Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL (2022) Tier-II Official Paper (Held On : 7 March 2023) (Previous Year Paper)

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Section I (60 questions)

Question 1

Find the average of the following sets of numbers.

693, 456, 876, 532, 934, 691, 596, 398, 682

  1. AOption (a)

    550.50

  2. BOption (b)

    750.80

  3. COption (c)

    650.89

  4. DOption (d)

    725.90

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

650.89

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Assume a base average of 600 and calculate deviations from it.

Deviations: +93, −144, +276, −68, +334, +91, −4, −202, +82

Sum of deviations = (93 + 276 + 334 + 91 + 82) − (144 + 68 + 4 + 202) = 876 − 418 = 458

Average deviation = 458 ÷ 9 ≈ 50.89

Actual Average = 600 + 50.89 = 650.89

∴ The correct answer is 650.89.

Alternate Method

Given observations: 693, 456, 876, 532, 934, 691, 596, 398, 682

Formula used: Average = Sum of observations ÷ Total number of observations

⇒ Sum = 693 + 456 + 876 + 532 + 934 + 691 + 596 + 398 + 682

⇒ Sum = 5858

⇒ Total count of numbers (n) = 9

⇒ Average = 5858 ÷ 9

⇒ Average = 650.8888...

∴ The correct answer is 650.89.

Additional Information

Sum of Deviations

The sum of the deviations of a set of observations from their arithmetic mean is always zero. ∑(xi − x̄) = 0.

Scaling Property

If every observation in a data set is increased/decreased by a constant 'k', the new average also increases/decreases by 'k'.

Combined Average Formula

If two groups have sizes n1, n2 and averages a1, a2, the combined average is (n1a1 + n2a2) ÷ (n1 + n2).

Question 2

The largest three-digit number that gives the same remainder 2 when divided by 3, 5 and 9 is ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    999

  2. BOption (b)

    984

  3. COption (c)

    998

  4. DOption (d)

    992

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

992

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Check the divisibility rule for 5: A number leaving remainder 2 when divided by 5 must end in 2 or 7.

Looking at the options: (1) 999, (2) 984, (3) 998, (4) 992.

Only 992 ends in 2, satisfying the condition for 5.

Verify for 9: Sum of digits of 992 = 9 + 9 + 2 = 20. 20 ÷ 9 leaves remainder 2.

∴ The correct answer is 992.

Alternate Method

Given: Divisors = 3, 5, 9; Common Remainder = 2.

Formula: Number = LCM(divisors) × k + Remainder

⇒ LCM of 3, 5, and 9:

⇒ 3 = 31

⇒ 5 = 51

⇒ 9 = 32

⇒ LCM = 32 × 5 = 9 × 5 = 45

⇒ The largest three-digit number is 999.

⇒ Divide 999 by 45: 999 ÷ 45 = 22 with remainder 9.

⇒ Largest multiple of 45 below 1000 = 999 − 9 = 990.

⇒ Required number = 990 + 2 = 992.

∴ The correct answer is 992.

Additional Information

LCM and Remainder Case 1

When a number is divided by x, y, and z leaving the same remainder R in each case, the number is of the form [LCM(x, y, z) × k] + R.

LCM and Remainder Case 2

When a number leaves different remainders a, b, c such that (x−a) = (y−b) = (z−c) = K, the number is of the form [LCM(x, y, z) × k] − K.

Divisibility Rule of 9

A number is divisible by 9 if the sum of its digits is divisible by 9. The remainder left when the sum is divided by 9 is the same as the remainder of the original number.

Question 3

A person can hit a target 5 times out of 8 shots. If he fires 10 shots, what is the probability that he will hit the target twice?

  1. AOption (a)

    1135×38810\frac{1135 \times 3^8}{8^{10}}

  2. BOption (b)

    1165×38810\frac{1165\times 3^8}{8^{10}}

  3. COption (c)

    1175×38810\frac{1175\times 3^8}{8^{10}}

  4. DOption (d)

    1125×38810\frac{1125\times 3^8}{8^{10}}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1125×38810\frac{1125\times 3^8}{8^{10}}

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Identify parameters: n = 10 shots, r = 2 hits, p (hit) = 5/8, q (miss) = 3/8.

Apply Binomial Probability formula: P(X = r) = nCr × pr × qn−r.

Calculation: 10C2 × (5/8)2 × (3/8)8 = 45 × (25/82) × (38/88).

Simplified result: (45 × 25 × 38) / 810 = (1125 × 38) / 810.

∴ The correct answer is (1125 × 38) / 810.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total shots (n) = 10

Shots to hit (r) = 2

Probability of hitting (p) = 5/8

Probability of missing (q) = 1 − 5/8 = 3/8

Formula Used:

P(X = k) = nCk × pk × qn−k

Calculations:

⇒ 10C2 = (10 × 9) / (2 × 1) = 45

⇒ P(X = 2) = 45 × (5/8)2 × (3/8)10−2

⇒ P(X = 2) = 45 × (52 / 82) × (38 / 88)

⇒ P(X = 2) = 45 × (25 / 82) × (38 / 88)

⇒ P(X = 2) = (45 × 25 × 38) / 8(2+8)

⇒ P(X = 2) = (1125 × 38) / 810

∴ The correct answer is (1125 × 38) / 810.

Additional Information

Binomial Distribution Conditions

It applies when there are a fixed number of independent trials (n), each with only two possible outcomes (success/failure) and a constant probability of success (p).

Binomial Mean and Variance

The mean of a Binomial distribution is given by μ = np, and the variance is given by σ2 = npq, where q = 1 − p.

Combination Formula

The number of ways to choose r successes out of n trials is nCr = n! / [r! × (n−r)!].

Question 4

The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from the top of a building whose height is 680 m is 45° and the angle of elevation of the top of same tower from the foot of the same building is 60°. What is the height (in m) of the tower?

  1. AOption (a)

    340(3 + √3)

  2. BOption (b)

    310(3 - √3)

  3. COption (c)

    310(3 + √3)

  4. DOption (d)

    340(3 - √3)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

340(3 + √3)

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

In height and distance, for a tower height H and building height h, if angles are θ1 (from top) and θ2 (from foot):

H = h × tan(θ2) ÷ (tan(θ2) − tan(θ1))

Given θ1 = 45°, θ2 = 60°, h = 680 m

H = 680 × √3 ÷ (√3 − 1) = [680√3 × (√3 + 1)] ÷ [(√3 − 1)(√3 + 1)]

H = 680(3 + √3) ÷ 2 = 340(3 + √3)

∴ The correct answer is 340(3 + √3) m.

Alternate Method

Given:

Height of building (CD) = 680 m

Angle of elevation from top of building (C) to top of tower (A) = 45°

Angle of elevation from foot of building (D) to top of tower (A) = 60°

Formula Used:

tan(θ) = Perpendicular ÷ Base

Calculations:

Let the height of the tower be H and the distance between the building and the tower be x.

In right-angled triangle above the building height:

⇒ tan(45°) = (H − 680) ÷ x

⇒ 1 = (H − 680) ÷ x

⇒ x = H − 680 --- (1)

In right-angled triangle from the foot of the building:

⇒ tan(60°) = H ÷ x

⇒ √3 = H ÷ x

⇒ x = H ÷ √3 --- (2)

Equating (1) and (2):

⇒ H − 680 = H ÷ √3

⇒ H√3 − 680√3 = H

⇒ H(√3 − 1) = 680√3

⇒ H = (680√3) ÷ (√3 − 1)

Rationalizing the denominator:

⇒ H = [680√3 × (√3 + 1)] ÷ [(√3 − 1)(√3 + 1)]

⇒ H = [680(3 + √3)] ÷ (3 − 1)

⇒ H = [680(3 + √3)] ÷ 2

⇒ H = 340(3 + √3)

∴ The correct answer is 340(3 + √3) m.

Additional Information

Angle of Elevation

The angle formed by the line of sight with the horizontal when looking up at an object.

Standard Trigonometric Ratios

tan 30° = 1/√3, tan 45° = 1, tan 60° = √3.

Height and Distance Shortcut

If distances x1 and x2 are measured from the foot for angles α and β, then height H = (x2 − x1) / (cot α − cot β).

Question 5

The median of a set of 11 distinct observations is 73.2. If each of the largest five observations of the set is increased by 3, then the median of the new set:

  1. AOption (a)

    is 3 times that of the original set

  2. BOption (b)

    is increased by 3

  3. COption (c)

    remains the same as that of the original set

  4. DOption (d)

    is decreased by 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

remains the same as that of the original set

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick In a set of 11 observations, the median is the 6th term when arranged in ascending order. The largest five observations are the 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th, and 11th terms. Increasing values that are already larger than the median does not change the position or value of the median (the 6th term). Since the 6th term remains 73.2, the median of the new set remains unchanged. ∴ The correct answer is remains the same as that of the original set.

Alternate Method Given: Total observations (n) = 11 Original Median = 73.2 Formula Used: For an odd number of observations (n), Median = ((n + 1) ÷ 2)th term.

Calculations: ⇒ Median position = (11 + 1) ÷ 2 = 6th observation. ⇒ Let observations in ascending order be x1, x2, x3, x4, x5, x6, x7, x8, x9, x10, x11. ⇒ Original Median (x6) = 73.2. ⇒ New observations = x1, x2, x3, x4, x5, x6, (x7+3), (x8+3), (x9+3), (x10+3), (x11+3). ⇒ Since x6 < x7, then x6 will still be < (x7+3). The relative order remains the same. ⇒ The 6th term remains x6 = 73.2. ⇒ New Median = 73.2. ∴ The correct answer is remains the same as that of the original set.

Additional Information Median for Odd vs Even n If n is odd, Median = ((n+1)/2)th term. If n is even, Median = Average of (n/2)th and ((n/2)+1)th terms. Property of Median The median is not affected by extreme values or changes in values that do not cross the central position in the ordered list. Effect of Linear Changes If every observation in a set is increased by a constant k, the median also increases by k. However, if only specific observations are changed, the median may or may not change depending on their position.

Question 6

In a trapezium ABCD, AD and BC are parallel to each other with a perpendicular distance of 8 m between them. Also, (AB) = (CD) = 10 m, and (AD) = 15 m, (AD) < (BC). What is the perimeter (in m) of the trapezium ABCD?

  1. AOption (a)

    50

  2. BOption (b)

    66

  3. COption (c)

    62

  4. DOption (d)

    58

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

62

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

For an isosceles trapezium where AB = CD and AD || BC:

Bottom Base (BC) = AD + 2 × √(Slant Side2 − Height2)

BC = 15 + 2 × √(102 − 82) = 15 + 2 × 6 = 27 m

Perimeter = Sum of all sides = AD + BC + AB + CD

Perimeter = 15 + 27 + 10 + 10 = 62 m

∴ The correct answer is 62 m.

Alternate Method

Given: AD = 15 m, AB = 10 m, CD = 10 m, and Height (h) = 8 m.

Formula: Perimeter = AD + BC + AB + CD

In the trapezium ABCD, let's drop perpendiculars AM and DN on base BC.

⇒ AM = DN = 8 m (Height)

⇒ In right-angled triangle AMB, by Pythagoras theorem:

⇒ BM2 = AB2 − AM2

⇒ BM2 = 102 − 82 = 100 − 64 = 36

⇒ BM = 6 m

⇒ Since the trapezium is isosceles (AB = CD), BM = NC = 6 m.

⇒ Length of base BC = BM + MN + NC

⇒ As MN = AD, BC = 6 + 15 + 6 = 27 m

⇒ Perimeter of ABCD = AB + BC + CD + DA

⇒ Perimeter = 10 + 27 + 10 + 15

⇒ Perimeter = 62 m

∴ The correct answer is 62 m.

Additional Information

Area of a Trapezium

The area of a trapezium is calculated as Area = 1/2 × (sum of parallel sides) × height = 1/2 × (a + b) × h.

Isosceles Trapezium Properties

In an isosceles trapezium, the non-parallel sides are equal, the base angles are equal, and the diagonals are equal in length.

Median of a Trapezium

The median (or midsegment) of a trapezium is parallel to the bases and its length is the average of the base lengths: Median = (a + b) / 2.

Question 7

A prism and a pyramid have the same base and the same height. Find the ratio of the volumes of the prism and the pyramid.

  1. AOption (a)

    2 ∶ 3

  2. BOption (b)

    3 ∶ 1

  3. COption (c)

    1 ∶ 3

  4. DOption (d)

    3 ∶ 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

3 ∶ 1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 3 : 1

Key Points

  • The Volume of a Prism is calculated by multiplying the Base Area (A) by the Vertical Height (h). The formula is given as: Vprism = Base Area × Height.
  • The Volume of a Pyramid is exactly one-third of the volume of a prism that has the same Base Area and Height. The formula is given as: Vpyramid = (1/3) × Base Area × Height.
  • In this problem, it is stated that both the Prism and the Pyramid share the same Base Area (let it be 'A') and the same Height (let it be 'h').
  • To find the Ratio of their volumes, we set up the expression: Volume of Prism : Volume of Pyramid.
  • Substituting the formulas: (A × h) : ((1/3) × A × h).
  • By simplifying the expression and dividing both sides by (A × h), we get 1 : 1/3.
  • Multiplying both sides by 3 to clear the fraction, the ratio becomes 3 : 1.
  • Therefore, the volume of a prism is three times the volume of a pyramid with the same base and height.

Additional Information

  • A Prism is a three-dimensional solid with two congruent and parallel bases. The lateral faces are typically parallelograms (or rectangles in a right prism).
  • A Pyramid is a three-dimensional solid with a polygonal base and triangular lateral faces that meet at a single point called the Apex.
  • The relationship Vprism = 3 × Vpyramid holds true regardless of the shape of the base (triangle, square, hexagon, etc.), as long as the base and height are identical for both solids.
  • Similarly, the volume of a Cylinder is three times the volume of a Cone if they have the same radius and height.

Question 8

If x = 64+121−169\sqrt{64}+ \sqrt{121} - \sqrt{169}, then find the value of x2.

  1. AOption (a)

    16

  2. BOption (b)

    25

  3. COption (c)

    36

  4. DOption (d)

    49

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

36

Why this answer is correct

Given:

x = 64+121−169\sqrt{64} + \sqrt{121} - \sqrt{169}

Formula used:

a2=a\sqrt{a^{2}} = a

Calculation:

x = 8 + 11 - 13

⇒ x = 19 - 13

⇒ x = 6

⇒ x2 = 62

⇒ x2 = 36

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Question 9

If two LED TVs and one mobile phone cost ₹31,000, while two mobile phones and one LED TV cost ₹35,000, then the value of one mobile phone is:

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹13,500

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹12,500

  3. COption (c)

    ₹13,000

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹12,000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

₹13,000

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Total cost of 3 LED TVs and 3 Mobiles = 31,000 + 35,000 = 66,000

⇒ 1 LED TV + 1 Mobile = 66,000 ÷ 3 = 22,000

Given: 1 LED TV + 2 Mobiles = 35,000

⇒ 1 Mobile = (1 LED TV + 2 Mobiles) − (1 LED TV + 1 Mobile) = 35,000 − 22,000 = 13,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹13,000.

Alternate Method

Given values:

Cost of 2 LED TVs + 1 Mobile = ₹31,000

Cost of 1 LED TV + 2 Mobiles = ₹35,000

Let the cost of one LED TV be T and the cost of one Mobile be M.

Equation 1: 2T + M = 31,000

Equation 2: T + 2M = 35,000

⇒ Multiply Equation 2 by 2:

⇒ 2(T + 2M) = 2 × 35,000

⇒ 2T + 4M = 70,000 --- (Equation 3)

⇒ Subtract Equation 1 from Equation 3:

⇒ (2T + 4M) − (2T + M) = 70,000 − 31,000

⇒ 3M = 39,000

⇒ M = 39,000 ÷ 3

⇒ M = 13,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹13,000.

Additional Information

Elimination Method

Variables are eliminated by making the coefficients of one variable equal in both equations through multiplication.

Substitution Method

Express one variable in terms of the other from one equation and substitute it into the second equation.

System of Linear Equations

A set of two or more equations with the same variables. For two variables x and y, the general form is a1x + b1y = c1 and a2x + b2y = c2.

Question 10

What is the volume of a cylinder if the radius of the cylinder is 10 cm and height is 20 cm? (Take π = 3.14)

  1. AOption (a)

    6280 cm3

  2. BOption (b)

    5306 cm3

  3. COption (c)

    6260 cm3

  4. DOption (d)

    5280 cm3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

6280 cm3

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Volume of a cylinder is given by the formula πr2h.

Given: r = 10 cm, h = 20 cm, π = 3.14

Direct Calculation: 3.14 × 10 × 10 × 20

⇒ 314 × 20 = 6280 cm3

∴ The correct answer is 6280 cm3.

Alternate Method

Given:

Radius of cylinder (r) = 10 cm

Height of cylinder (h) = 20 cm

Value of π = 3.14

Formula Used:

Volume of a cylinder = πr2h

Calculations:

⇒ Volume = 3.14 × (10)2 × 20

⇒ Volume = 3.14 × 100 × 20

⇒ Volume = 314 × 20

⇒ Volume = 6280 cm3

∴ The correct answer is 6280 cm3.

Additional Information

Curved Surface Area (CSA)

The curved surface area of a cylinder is given by the formula 2πrh.

Total Surface Area (TSA)

The total surface area of a cylinder includes both the curved area and the two circular bases: TSA = 2πr(h + r).

Volume of a Cone

A cone with the same radius and height as a cylinder has exactly one-third of its volume: V = (1/3)πr2h.

Question 11

P, Q, and R can finish a work in 5 days, 10 days, and 15 days, respectively, working alone. P and Q work on the first day, P and R work on the second day and P and Q work on the third day, and so on till the work is completed. In how many days the work will be completed?

  1. AOption (a)

    132\frac{13}{2}

  2. BOption (b)

    92\frac{9}{2}

  3. COption (c)

    72\frac{7}{2}

  4. DOption (d)

    52\frac{5}{2}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

72\frac{7}{2}

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Total Work = LCM(5, 10, 15) = 30 units.

Efficiencies: P = 6, Q = 3, R = 2.

Day 1 (P+Q) = 9 units; Day 2 (P+R) = 8 units.

In 2 days, work completed = 9 + 8 = 17 units.

Day 3 (P+Q) = 9 units; Total after 3 days = 17 + 9 = 26 units.

Remaining 4 units done by (P+R) on Day 4 in 4 ÷ 8 = 1/2 day.

∴ The correct answer is 7/2 days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by P = 5 days

Time taken by Q = 10 days

Time taken by R = 15 days

Formula Used:

Total Work = LCM of individual time periods

Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time

PersonDaysTotal WorkEfficiency
P530 units6
Q103
R152

Calculations:

⇒ Total work = 30 units

⇒ Work on Day 1 (P + Q) = 6 + 3 = 9 units

⇒ Work on Day 2 (P + R) = 6 + 2 = 8 units

⇒ Combined work in first 2 days = 9 + 8 = 17 units

⇒ Remaining work after 2 days = 30 − 17 = 13 units

⇒ Work on Day 3 (P + Q) = 9 units

⇒ Remaining work after 3 days = 13 − 9 = 4 units

⇒ Efficiency of (P + R) on Day 4 = 6 + 2 = 8 units/day

⇒ Time taken for remaining 4 units = 4 ÷ 8 = 1/2 day

⇒ Total time = 3 + 1/2 = 7/2 days

∴ The correct answer is 7/2 days.

Additional Information

Alternate Day Work Concept

When people work on alternate days, identify the work done in one complete cycle and then calculate the number of full cycles that fit into the total work.

Work and Wages

If a group of people work together or on alternate days, the total wages are always distributed in the ratio of the actual units of work done by each individual.

Pipes and Cisterns

Similar to time and work, but if a pipe empties the tank, its efficiency is taken as negative. Total capacity is found using LCM of the time taken by individual pipes.

Question 12

A goods train 350 m long passes through a tunnel of length 1250 m in 80 seconds. What is the speed of the train?

  1. AOption (a)

    64 km/h

  2. BOption (b)

    56 km/h

  3. COption (c)

    78 km/h

  4. DOption (d)

    72 km/h

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

72 km/h

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Total Distance to cover = Length of Train + Length of Tunnel = 350 + 1250 = 1600 m

Speed (in m/s) = Total Distance ÷ Time = 1600 ÷ 80 = 20 m/s

To convert m/s to km/h, multiply by 18/5:

Speed (in km/h) = 20 × (18 ÷ 5) = 4 × 18 = 72 km/h

∴ The correct answer is 72 km/h.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length of the goods train (LT) = 350 m

Length of the tunnel (LP) = 1250 m

Time taken (t) = 80 seconds

Formula Used:

Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time

Total Distance = Length of Train + Length of Tunnel

Speed (km/h) = Speed (m/s) × (18 ÷ 5)

Calculations:

⇒ Total Distance = 350 + 1250 = 1600 m

⇒ Speed in m/s = 1600 ÷ 80

⇒ Speed in m/s = 20 m/s

⇒ Speed in km/h = 20 × (18 ÷ 5)

⇒ Speed in km/h = 4 × 18

⇒ Speed in km/h = 72 km/h

∴ The correct answer is 72 km/h.

Additional Information

Speed Conversion Rules

To convert speed from km/h to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert from m/s to km/h, multiply by 18/5.

Train Crossing Stationary Objects

When a train crosses a stationary point object (pole, tree, man), distance = length of train. When it crosses an object with length (bridge, platform, tunnel), distance = length of train + length of object.

Relative Speed

If two objects move in the same direction, relative speed = S1 − S2. If they move in opposite directions, relative speed = S1 + S2.

Question 13

If one of the interior angles of a regular polygon is 1516\frac{15}{16} times of one of the interior angles of a regular decagon, then find the number of diagonals of the polygon.

  1. AOption (a)

    20

  2. BOption (b)

    14

  3. COption (c)

    2

  4. DOption (d)

    35

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

20

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Interior angle of a decagon (10 sides) = (10 − 2) × 180° ÷ 10 = 144°.

Interior angle of the polygon = 15/16 × 144° = 15 × 9° = 135°.

Exterior angle = 180° − 135° = 45°.

Number of sides (n) = 360° ÷ 45° = 8.

Number of diagonals = n(n − 3) ÷ 2 = 8 × 5 ÷ 2 = 20.

∴ The correct answer is 20.

Alternate Method

Given:

Number of sides in decagon (nd) = 10

Interior angle ratio = 15/16

Formula Used:

Interior Angle of a regular polygon with 'n' sides = [(n − 2) × 180°] ÷ n

Number of diagonals = [n(n − 3)] ÷ 2

Calculations:

⇒ Interior angle of regular decagon = [(10 − 2) × 180°] ÷ 10

⇒ Interior angle of regular decagon = [8 × 180°] ÷ 10 = 144°

⇒ Interior angle of required polygon = (15/16) × 144°

⇒ Interior angle of required polygon = 15 × 9° = 135°

⇒ Let the number of sides of the polygon be 'n'

⇒ [(n − 2) × 180°] ÷ n = 135°

⇒ (n − 2) × 180 = 135n

⇒ 180n − 360 = 135n

⇒ 180n − 135n = 360

⇒ 45n = 360

⇒ n = 360 ÷ 45 = 8

⇒ Number of diagonals = [8 × (8 − 3)] ÷ 2

⇒ Number of diagonals = (8 × 5) ÷ 2 = 20

∴ The correct answer is 20.

Additional Information

Sum of Interior Angles

The sum of all interior angles of a polygon with 'n' sides is given by (n − 2) × 180°.

Exterior Angle Property

For any regular polygon, the exterior angle is 360° ÷ n. The sum of an interior angle and its adjacent exterior angle is always 180°.

Number of Diagonals

A diagonal is a line segment connecting two non-adjacent vertices. The formula is n(n − 3) ÷ 2. A triangle (n=3) has 0 diagonals.

Common Polygons

Pentagon (n=5, int. angle 108°), Hexagon (n=6, int. angle 120°), Octagon (n=8, int. angle 135°), Decagon (n=10, int. angle 144°).

Question 14

If the four-digit number 463y is divisible by 7, then what is the value of y?

  1. AOption (a)

    4

  2. BOption (b)

    6

  3. COption (c)

    3

  4. DOption (d)

    5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

4

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Perform a quick direct division of 463y by 7.

Divide 46 by 7: 7 × 6 = 42, Remainder = 4.

Append 3: 43 ÷ 7 → 7 × 6 = 42, Remainder = 1.

Append y: The number 1y must be divisible by 7.

Check multiples of 7: 7 × 2 = 14, so y must be 4.

∴ The correct answer is 4.

Alternate Method

Given:

Number = 463y

Divisor = 7

Formula Used:

A number is divisible by 7 if the result of subtracting twice the last digit from the number formed by the remaining digits is divisible by 7.

Calculations:

⇒ 463y = 4630 + y

⇒ 4630 ÷ 7 = 661 × 7 + 3

⇒ Remainder of 4630 when divided by 7 is 3.

⇒ For 463y to be divisible by 7, (3 + y) must be divisible by 7.

⇒ If 3 + y = 7

⇒ y = 7 − 3

⇒ y = 4

Check with divisibility rule: 463 − 2(4) = 463 − 8 = 455.

⇒ 455 ÷ 7 = 65 (Perfectly divisible).

∴ The correct answer is 4.

Additional Information

Divisibility Rule of 7

Subtract twice the last digit from the rest of the number. If the result is 0 or a multiple of 7, the original number is divisible by 7.

Divisibility Rule of 11

The difference between the sum of digits at odd places and the sum of digits at even places must be either 0 or a multiple of 11.

Divisibility Rule of 13

Add four times the last digit to the remaining number. If the sum is divisible by 13, the original number is divisible by 13.

Question 15

If a cot θ + b cosec θ = p and b cot θ + a cosec θ = q then p2 - q2 is equal to _________.

  1. AOption (a)

    b2 - a2

  2. BOption (b)

    a2 - b2

  3. COption (c)

    b - a

  4. DOption (d)

    a2 + b2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

b2 - a2

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Assume a specific value for θ to simplify the calculation, let θ = 90°.

Then, cot 90° = 0 and cosec 90° = 1.

Substitute these values: p = a(0) + b(1) = b and q = b(0) + a(1) = a.

Now, calculate p2 − q2 = b2 − a2.

∴ The correct answer is b2 − a2.

Alternate Method

Given:

p = a cot θ + b cosec θ

q = b cot θ + a cosec θ

Formula Used:

(x + y)2 = x2 + y2 + 2xy

cosec2 θ − cot2 θ = 1

Calculations:

⇒ p2 = (a cot θ + b cosec θ)2

⇒ p2 = a2 cot2 θ + b2 cosec2 θ + 2ab cot θ cosec θ ----(1)

⇒ q2 = (b cot θ + a cosec θ)2

⇒ q2 = b2 cot2 θ + a2 cosec2 θ + 2ab cot θ cosec θ ----(2)

⇒ Subtracting (2) from (1):

⇒ p2 − q2 = (a2 − b2) cot2 θ + (b2 − a2) cosec2 θ

⇒ p2 − q2 = −(b2 − a2) cot2 θ + (b2 − a2) cosec2 θ

⇒ p2 − q2 = (b2 − a2) (cosec2 θ − cot2 θ)

⇒ Since cosec2 θ − cot2 θ = 1,

⇒ p2 − q2 = (b2 − a2)(1)

∴ The correct answer is b2 − a2.

