SSC GD Constable 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 12 Feb, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

Given: Table, Wood, Steel

The least possible venn diagram of the given statement is:

Option 1

It shows that tables can be made of wood and tables can be made of steel (overlaps), while wood and steel themselves are distinct materials (no direct overlap between wood and steel circles).

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given:

As J is common in both dice.

Moving clockwise from the Common letter J,

Opposite pairs.

H ⇔ V

B ⇔ A

J ⇔ N

Thus, the opposite face of N is J.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given:

As E is common in both dice.

Moving clockwise from the Common letter E,

Opposite pairs.

K ⇔ L

G ⇔ N

E ⇔ H

Thus, the opposite face of H is E.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The image embedded in the given figure is as shown below :

Here, the given figure is embedded in Option Figure 2.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given, G, H, I, J, K, L and M are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre of the table(but not necessarily in the same order).

Only two people sit between G and I when counted from the right of G.

Only two people sit between I and H.

Only three people sit between G and K.

M sits to the immediate left of J.

And L sits at the remaining place.

Two people sit between L and M when counted from the right of L.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is,

Each letter shifts +3 positions forward in the English alphabetical order.

For 'RSTR' related to 'UVWU':

For 'WXYW' related to 'ZABZ':

The consistent pattern observed is: +3, +3, +3, +3 for each letter position.

Applying the same logic to 'FGHF':

Thus, 'FGHF' will be coded as IJKI.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given Statements:

Some words are paragraphs.

All paragraphs are essays.

No essay is a story.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Some paragraphs are stories - False (Because "No essay is a story" and "All paragraphs are essays", it implies that no paragraph can be a story. There is no overlap between Paragraphs and Stories.)

II. All words are essays - False (Because "Some words are paragraphs" and "All paragraphs are essays", it means some words are essays. However, there can be words that are not paragraphs and thus not essays. The statement "All words are essays" is too strong and not necessarily true based on the given information.)

So, Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is,

 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The correct combination of the letters in the blanks to make the series logically complete 

From option 4:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given interchange rules:

• ‘−’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged.
• ‘×’ and ‘+’ are interchanged.

The given equation is:

19 + 24 − 6 × 8 ÷ 6 = ?

Replace the operators with their corresponding new meanings:

19 × 24 ÷ 6 + 8 − 6 = ?

Now, we solve the equation following the BODMAS rule:

= 19 × 24 ÷ 6 + 8 − 6

= 19 × 4 + 8 − 6

= 76 + 8 − 6 = 78

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given seven people, L, M, N, O, W, X and Y, are sitting in a row, facing north (but not necessarily in the same order).

No one sits to the left of X.

Only four people sit between X and N.

Only three people sit to the right of L.

M sits to the immediate left of W.

O is not an immediate neighbour of L.

And Y sits at the remaining place.

O sits at the rightmost end of the line.

The logic followed here is:

Thus, 'OVR' will be the next in the series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Family Chart:

Let's draw the family tree based on the given information:

Q is the son of P. 

P is the father of R. 

R is the wife of S. 

T is the son of S.

From the family chart:

​Thus, Q is the 'Mother's brother' of T.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed in this pattern involves a consistent alphabetical shift for each letter position:

• Each letter shifts +7 positions forward in the English alphabetical order. (Wrapping around from Z to A as needed).

Let's verify this logic with the given examples:

For 'EWRT' related to 'LDYA':

For 'GYTV' related to 'NFAC':

The consistent pattern observed is: +7, +7, +7, +7 for each letter position.

Applying the same logic to 'BTOQ':

Thus, 'BTOQ' will be coded as IAVX.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given word: 'CABLEWAY'

Arranging the letters in reverse English alphabetical order:

One letter remains unchanged in its original spot.

Therefore, the position of the 1 letter will remain unchanged.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Option (1): FYT

Option (2): IBU

Option (3): GZS

Option (4): OHA

The letter-cluster that DOES NOT belong to the group is: FYT.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)"

The given code language is:

MAS is common in both words, and 057 is common in both codes.

Thus, 'K' is coded as '8'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The given code language is:

NUT is common in both words, and 389 is common in both codes.

Thus, 'S' is coded as '5'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The Correct answer is Ajatashatru.

Key Points

• Ajatashatru was the successor of King Bimbisara and ruled the powerful kingdom of Magadha.
• He is considered one of the most significant rulers of the Haryanka dynasty.
• Ajatashatru ascended the throne after allegedly imprisoning and killing his father, King Bimbisara.
• He was a contemporary of both Gautama Buddha and Mahavira, the founders of Buddhism and Jainism respectively.
• Ajatashatru expanded the kingdom of Magadha significantly, and his reign marked the beginning of Magadha's dominance in ancient India.
• He fortified the city of Rajagriha and later established the city of Pataliputra, which became an important center of power in Indian history.
• Ajatashatru waged wars against neighboring kingdoms such as Vaishali (of the Lichhavis) and Kosala, eventually annexing these territories into his kingdom.
• He is also credited with the construction of fortifications and military innovations, including the use of a war engine known as Rathamusala (chariot equipped with weapons).
• Under his reign, Magadha became the dominant kingdom in the Gangetic plain, setting the stage for future empires such as the Nanda and Maurya dynasties.

 Additional Information

• Udayin
• Udayin was the son of Ajatashatru and succeeded him as the ruler of Magadha.
• He is known for founding the city of Pataliputra and making it the capital of Magadha.
• Udayin’s reign marked the continuation of Magadha's dominance but was less notable compared to his predecessors.
• Chandragupta Maurya
• Chandragupta Maurya was the founder of the Maurya Empire, which succeeded the Nanda dynasty in Magadha.
• He ruled a much later period in history compared to King Bimbisara and Ajatashatru.
• Chandragupta Maurya is credited with unifying most of the Indian subcontinent under one empire.
• His reign was marked by significant administrative advancements and the influence of his advisor Kautilya (Chanakya).
• Ashoka
• Ashoka was one of the greatest emperors of the Maurya dynasty, reigning during the 3^rd century BCE.
• He is famous for his role in the spread of Buddhism across Asia after the bloody Kalinga War.
• Ashoka’s reign was characterized by his efforts to establish peace and promote welfare through his edicts.
• He ruled a much later period than King Bimbisara and Ajatashatru.

The Correct answer is 1990.

Key Points

• The concept of Five-Year Plans in India was introduced in 1951 under the Planning Commission to achieve economic development and social justice.
• The Seventh Five-Year Plan (1985–1990) marked the conclusion of the initial seven Five-Year Plans, which spanned from 1951 to 1990.
• The Seventh Plan focused on poverty alleviation, employment generation, and ensuring self-reliance for the Indian economy.
• Key initiatives during this plan included the Jawahar Rozgar Yojana, which aimed to generate employment opportunities, especially in rural areas.
• The year 1990 was significant for India as it marked the end of the Seventh Plan and the onset of a transitional period toward economic liberalization.
• In 1991, following the Seventh Plan, economic reforms were introduced, which included liberalization, privatization, and globalization (commonly referred to as LPG reforms).
• These reforms were aimed at addressing the balance of payments crisis and integrating India into the global economy, marking a shift from a state-controlled economy to a market-driven economy.
• Post-1990, the role of the Planning Commission began to diminish, and state governments were encouraged to take more responsibility for economic development.

 Additional Information

• Planning Commission
• The Planning Commission of India was established in 1950 to oversee the implementation of Five-Year Plans and ensure balanced economic development.
• It was replaced in 2015 by the NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India), which focuses on fostering cooperative federalism and enhancing state participation in the planning process.
• Economic Reforms of 1991
• These reforms were introduced under the leadership of Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao and Finance Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh.
• The reforms emphasized liberalization, privatization, and globalization, leading to significant changes in India's economic policies.
• Key measures included reducing trade barriers, deregulating industries, and promoting foreign direct investment (FDI).
• Seventh Five-Year Plan (1985–1990)
• It focused on employment generation, agriculture, and achieving self-sufficiency in food production.
• Major programs like the Jawahar Rozgar Yojana were introduced to improve the living standards of the rural population.
• This plan also emphasized social welfare and poverty reduction.

The Correct answer is Jackfruit.

Key Points

• Jackfruit is the national fruit of Bangladesh.
• It is locally known as "Kathal" in Bengali.
• The jackfruit tree is widely grown in Bangladesh and is considered one of the most abundant fruit trees in the country.
• Jackfruit is celebrated for its nutritional value and economic importance in Bangladesh.
• It is rich in vitamins, minerals, and dietary fiber, making it a highly valued food source.
• The fruit has a unique taste and is used in various traditional dishes, both ripe and unripe.
• The government of Bangladesh recognizes its importance and has declared it the national fruit to highlight its cultural significance.
• Jackfruit is also used for its wood, which is valuable for furniture and construction.

 Additional Information

• Apple
• Apple is widely grown in temperate regions and is known for its cultivation in countries like the USA, China, and India.
• It is a popular fruit globally but does not have a major cultural or agricultural significance in Bangladesh.
• Apples are rich in antioxidants, vitamins, and dietary fiber.
• Mango
• Mango is the national fruit of India and is often referred to as the "King of Fruits."
• Mango trees are grown in Bangladesh, but it is not the national fruit.
• Mangoes are known for their sweet taste, nutritional value, and use in various desserts.
• Pomegranate
• Pomegranate is a fruit that symbolizes prosperity and fertility in many cultures.
• It is grown in arid and tropical regions but is not a significant fruit in Bangladesh.
• Pomegranates are rich in antioxidants and vitamin C.

The Correct answer is Periyar EV Ramasamy.

Key Points

• Periyar EV Ramasamy, popularly known as Periyar, was a prominent social reformer and rationalist from Tamil Nadu.
• He was born on 17 September 1879 in Erode, Tamil Nadu, and is regarded as the Father of the Dravidian Movement.
• Periyar was a strong advocate of social justice, equality, and self-respect, particularly focusing on the rights and empowerment of the marginalized communities.
• He founded the Self-Respect Movement in 1925, aimed at eradicating caste discrimination, promoting gender equality, and opposing religious orthodoxy.
• Periyar was vocal against the dominance of Brahminical ideologies and Hindu rituals, which he believed perpetuated inequality.
• He played a critical role in advocating for rationalism and the importance of scientific temper in society.
• Periyar’s ideas and movements significantly influenced the political landscape of Tamil Nadu, including the rise of the Dravidian political parties such as the DMK and AIADMK.
• His contributions to social reform earned him the title of "Vaikom Hero" for his participation in the Vaikom Satyagraha, which fought against untouchability.
• Periyar’s legacy continues to be celebrated for his efforts to build an egalitarian society, and his birth anniversary is widely observed to honor his contributions.

 Additional Information

• MK Stalin
• MK Stalin is the current Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu and the son of former CM Karunanidhi.
• He is a prominent political leader in Tamil Nadu, representing the Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK) party.
• MK Stalin has focused on social welfare schemes, education reform, and economic development in Tamil Nadu during his tenure.
• Mahatma Gandhi
• Mahatma Gandhi, also known as the Father of the Nation in India, was a leading figure in the Indian freedom struggle.
• He championed the principles of non-violence (Ahimsa) and Satyagraha as methods to resist colonial oppression.
• Gandhi’s efforts in movements like the Salt March and Quit India Movement were pivotal in India gaining independence from British rule.
• Radhakrishnan
• Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan was the second President of India and a renowned philosopher and scholar.
• His birthday, 5^th September, is celebrated as Teachers’ Day in India, honoring his contributions to education.
• Radhakrishnan was an advocate for interfaith dialogue and a proponent of Indian philosophy on the global stage.

