.
• Other Major Sports Awards in India:
• Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award: Highest sporting honor in India, now renamed as Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award.
• Arjuna Award: Recognizes outstanding performance in sports and games.
• Dhyan Chand Award: Honors lifetime contributions to sports development.

The correct answer is MPS = ΔS / ΔY.

Key Points

• Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) is defined as the proportion of an additional unit of income that is saved rather than spent on consumption. It is calculated using the formula MPS = ΔS / ΔY, where:
• ΔS = Change in Savings
• ΔY = Change in Income
• MPS is a key concept in macroeconomics, particularly in understanding the savings behavior of households and its impact on national income.
• The value of MPS ranges between 0 and 1. A value of 0 indicates no savings from additional income, while a value of 1 indicates complete savings of the additional income.
• The formula MPS = ΔS / ΔY is derived from the marginal changes in savings and income, making it a dynamic measure of savings behavior.
• The concept of MPS complements the Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC), as the sum of MPS and MPC is always equal to 1.

Additional Information

• Understanding Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC):
• MPC represents the fraction of additional income that is spent on consumption. It is calculated as MPC = ΔC / ΔY, where ΔC = change in consumption.
• The relationship between MPC and MPS is crucial in economics, as MPC + MPS = 1.
• For example, if an individual spends 80% of additional income, MPC = 0.8, and MPS = 0.2, indicating 20% is saved.
• Application of MPS in Economic Models:
• Multiplier Effect: MPS plays a key role in determining the value of the multiplier in Keynesian economics. The multiplier is calculated as 1 / (1 - MPC) or 1 / MPS.
• Policy Implications: Governments analyze MPS to frame fiscal policies. A lower MPS may indicate higher consumption, encouraging demand-driven growth.
• Differences Between MPC and MPS:
• MPC: Focuses on consumption behavior.
• MPS: Focuses on saving behavior.
• Both are complementary and provide insights into spending and saving patterns of households.
• Examples of MPS:
• If an individual earns an additional income of ₹1,000 and saves ₹200, then MPS = ΔS / ΔY = 200 / 1,000 = 0.2.
• Similarly, if another individual saves ₹500 out of ₹1,000, then MPS = 0.5.

Important Points

• National Income Accounting: MPS is a key metric in understanding how income is distributed between consumption and savings in an economy.
• Behavioral Insights: A higher MPS indicates a tendency to save more, which can be influenced by factors like income levels, cultural practices, and future expectations.
• Economic Stability: High MPS can lead to lower consumption, potentially slowing economic growth. Conversely, low MPS can boost consumption and stimulate economic activity.
• Global Comparison: Economies with high saving rates, such as China, often have a higher MPS, which supports investment and future growth.

The correct answer is four-day.

Key Points

• Chhath Puja is a four-day Hindu festival celebrated primarily in the Indian states of Bihar, Jharkhand, Uttar Pradesh, and also in Nepal.
• The festival is dedicated to thanking the Sun God (Surya) and his wife Usha for sustaining life on earth and fulfilling the wishes of devotees.
• During Chhath Puja, devotees perform rituals that include fasting, holy bathing, and offering prayers to the Sun at sunrise and sunset.
• The festival occurs six days after Diwali and is considered highly auspicious and spiritually significant for Hindus.
• The four days of Chhath Puja are marked by specific rituals: Nahay Khay (Day 1), Kharna (Day 2), Sandhya Arghya (Day 3), and Suryodaya Arghya (Day 4).

Additional Information

• Historical Significance:
• Chhath Puja has roots in ancient Vedic culture, where rituals were performed to honor natural elements like the Sun and water.
• The Sun God is worshipped for his ability to nurture and sustain life, with devotees seeking blessings for health, prosperity, and happiness.
• Rituals of Chhath Puja:
• Nahay Khay: Devotees purify themselves by bathing in rivers and consume simple vegetarian food to begin the ritual.
• Kharna: A day of fasting where devotees consume a special offering made of jaggery and rice after sunset.
• Sandhya Arghya: Devotees gather on riverbanks to offer prayers to the Sun God during sunset.
• Suryodaya Arghya: On the final day, devotees pray to the Sun at sunrise and break their fast, marking the conclusion of the festival.
• Geographical Spread:
• While it is primarily celebrated in Bihar, Jharkhand, and Uttar Pradesh, Chhath Puja has gained popularity across India and among the Indian diaspora worldwide.
• In Nepal, especially in the Mithila region, the festival is observed with similar rituals and enthusiasm.
• Environmental Aspect:
• Chhath Puja is considered an eco-friendly festival as devotees worship nature and avoid the use of harmful materials.
• The rituals promote cleanliness of water bodies and respect for natural resources.

Important Points

• Religious Significance:
• Chhath Puja is unique as it does not involve idol worship, focusing solely on the worship of the Sun and natural elements.
• It is regarded as a festival that strengthens family bonds and promotes unity among communities.
• Health Benefits:
• The fasting during Chhath Puja is believed to have detoxifying effects on the body.
• The practice of standing in water during sunrise and sunset is thought to improve mental and physical well-being.
• Cultural Impact:
• Chhath Puja has inspired numerous folk songs and traditions, reflecting the rich cultural heritage of regions where it is celebrated.
• It fosters a sense of spiritual discipline and respect for nature, making it one of the most revered festivals in Hinduism.

The correct answer is Delhi.

Key Points

• Delhi has announced free bus travel for the transgender community starting from 2024, as part of its initiatives to promote equality and inclusivity.
• This decision aligns with the broader efforts by the Delhi government to provide free or subsidized public transport to various marginalized groups, including women and students.
• The initiative aims to address the financial challenges faced by the transgender community, ensuring better accessibility to public transport and greater mobility within the city.
• The announcement highlights the Delhi government’s focus on social welfare and its commitment to empowering marginalized sections of society.
• This step is expected to enhance the quality of life for the transgender community by enabling them to participate more actively in economic and social activities.

Additional Information

• Delhi Government’s Public Transport Initiatives:
• The Delhi government has previously implemented free bus travel for women in Delhi Transport Corporation (DTC) and cluster buses since 2019.
• This initiative has significantly increased the number of women using public transport, thereby promoting gender inclusivity.
• The introduction of free bus travel for the transgender community builds on this success and expands the scope of inclusivity.
• Challenges Faced by the Transgender Community:
• Members of the transgender community often face discrimination in employment, education, and access to public services.
• Financial constraints often limit their ability to access basic amenities, including transportation.
• Providing free bus travel is a step towards reducing these barriers and ensuring social equity.
• Significance of Free Public Transport:
• Free public transport reduces the economic burden on marginalized groups and improves their access to opportunities.
• It also encourages greater use of public transport, contributing to environmental sustainability by reducing the reliance on private vehicles.
• Global Examples of Inclusivity in Public Transport:
• Countries like Germany and Luxembourg have implemented free or heavily subsidized public transport policies to promote social inclusion and environmental goals.
• India’s move to provide free bus travel for the transgender community is a significant step in aligning with global best practices.

Important Points

• Legal Recognition of Transgender Rights in India:
• The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019 ensures the protection of rights and welfare of transgender persons in India.
• Under this act, the government is obligated to provide equal opportunities in education, employment, and healthcare for the transgender community.
• Social Welfare Schemes for Transgender Persons:
• Several states in India have introduced welfare schemes for the transgender community, such as skill development programs and housing initiatives.
• The free bus travel initiative by the Delhi government is a progressive step in this direction.

The correct answer is Increased bandwidth and reduced latency.

Key Points

• 5G technology offers significantly increased bandwidth compared to its predecessors (4G, 3G, etc.), enabling faster data transfer rates and better network efficiency.
• Latency, or the time it takes for data to travel from the source to the destination, is drastically reduced in 5G, often as low as 1 millisecond (ms), compared to 4G, which typically has a latency of 30–50 ms.
• With its high bandwidth and low latency, 5G technology supports advanced applications such as autonomous vehicles, augmented reality (AR), virtual reality (VR), and smart cities.
• The enhanced connectivity enables a massive increase in the number of connected devices, supporting the Internet of Things (IoT) and facilitating seamless communication between billions of devices globally.
• 5G networks are designed to operate on higher frequency spectrums (such as mmWave) and utilize technologies like beamforming and massive MIMO (Multiple Input Multiple Output) to provide reliable and ultra-fast connections.

