Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL (2022) Tier-II Official Paper (Held On : 3 March 2023) (Previous Year Paper)

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Section I (60 questions)

Question 1

A boat covers 35 km downstream in 2 h and covers the same distance upstream in 7 h. Find the speed (in km/h) of the boat in still water. 

  1. AOption (a)

    11.25

  2. BOption (b)

    28.75

  3. COption (c)

    18.25

  4. DOption (d)

    10.55

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

11.25

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Downstream Speed (D) = Distance ÷ Time = 35 ÷ 2 = 17.5 km/h

Upstream Speed (U) = Distance ÷ Time = 35 ÷ 7 = 5 km/h

Speed in Still Water = (D + U) ÷ 2

Speed = (17.5 + 5) ÷ 2 = 22.5 ÷ 2 = 11.25 km/h

∴ The correct answer is 11.25 km/h.

Alternate Method

Given:

Distance (d) = 35 km

Time taken downstream (td) = 2 h

Time taken upstream (tu) = 7 h

Formula Used:

Speed = Distance ÷ Time

Downstream speed = u + v

Upstream speed = u − v

(where u = speed of boat in still water and v = speed of stream)

Calculations:

⇒ Downstream speed (u + v) = 35 ÷ 2 = 17.5 km/h ---- (1)

⇒ Upstream speed (u − v) = 35 ÷ 7 = 5 km/h ---- (2)

⇒ Adding equations (1) and (2):

⇒ (u + v) + (u − v) = 17.5 + 5

⇒ 2u = 22.5

⇒ u = 22.5 ÷ 2

⇒ u = 11.25 km/h

∴ The correct answer is 11.25 km/h.

Additional Information

Speed of Stream

The speed of the water current or stream (v) is calculated as: v = (Downstream Speed − Upstream Speed) ÷ 2.

Relative Speed in Boats

When moving downstream, the speeds are added (u+v); when moving upstream, the stream speed is subtracted from the boat speed (u−v).

Ratio of Speeds

If the distance is constant, the ratio of downstream speed to upstream speed is the inverse of the ratio of time taken: D/U = Tu/Td.

Question 2

What is the compound interest on a sum of ₹25,000 after three years at a rate of 12 per cent per annum interest compounded yearly? 

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹10,123.20

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹9,824.00

  3. COption (c)

    ₹10,520.00

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹9,956.86

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

₹10,123.20

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

For a 3-year period, use the interest ratio method 3 : 3 : 1.

First year interest (I1): 12% of 25000 = 3000

Second year interest on I1 (I2): 12% of 3000 = 360

Third year interest on I2 (I3): 12% of 360 = 43.2

Total CI = (3 × 3000) + (3 × 360) + (1 × 43.2) = 9000 + 1080 + 43.2 = 10123.2

∴ The correct answer is ₹10,123.20.

Alternate Method

Given: Principal (P) = ₹25,000, Rate (R) = 12% p.a., Time (n) = 3 years.

Formula: Amount (A) = P(1 + R/100)n and CI = A − P

⇒ A = 25000 × (1 + 12/100)3

⇒ A = 25000 × (1.12)3

⇒ A = 25000 × 1.404928

⇒ A = 35123.2

⇒ CI = 35123.2 − 25000

⇒ CI = 10123.2

∴ The correct answer is ₹10,123.20.

Additional Information

Successive Percentage Change

Compound interest is a case of successive percentage increase. For 3 years, the effective rate is [3r + (3r2/100) + (r3/10000)]%.

Difference between CI and SI

For 2 years: Diff = P(R/100)2. For 3 years: Diff = P(R/100)2 × (3 + R/100).

Compounding Frequency

If interest is compounded half-yearly, the rate is halved (R/2) and the time period is doubled (2n).

Question 3

The LCM of x2 − 8x + 15 and x2 − 5x + 6 is:

  1. AOption (a)

    (x - 2) (x - 3) (x − 5)

  2. BOption (b)

    (x − 6)2 (x + 1) (x − 3)

  3. COption (c)

    (x − 6) (x + 1) (x − 3)

  4. DOption (d)

    (x + 6) (x + 1) (x − 3)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(x - 2) (x - 3) (x − 5)

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Factorize the expressions mentally by finding numbers that sum to the middle term and multiply to the last term.

x2 − 8x + 15: Numbers are −3 and −5 → (x − 3)(x − 5).

x2 − 5x + 6: Numbers are −2 and −3 → (x − 2)(x − 3).