The correct answer is Animal Husbandry.

Key Points

• Animal Husbandry is a part of the Primary Sector of the Indian Economy, which involves the utilization of natural resources directly.
• It includes activities such as the breeding, raising, and care of livestock like cattle, sheep, goats, poultry, and other domesticated animals.
• The primary sector is a foundational sector in any economy that involves activities like agriculture, fishing, forestry, and animal husbandry.
• Animal husbandry contributes significantly to the rural economy and provides a livelihood to millions of farmers in India.
• This sector plays a crucial role in the production of milk, meat, eggs, wool, and other animal-based products, which contribute to the food and textile industries.
• The government of India has launched several schemes to promote this sector, such as the National Livestock Mission and the Dairy Entrepreneurship Development Scheme (DEDS).
• Animal husbandry also supports the development of organic farming by providing manure and bio-fertilizers.
• It has been identified as a key area for achieving sustainable agricultural growth and ensuring food security.

 Additional Information

• Broadcasting Services
• Broadcasting services fall under the tertiary sector, which involves services rather than direct use of natural resources.
• This sector includes activities such as television, radio, and online streaming platforms.
• It plays a key role in information dissemination, entertainment, and advertising.
• Real Estate
• Real estate is part of the tertiary sector, which includes activities related to buying, selling, and leasing properties.
• This sector contributes significantly to the Indian economy and employs a large number of workers in construction and property management.
• It includes residential, commercial, and industrial property development.
• Construction
• Construction is classified under the secondary sector, which involves activities that transform raw materials into finished goods.
• This sector encompasses infrastructure development such as roads, bridges, and buildings.
• It is a key driver of economic growth and job creation in India.

The Correct answer is Partition of Bengal.

Key Points

• The primary event that led to the formation of the Muslim League in 1906 was the Partition of Bengal in 1905.
• This partition, which created a Muslim-majority East Bengal, heightened communal tensions and prompted Muslim leaders to seek a political platform to protect their interests and ensure their representation in British India.
• The Muslim League emerged as a political organization aimed at protecting the interests of Muslims in India and played a significant role in shaping the political discourse leading to India's partition.
• This event also marked the beginning of communal politics in India, with separate electorates becoming a contentious issue in the subsequent decades.

 Additional Information

• Partition of Bengal
• The Partition of Bengal was announced in 1905 by Lord Curzon. It divided Bengal into two provinces: East Bengal and West Bengal.
• The decision was justified on administrative grounds but was perceived by Indians as a strategy to divide and weaken the nationalist movement.
• It led to widespread protests and the launch of the Swadeshi Movement, which aimed to promote indigenous industries and boycott British goods.
• The partition was revoked in 1911 due to intense opposition and protests from Indians.
• Simla Deputation
• The Simla Deputation was a pivotal event in Indian history, held in October 1906, where a group of prominent Muslim leaders led by Aga Khan met the then Viceroy, Lord Minto, in Simla.
• The deputation aimed to present the concerns of the Muslim community and request special representation for Muslims in the legislative councils to safeguard their political rights.
• The leaders expressed their apprehensions about being politically and socially marginalized within the larger framework of Indian society, especially under a system of representative governance dominated by the majority community.
• They requested separate electorates for Muslims, enabling them to elect their own representatives.
• The Viceroy, Lord Minto, assured the delegation of his support for the demands, marking a significant step toward the institutional recognition of communal representation in India.
• Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms
• The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, also known as the Government of India Act 1919, introduced the concept of diarchy in provincial governments.
• It aimed to provide limited self-governance by dividing subjects into reserved and transferred lists.
• The reforms were criticized for their limited scope and lack of full autonomy, eventually leading to the rise of nationalist movements.
• Indian Councils Act
• The Indian Councils Act was introduced in 1892 to expand legislative councils and increase Indian representation in governance.
• It allowed members of the councils to discuss budgets and address questions to the administration, but it provided limited power to Indian representatives.
• The act was a precursor to subsequent reforms aimed at increasing Indian participation in governance.

The Correct answer is Group 5.

Key Points

• Dubnium is an artificially produced radioactive transuranium element with an atomic number of 105.
• It is classified as a member of Group 5 in the periodic table.
• Group 5 elements are characterized by their valence electron configuration, which is typically d¹s², meaning they have one electron in their d-orbital.
• Other elements in Group 5 include vanadium (V), niobium (Nb), and tantalum (Ta), which share similar chemical properties.
• Dubnium is named after the Russian town of Dubna, where it was first synthesized at the Joint Institute for Nuclear Research.
• Like other transuranium elements, Dubnium is highly unstable and exists only in minute quantities in laboratory settings.
• Its most stable isotope is Dubnium-268, which has a half-life of approximately 16 hours.
• Elements in Group 5 exhibit high melting points, metallic bonding, and strong oxidizing properties.
• They are often used in studies involving nuclear chemistry and high-energy physics.

 Additional Information

• Group 3
• Group 3 includes elements like scandium (Sc), yttrium (Y), and the lanthanides.
• These elements are known for their rare earth properties and are widely used in electronics and magnets.
• They exhibit a valence electron configuration of d¹s², similar to Group 5, but their chemical behavior differs significantly.
• Group 7
• Group 7 elements include manganese (Mn), technetium (Tc), and rhenium (Re).
• These elements are characterized by their multiple oxidation states and are used in catalysts, medical imaging, and alloys.
• Technetium, like Dubnium, is radioactive but belongs to a different group due to its distinct electron configuration.
• Group 11
• Group 11 includes copper (Cu), silver (Ag), and gold (Au).
• These elements are known as coinage metals due to their historical use in currency.
• They are highly conductive and possess unique electrical and thermal properties.

The Correct answer is Bhutan.

Key Points

• Bhutan has the lowest population density among the neighbouring countries of India.
• The population density of Bhutan is approximately 20 people per square kilometre, which is very low compared to other neighbouring nations.
• Bhutan is a landlocked country located in the eastern Himalayas, bordered by India to the south and China to the north.
• The country's small population is distributed over a large area of rugged terrain, contributing to its low density.
• The landscape of Bhutan is dominated by mountains and forests, which further restricts urbanization and dense settlements.
• Bhutan follows a policy of Gross National Happiness (GNH), emphasizing sustainable development and environmental conservation.
• Major cities like Thimphu (the capital) and Paro are sparsely populated compared to urban centres in other countries.
• Bhutan's focus on preserving its cultural heritage and environment limits population growth and infrastructure expansion.

 Additional Information

• Nepal
• Nepal has a population density of around 200 people per square kilometre, significantly higher than Bhutan.
• Nepal is located in the Himalayan region and is bordered by India and China.
• The country's population is concentrated in the Terai region, which is fertile and suitable for agriculture.
• Nepal is known for its famous mountain ranges, including Mount Everest, the world's highest peak.
• Bangladesh
• Bangladesh has one of the highest population densities in the world, with over 1200 people per square kilometre.
• It is a densely populated country located in the eastern region of the Indian subcontinent.
• The fertile plains of the Ganges-Brahmaputra delta support a large population.
• Major cities like Dhaka (the capital) and Chittagong are heavily urbanized and densely populated.
• Pakistan
• Pakistan has a population density of approximately 287 people per square kilometre.
• The population is concentrated in regions like Punjab and Sindh, which are agriculturally rich.
• Major cities like Karachi, Lahore, and Islamabad have significant urban populations.
• Pakistan's diverse geography includes mountains, deserts, and fertile plains, influencing population distribution.

The Correct answer is Wrestling.

Key Points

• KD Jadhav, also known as Khashaba Dadasaheb Jadhav, was the first Indian to win an individual Olympic medal.
• He achieved this historic feat in Wrestling at the 1952 Helsinki Olympics.
• Jadhav won the bronze medal in the Bantamweight category of freestyle wrestling.
• His achievement was especially significant as it came at a time when India was newly independent, showcasing the country's potential in international sports.
• He trained under Rees Gardner, a coach from the United States, and received significant support from his family and local community.
• Jadhav was known for his agility, strength, and determination, which helped him compete against some of the best wrestlers in the world.
• After his Olympic success, KD Jadhav became a symbol of Indian pride and inspired many young athletes in India to pursue wrestling.
• In recognition of his contribution to sports, a stadium named after him, the Shri Shiv Chhatrapati Sports Complex KD Jadhav Stadium, was established in Pune.

 Additional Information

• Weightlifting
• Weightlifting is a sport where athletes lift heavy weights in specific techniques such as snatch and clean and jerk.
• India has seen success in weightlifting in recent years, with athletes like Mirabai Chanu winning medals at the Olympics.
• However, KD Jadhav did not win his Olympic medal in weightlifting.
• Boxing
• Boxing is a combat sport where two participants compete using their fists while wearing gloves.
• India has produced successful boxers like Mary Kom and Vijender Singh, who have won medals in international competitions.
• Although boxing is a popular sport in India, KD Jadhav’s Olympic medal was not won in boxing.
• Shooting
• Shooting is a precision sport where competitors aim at targets using firearms.
• India has excelled in shooting with athletes like Abhinav Bindra, who won a gold medal at the 2008 Beijing Olympics.
• Despite India’s success in shooting, KD Jadhav’s achievement was in wrestling, not shooting.

The Correct answer is Vannadil Pudiyaveettil Dhananjayan and Shanta Dhananjayan.

Key Points

• Vannadil Pudiyaveettil Dhananjayan and Shanta Dhananjayan are renowned Bharatanatyam dancers and choreographers.
• They are celebrated for their contribution to Indian classical dance, especially Bharatanatyam, as well as for their work in promoting and teaching the art form globally.
• The couple founded the Bharatakalanjali, a dance academy in Chennai, to train students in Bharatanatyam and other classical dance forms.
• Their performances are known for their spiritual depth, technical precision, and storytelling through dance.
• They have been recipients of numerous awards, including the prestigious Padma Bhushan for their contributions to Indian dance and culture.
• The Sangeetha Kala Vibhushan award in 2020 was bestowed upon them in recognition of their lifetime achievements and contributions to the field of classical dance.
• They have also collaborated with leading musicians and dancers to enrich the classical dance repertoire.
• Their work has inspired generations of dancers, both in India and abroad, making them iconic figures in the world of Indian classical arts.

 Additional Information

• Priyadarshini Govind and Rajkumar Bharathi
• Priyadarshini Govind is a renowned Bharatanatyam dancer known for her mastery in abhinaya (expression) and storytelling techniques.
• Rajkumar Bharathi, the great-grandson of Subramania Bharati, is a celebrated musician and composer specializing in Carnatic music.
• While they are prominent figures in the arts, they have not been recipients of the Sangeetha Kala Vibhushan award for 2020.
• Yamini Krishnamurthy and Saroja Vaidyanathan
• Yamini Krishnamurthy is a legendary Bharatanatyam and Kuchipudi dancer, often referred to as the torchbearer of Indian classical dance.
• Saroja Vaidyanathan is a Padma Bhushan awardee and an acclaimed Bharatanatyam exponent who has contributed significantly to the propagation of classical dance.
• Despite their illustrious careers, they did not receive the Sangeetha Kala Vibhushan award in 2020.
• Uma Sharma and Jatin Goswami
• Uma Sharma is a celebrated Kathak dancer known for reviving and promoting the classical dance form through performances and teaching.
• Jatin Goswami is an eminent Sattriya dancer and choreographer, contributing to the promotion of Assamese dance traditions.
• While their contributions to Indian dance are significant, they were not recipients of the Sangeetha Kala Vibhushan award in 2020.

The correct answer is Article 48A.