Additional Information

Trigonometric Pythagorean Identities

Standard identities used in simplification: sin2 θ + cos2 θ = 1, sec2 θ − tan2 θ = 1, and cosec2 θ − cot2 θ = 1.

Value Substitution Method

This method is highly effective in MCQ exams for identities. Common values used are 0°, 45°, and 90°, provided the function is defined at that point.

Reciprocal Relations

cosec θ = 1 ÷ sin θ and cot θ = cos θ ÷ sin θ.

Question 16

PQRS is a cyclic quadrilateral. If ∠P is three times of ∠R and ∠S is four times of ∠Q, then the sum of ∠S + ∠R will be:

  1. AOption (a)

    169°

  2. BOption (b)

    171°

  3. COption (c)

    187°

  4. DOption (d)

    189°

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

189°

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of opposite angles: ∠P : ∠R = 3 : 1 ⇒ Total 4 units = 180°

Value of ∠R = 1 unit = 180° ÷ 4 = 45°

Ratio of opposite angles: ∠S : ∠Q = 4 : 1 ⇒ Total 5 units = 180°

Value of ∠S = 4 units = (180° ÷ 5) × 4 = 144°

Sum ∠S + ∠R = 144° + 45° = 189°

∴ The correct answer is 189°.

Alternate Method

Given:

Quadrilateral PQRS is cyclic.

∠P = 3 × ∠R

∠S = 4 × ∠Q

Formula Used:

In a cyclic quadrilateral, the sum of opposite angles is 180°.

∠P + ∠R = 180°

∠Q + ∠S = 180°

Calculations:

Case 1: ∠P and ∠R are opposite angles.

⇒ ∠P + ∠R = 180°

⇒ 3∠R + ∠R = 180°

⇒ 4∠R = 180°

⇒ ∠R = 45°

Case 2: ∠S and ∠Q are opposite angles.

⇒ ∠S + ∠Q = 180°

⇒ ∠S + (∠S ÷ 4) = 180°

⇒ (5 × ∠S) ÷ 4 = 180°

⇒ 5∠S = 720°

⇒ ∠S = 144°

Now, finding the required sum:

⇒ Sum = ∠S + ∠R

⇒ Sum = 144° + 45°

⇒ Sum = 189°

∴ The correct answer is 189°.

Additional Information

Cyclic Quadrilateral Property

A quadrilateral is called cyclic if all its four vertices lie on a circle. The sum of any pair of opposite angles is 180°.

Exterior Angle of Cyclic Quadrilateral

The exterior angle formed by extending one side of a cyclic quadrilateral is equal to the interior opposite angle.

Ptolemy's Theorem

For a cyclic quadrilateral with sides a, b, c, d and diagonals p, q, the product of the diagonals is equal to the sum of the products of opposite sides: p × q = (a × c) + (b × d).

Question 17

Working for 10 hours per day, 6 men can build a wall in a certain number of days. By working for how many hours per day can 12 men build the wall in the same days?

  1. AOption (a)

    7 hours 30 minutes

  2. BOption (b)

    5 hours

  3. COption (c)

    20 hours

  4. DOption (d)

    10 hours

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

5 hours

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Men = 6 : 12 = 1 : 2.

Since the work and number of days remain the same, Hours/day is inversely proportional to the number of Men.

Ratio of Hours = 2 : 1.

Given 2 units = 10 hours/day.

So, 1 unit = 5 hours/day.

∴ The correct answer is 5 hours.

Alternate Method

Given:

Initial Men (M1) = 6

Initial Hours/day (H1) = 10

Final Men (M2) = 12

Days (D) = Constant

Formula used: M1 × D1 × H1 = M2 × D2 × H2

Calculations:

⇒ M1 × H1 = M2 × H2 (since D1 = D2)

⇒ 6 × 10 = 12 × H2

⇒ 60 = 12 × H2

⇒ H2 = 60 ÷ 12

⇒ H2 = 5

∴ The correct answer is 5 hours.

Additional Information

The Chain Rule Formula

(M1 × D1 × H1 × E1) ÷ W1 = (M2 × D2 × H2 × E2) ÷ W2, where M is men, D is days, H is hours, E is efficiency, and W is work.

Inverse Proportionality

For a fixed amount of work, the number of workers is inversely proportional to the time taken (Days or Hours). If workers double, time taken is halved.

Total Work Calculation

Total Work is often measured in Man-Hours or Man-Days. Total Work = Number of Men × Number of Days × Hours per day.

Question 18

If 2x + 3y = 17 and 2x + 2 - 3y + 1 = 5, then :

  1. AOption (a)

    x = 1, y = 3

  2. BOption (b)

    x = 3, y = 3

  3. COption (c)

    x = 3, y = 2

  4. DOption (d)

    x = 1, y = 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

x = 3, y = 2

Why this answer is correct

Given:

2x + 3y = 17

2x + 2 - 3y + 1 = 5

Formula used:

am + n = am × an

Calculations:

2x + 3y = 17 --- (1)

2x + 2 - 3y + 1 = 5

⇒ (2x × 22) - (3y × 31) = 5

⇒ 4 × 2x - 3 × 3y = 5 --- (2)

Multiply eq (1) by 3:

⇒ 3 × 2x + 3 × 3y = 51 --- (3)

Adding eq (2) and eq (3):

⇒ 7 × 2x = 56

⇒ 2x = 8

⇒ 2x = 23

⇒ x = 3

Substitute x = 3 in eq (1):

⇒ 23 + 3y = 17

⇒ 8 + 3y = 17

⇒ 3y = 9

⇒ 3y = 32

⇒ y = 2

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Question 19

What is the mode of the given data?

5, 7, 9, 7, 3, 7, 5, 7, 8, 6, 7

  1. AOption (a)

    7

  2. BOption (b)

    6

  3. COption (c)

    5

  4. DOption (d)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

7

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Mode is defined as the observation that occurs most frequently in a dataset.

Data: 5, 7, 9, 7, 3, 7, 5, 7, 8, 6, 7

Frequency of 7: 5 times

Frequency of 5: 2 times

Frequency of other numbers (3, 6, 8, 9): 1 time each

Since 7 appears the most number of times, it is the mode.

∴ The correct answer is 7.

Alternate Method

Given Data: 5, 7, 9, 7, 3, 7, 5, 7, 8, 6, 7

Formula: Mode = Value with the maximum frequency.

⇒ Count of 3 → 1

⇒ Count of 5 → 2

⇒ Count of 6 → 1

⇒ Count of 7 → 5

⇒ Count of 8 → 1

⇒ Count of 9 → 1

⇒ The value 7 has the highest count (5).

∴ The correct answer is 7.

Additional Information

Empirical Formula

For a moderately skewed distribution, the relationship is: Mode = 3 × Median − 2 × Mean.

Median

Median is the middle-most value when the data is arranged in ascending order. For n=11, it is the 6th term.

Types of Mode

A dataset can be unimodal (one mode), bimodal (two modes), or multimodal (more than two modes).

Question 20

Which of the following numbers is divisible by 11?

  1. AOption (a)

    5214341

  2. BOption (b)

    5648741

  3. COption (c)

    6598321

  4. DOption (d)

    2378965

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

5214341

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

A number is divisible by 11 if |Sum of digits at odd positions − Sum of digits at even positions| is 0 or a multiple of 11.

Testing 5214341:

Sum of digits at odd positions (1st, 3rd, 5th, 7th) = 5 + 1 + 3 + 1 = 10

Sum of digits at even positions (2nd, 4th, 6th) = 2 + 4 + 4 = 10

Difference = 10 − 10 = 0. Since the difference is 0, the number is divisible by 11.

∴ The correct answer is 5214341.

Alternate Method

Given Numbers: 5214341, 5648741, 6598321, 2378965

Divisibility Rule for 11: The difference between the sum of digits at odd places and the sum of digits at even places must be 0, 11, 22, 33, etc.

⇒ Option (1): 5214341

⇒ Sum of odd-position digits = 5 + 1 + 3 + 1 = 10

⇒ Sum of even-position digits = 2 + 4 + 4 = 10

⇒ Difference = 10 − 10 = 0 (Divisible by 11)

⇒ Option (2): 5648741

⇒ Sum of odd-position digits = 5 + 4 + 7 + 1 = 17

⇒ Sum of even-position digits = 6 + 8 + 4 = 18

⇒ Difference = |17 − 18| = 1 (Not divisible by 11)

⇒ Option (3): 6598321

⇒ Sum of odd-position digits = 6 + 9 + 3 + 1 = 19

⇒ Sum of even-position digits = 5 + 8 + 2 = 15

⇒ Difference = |19 − 15| = 4 (Not divisible by 11)

⇒ Option (4): 2378965

⇒ Sum of odd-position digits = 2 + 7 + 9 + 5 = 23

⇒ Sum of even-position digits = 3 + 8 + 6 = 17

⇒ Difference = |23 − 17| = 6 (Not divisible by 11)

∴ The correct answer is 5214341.

Additional Information

Divisibility by 3 and 9

A number is divisible by 3 (or 9) if the sum of all its digits is divisible by 3 (or 9).

Divisibility by 7

Subtract twice the last digit from the number formed by the remaining digits; the result should be divisible by 7.

Divisibility by 13

Add four times the last digit to the number formed by the remaining digits; the result should be divisible by 13.

Divisibility by 4 and 8

A number is divisible by 4 if the last 2 digits are divisible by 4, and by 8 if the last 3 digits are divisible by 8.

Question 21

It is given that ∆ABC ≅ ∆PQR, AB = 5 cm, ∠B = 40°, and ∠A = 80°. Which of the following options is true?

  1. AOption (a)

    PQ = 5 cm and ∠R = 60°

  2. BOption (b)

    QR = 5 cm and ∠R = 60°

  3. COption (c)

    QR = 5 cm and ∠Q = 60° 

  4. DOption (d)

    PQ = 5 cm and ∠P = 60°

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

PQ = 5 cm and ∠R = 60°

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Congruent triangles ΔABC ≅ ΔPQR means corresponding sides and angles are equal.

Side AB corresponds to side PQ ⇒ PQ = AB = 5 cm.

In ΔABC, ∠C = 180° − (∠A + ∠B) = 180° − (80° + 40°) = 60°.

∠R corresponds to ∠C ⇒ ∠R = ∠C = 60°.

∴ The correct answer is PQ = 5 cm and ∠R = 60°.

Alternate Method

Given: ΔABC ≅ ΔPQR, AB = 5 cm, ∠B = 40°, ∠A = 80°.

Formula: Angle sum property of a triangle (∠A + ∠B + ∠C = 180°) and CPCT (Corresponding Parts of Congruent Triangles).

⇒ In ΔABC, sum of angles = 180°

⇒ ∠A + ∠B + ∠C = 180°

⇒ 80° + 40° + ∠C = 180°

⇒ 120° + ∠C = 180°

⇒ ∠C = 60°

⇒ Since ΔABC ≅ ΔPQR, by CPCT:

⇒ PQ = AB = 5 cm

⇒ ∠P = ∠A = 80°, ∠Q = ∠B = 40°, ∠R = ∠C = 60°

∴ The correct answer is PQ = 5 cm and ∠R = 60°.

Additional Information

Congruence Rule (CPCT)

CPCT stands for Corresponding Parts of Congruent Triangles. If two triangles are congruent, then all their corresponding sides and angles are equal.

Angle Sum Property

The sum of all interior angles of any triangle is always 180°. If two angles are known, the third can be found as 180° − (Sum of known angles).

Criteria for Congruence

Two triangles can be proven congruent using SSS (Side-Side-Side), SAS (Side-Angle-Side), ASA (Angle-Side-Angle), AAS (Angle-Angle-Side), or RHS (Right angle-Hypotenuse-Side).

Question 22

How many kilogram of rice costing Rs. 60 per kg must be mixed with 24 kg of rice costing Rs. 42 per kg so that there may be a gain of 12% by selling the mixture at Rs. 56 per kg?

  1. AOption (a)

    22 kg

  2. BOption (b)

    20 kg

  3. COption (c)

    19.2 kg

  4. DOption (d)

    21.2 kg

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

19.2 kg

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Find Cost Price (CP) of mixture: 56 ÷ 1.12 = ₹50/kg.

Apply Alligation ratio (Type 1 : Type 2) = (50 − 42) : (60 − 50) = 8 : 10 = 4 : 5.

Compare units: 5 units correspond to 24 kg.

Calculate Type 1: (24 ÷ 5) × 4 = 19.2 kg.

∴ The correct answer is 19.2 kg.

Alternate Method

Given:

CP of first variety (Rice1) = ₹60/kg

CP of second variety (Rice2) = ₹42/kg

Quantity of second variety (Q2) = 24 kg

Selling Price of mixture (SPmix) = ₹56/kg

Profit percentage = 12%

Formula Used:

CP = (SP × 100) ÷ (100 + Profit%)

Alligation Rule: (Quantity1) ÷ (Quantity2) = (Mean Price − CP2) ÷ (CP1 − Mean Price)

⇒ Mean CP of Mixture = (56 × 100) ÷ (100 + 12)

⇒ Mean CP = 5600 ÷ 112 = ₹50/kg

⇒ Applying Alligation: Q1 ÷ Q2 = (50 − 42) ÷ (60 − 50)

⇒ Q1 ÷ 24 = 8 ÷ 10

⇒ Q1 ÷ 24 = 4 ÷ 5

⇒ Q1 = (4 × 24) ÷ 5

⇒ Q1 = 96 ÷ 5 = 19.2 kg

∴ The correct answer is 19.2 kg.

Additional Information

Alligation Method

Used to find the ratio in which two ingredients with different costs must be mixed to produce a mixture of a desired average cost.

Cost Price from Selling Price

Always calculate the CP of the mixture before using the Alligation rule if only the SP and profit/loss % are provided: CP = SP ÷ (1 ± r/100).

Weighted Average Formula

The mean price can also be verified using: Mean Price = (n1c1 + n2c2) ÷ (n1 + n2), where n is quantity and c is cost.

Question 23

At a clearance sale, a shopkeeper gives 45% discount. If a customer paid ₹330 during the sale, then what is the marked price of that shirt ?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹550

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹600

  3. COption (c)

    ₹500

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹650

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

₹600

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Discount = 45% ⇒ Selling Price (SP) = 100% − 45% = 55%

Given, 55% of Marked Price (MP) = ₹330

1% of MP = 330 ÷ 55 = 6

100% (MP) = 6 × 100 = ₹600

∴ The correct answer is ₹600.

Alternate Method

Given:

Selling Price (SP) = ₹330

Discount percentage (D%) = 45%

Formula Used:

Marked Price (MP) = [SP × 100] ÷ [100 − D%]

Calculations:

⇒ MP = [330 × 100] ÷ [100 − 45]

⇒ MP = 33000 ÷ 55

⇒ MP = 6600 ÷ 11

⇒ MP = 600

∴ The correct answer is ₹600.

Additional Information

Marked Price (MP)

It is the price printed on the label of an article. Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price.

Successive Discount Formula

If two successive discounts of a% and b% are given, the total effective discount = (a + b − (a × b)/100)%.

Relation between CP and MP

CP ÷ MP = (100 − Discount%) ÷ (100 + Profit%). This is used to find the markup percentage.

Question 24

If 20% of (A + B) = 30% of (A − B), then what percentage of B is equal to A?

  1. AOption (a)

    400%

  2. BOption (b)

    300%

  3. COption (c)

    500%

  4. DOption (d)

    100%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

500%

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

20% of (A + B) = 30% of (A − B) ⇒ 2(A + B) = 3(A − B)

Using Componendo and Dividendo: A / B = (3 + 2) / (3 − 2) = 5 / 1

A = 5B ⇒ A is 500% of B

Based on the provided options, the value is 5.

∴ The correct option is C.

Alternate Method

Given:

20% of (A + B) = 30% of (A − B)

Formula Used:

Percentage = (Part / Whole) × 100

Value of A (5 units)

Value of B (1 unit)

A = 5 × B ⇒ A = 500% of B

⇒ 20/100 × (A + B) = 30/100 × (A − B)

⇒ 2(A + B) = 3(A − B)

⇒ 2A + 2B = 3A − 3B

⇒ 3A − 2A = 2B + 3B

⇒ A = 5B

⇒ Required Percentage = (A / B) × 100

⇒ (5B / B) × 100 = 500%

∴ The correct option is C.

Additional Information

Componendo and Dividendo Rule

If a/b = c/d, then (a + b) / (a − b) = (c + d) / (c − d). This is useful for solving equations involving (x+y) and (x-y).

Percentage Conversion

To find what percentage of Y is X, use the formula: (X / Y) × 100.

Basic Percentage Rule

x% of Y can be written as (x/100) × Y. Similarly, 20% = 1/5 and 30% = 3/10.

Question 25

Find the coordinates of the points where the graph 57x - 19y = 399 cuts the coordinate axes.

  1. AOption (a)

    x-axis at(-7, 0) and y-axis at (0, -21)

  2. BOption (b)

    x-axis at(-7, 0) and y-axis at (0, 21)

  3. COption (c)

    x-axis at (7, 0) and y-axis at (0, -21)

  4. DOption (d)

    x-axis at (7, 0) and y-axis at (0, 21)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

x-axis at (7, 0) and y-axis at (0, -21)

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

To find intercepts, divide the entire equation by the constant term on the RHS (399).

57x/399 − 19y/399 = 399/399

x/7 − y/21 = 1 ⇒ x/7 + y/(−21) = 1

The denominators represent the intercepts: x-intercept = 7, y-intercept = −21.

∴ The correct answer is x-axis at (7, 0) and y-axis at (0, -21).

Alternate Method

Given equation: 57x − 19y = 399

A graph cuts the x-axis when the y-coordinate is 0, and the y-axis when the x-coordinate is 0.

To find the x-axis intersection, substitute y = 0:

⇒ 57x − 19(0) = 399

⇒ 57x = 399

⇒ x = 399 ÷ 57 = 7

⇒ Coordinate = (7, 0)

To find the y-axis intersection, substitute x = 0:

⇒ 57(0) − 19y = 399

⇒ −19y = 399

⇒ y = 399 ÷ (−19) = −21

⇒ Coordinate = (0, −21)

∴ The correct answer is x-axis at (7, 0) and y-axis at (0, -21).

Additional Information

Intercept Form of a Line

The equation of a line with x-intercept 'a' and y-intercept 'b' is given by x/a + y/b = 1.

Slope-Intercept Form

A line can also be expressed as y = mx + c, where 'm' is the slope and 'c' is the y-intercept.

Slope Calculation

For a general equation Ax + By + C = 0, the slope (m) is given by −A/B.

Origin Intersection

If the constant term in the linear equation is zero (Ax + By = 0), the line passes through the origin (0, 0).

Question 26

Rajnish borrowed ₹1,500 from a bank and repaid the entire amount with interest in two equal annual instalments, the first instalment being paid a year after Rajnish borrowed from the bank. If the rate of interest was 40% per annum, compounded annually, then what was the value (in ₹) of each instalment paid by Rajnish?

  1. AOption (a)

    1125

  2. BOption (b)

    1470

  3. COption (c)

    1225

  4. DOption (d)

    1350 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1225

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Rate of Interest = 40% = 2/5

Principal : Instalment ratio for Year 1 = 5 : 7

Principal : Instalment ratio for Year 2 = 52 : 72 = 25 : 49

To equate instalments, multiply Year 1 ratio by 7 → 35 : 49

Total Principal = 35 + 25 = 60 units ⇒ 60 units = ₹1500 ⇒ 1 unit = ₹25

Value of each instalment = 49 units = 49 × 25 = ₹1225

∴ The correct answer is ₹1225.

Alternate Method

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹1500

Rate (R) = 40% per annum

Time (n) = 2 years

Formula Used:

P = x / (1 + R/100)1 + x / (1 + R/100)2, where x is the value of each instalment.

Calculations:

⇒ 1500 = x / (1 + 40/100) + x / (1 + 40/100)2

⇒ 1500 = x / (1.4) + x / (1.96)

⇒ 1500 = x / (7/5) + x / (49/25)

⇒ 1500 = 5x / 7 + 25x / 49

⇒ 1500 = (35x + 25x) / 49

⇒ 1500 = 60x / 49

⇒ x = (1500 × 49) / 60

⇒ x = 25 × 49

⇒ x = 1225

∴ The correct answer is ₹1225.

Additional Information

Compound Interest Instalment Formula

For 'n' years with annual instalment 'x', Principal P = x × [1/(1+r) + 1/(1+r)2 + ... + 1/(1+r)n], where r = R/100.

Effective Interest Rate

For 2 years compounded annually, the effective rate Reff = R1 + R2 + (R1 × R2)/100.

Simple Interest Instalment

In SI, the instalment x = (100 × Amount) / [100t + rt(t−1)/2], where t is the number of years.

Question 27

A sum triple itself in 9 years at simple interest. Find the rate of interest per annum is.

  1. AOption (a)

    3829%38\frac{2}{9}\%

  2. BOption (b)

    3313%33\frac{1}{3}\%

  3. COption (c)

    2719%27\frac{1}{9}\%

  4. DOption (d)

    2229%22\frac{2}{9}\%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

2229%22\frac{2}{9}\%

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Rate (R) = [(n − 1) × 100] ÷ T

Where n = number of times the sum becomes (n = 3) and T = Time (T = 9 years).

R = [(3 − 1) × 100] ÷ 9

R = 200 ÷ 9 = 222/9%

∴ The correct answer is 222/9%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Let Principal (P) = P

Amount (A) = 3P (Since the sum triples itself)

Time (T) = 9 years

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Amount (A) = Principal (P) + Simple Interest (SI)

⇒ SI = Amount − Principal

⇒ SI = 3P − P = 2P

⇒ 2P = (P × R × 9) ÷ 100

⇒ 2 = (R × 9) ÷ 100

⇒ 200 = 9R

⇒ R = 200 ÷ 9

⇒ R = 222/9%

∴ The correct answer is 222/9%.

Additional Information

Simple Interest Principle

In simple interest, the interest remains constant every year because it is always calculated on the original Principal (P).

Relationship between Time and Multiplier

If a sum becomes 'n' times in T years, then T = [(n − 1) × 100] ÷ R. This allows for quick calculation of either Rate or Time.

Simple Interest vs Compound Interest

For the first year, SI and CI are equal if the interest is compounded annually. From the second year onwards, CI > SI because interest is earned on interest in CI.

Question 28

A starts a business with ₹75,000 and B joins the business 5 months later with an investment of ₹80,000. After 1 year, they earn a profit of ₹4,08,800. Find the share of A and B (in ₹).

  1. AOption (a)

    2,52,000 and 1,56,800

  2. BOption (b)

    2,50,000 and 1,58,800

  3. COption (c)

    2,48,000 and 1,60,800

  4. DOption (d)

    2,49,500 and 1,59,300

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

2,52,000 and 1,56,800

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Profit Ratio = (CapitalA × TimeA) : (CapitalB × TimeB)

Ratio = (75 × 12) : (80 × 7) = 900 : 560 = 45 : 28

Total Ratio = 45 + 28 = 73 units

73 units = ₹4,08,800 ⇒ 1 unit = ₹5,600

A’s share = 45 × 5,600 = ₹2,52,000

B’s share = 28 × 5,600 = ₹1,56,800

∴ The correct answer is ₹2,52,000 and ₹1,56,800.

Alternate Method

Given:

Investment of A = ₹75,000

Investment of B = ₹80,000

Time period of A = 12 months

Time period of B = 12 − 5 = 7 months

Total Profit = ₹4,08,800

Formula Used:

Profit Ratio = (Investment1 × Time1) : (Investment2 × Time2)

Partner A ₹75,000 × 12 m

Partner B ₹80,000 × 7 m

Ratio = 45 : 28

Calculations:

⇒ Profit share of A : Profit share of B = (75,000 × 12) : (80,000 × 7)

⇒ Ratio = 9,00,000 : 5,60,000

⇒ Ratio = 90 : 56 = 45 : 28

⇒ Total profit units = 45 + 28 = 73

⇒ Share of A = (45 ÷ 73) × 4,08,800

⇒ Share of A = 45 × 5,600 = ₹2,52,000

⇒ Share of B = (28 ÷ 73) × 4,08,800

⇒ Share of B = 28 × 5,600 = ₹1,56,800

∴ The correct answer is ₹2,52,000 and ₹1,56,800.

Additional Information

Partnership Profit Distribution

Profit is always distributed in the ratio of the product of Capital and Time (P = C × T).

Active vs Sleeping Partner

An active partner manages the business and may receive a salary before the remaining profit is shared according to the investment ratio.

Variable Investment

If investment changes during the period, use the sum of (Investment × Duration) for each interval: (C1t1 + C2t2 + ...).

Question 29

(sin θ + cosec θ)2 + (cos θ + sec θ)2 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    5 + tan2θ + cot2θ

  2. BOption (b)

    7 + tan2θ - cot2θ

  3. COption (c)

    7 + tan2θ + cot2θ

  4. DOption (d)

    5 + tan2θ - cot2θ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

7 + tan2θ + cot2θ

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Put θ = 45° to find the value of the expression quickly.

Expression = (sin 45° + cosec 45°)2 + (cos 45° + sec 45°)2

⇒ (1/√2 + √2)2 + (1/√2 + √2)2 = (3/√2)2 + (3/√2)2 = 9/2 + 9/2 = 9

Checking Option 3: 7 + tan245° + cot245° = 7 + (1)2 + (1)2 = 9

∴ The correct answer is 7 + tan2θ + cot2θ.

Alternate Method

Given: (sin θ + cosec θ)2 + (cos θ + sec θ)2

Formula Used: (a + b)2 = a2 + b2 + 2ab; sin2θ + cos2θ = 1; 1 + tan2θ = sec2θ; 1 + cot2θ = cosec2θ

Expanding the given expression:

⇒ (sin2θ + cosec2θ + 2 sin θ cosec θ) + (cos2θ + sec2θ + 2 cos θ sec θ)

Since sin θ × cosec θ = 1 and cos θ × sec θ = 1:

⇒ sin2θ + cosec2θ + 2(1) + cos2θ + sec2θ + 2(1)

Grouping the terms:

⇒ (sin2θ + cos2θ) + cosec2θ + sec2θ + 4

⇒ 1 + (1 + cot2θ) + (1 + tan2θ) + 4

⇒ 1 + 1 + cot2θ + 1 + tan2θ + 4

⇒ 7 + tan2θ + cot2θ

∴ The correct answer is 7 + tan2θ + cot2θ.

Additional Information

Fundamental Trigonometric Identities

There are three main identities: sin2θ + cos2θ = 1, 1 + tan2θ = sec2θ, and 1 + cot2θ = cosec2θ.