Additional Information

• Features of 5G Technology:
• 5G provides download speeds of up to 10 Gbps, which is 100 times faster than 4G networks.
• It introduces features such as network slicing, enabling operators to create multiple virtual networks within a single physical 5G network to meet specific needs of different applications.
• 5G supports a much higher density of devices, with the ability to connect up to 1 million devices per square kilometer.
• Applications of 5G:
• Healthcare: Enables remote surgeries and telemedicine with ultra-low latency and high-definition video streaming.
• Smart Cities: Facilitates real-time monitoring of urban infrastructure, traffic management, and energy optimization.
• Industry 4.0: Empowers automation in manufacturing, supply chain management, and logistics through IoT integration.
• Entertainment: Revolutionizes gaming and streaming services with AR/VR experiences and seamless 4K/8K video streaming.
• Comparison with Previous Generations:
• 3G: Introduced mobile broadband, but with limited speeds (up to 2 Mbps).
• 4G: Improved speeds (up to 1 Gbps in theory) and enabled mobile streaming and enhanced browsing.
• 5G: Far exceeds 4G with ultra-fast speeds, extremely low latency, and support for advanced applications.
• Technologies Used in 5G:
• mmWave: Uses high-frequency bands (24 GHz and above) for faster data transmission.
• Massive MIMO: Enhances network capacity by using multiple antennas for simultaneous data streams.
• Beamforming: Directs signals precisely to devices, improving efficiency and reducing interference.

Important Points

• Challenges of 5G Implementation:
• Infrastructure: Requires significant investment in infrastructure, including new cell towers and fiber networks.
• Device Compatibility: Older devices are not compatible with 5G, necessitating upgrades.
• Spectrum Availability: Allocation of spectrum bands for 5G is a complex and costly process.
• Energy Consumption: 5G networks consume more energy than previous generations, raising environmental concerns.

The correct answer is SEWA Bank.

Key Points

• SEWA Bank, formally known as the Self-Employed Women’s Association (SEWA) Bank, was established in 1974 in Ahmedabad, Gujarat to provide financial services to low-income women workers in the informal sector.
• It is one of the earliest institutions in India to offer microfinance services, aiming to empower women by giving them access to savings, credit, and insurance facilities.
• The bank was founded under the aegis of the SEWA movement, a trade union of self-employed women initiated by Ela Bhatt, a notable social activist and Padma Bhushan awardee.
• SEWA Bank operates on the principle of “by the women, for the women,” ensuring financial independence and social security for its members, most of whom are artisans, vendors, home-based workers, and agricultural laborers.
• The institution primarily caters to the unorganized sector, focusing on poverty alleviation and women’s empowerment by promoting entrepreneurship and sustainable livelihoods.

Additional Information

• Microfinance in India:
• Microfinance refers to financial services like loans, savings, and insurance provided to low-income individuals, especially those excluded from traditional banking systems.
• In India, microfinance gained prominence in the 1970s with initiatives like the SEWA Bank and later expanded through organizations like SHGs (Self-Help Groups) and NBFCs (Non-Banking Financial Companies).
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) regulates microfinance institutions, ensuring their compliance with financial norms and operational guidelines.
• SEWA Movement:
• Founded by Ela Bhatt in 1972, the SEWA movement aims to organize and empower self-employed women workers.
• SEWA advocates for fair wages, skill development, health benefits, and social security for women working in the informal sector.
• The movement’s financial wing, SEWA Bank, has been instrumental in fostering economic independence among women through microfinance.
• Other Microfinance Institutions:
• Ashirvad Microfinance: Established in 2008, this institution focuses on providing financial services to rural households, particularly women.
• ESAF Microfinance: Founded in 1992, ESAF primarily operates in Kerala and other states, offering loans and savings plans to marginalized communities.
• Annapurna Microfinance: Launched in 2009, Annapurna Microfinance focuses on rural development by providing credit to women for entrepreneurial activities.
• Impact of Microfinance:
• Microfinance has been a key driver in poverty reduction, enabling individuals to start small businesses and increase their income.
• It contributes to women’s empowerment by providing them with financial autonomy and decision-making power.
• Microfinance institutions play an essential role in fostering financial inclusion, bridging the gap between formal banking and underserved communities.

Important Points

• Ela Bhatt: Known as the “gentle revolutionary,” she received the Padma Bhushan in 1985 and the Ramon Magsaysay Award for community leadership in 1977.
• Financial Inclusion in India: Initiatives like PM Jan Dhan Yojana (2014) aim to provide banking facilities to every household, complementing the work of microfinance institutions.
• Self-Help Groups (SHGs): SHGs promote collective savings and loans among rural women, often supported by government schemes and banks.
• Challenges in Microfinance: Issues like high interest rates, repayment difficulties, and lack of financial literacy can hinder the effectiveness of microfinance services.

The correct answer is Atharvaveda.

Key Points

• The Atharvaveda is one of the four Vedas, which are the most ancient and revered scriptures of Hinduism. It is considered a storehouse of knowledge encompassing various aspects of human life, including medicine, rituals, and spirituality.
• The Atharvaveda contains a collection of hymns, incantations, and magical mantras specifically designed to ward off evil spirits, diseases, and negative energies.
• This Veda is unique among the four Vedas as it primarily focuses on daily life practices, health, and well-being, as opposed to purely spiritual or ritualistic practices.
• The Atharvaveda includes various remedies and practices for healing illnesses, invoking blessings, and ensuring protection from harm, which were highly significant in ancient times when medical knowledge was limited.
• The other Vedas, namely the Rigveda, Yajurveda, and Samaveda, primarily focus on hymns of worship, sacrificial rituals, and musical chants, respectively, and do not emphasize magical mantras or amulets in the same way as the Atharvaveda.

Additional Information

• The Four Vedas:
• Rigveda: The oldest Veda, primarily focused on hymns and praises to various deities. It is considered the foundation of Vedic literature.
• Yajurveda: A compilation of sacrificial formulas and rituals, often used during yajnas (sacrificial ceremonies).
• Samaveda: Known as the “Veda of Melodies,” it focuses on musical chants and is considered the origin of Indian classical music.
• Atharvaveda: A repository of knowledge related to healing, magic, and daily life practices, offering a more practical approach compared to the other Vedas.
• Structure of the Atharvaveda:
• The Atharvaveda contains 20 books (referred to as "Kandas") and approximately 731 hymns, with about 6,000 mantras.
• These hymns are divided into two categories: Shaunaka and Paippalada, which are the two major recensions of the Atharvaveda.
• Key Themes in Atharvaveda:
• Healing and Medicine: Contains references to herbal medicines and treatments for various ailments, showcasing the roots of Ayurveda.
• Spiritual Protection: Includes chants and incantations to protect individuals from curses, negative energies, and evil spirits.
• Daily Practices: Provides guidance on ethical living, family life, and societal harmony.
• Historical Significance:
• The Atharvaveda provides a glimpse into the everyday life, beliefs, and practices of ancient Indian society, offering insights into their understanding of health, nature, and spirituality.
• It also highlights the early development of Indian medicine and magic, forming a bridge between spiritual and practical knowledge.
• Important Points:
• The Atharvaveda is sometimes referred to as the "Veda of Magic and Healing" due to its emphasis on practical and mystical aspects of life.
• It is considered an invaluable resource for understanding the evolution of Ayurveda, the traditional Indian system of medicine.
• Unlike the other Vedas, it addresses both spiritual and material concerns, making it highly relevant to the practical aspects of life.

The correct answer is Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.

Key Points

• The 70^th National Film Awards were announced by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, which oversees the development and regulation of the film industry in India.
• The National Film Awards are among the most prestigious awards in the Indian film industry, recognizing excellence in various aspects of filmmaking, including acting, direction, and music.
• These awards are organized by the Directorate of Film Festivals, an entity under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
• Established in 1954, the National Film Awards aim to celebrate the diversity and richness of Indian cinema across multiple languages and genres.
• The awards are adjudicated by a national jury, consisting of experts from the film industry, ensuring impartial and comprehensive evaluation of entries.