LCM takes all unique factors: (x − 2), (x − 3), and (x − 5).

∴ The correct answer is (x − 2) (x − 3) (x − 5).

Alternate Method

Given expressions:

P(x) = x2 − 8x + 15

Q(x) = x2 − 5x + 6

Factorizing P(x) by splitting the middle term:

⇒ x2 − 3x − 5x + 15

⇒ x(x − 3) − 5(x − 3)

⇒ (x − 3)(x − 5)

Factorizing Q(x) by splitting the middle term:

⇒ x2 − 2x − 3x + 6

⇒ x(x − 2) − 3(x − 2)

⇒ (x − 2)(x − 3)

The Least Common Multiple (LCM) is the product of all distinct factors of the polynomials, each raised to the highest power it occurs in any of the polynomials.

⇒ LCM = (x − 2)1 × (x − 3)1 × (x − 5)1

∴ The correct answer is (x − 2) (x − 3) (x − 5).

Additional Information

LCM and HCF of Polynomials

LCM contains all factors at their maximum power, while HCF (Highest Common Factor) contains only common factors at their minimum power.

The Relationship Property

For any two polynomials f(x) and g(x), the product of the polynomials is equal to the product of their HCF and LCM: f(x) × g(x) = HCF(f,g) × LCM(f,g).

Factor Theorem

A polynomial P(x) has a factor (x − a) if and only if P(a) = 0. This can be used to check factors quickly.

Question 4

The cost of 3 kg of rice is ₹180. The cost of 8 kg of rice is equal to that of 5 kg of Pulse. The cost of 15 kg of pulses is equal to that of 2 kg of tea. The cost of 3 kg of tea is equal to that of 6 kg of walnuts. What is the cost (in ₹) of 10 kg of walnuts?

  1. AOption (a)

    2400

  2. BOption (b)

    3200

  3. COption (c)

    2800

  4. DOption (d)

    3600

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

3600

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Apply Chain Rule for 1 kg Walnut: (180 ÷ 3) × (8 ÷ 5) × (15 ÷ 2) × (3 ÷ 6)

1 kg Walnut = 60 × 1.6 × 7.5 × 0.5 = 96 × 3.75 = ₹360

For 10 kg Walnut: 360 × 10 = ₹3600

∴ The correct answer is ₹3600.

Alternate Method

Given:

Cost of 3 kg Rice = ₹180

8 kg Rice = 5 kg Pulse

15 kg Pulse = 2 kg Tea

3 kg Tea = 6 kg Walnuts

Formula Used:

Unit Cost = Total Cost ÷ Quantity

Equivalence Cost: QuantityA × PriceA = QuantityB × PriceB

⇒ Cost of 1 kg Rice = 180 ÷ 3 = ₹60

⇒ 5 kg Pulse = 8 kg Rice = 8 × 60 = ₹480

⇒ Cost of 1 kg Pulse = 480 ÷ 5 = ₹96

⇒ 2 kg Tea = 15 kg Pulse = 15 × 96 = ₹1440

⇒ Cost of 1 kg Tea = 1440 ÷ 2 = ₹720

⇒ 6 kg Walnut = 3 kg Tea = 3 × 720 = ₹2160

⇒ Cost of 1 kg Walnut = 2160 ÷ 6 = ₹360

⇒ Cost of 10 kg Walnut = 10 × 360 = ₹3600

∴ The correct answer is ₹3600.

Additional Information

Chain Rule in Proportion

It is a method used to find a relationship between multiple quantities. The formula is: (Item1/Item2) × (Item2/Item3) × ... × (Itemn−1/Itemn).

Unitary Method

To solve such problems, always find the value of a single unit (1 kg) for each commodity before moving to the next level in the hierarchy.

Inverse Proportion

If the quantity increases while the total cost remains constant, the unit price must decrease: Price ∝ 1 ÷ Quantity.

Question 5

What is the ratio of the simple interest earned on a certain amount at the rate of 21% per annum for 8 years to that earned on the same sum at the same rate for 21 years?

  1. AOption (a)

    8 ∶ 21

  2. BOption (b)

    21 ∶ 5

  3. COption (c)

    5 ∶ 21

  4. DOption (d)

    21 ∶ 8

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

8 ∶ 21

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Since the Principal (P) and the Rate of Interest (R) are the same for both cases, Simple Interest (SI) is directly proportional to Time (T).