Reciprocal Relations

cosec θ = 1/sin θ, sec θ = 1/cos θ, and cot θ = 1/tan θ. Their products (e.g., sin θ × cosec θ) are always equal to 1.

Algebraic Expansion

For any trigonometric terms, (x + y)2 = x2 + y2 + 2xy. This is frequently used to simplify squared sums of ratios.

Question 30

The value of 0.7×0.7×0.7+0.3×0.3×0.30.7×0.7−0.7×0.3+0.3×0.3\frac{0.7\times 0.7\times0.7+0.3\times0.3\times0.3}{0.7\times0.7-0.7\times0.3+0.3\times0.3} is ______.

  1. AOption (a)

    2

  2. BOption (b)

    1

  3. COption (c)

    3

  4. DOption (d)

    -1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1

Why this answer is correct

Given:

0.7×0.7×0.7+0.3×0.3×0.30.7×0.7−0.7×0.3+0.3×0.3\frac{0.7 \times 0.7 \times 0.7 + 0.3 \times 0.3 \times 0.3}{0.7 \times 0.7 - 0.7 \times 0.3 + 0.3 \times 0.3} = ?

Formula used:

a3 + b3 = (a + b)(a2 - ab + b2)

Calculation:

⇒ 0.73+0.330.72−0.7×0.3+0.32\frac{0.7^3 + 0.3^3}{0.7^2 - 0.7 \times 0.3 + 0.3^2}

⇒ (0.7+0.3)(0.72−0.7×0.3+0.32)(0.72−0.7×0.3+0.32)\frac{(0.7 + 0.3)(0.7^2 - 0.7 \times 0.3 + 0.3^2)}{(0.7^2 - 0.7 \times 0.3 + 0.3^2)}

⇒ 0.7 + 0.3

⇒ 1

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Question 31

Information given below represents the number codes for the given letters. Select the combination of numbers so that the letters arranged accordingly will form a meaningful word.

R = 1, E = 2, A = 3, C = 4, T = 5, I = 6, V = 7, E = 8

  1. AOption (a)

    4, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 7, 6

  2. BOption (b)

    4, 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 7, 8

  3. COption (c)

    7, 2, 1, 3, 8, 4, 5, 6

  4. DOption (d)

    4, 3, 1, 5, 6, 7, 8, 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

4, 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 7, 8

Why this answer is correct

Given: R = 1, E = 2, A = 3, C = 4, T = 5, I = 6, V = 7, E = 8   

Explanation: Using the given number codes for the letters, we can decode the options as follows:

  1. 4, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 7, 6 ⇒ C, R, E, A, T, E, V, I ⇒ CREATEVI (incorrect order)
  2. 4, 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 7, 8 ⇒  C, R, E, A, T, I, V, E ⇒  CREATIVE (correct order)
  3. 7, 2, 1, 3, 8, 4, 5, 6 ⇒  V, E, R, A, E, C, T, I ⇒  VERAECTI (meaningless)
  4. 4, 3, 1, 5, 6, 7, 8, 2 ⇒  C, A, R, T, I, V, E, E ⇒  CARTIVEE (meaningless)

Option 2 forms the meaningful word "CREATIVE," which is the correct answer.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 32

In a code language, 'SLAIN' is written as ‘PKCNU’ and 'DENT' is written as 'VPGF'. How will 'CUBOID' be written in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    FKQDWE

  2. BOption (b)

    FJQDWE

  3. COption (c)

    FKQDVF

  4. DOption (d)

    EWDPKE

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

FKQDWE

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :- (2) is added to the position value according to English alphabetic series diagonally.

​So,

  • 'SLAIN' is written as ‘PKCNU’

And,

  • 'DENT' is written as 'VPGF'

Similarly,

  • 'CUBOID' is written as :
<br> <br>

Hence, the correct answer is "FKQDWE".

Question 33

Three of the following four triads are alike in a certain way as they are formed by performing same mathematical operations among themselves and thus form a group. Which triad does NOT belong to that group?

  1. AOption (a)

    11 ∶ 21 ∶ 121

  2. BOption (b)

    7 ∶ 15 ∶ 49

  3. COption (c)

    2 ∶ 3 ∶ 4

  4. DOption (d)

    9 ∶ 17 ∶ 81

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

7 ∶ 15 ∶ 49

Why this answer is correct

Logic :

  1. 1st number × 2 = 2nd number + 1
  2. Square of 1st number = 3rd number

So,

  • Option - (1) : 11 ∶ 21 ∶ 121

(11 × 2) = 21 + 1

22 = 22 (LHS = RHS)

And, 

(11)2(11)^2 = 121

121 = 121 (LHS = RHS)

  • Option - (2) : 7 ∶ 15 ∶ 49

(7 × 2) = 15 + 1

14 ≠ 16 (LHS ≠ RHS)

And, 

(7)2(7)^2 = 49

49 = 49 (LHS = RHS)

  • Option - (3) : 2 ∶ 3 ∶ 4

(2 × 2) = 3 + 1

4 = 4 (LHS = RHS)

And, 

(2)2(2)^2 = 4

4 = 4 (LHS = RHS)

  • Option - (4) : 9 ∶ 17 ∶ 81

(9 × 2) = 17 + 1

18 = 18 (LHS = RHS)

And, 

(9)2(9)^2 = 81

81 = 81 (LHS = RHS)

Hence, "Option - (2)" is the correct answer.

Question 34

Out of the following five figures, four are alike in some manner and one differs from these in that manner. Select the odd figure.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

Logic : In each figure there are atleast two same figures.

So,

  • Option - (1) :

 

⇒ There are two squares and one circle.

  • Option - (2) :

 

⇒ There are two triangles and one circle.

  • Option - (3) :

 

⇒** All the figures are different i.e one triangle, one circle and one square.**

  • Option - (4) :

⇒ There are two circles and one sqaure.

Here, Figure - (3) is the odd one out.

Hence, "Option - (3)" is the correct answer.

Question 35

Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to sequentially replace the * signs and balance the given equation.

11 * 7 * 345 * 5 * 31 = 115

  1. AOption (a)
    • × ÷ −
  2. BOption (b)

    × + ÷ −

  3. COption (c)

    ÷ × + −

  4. DOption (d)

    ÷ − + ×

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

× + ÷ −

Why this answer is correct

Given : 11 * 7 * 345 * 5 * 31 = 115

According to the question, by replacing the *signs :

So,

  • Option - (1) : + × ÷ −

11 + 7 × 345 ÷ 5 − 31 = 115

11 + 7 × 69 − 31 = 115

11 + 483 - 31 = 115

494 - 31 = 115

463 ≠ 115 (LHS ≠ RHS) 

  • Option - (2) : × + ÷ −

11 × 7 + 345 ÷ 5 − 31 = 115

11 × 7 + 69 - 31 = 115

77 + 69 - 31 = 115

146 - 31 = 115

115 = 115 (LHS = RHS) 

  • Option - (3) : ÷ × + −

11 ÷ 7 × 345 + 5 − 31 = 115

1.57 × 345 + 5 − 31 = 115

541.65 + 5 - 31 = 115

546.65 - 31 = 115

515.65 ≠ 115 (LHS ≠ RHS)

  • Option - (4) : ÷ − + ×

11 ÷ 7 − 345 + 5 × 31 = 115

1.57 − 345 + 5 × 31 = 115

1.57 + 155 - 345 = 115

156.57 - 345 = 115

188.43 ≠ 115 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option - (2)" is the correct answer.

Question 36

Figure A is related to B following a certain pattern. Following the same pattern, figure C is related to D. Study the pattern and select the figure which should be placed in place of D.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :-

  • Elements from left up corner to right below corner are shifting anti-clockwise diagonally.
  • Elements from left below corner exchanged positions with right up corner element.

​So,

  • Figures A and B ⇒

​

Similarly,

  • Figure C and D ⇒

​

Thus, final pattern is :

<br>

Hence, "Option - (2)" is the correct answer.

Question 37

Seven persons are sitting around a circular dining table facing the towards the centre. S is sitting to the immediate left of Y and third to the right of R. R is sitting to the immediate left of A and immediate right of P. A is sitting to the immediate left of D. Q is sitting to the immediate left of P. If D exchanges seat with Y and P with Q, then who is sitting to the immediate right of D?

  1. AOption (a)

    P

  2. BOption (b)

    S

  3. COption (c)

    Q

  4. DOption (d)

    R

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

P

Why this answer is correct

Given : Seven persons are sitting around a circular dining table facing the towards the centre. 

Explanation : 

1) S is sitting to the immediate left of Y and third to the right of R.

  1. R is sitting to the immediate left of A and immediate right of P.

3) A is sitting to the immediate left of D.

  1. Q is sitting to the immediate left of P.

So, according to the question If D exchanges seat with Y and P with Q :- 

Thus, according to the final arrangement P is sitting to the immediate right of D.

Hence, "P" is the correct answer.

Question 38

In this question, two statements I and II have been given. These statements may be independent causes or effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of the statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both statements and select the correct answer.

I. Over the last two years 22% of the Company P’s manpower was laid off.

II. Over the past two years Company P has sold off many of their major assets.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both I and II are effects of a common cause.

  2. BOption (b)

    I is the cause and II is its possible effect.

  3. COption (c)

    II is the cause and I is its possible effect.

  4. DOption (d)

    Both I and II are independent causes.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both I and II are effects of a common cause.

Why this answer is correct

Step 1: Analyze the statements

  • Statement I: Over the last two years, 22% of Company P’s manpower was laid off.
  • Statement II: Over the past two years, Company P has sold off many of their major assets.

Step 2: Identify the possible relationships between the statements

  • Both statements are negative outcomes that occurred within the same time frame (last two years). This suggests there might be a common cause or that one statement is the cause of the other.

Step 3: Evaluate each option

  • Option 1: Both I and II are effects of a common cause.
  • It is plausible that financial difficulties, management changes, or a company restructuring led to both the layoffs and the selling of major assets. This option makes logical sense.

Hence, the correct answer is "Both I and II are effects of a common cause."

Question 39

Out of the following five figures, four are alike in some manner and one differs from these in that manner. Select the odd figure.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

Logic : In each figure the bottom part of the is same i.e closed figure with 2 lines and 2 curves or arc.

So,

  • Option - (1) :

 

⇒ Here the bottom part has the enclosed figure with 2 lines and 2 curves.

  • Option - (2) :

 

⇒ Here the bottom part has the enclosed figure with 2 lines and 2 curves.

  • Option - (3) :

⇒ Here the bottom part has the enclosed figure with 4 lines and 0 curves.

  • Option - (4) :

 ⇒ Here the bottom part has the enclosed figure with 2 lines and 2 curves.

Here, Figure - (3) is the odd one out.

Hence, "Option - (3)" is the correct answer.

Question 40

Which of the following letter-clusters should replace # and % so that the pattern and relationship followed between the letter-cluster pair on the left side of :: is the same as that on the right side of ::?

: KNE :: PQV : %

  1. AOption (a)

    = NOB, % = SRY

  2. BOption (b)

    = NKF, % = MTU

  3. COption (c)

    = MOB, % = RTT

  4. DOption (d)

    = HQD, % = MTV

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

= NKF, % = MTU

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :- 

  1. First letter → (3) is subtracted from the position value according to English alphabetic series.
  2. Second letter → (3) is added to the position value according to English alphabetic series.
  3. Third letter → (1) is subtracted from the position value according to English alphabetic series.

​So,

  • = NOB, % = SRY ⇒ NOB : KNE :: PQV : SRY

​

⇒Here, no similar pattern can be seen.

  • = NKF, % = MTU ⇒ NKF : KNE :: PQV : MTU

​

⇒Here, similar pattern can be seen.

  • = MOB, % = RTT ⇒ MOB : KNE :: PQV : RTT

​           

⇒Here, no similar pattern can be seen.

  • = HQD, % = MTV ⇒ HQD : KNE :: PQV : MTV​ ​

⇒Here, no similar pattern can be seen.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option - (2)".

Question 41

Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark (?) and complete the given pattern.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

The logic here followed is 

Hence, the correct answer is "option 2".

Question 42

Given below is a question followed by two statements I and II. Read both statements carefully to decide which one of them is sufficient to answer the question

Six people - K, M, N, P, Q and R are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Who sits second to the left of P?

(I) K sits to the immediate right of P. Only two people sit between P and Q. R sits second to the right of M.

(II) Only two people sit between N and M. Q is an immediate neighbour of M. Only one person sits between Q and K.

  1. AOption (a)

    Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement I is not.

  2. BOption (b)

    Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement II is not.

  3. COption (c)

    Data in statements I and II together are NOT sufficient to answer the question.

  4. DOption (d)

    Data in statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement II is not.

Why this answer is correct

Given : 

  1. Six people - K, M, N, P, Q and R
  2. All of them are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.

Explanation :

  • Statement - (I) : K sits to the immediate right of P. Only two people sit between P and Q. R sits second to the right of M.

Here, R sits second to the left of P. 

  • Statement - (II) : Only two people sit between N and M. Q is an immediate neighbour of M. Only one person sits between Q and K.

Here, position of P cannot be determined, therefore who sits second to the left of P cannot be answered. 

Therefore, Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement II is not.

Hence, "Option - (2)" is the correct answer.

Question 43

Select the option in which the following figure is embedded. (Rotation is NOT allowed)

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

Given:

  • The image must not to be rotated

=

Hence, the correct answer is "Option - (4)".

Question 44

Three statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

Some Bangles are Bracelets.

All chains are Rings.

Some Bracelets are Chains.

Conclusions:

(I) Some Bangles are Rings.

(II) Some Chains are Bangles.

(III) Some Rings are Bracelets.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only Conclusion III follows.

  2. BOption (b)

    Both Conclusions I and II follow.

  3. COption (c)

    Both Conclusions I and III follow.

  4. DOption (d)

    Only Conclusion I follows.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only Conclusion III follows.

Why this answer is correct

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

<br>

Conclusions:

I. Some Bangles are Rings → Does not Follow (As some bangles are bracelets, some bracelets are chains and all chains are rings. So, it is possible but not definitely true)

II. Some Chains are Bangles → Does not Follow (As some bangles are bracelets, some bracelets are chains and all chains are rings. So, it is possible but not definitely true)

III. Some Rings are Bracelets → Follow (As some bracelets are chains and all chains are rings. So, as whole chains comes in rings which some part comes in bracelets therefore it is definitely true)

∴ Here, Only Conclusion III follows​

Hence, the correct answer is "Only Conclusion III follows"

Question 45

Amit ranked 7th from the top and 26th from the bottom in his class. How many students are there in the class?

  1. AOption (a)

    31

  2. BOption (b)

    33

  3. COption (c)

    27

  4. DOption (d)

    32

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

32

Why this answer is correct

Given : 

  1. Amit ranked 7th from the top in his class.
  2. Amit ranked 26th from the bottom in his class.

Explanation : 

The total number of people = Position of the person from Top + Position of the person from Bottom - 1.

Therefore,

The total number of students in the class = 7 + 26 - 1 = 32.

Hence, the correct answer is "32".

Question 46

Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

242, 288, ?, 392, 450

  1. AOption (a)

    338

  2. BOption (b)

    375

  3. COption (c)

    316

  4. DOption (d)

    324

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

338

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is : Double addition pattern is followed -

  1. First addition - Consecutive multiple of 4 is added starting from 46.
  2. Second addition - 4 is added subsequently.
<br>

Hence, "338" is the correct answer.

Question 47

Direction: A statement is given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming that the given statement is true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statement.

Statement:

In a football match between Team-X and Team-Y, the total number of goals scored by Team-Y was 5, out of which 3 goals were scored by the left footed player.

Assumption:

I. The left-footed player was adept at scoring goals.

II. 60% of the players in Team Y are left footed.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both I and II follow.

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II Follows.

  3. COption (c)

    Neither I nor II follows.

  4. DOption (d)

    Only i follow.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Neither I nor II follows.

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Based on the given statement, let's evaluate the conclusions:

Assumption I: The left-footed player was adept at scoring goals:- The statement indicates that a left-footed player scored 3 out of the 5 goals for Team Y. While this might suggest the player’s capability in that particular match, one cannot assume that the player is adept overall based only on this single instance. This assumption is not necessarily valid based just on the given statement. Therefore, assumption I do not follow.

Assumption II: 60% of the players in Team Y are left-footed:- The statement does not provide any information about the total number or the proportion of left-footed players in Team Y. It only mentions the number of goals scored by one left-footed player. There is no basis to support this assumption from the statement.

Hence, the correct option is "Neither I nor II follows".

Question 48

The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown below. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of the paper.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

When the folder paper is opened, the cuts will appear as follows

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 49

Select the option that represents the letters that, when placed from left to right in the following blanks, will complete the letter-series.

S C R _ W S _ R _ W _ C _ G W S _ R H _

  1. AOption (a)

    G D F S R C W

  2. BOption (b)

    H D F S R C W

  3. COption (c)

    E C F S R C W

  4. DOption (d)

    E D F S R D W

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

E C F S R C W

Why this answer is correct

Given : S C R _ W S _ R _ W _ C _ G W S _ R H _

By checking options :

  1. G D F S R C W → S C R G W - S D R F W -  S C R G W  - S C R H W  → (It doesn't Follows the pattern)
  2. H D F S R C W → S C R H W  - S D R F W  - S C R G W  - S C R H W → (It doesn't Follows the pattern)
  3. E C F S R C W → S C R E W -  S C R F W  - S C R G W  -  S C R H W →    (It Follows the pattern)
  • Option - (3) gives the pattern of "S C R E W - S C R F W - S C R G W - S C R H W"

  1. E D F S R D W → S C R E W -  S D R F W  - S C R G W  -  S D R H W → (It doesn't Follows the pattern)

 

Hence, "E C F S R C W" is the correct answer.

Question 50

If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷, and ÷ means +, what will be the value of the following expression?

3 ÷ 6 + 3 – 4 × 4 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    8

  2. BOption (b)

    5

  3. COption (c)

    6

  4. DOption (d)

    4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

6

Why this answer is correct

Given :

Sign+×÷-
Meaning-÷+×

Given statement : 3 ÷ 6 + 3 – 4 × 4 = ? 

After replacing the signs according to the question :

3 + 6 - 3 × 4 ÷ 4 = ?

3 + 6 - 3 × 1 = ?

3 + 6 - 3 = ?

9 - 3 = ?

6 = ?

Hence, "6" is the correct answer.

Question 51

In this question, a statement is followed by two courses of actions, numbered I and II. You must assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the information given in the statement, decide which of the course of action/s logically follow for pursuing.

Statement: Some serious mistakes were found in the technical section of a company.

Course of Action:

I. An efficient technical team should be appointed to check the technical errors.

II. A reason explanation notice should be issued to all the employees involved in the irregularities.

  1. AOption (a)

    Neither I nor II follows

  2. BOption (b)

    Only I follows

  3. COption (c)

    Only II follows

  4. DOption (d)

    Both I and II follow 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both I and II follow 

Why this answer is correct

Explanation: In response to the statement about serious mistakes found in the technical section of a company, there are two suggested courses of action.

I. An efficient technical team should be appointed to check the technical errors.

  • This is a logical course of action, as it addresses the immediate issue of fixing the errors and preventing them from causing further issues within the company.

II. A reason explanation notice should be issued to all the employees involved in the irregularities.

  • This is also a logical course of action, as it holds employees accountable for their actions and encourages them to provide an explanation for the mistakes. This can help the company understand the root cause of the errors and prevent them from happening in the future.

Since both I and II are logical courses of action, the correct answer is option 4: Both I and II follow.

Question 52

Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

The figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series is shown below:

  1. Every element is shifting in one place clockwise direction until the last element does not come. The last element   "+" disappeared and one new element A is appeared at the last.

 

2)  Every element is shifting two places clockwise direction until the second last element does not come. The second last element   "

" disappeared and one new element B is appeared at the last . As A is placed after eliminated element, A is shifting three placed clockwise direction.

3)  Every element is shifting three places clockwise direction until the third last element does not come. The third last element   "$" disappeared and one new element C is appeared at the last . As A, B  are placed after eliminated element, A, B are shifting four placed clockwise direction.


4) Every element is shifting four places clockwise direction until the fourth last element does not come. The third last element   "≠ " disappeared and one new element D is appeared at the last . As A, B,C are placed after eliminated element, A, B,C are shifting five placed clockwise direction.


Hence, ‘option - (1)’ is the correct answer.

Question 53

In a certain code language, ‘POLISH’ is written as ‘89’ and ‘CLIP’ is written as ‘72’. How will ‘CONTROL’ be written in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    89

  2. BOption (b)

    92

  3. COption (c)

    106

  4. DOption (d)

    99

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

99

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :-  Sum of the opposite letter's position value according to English alphabetic series and number of letters within the word.

​So,

  • ‘POLISH’ is written as ‘89’

​

And,

  • ‘CLIP’ is written as ‘72’
<br>

Similarly,

  • ‘CONTROL’ is written as :
<br>

Hence, the correct answer is "99".

Question 54

Three of the following words are alike in some manner and hence form a group. Which word does NOT belong to that group? (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be grouped based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)

  1. AOption (a)

    Engineer

  2. BOption (b)

    Doctor

  3. COption (c)

    Carpenter

  4. DOption (d)

    Teacher

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Carpenter

Why this answer is correct

Logic: The words can be grouped based on their professions and roles in society.

  1. Engineer
  2. Doctor
  3. Teacher

These three professions (Engineer, Doctor, and Teacher) are commonly associated with higher education and often require advanced degrees. They usually work in specialized fields and provide professional services.

  1. Carpenter: On the other hand, a carpenter is a skilled craftsman and works with wood to construct and repair structures. The profession typically requires hands-on training and experience, rather than advanced degrees. This difference makes the Carpenter the word that does not belong to the group.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 55

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is NOT allowed)

(18, 39, 60), (27, 48, 69)

  1. AOption (a)

    (24, 64,96)

  2. BOption (b)

    (35, 56, 77)

  3. COption (c)

    (31, 52, 84)

  4. DOption (d)

    (17, 28, 49)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(35, 56, 77)

Why this answer is correct

Logic : (2nd number × 2) = (3rd number + 1st number**)**

Given :

(18, 39, 60)

39 × 2 = 60 + 18

78 = 78 (LHS = RHS)

(27, 48, 69)

48 × 2 = 69 + 27 

96 = 96 (LHS = RHS)

So,

  • Option - (1) : (24, 64,96)

​64 × 2 = 96 + 24

128 ≠ 120 (LHS ≠ RHS)

  • Option - (2) : (35, 56, 77)

​56 × 2 = 77 + 35

112 = 112 (LHS = RHS)

  • Option - (3) : (31, 52, 84)

​52 × 2 = 84 + 31

104 ≠ 115 (LHS ≠ RHS)

  • Option - (4) : (17, 28, 49)

​28 × 2 = 49 + 17

56 ≠ 66 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option - (2)" is the correct answer.

Question 56

‘A # B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’.

‘A @ B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’.

‘A & B’ means ‘A is the husband of B’.

‘A % B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’.

If Z % X # C @ V & B @ N, then how is Z related to B?

  1. AOption (a)

    Son’s wife

  2. BOption (b)

    Daughter

  3. COption (c)

    Husband’s mother

  4. DOption (d)

    Mother

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Son’s wife

Why this answer is correct

Given :

A is
Symbol#@&%
MeaningBrotherDaughterHusbandWife
to B

Given statement : Z % X # C @ V & B @ N

So,

  • Z % X → Z is the wife of X.

  • X # C → X is the brother of C.

  • C @ V → C is the daughter of V.

  • V & B → V is the husband of B.

  • B @ N → B is the daughter of N.

​

Thus, according to the final family tree Z is the daughter-in-law i.e son’s wife of B.

Hence, "Son’s wife" is the correct answer.

Question 57

‘A # B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’.

‘A @ B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’.

‘A & B’ means ‘A is the husband of B’.

‘A % B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’.

If D @ N @ H & Y @ F % V, then how is Y related to D?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mother’s mother

  2. BOption (b)

    Sister’s daughter

  3. COption (c)

    Mother

  4. DOption (d)

    Daughter’s daughter

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Mother’s mother

Why this answer is correct

Given :

A is
Symbol#@&%
MeaningBrotherDaughterHusbandWife
to B

Given statement : D @ N @ H & Y @ F % V

So,

  • D @ N → D is the daughter of N.

  • N @ H → N is the daughter of H.

  • H & Y → H is the husband of Y.

  • Y @ F → Y is the daughter of F.

  • F % V → F is the wife of V.

​

Thus, according to the final family tree Y is the grandmother i.e mother's mother of D.

Hence, "Mother’s mother" is the correct answer.

Question 58

In the given question, the statement is followed by two conclusions. Which of the two conclusions is/are true?

Statement: Z = E ≥ R > G < Y > Q = F

Conclusions:

I. R < F

II. R ≥ Z

  1. AOption (a)

    Both conclusions I and II are true

  2. BOption (b)

    Only conclusion II is true

  3. COption (c)

    Only conclusion I is true

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither conclusion I nor II is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Neither conclusion I nor II is true

Why this answer is correct

The given statement is: Z = E ≥ R > G < Y > Q = F

Conclusion I: R < F [ From the given statement, R > G < Y > Q = F However, we cannot determine whether R is less than F or not. Hence, conclusion I is not Follow.]

Conclusion II: R ≥ Z [ From the given statement, Z  ≥ R. Hence, conclusion II is not true.]

Hence, the correct answer is option 4. Neither conclusion I nor II is true.

Question 59

A question is given, followed by two statements numbered (I) and (II). You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements is sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and select the appropriate answer.

Question: Four people, A, B, C and D, are sitting in a straight line, facing south. Who is sitting at the right end?

Statements:

(I) Only two people sit between B and D; A sits to the immediate left of B.

(II) Only one person sits between B and C; A sits to the immediate right of C.

  1. AOption (a)

    Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement II is not

  2. BOption (b)

    Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement I is not

  3. COption (c)

    Data in either statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question

  4. DOption (d)

    Data in statements I and II together is sufficient to answer the question

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement II is not

Why this answer is correct

Given : 

  1. Four people - A, B, C and D
  2. All of them are sitting in a straight line facing south.

Explanation :

  • Statement - (I) : Only two people sit between B and D; A sits to the immediate left of B.

Here, D is sitting at the right end. 

  • Statement - (II) : Only one person sits between B and C; A sits to the immediate right of C.

Case - (1) 

Case - (2) 

Case - (3)

Here, there are three possible cases according to the statement, therefore one specific person who is sitting at the right end cannot be determined.

Therefore, Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement II is not

Hence, "Option - (1)" is the correct answer.

Question 60

Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is held at the right side of the image.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

The logic is followed here:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Section II (70 questions)

Question 61

Select the correct homonym from the given options to fill in the blank.

The athlete’s________ was badly injured due to a fall on the track.

  1. AOption (a)

    toad

  2. BOption (b)

    toe

  3. COption (c)

    tow

  4. DOption (d)

    to

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

toe

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2, "toe."