Key Points

• Article 48A of the Indian Constitution is part of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), which guides the state in formulating policies for the welfare of its citizens.
• This article explicitly emphasizes the need for the protection and improvement of the environment and the safeguarding of forests and wildlife.
• It was introduced by the 42^nd Amendment Act of 1976, which expanded the scope of environmental protection in India.
• The article directs the state to take proactive measures to preserve and improve the environment, ensuring a balance between development and ecological sustainability.
• Article 48A complements Article 51A(g), which imposes a duty on citizens to protect the environment and have compassion for living creatures.
• This provision is vital in the context of India’s growing industrialization and urbanization, which have led to significant environmental challenges, including deforestation, pollution, and loss of biodiversity.
• Article 48A has inspired numerous laws and regulations in India, such as the Wildlife Protection Act, Forest Conservation Act, and Environment Protection Act, aimed at safeguarding natural resources.

The Correct answer is Governor.

Key Points

• The Governor is the constitutional head of a state in India and acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
• Under Article 171 of the Indian Constitution, the State Legislative Council consists of members who are elected and nominated.
• The Governor has the power to nominate one-sixth of the members of the State Legislative Council.
• The nominated members are chosen from fields like literature, science, art, cooperative movement, and social service.
• This provision ensures representation of eminent personalities who might not be elected through regular electoral procedures.
• The nomination process helps in maintaining a balance between technical expertise and political representation within the legislative council.
• The Governor's role in this context emphasizes the importance of a non-partisan and inclusive approach to governance.

 Additional Information

• State Election Commissioner
• The State Election Commissioner is responsible for conducting elections for local bodies such as panchayats and municipalities within the state.
• This position is independent of the legislative council nomination process.
• The State Election Commissioner operates under the supervision of the Election Commission of India and is governed by provisions of the 73^rd and 74^th Constitutional Amendments.
• President
• The President of India is the constitutional head of the union government and has powers related to the Parliament, not the State Legislative Council.
• While the President nominates members to the Rajya Sabha, they do not have a role in nominating members to a state’s legislative council.
• Chief Minister
• The Chief Minister is the head of the government in a state and leads the executive branch.
• Although the Chief Minister advises the Governor, they do not have the power to nominate members to the State Legislative Council directly.
• The Chief Minister’s role is primarily focused on administrative and policy-making decisions within the state.

The Correct answer is Olly.

Key Points

• Olly was the official mascot of the FIH Men’s Hockey World Cup 2023, held in India.
• The mascot Olly represents the Olive Ridley turtles, which are a species of sea turtles found along the eastern coast of India, specifically in Odisha.
• The Olive Ridley turtles are famous for their mass nesting phenomenon called Arribada, which occurs primarily at beaches like Gahirmatha and Rushikulya in Odisha.
• The selection of Olly as the mascot highlights the importance of conservation and the rich biodiversity of Odisha.
• The Hockey World Cup 2023 was hosted by the Kalinga Stadium in Bhubaneswar and the Birsa Munda Hockey Stadium in Rourkela, Odisha.
• The mascot aimed to create awareness about environmental issues and promote sustainable practices alongside the spirit of the sport.
• Odisha has been a strong supporter of hockey and has hosted multiple international tournaments, making it a fitting venue for the World Cup.

 Additional Information

• Jhampa
• The term Jhampa has no association with the FIH Men’s Hockey World Cup or any mascot.
• It might have been included as a distractor in the options.
• Sikhta
• Sikhta does not represent any sports mascot or entity related to the Hockey World Cup.
• It could have been used as a fictional name to confuse participants.
• Simphu
• Simphu is not linked to the FIH Men’s Hockey World Cup or any mascot.
• It might have been provided as a misleading option without any relevance to the event.

The Correct answer is Manufacturing industry.

Key Points

• The Manufacturing industry focuses on transforming raw materials into finished products through various processes such as assembly, design, fabrication, and production.
• It is a part of the secondary sector of the economy, which deals with the processing of raw goods obtained from the primary sector.
• The industry encompasses a wide range of activities, including automobile production, electronics, textiles, food processing, and machinery manufacturing.
• Manufacturing industries play a crucial role in the economic development of a country by contributing to GDP, employment generation, and export earnings.
• Examples of manufacturing industries include companies like Tata Motors, Samsung, and Nestle that produce cars, electronics, and processed food products, respectively.
• These industries depend on advancements in technology, innovation, skilled labor, and infrastructure to increase efficiency and quality.
• Manufacturing industries often contribute to the global supply chain by distributing goods internationally.
• They also promote the development of industrial areas and encourage investments in research and development to improve production techniques.

 Additional Information

• Genetic industry
• The Genetic industry involves activities related to the cultivation and breeding of plants and animals to improve their genetic characteristics.
• Examples include agriculture, aquaculture, and animal husbandry.
• This industry focuses on producing raw materials, such as crops, livestock, and fish, rather than finished goods.
• Service industry
• The Service industry provides intangible services such as education, healthcare, tourism, and financial services rather than physical products.
• It is part of the tertiary sector of the economy and focuses on meeting the needs of consumers and businesses.
• Examples include banks, hospitals, schools, and IT service companies.
• Primary industry
• The Primary industry focuses on the extraction and harvesting of natural resources, such as mining, agriculture, forestry, and fishing.
• This sector provides the raw materials used by the manufacturing industry for producing finished goods.
• Examples include coal mining, wheat farming, and timber harvesting.

The Correct answer is Kelucharan Mohapatra.

Key Points

• Kelucharan Mohapatra is a renowned Indian classical dancer, but he is associated with Odissi dance, not Kathakali.
• He is considered one of the most prominent figures in reviving and popularizing the Odissi dance form, which is native to the Indian state of Odisha.
• Kelucharan Mohapatra was honored with several prestigious awards, including the Padma Vibhushan, which is India's second-highest civilian award.
• His contributions to Indian classical dance and his role in establishing Odissi as a respected art form on a global level are widely recognized.
• While Kathakali is a classical dance form from Kerala, Kelucharan Mohapatra's work was focused on Odissi dance and music.
• Odissi is different from Kathakali, as it is characterized by its graceful movements, intricate footwork, and depiction of stories from Hindu mythology, particularly from the Vaishnavite tradition.

 Additional Information

• Kalamandalam Gopi
• Kalamandalam Gopi is one of the most celebrated exponents of Kathakali, a classical dance-drama from Kerala.
• Kathakali is known for its elaborate costumes, makeup, and facial expressions to depict stories from Indian epics such as the Mahabharata and Ramayana.
• Kalamandalam Gopi has played iconic roles in Kathakali performances, earning him fame and recognition in the field.
• He was trained at the Kalamandalam, one of the premier institutions for Kathakali training.
• Ramankutty Nair
• Ramankutty Nair was another well-known artist associated with Kathakali.
• He was renowned for his performances in traditional Kathakali roles, particularly the heroic and anti-heroic characters.
• He contributed significantly to the preservation and promotion of Kathakali, ensuring its legacy continues in modern times.
• Kalamandalam Rajan
• Kalamandalam Rajan is associated with Kathakali and is known for his expertise in this classical dance form.
• He trained and performed at the Kalamandalam, an institution dedicated to promoting Kerala’s traditional art forms.

The Correct answer is Limonene.

Key Points

• Limonene is a naturally occurring chemical compound primarily found in the peels of citrus fruits, such as oranges, lemons, and limes.
• It is a type of terpene, which is a large and diverse class of organic compounds produced by various plants.
• Limonene is widely used as a flavoring agent in beverages and chewing gums due to its characteristic citrus aroma and taste.
• In addition to its use in food products, limonene is also employed in aromatherapy and as a natural solvent in cleaning products.
• The compound is known for its antioxidant and anti-inflammatory properties, making it a subject of interest in medical research.
• It is extracted from citrus peel oil using a process called steam distillation.
• In the food and beverage industry, limonene is classified as GRAS (Generally Recognized as Safe) by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA).

 Additional Information

• Lutidine
• Lutidine refers to a group of organic compounds that are isomers of dimethylpyridine.
• It is primarily used in the pharmaceutical and chemical industries as a solvent or intermediate in the synthesis of other chemicals.
• Lutidines do not have flavoring properties and are not used in food or beverage products.
• Menthone
• Menthone is a naturally occurring organic compound found in mint oils.
• It is commonly used as a fragrance in perfumes and as a flavoring agent in some products, but it is not the primary flavoring agent in citrus-based beverages or chewing gums.
• It has a characteristic minty aroma and is a key component of peppermint oil.
• Ethylvanillin
• Ethylvanillin is a synthetic compound that is used as a vanilla flavoring agent.
• It is stronger and more concentrated than natural vanilla, making it a popular choice in confectionery, baked goods, and ice creams.
• Unlike limonene, ethylvanillin is not derived from natural sources but is synthesized chemically.

The Correct answer is oceans, atmosphere, and land.

Key Points

• The water cycle, also known as the hydrological cycle, is a natural process through which water is continuously circulated in various forms across the oceans, atmosphere, and land.
• It involves processes such as evaporation, condensation, precipitation, infiltration, and runoff, ensuring the movement of water through different reservoirs.
• Water evaporates from the surface of oceans, rivers, lakes, and other water bodies due to the heat provided by the sun.
• In the atmosphere, water vapor cools and condenses to form clouds, which eventually result in precipitation such as rain, snow, or hail.
• On land, precipitation contributes to processes like infiltration (where water seeps into the soil) and surface runoff (where water flows over the surface into rivers and streams).
• A significant portion of the water eventually returns to the oceans, completing the cycle.
• This cycle is essential for maintaining the Earth's water balance and supporting life by replenishing freshwater resources.
• The water cycle also plays a critical role in regulating the Earth's climate and weather patterns.

 Additional Information

• Clouds and atmosphere
• The clouds and the atmosphere represent key components of the water cycle, specifically in the processes of condensation and precipitation.
• However, these are not the only components of the water cycle, as it also involves reservoirs like oceans, rivers, and land areas.
• Rivers and oceans
• While rivers and oceans are important reservoirs for water, they do not represent the entire water cycle.
• The water cycle also involves the atmosphere and land processes like evaporation, infiltration, and runoff.
• Land and ocean
• Land and oceans are essential reservoirs for the water cycle, but this option excludes the role of the atmosphere, where critical processes like evaporation and condensation occur.

The Correct answer is Rampur - Sahaswan.

Key Points

• Rampur - Sahaswan gharana is one of the prominent gharanas of Hindustani classical music.
• It is known for its emphasis on pure classical music and its rich repertoire of compositions.
• This gharana originated in the Rampur and Sahaswan regions, primarily under the patronage of the rulers of Rampur.
• The Rampur - Sahaswan gharana is closely associated with the legacy of Ustad Inayat Hussain Khan, who was instrumental in its development.
• Artists belonging to this gharana are renowned for their melodious and intricate renditions of ragas.
• Its vocal style is characterized by the use of slow-tempo elaborations and distinctive taans (rapid melodic passages).
• Rashid Khan, a celebrated Indian classical vocalist, belongs to this gharana and has been recognized for his mastery and innovation in Hindustani classical music.
• Rashid Khan is regarded as a torchbearer of the Rampur - Sahaswan gharana, blending traditional techniques with his own creative expressions.