SI ∝ T (when P and R are constant)

Ratio of Interest = Ratio of Time = T1 : T2

Ratio = 8 : 21

∴ The correct answer is 8 : 21.

Alternate Method

Given:

Principal (P1) = Principal (P2) = P

Rate (R1) = Rate (R2) = 21%

Time (T1) = 8 years

Time (T2) = 21 years

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Calculations:

⇒ SI1 = (P × 21 × 8) ÷ 100

⇒ SI2 = (P × 21 × 21) ÷ 100

⇒ Required Ratio = SI1 : SI2

⇒ Ratio = [(P × 21 × 8) / 100] ÷ [(P × 21 × 21) / 100]

⇒ Ratio = (P × 21 × 8) ÷ (P × 21 × 21)

⇒ Ratio = 8 ÷ 21

∴ The correct answer is 8 : 21.

Additional Information

Direct Proportionality in SI

Simple interest is directly proportional to Principal, Rate, and Time individually when the other two factors remain constant.

Effective Rate of Interest

The total interest percentage for the entire period in SI is simply (Rate × Time)%. For example, 21% for 8 years is 168% of Principal.

Simple Interest vs Compound Interest

In SI, interest is only calculated on the initial principal. In CI, interest is calculated on the principal plus any accumulated interest from previous periods.

Question 6

Select the INCORRECT formula from the following options.

  1. AOption (a)

    cosec2θ−cot⁡2θ=1 \rm cosec^2\theta-\cot^2\theta=1

  2. BOption (b)

    sin⁡2θ+cos⁡2θ=1 \sin ^2\theta+\cos^2\theta=1

  3. COption (c)

    sec⁡2θ+cos⁡2θ=1 \sec ^2\theta+\cos^2\theta=1

  4. DOption (d)

    sec⁡2θ−tan⁡2θ=1 \sec^2\theta-\tan^2\theta=1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

sec⁡2θ+cos⁡2θ=1 \sec ^2\theta+\cos^2\theta=1

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Identify the three standard Pythagorean trigonometric identities:

  1. sin2θ + cos2θ = 1
  2. sec2θ − tan2θ = 1
  3. cosec2θ − cot2θ = 1

Comparing these with the options, option (3) states sec2θ + cos2θ = 1, which is mathematically incorrect.

∴ The correct answer is sec2θ + cos2θ = 1.

Alternate Method

Given: Four trigonometric formulas to verify.

Formula Used: In a right-angled triangle, Pythagoras Theorem: p2 + b2 = h2.

⇒ Option 1: cosec2θ − cot2θ = (h/p)2 − (b/p)2 = (h2 − b2)/p2 = p2/p2 = 1 (Correct)

⇒ Option 2: sin2θ + cos2θ = (p/h)2 + (b/h)2 = (p2 + b2)/h2 = h2/h2 = 1 (Correct)

⇒ Option 3: sec2θ + cos2θ = (h/b)2 + (b/h)2 = (h4 + b4)/(b2h2) ≠ 1 (Incorrect)

⇒ Option 4: sec2θ − tan2θ = (h/b)2 − (p/b)2 = (h2 − p2)/b2 = b2/b2 = 1 (Correct)

∴ The correct answer is sec2θ + cos2θ = 1.

Additional Information

Reciprocal Identities

Standard relations are sinθ × cosecθ = 1, cosθ × secθ = 1, and tanθ × cotθ = 1.

Complementary Angle Formulas

sin(90° − θ) = cosθ, tan(90° − θ) = cotθ, and sec(90° − θ) = cosecθ.

Derived Pythagorean Forms

1 + tan2θ = sec2θ and 1 + cot2θ = cosec2θ.

Question 7

Find the standard deviation of the following data (rounded off to two decimal places).

5, 3, 4, 7

  1. AOption (a)

    1.48

  2. BOption (b)

    3.21

  3. COption (c)

    4.12

  4. DOption (d)

    2.45

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1.48

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Mean (μ) = (5 + 3 + 4 + 7) ÷ 4 = 19 ÷ 4 = 4.75

Sum of squares (Σx2) = 52 + 32 + 42 + 72 = 25 + 9 + 16 + 49 = 99

Standard Deviation (σ) = √[(Σx2 ÷ n) − μ2]

σ = √[(99 ÷ 4) − 4.752] = √[24.75 − 22.5625] = √2.1875 ≈ 1.48

∴ The correct answer is 1.48.