Key Points

  • "Toe" to any of the five digits at the end of the human foot.
  • Example: He cut his big toe on a sharp stone.
  • In this sentence, the athlete likely fell and injured his/her toe while running on the track.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 2.

Additional Information

  • The other options are:
  • "Toad" is a type of amphibian, such as a frog.
  • Example: I saw a toad hopping across the road.
  • "Tow" means to pull or drag something behind you.
  • Example: The truck was able to tow the broken-down car to the mechanic.
  • "To" is a preposition that can indicate direction or location.
  • Example: We went to the store to buy groceries.

Question 62

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.

Harry said that he would not be in town on Friday.

  1. AOption (a)

    Harry saying, “I will not be in town on Friday”.

  2. BOption (b)

    Harry said, “I will not be in town on Friday”.

  3. COption (c)

    Harry said, “I can’t be in town on Friday”.

  4. DOption (d)

    Harry said, “I must not be in town on Friday”.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Harry said, “I will not be in town on Friday”.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2: "Harry said, 'I will not be in town on Friday'."

Key Points

  • When converting indirect speech to direct speech, we need to make a few changes:
  • Change the tense of the reported speech to match the tense of the reporting verb.
  • In this case, "said" is in the past tense, so we keep the reported speech in the past tense as well.
  • 'Would' will change into 'will'.
  • Change any pronouns to match the speaker in the direct speech. In this case, "he" becomes "I".
  • Add quotation marks around the reported speech.
  • Option 2 follows all of these rules correctly, making it the correct answer.
<br>

Correct Sentence: Harry said, “I will not be in town on Friday”.

Question 63

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.

The story of his uncle’s mysterious disappearance was first heard by Rajat in his childhood

  1. AOption (a)

    The story uncle heard first time was about Rajat’s mysterious disappearance in his childhood.

  2. BOption (b)

    Rajat first heard the story of his uncle’s mysterious disappearance in his childhood.

  3. COption (c)

    The story Rajat first heard in his childhood was about his uncle’s mysterious disappearance.

  4. DOption (d)

    Rajat’s first story that uncle heard in his childhood was about his mysterious disappearance.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rajat first heard the story of his uncle’s mysterious disappearance in his childhood.

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is 2) Rajat first heard the story of his uncle's mysterious disappearance in his childhood.

Key Points

  • This sentence is in passive voice as the subject (the story) is receiving the action (was first heard).
  • To convert it into active voice, we need to make the subject the doer of the action.
  • In this case, the subject is "Rajat" and the action is "heard the story".
  • 'was first heard' changes to 'first heard'.
  • Therefore, the active voice sentence would be "Rajat first heard the story of his uncle's mysterious disappearance in his childhood."
  • The correct answer is option 2 as it correctly follows the rules of converting a passive voice sentence into active voice.
<br>

Correct Sentence: Rajat first heard the story of his uncle’s mysterious disappearance in his childhood.

Question 64

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

The audience sneered at the monologue uttered by the veteran actor.

  1. AOption (a)

    Waved

  2. BOption (b)

    Lauded

  3. COption (c)

    Unleashed

  4. DOption (d)

    Ascribed

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Lauded

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Lauded.

Key Points

  • Sneered means smile or speak in a contemptuous or mocking manner.
  • Example: She had sneered at their bad taste.
  • The correct antonym of "sneered" is "lauded" which means to praise or applaud someone or something. 
  • Example: The audience lauded the performance of the young singer.
  • Option 1: "Waved" is not an appropriate antonym as it does not convey the opposite meaning of "sneered". 
  • Example: The crowd waved their hands in excitement.
  • Option 3: "Unleashed" means to release or set free, which is not related to the context of the sentence. 
  • Example: The dog was unleashed in the park.
  • Option 4: "Ascribed" means to attribute or assign something to someone, which is not related to the context of the sentence. 
  • Example: The success of the project was ascribed to the hard work of the team.
  • Therefore, option 2 is the correct antonym of "sneered" in the given sentence.

Question 65

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Nowadays, online shopping is easier ________ shopping in a market.

  1. AOption (a)

    like

  2. BOption (b)

    than

  3. COption (c)

    then

  4. DOption (d)

    as

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

than

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is 'Than'.

Key Points

  • The correct answer is option 2, "than".
  • This is because the sentence is comparing two things - online shopping and shopping in a market - and showing that one is easier than the other.
  • "Than" is the appropriate word to use in this context to show the comparison.
  • Example: Nowadays, online shopping is easier than shopping in a market because you can browse and purchase items from the comfort of your own home.
  • Option 1, "like", would not be appropriate in this context because it suggests that online shopping and shopping in a market are similar, rather than being compared.
  • Option 3, "then", is a conjunction used to show a sequence of events, and is not appropriate in this context.
  • Option 4, "as", is a conjunction used to show a similarity between two things, and is not appropriate in this context.
<br>

Correct Sentence: Nowadays, online shopping is easier than shopping in a market.

Question 66

Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A) The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were adopted by all United Nations Member States in 2015 to end poverty, reduce inequality and build more peaceful, prosperous societies by 2030.

B) The SDGs cannot be achieved without the realisation of child rights.

C) Also known as the Global Goals, the SDGs are a call to action to create a world where no one is left behind.

D) As world leaders work to deliver on the 2030 promise, children around the globe are standing up to secure their right to good health, quality education, a clean planet and more.

  1. AOption (a)

    ABDC

  2. BOption (b)

    ADCB

  3. COption (c)

    ACBD

  4. DOption (d)

    ADBC

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

ACBD

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is ACBD.

Key Points

  • The correct answer is option 3 - ACBD.
  • Sentence A introduces the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) and their purpose.
  • Sentence C provides additional information about the SDGs, including their alternate name and their goal of creating a world where no one is left behind.
  • Sentence B connects the SDGs to child rights, emphasizing the importance of realizing child rights in achieving the SDGs.
  • Finally, sentence D brings the focus back to children and their role in securing their own rights and contributing to the achievement of the SDGs.
  • Therefore, the correct order of the sentences is ACBD, which creates a coherent and meaningful paragraph about the importance of the SDGs and child rights in creating a better world for all.
<br>

Correct Sequence:

A) The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were adopted by all United Nations Member States in 2015 to end poverty, reduce inequality and build more peaceful, prosperous societies by 2030.

C) Also known as the Global Goals, the SDGs are a call to action to create a world where no one is left behind.

B) The SDGs cannot be achieved without the realisation of child rights.

D) As world leaders work to deliver on the 2030 promise, children around the globe are standing up to secure their right to good health, quality education, a clean planet and more.

Question 67

Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

P. The prices of cooking gas, pulses and vegetables have registered a sharp rise.

Q. In recent years the prices of essential commodities have gone up sharply.

R. The low-income groups and the salaried classes are the worst sufferers.

S. Living has become quite a costly affair these days.

  1. AOption (a)

    RPSQ

  2. BOption (b)

    QSRP

  3. COption (c)

    SRQP

  4. DOption (d)

    PQRS

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

SRQP

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is SRQP.

Key Points

  • The paragraph talks about the rise in prices of essential commodities and how it has affected different sections of society.
  • Sentence S sets the context by stating that living has become expensive.
  • Sentence R talks about the impact on low-income groups and salaried classes.
  • Sentence Q provides a broader perspective by stating that this rise in prices is not a recent phenomenon but has been happening in recent years.
  • Finally, sentence P gives specific examples of the commodities that have seen a sharp rise in prices.
  • Therefore, the correct order is Option 3.
<br>

Correct Sequence:

S. Living has become quite a costly affair these days.

R. The low-income groups and the salaried classes are the worst sufferers.

Q. In recent years the prices of essential commodities have gone up sharply.

P. The prices of cooking gas, pulses and vegetables have registered a sharp rise.

Question 68

Select the most appropriate meaning of the highlighted idiom.

The employee took the manager’s remark with a pinch of salt.

  1. AOption (a)

    Going for the truth

  2. BOption (b)

    Distasteful and boring 

  3. COption (c)

    Doubt the truth or value of something

  4. DOption (d)

    Ever ready to condemn someone

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Doubt the truth or value of something

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Doubt the truth or value of something.

Key Points

  • The correct answer is option 3) Doubt the truth or value of something.
  • The idiom "take something with a pinch of salt" means to be skeptical or doubtful about the truth or value of something that has been said or claimed (जो कुछ कहा या दावा किया गया है उसकी सत्यता या मूल्य के बारे में संदेह करना).
  • In this context, the employee is not taking the manager's remark seriously and is not fully believing it.
  • Therefore, option 3 is the most appropriate meaning of the highlighted idiom.

Question 69

Identify the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given sentence.

If she had begun earlier, she might have suceeded in finishing the extremely intricate project before the deadline.

  1. AOption (a)

    deadline

  2. BOption (b)

    intricate

  3. COption (c)

    suceeded

  4. DOption (d)

    earlier

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

suceeded

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

  • The incorrectly spelled word in the given sentence is "suceeded".
  • The correct spelling is "succeeded".
  • It means achieve the desired aim or result.
  • Examples:
  • She succeeded in convincing her boss to give her a raise.
  • He succeeded in completing the marathon despite the hot weather.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 3.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "deadline" is spelled correctly. It refers to the final date or time by which something must be done.
  • Option 2: "intricate" is spelled correctly. It means complex or detailed.
  • Option 4: "earlier" is spelled correctly. It means before a certain time or event.

Question 70

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

Everybody stared / when me / entered the / drawing room.

  1. AOption (a)

    when me

  2. BOption (b)

    Everybody stared

  3. COption (c)

    drawing room

  4. DOption (d)

    entered the

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

when me

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

  • The segment that contains a grammatical error is "when me".
  • It should be "when I" instead.
  • The grammatical rule that applies here is the use of subject pronouns and object pronouns.
  • "I" is a subject pronoun, which is used as the subject of a sentence or clause.
  • "Me" is an object pronoun, which is used as the object of a verb or preposition.
  • Examples:
  • Subject pronoun: I am going to the store.
  • Object pronoun: She gave the book to me.
  • In the given sentence, "when" is a subordinating conjunction that introduces a dependent clause.
  • The subject of the dependent clause is "I", so it should be used instead of "me".
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 1.
<br>

The correct sentence would be: "Everybody stared when I entered the drawing room."

Question 71

Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. I was almost drowned a dozen times; was nearly boiled alive and just missed being cremated.

B. Now, my well-being is simply the result of a careful and measured mode of living and perhaps the most astonishing thing is that three times in my youth I was rendered by illness a hopeless physical wreck and given up by physicians.

C. More than this, through ignorance, and light-heartedness, I got into all sorts of difficulties, dangers and scrapes from which I extricated myself as by enchantment.

D. But as I recall these incidents to my mind I feel convinced that my preservation was not altogether accidental.

  1. AOption (a)

    CADB

  2. BOption (b)

    BADC

  3. COption (c)

    BCAD

  4. DOption (d)

    DCAB

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

BCAD

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is BCAD.

Key Points

  • The correct answer is option 3 - BCAD.
  • Sentence B starts the paragraph by introducing the author's current state of well-being, emphasizing that it is a result of a careful and measured mode of living. It also highlights the astonishing fact that despite being rendered a hopeless physical wreck three times in their youth, they managed to recover.
  • Sentence C follows B, explaining how the author got into various difficulties, dangers, and scrapes due to ignorance and light-heartedness. It implies that they were able to extricate themselves from these situations by some form of enchantment, suggesting their resourcefulness.
  • Sentence A provides specific examples of the difficulties and dangers the author faced, such as almost drowning, nearly being boiled alive, and narrowly avoiding being cremated. It elaborates on the challenges mentioned in sentence C.
  • Finally, sentence D concludes the paragraph by reflecting on the incidents mentioned and stating the author's belief that their preservation was not accidental. It connects back to the experiences mentioned in sentences A and C.
  • Therefore, the correct order of the sentences to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph is BCAD.
<br>

Correct Sequence:

B. Now, my well-being is simply the result of a careful and measured mode of living and perhaps the most astonishing thing is that three times in my youth I was rendered by illness a hopeless physical wreck and given up by physicians.

C. More than this, through ignorance, and light-heartedness, I got into all sorts of difficulties, dangers and scrapes from which I extricated myself as by enchantment.

A. I was almost drowned a dozen times; was nearly boiled alive and just missed being cremated.

D. But as I recall these incidents to my mind I feel convinced that my preservation was not altogether accidental.

Question 72

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

Bloomberg Businessweek is not more popular than some other business magazines in the US.

  1. AOption (a)

    No substitution required

  2. BOption (b)

    the most popular than

  3. COption (c)

    as more popular than

  4. DOption (d)

    so popular than

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

No substitution required

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is No substitution required.

Key Points

  • The correct answer is option 1, "No substitution required."
  • The underlined segment "not more popular than" is already a comparative phrase, indicating that Bloomberg Businessweek is less popular than some other business magazines in the US. There is no need to substitute it with any other comparative phrase.
  • The grammatical rule related to this error is the use of comparative adjectives.
  • Comparative adjectives are used to compare two things, and they are formed by adding -er to the end of the adjective (e.g. taller, faster, smarter) or by using the word "more" before the adjective (e.g. more beautiful, more intelligent, more successful).
  • In the given sentence, "more popular than" is a comparative phrase that is used to compare the popularity of Bloomberg Businessweek with some other business magazines in the US. However, the sentence is negating this comparison by using the word ""not"" before ""more popular than,"" indicating that Bloomberg Businessweek is less popular than some other business magazines in the US.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 1.

Question 73

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

The one who loves mankind

  1. AOption (a)

    Pessimist

  2. BOption (b)

    Misogynist

  3. COption (c)

    Optimist

  4. DOption (d)

    Philanthropist

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Philanthropist

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Philanthropist.

Key Points

  • The correct answer is option 4, philanthropist.
  • A philanthropist is a person who loves mankind and is actively involved in promoting human welfare and improving the quality of life for others.
  • For example, Bill Gates is a well-known philanthropist who has donated billions of dollars to various charitable causes.
  • Option 1, pessimist, refers to a person who always sees the negative side of things and expects the worst outcome.
  • For example, a pessimist might say "I don't think we'll ever solve this problem."
  • Option 2, misogynist, refers to a person who hates or has a strong dislike for women.
  • For example, a misogynist might make derogatory comments about women or discriminate against them in the workplace.
  • Option 3, optimist, refers to a person who always sees the positive side of things and expects the best outcome.
  • For example, an optimist might say "I'm sure we'll find a solution to this problem."

Question 74

Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word in a sentence.

Even though James won the election, he has not brought any of his campaign promises to fruition.

  1. AOption (a)

    concealment

  2. BOption (b)

    nourishment

  3. COption (c)

    disappointment

  4. DOption (d)

    accomplishment

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

accomplishment

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Accomplishment.

Key Points

  • In the sentence, the word "fruition" is used to describe the lack of fulfillment of James' campaign promises, indicating that he has not been able to achieve or bring them to completion.
  • Fruition means the realization or fulfilment of a plan or project. 
  • Example: The plans have come to fruition rather sooner than expected
  • Accomplishment means the successful achievement of a task.
  • Example: The accomplishment of planned objectives.
  • Therefore, "accomplishment" is the most appropriate meaning of the word in this context.

Additional Information

  • Option 1, concealment, does not fit the context of the sentence as there is no indication of James hiding anything.
  • Option 2, nourishment, is also irrelevant as it does not relate to the sentence's context.
  • Option 3, disappointment, is also incorrect as it refers to 'the state of being unhappy because something that you hoped for or expected did not happen.'

Question 75

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The committee will ________________ a survey on the government schemes.

  1. AOption (a)

    conduct

  2. BOption (b)

    fight

  3. COption (c)

    hold

  4. DOption (d)

    originate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

conduct

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Conduct.

Key Points

  • In this context, the committee is responsible for conducting a survey on the government schemes, which implies that they will be collecting data and information about the schemes.
  • To conduct a survey means to carry out or organize a survey.
  • In this context, the committee is responsible for conducting a survey on the government schemes.
  • Example: The marketing team conducted a survey to understand the customer's preferences.
  • Option 2 - fight - is not appropriate in this context as it does not make sense to fight a survey.
  • Option 3 - hold - is a possible answer, but it is not as appropriate as conduct. Hold means to organize or arrange an event or meeting.
  • Example: The school will hold a parent-teacher meeting next week.
  • Option 4 - originate - is not appropriate in this context as it means to begin or start something.
  • Example: The idea for the new product originated from the research team.
  • Therefore, option 1, conduct, is the most appropriate choice.

Question 76

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

An arched structure in a garden having climbing plants

  1. AOption (a)

    Shelter

  2. BOption (b)

    Pergola

  3. COption (c)

    Path

  4. DOption (d)

    Shed

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Pergola

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Pergola.

Key Points

  • A pergola is a garden feature that consists of a framework of vertical posts or pillars that support crossbeams and an open lattice, often upon which climbing plants are trained to grow. It provides a shaded walkway, passageway, or sitting area in a garden or park.
  • For example, a pergola can be used to create a shaded seating area in a backyard garden, or it can be used to cover a walkway in a public park.
  • Option 1, Shelter, refers to a structure that provides protection from the elements, such as a building or a tent.
  • For example, a bus shelter provides protection from the rain for people waiting for a bus.
  • Option 3, Path, refers to a route or track that is made for walking or traveling along.
  • For example, a garden path is a walkway that leads through a garden.
  • Option 4, Shed, refers to a small building used for storage or as a workshop.
  • For example, a garden shed is a small building used to store gardening tools and equipment.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 2.

Question 77

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The security guard needs a _______ of shoes.

  1. AOption (a)

    pare

  2. BOption (b)

    pear

  3. COption (c)

    payor

  4. DOption (d)

    pair

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

pair

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4) pair.

Key Points

  • A pair refers to two things that are identical and meant to be used together.
  • In this case, the security guard needs a pair of shoes, which means he needs two shoes that match and are meant to be worn together.
  • Example: The store clerk asked the customer if he needed help finding a pair of shoes in his size.
  • Option 1) pare: This word means to trim or cut something down to its essential parts.
  • Example: The chef used a knife to pare the apple into thin slices.
  • Option 2) pear: This word refers to a type of fruit that is typically green or yellow and has a rounded shape.
  • Example: The farmer harvested a basket of ripe pears from his orchard.
  • Option 3) payor: This word refers to a person or organization that makes a payment.
  • Example: The insurance company was the payor for the medical bills.
  • Overall, the correct answer is option 4) pair, as it is the only word that makes sense in the given sentence.
<br>

Correct Sentence: The security guard needs a pair of shoes.

Question 78

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.

A new invention has been made by him.

  1. AOption (a)

    He was making a new invention. 

  2. BOption (b)

    He has made a new invention.

  3. COption (c)

    He had been making a new invention. 

  4. DOption (d)

    He were making a new invention.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

He has made a new invention.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: 2) He has made a new invention.

Key Points

  • To convert a sentence from passive voice to active voice, you need to identify the subject performing the action (the doer) and make it the subject of the active sentence.
  • In the given sentence, "A new invention has been made by him," the subject is "a new invention," and the action is "has been made."
  • The doer of the action is "him."
  • To change this into active voice, we need to make "him" the subject and rephrase the sentence accordingly.
  • In summary, the correct answer is option 2) "He has made a new invention." It correctly rephrases the original passive sentence into active voice, maintaining the same tense and meaning.

Additional Information

  • Now let's analyze each option:
  • He was making a new invention.
  • This option is in active voice, but it does not convey the same meaning as the original sentence. It suggests that "he" was in the process of making the invention, rather than stating that the invention has already been made.
  • He has made a new invention. (Correct Answer)
  • This option correctly converts the passive sentence into active voice. "He" is the subject performing the action "has made," and "a new invention" remains the object.
  • He had been making a new invention.
  • This option is in past perfect continuous tense, suggesting a continuous action in the past. It does not maintain the same tense and meaning as the original sentence.
  • He were making a new invention.
  • This option contains a grammatical error. "He" is a singular subject, so the correct form of the verb "to be" should be "was" instead of "were."

Question 79

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

Aunt May thought that Uncle Ken’s job as a manager at Firpo’s hotel in Shimla was a stable one.

  1. AOption (a)

    Lucrative

  2. BOption (b)

    Permanent

  3. COption (c)

    Durable

  4. DOption (d)

    Mutable

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Mutable

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Mutable.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate antonym for the underlined word "stable" in the given sentence is: Mutable.
  • The word "stable" refers to something that is steady, secure, and unlikely to change or falter. In the context of a job, a stable job implies that it provides consistent income and is not easily affected by fluctuations or uncertainties. It suggests a sense of reliability and permanence.
  • "Mutable" means liable to change or alter, suggesting that the job is not stable and subject to fluctuations or uncertainties. It conveys the opposite meaning of stability, indicating that the job may not provide a consistent or reliable income.
  • In conclusion, the most appropriate antonym for "stable" in the given sentence is option 4) Mutable.

Additional Information

  • Now let's examine the other options and their meanings:
  • Lucrative: This word means producing a large amount of profit or financial gain. It implies that the job is highly profitable or financially rewarding. It is not the antonym of "stable".
  • Permanent: This word means lasting or intended to last indefinitely without change. It describes something that is fixed, unchanging, or not temporary. It is not the antonym of "stable".
  • Durable: This word means able to withstand wear, pressure, or damage. It describes something that is sturdy, resilient, or long-lasting. Although it shares some characteristics with stability, it is not the antonym of "stable".

Question 80

Sentences of a paragraph are given in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. Instead, they are constrictors, meaning they squeeze their prey to death before swallowing it whole.

B. Agile on water but awkward on land, the green anaconda is one of the largest snakes in the world.

C. Most people assume that anacondas are very poisonous, but they are actually non-venomous.

D. At 29 feet long and 550 pounds, these snakes are huge!

  1. AOption (a)

    BACD

  2. BOption (b)

    BDCA

  3. COption (c)

    BCAD

  4. DOption (d)

    DABC

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

BDCA

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is BDCA.

Key Points

  • The correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph is: BDCA.
  • B. Agile on water but awkward on land, the green anaconda is one of the largest snakes in the world.
  • This sentence introduces the topic and provides information about the green anaconda's size and characteristics.
  • D. At 29 feet long and 550 pounds, these snakes are huge!
  • This sentence provides additional details about the size of the green anaconda, emphasizing their enormous dimensions.
  • C. Most people assume that anacondas are very poisonous, but they are actually non-venomous.
  • This sentence contrasts the common misconception about anacondas being poisonous with the fact that they are non-venomous.
  • A. Instead, they are constrictors, meaning they squeeze their prey to death before swallowing it whole.
  • This sentence explains the feeding behavior of anacondas, clarifying that they constrict their prey instead of using venom.
  • By arranging the sentences in this order, the paragraph flows logically and coherently, providing information about the size, venomous nature, and feeding behavior of green anacondas.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is 2) BDCA.

Question 81

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

Daniel sat on / his new bike / and went afar / a ride.

  1. AOption (a)

    a ride

  2. BOption (b)

    his new bike

  3. COption (c)

    and went afar

  4. DOption (d)

    Daniel sat on

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

and went afar

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

  • The segment that contains a grammatical error is: and went afar.
  • The error lies in the word "afar."
  • In the context of the sentence, "afar" is incorrect because it does not fit with the intended meaning of the sentence.
  • The correct word to use would be "for" instead of "afar."
  • The correct phrase should be "and went for a ride" to indicate that Daniel sat on his new bike and went out for a ride.
  • The error can be understood by considering the correct usage of prepositions.
  • In this case, "for" is the appropriate preposition to express the purpose or intention of going on the ride.
  • "Afar" means at or to a great distance, which does not fit in the context of going for a ride.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is 3) and went afar.
<br>

Correct Sentence: Daniel sat on his new bike and went for a ride.

Question 82

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

When the victim narrated his version of the incident, the jury was _________ .

  1. AOption (a)

    honestly satisfied

  2. BOption (b)

    perfectly satisfied

  3. COption (c)

    completely satisfied

  4. DOption (d)

    excruciatingly satisfied

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

completely satisfied

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Completely satisfied.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate option to fill in the blank is: completely satisfied.
  • The collocation "completely satisfied" is the correct choice in this context.
  • "Completely" intensifies the degree of satisfaction, indicating that the jury was fully and entirely satisfied with the victim's version of the incident.
  • The collocation "satisfied" is often used to describe a feeling of contentment or fulfillment. It implies that expectations or requirements have been met, and there is no further desire or need. In the given sentence, the jury's satisfaction is being described after hearing the victim's narration of the incident.
  • Example: After carefully listening to all the evidence and the victim's detailed account, the jury was completely satisfied with the accuracy and credibility of his version of the incident.
  • In this example, "completely satisfied" emphasizes that the jury had no doubts or reservations about the victim's account and found it convincing and reliable.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is 3) completely satisfied, as it accurately conveys the idea that the jury was fully and entirely content with the victim's version of the incident.
<br>

Correct Sentence: When the victim narrated his version of the incident, the jury was completely satisfied.

Additional Information

  • Regarding the other options:
  • "Honestly satisfied" suggests that the jury's satisfaction is based on honesty, but it does not necessarily capture the extent or completeness of their satisfaction. It doesn't fit as well in this context compared to "completely satisfied."
  • "Perfectly satisfied" suggests a high level of satisfaction, but it may imply an overly idealistic or exaggerated level of satisfaction. It doesn't align as closely with the sense of fullness or completeness as "completely satisfied" does.
  • "Excruciatingly satisfied" is not a suitable collocation. "Excruciating" is typically used to describe intense pain or discomfort, which doesn't fit the context of satisfaction.

Question 83

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.

She said impatiently, “I don’t need any help.”

  1. AOption (a)

    She said impatiently that I don’t need any help. 

  2. BOption (b)

    She said impatiently that she didn’t need any help. 

  3. COption (c)

    She said impatiently she don’t need any help. 

  4. DOption (d)

    She said impatiently that she doesn’t need any help.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

She said impatiently that she didn’t need any help. 

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is She said impatiently that she didn’t need any help. 

Key Points

  • To convert a sentence from direct speech to indirect speech, several changes need to be made:
  • Change the pronouns to reflect the perspective of the reported speaker. ("I" to "she")
  • Change the verb tense to reflect the shift from present to past. (simple present tense ''don't need'' changes to simple past tense ''didn't need'')
  • Applying these rules to the given sentence:
  • Direct speech: "I don't need any help."
  • Indirect speech: She said impatiently that she didn't need any help.
  • In summary, the correct answer is 2) She said impatiently that she didn't need any help.
  • It accurately converts the given sentence into indirect speech, following the rules of pronoun perspective and verb tense shift.

Question 84

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.

The mother said that the kids were playing.

  1. AOption (a)

    The mother said, “The kids have been playing”. 

  2. BOption (b)

    The mother has said, “The kids were playing”.

  3. COption (c)

    The mother told, “The kids had been playing”.

  4. DOption (d)

    The mother said, “The kids are playing”.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The mother said, “The kids are playing”.

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is ​The mother said, “The kids are playing”.