Additional Information

• Ministry of Information and Broadcasting:
• It is the nodal ministry responsible for formulating and administering rules, regulations, and laws related to information, broadcasting, and media in India.
• It also oversees various initiatives like the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC), Press Information Bureau (PIB), and Directorate of Film Festivals.
• The ministry plays a significant role in promoting Indian culture through cinema and other forms of media.
• Directorate of Film Festivals:
• Established in 1973, it is responsible for organizing the National Film Awards, the International Film Festival of India (IFFI), and other film-related events.
• Its aim is to showcase Indian films globally while promoting cultural exchange and collaboration.
• National Film Awards:
• These awards are divided into two main categories: Feature Films and Non-Feature Films.
• A special category for Best Writing on Cinema is also included to honor critical analysis and contributions to the understanding of cinema.
• The awards include Golden Lotus (Swarna Kamal) and Silver Lotus (Rajat Kamal) trophies, along with cash prizes.
• Prominent awards include Best Actor, Best Director, Best Film, and Best Feature Film in each regional language.
• Significance of the Awards:
• The National Film Awards are an important initiative to encourage and recognize talent in Indian cinema, promoting artistic excellence and cultural diversity.
• They provide a platform for filmmakers to gain national recognition and inspire future generations of artists.

Important Points

• Other Ministries:
• Ministry of Commerce and Industry: Focuses on trade, commerce, and industrial growth in India. It does not handle film awards or media-related activities.
• Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises: Primarily supports small-scale industries and entrepreneurship development.
• Ministry of Communications: Handles telecommunications, postal services, and digital communication infrastructure in India.
• Notable Achievements:
• The National Film Awards have recognized landmark films like Pather Panchali, Sholay, and Bahubali, contributing to their iconic status in Indian cinema.
• These awards also serve as a stepping stone for filmmakers to gain international recognition.

The correct answer is 500 to 3000 meters.

Key Points

• The Purvanchal Hills form the eastern extension of the Himalayas and are located in the northeastern part of India.
• The average height of the Purvanchal Hills ranges between 500 to 3000 meters above sea level, making this the correct answer.
• The hills are known for their lush green forests, deep valleys, and unique biodiversity, contributing to their scenic beauty and ecological importance.
• Some of the prominent ranges within the Purvanchal Hills include the Patkai Hills, Naga Hills, Khasi Hills, Mikir Hills, and Lushai Hills.
• The region is geologically young, predominantly composed of sedimentary rocks, and is tectonically active.

Additional Information

• Geographical Location:
• The Purvanchal Hills are located in the northeastern region of India, covering states like Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Mizoram, Nagaland, and Tripura.
• These hills act as a natural boundary between India and its neighboring countries like Myanmar.
• Topographical Features:
• The region is characterized by steep slopes, rugged terrain, and numerous small river valleys.
• The area is drained by rivers like the Barak, Dhansiri, and their tributaries, adding to the fertility of the valleys.
• Biodiversity and Climate:
• The Purvanchal Hills are home to a rich variety of flora and fauna, with dense forests comprising tropical, subtropical, and temperate species.
• The region experiences a humid subtropical climate with heavy rainfall during the monsoon season, making it conducive to diverse ecosystems.
• Economic and Cultural Significance:
• The Purvanchal Hills are rich in natural resources, including forests and minerals, which contribute to the local economy.
• The region is inhabited by various indigenous tribes with unique cultures, traditions, and lifestyles, making it culturally significant.

Important Points

• Patkai Hills: These hills are located along the India-Myanmar border and are known for their dense forests and rich biodiversity.
• Naga Hills: These hills are shared by Nagaland and Myanmar, with the highest peak being Mount Saramati (3826 meters).
• Khasi and Jaintia Hills: Located in Meghalaya, these hills are known for their limestone caves and the famous Living Root Bridges.
• Economic Activities: The region supports activities like agriculture, forestry, and handicrafts, which are the primary sources of livelihood for the local population.
• Strategic Importance: The Purvanchal Hills hold immense strategic importance due to their location along international borders, making them crucial for national security.

The correct answer is The Office of the Prime Minister.

Key Points

• The appointment of a former Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Governor as the Principal Secretary to the Prime Minister is significant as it emphasizes the importance of having an individual with vast economic and administrative expertise in this crucial role.
• The Principal Secretary to the Prime Minister is one of the most senior and trusted advisors to the Prime Minister, playing a critical role in policy formulation, governance, and coordination between various government departments.
• The role involves overseeing and guiding the implementation of the Prime Minister’s vision and priorities, ensuring alignment across various ministries and departments.
• Former RBI Governors bring a wealth of experience in macroeconomic policies, financial systems, and global economic trends, which are invaluable in addressing complex policy challenges at the national level.
• This appointment highlights the government’s focus on utilizing the expertise of individuals with a deep understanding of economic policies and institutional frameworks to strengthen governance and decision-making.

Additional Information

• The Office of the Prime Minister:
• The Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) serves as the central coordinating body for government policies, ensuring that the Prime Minister’s agenda is implemented effectively across all ministries.
• The PMO assists in drafting speeches, handling correspondence, and managing administrative responsibilities for the Prime Minister.
• It also plays a vital role in strategic decision-making and monitoring the implementation of key government initiatives.
• Principal Secretary to the Prime Minister:
• The Principal Secretary is the senior-most bureaucrat in the PMO and acts as the chief advisor to the Prime Minister on administrative and policy matters.
• The position requires a strong understanding of governance, economic management, and the ability to coordinate with multiple stakeholders, including government officials, industry leaders, and foreign dignitaries.
• Notable individuals who have served in this role have often brought expertise from diverse fields such as economics, law, or public administration.
• Role of Former RBI Governors in Governance:
• Former RBI Governors possess a deep understanding of monetary policy, banking systems, and fiscal management, making them valuable assets in high-level government roles.
• They have experience in handling complex economic challenges, such as inflation control, foreign exchange management, and financial stability.
• Examples include individuals like Dr. Manmohan Singh, who transitioned from being an economist and RBI Governor to holding key government positions, including that of Prime Minister.
• Importance of Economic Expertise in Policy Formulation:
• Economic experts contribute to effective policymaking by ensuring that decisions are based on sound economic principles and evidence-based analysis.
• They help in addressing challenges related to economic growth, employment generation, and poverty alleviation.
• Their insights are crucial for crafting policies that balance economic development with fiscal prudence.

Important Points

• About RBI Governors:
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is India’s central bank, responsible for regulating the country’s monetary policy and financial system.
• RBI Governors play a pivotal role in shaping India’s economic policies and maintaining financial stability.
• Notable former RBI Governors include Dr. Raghuram Rajan, Dr. Urjit Patel, and Dr. D. Subbarao, among others.
• Coordination Between PMO and Ministries:
• The PMO ensures effective communication and coordination between the Prime Minister and various ministries, facilitating the seamless implementation of government policies.
• It also addresses inter-ministerial issues and resolves conflicts to maintain administrative efficiency.

The correct answer is Statements 1 and 2 only.

Key Points

• Statement 1: Fundamental Duties were not included in the original Constitution of India.
• This is correct. The original Constitution of India, adopted in 1950, did not include Fundamental Duties. These were added later to address the responsibilities of citizens towards the nation.
• Statement 2: Fundamental Duties were added through the 42^nd Constitutional Amendment in 1976.
• This is correct. The 42^nd Amendment Act, 1976, added Part IVA to the Constitution, introducing Article 51A, which outlines Fundamental Duties.
• Statement 3: Fundamental Duties are justiciable, meaning violation of these duties is punishable by law.
• This is incorrect. Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable, meaning their violation is not enforceable by law. They serve as moral obligations for citizens rather than legally binding provisions.