Alternate Method

Given: Data points = {5, 3, 4, 7}, Number of observations (n) = 4

Formula Used: σ = √[Σ(xi − μ)2 ÷ n]

⇒ Mean (μ) = (5 + 3 + 4 + 7) ÷ 4 = 4.75

⇒ Squared deviation for 5: (5 − 4.75)2 = 0.252 = 0.0625

⇒ Squared deviation for 3: (3 − 4.75)2 = (−1.75)2 = 3.0625

⇒ Squared deviation for 4: (4 − 4.75)2 = (−0.75)2 = 0.5625

⇒ Squared deviation for 7: (7 − 4.75)2 = 2.252 = 5.0625

⇒ Variance (σ2) = (0.0625 + 3.0625 + 0.5625 + 5.0625) ÷ 4 = 8.75 ÷ 4 = 2.1875

⇒ Standard Deviation (σ) = √2.1875 ≈ 1.48

∴ The correct answer is 1.48.

Additional Information

Variance

Variance is the average of the squared differences from the mean, calculated as σ2 = Σ(x − μ)2 ÷ n.

Coefficient of Variation (CV)

It is a relative measure of dispersion calculated as CV = (σ ÷ μ) × 100%.

Range

Range is the simplest measure of dispersion, defined as the difference between the maximum and minimum values in a dataset.

Question 8

Suresh, Dinesh and Ramesh became partners in a business by investing money in the ratio of 3 : 6 : 8. If their investments is increased by 5%, 15% and 20%, respectively, then what will be the ratio of their profits for one year?

  1. AOption (a)

    7 ∶ 46 ∶ 64

  2. BOption (b)

    19 ∶ 46 ∶ 64

  3. COption (c)

    21 ∶ 46 ∶ 64

  4. DOption (d)

    35 ∶ 46 ∶ 64

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

21 ∶ 46 ∶ 64

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Let the initial investments be 300, 600, and 800 units.

Suresh's new investment = 300 + 5% of 300 = 315.

Dinesh's new investment = 600 + 15% of 600 = 690.

Ramesh's new investment = 800 + 20% of 800 = 960.

New Profit Ratio = 315 : 690 : 960 = 21 : 46 : 64 (divided by 15).

∴ The correct answer is 21 ∶ 46 ∶ 64.

Alternate Method

Given:

Investment ratio (S : D : R) = 3 : 6 : 8

Percentage increases = 5%, 15%, 20%

Time period = 1 year (Constant for all)

Formula Used: Profit Ratio = (Investment1 × Time1) : (Investment2 × Time2) : (Investment3 × Time3)

Calculations:

⇒ Let initial investments be 3x, 6x, and 8x.

⇒ New investment of Suresh = 3x × (100 + 5)/100 = 3x × 1.05 = 3.15x

⇒ New investment of Dinesh = 6x × (100 + 15)/100 = 6x × 1.15 = 6.90x

⇒ New investment of Ramesh = 8x × (100 + 20)/100 = 8x × 1.20 = 9.60x

⇒ Ratio of profits = 3.15x : 6.90x : 9.60x

⇒ Multiplying by 100 to remove decimals: 315 : 690 : 960

⇒ Dividing each term by 15:

⇒ Suresh = 315 ÷ 15 = 21

⇒ Dinesh = 690 ÷ 15 = 46

⇒ Ramesh = 960 ÷ 15 = 64

∴ The correct answer is 21 ∶ 46 ∶ 64.

Additional Information

Partnership Profit Sharing Rule

Profit is always distributed in the ratio of the product of Capital and Time (P = C × T). If Time is constant, Profit Ratio = Capital Ratio.

Percentage Change in Ratio

If a value 'a' increases by r%, the new value is a × (1 + r/100). This can be applied directly to ratio terms.

Simplifying Ratios

To simplify a ratio involving decimals, multiply all terms by a power of 10 to convert them to integers and then divide by their HCF.

Question 9

The ratio of marks obtained by Rajesh, Rakesh and Ramesh in an exam is 2 : 4 : 9. What are the marks obtained by Rakesh and Ramesh, if Rajesh scored 30 marks in the exam?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rakesh = 40, Ramesh = 90 

  2. BOption (b)

    Rakesh = 60, Ramesh = 135

  3. COption (c)

    Rakesh = 120, Ramesh = 180

  4. DOption (d)

    Rakesh = 90, Ramesh = 40

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rakesh = 60, Ramesh = 135

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Rajesh : Rakesh : Ramesh = 2 : 4 : 9

Given: Rajesh (2 units) = 30 marks

Unit value = 30 ÷ 2 = 15 marks

Rakesh (4 units) = 4 × 15 = 60 marks

Ramesh (9 units) = 9 × 15 = 135 marks

∴ The correct answer is Rakesh = 60, Ramesh = 135.