Key Points

  • The given sentence is in indirect speech. We need to change it into direct speech.
  • 'That' is removed and commas and inverted commas are added.
  • The reported verb remains the same as there is no object.
  • Past continuous tense 'were playing' changes to present continuous tense 'are playing'.
  • Example:
  • Indirect Speech: He said that he was playing cricket.
  • Direct Speech: He said, "I am playing cricket."
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 4.
<br>

Correct Direct Speech: The mother said, “The kids are playing”.

Question 85

Sentences of a paragraph are given below. While the first and the last sentences (S1 and S6) are in the correct order, the sentences in between are jumbled up. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

S1. In Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar

A. but also an elder statesman and national leader

B. we have not only a crusader against the caste system,

C. a valiant fighter for the cause of the downtrodden in India

D. whose contribution in the form of the Constitution of India

S6. will be cherished forever by posterity.

  1. AOption (a)

    DABC

  2. BOption (b)

    CABD

  3. COption (c)

    BACD

  4. DOption (d)

    ABCD

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

BACD

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is BACD.

Key Points

  • By rearranging the sentences in the given order, we form a meaningful and coherent paragraph that describes Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar.
  • Here's the breakdown of the correct order:
  • S1. In Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar: This is the introductory sentence that sets the context for the paragraph.
  • B. We have not only a crusader against the caste system:
  • This sentence highlights Dr. Ambedkar's role as someone who fought against the caste system, emphasizing his efforts to challenge and eradicate social hierarchies.
  • A. But also an elder statesman and national leader:
  • This sentence acknowledges Dr. Ambedkar's stature as an esteemed leader and statesman, adding another dimension to his persona.
  • C. A valiant fighter for the cause of the downtrodden in India:
  • This sentence highlights Dr. Ambedkar's commitment to fighting for the rights and welfare of marginalized communities in India.
  • D. Whose contribution in the form of the Constitution of India:
  • This sentence recognizes Dr. Ambedkar's significant contribution to India through his role in drafting the Constitution, which serves as the guiding document for the nation's governance.
  • S6. Will be cherished forever by posterity:
  • The concluding sentence suggests that Dr. Ambedkar's contributions and legacy will be revered and valued by future generations.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is 3) BACD.
  • This arrangement creates a coherent and meaningful paragraph, providing a comprehensive description of Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar's roles, achievements, and lasting impact.

Question 86

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Water under the bridge

  1. AOption (a)

    Past events that are not important anymore

  2. BOption (b)

    Difficult situations in one’s life

  3. COption (c)

    Promises that are made to someone and never fulfilled

  4. DOption (d)

    A seasoned crop with a heavy demand

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Past events that are not important anymore

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Past events that are not important anymore.

Key Points

  • The idiom "water under the bridge" is commonly used to refer to past events or situations that have already happened and are no longer important or relevant in the present. It suggests that whatever happened in the past should be let go or forgotten, similar to water flowing away under a bridge. It implies a sense of moving on and not dwelling on past events.
  • Example: After their argument, they decided to forgive each other and let bygones be water under the bridge.
  • Options 2, 3, and 4 do not accurately capture the meaning of the idiom:
  • Difficult situations in one’s life: This option does not align with the intended meaning of the idiom. "Water under the bridge" specifically refers to past events, rather than ongoing or difficult situations in one's life.
  • Promises that are made to someone and never fulfilled: This option does not capture the meaning of the idiom. "Water under the bridge" is not related to broken promises but rather to events or situations that have become irrelevant over time.
  • A seasoned crop with a heavy demand: This option does not relate to the idiom "water under the bridge" at all. It describes a completely different concept unrelated to past events or their significance.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is 1) Past events that are not important anymore.

Question 87

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

The courier boy did not deliver the parcel.

  1. AOption (a)

    The parcel did not deliver by the courier boy.

  2. BOption (b)

    The parcel had not been delivered by the courier boy.

  3. COption (c)

    The parcel had not delivered by the courier boy.

  4. DOption (d)

    The parcel was not delivered by the courier boy.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The parcel was not delivered by the courier boy.

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is The parcel was not delivered by the courier boy.

Key Points

  • The given sentence is in active voice. We need to change it into passive voice.
  • The subject of the active voice is 'The courier boy' and the object is 'the parcel'.
  • The positions of the subject and the object is interchanged.
  • The given sentence is in simple past tense.
  • Example:
  • Active Voice: Rohan did not play the match.
  • Passive Voice: The match was not played by Rohan.
  • 'did not deliver' changes to 'was not delivered'.
  • The preposition 'by' is added before the object.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 4.
<br>

Correct Passive Voice: The parcel was not delivered by the courier boy.

Question 88

Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. No country has yet achieved the combination of very high human development with a light ecological footprint and the impacts of climate change and biodiversity loss are growing.

B. Compounded by a climate emergency, political polarization and challenged multilateralism, continued conflicts, and forced displacement, the number of people living in poverty rose in 2020 for the first time since 1998 by an estimated 119-124 million and inequalities are growing, and the traditional social contract is no longer working for many.

C. The challenge of reaching Agenda 2030 was already significant, even before the COVID-19 pandemic hit.

D. Today’s development challenges are dynamic, interconnected puzzles of multidimensional risk that require systemic solutions and multilateral cooperation is vital in addressing these shared challenges that cross boundaries of geography and time.

  1. AOption (a)

    DBAC

  2. BOption (b)

    ABDC

  3. COption (c)

    BCDA

  4. DOption (d)

    CBDA

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

CBDA

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is CBDA.

Key Points

  • The correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph is: CBDA.
  • C. The challenge of reaching Agenda 2030 was already significant, even before the COVID-19 pandemic hit.
  • This sentence introduces the paragraph by highlighting the significance of the challenge of achieving Agenda 2030 even before the impact of the COVID-19 pandemic.
  • B. Compounded by a climate emergency, political polarization and challenged multilateralism, continued conflicts, and forced displacement, the number of people living in poverty rose in 2020 for the first time since 1998 by an estimated 119-124 million and inequalities are growing, and the traditional social contract is no longer working for many.
  • This sentence provides additional context and elaborates on the challenges mentioned in the previous sentence. It discusses various factors, such as the climate emergency, political polarization, conflicts, forced displacement, and their impact on the rise in poverty and growing inequalities. It also mentions the need for re-evaluating the traditional social contract.
  • D. Today’s development challenges are dynamic, interconnected puzzles of multidimensional risk that require systemic solutions, and multilateral cooperation is vital in addressing these shared challenges that cross boundaries of geography and time.
  • This sentence expands on the nature of today's development challenges, emphasizing their dynamic and interconnected nature. It highlights the need for systemic solutions and emphasizes the importance of multilateral cooperation to address these challenges that transcend boundaries of geography and time.
  • A. No country has yet achieved the combination of very high human development with a light ecological footprint, and the impacts of climate change and biodiversity loss are growing.
  • This sentence concludes the paragraph by emphasizing that no country has achieved the desired combination of high human development with a light ecological footprint. It also highlights the growing impacts of climate change and biodiversity loss.
  • By arranging the sentences in the order of CBDA, the paragraph flows logically and coherently, with each sentence building upon the previous one to discuss the challenges of reaching Agenda 2030, the compounded factors contributing to the global challenges, the nature of today's development challenges, and the unachieved combination of high human development and a light ecological footprint.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is 4) CBDA.

Question 89

Identify the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given sentence.

The board reviewing the courses offered by the afiliated college found that the quality of academic programs was usually good but somewhat irregular.

  1. AOption (a)

    irregular

  2. BOption (b)

    academic

  3. COption (c)

    review

  4. DOption (d)

    afiliated

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

afiliated

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

  • The word "afiliated" is misspelled. The correct spelling is "affiliated," which means connected, associated, or linked to something.
  • In the context of the sentence, it refers to the college being connected or associated with the reviewing board or another entity.
  • Examples:
  • The university is affiliated with several research institutions.
  • Our company is affiliated with a global network of partners.
  • In summary, the correct answer is 4) afiliated, as it is misspelled. The correct spelling is "affiliated," which means connected or associated.
<br>

Correct Sentence: The board reviewing the courses offered by the affiliated college found that the quality of academic programs was usually good but somewhat irregular.

Additional Information

  • Let's discuss the other options:
  • irregular: This word is spelled correctly. It means not following a regular or consistent pattern. In the context of the sentence, it refers to the quality of academic programs being somewhat inconsistent.
  • academic: This word is spelled correctly. It relates to education, specifically to learning or scholarship in educational institutions. In the sentence, it describes the quality of academic programs.
  • review: This word is spelled correctly. It refers to the process of assessing, examining, or evaluating something. In the sentence, it indicates the action being taken by the board to assess the courses offered by the affiliated college.

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

The Sun is the star at the center of (1) __________ Solar System. It is a nearly perfect ball of hot plasma. The Sun has inspired us since ancient times. It’s central to mythology and religion in (2) ____________ around the world. It keeps our planet warm enough for living things to grow. It gives us light so we can see. It is by far the most important (3) _of energy for life on Earth. It is about a hundred times as wide (4) the Earth. If there were no sun, many things wouldn’t occur like photosynthesis or the presence of oxygen, which would have caused no existence of life.

Question 90

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

  1. AOption (a)

    huge

  2. BOption (b)

    typical

  3. COption (c)

    a

  4. DOption (d)

    the

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

the

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is 'the'.

Key Points

  • The correct answer for blank number 1 is 4) the.
  • The phrase "the Solar System" refers to our specific solar system, the one that includes the Earth and other planets orbiting the Sun.
  • In this context, "the" is used to indicate a particular and known entity, distinguishing it from other solar systems that may exist in the universe.
  • Example: "The Sun is the star at the center of the Solar System."
  • Here, "the" is used before "Solar System" to refer to our known and specific solar system, emphasizing that the Sun is the central star within our own system.
  • Using "a" (option 3) would imply that there are multiple solar systems, and the Sun is just one star in one of those systems, which is not the intended meaning in this context.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is 4) the.
<br>

Correct Paragraph: The Sun is the star at the center of (1) the Solar System. It is a nearly perfect ball of hot plasma. The Sun has inspired us since ancient times. It’s central to mythology and religion in (2) ____________ around the world. It keeps our planet warm enough for living things to grow. It gives us light so we can see. It is by far the most important (3) _of energy for life on Earth. It is about a hundred times as wide (4) the Earth. If there were no sun, many things wouldn’t occur like photosynthesis or the presence of oxygen, which would have caused no existence of life.

Question 91

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

  1. AOption (a)

    scenes

  2. BOption (b)

    processes

  3. COption (c)

    cultures

  4. DOption (d)

    types

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

cultures

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Cultures.

Key Points

  • The correct answer for blank number 2 is 3) cultures.
  • The phrase "in cultures" refers to various societies or civilizations around the world.
  • In this context, it indicates that the Sun holds significance in the mythologies and religions of different cultures.
  • "The Sun has inspired us since ancient times. It’s central to mythology and religion in cultures around the world."
  • This means that the Sun has played a significant role in the beliefs, stories, and religious practices of various societies throughout history.
  • Using "scenes" (option 1) would imply specific locations or settings where the Sun is observed, which is not the intended meaning in this context.
  • Using "processes" (option 2) would suggest that the Sun is central to certain natural processes, which is not the main focus of the sentence.
  • Using "types" (option 4) would not convey the intended meaning as it does not accurately describe the broad range of cultures being referred to.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is 3) cultures, as it appropriately indicates the diversity of societies and their beliefs related to the Sun.
<br>

Correct Paragraph: The Sun is the star at the center of (1) the Solar System. It is a nearly perfect ball of hot plasma. The Sun has inspired us since ancient times. It’s central to mythology and religion in (2) cultures around the world. It keeps our planet warm enough for living things to grow. It gives us light so we can see. It is by far the most important (3) _of energy for life on Earth. It is about a hundred times as wide (4) the Earth. If there were no sun, many things wouldn’t occur like photosynthesis or the presence of oxygen, which would have caused no existence of life.

Question 92

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

  1. AOption (a)

    control

  2. BOption (b)

    gesture

  3. COption (c)

    source

  4. DOption (d)

    symbol

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

source

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Source.

Key Points

  • The correct answer for blank number 3 is 3) source.
  • The word "source" accurately fits in the context of the sentence.
  • It refers to the origin or provider of energy for life on Earth, emphasizing the Sun's crucial role in sustaining life.
  • "It is by far the most important source of energy for life on Earth."
  • This indicates that the Sun is the primary supplier of energy, such as heat and light, which is essential for various biological processes and the existence of life itself.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is 3) source, as it accurately represents the Sun's role as the fundamental provider of energy for life on Earth.
<br>

Correct Paragraph: The Sun is the star at the center of (1) the Solar System. It is a nearly perfect ball of hot plasma. The Sun has inspired us since ancient times. It’s central to mythology and religion in (2) cultures around the world. It keeps our planet warm enough for living things to grow. It gives us light so we can see. It is by far the most important (3) source energy for life on Earth. It is about a hundred times as wide (4)________ the Earth. If there were no sun, many things wouldn’t occur like photosynthesis or the presence of oxygen, which would have caused no existence of life.

Additional Information

  • Using "control" (option 1) would suggest that the Sun has authority or power over energy, which does not align with its role as a provider of energy.
  • Using "gesture" (option 2) would not fit the context as it refers to a physical movement or expression, which is unrelated to the Sun's role in providing energy.
  • Using "symbol" (option 4) would imply that the Sun represents or signifies energy, rather than directly being the source of energy.

Question 93

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

  1. AOption (a)

    like

  2. BOption (b)

    as

  3. COption (c)

    than

  4. DOption (d)

    about

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

as

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is "as".

Key Points

  • The appropriate answer for blank number 4 is 2) as.
  • The word "as" is used to establish a comparison or similarity between two things.
  • In this context, it is used to compare the width of the Sun to the width of the Earth.
  • "It is about a hundred times as wide as the Earth."
  • This sentence expresses that the width of the Sun is approximately 100 times the width of the Earth.
  • The word "as" is used to establish the comparison between the two objects.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is 2) as, as it accurately establishes the comparison between the width of the Sun and the width of the Earth, highlighting their similarity in size.
<br>

Correct Paragraph: The Sun is the star at the center of (1) the Solar System. It is a nearly perfect ball of hot plasma. The Sun has inspired us since ancient times. It’s central to mythology and religion in (2) cultures around the world. It keeps our planet warm enough for living things to grow. It gives us light so we can see. It is by far the most important (3) source energy for life on Earth. It is about a hundred times as wide (4) as the Earth. If there were no sun, many things wouldn’t occur like photosynthesis or the presence of oxygen, which would have caused no existence of life.

Additional Information

  • Using "like" (option 1) would not fit the context because "like" is used to show similarity or resemblance, but it doesn't explicitly establish a comparison of quantity or degree.
  • Using "than" (option 3) would create an incorrect comparison. "Than" is used to indicate a difference or comparison between two things, but in this context, we want to establish the similarity in size between the Sun and the Earth.
  • Using "about" (option 4) doesn't convey the intended comparison and doesn't accurately describe the relationship between the width of the Sun and the width of the Earth.

Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it.

Notwithstanding logistical challenges posed by COVID19 pandemic, India continues to expand its rice exports footprint in the African, Asian and European Union markets, thus having the largest share in global rice trade. The robust global demand also helped India’s growth in rice exports.

In 2020-21, India’s rice exports (Basmati and Non-Basmati) rose by a huge 87 per cent to 17.72 Million Tonne (MT) from 9.49 MT achieved in 2019-20.

In terms of value realisation, India’s rice exports rose by 38 per cent to USD 8815 million in 2020-21 from USD 6397 million reported in 2019-20. In terms of Rupees, India’s rice export grew by 44 per cent to Rs 65298 crore in 2020-21 from Rs 45379 crore in the previous year. In the first seven months of the current financial year (2021-22), India’s rice exports rose by more than 33 per cent to 11.79 MT from 8.91 MT achieved during April-October, 2020-21. It is anticipated that India’s rice exports in 2021-22 would likely surpass the record feet of 17.72 MT achieved in 2020-21.

In 2020-21, India shipped non-basmati rice to nine countries - Timor-Leste, Puerto Rico, Brazil, Papua New Guinea, Zimbabwe, Burundi, Eswatini, Myanmar and Nicaragua, where exports were carried out for the first time or earlier the shipment was smaller in volume. India’s Non-Basmati rice exports was valued at USD 4796 million (Rs 35448crore) in 2020- 21, with Basmati Rice exports a close second at USD 4018 million (Rs 29,849 crore). In terms of volume of Basmati rice exports in 2020-21, top ten countries – Saudi Arabia, Iran, Iraq, Yemen, United Arab Emirates, United States of America, Kuwait, United Kingdom, Qatar and Oman have a share of close to 80 per cent in total shipments of aromatic long grained rice from India.

Top ten countries – Nepal, Benin, Bangladesh, Senegal, Togo, Cote D Ivoire, Guinea, Malaysia, Iraq, United Arab Emirates – have a share of 57 per cent in India’s total exports of non-Basmati rice in 2020-21 in terms of volume.

Question 94

What is the estimate of rice export in the year 2021-22?

  1. AOption (a)

    It will remain the same as the 17.72 MT rice export achieved in 2020-21.

  2. BOption (b)

    It may fall below the 17.72 MT rice export achieved in 2020-21.

  3. COption (c)

    It will exceed the 17.72 MT rice export achieved in 2020-21.

  4. DOption (d)

    It will not pass beyond the 17.72 MT rice export achieved in 2020-21.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

It will exceed the 17.72 MT rice export achieved in 2020-21.

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is It will exceed the 17.72 MT rice export achieved in 2020-21.

Key Points

  • Let's have a look at the last line of the third paragraph:
  • "It is anticipated that India’s rice exports in 2021-22 would likely surpass the record feet of 17.72 MT achieved in 2020-21."
  • Thus, it is clear that the estimate of rice export in the year 2021-22 will exceed the 17.72 MT rice export achieved in 2020-21.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Question 95

Which of the following questions cannot be answered on the basis of the above passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    How much Basmati rice was exported by India in 2020-21?

  2. BOption (b)

    How much rice (Basmati and Non Basmati) was exported by India in 2020-21?

  3. COption (c)

    Which top 10 countries buy Basmati rice from India?

  4. DOption (d)

    What was the value of Basmati rice export from India?

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

How much Basmati rice was exported by India in 2020-21?

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is ​How much Basmati rice was exported by India in 2020-21?

Key Points

  • In the second paragraph, it is stated, "In 2020-21, India’s rice exports (Basmati and Non-Basmati) rose by a huge 87 per cent to 17.72 Million Tonne (MT) from 9.49 MT achieved in 2019-20." Hence, the statement in option 2 is correct.
  • In the fourth paragraph, it is stated, "In terms of volume of Basmati rice exports in 2020-21, top ten countries – Saudi Arabia, Iran, Iraq, Yemen, United Arab Emirates, United States of America, Kuwait, United Kingdom, Qatar and Oman have a share of close to 80 per cent in total shipments of aromatic long grained rice from India." Hence, the statement in option 3 is correct.
  • In the fourth paragraph, it is stated, " India’s..... with Basmati Rice exports a close second at USD 4018 million (Rs 29,849 crore)."
  • As the individual export data of Basmati rice is unavailable, the statement in option 1 is cannot be answered.

Therefore, the correct answer is: How much Basmati rice was exported by India in 2020-21?

Question 96

Which of the following countries imported rice from India for the first time?

  1. AOption (a)

    Iraq

  2. BOption (b)

    Bangladesh

  3. COption (c)

    Brazil

  4. DOption (d)

    United Arab Emirates

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Brazil

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Brazil.

Key Points

  • Let's have a look at the first line of the fourth paragraph:
  • In 2020-21, India shipped non-basmati rice to nine countries - Timor-Leste, Puerto Rico, Brazil, Papua New Guinea, Zimbabwe, Burundi, Eswatini, Myanmar and Nicaragua, where exports were carried out for the first time or earlier the shipment was smaller in volume.
  • Thus, it is clear that of the countries given in options, Brazil is the country that imported rice from India for the first time.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Question 97

Which of the following countries imports Basmati rice from India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Malaysia

  2. BOption (b)

    Nepal

  3. COption (c)

    Bangladesh

  4. DOption (d)

    Kuwait

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Kuwait

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Kuwait.

Key Points

  • Let's have a look at the last line of the fourth paragraph:
  • In terms of volume of Basmati rice exports in 2020-21, top ten countries – Saudi Arabia, Iran, Iraq, Yemen, United Arab Emirates, United States of America, Kuwait, United Kingdom, Qatar and Oman have a share of close to 80 per cent in total shipments of aromatic long grained rice from India.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 4.

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

As the Sun inches closer to its peak activity in its solar cycle, an explosion has been picked up behind the north-eastern limb of the star in our solar system. Solar observatories saw bits and pieces of the explosion, which remain obscured in view from Earth's orbit.

The explosion was spotted on 31 July at around 2309 UT and Earth-orbiting satellites registered a long-lasting C9.3-class solar flare. "The intensity is probably an underestimate because it was partially eclipsed by the edge of the sun. Nasa's Solar Dynamics Observatory (SDO) saw hot debris flying away from the blast site," space weather, which tracks the solar activity, reported.

While the explosion was powerful, experts have predicted that Earth is not in the line of fire from the Sun. Scientists are expected to get a view of the active region later this week as it comes to sight. Earth is not in the line of fire. The explosion is significant because it may herald an active region set to emerge over the sun's north-eastern limb later this week. A new sunspot group could bring an end to weeks of relative quiet," space weather said in its report.

Question 98

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word from the passage.

Partially

  1. AOption (a)

    Supportively

  2. BOption (b)

    Partly

  3. COption (c)

    Frankly

  4. DOption (d)

    Completely

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Partly

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Partly.

Key Points

  • The word "partially" in the passage means to a certain extent or to some degree.
  • Example: "The intensity is probably an underestimate because it was partially eclipsed by the edge of the sun." In this sentence, "partially" indicates that the intensity was affected or obscured to some extent by the sun's edge.
  • The synonym "partly" conveys the same meaning of being incomplete or not fully.
  • Example: She was partly responsible for the success of the project.​
  • Now let's look at the other options:
  • Supportively: This word means to provide support or assistance to someone or something. It does not convey the same meaning as "partially" in the passage.
  • Example: "She always stood by her friend supportively during difficult times."
  • Frankly: This word means to be open, honest, and straightforward in speech or communication. It does not convey the same meaning as "partially" in the passage.
  • Example: "Frankly speaking, I don't agree with your decision."
  • Completely: This word means to the fullest extent or without any exceptions or omissions. It is the opposite of "partially" and does not convey the intended meaning.
  • Example: "The project is completely finished and ready for submission."
  • In summary, "partly" is the most appropriate synonym for "partially" in the passage as it accurately conveys the meaning of being incomplete or to some extent.

Question 99

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word from the passage.

Debris

  1. AOption (a)

    Detritus

  2. BOption (b)

    Rays

  3. COption (c)

    Specks

  4. DOption (d)

    Liquid

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Detritus

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Detritus.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate synonym for the word "debris" in the passage is 1) "Detritus."
  • Debris refers to scattered pieces or fragments that result from the destruction, explosion, or disintegration of something. In the context of the passage, the debris refers to the hot fragments flying away from the blast site of the solar explosion. These fragments are pieces of material that were ejected due to the explosive event on the Sun.
  • Example: After the earthquake, the streets were filled with debris from collapsed buildings.
  • "Detritus" is a suitable synonym for "debris" as it also refers to scattered fragments or remains resulting from disintegration or destruction. It represents the concept of scattered or broken pieces.
  • For example:
  • The storm left a trail of detritus in its wake, with tree branches and debris strewn across the streets.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is 1) "Detritus" as it best captures the meaning of "debris" as scattered fragments resulting from the explosion.

Additional Information

  • The other options are not suitable synonyms for "debris" in this context:
  • "Rays" refers to beams of light or radiation, which does not capture the idea of scattered fragments.
  • "Specks" refers to tiny particles or spots, which is not broad enough to encompass the concept of scattered fragments.
  • "Liquid" refers to a fluid state of matter, which is unrelated to the concept of scattered pieces or fragments.

Question 100

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word from the passage.

Spotted

  1. AOption (a)

    Witnessed

  2. BOption (b)

    Speckled

  3. COption (c)

    Splotchy

  4. DOption (d)

    Placed

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Witnessed

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Witnessed.

Key Points

  • The word "spotted" in the passage means to see or observe something, particularly when it is notable or of interest.
  • ​Example: "The explosion was spotted on 31 July..." In this sentence, "spotted" indicates that the explosion was observed or seen.
  • The synonym "witnessed" also conveys the meaning of seeing or observing something.
  • Example: I witnessed a beautiful sunset over the ocean last night.​
  • Now let's look at the other options:
  • Speckled: This word refers to having small specks or spots on something, usually with a connotation of irregular distribution. It does not capture the meaning of "spotted" as used in the passage.
  • Example: "The bird's feathers were speckled with dots of different colors."
  • Splotchy: This word describes something that has irregular patches or spots of color or texture. It does not convey the same meaning as "spotted" in the passage.
  • Example: "The painting had a splotchy appearance due to the uneven application of paint."
  • Placed: This word means to put or position something in a specific location. It does not capture the meaning of "spotted" in terms of seeing or observing.
  • Example: "She placed the vase on the shelf."
  • In summary, "witnessed" is the most appropriate synonym for "spotted" in the passage as it accurately conveys the meaning of seeing or observing something, particularly when it is notable or of interest.

Question 101

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word from the passage.

Peak

  1. AOption (a)

    Glance

  2. BOption (b)

    Point

  3. COption (c)

    Bottom

  4. DOption (d)

    Zenith

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Zenith

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Zenith.

Key Points

  • The word "peak" in the passage refers to the highest point or apex of something. In this context, it specifically refers to the peak activity of the Sun in its solar cycle.
  • Example: "As the Sun inches closer to its peak activity in its solar cycle..." In this sentence, "peak" indicates the highest level of solar activity.
  • The synonym "zenith" also conveys the meaning of the highest point or culmination of something.
  • Example: The athlete's career reached its zenith when she won an Olympic gold medal.​
  • Now let's look at the other options:
  • Glance: This word means to take a quick look or glimpse at something. It does not convey the same meaning as "peak" in the passage.
  • Example: "I glanced at the clock to see the time before leaving."
  • Point: While "point" can refer to a specific location or a sharp end of something, it does not capture the meaning of the highest or most intense level, as implied by "peak" in the passage.
  • Example: "She pointed out the direction to the nearest subway station."
  • Bottom: This word refers to the lowest part or the base of something. It is the opposite of "peak" and does not convey the intended meaning.
  • Example: "The rock sank to the bottom of the lake."
  • In summary, "zenith" is the most appropriate synonym for "peak" in the passage as it accurately captures the concept of the highest point or culmination of something, in this case, the Sun's peak activity in its solar cycle.

Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it.

Tens of thousands of people who lost their homes in a catastrophic earthquake huddled around campfires in the bitter cold and clamoured for food and water on Thursday, three days after the temblor hit Turkey and Syria and killed more than 19,300 on Monday, 6th February, 2023.