 Additional Information

• Gwalior Gharana
• Gwalior gharana is considered the oldest and most influential gharana of Hindustani classical music.
• It originated in the Gwalior region of Madhya Pradesh and gained prominence during the reign of Raja Man Singh Tomar.
• Gwalior gharana is known for its emphasis on dhrupad and khayal singing styles.
• Its compositions are characterized by clarity and structure, with a focus on detailed elaboration of ragas.
• Atrauli - Jaipur Gharana
• The Atrauli - Jaipur gharana is known for its intricate and highly sophisticated vocal techniques.
• It originated in the Jaipur region and was developed by Alladiya Khan.
• Artists from this gharana are recognized for their mastery of rare and complex ragas.
• It emphasizes the use of layakari (rhythmic play) and meend (gliding notes).
• Lucknow Gharana
• The Lucknow gharana is primarily known for its contributions to Thumri and Kathak dance.
• It originated in the Lucknow region under the patronage of Nawabs of Awadh.
• Lucknow gharana focuses on expressive and emotive singing styles, often blending classical and semi-classical elements.
• It is characterized by the use of delicate ornamentation in compositions.

The Correct answer is Good Friday.

Key Points

• Good Friday is a significant day observed by the Christian community worldwide.
• It commemorates the crucifixion of Jesus Christ and his death at Calvary, as described in the New Testament.
• Good Friday occurs during Holy Week on the Friday before Easter Sunday and is a part of the Paschal Triduum.
• The day is observed with solemn ceremonies, including prayers, fasting, and attending church services.
• In many Christian traditions, the day is marked by reading of the Passion narratives from the Gospels, meditations on the seven last words of Jesus, and the veneration of the Cross.
• Good Friday is a public holiday in several countries, especially those with a significant Christian population.
• The day is called "Good" because it led to the resurrection of Jesus and the victory over sin and death, which is celebrated on Easter Sunday.
• Good Friday is also known as Holy Friday, Great Friday, or Black Friday in some traditions.

 Additional Information

• Muharram
• Muharram is the first month of the Islamic calendar and is considered one of the four sacred months in Islam.
• It is particularly significant for Shia Muslims, who observe the month to mourn the martyrdom of Imam Hussain, the grandson of Prophet Muhammad, at the Battle of Karbala.
• Muharram is observed with processions, fasting, prayers, and recitations.
• Milad-Un-Nabi
• Milad-Un-Nabi, also known as Eid-e-Milad, is celebrated to mark the birth of Prophet Muhammad.
• It is observed by Muslims worldwide with special prayers, sermons, and processions.
• However, it is not celebrated universally by all Muslims, as some sects consider it un-Islamic.
• Mahavir Jayanti
• Mahavir Jayanti is an important festival for Jains, commemorating the birth of Lord Mahavira, the 24^th and last Tirthankara of Jainism.
• It is observed with prayers, processions, and charity.
• Mahavir Jayanti emphasizes the principles of non-violence, truth, and compassion.

The Correct answer is Election Commission of India (ECI).

Key Points

• Sukhbir Singh Sandhu, a 1988 batch officer of the Indian Administrative Service (IAS) and belonging to the Uttarakhand cadre, joined the Election Commission of India (ECI) in March 2024.
• The Election Commission of India (ECI) is an independent constitutional authority responsible for administering elections in India at the national, state, and local levels.
• It operates under the provisions of Article 324 of the Indian Constitution, ensuring free and fair elections.
• The Commission is composed of a Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and two other Election Commissioners.
• Sukhbir Singh Sandhu is known for his vast administrative experience and was previously involved in crucial roles, such as serving as the Chairman of the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI).
• His appointment to the ECI reflects the importance of experienced administrators in maintaining the integrity of India’s electoral processes.
• The ECI is tasked with ensuring compliance with the Model Code of Conduct, managing voter registration, and supervising the election process.

 Additional Information

• Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central bank of India, established in 1935.
• Its primary functions include regulating the monetary policy, maintaining financial stability, and issuing currency.
• The RBI plays a crucial role in managing inflation, supervising banks, and ensuring economic stability.
• Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)
• The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is a constitutional body established under Article 315 of the Indian Constitution.
• It conducts examinations for appointments to the All India Services and other key government posts.
• UPSC is responsible for recruiting personnel based on merit and ensures a transparent selection process.
• Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)
• The Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) is an independent authority established under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution.
• The CAG audits the accounts of the Union, State Governments, and public sector organizations.
• It ensures accountability in the usage of public funds and submits audit reports to the President of India.

Shortcut Trick

Subtract the given remainders from the respective numbers to find exactly divisible numbers.

⇒ 175 − 4 = 171

⇒ 385 − 5 = 380

The required number is the HCF of 171 and 380.

⇒ HCF(171, 380) = 19

∴ The correct answer is 19.

Alternate Method

Given:

The numbers to be divided are 175 and 385.

The respective remainders left are 4 and 5.

Concept Used:

The greatest number that divides x and y leaving remainders a and b respectively is given by the HCF of (x − a) and (y − b).

Calculations:

⇒ First divisible number = 175 − 4 = 171

⇒ Second divisible number = 385 − 5 = 380

⇒ Prime factorization of 171 = 3 × 3 × 19

⇒ Prime factorization of 380 = 2 × 2 × 5 × 19

⇒ Taking the highest common prime factor, we get 19.

⇒ HCF(171, 380) = 19

∴ The correct answer is 19.

Additional Information

Greatest Number with Same Remainder

To find the greatest number that divides x, y, and z leaving the same remainder in each case, find the HCF of |x − y|, |y − z|, and |z − x|.

Least Number with Same Remainder

The least number which when divided by x, y, and z leaves a remainder r in each case is calculated as: LCM(x, y, z) + r.

Relation Between HCF and LCM

For any two numbers a and b, the product of the numbers is always equal to the product of their HCF and LCM: a × b = HCF × LCM.

Shortcut Trick

Convert the percentage changes into multiplying fraction factors:

⇒ Net multiplier = (1 − 1/4) × (1 − 3/20) × (1 − 9/20) × (1 + 13/20)

⇒ Net multiplier = (3/4) × (17/20) × (11/20) × (33/20) = 18513 / 32000

⇒ Decrease in value = 32000 − 18513 = 13487

⇒ Percentage decrease = (13487 / 32000) × 100 ≈ 42.14%

∴ The correct answer is 42.14%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Four successive fuel price changes: −25%, −15%, −45%, and +65%.

Formula Used:

Final Value = Initial Value × (1 ± R₁/100) × ... × (1 ± R_n/100)

32000 Original

−25%

24000

−15%

20400

−45%

11220

+65%

18513 Final

Net Decrease = 32000 − 18513 = 13487 Percentage Decrease ≈ 42.14%

Calculations:

To avoid decimal calculations, let the initial price be 32,000 units (which is derived from the LCM of denominators 4 × 20 × 20 × 20).

⇒ Price after 1^st month = 32000 × (1 − 25/100) = 32000 × 3/4 = 24000

⇒ Price after 2^nd month = 24000 × (1 − 15/100) = 24000 × 17/20 = 20400

⇒ Price after 3^rd month = 20400 × (1 − 45/100) = 20400 × 11/20 = 11220

⇒ Price after 4^th month = 11220 × (1 + 65/100) = 11220 × 33/20 = 18513

⇒ Overall net decrease = Initial Price − Final Price = 32000 − 18513 = 13487

⇒ Percentage decrease = (13487 / 32000) × 100

⇒ Percentage decrease = 1348.7 / 32 = 42.146875% ≈ 42.14%

∴ The correct answer is 42.14%.

Additional Information

Successive Percentage Change

For two successive changes of a% and b%, the net percentage change can be calculated directly using (a + b + ab/100)%. However, this formula becomes complicated for three or more continuous percentage changes.

Multiplying Factor Method

The most efficient way to compute sequential changes is by using a multiplying ratio. For example, a 20% increase translates to a factor of (1 + 1/5) = 6/5, while a 20% decrease translates to (1 − 1/5) = 4/5.

Fractional Equivalents

Converting standard percentages to lowest fractions allows heavy calculations to be managed without using decimals. Always memorize standard fractional tables like 25% = 1/4, 15% = 3/20, and 65% = 13/20 to drastically improve calculation speed.

Shortcut Trick

Speed ratio (New : Normal) = 3 : 8

Time ratio (New : Normal) = 8 : 3 (Since time ∝ 1/speed)

Difference in time ratio = 8 − 3 = 5 units

Given delay = 45 minutes ⇒ 5 units = 45 minutes

Normal time = 3 units = 3 × 9 = 27 minutes

∴ The correct answer is 27 minutes.

Alternate Method

City A City B

Normal Speed = v Normal Time = t

New Speed = 3/8 v New Time = t + 45

Given:

New speed = 3/8 of normal speed.

Delay time = 45 minutes.

Formula Used:

Distance = Speed × Time

When the distance is constant, Speed and Time are inversely proportional.

Calculations:

Let the normal speed be v and the normal time taken be t minutes.

⇒ Distance covered normally = v × t

⇒ Distance covered at new speed = (3v/8) × (t + 45)

Since the distance is the same in both cases, we can equate them:

⇒ v × t = (3v/8) × (t + 45)

⇒ t = 3/8 × (t + 45)

⇒ 8t = 3(t + 45)

⇒ 8t = 3t + 135

⇒ 5t = 135

⇒ t = 27

∴ The correct answer is 27 minutes.

Additional Information

Inverse Proportionality

When the distance is constant, speed and time are inversely proportional. This means S₁ × T₁ = S₂ × T₂.

Average Speed

For multiple trips of equal distance with speeds x and y, the average speed for the whole journey is given by 2xy ÷ (x + y).

Relative Speed

If two objects move in opposite directions, relative speed = x + y. If moving in the same direction, relative speed = |x − y|.

Shortcut Trick

Difference in principal invested = ₹9400 − ₹5400 = ₹4000

Extra interest generated in 4 years = ₹840

Extra interest generated in 1 year = 840 ÷ 4 = ₹210

Rate of Interest = (Interest for 1 year ÷ Principal difference) × 100

Rate of Interest = (210 ÷ 4000) × 100 = 5.25%

∴ The correct answer is 5.25%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Vipul's Investment (P₁) = ₹5400

Vijay's Investment (P₂) = ₹9400

Time (T) = 4 years

Difference in Simple Interest = ₹840

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Visualizing the Difference in Investment

Vipul's Principal: ₹5400

Vijay's Base: ₹5400

Extra: ₹4000

Extra SI = ₹840 (in 4 yrs)

Calculations:

⇒ Difference in SI = [(P₂ × R × T) ÷ 100] − [(P₁ × R × T) ÷ 100]

⇒ 840 = [(9400 − 5400) × R × 4] ÷ 100

⇒ 840 = [4000 × R × 4] ÷ 100

⇒ 840 = 40 × R × 4

⇒ 840 = 160 × R

⇒ R = 840 ÷ 160

⇒ R = 84 ÷ 16 = 5.25%

∴ The correct answer is 5.25%.

Additional Information

Simple Interest (SI)

It is calculated only on the original principal. The interest amount remains the same for every equal time period. Formula: SI = (P × R × T) ÷ 100.

Compound Interest (CI)

It is calculated on the initial principal and also on the accumulated interest of previous periods. Formula: A = P(1 + R/100)^T.

Rule of 72

A quick way to estimate the number of years required to double the invested money at a given fixed annual interest rate. Approx Time = 72 ÷ Rate.

Shortcut Trick

Using the effective successive discount formula: D = D₁ + D₂ − (D₁ × D₂) / 100

Equivalent discount for 16% and 10% = 16 + 10 − (16 × 10) / 100 = 26 − 1.6 = 24.4%

Now, find the equivalent discount for 24.4% and the third discount of 25%:

Final Equivalent Discount = 24.4 + 25 − (24.4 × 25) / 100

Final Equivalent Discount = 49.4 − 6.1 = 43.3%

∴ The correct answer is 43.3%.