Alternate Method

Given:

Ratio of marks = 2 : 4 : 9

Marks scored by Rajesh = 30

Formula:

Value of one ratio part = Given value ÷ Corresponding ratio share

⇒ Let the marks of Rajesh, Rakesh, and Ramesh be 2x, 4x, and 9x respectively.

⇒ 2x = 30

⇒ x = 30 ÷ 2 = 15

⇒ Rakesh's marks = 4x = 4 × 15 = 60

⇒ Ramesh's marks = 9x = 9 × 15 = 135

∴ The correct answer is Rakesh = 60, Ramesh = 135.

Additional Information

Ratio Definition

A ratio compares quantities by division and is usually expressed in its simplest form (a : b).

Unitary Method in Ratios

Total value = (Sum of ratio parts) × (Value of one part). Conversely, Value of one part = Given value ÷ Respective ratio part.

Proportion

Equality of two ratios is called proportion. If a : b :: c : d, then product of extremes (ad) = product of means (bc).

Question 10

The average of 20 numbers is 32. If two numbers are 29 and 31, then what is the average of the remaining numbers (correct up to two decimals)?

  1. AOption (a)

    31.24

  2. BOption (b)

    30.22

  3. COption (c)

    34.44

  4. DOption (d)

    32.22

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

32.22

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Initial average of 20 numbers = 32.

Numbers removed = 29 and 31 (Total = 60).

Deviation from average = (29 − 32) + (31 − 32) = −3 + (−1) = −4.

Since the removed sum (60) is less than the expected sum (32 × 2 = 64), the average will increase.

Net increase in average = 4 ÷ 18 ≈ 0.22.

New average = 32 + 0.22 = 32.22.

∴ The correct answer is 32.22.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total numbers (n1) = 20

Initial average (A1) = 32

Numbers to be removed = 29 and 31

Formula: Average = Sum of observations ÷ Number of observations

Calculations:

⇒ Total sum of 20 numbers = 20 × 32 = 640

⇒ Sum of the two removed numbers = 29 + 31 = 60

⇒ Sum of the remaining numbers = 640 − 60 = 580

⇒ Total remaining numbers = 20 − 2 = 18

⇒ Average of remaining numbers = 580 ÷ 18

⇒ Average = 290 ÷ 9 = 32.222...

∴ The correct answer is 32.22.

Additional Information

Average of First n Natural Numbers

The average of the first n natural numbers is given by the formula (n + 1) ÷ 2.

Effect of Replacement on Average

When a value x is replaced by y, the New Average = Old Average + (y − x) ÷ Total Count.

Weighted Average

For two groups with averages A1, A2 and counts n1, n2, the combined average is (n1A1 + n2A2) ÷ (n1 + n2).

Question 11

The angle of elevation of the top of a building at a distance of 70 m from its foot on a horizontal plane is found to be 60°. Find the height of the building.

  1. AOption (a)

    70370\sqrt 3  m

  2. BOption (b)

    60360\sqrt 3 m

  3. COption (c)

    50350\sqrt 3 m

  4. DOption (d)

    70270\sqrt 2 m

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

70370\sqrt 3  m

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

In a 30°−60°−90° right-angled triangle, the ratio of sides opposite to the angles is 1 : √3 : 2.

Base (opposite to 30°) = 70 m.

Height (opposite to 60°) = Base × √3.

Height = 70 × √3 = 70√3 m.

∴ The correct answer is 70√3 m.

Alternate Method

Given:

Distance from the foot (Base) = 70 m

Angle of elevation (θ) = 60°

Formula Used:

tan θ = Perpendicular (Height) ÷ Base

Calculations:

⇒ tan 60° = h ÷ 70

⇒ √3 = h ÷ 70

⇒ h = 70 × √3

⇒ h = 70√3 m

∴ The correct answer is 70√3 m.

Additional Information

Trigonometric Values for Heights & Distances

tan 30° = 1/√3, tan 45° = 1, and tan 60° = √3 are the most frequently used ratios in elevation problems.