Emergency crews used pick axes, shovels and jackhammers to dig through twisted metal and concrete - and occasionally still pulled out survivors.

In the Turkish city of Antakya, dozens scrambled for aid in front of a truck distributing children's coats and other supplies. Many of those who lost their homes found shelter in tents, stadiums and other temporary accommodation, but others slept outdoors.

In Antakya, over 100 bodies were awaiting identification in a makeshift morgue outside a hospital.

Authorities called off search-and-rescue operations in the cities of Kilis and Sanliurfa, where destruction was not as severe as in other impacted regions.

The U.N. is authorised to deliver aid through only one border crossing, and road damage has prevented that thus far. U.N. Officials pleaded for humanitarian concerns to take precedence over wartime politics.

The scale of loss and suffering remained massive. Turkish authorities said on Thursday that the death toll had risen to more than 16,100 in the country, with more than 64,000 injured. In Syria, which includes government-held and rebel-held areas, more than 3,100 have been reported dead and more than 5,000 injured.

Rescue teams urged quiet in the hope of hearing stifled pleas for help, and the Syrian paramedic group known as the White Helmets noted that every second could mean saving a life. But more and more often, the teams pulled out dead bodies.

It was not clear how many people were still unaccounted for in both countries. Turkey's disaster-management agency said more than 110,000 rescue personnel were now taking part in the effort and more than 5,500 vehicles, including tractors, cranes, bulldozers and excavators had been shipped.

The Foreign Ministry said 95 countries have offered help. More than half of that number have sent a total of nearly 6,500 rescuers. Another 2,400 more are still expected to arrive. International aid for Syria was far more sparse.

Efforts there have been hampered by the civil war and the isolation of the rebel-held region along the border that is surrounded by Russia-backed government forces.

Question 102

How many foreign rescue workers are engaged in the rescue work?

  1. AOption (a)

    2400 rescue workers

  2. BOption (b)

    110,000 rescue workers

  3. COption (c)

    5000 rescue workers

  4. DOption (d)

    6500 rescue workers

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

6500 rescue workers

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is 6500 rescue workers.

Key Points

  • Based on the information provided in the passage, the correct answer is: 6500 rescue workers.
  • The line from which the correct answer has been extracted is:
  • "More than half of that number have sent a total of nearly 6,500 rescuers."
  • This line states that more than half of the 95 countries offering help have sent a total of nearly 6,500 rescuers.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is 4) 6500 rescue workers, as it represents the number of foreign rescue workers engaged in the rescue work.

Question 103

Match the words with their meaning.

Words meanings

a.clamoured1.checked
b.scrambled2.screamed
c.hampered3.jostled
  1. AOption (a)

    a - 2, b - 3, c - 1

  2. BOption (b)

    a - 2, b - 1, c - 3

  3. COption (c)

    a  - 3, b - 1, c - 2

  4. DOption (d)

    a - 1, b - 3, c - 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

a - 2, b - 3, c - 1

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

  • Based on the information provided in the passage, the correct matching of words with their meanings is:
  • a. clamoured - 2. screamed
  • b. scrambled - 3. jostled
  • c. hampered - 1. checked
  • The word "clamoured" in the context of the passage refers to people making a loud noise or demanding something urgently. It can be associated with the meaning of "screamed" (option 2). Here's an example:
  • The survivors clamoured for food and water, desperately screaming for assistance.
  • Screamed: This means to make a loud and piercing cry or sound.
  • Example sentence: The survivors clamoured for food and water, desperately screaming for assistance.
  • The word "scrambled" in the passage implies people rushing or competing for something, trying to obtain aid or supplies. It aligns with the meaning of "jostled" (option 3). For example:
  • Dozens scrambled for aid in front of the truck, jostling each other to receive children's coats and other supplies.
  • Jostled: This means to push, shove, or elbow someone in a crowded or competitive situation.
  • Example sentence: Dozens scrambled for aid in front of the truck, jostling each other to receive children's coats and other supplies.
  • The term "hampered" in the context suggests that efforts or actions were hindered or impeded due to certain factors. It corresponds to the meaning of "checked" (option 1). Here's an example:
  • The search-and-rescue operations were hampered by the less severe destruction in certain cities, and authorities decided to check and halt those efforts.
  • In the given context, the word "checked" is used in the sense of halting or stopping.
  • Hence, the correct answer is: **a - 2, b - 3, c - 1.**​

Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it.

Tens of thousands of people who lost their homes in a catastrophic earthquake huddled around campfires in the bitter cold and clamoured for food and water on Thursday, three days after the temblor hit Turkey and Syria and killed more than 19,300 on Monday, 6th February, 2023.

Emergency crews used pick axes, shovels and jackhammers to dig through twisted metal and concrete - and occasionally still pulled out survivors.

In the Turkish city of Antakya, dozens scrambled for aid in front of a truck distributing children's coats and other supplies. Many of those who lost their homes found shelter in tents, stadiums and other temporary accommodation, but others slept outdoors.

In Antakya, over 100 bodies were awaiting identification in a makeshift morgue outside a hospital.

Authorities called off search-and-rescue operations in the cities of Kilis and Sanliurfa, where destruction was not as severe as in other impacted regions.

The U.N. is authorised to deliver aid through only one border crossing, and road damage has prevented that thus far. U.N. Officials pleaded for humanitarian concerns to take precedence over wartime politics.

The scale of loss and suffering remained massive. Turkish authorities said on Thursday that the death toll had risen to more than 16,100 in the country, with more than 64,000 injured. In Syria, which includes government-held and rebel-held areas, more than 3,100 have been reported dead and more than 5,000 injured.

Rescue teams urged quiet in the hope of hearing stifled pleas for help, and the Syrian paramedic group known as the White Helmets noted that every second could mean saving a life. But more and more often, the teams pulled out dead bodies.

It was not clear how many people were still unaccounted for in both countries. Turkey's disaster-management agency said more than 110,000 rescue personnel were now taking part in the effort and more than 5,500 vehicles, including tractors, cranes, bulldozers and excavators had been shipped.

The Foreign Ministry said 95 countries have offered help. More than half of that number have sent a total of nearly 6,500 rescuers. Another 2,400 more are still expected to arrive. International aid for Syria was far more sparse.

Efforts there have been hampered by the civil war and the isolation of the rebel-held region along the border that is surrounded by Russia-backed government forces.

Question 104

Which of the following details is NOT mentioned in the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    The specific number of people still unaccounted for in both countries

  2. BOption (b)

    The foreign aid being offered to Turkey and Syria

  3. COption (c)

    The suffering of people in the earthquake hit areas of Turkey and Syria

  4. DOption (d)

    The rescue work being carried out in Turkey and Syria

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The specific number of people still unaccounted for in both countries

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Syria’s rebel-held areas and the Civil war going on there.

Key Points

  • The passage mentions the catastrophic earthquake that hit both Turkey and Syria, the suffering of people in the earthquake-hit areas, and the rescue work being carried out in Turkey and Syria.
  • However, it does not specifically highlight or discuss Syria's rebel-held areas and the ongoing civil war in that region.
  • These factors are not explicitly mentioned or emphasized in the passage.
  • Therefore, option 1 is the correct answer as it is the only option that is not directly mentioned or highlighted in the passage.

Question 105

Why is the International aid much lesser in Syria than in Turkey?

  1. AOption (a)

    Because Syria is a war–torn country and there are areas under rebels.

  2. BOption (b)

    Because the destruction was not as severe in Syria as in Turkey.

  3. COption (c)

    Because the UN is allowed only one border crossing and Syria is not allowing that.

  4. DOption (d)

    Because the roads have been damaged there

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Because Syria is a war–torn country and there are areas under rebels.

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Because Syria is a war–torn country and there are areas under rebels.

Key Points

  • The given answer is correct because the passage mentions that efforts in Syria have been hampered by the civil war and the isolation of the rebel-held region along the border that is surrounded by Russia-backed government forces.
  • This indicates that the conflict in Syria, along with the presence of rebels, has made it more difficult for international aid to reach the affected areas.
  • Therefore, the international aid in Syria is much lesser compared to Turkey due to the ongoing war and the complex political situation.
  • The relevant line from the passage that supports the correct answer is:
  • "Efforts there have been hampered by the civil war and the isolation of the rebel-held region along the border that is surrounded by Russia-backed government forces."
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 1.

Question 106

Match the columns.

NutrientsExamples
a.Protein1.Calcium, Phosphorous
b.Carbohydrates2.Cholesterol
c.Fat3.Glucose
d.Minerals4.Myosin
  1. AOption (a)

    a - i, b - iii, c - ii, d - iv

  2. BOption (b)

    a - iii, b - iv, c - ii, d - i

  3. COption (c)

    a - i, b - ii, c - iii, d - iv

  4. DOption (d)

    a - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d - i

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

a - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d - i

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is a - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d - i.

Key Points

  • The major nutrients in our food are named carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, and minerals.
  • In addition, food contains dietary fibers and water which are also needed by our bodies.
  • Carbohydrates and fats are energy-giving compounds.
<br>

Additional Information

  • Proteins:
  • Proteins are needed for the growth and repair of our body.
  • Food containing proteins is called bodybuilding food.
  • Examples of food rich in protein are beans, dal, meat, and soybean.
  • Carbohydrates and fats: ​
  • Foods containing fats and carbohydrates are also called ‘energy-giving foods’.
  • Examples: rice, wheat, sugar, ghee and butter.
  • Vitamins and Minerals:
  • They are needed by the body in small quantities to protect our bodies from diseases.
  • They are protective food.

Question 107

In India, who appoints the Advocate General of a State?

  1. AOption (a)

    Governor of the State

  2. BOption (b)

    Prime Minister of India

  3. COption (c)

    President of India

  4. DOption (d)

    Chief Minister of the State

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Governor of the State

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 

Key Points

  • Advocate General of states:
  • Article 165 of the Constitution talks about the Advocate General of states.
  • He is the highest law officer in the state.
  • He assists the state government in all its legal matters.
  • The Governor of each State shall appoint a person who is qualified to be appointed a Judge of a High Court to be an Advocate-General for the State.
  • The Advocate-General shall hold office at the pleasure of the Governor.
  • He shall receive such remuneration as the Governor may determine.
  • Governor of the state: 
  • He is the constitutional head of the state.
  • He is appointed by the president.
  • He must have at least 35 years of age to become a governor.

Additional Information

  • The Prime Minister of India
  • The Prime Minister of India is the leader of the executive of the Government of India.
  • The prime minister is also the chief adviser to the President of India and head of the Council of Ministers.
  • She/he can be a member of any of the two houses of the Parliament of India, the Lok Sabha (House of the People) and the Rajya Sabha (Council of the States).
  • President of India: He is the supreme commander of the Indian armed forces.
  • The qualifications to become a president are: 
  • He should be a citizen of India,
  • He must have completed 35 years of age.
  • He must be qualified to become a member of the Lok Sabha.
  • He should not hold any office of profit under the Union or state government.
  • Chief Minister of the state: 
  • The Chief Minister of the state of India is the 'elected' head of the government and the executive authority lies with the Chief Minister.
  • He is appointed by the respective State Governor.

Question 108

When did the Constitution of WHO come into force - a date which we now celebrate as World Health Day every year?

  1. AOption (a)

    5 April 1948

  2. BOption (b)

    7 April 1948

  3. COption (c)

    6 April 1948

  4. DOption (d)

    8 April 1948

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

7 April 1948

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 7 April 1948.

Key Points

  • World Health Day is celebrated on 7 April every year.
  • It was decided to celebrate World Health Day in 1948 in the First Health Assembly of the World Health Organization.
  • It was first celebrated in 1950.
  • It is one of the 11 official global health campaigns announced by WHO.​​

Additional Information

  • World Health Organization:
  • Founded – April 7, 1948
  • Headquarters – Geneva, Switzerland
  • Parent Organization – United Nations Economic and Social Council
  • Objective – Highest possible health level for all human beings
  • Publication – World Health Report
  • Regional offices – Brazzaville (Congo), Copenhagen (Denmark), New Delhi (India), Cairo (Egypt), Manila (The Philippines), Washington D.C. (US)

Question 109

India was named ‘Bharat’ after the name of the Bharat tribe. In which of the following Vedas is this tribe first mentioned?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rigveda

  2. BOption (b)

    Samaveda

  3. COption (c)

    Atharvaveda

  4. DOption (d)

    Yajurveda

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Rigveda

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Rigveda.

Key Points Bharatas were the Vedic tribe mentioned in Rigveda. The name Bharata was used for a group of people who lived in the northwest, and who are mentioned in the Rigveda, the earliest composition in Sanskrit. Later it was used for the country.

  • Vedic Period
  • It is the period in the late Bronze age and early Iron Age of the History of India when the Vedas were composed in the northern Indian subcontinent.
  • The associated culture was referred to as Vedic Civilization.
  • The entire Earth was called the Bharatvarsha but in particular, the area that lied south to the Himalayan Mountain was called the Bharatvarsha.
  • The Bharatvarsha was also known as Aryavarta meaning the land of Aryans.
  • Aryavarta and Bharat are mentioned in Vedas, many scriptures, and Mahabharata.
  • Bharatas were the Vedic tribe mentioned in Rigveda.​

Additional Information

  • Rig Veda:  
  • The oldest Veda is the Rigveda.
  • It has 1028 hymns called ‘Suktas’ and is a collection of 10 books called Mandalas.
  • The meaning of the word ‘Rigveda’ is Praise Knowledge.
  • Rigvedic books 2-9 deal with cosmology and deities.
  • Rigvedic books 1 and 10 deal with philosophical questions and also talk about various virtues including charity in society.
  • The meters used to form hymns are Gayatri, Anushtubh, Trishtubh, and Jagati (Trishtubh and Gayatri are most important).
  • Sama Veda:
  • Known as the Veda of melodies and chants, Samaveda dates back to 1200-800 BCE.
  • This Veda is related to public worship. T
  • here are 1549 verses (except 75 verses, all have been taken from Rigveda).
  • There are two Upanishads embedded in Samaveda – Chandogya Upanishad and Kena Upanishad.
  • Samaveda Samhita is not meant to be read as a text, it is like a musical score sheet that must be heard.
  • ​Yajur Veda:
  • Stands to mean ‘Worship Knowledge’.
  • Yajurveda dates back to 1100-800 BCE.
  • It compiles ritual-offering mantras/chants. These chants were offered by the priest alongside a person who used to perform a ritual (in most cases yajna fire.)
  • It has two types – Krishna (Black/Dark) & Shukla (White/Bright). Krishna Yajurveda has an un-arranged, unclear, motley collection of verses and Shukla Yajurveda has arranged and clear verses.
  • ​Atharva Veda:
  • Stands to mean a tatpurusha compound of Atharvan, an ancient sage, and knowledge.
  • It dates back to 1000-800 BCE.
  • It has 730 hymns/suktas, 6000 mantras, and 20 books.

Question 110

What do you call the drugs that bind to the receptor site and inhibit its natural function?

  1. AOption (a)

    Antidepressants

  2. BOption (b)

    Agonist

  3. COption (c)

    Antagonists

  4. DOption (d)

    Depressants

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Antagonists

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Antagonists.

Key Points

  • Antagonists
  • Drugs that bind to the receptor site and inhibit its natural function are called Antagonists.
  • Antagonists and agonists act differently.
  • Agonists combine with the receptor molecule and produce a biological response but antagonists combine with the receptors and inhibit their natural function.
  • Enzyme inhibitors inhibit the catalytic activity of the enzyme.

Additional Information

  • Antidepressants
  • Antidepressants are medications prescribed to treat various forms of depression and anxiety disorders.
  • They work by affecting neurotransmitters in the brain, such as serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine, which play a role in mood regulation.
  • Agonist
  • An agonist is a molecule or compound that activates a receptor, leading to a physiological or pharmacological response in a cell or organism.
  • Agonists can be naturally occurring, like hormones or neurotransmitters, or synthetic, like drugs.
  • Depressants
  • Depressants are substances that slow down the central nervous system (CNS), reducing neural activity and leading to relaxation, drowsiness, and decreased alertness.
  • They can have therapeutic uses, such as treating anxiety, insomnia, and muscle spasms.
  • Common depressants include alcohol, benzodiazepines (e.g., Valium, Xanax), barbiturates, and certain sleep medications.

Question 111

Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT with respect to Draft Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021, proposed in 2022?

A. Online games will have to register with a self-regulatory body, and only games cleared by the body will be allowed to legally operate in India.

B. Online gaming companies will not be allowed to engage in betting on the outcome of games, the proposed rules say.

C. According to the rules, there could be more than one self-regulatory body.

  1. AOption (a)

    A and B only

  2. BOption (b)

    A, B and C

  3. COption (c)

    B and C only

  4. DOption (d)

    A and C only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A, B and C

Why this answer is correct

Correct Answer A, B and C

Key Points

  • Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MEITY) has released the draft rules pertaining to online gaming by amending the Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021.
  • These rules are released by MEITY for the comments of the public and shall remain open for such comments till 17th Jan. 2023.
  • he proposed rules add definitions for online games and online gaming intermediaries and put restrictions on games related to betting, gambling, or the participation of minors.
  • Online gaming intermediaries will need to register with a self-regulatory body, which must be registered with the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, and must display their registration details on their website or mobile application.
  • The self-regulatory body will be composed of several individuals with different backgrounds, and the online gaming intermediary must display a visible mark of registration on all online games registered by the self-regulatory body.
  • Gaming companies will also have to secure a Random Number Generation Certificate to ensure game outputs are statistically random and unpredictable, and a "no bot certificate" from a reputed certifying body.
  • Online intermediaries will be required to identify and verify the identity of the user (KYC) while starting a user account-based relationship.
  • They will also need to appoint a Chief Compliance Officer, a nodal contact person, and publish a physical contact address in India on their website or mobile application.

Additional Information Why in the news?

  • Social media platforms and other intermediaries on the Internet are now required to remove PIB-flagged fake news articles about the Union Government from their platforms.
  • The new amendment of the IT Rules means that Social media platforms will no longer enjoy legal immunity on content posted by their users.
  • Platforms can now be called as a party in court proceedings. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Minister of State for Electronics and Information Technology said that platforms will not be required to take down content due to this Rule alone, but they will not enjoy the legal immunity that they currently benefit from for content posted by their users. They can now be called as a party in court proceedings.
  • The changes were notified through the Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Amendment Rules, 2023, amending the IT Rules, 2021.

Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Amendment Rules, 2023:

  • Social Media Platforms:
  • The rules require social media platforms with a certain number of users in the country to establish a physical presence, including a registered office, in the country.
  • This aims to ensure that these platforms are more accountable to the laws and regulations of the country and can be held liable for any content that violates the rules.
  • Content Removal and Traceability:
  • The rules mandate social media platforms to remove or disable access to any unlawful content or information.a
  • They are also required to maintain records of the origin of information, which can be used to trace the originator of any unlawful content.
  • This is aimed at combating the spread of fake news, misinformation, and illegal content online.
  • User verification:
  • Social media intermediaries are required to take measures to verify the identity of their users, especially for significant social media intermediaries.
  • Voluntary user verification:
  • The IT Rules now allow for voluntary user verification, which means users have the option to verify their accounts with social media intermediaries using government-issued ID proofs.
  • Emergency blocking of content:
  • In cases where there is an emergency situation that threatens public order, the government can direct social media intermediaries to block access to certain content within 24 hours.
  • Data retention:
  • Social media intermediaries are required to retain user data for 180 days for investigation and prevention of cybersecurity incidents, and they are also required to provide information to the government agencies as and when requested.
  • Grievance Redressal Mechanism:
  • Social media platforms are required to establish a grievance redressal mechanism to address complaints from users and resolve them in a timely manner.
  • This aims to provide users with a channel to report objectionable content and seek remedies for any violations of their rights.
  • Code of Ethics for Digital Media:
  • The rules introduce a code of ethics for digital media, including online news portals and OTT (Over-The-Top) platforms.
  • This code includes guidelines related to the portrayal of prohibited content, journalistic conduct, and user-generated content.
  • Digital media platforms are required to classify their content into appropriate categories and follow the prescribed code of ethics.
  • Self-Regulatory Body:
  • The rules provide for the establishment of a self-regulatory body by digital media platforms, which will oversee the implementation of the code of ethics and address grievances related to digital media. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • This self-regulatory body will be required to register with the government and comply with certain guidelines.
  • Government Oversight:
  • The rules also give the government the authority to issue directions to social media platforms and digital media platforms for compliance with the rules.
  • Failure to comply with these directions can result in penalties and other legal consequences.

Question 112

When was the None of the Above (NOTA) ballot option first implemented in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    2015

  2. BOption (b)

    2004

  3. COption (c)

    2013

  4. DOption (d)

    2010

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2013

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2013. 

**Key Points:**NOTA:

  • "None of the Above" (or NOTA) has been provided as an option in 2013.
  • The 'None of the Above option, simply put, gives the voter the right to express a negative opinion by not selecting any of the candidates in the fray.
  • While it may seem that NOTA has been around for a long time, it actually came into force only in 2013.

​Thus, the NOTA option was first used in the 2013 A.D. elections in India.

Important Points:

  • The first time it was used was during the Assembly elections held in Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Mizoram, and Delhi.
  • On 27 September 2013, the Supreme Court of India ruled that the right to register a "none of the above" vote in elections should apply, while ordering the Election Commission to provide a button for the same in the electronic voting machines.
  • The option of NOTA for Lok Sabha and assembly elections was prescribed by the SC in 2013.
  • The option of NOTA in Rajya Sabha polls was introduced by the EC in 2014.

Additional Information:

  • https://eci.gov.in/important-instructions/
  • 11.09.2018 - Provision for "None of the above" (NOTA) option on the ballot paper for elections to Rajya Sabha and State Legislative Council-withdrawing the provision-reg.

Question 113

Which of the following is/are one of the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals?

(A) Zero Hunger

(B) Climate Action

(C) Life Below Water

(D) Quality Education

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B, C and D 

  2. BOption (b)

    A and B

  3. COption (c)

    B and C

  4. DOption (d)

    A, C and D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A, B, C and D 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A, B, C and D 

Key Points: Sustainable Development Goals: 

  • The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) or Global Goals are a collection of 17 interlinked global goals designed to be a "blueprint to achieve a better and more sustainable future for all".
  • The SDGs were set up in 2015 by the United Nations General Assembly and are intended to be achieved by the year 2030.

17 interlinked global goals are as follows: 

  • Goal 1. End poverty in all its forms everywhere
  • Goal 2 End hunger achieve food security and improved nutrition and promote sustainable agriculture
  • Goal 3 Ensure healthy lives and promote well-being for all at all ages
  • Goal 4 Ensure  inclusive  and  equitable  quality  education  and  promote  lifelong learning opportunities for all
  • Goal5. Achieve gender equality and empower all women and girls
  • Goal 6 Ensure availability and sustainable management of water and sanitation for all
  • Goal 7 Ensure access to affordable, reliable, sustainable and modern energy for all
  • Goal 8 Promote sustained inclusive and sustainable economic growth, full and productive employment and decent work for all
  • Goal 9 Build resilient infrastructure, promote inclusive and sustainable industrialization and foster innovation
  • Goal 10 Reduce inequality within and among countries
  • Goal 11 Make cities and human settlements inclusive, safe, resilient and sustainable
  • Goal 12.Ensure sustainable consumption and production patterns
  • Goal 13 Take urgent action to combat climate change and its impacts
  • Goal 14 Conserve and sustainably use the oceans, seas and marine resources for sustainable  development
  • Goal 15 Protect, restore and promote sustainable use of terrestrial ecosystems, sustainably manage forests, combat desertification, and haltand+ reverse land degradation and halt  biodiversity loss
  • Goal 16 Promote peaceful and inclusive societies for sustainable development, provide access to justice for all and build effective, accountable and inclusive institutions at all levels
  • Goal 17. Strengthen the means of implementation and revitalize the Global Partnership for Sustainable Development.
  • Each goal typically has 8–12 targets, and each target has between 1 and 4 indicators used to measure progress toward reaching the targets. The targets are either "outcome" targets (circumstances to be attained) or "means of implementation" targets. The latter targets were introduced late in the process of negotiating the SDGs to address the concern of some Member States about how the SDGs were to be achieved. Goal 17 is wholly about how the SDGs will be achieved.

Additional Information:

  • The 17 SDGs are (1) No Poverty, (2) Zero Hunger, (3) Good Health and Well-being, (4) Quality Education, (5) Gender Equality, (6) Clean Water and Sanitation, (7) Affordable and Clean Energy, (8) Decent Work and Economic Growth, (9) Industry, Innovation and Infrastructure, (10) Reducing Inequality, (11) Sustainable Cities and Communities, (12) Responsible Consumption and Production, (13) Climate Action, (14) Life Below Water, (15) Life On Land, (16) Peace, Justice, and Strong Institutions, (17) Partnerships for the Goals.

Question 114

Match the columns.

Column - AColumn - A
i.Electric currenta.Henry
ii.Potential differenceb.Farad
iii.Capacitancec.Volt
iv.Inductanced.Ampere
  1. AOption (a)

    i - a, ii - b, iii - c, iv - d

  2. BOption (b)

    i - b, ii - a, iii - c, iv - d

  3. COption (c)

    i - d, ii - c, iii - b, iv - a

  4. DOption (d)

    i - a, ii - c, iii - b, iv - d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

i - d, ii - c, iii - b, iv - a

Why this answer is correct

Correct Answer i - d, ii - c, iii - b, iv - a

Key Points Inductance:

  • Inductor is a device (Coil) that stores energy in the form of magnetic energy for a certain time and releases it after that time period.
  • It opposes the instantaneous change in the current flowing through the system.
  • Inductance is the tendency of an electrical conductor to oppose a change in the electric current flowing through it.
  • In honor of the physicist Heinrich Lenz, the unit of inductance is the Henry (H).

Farad:

CONCEPT:

  • Capacitor: A capacitor is a device that stores electrical energy in an electric field.
  • It is a passive electronic component with two terminals.
  • The effect of a capacitor is known as capacitance.
  • Capacitance: The capacitance is the capacity of the capacitor to store charge in it. Two conductors are separated by an insinuator (dielectric) and when an electric field is applied, electrical energy is stored in it as a charge.
  • The capacitance of a capacitor (C): The capacitance of a conductor is the ratio of charge (Q) to it by a rise in its potential (V), i.e.
  • C = Q/V
  • The unit of capacitance is the farad, (symbol F ).
  • Farad is a large unit so generally, we using μF.

EXPLANATION:

Units of capacitance:

  • The SI unit of capacitance is the farad (F), named in honor of Michael Faraday.
  • The capacitance of the conductor is 1 farad if the addition of a charge of 1 coulomb to it, increases its potential by 1 volt.

Ampere:

  • The SI unit of electric current is Ampere (A).
  • When 1 coulomb of electric charge passes through a unit region in 1  second then it is said to be 1 ampere of current.
  • i = Q/t, where I (current) in ampere, Q(charge of an electron) in Coulomb and t (time) in second.
  • An Ammeter is used to measure the electric current.
  • Coulomb (C) is the unit of electric charge.
  • Joule (J) is the SI unit of energy.
  • Volt (V)  is the unit of potential difference.