Additional Information

• Fundamental Duties under Article 51A:
• There are currently 11 Fundamental Duties listed under Article 51A of the Indian Constitution.
• These duties were added to remind citizens of their moral responsibilities to uphold the unity, integrity, and sovereignty of the nation.
• Examples include respecting the Constitution, the national flag, and the national anthem, promoting harmony, safeguarding public property, and protecting the environment.
• 42^nd Constitutional Amendment Act:
• This amendment, passed in 1976 during the tenure of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi, is known as the "Mini-Constitution" due to the extensive changes it introduced.
• It not only added Fundamental Duties but also strengthened the Directive Principles of State Policy and curtailed the power of the judiciary.
• Non-Justiciability of Fundamental Duties:
• Unlike Fundamental Rights, which are enforceable through courts, Fundamental Duties are not legally enforceable.
• However, their inclusion in the Constitution serves to instill a sense of responsibility and discipline among citizens.
• Swaran Singh Committee:
• The Fundamental Duties were recommended by the Swaran Singh Committee, constituted in 1976 to review the Constitution.
• Most of the committee’s recommendations were incorporated into the 42^nd Amendment Act.

Important Points

• Examples of Fundamental Duties:
• To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions.
• To cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired the national struggle for freedom.
• To protect and improve the natural environment, including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife.
• To develop scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
• Fundamental Duties and Educational Institutions:
• Many of the Fundamental Duties have implications for education, such as promoting harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood among all citizens.
• Schools and colleges often incorporate these duties into their curriculum to promote responsible citizenship.
• Global Influence:
• The concept of Fundamental Duties was inspired by the Constitution of the USSR, which included similar provisions for its citizens.

The correct answer is The God of Small Things.

Key Points

• Arundhati Roy is an acclaimed Indian author, known for her debut novel The God of Small Things.
• The novel was published in 1997 and won the prestigious Booker Prize in the same year, making Arundhati Roy the first Indian woman to achieve this honor.
• The book is a semi-autobiographical work set in Kerala, India, and explores themes such as family, love, caste, and societal norms.
• The Booker Prize is one of the highest literary honors in the world, awarded annually for the best original novel written in the English language and published in the UK or Ireland.
• The God of Small Things was praised for its innovative narrative structure, lyrical prose, and its profound exploration of complex social and political issues in India.

Additional Information

• About Arundhati Roy:
• Arundhati Roy was born on 24 November 1961 in Shillong, Meghalaya, India.
• She is not only a celebrated author but also a prominent political activist, known for her advocacy on environmental and human rights issues.
• Her other notable works include Capitalism: A Ghost Story and The Ministry of Utmost Happiness.
• The Booker Prize:
• Established in 1969, the Booker Prize is one of the most prestigious awards in the literary world.
• It aims to recognize the finest in fiction by rewarding exceptional writing, innovative storytelling, and original ideas.
• Other Indian authors who have won the Booker Prize include Salman Rushdie for "Midnight's Children" and Kiran Desai for "The Inheritance of Loss".
• The God of Small Things:
• The novel is set in the village of Aymanam in Kerala and revolves around the lives of fraternal twins, Estha and Rahel.
• It explores themes of caste discrimination, forbidden love, and societal hypocrisy.
• The book's narrative moves back and forth in time, weaving a complex yet compelling story.
• Impact of the Novel:
• The God of Small Things brought global attention to Indian literature and introduced a new style of storytelling.
• The novel has been translated into over 40 languages, making it one of the most widely read books by an Indian author.
• It remains a landmark in English-language fiction from the Indian subcontinent.

Important Points

• Option 1 - Lajja:
• Lajja is a novel by Taslima Nasrin, a Bangladeshi author. It is a controversial work focusing on religious intolerance in Bangladesh.
• It has no connection to Arundhati Roy or the Booker Prize.
• Option 2 - The Two States:
• This option seems to be a mistaken reference, potentially to 2 States, a novel by Indian author Chetan Bhagat.
• Chetan Bhagat's works are popular but have not won the Booker Prize.
• Option 4 - Midnight's Children:
• Midnight's Children is a novel by Salman Rushdie, published in 1981.
• It won the Booker Prize in 1981 and was later awarded the Booker of Bookers in 1993 and 2008.
• While it is a celebrated work, it was not authored by Arundhati Roy.

The correct answer is LPG connection.

Key Points

• Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) was launched by the Government of India on 1^st May 2016 with the aim to provide free LPG connections to women belonging to Below Poverty Line (BPL) families.
• The scheme is specifically designed to address the health hazards and environmental issues arising from the use of traditional cooking fuels such as wood, coal, and cow dung.
• Under PMUY, a financial assistance of ₹1600 per LPG connection is provided to eligible households. The cost of the stove and refill is borne by the government.
• PMUY empowers women by reducing their dependency on traditional fuels, enabling them to cook in a safe, smoke-free, and healthier environment.
• The target of the scheme was to provide 8 crore LPG connections by 2020, and it has successfully achieved its goal, making a significant impact on rural households.

Additional Information

• Health and Environmental Benefits:
• The use of LPG reduces indoor air pollution caused by traditional fuels, which is a significant contributor to respiratory diseases such as asthma and chronic bronchitis.
• PMUY contributes to environmental conservation by reducing deforestation caused by the use of wood as a cooking fuel.
• Eligibility Criteria:
• The beneficiaries are identified using the Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) 2011 data.
• The scheme is targeted at women aged 18 years or above from BPL families who do not already have an LPG connection.
• Features of PMUY:
• PMUY covers the cost of installing an LPG connection, including the security deposit and pressure regulator.
• Beneficiaries have the option of purchasing the stove and the first refill on an EMI basis.
• Scheme Implementation:
• PMUY is implemented by the three Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs): Indian Oil Corporation Ltd, Bharat Petroleum Corporation Ltd, and Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Ltd.
• It is monitored by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.
• Impact and Achievements:
• PMUY has significantly increased the penetration of LPG in rural areas, improving the standard of living for millions of households.
• It has also contributed to women’s empowerment by reducing their workload and giving them more time for other activities.

Important Points

• Challenges:
• Despite the success of PMUY, affordability of LPG refills remains a concern for many households, leading to partial use of traditional fuels.
• Awareness campaigns and educational programs are necessary to ensure the sustained use of LPG.
• Future Goals:
• The government has extended PMUY under Ujjwala 2.0, launched on August 10, 2021, to provide additional connections to poor families, including migrant workers.
• Under Ujjwala 2.0, beneficiaries also get a free refill and stove along with the connection.

The correct answer is Lord Dalhousie.

Key Points

• Doctrine of Lapse: Introduced by Lord Dalhousie, this policy was aimed at expanding British control over Indian states. It declared that if an Indian ruler died without a natural heir, their kingdom would "lapse" and become a part of British territory.
• This policy was extensively applied between 1848 and 1856 under Lord Dalhousie's tenure as the Governor-General of India.
• Prominent states annexed under this doctrine include Satara (1848), Sambalpur (1850), Jhansi (1853), and Nagpur (1854).
• The doctrine was perceived as unjust and sparked resentment among Indian rulers, contributing to the growing discontent that led to the Revolt of 1857.
• Lord Dalhousie justified the doctrine as a means of ensuring administrative efficiency and consolidating British power in India.

Additional Information

• Lord Dalhousie:
• He served as the Governor-General of India from 1848 to 1856.
• Dalhousie is known for major administrative reforms, including the introduction of railways, telegraphs, and postal services in India.
• He implemented the Wood's Dispatch in 1854, which laid the foundation for the modern education system in India.
• He played a key role in the annexation of Punjab after the Second Anglo-Sikh War (1848–49).
• Impact of Doctrine of Lapse:
• It led to the annexation of several Indian princely states, reducing the autonomy of Indian rulers.
• Many rulers felt betrayed, as the doctrine disregarded traditional Indian practices of adoption.
• The annexations fueled widespread anger and resentment, contributing to the outbreak of the Revolt of 1857.
• Other Governors-General:
• Lord Hastings: Known for expanding British influence through alliances and the Subsidiary Alliance System.
• Lord Curzon: Implemented administrative reforms and partitioned Bengal in 1905, which led to widespread protests.
• Lord Canning: Served as the Governor-General during the Revolt of 1857 and later became the first Viceroy of India in 1858.
• Important Dates and Events:
• 1848: Doctrine of Lapse introduced by Lord Dalhousie.
• 1857: The growing discontent among Indian rulers contributed to the first major uprising against British rule.
• 1858: After the Revolt of 1857, the British Crown took direct control of India, marking the end of the East India Company's rule.