Alternate Method

100 MP

84 SP 1

75.6 SP 2

56.7 Final SP

−16%

−10%

−25%

Equivalent Discount = 100 − 56.7 = 43.3%

Given:

Successive discounts = 16%, 10% and 25%

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = Marked Price (MP) × (1 − D₁/100) × (1 − D₂/100) × (1 − D₃/100)

Calculations:

⇒ Let the Marked Price (MP) be 100.

⇒ SP = 100 × (1 − 16/100) × (1 − 10/100) × (1 − 25/100)

⇒ SP = 100 × (84/100) × (90/100) × (75/100)

⇒ SP = 84 × 0.9 × 0.75

⇒ SP = 75.6 × 0.75

⇒ Final SP = 56.7

⇒ Single Equivalent Discount = MP − Final SP

⇒ Equivalent Discount = 100 − 56.7 = 43.3

∴ The correct answer is 43.3%.

Additional Information

Equivalent Discount for Two Successive Discounts

For two discounts a% and b%, the equivalent single discount can be directly calculated as: a + b − (a × b) / 100.

Equivalent Discount for Three Successive Discounts

For multiple discounts a%, b%, and c%, we can either apply the two-discount formula twice or use the multiplier factor: Equivalent Discount % = 100 − [100 × (100 − a)/100 × (100 − b)/100 × (100 − c)/100].

Independence of Order

The final selling price and the overall equivalent discount remain identical regardless of the sequence in which the successive discounts are applied.

Shortcut Trick

Let the assumed combined average be ₹300.

Net deviation = 38 × (375 − 300) + 31 × (309 − 300) + 52 × (298 − 300)

⇒ Net deviation = (38 × 75) + (31 × 9) + (52 × −2) = 2850 + 279 − 104 = +3025

Total members = 38 + 31 + 52 = 121

Final Average = Assumed Average + (Net Deviation ÷ Total Members) = 300 + (3025 ÷ 121) = 300 + 25 = 325.

∴ The correct answer is ₹325.

Alternate Method

Given:

Members in Group A = 38, Average spent = ₹375

Members in Group B = 31, Average spent = ₹309

Members in Group C = 52, Average spent = ₹298

Formula Used:

Combined Average = (n₁x₁ + n₂x₂ + n₃x₃) ÷ (n₁ + n₂ + n₃)

Weighted Average Model

Group A 38 × ₹375

Group B 31 × ₹309

Group C 52 × ₹298

Total Members = 38 + 31 + 52 = 121 Combined Average = ₹325

Calculation:

⇒ Total amount spent by Group A = 38 × 375 = ₹14250

⇒ Total amount spent by Group B = 31 × 309 = ₹9579

⇒ Total amount spent by Group C = 52 × 298 = ₹15496

⇒ Total overall amount spent = 14250 + 9579 + 15496 = ₹39325

⇒ Total members = 38 + 31 + 52 = 121

⇒ Combined Average = Total Amount ÷ Total Members

⇒ Combined Average = 39325 ÷ 121 = 325

∴ The correct answer is ₹325.

Additional Information

Weighted Average

It is used when finding the average of groups with different sizes. The formula is A = (w₁x₁ + w₂x₂ + ... + w_nx_n) ÷ (w₁ + w₂ + ... + w_n), where w is the count (weight) and x is the group average.

Deviation Method for Averages

Assuming a base average helps in reducing large calculations. Final Average = Assumed Average + (Net Total Deviation ÷ Total Quantity). If net deviation is positive, the real average is higher than assumed.

Transformation Properties of Averages

If every observation in a dataset is increased, decreased, multiplied, or divided by a constant 'k', the new average of the dataset also changes identically by the same constant 'k'.

Shortcut Trick

Total CP for 24 mangoes (2 dozen) = 250 + 200 = ₹450

Total SP for 2 dozen mangoes = 2 × 240 = ₹480

Profit = 480 − 450 = ₹30

Profit % = (30 ÷ 450) × 100 = 6.67%

∴ The correct answer is 6.67%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Cost of 15 mangoes = ₹250

Cost of 9 mangoes = ₹200

Selling price of mangoes per dozen (12 mangoes) = ₹240

Formula Used:

Profit = SP − CP

Profit % = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100

Transaction Overview

Total CP (24 items) ₹450

Total SP (2 dozen) ₹480

Profit = ₹30 Profit = 6.67%

Calculations:

⇒ Total mangoes bought = 15 + 9 = 24 mangoes

⇒ Total Cost Price (CP) = 250 + 200 = ₹450

⇒ Total dozens sold = 24 ÷ 12 = 2 dozen

⇒ Total Selling Price (SP) = 2 × 240 = ₹480

⇒ Profit earned = SP − CP = 480 − 450 = ₹30

⇒ Profit % = (30 ÷ 450) × 100

⇒ Profit % = (1 ÷ 15) × 100 = 6.666...% ≈ 6.67%

∴ The correct answer is 6.67%.

Additional Information

Marked Price & Discount

Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price (MP). Formula: Discount % = (Discount ÷ MP) × 100.

Successive Percentage Change

If two successive changes are a% and b%, the net percentage change is given by the formula (a + b + a×b ÷ 100)%.

Dishonest Dealer Concept

If a dealer claims to sell items at Cost Price but uses a false weight, Profit % = (Error ÷ (True Weight − Error)) × 100.

Shortcut Trick

Suraj completes 1/12 of the work in 9 days.

Fraction of the remaining work to be completed = 1 − 1/12 = 11/12.

If 1 part of the work takes 9 days, then the remaining 11 parts will take = 11 × 9 days.

⇒ Additional days required = 99 days.

∴ The correct answer is 99 days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Work completed by Suraj = 1/12

Time taken for 1/12 work = 9 days

Method Used:

LCM and Efficiency Method.

Total time for Suraj to complete the full work = 9 × 12 = 108 days.

Calculations:

⇒ Work already completed by Suraj in 9 days = 9 days × 1 unit/day = 9 units.

⇒ Remaining work to be completed = 108 units − 9 units = 99 units.

⇒ Additional days required = Remaining work ÷ Efficiency

⇒ Additional days = 99 ÷ 1 = 99 days.

∴ The correct answer is 99 days.

Additional Information

Total Work using Unitary Method

If a person completes 1/n of a given task in D days, the total time required to complete the full task is given by n × D days.

Remaining Work Concept

Remaining work is always calculated by subtracting the fraction of the completed work from 1 whole unit (i.e., 1 − Work Done).

Time & Efficiency Relationship

Efficiency is inversely proportional to time. Total Work is exactly equal to Time taken × Efficiency of the worker.

Given:

2% of x = 264

Calculation:

2% of x = 264

⇒ (2/100) × x = 264

⇒ x = (264 × 100) / 2

⇒ x = 13200

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Shortcut Trick Total Selling Price (SP) = (4 × 1230) + 880 = 4920 + 880 = ₹5800 Number of dozens in 400 guavas = 400 ÷ 12 = 100/3 dozens SP per dozen = 5800 ÷ (100/3) = 5800 × 3 ÷ 100 = 174 ∴ The correct answer is ₹174.

Alternate Method Given: Quantity of guavas bought = 400 Cost price of 100 guavas = ₹1230 Profit earned = ₹880

CP of 400 ₹4920

SP of 400 ₹5800

• ₹880 (Profit)

÷ (400/12)

SP per dozen = ₹174

Calculations: ⇒ Total Cost Price (CP) of 400 guavas = 1230 × (400 ÷ 100) ⇒ Total CP = 1230 × 4 = ₹4920 ⇒ Total Selling Price (SP) = Total CP + Profit ⇒ Total SP = 4920 + 880 = ₹5800 ⇒ Total quantity in dozens = 400 ÷ 12 = 100/3 dozens ⇒ SP per dozen = Total SP ÷ Total dozens ⇒ SP per dozen = 5800 ÷ (100/3) ⇒ SP per dozen = 5800 × (3 ÷ 100) = ₹174 ∴ The correct answer is ₹174.

Additional Information Unitary Method This method determines the value of a standard unit (like one item or a dozen) from the given multiple quantity, which can then be applied to find the equivalent proportional value. Profit and Loss Basics Selling Price (SP) = Cost Price (CP) + Profit. Profit occurs when SP > CP. If CP is greater than SP, it results in a Loss. Dozen Conversion 1 Dozen = 12 items. To convert a specific number of individual items into dozens, simply divide the total item count by 12.

Shortcut Trick

To find the required number, simply find the LCM of the given divisors and add the decreased value.

LCM of 15, 25, and 55 = 825

Required Number = 825 + 3 = 828

∴ The correct answer is 828.

Alternate Method

Given:

The numbers are 15, 25, and 55.

The required number when decreased by 3 is exactly divisible by these numbers.

Formula Used:

Required Number = LCM(a, b, c) + k (where k is the value by which the number is decreased)

Calculations:

⇒ Prime factorization of 15 = 3 × 5

⇒ Prime factorization of 25 = 5 × 5 = 5²

⇒ Prime factorization of 55 = 5 × 11

⇒ LCM (15, 25, 55) = 3 × 5² × 11

⇒ LCM = 3 × 25 × 11

⇒ LCM = 825

⇒ The smallest number exactly divisible by 15, 25, and 55 is 825.

⇒ Since the required number was decreased by 3, we add 3 back to the LCM.

⇒ Required Number = 825 + 3 = 828

∴ The correct answer is 828.

Additional Information

LCM (Least Common Multiple)

The smallest positive integer that is perfectly divisible by each of the given numbers.

Case 1: Same Remainder

The smallest number which when divided by a, b, and c leaves the same remainder 'r' in each case is given by: Required Number = LCM(a, b, c) + r.

Case 2: Different Remainders

The smallest number which when divided by a, b, and c leaves remainders x, y, and z respectively, such that (a − x) = (b − y) = (c − z) = k, is given by: Required Number = LCM(a, b, c) − k.

LCM of Fractions

LCM of fractions = LCM of Numerators ÷ HCF of Denominators.

Shortcut Trick

Time required is inversely proportional to the number of pipes.

Since the number of pipes is halved (from 6 to 3), the time required will be doubled.

Original time = 1 hour 45 minutes = 105 minutes.

New time = 105 × 2 = 210 minutes.

∴ The correct answer is 3 h 30 min.

Alternate Method

Given:

Initial number of pipes (M₁) = 6

Initial time (T₁) = 1 hour 45 minutes = 105 minutes

Final number of pipes (M₂) = 3

Formula Used:

M₁ × T₁ = M₂ × T₂ (Inverse Proportion)

Calculations:

⇒ Let the efficiency of 1 pipe be 1 unit/min.

⇒ Efficiency of 6 pipes = 6 units/min.

⇒ Total Work (tank capacity) = Efficiency × Time = 6 × 105 = 630 units.

⇒ Efficiency of 3 pipes = 3 units/min.

⇒ Time taken by 3 pipes = Total Work ÷ Efficiency = 630 ÷ 3 = 210 minutes.

⇒ 210 minutes = 180 minutes + 30 minutes = 3 hours 30 minutes.

∴ The correct answer is 3 h 30 min.

Additional Information

Inverse Proportion (MDH Rule)

When the amount of work is constant, M₁ × D₁ × H₁ = M₂ × D₂ × H₂. More workers/pipes mean less time required to complete the task.

Pipes & Cisterns

Inlet pipes that fill the tank have positive efficiency, while outlet pipes or leaks that empty the tank have negative efficiency.

Time and Efficiency

Time taken to complete a task is always inversely proportional to the efficiency. T ∝ 1/E.