Question 115

The Supreme Court of India rejected the plea of ___________ to quash the summons issued by the Delhi Legislative Assembly’s Committee on Peace and Harmony for inquiry related to the Delhi riots in February 2020.

  1. AOption (a)

    Instagram

  2. BOption (b)

    Snapchat

  3. COption (c)

    Facebook

  4. DOption (d)

    Twitter

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Facebook

Why this answer is correct

Correct Answer Facebook

Key Points

  • In August 2020, the Delhi Legislative Assembly's Committee on Peace and Harmony issued a summons to Facebook India Vice President Ajit Mohan, along with other officials of the social media giant, to appear before it to answer questions related to the alleged role of Facebook in the Delhi riots in February 2020.
  • Ajit Mohan had approached the Supreme Court of India challenging the summons, arguing that the Committee did not have the jurisdiction to issue such summons to him.
  • He was a resident of Bangalore and Facebook's India office was headquartered in Mumbai, and the Delhi Assembly's Committee could not exercise its powers beyond the territory of Delhi.
  • However, on April 22, 2021, the Supreme Court dismissed Ajit Mohan's plea and upheld the Delhi Assembly's Committee's power to summon him and other Facebook officials.
  • The Court observed that the issue of jurisdiction could not be raised at this stage and that the Committee was well within its rights to summon Ajit Mohan and seek his appearance before it.
  • The Delhi Assembly's Committee on Peace and Harmony is investigating the role of Facebook in the Delhi riots, specifically looking into allegations of hate speech and misinformation being spread on the platform during the communal violence that took place in February 2020.

Additional Information:

  • The Supreme Court, under appellate jurisdiction, conducts hearings against the courts of the lower courts.
  • Cases of High Courts are brought to the Supreme Court by constitutional, civil, criminal, and special permission.
  • In India, there are 25 High Courts, six having control over more than one State/UT.
  • Delhi the Capital of India, has a High Court of its own among the Union Territories.
  • Every High Court of India shall consist of a Chief Justice and such other judges as appointed by the President of India.
  • The Supreme Court of India is the highest judicial court under the Constitution of India.
  • Article 124 provides for the establishment and constitution of the Supreme Court.
  • It is Established as the Supreme court of India on 28th January 1950 and its Headquarters in New Delhi.
  • Also known as the 'guardian of our Constitution"
  • The chief justice of India is the head of the Supreme Court of India.
  • Justice D.Y. Chandrachud is the current 50th chief justice of India.
  • After the appointment of the new four justices on 18 September 2019, the strength of the Supreme court increases from 30 to 34.
  • Newly appointed judges Krishna Murari, SR Bhat, V Ramasubramanian, and Hrishikesh Roy.
  • The Parliament of India has the power to increase or decrease the number of judges in the Supreme court.

**Important Points:**In order to be named as a Judge of the Supreme Court,

  • a person must be a citizen of India and must have been a Judge of the High Court or of two or more of those Courts in succession for at least five years, or an Advocate of the High Court or of two or more of those Courts in succession for at least 10 years, or must be a distinguished jurist in the view of the President.
  • There are arrangements for the selection of a Justice of the High Court as an ad hoc Judge of the Supreme Court and for the sitting and acting of a Judge of that Court by retired Judges of the Supreme Court or High Courts.​

Question 116

Which crops are benefitted from the temperate cyclones arising from the Mediterranean Sea that cause rainfall in Punjab?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rabi crops 

  2. BOption (b)

    Zaid crops

  3. COption (c)

    Cash crops

  4. DOption (d)

    Kharif crops

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Rabi crops 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Rabi crops.

Key Points

  • In northwestern India, some weak temperate cyclones from the Mediterranean sea cause rainfall in Punjab, Haryana, Delhi, and western Uttar Pradesh.
  • The western cyclonic disturbances which enter the Indian subcontinent from the west and the northwest during the winter months, originate over the Mediterranean Sea and are brought into India by the westerly jet stream.
  • Although the amount is meager, it is highly beneficial for rabi crops.
  • The precipitation is in the form of snowfall in the lower Himalayas.
  • It is this snow that sustains the flow of water in the Himalayan rivers during the summer months.
  • The precipitation goes on decreasing from west to east in the plains and from north to south in the mountains.
  • The average winter rainfall in Delhi is around 53 mm.
  • In Punjab and Bihar, rainfall remains between 25 mm and 18 mm respectively.
  • During October and November, the northeast monsoon while crossing over the Bay of Bengal picks up moisture and causes torrential rainfall over the Tamil Nadu coast, southern Andhra Pradesh, southeast Karnataka, and southeast Kerala.

Additional Information

  • Southwest monsoon season: 
  • The period from June to September is referred to as the 'Southwest Monsoon' period.
  • The Southwest Monsoon period is the principal rainy season for the Indian subcontinent.
  • This is the summer monsoon period where the southwest monsoon holds away over the country.
  • The whole country receives nearly 75% of its rainfall during this period.

Question 117

The population of India is _____ according to Census 2011.

  1. AOption (a)

    1.4 billion

  2. BOption (b)

    1.21 billion

  3. COption (c)

    1.5 billion

  4. DOption (d)

    1.11 billion

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1.21 billion

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1.21 billion.

Key Points

  • India’s population has jumped to 1.21 billion, showing an increase by more than 181 million during the 2001-2011 decade, according to the data of Census 2011.
  • Though the country’s population is almost equal to the combined population of the U.S., Indonesia, Brazil, Pakistan, Bangladesh, and Japan put together [1214.3 million], the silver lining is that 2001-2011 is the first decade except 1911-1921 which has actually added lesser population compared to the previous decade.
  • India’s population as per the 2011 census is​ 1210.2 million, the number of males was pegged at 623.7 million and the population of females stood at 586.5 million. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
  • The percentage growth in 2001-2011 was 17.64 – males 17.19 and females 18.12. India’s population accounts for the world’s 17.5 percent population.

Additional Information Census 2011

  • Among the States and Union Territories, Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state with 199 million people followed by Maharashtra at 112 million people and Lakshadweep is the least populated at 64,429 persons.
  • The combined population of the U.P. and Maharashtra is greater than that of the U.S.
  • The percentage of decadal growth rates of the six most populous States have declined during 2001-2011 as compared to 1991-2001.
  • The graph of population growth in U.P. shows a decline from 25.85 percent to 20.09 percent, in Maharashtra from 22.73 percent to 15.99 percent, Bihar from 28.62 percent to 25.07 percent, West Bengal from 17.77 percent to 13.93 percent, Andhra Pradesh from 14.59 percent to 11.10 percent and Madhya Pradesh from 24.26 percent to 20.30 percent.

Question 118

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Supreme Court judgement on validity of 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act?

A. The Supreme Court of India’s Constitutional Bench for this case consisted of 5 judges.

B. The Constitutional Bench upholds the 10% of EWS reservation with 3-2 majority.

C. As per the Supreme Court judgement, the 103rd Constitutional Amendment is valid although it is violating the Basic Structure of the Indian Constitution.

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B and C

  2. BOption (b)

    A and C only

  3. COption (c)

    B and C only

  4. DOption (d)

    A and B only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A and B only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A and B only.

Key Points

  • The 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act was passed in January 2019 and it provided for a 10% reservation in government jobs and educational institutions for economically weaker sections (EWS) of the society who are not covered under existing reservations for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes.
  • The main argument against the Amendment was that it violates the basic structure of the Constitution, which includes the principle of equality and the principle of reservation as enshrined in the Constitution.
  • In a landmark judgement delivered on May 5, 2021, a Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court upheld the validity of the 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act.
  • The Bench comprised of 5 Justices Ashok Bhushan, L Nageswara Rao, S Abdul Nazeer, Hemant Gupta, and S Ravindra Bhat.
  • The Supreme Court held that the 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act does not violate the basic structure of the Constitution.
  • The Court held that the principle of reservation is not an immutable feature of the Constitution and that the State has the power to provide for reservation to any socially and educationally backward class of citizens.
  • The Court also held that the 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act is a valid exercise of the State's power to provide for reservation.
  • The Constitutional Bench upholds the 10% of EWS reservation with 3-2 majority.
  • The Supreme Court also held that the 10% reservation for EWS provided under the 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act is not limited to any particular religion or caste and is available to all those who are economically backward and do not fall within the scope of the existing reservations for SCs, STs, and OBCs.

Additional Information 

AmendmentYearDescription
42nd Amendment1976This amendment introduced the term "Socialist, Secular and Integrity" in the Preamble of the Constitution, and also expanded the scope of Fundamental Rights. It also gave more power to the Prime Minister and curtailed the power of the judiciary.
73rd Amendment1992This amendment provided constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) and devolved powers and functions to them. It also reserved seats for women and Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the PRIs.
74th Amendment1992This amendment provided constitutional status to Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) and devolved powers and functions to them. It also reserved seats for women and Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the ULBs.
86th Amendment2002This amendment made education a fundamental right for children between the ages of 6 and 14. It also added Article 21A to the Constitution, which guarantees free and compulsory education to all children in this age group.
97th Amendment2011This amendment provided for the formation of co-operative societies as a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(c) of the Constitution. It also made it mandatory for states to conduct regular elections to co-operative societies.
101st Amendment2016This amendment enabled the implementation of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India, which replaced multiple indirect taxes with a single tax system.

Question 119

Who found an empirical relationship between the half-life of alpha decay and the energy of the emitted alpha particles in 1911?

  1. AOption (a)

    Fermi and Meitner

  2. BOption (b)

    Geiger and Nuttall

  3. COption (c)

    Chadwick and Lawrence

  4. DOption (d)

    Soddy and Aston

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Geiger and Nuttall

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Geiger and Nuttall.

Key Points

  • In 1911, the New Zealand physicist Ernest Rutherford, along with his colleagues Hans Geiger and Ernest Marsden, conducted the famous gold foil experiment, which led to the discovery of the atomic nucleus.
  • During this experiment, they also found an empirical relationship between the half-life of alpha decay and the energy of the emitted alpha particles. This relationship is now known as the Rutherford's law of radioactive decay.
  • The law states that the rate of alpha decay is directly proportional to the energy of the emitted alpha particles.
  • Specifically, the law states that the logarithm of the half-life of alpha decay is linearly related to the logarithm of the energy of the emitted alpha particles.
  • The law has been found to hold true for a wide range of alpha decay processes and has been an important tool for understanding the behavior of radioactive elements.

Additional Information 

ExperimentFounderDescription
Millikan Oil Drop ExperimentRobert MillikanDetermined the charge of an electron and measured the value of Planck's constant.
Rutherford Gold Foil ExperimentErnest RutherfordDiscovered the atomic nucleus and proposed the Rutherford model of the atom, which has a central nucleus with electrons orbiting around it.
Lavoisier's Oxygen Theory of CombustionAntoine LavoisierDemonstrated that combustion requires oxygen and that the mass of products formed in a chemical reaction is equal to the mass of reactants.
Haber-Bosch ProcessFritz Haber and Carl BoschDeveloped a method for synthesizing ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen gases, which is a key component of modern fertilizers.
Faraday's Law of Electromagnetic InductionMichael FaradayDiscovered the relationship between a changing magnetic field and an induced electric current, which is the basis of electric generators and motors.
Pasteur's Experiment on FermentationLouis PasteurShowed that fermentation is caused by microorganisms and not a spontaneous chemical reaction, and also developed the process of pasteurization to kill harmful bacteria in food and drink.

Question 120

Nutritional care during illness is an organised group of activities which consists of all of the following except:

  1. AOption (a)

    assessing psychological stress

  2. BOption (b)

    assessing nutritional status

  3. COption (c)

    planning and prioritising nutrition intervention(s) to meet nutritional needs 

  4. DOption (d)

    diagnosis of nutritional problems

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

assessing psychological stress

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is assessing psychological stress.

Key Points

  • Assessing psychological stress is an important aspect of overall health and well-being, and it can certainly impact a person's nutritional status and food choices.
  • However, it may not be considered a part of nutritional care during illness for several reasons.
  • Firstly, nutritional care during illness typically focuses on the specific nutritional needs and challenges that arise as a result of the illness itself.
  • This includes assessing the impact of the illness on a person's appetite, digestion, and nutrient requirements, as well as identifying any barriers to meeting those needs.
  • Secondly, while psychological stress can certainly impact a person's nutritional status, it may be better addressed through other means.
  • For example, a person experiencing significant stress or anxiety may benefit from counselling, stress reduction techniques, or other forms of mental health support.
  • Lastly, in some cases, addressing nutritional needs may actually help alleviate some of the symptoms of psychological stress.
  • For example, certain nutrients, such as omega-3 fatty acids and B vitamins, have been shown to have a positive impact on mood and cognitive function.
  • Overall, while assessing psychological stress may not be considered a part of nutritional care during illness, it is certainly an important aspect of overall health and well-being that should be addressed as needed.

Additional Information

  • Digestive system:
  • The food components gradually get digested as food travels through the various compartments.
  • The inner walls of the stomach and the small intestine, and the various glands associated with the canal such as salivary glands, the liver and the pancreas secrete digestive juices.
  • The digestive juices convert complex substances of food into simpler ones.
  • The digestive tract and the associated glands together constitute the digestive system.

Question 121

Which of the following Articles mentions about a Uniform Civil Code throughout the territory of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Article 44

  2. BOption (b)

    Article 39

  3. COption (c)

    Article 40

  4. DOption (d)

    Article 50

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Article 44

Why this answer is correct

  • The correct answer is 'Article 44'.

Key Points

  • Article 44 of the Indian Constitution contains the provisions regarding Uniform Civil Code for the citizens.
  • It lays down that "the State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India".
  • A Uniform Civil Code means that all sections of the society irrespective of their religion shall be treated equally according to a national civil code, which shall be applicable to all uniformly.
  • They cover areas like marriage, divorce, maintenance, inheritance, adoption, and succession of the property.
  • The article corresponds with Directive Principles of State Policy.

Additional Information

ArticleProvision
Article 39- The State shall direct its policy towards securing: - that the citizens, men and women equally, have the right to an adequate means of livelihood - that the ownership and control of the material resources of the community are so distributed as to best serve the common good - that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment; - that there is equal pay for equal work for both men and women; - that the health and strength of workers, men and women, and the tender age of children are not abused and that citizens are not forced by economic necessity to enter avocations unsuited to their age or strength.
Article 40- The State shall take steps to organise village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government.
Article 50- The State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State at all levels of the judiciary.

Question 122

Identify the correct statement.

  1. AOption (a)

    Newton is a unit of force.

  2. BOption (b)

    Newton is a unit of power.

  3. COption (c)

    Joule is a unit of force.

  4. DOption (d)

    Joule is a unit of power.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Newton is a unit of force.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Newton is a unit of force.

Key Points

Force (F) is defined as the pushing or pulling of an object, due to which the motion of the body will be changed.

  • Mathematically, a force can be written as:

F = ma

Where m = mass of the body and a = acceleration of the body

  • Force is a vector quantity.
  • SI Unit of force is Newton. Therefore 1 N = 1 kg m/s2
  • In the CGS system, the absolute unit of force is dyne.
  • Therefore 1 dyne = 1 g cm/s2.

Additional Information

MeasureUnit
LengthMeter (m)
MassKilogram (kg)
TimeSecond (s)
TemperatureCelsius (°C) or Kelvin (K)
Electric currentAmpere (A)
Amount of substanceMole (mol)
Luminous intensityCandela (cd)
EnergyJoule (J)
PowerWatt (W)
PressurePascal (Pa)
ForceNewton (N)
Speed/VelocityMeter per second (m/s)
AccelerationMeter per second squared (m/s²)
FrequencyHertz (Hz)
Electric chargeCoulomb (C)
VoltageVolt (V)
ResistanceOhm (Ω)
Electric capacitanceFarad (F)
Magnetic fluxWeber (Wb)
Magnetic field strengthTesla (T)

Question 123

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Government of India’s New Integrated Food Security Scheme?

A. This New Integrated Food Security Scheme has been started on 1 January 2023.

B. The Government of India targeted to supply food grains to more than 80 crores beneficiaries under the National Food Security Act.

C. First time this food grains supply programme was brought under the Ministry of Social Justice for effective implementation.

  1. AOption (a)

    B and C only

  2. BOption (b)

    A and C only

  3. COption (c)

    A, B and C

  4. DOption (d)

    A and B only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A and B only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A and B only.

Key Points

  • Centre has named the new Integrated Food Security Scheme as Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Ann Yojana, PMGKAY.
  • Cabinet had approved a new integrated food security scheme for providing free foodgrains to Antodaya Ann Yojna and Primary Household beneficiaries.
  • Implementation of the new scheme started from January 1, 2023.
  • It will benefit more than 80 crore poor and the poorest of poor people.
  • The integrated scheme will strengthen the provisions of the National Food Security Act in terms of accessibility, affordability, and availability of foodgrains for the poor.
  • The Government of India targeted to supply food grains to more than 80 crores beneficiaries under the National Food Security Act.
  • The Central Government will spend more than two lakh crore rupees in 2023 as food subsidies under NFSA and other welfare schemes, to remove the financial burden of the poor and the poorest of the poor.

Additional Information

  • Union Cabinet has approved providing free foodgrains under the National Food Security Act till December 2023.
  • Addressing the media, Union Minister for Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution Piyush Goyal said that around 81.35 crore beneficiaries who earlier used to procure foodgrains at subsidised rates will now get the foodgrains free of cost.
  • He said, the Centre would bear the entire cost amounting to around 2 lakh crore rupees per year.
  • The National Food Security Act 2013 (also 'Right to Food Act') is an Indian Act of Parliament which aims to provide subsidized food grains to approximately two thirds of the country's 1.2 billion people.
  • The act was signed into law on 12 September 2013, retroactive to 5 July 2013.
  • The National Food Security Act, 2013 (NFSA 2013) converts into legal entitlements for existing food security programmes of the Government of India. It includes the Midday Meal Scheme, Integrated Child Development Services scheme and the Public Distribution System.
  • Further, the NFSA 2013 recognizes maternity entitlements.
  • The Midday Meal Scheme and the Integrated Child Development Services Scheme are universal in nature whereas the PDS will reach about two-thirds of the population (75% in rural areas and 50% in urban areas).
  • Under the provisions of the bill, beneficiaries of the Public Distribution System (or, PDS) are entitled to 5 kilograms (11 lb) per person per month of cereals.

Question 124

Match the columns.

Slash and burn agricultureAssociated State
(A)Dahiya(I)Jharkhand
(B)Kuruwa(II)Odisha
(C)Bringa(III)Andhra Pradesh
(D)Penda(IV)Madhya Pradesh
  1. AOption (a)

    A - IV, B - II, C - I, D - III

  2. BOption (b)

    A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

  3. COption (c)

    A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III

  4. DOption (d)

    A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III.

Key Points

Slash and burn agricultureAssociated State
DahiyaMadhya Pradesh
KuruwaJharkhand
BringaOdisha
PendaAndhra Pradesh

Important Points

  • Dahiya slash and burn agriculture is a traditional farming method.
  • It involves clearing a section of forest or woodland, cultivating the land for a few years, and then moving on to a new area once the soil has been depleted.
  • The term "Dahiya" comes from the Hindi word for "land clearance," and refers to the initial stage of clearing the land by burning it.
  • Dahiya method, is also practiced in the state of Madhya Pradesh in India, particularly in the Bastar region.
  • This farming technique is also known by other local names such as "Bewar" or "Dipa."
  • Kuruwand Slash and burn agriculture is a traditional farming method.
  • It involves clearing a section of forest or woodland, cultivating the land for a few years, and then moving on to a new area once the soil has been depleted.
  • This farming method is associated with the state of **Jharkhand in India, particularly in the region of Ranchi.**​
  • Bringa Slash and burn agriculture is a traditional farming method.
  • It involves clearing a section of forest or woodland, cultivating the land for a few years, and then moving on to a new area once the soil has been depleted.
  • This farming method is associated with the state of Odisha in India, particularly in the region of Mayurbhanj.
  • The Bringa method is also known as "Dahi" in some areas of Odisha.
  • Penda Slash and burn agriculture is a traditional farming method.
  • Penda Slash and burn agriculture is primarily associated with the state of Andhra Pradesh.

Question 125

The intervention of the government whether to expand demand or reduce it constitutes the ___________.

  1. AOption (a)

    speculative function

  2. BOption (b)

    redistribution function

  3. COption (c)

    stabilisation function

  4. DOption (d)

    transaction function

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

stabilisation function

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3. 

Key Points

  • Stabilisation Function of Government Budget The government may need to correct fluctuations in income and employment.
  • The overall level of employment and prices in the economy depends upon the level of aggregate demand which depends on the spending decisions of millions of private economic agents apart from the government.
  • These decisions, in turn, depend on many factors such as income and credit availability.
  • In any period, the level of demand may not be sufficient for full utilisation of labour and otherresources of the economy.
  • Since wages and prices do not fall below a level, employment cannot be brought back to the earlier level automatically.
  • The government needs to intervene to raise the aggregate demand.
  • On the other hand, there may be times when demand exceeds available output under conditions of high employment and thus may give rise to inflation.
  • In such situations, restrictive conditions may be needed to reduce demand.
  • The intervention of the government whether to expand demand or reduce it constitutes the stabilisation function.

​

Additional Information

  • The government sector affects the personal disposable income of households by making transfers and collecting taxes.
  • It is through this that the government can change the distribution of income and bring about a distribution that is considered ‘fair’ by society. This is the redistribution function.
  • Speculation involves trading a financial instrument involving high risk, in expectation of significant returns.
  • The motive is to take maximum advantage from fluctuations in the market.
  • A transaction is a monetary activity that is recorded as an entry in accounting records and has a monetary effect on the financial statements.

Question 126

Who had assumed the title of Balban?

  1. AOption (a)

    Kabir Khan

  2. BOption (b)

    Farid Khan

  3. COption (c)

    Ulugh Khan

  4. DOption (d)

    Ayaz Khan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Ulugh Khan

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3. 

Key Points

  • After a period of chaos since the death of Razia, Ulugh Khan, one of her main opponents, consolidated power in his own hand between 1246 to 1287 CE.
  • He took the title of 'Sultan Ghiyas-ud-din Balban' on ascending the throne of the Mamluk Dynasty Delhi Sultanate in 1265 CE.
  • Another Ulugh Khan was later appointed as the governor of Awadh and eventually rose to become the Sultan of Delhi himself in Khalji Dynasty Jalal-ud-din-Khalji, ruling from 1290 to 1296 CE.
  • However, he did not assume the title of Balban, as that title was specific to the earlier Sultan, Ghiyasuddin Balban, who ruled from 1266 to 1287 CE.

​

Additional Information

  • The Delhi Sultanate was a Muslim kingdom that ruled over large parts of India from 1206 to 1526 AD.
  • The sultanate was established by Qutub-ud-din Aibak, a Turkish slave general who was appointed as the governor of Delhi by the Ghurid dynasty of Afghanistan.
  • The Delhi Sultanate was divided into five dynasties: the Slave Dynasty, the Khalji Dynasty, the Tughlaq Dynasty, the Sayyid Dynasty, and the Lodi Dynasty.
  • Each dynasty was characterized by its own distinct political, social, and cultural features.
  • The Sultanate was known for its strong military and political leadership, as well as its architectural achievements.
  • The most famous architectural examples of the Delhi Sultanate are the Qutub Minar and the Alai Darwaza, both located in Delhi.
  • The Delhi Sultanate was also a period of cultural and intellectual flourishing, with notable poets, scholars, and philosophers such as Amir Khusro, Ibn Battuta, and Al-Biruni contributing to the rich intellectual and cultural heritage of the region.
  • The Delhi Sultanate was eventually replaced by the Mughal Empire in 1526, which continued to rule over India until the mid-19th century.

Question 127

In 1845, which German chemist published a method for the synthesis of acetic acid, a natural product containing two carbon atoms?

  1. AOption (a)

    Friedrich Wohler

  2. BOption (b)

    Marcellin Berthelot

  3. COption (c)

    Joseph Gay-Lussac

  4. DOption (d)

    Hermann Kolbe

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Hermann Kolbe

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4. 

Key Points

  • In 1845, the German chemist Hermann Kolbe published a method for the synthesis of acetic acid, which is a natural product containing two carbon atoms.
  • Kolbe's method involved the electrolysis of sodium acetate to produce acetic acid and carbon dioxide.
  • This was a significant breakthrough in organic chemistry, as it demonstrated that organic compounds could be synthesized from inorganic starting materials using chemical reactions.
  • Kolbe's work laid the foundation for the development of modern organic chemistry and helped to establish the concept of structural isomerism.​

Additional Information

  • Friedrich Wohler (1800-1882) was a German chemist who is best known for his synthesis of urea, which demonstrated that organic compounds could be artificially synthesized from inorganic starting materials.
  • In 1828, Wohler synthesized urea, which is a naturally occurring organic compound found in urine, from inorganic materials, namely ammonium cyanate.
  • Marcellin Berthelot (1827-1907) was a French chemist, politician, and historian of science.
  • He is best known for his work in thermochemistry, which is the study of the relationship between heat and chemical reactions.
  • Berthelot's contributions to thermochemistry helped to establish the concept of energy conservation in chemical reactions and laid the foundation for the development of the field of physical chemistry.
  • Joseph Louis Gay-Lussac (1778-1850) was a French chemist and physicist who made important contributions to the fields of chemistry and gas laws.
  • He is best known for his work on the laws governing the behavior of gases, particularly his discovery of the law of combining volumes, which states that when gases combine chemically, they do so in volumes that are in a simple ratio to one another.
  • Gay-Lussac also made significant contributions to the study of acids and bases, organic chemistry, and the chemical composition of water.
  • He is credited with the discovery of cyanogen, a compound that contains both carbon and nitrogen, and he was the first to isolate boron and to suggest that it was an element.

Question 128

Assume that exchange rate between the US Dollar and Indian Rupee is 1=₹55.Nowifthisexchangerateincreasesto1 = ₹55. Now if this exchange rate increases to 1 = ₹60, then in this case the Indian Rupee has ____ in comparison to the US dollar.

  1. AOption (a)

    depreciated

  2. BOption (b)

    appreciated

  3. COption (c)

    Demonetised

  4. DOption (d)

    overvalued

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

depreciated

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1. 

Key Points

  • If the exchange rate between the US Dollar and Indian Rupee increases from 1=₹55to1 = ₹55 to 1 = ₹60, then the Indian Rupee has depreciated in comparison to the US Dollar.
  • This means that it now takes more Indian Rupees to purchase one US Dollar than before. In other words, the US Dollar has become stronger relative to the Indian Rupee.