Important Points

• Doctrine of Lapse Policy:
• It was primarily applied to princely states where rulers died without a direct male heir.
• Adoption was not recognized under this policy, which contradicted Indian traditions.
• This policy was one of the key grievances leading to the Indian uprising of 1857.
• British Expansion Strategies:
• The Subsidiary Alliance System introduced by Lord Wellesley and the Doctrine of Lapse by Lord Dalhousie were instrumental in expanding British control over India.
• Both policies undermined the independence of Indian rulers.
• Historical Significance:
• The Doctrine of Lapse highlighted the aggressive policies of British imperialism in India.
• It set the stage for the eventual downfall of the East India Company and the beginning of direct British governance.

The correct answer is Vitamin B12.

Key Points

• Vitamin B12, also known as cobalamin, is absorbed in the ileum, the last part of the small intestine.
• The absorption of Vitamin B12 depends on a glycoprotein called intrinsic factor, which is secreted by the parietal cells of the stomach.
• The intrinsic factor binds to Vitamin B12 in the stomach, forming a complex that protects it from digestion and ensures its absorption in the ileum.
• Deficiency of intrinsic factor results in a condition called pernicious anemia, leading to impaired absorption of Vitamin B12.
• Vitamin B12 is crucial for the production of red blood cells, maintenance of the nervous system, and synthesis of DNA. Its deficiency can lead to neurological disorders and megaloblastic anemia.

Additional Information

• Calcium:
• Calcium is absorbed in the duodenum and jejunum of the small intestine.
• Its absorption is enhanced by the presence of Vitamin D and depends on an acidic environment in the stomach.
• Calcium is essential for bone health, muscle function, and nerve signaling.
• Vitamin C:
• Vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid, is absorbed in the small intestine, primarily in the jejunum.
• It does not require intrinsic factor for absorption and is water-soluble.
• Vitamin C is vital for collagen synthesis, boosting the immune system, and enhancing iron absorption.
• Iron:
• Iron is absorbed in the duodenum and proximal jejunum.
• Its absorption is enhanced by Vitamin C and an acidic environment in the stomach.
• Iron is a critical component of hemoglobin, which transports oxygen in the blood.
• Intrinsic Factor:
• Intrinsic factor is a glycoprotein secreted by the parietal cells of the stomach lining.
• It plays an essential role in the absorption of Vitamin B12 in the ileum.
• In conditions like atrophic gastritis or autoimmune diseases, intrinsic factor production is impaired, leading to Vitamin B12 deficiency.

Important Points

• Vitamin B12 Sources:
• Vitamin B12 is found naturally in animal products like meat, fish, eggs, and dairy products.
• For vegetarians and vegans, fortified foods and supplements are recommended sources of Vitamin B12.
• Conditions Caused by B12 Deficiency:
• Neurological symptoms such as numbness, tingling, and memory issues.
• Megaloblastic anemia, characterized by large and immature red blood cells.
• Fatigue, weakness, and pale skin.
• Diagnostic Measures:
• Blood tests to measure Vitamin B12 levels and intrinsic factor antibodies.
• Bone marrow biopsy in severe cases to check for megaloblastic changes.

The correct answer is Saraswati and Sabarmati.

Key Points

• The Luni River is an important river in the arid regions of Rajasthan and Gujarat in India. It is the largest river in the Thar Desert.
• The Luni River originates from the Naga Hills in the Ajmer district of Rajasthan and flows towards the Rann of Kutch, where it dissipates.
• The two streams, Saraswati and Sabarmati, join the Luni River at Govindgarh, contributing to its flow in this region.
• The Saraswati River is a seasonal river found in Rajasthan, flowing through sandy terrains and contributing to the Luni's volume during monsoons.
• The Sabarmati River, though a major river system in Gujarat, is believed to have minor streams or tributaries that connect with the Luni near Govindgarh.

Additional Information

• Luni River:
• The Luni River is a saline river, particularly in its lower course, due to the high salt content in the ground it passes through.
• It is approximately 495 km long, flowing through Rajasthan and Gujarat.
• The river supports agriculture and animal husbandry in the arid and semi-arid regions it flows through.
• It is also known as the "Salt River" due to its salinity, especially in its lower reaches near the Rann of Kutch.
• Saraswati River:
• The Saraswati River in Rajasthan is seasonal, with water flow during the monsoon season.
• It is often confused with the mythological Saraswati River mentioned in ancient Indian texts like the Rigveda.
• The river plays a role in replenishing groundwater and supporting local flora and fauna.
• Sabarmati River:
• The Sabarmati River originates from the Aravalli Hills in Rajasthan and flows through Gujarat.
• It is approximately 371 km long and eventually drains into the Arabian Sea.
• Famous landmarks like Gandhi Ashram are located along its banks in Ahmedabad.
• Hydrological Importance:
• The Luni River and its tributaries play a vital role in supporting life in the arid Thar Desert region.
• They are essential for irrigation, despite the saline nature of the water in some parts.

Important Points

• The Luni River Basin supports several towns and villages in Rajasthan and parts of Gujarat, despite its saline nature.
• Efforts have been made to conserve and manage water resources in the Luni basin to support agriculture and local livelihoods.
• The mythological and cultural associations of rivers like Saraswati add a layer of historical significance to the region.

Given:

Average age of three persons = 70 years

Ratio of their ages = 1 : 5 : 9

Formula Used:

Total age of three persons = Average age × Number of persons

Age of youngest person = (Sum of ages × Ratio of youngest) / Total ratio

Calculation:

⇒ Total age = 70 × 3

⇒ Total age = 210

⇒ Total ratio = 1 + 5 + 9

⇒ Total ratio = 15

⇒ Age of youngest = (210 × 1) / 15

⇒ Age of youngest = 210 / 15

⇒ Age of youngest = 14

∴ The correct answer is 14.

Given:

Pipe A can fill the tank in 17 minutes.

Pipe B can fill the tank in 16 minutes.

Pipe A is closed after 4 minutes.

Formula Used:

Work done = Rate × Time

Rate of filling = 1 / Time taken to fill the tank

Calculation:

Rate of Pipe A = 1 / 17

Rate of Pipe B = 1 / 16

Work done by A in 4 minutes = (1 / 17) × 4

⇒ Work done by A in 4 minutes = 4 / 17

Work done by B in 4 minutes = (1 / 16) × 4

⇒ Work done by B in 4 minutes = 4 / 16

⇒ Work done by B in 4 minutes = 1 / 4

Total work done in 4 minutes = (4 / 17) + (1 / 4)

⇒ Total work done in 4 minutes = (16 + 17) / 68

⇒ Total work done in 4 minutes = 33 / 68

Remaining work = 1 - (33 / 68)

⇒ Remaining work = (68 - 33) / 68

⇒ Remaining work = 35 / 68

Time taken by B to complete remaining work = Remaining work / Rate of B

⇒ Time taken by B = (35 / 68) / (1 / 16)

⇒ Time taken by B = (35 / 68) × 16

⇒ Time taken by B = 560 / 68

⇒ Time taken by B = 140 / 17

∴ The correct answer is 140 / 17.

Given:

Marked price = ₹12,200

Selling price = ₹10,004

Formula Used:

Discount = Marked price - Selling price

Discount percentage (d%) = (Discount / Marked price) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Discount = ₹12,200 - ₹10,004

⇒ Discount = ₹2,196

⇒ Discount percentage (d%) = (₹2,196 / ₹12,200) × 100

⇒ Discount percentage (d%) = (0.18) × 100

⇒ Discount percentage (d%) = 18%

∴ The correct answer is 18.

Given:

Edge of the cube = 119 m

Formula Used:

Total surface area of a cube = 6 × (edge)²

Calculation:

⇒ Total surface area = 6 × (119)²

⇒ Total surface area = 6 × 14,161

⇒ Total surface area = 84,966 m²

∴ The correct answer is 84,966.

Given:

Base diameter = 70 m

⇒ Radius (r) = 35 m

Height (h) = 12 m

Width of canvas = 11 m

π = 22 ÷ 7

Formula used:

Slant height (l) = √(r² + h²)

Curved surface area = π × r × l

Length of canvas = Curved surface area ÷ Width

Calculations:

l = √(35² + 12²)

⇒ l = √(1225 + 144)

⇒ l = √1369 = 37 m

Curved surface area = (22 ÷ 7) × 35 × 37

⇒ Curved surface area = 22 × 5 × 37

⇒ Curved surface area = 4070 m²

Length of canvas = 4070 ÷ 11

⇒ Length of canvas = 370 m

∴ Length of canvas required = 370 meters.