Given:

Expression: [(17 × 9) × {6 ÷ 3 × ((18 - 14) ÷ 2)}]

Calculations:

[(17 × 9) × {6 ÷ 3 × ((18 - 14) ÷ 2)}]

⇒ [(17 × 9) × {2 × (4 ÷ 2)}]

⇒ [(17 × 9) × {2 × 2}]

⇒ [153 × 4]

⇒ 612

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Given:

Expression: [(27 × 5) × {3 ÷ 3 × ((15 - 13) ÷ 2)}]

Calculation:

[(27 × 5) × {3 ÷ 3 × ((15 - 13) ÷ 2)}]

⇒ [(27 × 5) × {3 ÷ 3 × (2 ÷ 2)}]

⇒ [135 × {1 × 1}]

⇒ [135 × 1]

⇒ 135

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Shortcut Trick

For 2 years, Principal (P) = (SI for 1 year)² ÷ (CI − SI)

⇒ SI for 1 year = ₹40 ÷ 2 = ₹20

⇒ CI − SI = ₹60 − ₹40 = ₹20

⇒ P = 20² ÷ 20 = 400 ÷ 20 = 20

∴ The correct answer is ₹20.

Alternate Method

Given:

Simple Interest (SI) for 2 years = ₹40

Compound Interest (CI) for 2 years = ₹60

Time (T) = 2 years

Formula Used:

SI for 1 year = Total SI ÷ 2

Difference (CI − SI) for 2 years = Interest on 1^st year's SI

Rate (R) = (Difference ÷ SI for 1 year) × 100

Principal (P) = (SI for 1 year × 100) ÷ (R × 1)

Principal (P)

Year 1 SI ₹20

Year 2 SI ₹20

Rate R%

Interest on 1^st Yr ₹20

Rate R% Rate R%

Total SI = ₹40 Total CI = ₹60

Calculations:

⇒ SI for 1 year = 40 ÷ 2 = ₹20

⇒ Difference (CI − SI) = 60 − 40 = ₹20

⇒ The difference is simply the interest earned on the 1^st year's SI.

⇒ Rate (R) = (20 ÷ 20) × 100 = 100%

⇒ Using the formula for SI: SI = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

⇒ 20 = (P × 100 × 1) ÷ 100

⇒ 20 = P

∴ The correct answer is ₹20.

Additional Information

Difference between CI and SI

For 2 years, the difference between Compound Interest and Simple Interest on a certain principal can be directly calculated as: Difference = P × (R ÷ 100)².

Simple Interest (SI)

It is calculated strictly on the original principal amount for each period. Thus, SI remains constant for every year: SI = (P × R × T) ÷ 100.

Compound Interest (CI)

Interest is calculated on the principal and also on the accumulated interest of previous periods. In the first year, CI and SI are always equal.

Shortcut Trick

Effective Rate of CI for 2 years = 4% + 4% + (4 × 4) ÷ 100% = 8.16%

Effective Rate of SI for 2 years = 4% × 2 = 8%

According to the given data, 8.16% corresponds to ₹102.

SI (8%) = (102 ÷ 8.16) × 8

SI = (102 ÷ 816) × 800 = (1 ÷ 8) × 800 = ₹100

∴ The correct answer is ₹100.

Alternate Method

Given:

Rate of Interest (R) = 4% per annum

Time (T) = 2 years

Compound Interest (CI) = ₹102

Formula Used:

For a period of 2 years, the direct relationship between Compound Interest (CI) and Simple Interest (SI) is:

CI ÷ SI = (200 + R) ÷ 200

Principal P (100%)

CI = 8.16% → ₹102

SI = 8% → ?

R = 4%, T = 2 yrs

Calculations:

⇒ CI ÷ SI = (200 + R) ÷ 200

⇒ 102 ÷ SI = (200 + 4) ÷ 200

⇒ 102 ÷ SI = 204 ÷ 200

⇒ 102 ÷ SI = 51 ÷ 50

⇒ SI = (102 × 50) ÷ 51

⇒ SI = 2 × 50 = ₹100

∴ The correct answer is ₹100.

Additional Information

Difference between CI and SI for 2 years

The difference between Compound Interest and Simple Interest for exactly 2 years on the same principal is: Difference = P × (R ÷ 100)²

Difference between CI and SI for 3 years

For 3 years, the difference expands to: Difference = P × (R ÷ 100)² × ((300 + R) ÷ 100)

Effective Rate of Compound Interest

For 2 years, the effective compound interest rate percentage can be rapidly computed using the successive change formula: 2R + (R² ÷ 100)%

Shortcut Trick Total Distance to cover = 250 + 350 = 600 m Relative Speed (opposite directions) = 35 + 25 = 60 km/hr Speed in m/s = 60 × (5/18) = 50/3 m/s Time = Total Distance ÷ Relative Speed = 600 ÷ (50/3) = 36 seconds ∴ The correct answer is 36 seconds.

Alternate Method

250 m 35 km/hr

350 m 25 km/hr

Opposite Directions Total Distance = 250 + 350 = 600 m Relative Speed = 35 + 25 = 60 km/hr

Given: Length of the first train (L1) = 250 m Length of the second train (L2) = 350 m Speed of the first train (S1) = 35 km/hr Speed of the second train (S2) = 25 km/hr

Formula Used: Relative speed (opposite direction) = S1 + S2 Total Distance = L1 + L2 Time taken = Distance ÷ Speed To convert km/hr to m/s, multiply the speed value by 5/18.

Calculations: ⇒ Total Distance = 250 + 350 = 600 m ⇒ Relative Speed = 35 + 25 = 60 km/hr ⇒ Relative Speed in m/s = 60 × (5/18) = 300/18 = 50/3 m/s ⇒ Time taken = Total Distance ÷ Relative Speed ⇒ Time taken = 600 ÷ (50/3) ⇒ Time taken = (600 × 3) ÷ 50 ⇒ Time taken = 1800 ÷ 50 = 36 seconds

∴ The correct answer is 36 seconds.

Additional Information

Relative Speed in Same Direction When two objects or trains move in the same direction, their relative speed is the difference between their individual speeds: Relative Speed = S1 − S2 (where S1 > S2).

Conversion of Units To convert speed from km/hr to m/s, you multiply the speed by 5/18. Conversely, to convert speed from m/s to km/hr, you multiply by 18/5.

Train Crossing Objects When a train crosses a stationary pole or a standing man, the distance covered equals the length of the train alone. When it crosses a platform, a bridge, or another train, the total distance is the sum of both lengths.

Shortcut Trick

Remaining work can be completed by 20 workers in 15 − 6 = 9 days.

Applying the formula: M₁ × D₁ = M₂ × D₂

⇒ 20 × 9 = 10 × D₂

⇒ D₂ = 180 ÷ 10 = 18

∴ The correct answer is 18 days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Initial number of workers = 20

Total time required to finish work = 15 days

Days worked before some workers left = 6 days

Number of workers who left = 10

Formula Used:

Total Work = Number of Workers × Days

Calculations:

⇒ Total work = 20 × 15 = 300 units

⇒ Work completed by 20 workers in 6 days = 20 × 6 = 120 units

⇒ Remaining work = 300 − 120 = 180 units

⇒ Remaining workers = 20 − 10 = 10 workers

⇒ Efficiency of the remaining 10 workers = 10 units/day

⇒ Additional days required = Remaining work ÷ Efficiency

⇒ Additional days = 180 ÷ 10 = 18

∴ The correct answer is 18 days.

Additional Information

Chain Rule (MDH Formula)

If M₁ persons can do W₁ work in D₁ days working H₁ hours a day, and M₂ persons can do W₂ work in D₂ days working H₂ hours a day, then (M₁ × D₁ × H₁) ÷ W₁ = (M₂ × D₂ × H₂) ÷ W₂.

Concept of Efficiency

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken. If person A is twice as fast as person B, A will take half the time B takes to complete the identical work.

Workers Leaving Mid-way

When workers leave before the work is finished, you can calculate the remaining work based on the time left for the original group, and then equate it to the new group size multiplied by the new additional time required.

Shortcut Trick

The volume of a sphere is given by the direct formula: V = (4/3) × π × r³

Substitute the given values r = 10 and π = 3.141 into the formula.

⇒ V = (4/3) × 3.141 × 1000

⇒ V = (4/3) × 3141

⇒ V = 4 × 1047 = 4188 cm³

∴ The correct answer is 4188 cm³.

Alternate Method

r = 10 cm Volume of Sphere = (4/3) × π × r³

Given:

Radius of the sphere (r) = 10 cm

Value of π to be used = 3.141

Formula Used:

Volume of a sphere (V) = (4/3) × π × r³

Calculations:

⇒ V = (4/3) × 3.141 × (10)³

⇒ V = (4/3) × 3.141 × 1000

⇒ V = (4/3) × 3141

⇒ V = 4 × (3141 ÷ 3)

⇒ V = 4 × 1047

⇒ V = 4188 cm³

∴ The correct answer is 4188 cm³.

Additional Information

Surface Area of a Sphere

The total curved surface area covering a complete sphere is calculated using the formula: A = 4 × π × r².

Volume of a Hemisphere

A hemisphere is exactly half of a solid sphere. Its volume is given by: V = (2/3) × π × r³.

Total Surface Area of a Hemisphere

The total surface area includes both the curved outer bowl surface and the flat circular top, giving the formula: TSA = 3 × π × r².

Shortcut Trick

Using the Net Deviation Method with the overall average of 49.5 as the base zero:

Net deviation of given parts = (45 − 49.5) × 5 + (53.25 − 49.5) × 4

⇒ Net deviation = (−4.5 × 5) + (3.75 × 4) = −22.5 + 15.0 = −7.5

To balance the total average, the remaining 3 numbers must have an opposite deviation of +7.5.

Average of remaining 3 numbers = Overall Average + (Balanced Deviation ÷ 3) = 49.5 + (7.5 ÷ 3) = 49.5 + 2.5 = 52.

∴ The correct answer is 52.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total number of values = 12

Overall average of 12 values = 49.5

Average of the first 5 values = 45

Average of the next 4 values = 53.25

Remaining values = 12 − (5 + 4) = 3

Total 12 Numbers | Overall Avg = 49.5

5 Numbers Avg = 45

4 Numbers Avg = 53.25

3 Numbers Avg = ?

Total Sum = 12 × 49.5 = 594

Formula Used:

Total Sum = Average × Number of items

Calculations:

⇒ Total sum of all 12 numbers = 12 × 49.5 = 594

⇒ Sum of the first 5 numbers = 5 × 45 = 225

⇒ Sum of the next 4 numbers = 4 × 53.25 = 213

⇒ Sum of the remaining 3 numbers = Total Sum − (Sum of first 5 + Sum of next 4)

⇒ Sum of the remaining 3 numbers = 594 − (225 + 213) = 594 − 438 = 156

⇒ Average of the remaining 3 numbers = 156 ÷ 3 = 52

∴ The correct answer is 52.

Additional Information

Sum of Deviations Rule

The sum of all actual deviations of a set of given observations from their exact arithmetic mean is always mathematically equal to zero.

Weighted Average Formula

When combining multiple distinct groups together, the overall average represents a weighted mean: Combined Avg = (n₁ × A₁ + n₂ × A₂ + ... + n_k × A_k) ÷ (n₁ + n₂ + ... + n_k).

Core Properties of Averages

If every single observation is increased, decreased, multiplied, or divided by a specific constant factor, the final average will automatically undergo the exact same mathematical operation.

The correct answer is '2' i.e. and aluring. .