Additional Information

  • Exchange rates fluctuate based on a variety of factors, including supply and demand, economic and political events, and central bank policies.
  • Exchange rates can have significant impacts on international trade, investment, and financial transactions.
  • For example, a strong currency may make imports cheaper but could make exports more expensive, while a weak currency can have the opposite effect.
  • The money market in India is a market where short-term financial instruments are traded.
  • It is a sub-part of the overall Indian financial system and plays a crucial role in maintaining the liquidity of the financial system.
  • The money market deals with financial instruments that have a maturity period of up to one year.
  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central bank of India and plays a crucial role in regulating the money market.
  • The RBI manages the money supply in the economy through various tools such as open market operations, bank rate, and cash reserve ratio.
  • The RBI also issues various short-term instruments such as treasury bills and manages the interest rates for short-term borrowing and lending in the economy.

Question 129

Consider the following statements about the main reasons for the excessive cold in north India during the cold weather season and identify which of the statements are correct.

  1. States like Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan, being far away from the moderating influence of sea, experience continental climate.
  2. The snowfall in the nearby Himalayan ranges creates a cold wave situation.
  3. Around February, the cold winds coming from the Caspian Sea and Turkmenistan bring a cold wave along with frost and fog over the northwestern parts of India.
  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    1 and 3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1 and 2 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

  • The states of Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan in northern India experience a continental climate due to their location far away from the moderating influence of the sea.
  • A continental climate is characterized by extreme temperatures, with hot summers and cold winters.
  • The absence of large water bodies means that these states do not experience the moderating effect of the sea, which helps to keep temperatures moderate and stable.
  • In the summer, temperatures can soar above 40°C (104°F), while in winter, they can drop below freezing point.

Additional Information

  • Snowfall in the nearby Himalayan ranges can lead to a cold wave situation in the surrounding areas.
  • This is because cold air is transported from the higher altitude regions to the lower altitude areas, leading to a drop in temperature.
  • During the winter months, when the snowfall is at its peak in the Himalayan ranges, the temperature in the surrounding areas can drop significantly.
  • The cold air mass moves downwards due to the force of gravity, causing the temperature to fall rapidly.
  • The Western Disturbance is a cyclonic storm that originates in the Mediterranean region and moves towards India, bringing with it cold air from the Caspian Sea and Turkmenistan.
  • This weather pattern can result in heavy snowfall in the higher altitudes of the Himalayas and cause a drop in temperature in the plains, leading to frost and fog in some areas.
  • The Western Disturbance is an important source of winter precipitation for the northwestern parts of India and plays a crucial role in the region's agriculture and water supply.

Question 130

In which year, the Koya rebellion took place in the eastern Godavari tract?

  1. AOption (a)

    1882-1883

  2. BOption (b)

    1874-1875

  3. COption (c)

    1879-1880

  4. DOption (d)

    1887-1888

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1879-1880

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3. 

Key Points

  • The Koya rebellion took place in the eastern Godavari tract in the years 1879-1880.
  • The rebellion was led by the Koya tribe, who were protesting against the oppressive policies of the British colonial administration, including the imposition of taxes, forced labor, and the destruction of their traditional way of life.
  • The Koya rebellion was a part of a larger movement of tribal uprisings that took place in colonial India in the 19th century, and was one of the last major tribal revolts against the British before India gained independence in 1947.
  • Despite putting up a fierce resistance, the Koya rebels were eventually defeated by the British, who used their military might to crush the uprising.

Additional Information

  • The British rule in India began in 1757 with the Battle of Plassey, when the British East India Company gained control of the Bengal region of India.
  • Over time, the British expanded their control over the Indian subcontinent through a combination of military conquest, diplomacy, and political manipulation.
  • By the mid-19th century, the British had established a colonial administration in India and controlled most of the territory through a system of direct and indirect rule.
  • British colonialism in India had a profound impact on the country's social, economic, and political structures.
  • The British introduced modern education, law, and administrative systems, which brought about significant changes in Indian society.
  • However, they also exploited India's resources and imposed oppressive policies that led to widespread poverty, famine, and social unrest.
  • The Indian independence movement, which began in the late 19th century, sought to end British rule in India and establish a free and independent India.
  • The movement was led by Indian nationalist leaders such as Mahatma Gandhi, Jawaharlal Nehru, and Subhash Chandra Bose, who used nonviolent protests and civil disobedience to challenge British authority.
  • India finally gained independence from British rule on August 15, 1947, following a long and difficult struggle for freedom.

Computer Knowledge (20 questions)

Question 131

Α _________ is a networking device that filters network traffic while connecting multiple computers or communicating devices.

  1. AOption (a)

    router

  2. BOption (b)

    gateway

  3. COption (c)

    switch

  4. DOption (d)

    repeater

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

switch

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3, i.e., Switch.

Key Points

  • Connecting device:
  • Devices that are used to connect other devices are called connecting devices. Types of connecting devices are:
  • Repeater: 
  • A repeater is a device that receives signals and before it becomes too weak or corrupted the repeater regenerates the original bit pattern and sends the data.
  • It is like a refreshing station for data while travelling.
  • Hub:
  • A hub is a multiport repeater.
  • A hub can connect more than two segments of a LAN where a repeater can connect only two segments.
  • It also does not have any filtering capabilities like a repeater.
  • Bridge:
  • A bridge operates in both the physical layer and the data link layer.
  • As a physical layer device, it can regenerate bits and as a data link layer device, it can check the physical addresses contained in the frame.
  • Bits can be carried to any distance by using properly spaced repeaters, but the collision domain will not allow this and that’s why Bridge are required.
  • Router:
  • A router is a three-layer device; physical, data link and network layer.
  • As a physical layer device, it can regenerate a bit, as a data link layer device the router can check the physical addresses contained in a packet and as a network layer device, it can check the network layer addresses (addresses in IP layer).
  • Switch:
  • ​A switch is a networking device that connects multiple devices together and filters network traffic to ensure that data is sent to the correct destination.
  • It operates at the data link layer of the OSI model, and it uses the physical addresses (MAC addresses) of devices to make forwarding decisions. Switches are commonly used in local area networks (LANs) to connect computers, printers, and other devices.

Additional Information 

  • Connecting devices are bridges between the different parts of a document that tie all of the pieces together into one coherent package.
  • Connecting devices show the reader how various sections of information are related, and they help keep the reader on track with the flow of information.
  • Documents which do not include connecting devices are disjointed, choppy and difficult to read.
  • Connecting devices are analogous to the traffic signals people rely on when driving.
  • Imagine a major metropolitan area, such as Seattle, without bridges, traffic signs or traffic lights to guide drivers through traffic.
  • The same is true of a document that lacks connecting devices: the reader will have a difficult time following the writer's train of thought and the document will not flow smoothly.

Note: Distributor is not a common networking term, but it could refer to a device that distributes power or signals to multiple devices.

Question 132

Which of the following is not a LibreOffice Software Suite program? 

  1. AOption (a)

    LibreOffice Writer

  2. BOption (b)

    LibreOffice Excel

  3. COption (c)

    LibreOffice Calc

  4. DOption (d)

    LibreOffice Impress

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

LibreOffice Excel

Why this answer is correct

LibreOffice is a free and open-source office suite, consisting of several applications for word processing, spreadsheets, presentations, graphics, and databases.

  • The correct option is 2) LibreOffice Excel, as Excel is a proprietary spreadsheet application developed by Microsoft and not a part of the LibreOffice suite.

Additional Information

  • LibreOffice Writer: A word processing application similar to Microsoft Word, used for creating and editing documents, letters, and other text-based files.
  • LibreOffice Calc: A spreadsheet application similar to Microsoft Excel, used for organizing, analyzing, and presenting data in a tabular format.
  • LibreOffice Impress: A presentation application similar to Microsoft PowerPoint, used for creating and delivering multimedia presentations with text, graphics, and animations.

Question 133

Which among the following is not a magnetic storage? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Winchester disk

  2. BOption (b)

    Floppy Drive

  3. COption (c)

    Memory Card 

  4. DOption (d)

    Magnetic Tape

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Memory Card 

Why this answer is correct

  • Winchester disk: A Winchester disk, also known as a hard disk drive, is a magnetic storage device that stores and retrieves digital information using rapidly rotating disks coated with magnetic material.
  • Floppy Drive: A floppy disk drive is a magnetic storage device that uses a flexible, removable disk coated with magnetic material to store and retrieve digital information.
  • Memory Card: A memory card is a solid-state storage device that uses flash memory to store and retrieve digital information. It does not use magnetic storage technology.
  • Magnetic Tape: Magnetic tape is a magnetic storage medium that uses a long, narrow strip of plastic coated with magnetic material to store and retrieve digital information.

So, the correct option is 3) Memory Card, as it is not a magnetic storage device.

Question 134

Which among the following type of computer is also known as notebook? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Micro Computer

  2. BOption (b)

    Multi Core

  3. COption (c)

    Work Station

  4. DOption (d)

    Laptop Computer

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Laptop Computer

Why this answer is correct

  • A Laptop notebook computer is a battery- or AC-powered personal computer generally smaller than a briefcase that can easily be transported and conveniently used in temporary spaces such as on aeroplanes, in libraries, temporary offices, and at meetings.
  • A notebook computer sometimes called a laptop computer, typically weighs less than 5 pounds and is 3 inches or less in thickness.

Question 135

_______ is the bit-rate of available or consumed information capacity expressed typically in metric multiples of bits per second. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Frequency

  2. BOption (b)

    Protocol

  3. COption (c)

    Speed

  4. DOption (d)

    Bandwidth

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Bandwidth

Why this answer is correct

  • In computing, bandwidth is the bit-rate of available or consumed information capacity expressed typically in metric multiples of bits per second.
  • Variously, bandwidth may be characterized as network bandwidth, data bandwidth, or digital bandwidth.
  • This definition of bandwidth is in contrast to the field of signal processing, wireless communications, modem data transmission, digital communications, and electronics, in which bandwidth is used to refer to analog signal bandwidth measured in hertz, meaning the frequency range between lowest and highest attainable frequency while meeting a well-defined impairment level in signal power.

Question 136

________ holds address of the active memory location.

  1. AOption (a)

    Stack pointer

  2. BOption (b)

    Program Counter

  3. COption (c)

    Memory Address Register

  4. DOption (d)

    Instruction Register

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Memory Address Register

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Memory address register.

Key Points

  • In a computer, the Memory Address Register (MAR) is the CPU register that stores either the memory address from which data will be brought to the CPU registers or the address to which data will be sent and stored via the system bus.

Additional Information

  • In computing, the instruction register (IR) is the part of a CPU's control unit that holds the instruction currently being executed or decoded.
  • In simple processors, each instruction to be executed is loaded into an instruction register, which it holds while it is decoded, prepared and eventually executed, which may have several steps.
  • The Output Registers (OR) hold the output after processing the input data.
  • A memory buffer register is a register in a computer's processor, or central processing unit, CPU, that transfers data to and from an immediate access store.

Question 137

Which of the following shortcut key is used to select all cells of the current row in MS - Excel 2010 worksheet? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Shift + Page down

  2. BOption (b)

    Shift + Spacebar

  3. COption (c)

    Shift + Page up

  4. DOption (d)

    Ctrl + Spacebar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Shift + Spacebar

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Shift+Spacebar.

Key Points

  • The Shift+Spacebar keyboard shortcut in Excel 2010 is used to select all cells of the current row.
  • Ctrl+Spacebar shortcut selects the entire column.
  • Clicking ctrl+spacebar once selects the table column data whereas clicking crtl+spacebar twice selects the entire table column.
  • You can also do this by clicking the top edge of the column header in the table.

Additional Information

  • To select a table row, click the first cell in the table row, then click the ctrl+shift+right arrow.
  • To select all rows and columns, click anywhere in the table and click ctrl+A.
  • Ctrl+Alt+F9 shortcut calculates all worksheets in all open workbooks, regardless of whether they have changed since their last calculation.
  • F9 shortcut calculates all worksheets in all workbooks.

Question 138

_________ records everything you type on your PC in order to obtain your log-in name, passwords and other sensitive information. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Virus

  2. BOption (b)

    Keyloggers

  3. COption (c)

    Worms

  4. DOption (d)

    Ransomware

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Keyloggers

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2.

Concept:

Keyloggers, also known as keystroke loggers, are software applications or hardware devices that record the activity (keys tapped) on a keyboard. Keyloggers are a type of spyware in which users are unaware that their actions are being recorded.

Spyware: Spyware is a type of malicious software or malware that is installed on a computing device without the end user's knowledge.

Keyloggers Characteristics:

  • Keyloggers are a type of malware.
  • Keyloggers are a particularly insidious type of spyware that can record and steal consecutive keystrokes (and much more) that the user enters on a device.
  • The term keylogger, or "keystroke logger," is self-explanatory: Software that logs what you type on your keyboard.
  • However, keyloggers can also enable cybercriminals to eavesdrop on you, watch you on your system camera, or listen over your smartphone's microphone.
  • Keyloggers may be used for a number of objectives, including fraudulently gaining access to your private information and monitoring staff actions. Some keyloggers may also record your screen at random intervals; these are known as screen recorders.
  • A keylogger is a malicious computer application that records everything you write on the keyboard and learns the keystroke pattern, including words, characters, and symbols, and then sends all of the recorded information to hostile hackers.

Hence the correct answer is option 2.

Question 139

Crypto Locker is a form of which of the following? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Ransomware

  2. BOption (b)

    Adware

  3. COption (c)

    Spyware

  4. DOption (d)

    Worms

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Ransomware

Why this answer is correct

Correct Answer 1. Ransomware

CryptoLocker ransomware is a file-encrypting ransomware, which encrypts the personal documents found on victim's computer using RSA-2048 key (AES CBC 256-bit encryption algorithm), then displays a message which offers to decrypt the data if a payment of about 2.05 Bitcoins, or approximately $1300 is made.

Important Points

Let us explain each term:

Ransomware: Ransomware is a type of malicious software (malware) that encrypts a user's data.

  • The attacker then demands a ransom from the victim to restore access to the data upon payment.
  • CryptoLocker is a notorious example of this type of malware.
  • It propagates usually via malicious email attachments and when activated, encrypts certain types of files on the system using RSA public key cryptography, with the private key stored only on the malware's control servers.
  • The malware then displays a message which offers to decrypt the data if a payment (through either Bitcoin or a pre-paid cash voucher) is made by a stated deadline.

 

Adware: Adware is a type of software that automatically delivers advertisements. It is usually unwanted, as it can be intrusive and harm your computer.

  • Some adware can also be a form of spyware—programs designed to monitor users' web browsing to display unwanted advertisements.
  • However, not all adware has malicious intent and some businesses genuinely use it as a method for generating advertising revenue.

 

Spyware: Spyware is a type of malware that is installed on a computer without the user's knowledge in order to collect their personal information, details about their internet usage, and other important data.

  • Spyware is used for many purposes.
  • Usually, it aims to track and sell your internet usage data, capture your credit card or bank account information, or steal your personal identity.

 

Worms: A worm is a standalone malware computer program that replicates itself in order to spread to other computers.

  • It often uses a computer network to spread itself, relying on security failures on the target computer to access it.
  • Unlike a virus, it does not need to attach itself to an existing program.
  • Worms almost always cause at least some harm to the network, if only by consuming bandwidth, whereas viruses almost always corrupt or modify files on a targeted computer.

Question 140

Which of the following is a web browser created and developed by Microsoft? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Opera

  2. BOption (b)

    Chrome

  3. COption (c)

    Edge

  4. DOption (d)

    Brave

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Edge

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Microsoft Edge.

  • Microsoft's new Windows 10 web browser will be called 'Microsoft Edge'.
  • Microsoft Edge is a cross-platform web browser developed by Microsoft.

Additional Information

  • It was first released for Windows 10 and Xbox One in 2015.
  • Then for Android and iOS in 2017, for macOS in 2019, and as a preview for Linux in October 2020.
  • Edge includes integration with Cortana and has extensions hosted on the Microsoft Store.

Question 141

In MS-Word 365, Ctrl + E is the keyboard shortcut to _________.

  1. AOption (a)

    justify the selected text

  2. BOption (b)

    centre align the selected text

  3. COption (c)

    right align the selected text

  4. DOption (d)

    display the file menu options

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

centre align the selected text

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2

Key Points

  • Ctrl + Y is used to perform a "redo" operation in MS-Word.
  • Ctrl + Z is used to perform an "undo" operation in MS-Word.
  • Undo means to cancel or reverse the effects or results of (a previous action or measure).
  • Redo means to do (something) again or differently.
  • Center the text - Ctrl+E.

Additional Information

Important Shortcut keys used in MS Word:

  • Cut the selected content to the Clipboard - Ctrl+X
  • Copy the selected content to the Clipboard - Ctrl+C
  • Paste the contents of the Clipboard -Ctrl+V
  • Increase the font size by 1 point.- Ctrl+]
  • Align the text to the left - Ctrl+L.

Question 142

Consider the following statements regarding line spacing of a paragraph in MS-Word 2010:

P: Line spacing determines the amount of vertical space between lines of text in a paragraph.

Q: Line spacing determines the amount of diagonal space between lines of text in a paragraph

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Only P

  2. BOption (b)

    Both P and Q

  3. COption (c)

    Neither P nor Q

  4. DOption (d)

    Only Q

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only P

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is (1)

Concept:-

Line spacing in MS-Word 2010 determines the amount of vertical space between lines of text in a paragraph. It is the distance between the baselines of consecutive lines of text. It can be adjusted using the Line Spacing options in the Paragraph group on the Home tab of the ribbon.

Option Q is incorrect as diagonal spacing between lines of text is not a valid concept in MS-Word.

In general, there are four different line spacing options for words: single, 1.5 times, double, or a custom amount, where the numbers indicate the size of the space in relation to the width of a line.

Key Points

  • We have the flexibility to change the distance between two lines of text thanks to the line spacing option in MS Word or any other word processing program.
  • In Word, the standard line spacing is 1.15. By default, headings have a space above them, and paragraphs are followed by a blank line.
  • On the Home Tab, click the Line spacing command. From the menu, choose Remove Space Following a Paragraph or Add Space Before a Paragraph.

Additional Information 

Question 143

Which one of the following folders is used to store deleted emails? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Trash

  2. BOption (b)

    Spam

  3. COption (c)

    Inbox

  4. DOption (d)

    Drafts

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Trash

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is (1)

Trash

Key Points 

  • A message that you delete remains in your trash for 30 days. It will be permanently erased after that point.
  • On Gmail and Google Apps, an archived message defaults to the Archive folder or All Mail while a deleted message goes into the trash folder.
  • Your deleted emails can be automatically removed from your trash folder permanently depending on your email provider or company's policies (often after 30 days).
  • Check your Gmail inbox now. There is a list of folders on the left side of the screen (Inbox, Starred, Spam, etc). Your deleted emails will be located in a folder labeled "Trash" or "Bin" (the name of the folder depends on the user's language preferences).

Additional Information 

Inbox:- a location on a computer where emails sent to you are stored.

Outbox:- Without an internet connection, users can read, reply to, and delete emails. All of your emails from the outbox are immediately sent whenever you're back online. Your emails might still be sitting in Gmail's outbox if you've been using this feature.

Spam:- Email spam, commonly referred to as junk email, is the practice of sending unwanted email messages in mass to a large list of subscribers.

Question 144

Which among the following ports is also called as mouse port? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Video Graphic Array

  2. BOption (b)

    High Definition Media Interface

  3. COption (c)

    Firewire

  4. DOption (d)

    PS/2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

PS/2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is PS/2 

Key Points 

  • There are various types of computer ports such as USB ports, Ethernet ports, PS/2 ports, VGA ports etc.
  • The DIN is a round connector with pins arranged in a circular pattern used for connecting PC keyboards, MIDI instruments etc.
  • Mini DIN connectors are small in size compared to regular DINs, but the pins are arranged horizontally unlike in normal DIN.
  • PS/2 or PS/02 is a DIN connector available with 6 pins. It is used to connect keyboards and mice and was developed by IBM. Hence option 4 is correct.
  • These ports are available in different colours like purple for the keyboard and green for the mouse.

Additional Information 

  • The Video Graphics Array or VGA port is a 3-row 15-pin connector. It is used in monitors, video cards, projectors etc. This port carries video signals up to 648X480 resolution.
  • The function of the USB ports is to connect computer peripherals like printers, keyboards, external hard drives etc.
  • The Ethernet port is used as a network cable to the PC. It establishes an internet connection to the computer. It is a Local Area Network or LAN.

Question 145

_________ displays a list of utility configure the computer system and install software and hardware.  

  1. AOption (a)

    Run

  2. BOption (b)

    Control Panel

  3. COption (c)

    Taskbar

  4. DOption (d)

    Help and Support

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Control Panel

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is "Control Panel".

  • Control Panel is a built-in feature in the Windows operating system that provides a centralized location to configure and manage various settings for the computer system, as well as to install software and hardware.
  • It contains a variety of applets or utilities, each of which provides access to specific settings or tasks.
  • Examples of applets in the Control Panel include "Programs and Features", which allows you to install and uninstall programs, "Device Manager", which allows you to manage hardware devices installed on the computer, "Display Settings", which allows you to adjust the display resolution and other settings, and "User Accounts", which allows you to manage user accounts on the computer.

Additional Information

  • Help and Support is a feature that provides access to help documentation and support resources for Windows and other software applications. It contains a variety of articles, tutorials, and troubleshooting guides to help users resolve common issues and learn how to use different features of the operating system and applications.
  • Taskbar is a bar that appears at the bottom of the Windows desktop, displaying a list of open programs and providing quick access to various system settings and features, such as the Start menu, notifications, and system tray.
  • Run is a feature that allows you to quickly open and run programs, files, and system commands by typing in their names or file paths in the "Run" dialog box. It is accessed by pressing the "Windows key + R" keyboard shortcut.

Question 146

_________ was the first browser to display images inline with text instead of displaying images in a separate window. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Mozilla

  2. BOption (b)

    Mosaic

  3. COption (c)

    Lynx

  4. DOption (d)

    Opera

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Mosaic

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

  • Mosaic  was the first web browser to display images alongside text, as opposed to in a separate window.
  • It was the first browser to achieve widespread popularity when it was released in 1993.
  • Mosaic was created by Marc Andreessen and Eric Bina at the University of Illinois at Urbana-National Champaign's Center for Supercomputing Applications (NCSA).

Additional Information

  • In 2002, Mozilla, an open-source web browser, was initially released. It is based on the same codebase as Netscape Navigator and was developed by the Mozilla Foundation.
  • The text-based web browser Lynx was initially released in 1992. It is intended for visually impaired users or those who prefer a simplified browsing experience.
  • Opera is a web browser that was released for the first time in 1995. It is renowned for its speed and security features, in addition to its support for cutting-edge web technologies.

Question 147

________ are a set of wires, which carries a group of bits in parallel and has an associated control scheme. It provides a communication path between two or more devices of a computer system. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Buses

  2. BOption (b)

    Control Unit

  3. COption (c)

    Register

  4. DOption (d)

    Cache

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Buses

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1.

Buses are a set of wires, which carries a group of bits in parallel and has an associated control scheme. It provides a communication path between two or more devices of a computer system. The bus transmits data, memory addresses, and control signals between the CPU, memory, and I/O devices, among other computer components.

Additional Information

  • Control unit is a CPU component that manages the data flow between the CPU and other devices. It interprets instructions retrieved from memory and generates control signals to direct the operation of other computer components.
  • Register is a small amount of fast memory used to temporarily store data in the CPU during processing. Registers can store data, address information, and control signals.
  • Cache is a small, high-speed memory used to temporarily store frequently accessed data or instructions in order to facilitate faster access. The cache is situated near the CPU to reduce access times.

Question 148

What will the function given below return in MS-Excel 2010?

=MATCH (12, {10,13, 30, 40, 60},1)

  1. AOption (a)

    0

  2. BOption (b)

    1

  3. COption (c)

    #N/A

  4. DOption (d)

    2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1

Why this answer is correct

MATCH function

  • The MATCH function in Excel is used to locate a specific item within a range of cells. In this case, the function is looking for the position of the number 12 in the array ten, thirteen, thirty, forty, and sixty.
  • The MATCH function has the following syntax: =MATCH (lookup value, lookup array, [match type], lookup value).
  • So, =MATCH (12, {10,13, 30, 40, 60},1) will return 1.
  • Here, the lookup value in this case is 12, and the lookup array is 10, 13, 30, 40, 60. The match type is set to 1, which means that the function will search the lookup array for the largest value that is less than or equal to the lookup value. Because the number 12 is less than the array's first value (10), the function returns the position of the array's first number, which is 1.

Question 149

Which among the following statements is incorrect for input devices? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Input devices are also called as peripheral device.

  2. BOption (b)

    Input devices accepts user data.

  3. COption (c)

    Input devices helps computer in receiving data.

  4. DOption (d)

    Optical Mark Reader is an input device.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Input devices are also called as peripheral device.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points 

  • Input devices include keyboards, scanners, mice, joysticks, OMR (Optical Marker Reader), and digital cameras.
  • The input device, which is the hardware used to accept data from people, is referred to as the input unit of a computer. Human input is transformed into data that computers can understand by input devices.
  • The most frequent and well-liked input method for entering data into computers is the keyboard.
  • Text, photos, videos, and sounds can all be submitted into a computer system using an input device. The most popular method for entering text is the keyboard.
  • An input device is a piece of computer hardware used to provide control and data signals to a data processing system, such as a computer or information appliance.

Additional Information

Peripheral devices: A computer peripheral is any external device that provides input and output for the computer.

  • Peripheral devices connect with a computer through several I/O interfaces, such as communications (COM), Universal Serial Bus (USB) and serial ports such as serial advanced technology attachment (SATA) ones.
  • An Input peripheral device sends data or instructions to the computer.
  • Examples of Input peripheral devices are mouse, keyboard, image scanner, barcode reader, light pen, microphone, digital camera, webcam, dance pad, and read-only memory.
  • An output peripheral device provides output from the computer.
  • Examples of output peripheral devices are computer monitors, projectors, printers, headphones, and computer speakers.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Question 150

Which among the following statements is incorrect? 

  1. AOption (a)

    A magnetic tape consists of vertical columns called frames.

  2. BOption (b)

    Magnetic tape consists of horizontal rows called channels or tracks.

  3. COption (c)

    Magnetic tape drivers are suitable for storage of data that need to be accessed randomly.

  4. DOption (d)

    There is no addressing in the magnetic tapes.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Magnetic tape drivers are suitable for storage of data that need to be accessed randomly.

Why this answer is correct

Magnetic Tape

Magnetic tape data storage is a system for storing digital information on magnetic tape using digital recording.

A magnetic tape consists of vertical columns called frames.

  • Frames: The vertical partitions of magnetic tape are called frames.
  • Tracks: The horizontal partitions of magnetic tape are called tracks or channels.

Magnetic tape drivers are suitable for storage of data that need to be accessed randomly.

This statement is not correct.

  • Magnetic tape drives are sequential access devices, meaning that data is accessed sequentially from the beginning to the conclusion of the tape.
  • This renders them unsuitable for storing data that requires random access, such as in a database.

There is no addressing in the magnetic tapes.

This statement is also correct.

  • Typically, magnetic tapes are organized as a series of blocks or frames containing data, but there is no addressing mechanism that allows specific data to be quickly located.
  • Instead, data must be sequentially read or written from the beginning to the end of the tape.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

150 questions in the full paper