Given:

HCF = 62

LCM = 372

One number = 2323

× Other number

Formula Used:

HCF × LCM = Product of the two numbers

If one number = k × Other number, then Product = k × (Other number)²

Calculation:

⇒ HCF × LCM = k × (Other number)²

⇒ 62 × 372 = 2323

× (Other number)²

⇒ 23064 = 2323

× (Other number)²

⇒ (Other number)² = (23064 × 3) / 2

⇒ (Other number)² = 34596

⇒ Other number = √34596 = 186

⇒ Smaller number = 2323

× 186

⇒ Smaller number = 124

∴ The correct answer is 124.

Given:

Speed from A to B = 9 km/hr

Speed from B to A = 18 km/hr

Total time for the journey = 7 hours

Formula Used:

Average Speed = (2 × Speed₁ × Speed₂) / (Speed₁ + Speed₂)

Calculation:

⇒ Average Speed = (2 × 9 × 18) / (9 + 18)

⇒ Average Speed = 324 / 27

⇒ Average Speed = 12 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 12.

Given:

30 workers earn ₹4,000 in 4 days.

Number of workers = 53.

Number of days = 6.

Formula Used:

Total earnings ∝ (Number of workers × Number of days).

New earnings = (Initial earnings × New workers × New days) / (Initial workers × Initial days).

Calculation:

⇒ New earnings = (₹4,000 × 53 × 6) / (30 × 4).

⇒ New earnings = (₹4,000 × 318) / 120.

⇒ New earnings = ₹12,72,000 / 120.

⇒ New earnings = ₹10,600.

∴ The correct answer is ₹10,600.

Given:

2.5 : 19.5 :: 12 : x

Formula Used:

a : b :: c : d ⇒ (a × d) = (b × c)

Calculation:

⇒ (2.5 × x) = (19.5 × 12)

⇒ 2.5x = 234

⇒ x = 234 / 2.5

⇒ x = 93.6

∴ The correct answer is 93.6.

Given:

30% of 75

30% of 35

Formula Used:

Percentage = (Percentage Value × Total Value) / 100

Difference = Larger Value - Smaller Value

Calculation:

⇒ 30% of 75 = (30 × 75) / 100 = 22.5

⇒ 30% of 35 = (30 × 35) / 100 = 10.5

⇒ Difference = 22.5 - 10.5 = 12

∴ The correct answer is 12.

Given:

Distance 1 = 385 km

Speed 1 = 35 km/hr

Distance 2 = 297 km

Speed 2 = x km/hr

Distance 3 = 104 km

Speed 3 = 52 km/hr

Average speed = 48 km/hr

Formula Used:

Average speed = Total distance / Total time

Total time = Time 1 + Time 2 + Time 3

Time = Distance / Speed

Calculation:

⇒ Total distance = 385 + 297 + 104 = 786 km

⇒ Time 1 = 385 / 35 = 11 hours

⇒ Time 2 = 297 / x

⇒ Time 3 = 104 / 52 = 2 hours

⇒ Total time = 11 + (297 / x) + 2 = 13 + (297 / x)

Using Average speed formula:

⇒ 48 = 786 / (13 + 297 / x)

⇒ 48 × (13 + 297 / x) = 786

⇒ 624 + (48 × 297) / x = 786

⇒ 624 + 14256 / x = 786

⇒ 14256 / x = 786 - 624 = 162

⇒ x = 14256 / 162

⇒ x = 88

∴ The correct answer is 88.

Given:

House rent expenditure = 76% of monthly salary

Transportation expenditure = ₹976

Groceries expenditure = ₹5,629

Remaining savings = ₹349

Formula Used:

Monthly salary = Total expenditure + Savings

Total expenditure = House rent + Transportation + Groceries

House rent = 76% of monthly salary

Calculation:

Let monthly salary = ₹x

⇒ House rent = 76% of x = 0.76 × x

⇒ Total expenditure = House rent + Transportation + Groceries

⇒ Total expenditure = 0.76 × x + ₹976 + ₹5,629

⇒ Monthly salary = Total expenditure + Savings

⇒ x = (0.76 × x + ₹976 + ₹5,629) + ₹349

⇒ x - 0.76 × x = ₹976 + ₹5,629 + ₹349

⇒ 0.24 × x = ₹6,954

⇒ x = ₹6,954 / 0.24

⇒ x = ₹28,975

∴ The correct answer is ₹28,975.

Given:

⇒ 9⁻⁹ × 5⁻⁹ × 8⁻⁹

Concept Used:

⇒ a⁻ⁿ × b⁻ⁿ × c⁻ⁿ = (a × b × c)⁻ⁿ

⇒ a⁻ⁿ = 1 / aⁿ

Calculation:

⇒ 9⁻⁹ × 5⁻⁹ × 8⁻⁹

⇒ (9 × 5 × 8)⁻⁹

⇒ 9 × 5 × 8 = 360

⇒ = 360⁻⁹

⇒ = 1 / 360⁹

Final Answer:

⇒ Value = 1 / 360⁹

Given:

Marked price = ₹5,700

Discount on marked price = 6%

Net selling price = ₹1,875.30

Formula Used:

Discounted price after first discount = Marked price × (1 - Discount percentage/100)

Net selling price = Discounted price × (1 - Additional discount percentage/100)

Calculation:

⇒ Discounted price after first discount = 5,700 × (1 - 6/100)

⇒ Discounted price after first discount = 5,700 × 0.94

⇒ Discounted price after first discount = ₹5,358

⇒ Net selling price = Discounted price × (1 - Additional discount percentage/100)

⇒ ₹1,875.30 = ₹5,358 × (1 - Additional discount percentage/100)

⇒ (1 - Additional discount percentage/100) = 1,875.30 / 5,358

⇒ (1 - Additional discount percentage/100) = 0.35

⇒ Additional discount percentage/100 = 1 - 0.35

⇒ Additional discount percentage/100 = 0.65

⇒ Additional discount percentage = 0.65 × 100

⇒ Additional discount percentage = 65%

∴ The correct answer is 65%.

Given:

Principal (P) = Sum of money

Time (T) = 20 years

Amount (A) = 2 × Principal

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = P × R × T / 100

SI = A - P

Calculation:

⇒ SI = 2 × P - P = P

⇒ P × R × T / 100 = P

⇒ R × T = 100

⇒ R × 20 = 100

⇒ R = 100 / 20

⇒ R = 5%

∴ The correct answer is 5%.

Given:

Loss percentage when selling at $\frac{2}{9}$ of the original selling price = 30%

Original selling price = x

Selling price when sold at $\frac{2}{9}$ of original price = $\frac{2x}{9}$

Cost price = $\frac{2x}{9} × \frac{100}{70}$

Selling price when sold at 62% of original price = $0.62x$

Formula Used:

Profit percentage = $\frac{\text{Selling Price - Cost Price}}{\text{Cost Price}} × 100$

Calculation:

⇒ Cost price = $\frac{2x}{9} × \frac{100}{70}$

⇒ Cost price = $\frac{200x}{630} = \frac{20x}{63}$

⇒ Selling price at 62% of original price = $0.62x$

⇒ Profit percentage = $\frac{0.62x - \frac{20x}{63}}{\frac{20x}{63}} × 100$

⇒ Profit percentage = $\frac{\frac{39.06x}{63} - \frac{20x}{63}}{\frac{20x}{63}} × 100$

⇒ Profit percentage = $\frac{\frac{19.06x}{63}}{\frac{20x}{63}} × 100$

⇒ Profit percentage = $\frac{19.06}{20} × 100$

⇒ Profit percentage = 95.3%

∴ The correct answer is 95.3%.