Key Points

• The word "aluring" in the segment "and aluring" contains a spelling error.
• The correct spelling of the word is "alluring."
• All other segments in the sentence are free of spelling errors and are grammatically correct.
• The corrected sentence should read: "The crescent moon looked fantastically gorgeous and alluring."

Correct sentence: The crescent moon looked fantastically gorgeous and alluring.

Additional Information

• Spelling errors in sentences can often affect the clarity and professionalism of the text.
• It is always advisable to proofread and verify the spelling of words, especially when they are less commonly used.
• In this case, "alluring" is a descriptive word that means "highly attractive or charming."

The correct answer is: Option 3 (Prominent).

Key Points

• The word "Esteemed" means highly regarded, respected, or admired. (सम्मानित)
• Example: The scientist was esteemed by her peers for her groundbreaking research.
• "Prominent" means important, well-known, or easily noticeable. (प्रमुख)
• Example: She is a prominent figure in the field of environmental conservation.
• Both "esteemed" and "prominent" convey a sense of importance and recognition, making "prominent" the most appropriate synonym for "esteemed."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 (Prominent).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Peaceful (शांत): Free from disturbance; calm or tranquil.
• Example: The countryside was peaceful, with birds chirping and no traffic noise.
• Large (बड़ा): Of considerable or relatively great size, extent, or capacity.
• Example: The large auditorium accommodated thousands of guests.
• Happy (खुश): Feeling or showing pleasure or contentment.
• Example: She was happy to receive the award for her hard work.

The correct answer is '1' i.e. has been linked to more .

Key Points

• The phrase "has been link in more" in the given sentence is grammatically incorrect. The verb "link" needs to be in its past participle form to maintain the correct tense structure.
• The correct form is "has been linked to more", as "linked" is the past participle of "link" and "to" is the appropriate preposition to use in this context.
• The sentence refers to the connection between the loss of reflective sea ice and more extreme weather patterns, which requires the passive voice construction.

Correct sentence: Loss of reflective sea ice has been linked to more extreme weather patterns in Eurasia and North America.

Additional Information

• The present perfect tense ("has been linked") is used to indicate an action that started in the past but is still relevant or has an effect in the present.
• Prepositions like "to" are commonly used to show connection or association between two entities.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Conservative.

Key Points

• The word "Radical" means relating to or affecting the fundamental nature of something; far-reaching or thorough, often associated with extreme or progressive ideas. (आधारभूत, उग्र)
• Example: His radical approach to education challenged traditional teaching methods.
• "Conservative" refers to holding traditional values and being cautious or resistant to change, often the opposite of radical. (रूढ़िवादी)
• Example: Her conservative views on politics often clash with the progressive ideas of her peers.
• Hence, the antonym of "Radical" is "Conservative".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Conservative.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Progressive (प्रगतिशील): Favoring or advocating progress, change, or reform.
• Example: The government introduced progressive policies to address climate change.
• Extreme (अत्यधिक): Reaching a high or the highest degree; very intense or excessive.
• Example: His extreme opinions often alienate others in discussions.
• Innovative (नवोन्मेषी): Introducing new ideas; original and creative in thinking.
• Example: She designed an innovative solution to reduce energy consumption.

The correct answer is: Option 1, i.e. 'Decreased'.

Key Points

• The word "dwindled" means to reduce gradually in size, amount, or strength; to shrink or decline over time. (धीरे-धीरे घट जाना)
• Example: Over the years, their savings dwindled due to unforeseen expenses.
• "Decreased" refers to something that has become smaller or less in size, amount, or intensity. (घट जाना)
• Example: The temperature decreased rapidly after the storm.
• Hence, the synonym of 'dwindled' is 'decreased'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1, 'Decreased'.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Stabilised (स्थिर होना): Refers to making something stable or consistent without significant change.
• Example: The economy stabilised after the government implemented reforms.
• Increased (बढ़ना): Refers to becoming larger or greater in quantity, size, or intensity.
• Example: The population of the city increased significantly over the decade.
• Fluctuated (उतार-चढ़ाव होना): Refers to varying or changing irregularly in amount, size, or strength.
• Example: The stock prices fluctuated throughout the trading day.

The correct answer is 'meet'.

 

Key Points

• The verb "meet" is appropriate in this context because it refers to fulfilling or achieving a goal or requirement, such as a deadline.
• The sentence describes the team's effort to complete the project within the specified time frame, which aligns with the meaning of "meet."
• Options 1, 2, and 4 do not fit the context of achieving a deadline, and Option 5 is not valid.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: "The team worked hard to meet the deadline for the project."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "ask" is incorrect because it does not convey the meaning of fulfilling or achieving a deadline.
• Option 2: "twist" is incorrect because it does not fit the context of completing a project on time.
• Option 4: "correct" is incorrect because it does not align with the idea of achieving a deadline.

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. avoid trouble.

Key Points

• The phrase "keep their heads above water" is an idiom that means to survive or manage to cope with a difficult situation, especially financial difficulties. (मुश्किल परिस्थितियों में जीवित रहना या संभलना)
• Example: Even with rising costs, the small business managed to keep its head above water.
• "Avoid trouble" refers to staying out of problems or difficult situations. (मुसीबत से बचना)
• Example: He avoided trouble by carefully following all the rules.
• Hence, the most appropriate substitution for the underlined phrase is "avoid trouble".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 2: Give up (हार मान लेना): To stop trying or to accept defeat.
• Example: He decided not to give up and kept working hard toward his goal.
• Option 3: Fail miserably (पूरी तरह से असफल होना): To fail in a significant or complete manner.
• Example: The project failed miserably due to poor planning.
• Option 4: Succeed completely (पूरी तरह से सफल होना): To achieve total success without any failures.
• Example: The team succeeded completely in delivering the project on time.

The correct answer is: Option 4 (Welcome).

Key Points

• The word "Extrusion" refers to the act of forcing something out, especially in a mechanical or physical sense. It can also mean being pushed out or thrust out. (निकालना)
• Example: The machine is designed for the extrusion of plastic materials into pipes.
• "Welcome" is the antonym of extrusion as it signifies accepting, receiving, or inviting someone or something in, which is the opposite of pushing or forcing out. (स्वागत करना)
• Example: We warmly welcome all the new students to our university.
• Hence, the word "Welcome" is the most appropriate antonym for "Extrusion".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4 (Welcome).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Banish (निर्वासन): To send someone away as a punishment; to expel from a place.
• Example: The king decided to banish the traitor from the kingdom.
• Exile (निर्वासन): The state of being barred from one’s native country, typically for political or punitive reasons.
• Example: After the war, the leader lived in exile for many years.
• Suspension (निलंबन): The temporary prevention of something from continuing or being in force.
• Example: The suspension of the project caused a delay in its completion.

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Cut to the chase.

Key Points

• The word "Cut to the chase" is an idiom that means to get to the main point quickly without wasting time on unnecessary details. (मुख्य बात पर आना)
• Example: We are running out of time, so let’s cut to the chase and finalize the deal.
• In the given sentence, "let's talk about the important points and not waste time" aligns with the meaning of "Cut to the chase."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Hone your skills (कौशल को निखारना): To improve or perfect your abilities or talents through practice.
• Example: She attended workshops to hone her skills in painting.
• Bear the stamp (छाप होना): To carry the mark or characteristic of something.
• Example: The letter bears the stamp of authenticity from the government.
• Think of the unthinkable (अकल्पनीय के बारे में सोचना): To consider a possibility that seems impossible or highly unlikely.
• Example: In the face of a crisis, sometimes you have to think of the unthinkable to find a solution.

The correct answer is '4' i.e. Andrew and Victoria politely .

Key Points

• The sentence contains an adverbial usage error in the segment "Andrew and Victoria politely."
• The adverb "politely" does not logically fit with the context of the sentence, which describes "skipping down the street." Skipping is generally associated with carefree or joyful action, and "politely" is not an appropriate adverb to modify this verb.
• The sentence would make more sense if the adverb "politely" were replaced with an adverb like "happily" or "cheerfully."

Correct sentence: Andrew and Victoria cheerfully skipped down the street near the apartment.

Additional Information

• Adverbs: Adverbs modify verbs, adjectives, or other adverbs and describe how, when, where, or to what extent an action is performed.
• It is important to match the adverb with the context and meaning of the sentence. Incorrect usage of adverbs can result in illogical or confusing sentences.
• In this case, "politely" is more suited for actions involving social manners or etiquette, not physical activities like skipping.

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Occassional.

Key Points

• The word "Occassional" is incorrectly spelled. The correct spelling is "Occasional". (अनियमित)
• Occassional (incorrect spelling): This is a misspelling and does not exist as a correct English word.
• Example: "Occassional rains disrupted the event." — This sentence contains the misspelled word.
• Occasional (correct spelling): Means something that happens irregularly or infrequently. (अनियमित)
• Example: "Occasional showers are expected in the evening."
• Hence, the correct spelling is "Occasional" and the incorrect option was "Occassional."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Psychiatry (मनोचिकित्सा): The study and treatment of mental illness, emotional disturbance, and abnormal behavior.
• Example: She decided to specialize in psychiatry after completing her medical degree.
• Ammunition (गोला-बारूद): A supply or quantity of bullets and shells.
• Example: The soldiers were running low on ammunition during the battle.
• Competitor (प्रतिद्वंद्वी): A person or entity engaged in competition with others.
• Example: He is the toughest competitor in the tournament.

The correct answer is: Option 2 (Grant).

Key Points

• The word "withhold" means to hold back or refuse to give something. It often conveys the idea of deliberately not granting what is expected or due. (रोकना, न देना)
• Example: The teacher decided to withhold the test results until everyone submitted their assignments.
• The word "Grant" means to give something formally or legally, especially as a right or privilege. It is the opposite of withholding, as it implies offering or providing. (प्रदान करना, अनुमति देना)
• Example: The government decided to grant permission for the new project.
• Hence, the antonym of "withhold" is "Grant."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 (Grant).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Plant (पौधा लगाना): To place a seed, bulb, or plant in the ground so that it can grow.
• Example: She decided to plant flowers in her backyard.
• Keep (रखना): To retain possession of something or not let go.
• Example: Please keep your belongings safe while traveling.
• Save (बचाना): To preserve or rescue from harm, danger, or loss.
• Example: He managed to save enough money for his trip.

The correct answer is '3' i.e. D contains a grammatical error.

Key Points

• The segment "who thoughtful celebrated their birthdays" contains a grammatical error.
• The word "thoughtful" is incorrectly used as an adjective when an adverb is required to modify the verb "celebrated." The correct form is "thoughtfully."
• Adverbs are used to describe verbs, adjectives, or other adverbs, and the sentence requires the adverb "thoughtfully" to describe how the celebration was carried out.

Correct sentence: They carefully planned the surprise party, ensuring everything was perfect for their friend, who thoughtfully celebrated their birthdays.

Additional Information

• Adjective vs. Adverb Usage:
• Adjectives describe nouns (e.g., "a thoughtful person").
• Adverbs describe verbs, adjectives, or other adverbs (e.g., "thoughtfully planned").
• To avoid such errors, always check if the word is modifying a noun or a verb.

The correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Key Points

• The word "composition" refers to the arrangement of elements in an artwork, making it the most appropriate choice for describing the structure of the work.
• "Painting" refers to the artwork itself. Hence, "painting" fits best in the first blank.
• "Composition" describes the way the artist arranged its elements. Hence, "Composition" fits best in the second blank.
• "Gallery" is the space where artwork is displayed, making it the correct fit for the third blank.
• The other options do not logically fit the context of an art piece, as they place the terms in incorrect order.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Complete Sentence: Her intricate painting displayed delicate strokes, bold colours and a captivating composition, making it one of the most impressive pieces in the gallery.