Given:

Total apples = 615

Ratio between Nikhil, Nidhi, and Tejas = 1/3 : 1/9 : 1/8

Formula Used:

To find individual shares in a ratio: Total quantity × (individual ratio/sum of ratios)

Sum of ratios = LCM of denominators (to make the ratio parts comparable)

Calculation:

⇒ LCM of denominators (3, 9, 8) = 72

⇒ Adjusted ratio = (72/3) : (72/9) : (72/8) = 24 : 8 : 9

⇒ Sum of adjusted ratio = 24 + 8 + 9 = 41

⇒ Tejas's share = Total apples × (Tejas's ratio / Sum of ratios)

⇒ Tejas's share = 615 × (9 / 41)

⇒ Tejas's share = 135

∴ The correct answer is 135.

Given Data from Pie Chart:

⇒ Region R = 82.8°

⇒ Region M = 68.4°

⇒ Region X = 72°

⇒ Region N = 54°

Given Condition:

⇒ Difference between events in region R and M = 84

Concept Used:

⇒ Number of events is directly proportional to the angle in the pie chart

Calculation:

⇒ Difference in angle between R and M

⇒ = 82.8 − 68.4

⇒ = 14.4°

⇒ 14.4° corresponds to 84 events

⇒ So, 1° corresponds to 84 ÷ 14.4

⇒ = 5.8333 events

⇒ Total angle of regions X, M and N

⇒ = 72 + 68.4 + 54

⇒ = 194.4°

⇒ Total events in X, M and N

⇒ = 194.4 × 5.8333

⇒ = 1134 events

⇒ Average number of events

⇒ = 1134 ÷ 3

⇒ = 378

Final Answer:

⇒ Average number of events organized in regions X, M and N = 378

Given:

Final amount = 1.2769 × Principal

Time = 2 years

Compounding annually

Formula Used:

A = P(1 + r/100)^t

Where A = Final amount, P = Principal, r = Rate of interest, t = Time

Calculation:

⇒ 1.2769P = P(1 + r/100)²

⇒ 1.2769 = (1 + r/100)²

⇒ √1.2769 = 1 + r/100

⇒ 1.13 = 1 + r/100

⇒ r/100 = 0.13

⇒ r = 13%

∴ The correct answer is 13%.

Given:

⇒ Average weight of Mandar, Ketan and Tushar = 46 kg

⇒ Average weight of Mandar and Ketan = 41 kg

⇒ Average weight of Ketan and Tushar = 46.5 kg

Concept Used:

⇒ Average = Total ÷ Number of persons

Calculation:

⇒ Let weights of Mandar, Ketan and Tushar be M, K and T respectively

⇒ M + K + T = 46 × 3 = 138

⇒ M + K = 41 × 2 = 82

⇒ K + T = 46.5 × 2 = 93

⇒ Add the last two equations

⇒ (M + K) + (K + T) = 82 + 93

⇒ M + 2K + T = 175

⇒ Subtract total weight equation

⇒ (M + 2K + T) − (M + K + T) = 175 − 138

⇒ K = 37

Final Answer:

⇒ Ketan’s weight = 37 kg

The correct answer is 'did they'.

Key Points

• The sentence begins with "Few workers," which implies a negative sense. Therefore, the question tag must be positive.
• The correct positive question tag is "did they," as the verb in the main clause is in the past tense.
• Options 2, 3, and 4 are grammatically incorrect as they either contradict the tense or do not match the negative implication of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Complete Sentence: "Few workers demanded the management to withdraw its new service rules, did they?"

Additional Information

• Option 2: "don't they" is incorrect because the sentence is in the past tense, and "don't" is used for present tense.
• Option 3: "didn't they" is incorrect because it contradicts the negative implication of "Few workers."
• Option 4: "do they" is incorrect because it is in the present tense, whereas the sentence is in the past tense.

The correct answer is 'shall we'.

Key Points

• The phrase "Let's" is often followed by the question tag "shall we" to indicate a suggestion or proposal.
• The use of "shall we" is grammatically correct for this type of sentence structure.
• Options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect because they do not fit the context or grammatical structure.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Complete Sentence: "Let's go out for dinner tonight, shall we?"

Additional Information

• Option 1: "can we" is incorrect as it does not align with the typical question tag for "Let's" statements.
• Option 2: "can't we" is incorrect because it implies contradiction or doubt, which is not suitable in this context.
• Option 4: "shouldn't we" is incorrect because it implies obligation rather than a suggestion.

The correct answer is 'intently'.

Key Points

• The adverb "intently" is used to describe someone doing something with concentration or focus.
• In the given sentence, Ramu is trying to understand Sakshi's words, which implies focus or intent.
• Options 1, 3, and 4 do not fit the context of the sentence logically or grammatically.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Complete Sentence: "Ramu looked at Sakshi intently trying to understand the meaning behind her words."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "clearly" is incorrect because it describes clarity, which is not the intended meaning here.
• Option 3: "proudly" is incorrect because pride does not align with the context of the sentence.
• Option 4: "slowly" is incorrect because it suggests a pace, which is irrelevant to the sentence.

The correct answer is 'but'.

Key Points

• The conjunction "but" is used to indicate contrast between two ideas. Here, the contrast is between the television being old and it being in excellent condition.
• Option 2 ("so") suggests a cause-and-effect relationship, which does not apply in this context.
• Option 3 ("hence") implies a conclusion, which is incorrect here.
• Option 4 ("inspite of") is grammatically incorrect in this sentence structure.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Complete Sentence: "My television is quite old but it is in excellent condition."

Additional Information

• Option 2: "so" is used to show a result and does not fit the sentence.
• Option 3: "hence" is incorrect as it suggests a conclusion, which is not appropriate here.
• Option 4: "inspite of" is incorrect because it cannot be used as a conjunction in this structure.

The correct answer is 'see eye to eye'.

Key Points

• The idiom "see eye to eye" means to agree with someone or reach a mutual understanding.
• In the given sentence, the negotiations were complex, but both parties eventually managed to agree, making this idiom the most appropriate substitute.
• Options 1, 2, and 4 are not suitable as they do not convey the idea of reaching a mutual agreement.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Complete Sentence: "The negotiations between the two companies were prolonged and complex, but they eventually managed to see eye to eye."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "call it a day" means to stop working for the day, which does not fit the context.
• Option 2: "go the extra mile" means to make an extra effort, which is unrelated to the idea of agreement in this context.
• Option 4: "beat around the bush" means to avoid discussing the main point, which is irrelevant here.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• The paragraph begins by introducing the role of technological advancements in communication and sets the context for the discussion.
• Sentence A is the first sentence as it introduces the main topic of technological advancements in communication:
• "Technological advancements have transformed the way we communicate, making it faster and more efficient."
• Sentence C follows as it provides specific examples of advancements, such as smartphones and the internet:
• "With the advent of smartphones and the internet, people can now stay connected across the globe."
• Sentence D is the third sentence as it highlights the downside of these advancements, such as the decline in face-to-face communication:
• "This transformation, while beneficial, has also led to a decline in face-to-face communication."
• Sentence B is the fourth as it emphasizes the importance of maintaining human interaction despite technological progress:
• "However, it is crucial to recognize the importance of maintaining human interaction despite these advancements."
• The correct sequence is ACDB.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"Technological advancements have transformed the way we communicate, making it faster and more efficient. With the advent of smartphones and the internet, people can now stay connected across the globe. This transformation, while beneficial, has also led to a decline in face-to-face communication. However, it is crucial to recognize the importance of maintaining human interaction despite these advancements."

The correct answer is: challenging.

Key Points

• The word "arduous" means something that requires a lot of effort, is difficult to accomplish, and demands determination and hard work. (कठिन, श्रमसाध्य)
• Example: Climbing the steep mountain trail was an arduous task that tested their endurance.
• "Challenging" refers to something that is difficult but stimulating and motivating, often requiring effort and skill to overcome. (चुनौतीपूर्ण)
• Example: The challenging puzzle took hours to solve but was ultimately rewarding.
• Hence, the word "challenging" is the most appropriate synonym for "arduous" in the context of the conversation.

Therefore, the correct answer is: challenging.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Effortless (सहज): Something that is achieved with little or no effort.
• Example: Her effortless grace while dancing captivated the audience.
• Easy (आसान): Something simple to achieve or accomplish without difficulty.
• Example: The quiz was so easy that everyone passed with flying colors.
• Simple (सरल): Straightforward or uncomplicated in nature.
• Example: His explanation was simple enough for everyone to understand.

The correct answer is: Option 3 (Effortless).

Key Points

• The word "arduous" means something that involves or requires a lot of effort, energy, and hard work, and is often mentally or physically challenging. (कठिन और परिश्रमसाध्य)
• Example: Climbing the mountain was an arduous task due to the steep slopes and harsh weather conditions.
• "Effortless" refers to something that is achieved with ease and requires little to no effort. (आसान और बिना मेहनत के)
• Example: Her performance on stage was so graceful and effortless that it left the audience in awe.
• Hence, the opposite of 'arduous' is 'effortless'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 (Effortless).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Intricate (जटिल): Something that is very detailed, complex, or difficult to understand.
• Example: The intricate design of the jewelry amazed everyone at the exhibition.
• Demanding (मांग करने वाला या कठिन): Requiring much time, effort, or attention; challenging.
• Example: The project was demanding as it required constant supervision and meticulous planning.
• Challenging (चुनौतीपूर्ण): Something that tests one’s abilities or determination, requiring effort and resilience.
• Example: The challenging puzzle kept the children engaged for hours.

The correct answer is: Acrophobia (Option 3).

Key Points

• The word "Acrophobia" means an extreme or irrational fear of heights. (ऊंचाई का डर)
• Example: She avoided visiting the rooftop because of her acrophobia.
• "Fear of heights" refers to the same condition, wherein an individual experiences anxiety, vertigo, or panic when exposed to high places. (ऊंचाई का भय)
• Example: His fear of heights prevented him from climbing the mountain.
• Thus, the word "Acrophobia" is the correct one-word substitute for "the fear of heights."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Acrophobia.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Hydrophobia (जल का डर): The fear of water or drowning.
• Example: His hydrophobia kept him from learning how to swim.
• Claustrophobia (संकीर्ण स्थानों का डर): The fear of being in confined or closed spaces.
• Example: She avoids elevators due to her claustrophobia.
• Arachnophobia (मकड़ियों का डर): The fear of spiders.
• Example: His arachnophobia made him scream at the sight of a tiny spider.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

The misspelled words are 'teaming, countrys, elleviate, and sucour'.

• The correct spellings would be:
• Teeming: This means 'abundantly filled with living things or objects'.
• Countries: The plural form of 'country'.
• Alleviate: To make suffering, deficiency, or a problem less severe.
• Succor: Assistance and support in times of hardship and distress.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words:

• Gargantuan: Enormous or gigantic in size or extent.
• Unique: Being the only one of its kind or unlike anything else.
• Unemployment: The state of being without a job despite the willingness to work.

The correct answer is: Materialist.

Key Points

• The word "Materialist" refers to a person who believes that only physical matter exists and that everything can be explained by interactions of matter and energy. (भौतिकवादी)
• Example: As a materialist, he argued that consciousness is merely a product of brain activity and physical processes.
• "Empiricist" refers to someone who believes that knowledge comes primarily from sensory experience. (अनुभववादी)
• Example: Empiricists often rely on observation and experimentation to understand the world.
• "Idealist" denotes a person who places ideals, principles, or imagination above practical realities. (आदर्शवादी)
• Example: As an idealist, she believed in the perfectibility of human nature despite evidence to the contrary.
• "Nominalist" refers to someone who believes that universals or abstract concepts are merely names and have no real existence. (नामवादी)
• Example: The nominalist rejected the idea that abstract concepts like "justice" exist independently of human thought.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Materialist.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Empiricist (अनुभववादी): Believes in sensory experience as the foundation of knowledge.
• Example: The empiricist insisted on conducting experiments to validate the hypothesis.
• Idealist (आदर्शवादी): Focuses on ideals and principles rather than practicalities.
• Example: Her idealist views often clashed with the harsh realities of life.
• Nominalist (नामवादी): Believes that universals and abstract concepts are mere names without independent existence.
• Example: Nominalists argue that terms like "beauty" are subjective and lack objective reality.

The correct answer is: Option 4 (bolt from the blue).

Key Points

• The phrase "caught everyone off guard" means to surprise or shock someone when they are not expecting it. (अचानक चौंका देना)
• Example: The sudden resignation of the CEO caught everyone off guard.
• "Bolt from the blue" refers to something that happens suddenly and unexpectedly, much like a lightning bolt appearing in a clear sky. (अचानक और अप्रत्याशित घटना)
• Example: The news of their engagement was like a bolt from the blue.
• Hence, the correct idiom to replace "caught everyone off guard" is "bolt from the blue."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4 (bolt from the blue).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Shot in the dark (अंधेरे में तीर चलाना): An attempt or guess that has little chance of being successful.
• Example: Trying to guess her favorite color was like a shot in the dark.
• Bitter pill to swallow (कड़वी गोली निगलना): A difficult or unpleasant fact or situation that must be accepted.
• Example: Losing the championship was a bitter pill to swallow for the team.
• Needle in a haystack (भूसे के ढेर में सुई ढूंढना): Something that is almost impossible to find.
• Example: Finding my lost ring in the ocean is like searching for a needle in a haystack.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'beseiges'.

• The correct spelling would be 'besieges'.
• The word 'besieges' is a verb which means 'to surround a place with armed forces in order to capture it'. (घेराबंदी करना)
• For Example -
• The army besieges the city to regain control.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'beseiges'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Gasping - to catch one’s breath with difficulty. (हांफना)
• Stupendous - extremely impressive. (अद्भुत)
• Explosion - a sudden and violent outbreak. (विस्फोट)

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• The paragraph begins with Sentence A as it introduces the central role of literature as a reflection of society.
• Sentence A is the first sentence because it sets the context by stating:
• "Literature often serves as a mirror to society, reflecting its values and concerns."
• Sentence C follows as it explains how authors use literature to critique and comment on social issues:
• "Many authors have used their works to comment on social issues, offering both critique and commentary."
• Sentence B is the third sentence because it elaborates on how narratives provide cultural and historical insights:
• "Through these narratives, readers gain insight into the cultural and historical context of the time."
• Sentence D concludes as it highlights the dual role of literature in entertaining and educating, leading to social change:
• "As a result, literature not only entertains but also educates, making it a powerful tool for social change."
• The correct sequence is ACBD.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"Literature often serves as a mirror to society, reflecting its values and concerns. Many authors have used their works to comment on social issues, offering both critique and commentary. Through these narratives, readers gain insight into the cultural and historical context of the time. As a result, literature not only entertains but also educates, making it a powerful tool for social change."

The correct answer is 'simpler'.

Key Points

• The adjective "simpler" is the comparative form of the adjective "simple."
• The sentence compares two processes, and the comparative form "simpler" is required.
• Options 1, 2, and 3 are grammatically incorrect in this context as they do not indicate comparison.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Complete Sentence: "The process of extraction of oil is simpler than the process involved in prospecting oil."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "plain" is incorrect because it does not convey a comparison.
• Option 2: "easy" is incorrect as it is not in comparative form.
• Option 3: "simple" is incorrect because the context requires a comparative adjective.

The correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Key Points

• In the context of the passage, 'alienating' refers to cutting off or isolating certain communities due to practices like racial profiling or overzealous surveillance.
• This isolation can lead to resentment and make it easier for radical narratives to take hold.
• Option 1: Social integration
• Incorrect, 'alienating' is the opposite of integrating.
• Option 3: In-depth research
• Incorrect, the word does not refer to research.
• Option 4: Warm acceptance
• Incorrect, 'alienating' means to make someone feel unwelcome or isolated, not accepted.

Therefore, in the context of the passage, 'alienating' means cutting off or isolating.

The correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Key Points

• In the context of the passage, 'intimidation' refers to actions meant to frighten, threaten, or coerce others, especially civilians, as a tactic of terrorism.
• This aligns most closely with "threatening conduct."
• Option 1: Disgrace
• Incorrect, intimidation is not about disgrace or shame.
• Option 2: Investigation
• Incorrect, investigation means to inquire or research, not to threaten.
• Option 3: Regulation
• Incorrect, regulation means to control or govern, not to threaten.

Therefore, the word 'intimidation' most closely means threatening conduct.