Additional Information

• Composition (संरचना): Refers to the arrangement or structure of elements in a work of art.
• Painting (चित्रकला): The artwork itself, often referring to the medium used by the artist.
• Gallery (गैलरी): A space or room where artwork is displayed for the public to view.

The correct answer is 'aren't'.

 

Key Points

• The sentence uses a tag question, which is used to confirm something.
• In tag questions, the auxiliary verb matches the verb in the main clause.
• Since the main clause implies a positive statement ("I am going to get an email"), the tag question needs a negative auxiliary verb.
• "Aren't I" is the correct negative tag for "I am" in informal English.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "I am going to get an email with more details, aren't I?"

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "don't" is incorrect as it does not match the auxiliary verb "am" in the main clause.
• Option 3: "can't" is incorrect as it does not logically follow the sentence structure or meaning.
• Option 4: "won't" is incorrect because it does not match the verb tense or context.

The correct answer is 'has'.

 

Key Points

• The sentence talks about 'a child' which is singular, so we need the verb form that agrees with the singular subject.
• 'Has' is the correct choice as it agrees with the singular subject 'child' (a child has good parents).
• Other options like have are incorrect because they do not agree with the singular subject 'child'.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Complete Passage: Childhood is a time when there are few responsibilities to make life difficult. If a child (1) has good parents and they are fed, looked after and loved, whatever they may do, it is improbable that they will ever again in life (2)_____ given so much without having to do anything in return. In addition, life is always presenting new things to the child. A child finds pleasure in playing in the rain or in the snow. Their first visit to the seaside is a marvelous adventure. However, a child has their pains; they are not free to do as they wish; they are continually being told not to do things or are being (3). Their life is therefore not perfectly happy. When the young individual starts to earn their own living, they become free from the discipline of school and parents, but at the same time they are forced to accept responsibilities. They can no longer expect others to pay for food, clothes and room, but they have to work if they want to live (4). If they spend most of their time playing about in the way that they used to as a child, they will go hungry. Moreover, if they break the laws of society just as they used to break the laws of their parents, they may go to prison. However, by working, keeping out of (5)_____ and having good health, they can have the great happiness of seeing themselves make steady progress in their job and of building up for themselves their own position in society.

 

Additional Information

• Have: This is incorrect as it is a plural form, and the subject 'a child' is singular, so it does not agree grammatically.
• Are: This would suggest a plural subject and is incorrect in this context where 'a child' is singular.
• Will: This is future tense and doesn't match the present general description of a child's situation in the passage.

The correct answer is 'be'.

 

Key Points

• The passage uses a conditional structure ('If a child...'), which typically requires the verb form 'be' in the infinitive form after the condition.
• 'Be' is used in its infinitive form in conditional clauses to refer to the state or condition of the subject (the child). In this case, it indicates the possibility or hypothetical nature of the situation.
• Other options like are, has, and is would not work here as they are not the correct verb forms to use in this conditional sentence structure.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Complete Passage: Childhood is a time when there are few responsibilities to make life difficult. If a child (1) has good parents and they are fed, looked after and loved, whatever they may do, it is improbable that they will ever again in life (2) be given so much without having to do anything in return. In addition, life is always presenting new things to the child. A child finds pleasure in playing in the rain or in the snow. Their first visit to the seaside is a marvelous adventure. However, a child has their pains; they are not free to do as they wish; they are continually being told not to do things or are being (3). Their life is therefore not perfectly happy. When the young individual starts to earn their own living, they become free from the discipline of school and parents, but at the same time they are forced to accept responsibilities. They can no longer expect others to pay for food, clothes and room, but they have to work if they want to live (4). If they spend most of their time playing about in the way that they used to as a child, they will go hungry. Moreover, if they break the laws of society just as they used to break the laws of their parents, they may go to prison. However, by working, keeping out of (5)_____ and having good health, they can have the great happiness of seeing themselves make steady progress in their job and of building up for themselves their own position in society.

 

Additional Information

• Are: This is incorrect as it is the present tense of the verb, and does not fit the conditional structure of the sentence.
• Has: This is incorrect as it is the third person singular present tense, which doesn't match the structure of the sentence.
• Is: This is incorrect because the sentence needs the base form of the verb after the conditional 'If'.

The correct answer is 'punished'.

 

Key Points

• The passage mentions that a child is continually being told not to do things, which implies a form of restriction or punishment.
• The verb 'punished' fits in the context of a child being reprimanded or restricted from certain actions, which aligns with the structure of the passage.
• Other options like 'rewarded' or 'granted' are not appropriate because the passage discusses limitations, not positive reinforcement.
• 'Displayed' does not convey the intended meaning in this context and does not fit the structure of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Complete Passage: Childhood is a time when there are few responsibilities to make life difficult. If a child (1) has good parents and they are fed, looked after and loved, whatever they may do, it is improbable that they will ever again in life (2) be given so much without having to do anything in return. In addition, life is always presenting new things to the child. A child finds pleasure in playing in the rain or in the snow. Their first visit to the seaside is a marvelous adventure. However, a child has their pains; they are not free to do as they wish; they are continually being told not to do things or are being (3) punished. Their life is therefore not perfectly happy. When the young individual starts to earn their own living, they become free from the discipline of school and parents, but at the same time they are forced to accept responsibilities. They can no longer expect others to pay for food, clothes and room, but they have to work if they want to live (4). If they spend most of their time playing about in the way that they used to as a child, they will go hungry. Moreover, if they break the laws of society just as they used to break the laws of their parents, they may go to prison. However, by working, keeping out of (5) and having good health, they can have the great happiness of seeing themselves make steady progress in their job and of building up for themselves their own position in society.

 

Additional Information

• Rewarded: This implies positive reinforcement, but the context describes a child facing restrictions, not rewards.
• Granted: This suggests giving permission or allowing, which doesn’t match the context of restriction.
• Displayed: This doesn't align with the idea of reprimanding or controlling the child's actions.

The correct answer is 'comfortably'.

 

Key Points

• The passage is discussing how a young person must work to live independently and afford essentials like food and housing.
• The word 'comfortably' fits the context because it describes living without financial struggles, which matches the idea of becoming self-sufficient.
• The other options ('contrasting', 'revolutionary', and 'granting') do not fit the context of living independently or having a stable life.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Complete Passage: Childhood is a time when there are few responsibilities to make life difficult. If a child (1) has good parents and they are fed, looked after and loved, whatever they may do, it is improbable that they will ever again in life (2) be given so much without having to do anything in return. In addition, life is always presenting new things to the child. A child finds pleasure in playing in the rain or in the snow. Their first visit to the seaside is a marvelous adventure. However, a child has their pains; they are not free to do as they wish; they are continually being told not to do things or are being (3) punished. Their life is therefore not perfectly happy. When the young individual starts to earn their own living, they become free from the discipline of school and parents, but at the same time they are forced to accept responsibilities. They can no longer expect others to pay for food, clothes and room, but they have to work if they want to live (4) comfortably. If they spend most of their time playing about in the way that they used to as a child, they will go hungry. Moreover, if they break the laws of society just as they used to break the laws of their parents, they may go to prison. However, by working, keeping out of (5)_____ and having good health, they can have the great happiness of seeing themselves make steady progress in their job and of building up for themselves their own position in society.

 

Additional Information

• Comfortably: 'Comfortably' means living in a manner where basic needs are met without difficulty, which fits well with the context of the passage.
• Contrasting: Refers to showing differences, which is not applicable to the idea of living independently in this context.
• Revolutionary: Means something groundbreaking or radical, which does not match the passage's focus on working for stability.
• Granting: Implies giving permission, which does not fit the context of earning a living or being self-sufficient.

The correct answer is 'troubles'.

 

Key Points

• The passage discusses the importance of staying away from problems as one matures and takes on responsibilities.
• The phrase "keeping out of troubles" fits the context because it indicates avoiding difficulties that can hinder personal growth.
• Other options ("beats", "touches", and "disturbs") do not convey the intended meaning of avoiding problems or obstacles.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Complete Passage: Childhood is a time when there are few responsibilities to make life difficult. If a child (1) has good parents and they are fed, looked after and loved, whatever they may do, it is improbable that they will ever again in life (2) be given so much without having to do anything in return. In addition, life is always presenting new things to the child. A child finds pleasure in playing in the rain or in the snow. Their first visit to the seaside is a marvelous adventure. However, a child has their pains; they are not free to do as they wish; they are continually being told not to do things or are being (3) punished. Their life is therefore not perfectly happy. When the young individual starts to earn their own living, they become free from the discipline of school and parents, but at the same time they are forced to accept responsibilities. They can no longer expect others to pay for food, clothes and room, but they have to work if they want to live (4) comfortably. If they spend most of their time playing about in the way that they used to as a child, they will go hungry. Moreover, if they break the laws of society just as they used to break the laws of their parents, they may go to prison. However, by working, keeping out of (5) troubles and having good health, they can have the great happiness of seeing themselves make steady progress in their job and of building up for themselves their own position in society.

 

Additional Information

• Troubles: Refers to problems or difficulties that could disrupt the individual’s life, which fits the context of avoiding setbacks while progressing.
• Beats: Refers to striking or hitting something, which is not relevant to the context of avoiding obstacles.
• Touches: Refers to making physical contact with something, which doesn't convey the intended meaning of avoiding problems.
• Disturbs: Means causing disruption or interruption, but "troubles" is a more suitable word for describing life's challenges in this context.

उचित सार्थक और निरर्थक शब्द-युग्म होगा - आमने - सामने

Key Points

• तुम्हारा झगड़ा बढ़ता ही जा रहा है इसलिए अब आमने - सामने बैठ कर ही बात होगी।
• वाक्य में 'आमने - सामने' सही सार्थक-निरर्थक शब्द युग्म है।
• जिसके प्रयोग से वाक्य का सार्थक अर्थ प्रकट हो रहा है।

अन्य विकल्प-

• पुनरुक्त शब्द- 'ऊपर - ऊपर, सामने - सामने'
• सा��्थक शब्द- 'पीठ - पीछे'

Important Pointsपुनरुक्त शब्द-

• जब एक ही शब्द वाक्य में लगातार दो बार प्रयुक्त होकर विशेष अर्थ दर्शाता है तो उसे पुनरुक्त शब्द कहते हैं।
• जैसे - बार-बार, जाते-जाते, खेलते-खेलते आदि।

Additional Information 

 सार्थक-

• वे शब्द जिनका कुछ या कोई अर्थ निकलता हो 'सार्थक शब्द' कहते हैं।
• जैसे- रोटी-वोटी, पानी-वानी, डंडा-वंडा आदि।

निरर्थक-

• जिन शब्दों का कोई अर्थ नहीं होता है, उसे निरर्थक शब्द कहते हैं। ​
• जैसे - भात-वात, दिन-विन, पानी-वानी, शरबत-वरवत इत्यादि।

इस वाक्य में प्रयुक्त 'ठाकुर' शब्द का अनेकार्थी शब्द है- ईश्वर

Key Points

• वाक्य - ठाकुर अपने कुएँ पर किसी को पानी नहीं भरने देता था।
• 'ठाकुर' के अनेकार्थी शब्द - ​देवता, ईश्वर, पूज्य व्यक्ति, राजा, जमींदार, क्षत्रियों की उपाधि, और नाइयों की उपाधि।
• अनेकार्थी शब्द - ऐसे शब्द, जिनके अनेक अर्थ होते है, अनेकार्थी शब्द कहलाते है।

अन्य विकल्प -

Additional Information

  कुछ प्रमुख अनेकार्थी शब्द:-