Angle of Elevation and Depression

The angle of elevation from an observer's eye to an object is numerically equal to the angle of depression from the object to the observer due to alternate interior angles.

30-60-90 Triangle Theorem

In any 30°−60°−90° triangle, the hypotenuse is twice the shorter leg, and the longer leg is √3 times the shorter leg.

Question 12

ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral and BC is a diameter of the related circle on which A and D also lie. ∠BCA = 19° and ∠CAD = 32°. What is the measure of ∠ACD?

  1. AOption (a)

    41°

  2. BOption (b)

    38°

  3. COption (c)

    40°

  4. DOption (d)

    39°

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

39°

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

BC is diameter ⇒ ∠BAC = 90° (angle in semicircle)

∠BAD = 90° + 32° = 122°

ABCD is cyclic quadrilateral ⇒ ∠BCD = 180° − 122° = 58°

∠ACD = ∠BCD − ∠BCA = 58° − 19° = 39°

∴ The correct answer is 39°.

Alternate Method

Given:

∠BCA = 19° and ∠CAD = 32°

Formula used:

Opposite angles of a cyclic quadrilateral are supplementary.

Angle in a semicircle = 90°

Calculation:

ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral.

⇒ ∠BAD + ∠BCD = 180°

BC is the diameter of the circle.

⇒ ∠BAC = 90°

⇒ ∠BAD = ∠BAC + ∠CAD

⇒ ∠BAD = 90° + 32°

⇒ ∠BAD = 122°

⇒ ∠BCD = 180° − 122°

⇒ ∠BCD = 58°

⇒ ∠BCD = ∠BCA + ∠ACD

⇒ 58° = 19° + ∠ACD

⇒ ∠ACD = 58° − 19°

⇒ ∠ACD = 39°

∴ ∠ACD = 39°.

Additional Information

Angle in a Semi-circle

An angle subtended by the diameter of a circle at any point on the circumference is always a right angle (90°).

Cyclic Quadrilateral Property

The sum of opposite angles of a cyclic quadrilateral is always 180° (∠A + ∠C = 180° and ∠B + ∠D = 180°).

Angles in the Same Segment

Angles subtended by the same arc at the circumference of the circle are equal. For example, ∠ADB = ∠ACB.

Question 13

Find the value of the given expression.

20−20−20−…∞\sqrt{20 - \sqrt{20 - \sqrt{20 - \dots \infty}}}

  1. AOption (a)

    4

  2. BOption (b)

    6

  3. COption (c)

    5

  4. DOption (d)

    2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

4

Why this answer is correct

Given:

20−20−20−…∞\sqrt{20 - \sqrt{20 - \sqrt{20 - \dots \infty}}} = ?

Formula used:

If x = a−a−…∞\sqrt{a - \sqrt{a - \dots \infty}}, then x2 + x - a = 0

Shortcut: If a = n × (n + 1), then x = n

Calculations:

20 = 4 × 5

⇒ 20 = 4 × (4 + 1)

⇒ n = 4

⇒ x = 4

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Question 14

Find the single equivalent discount for successive discounts of 12%, 18% and 25% on the marked price of a car.

  1. AOption (a)

    35.28%

  2. BOption (b)

    42.65%

  3. COption (c)

    40.25%

  4. DOption (d)

    45.88%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

45.88%

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Use multiplying factors for successive discounts: (1 − d1)(1 − d2)(1 − d3)

Multiplying factor = (1 − 0.12) × (1 − 0.18) × (1 − 0.25)

⇒ 0.88 × 0.82 × 0.75 = 0.5412

Single Equivalent Discount % = (1 − 0.5412) × 100 = 45.88%

∴ The correct answer is 45.88%.

Alternate Method

Given: Successive discounts are 12%, 18% and 25%.

Formula Used: Single equivalent discount for two successive discounts a% and b% = [a + b − (a × b)/100]%

Let the Marked Price (MP) be ₹100.

⇒ Price after 1st discount of 12% = 100 − (12% of 100) = ₹88

⇒ Price after 2nd discount of 18% = 88 − (18% of 88)

⇒ 88 − 15.84 = ₹72.16

⇒ Price after 3rd discount of 25% = 72.16 − (25% of 72.16)

⇒ 72.16 − 18.04 = ₹54.12

⇒ Total Discount = MP − Final SP = 100 − 54.12 = ₹45.88

⇒ Equivalent Discount % = (45.88 / 100) × 100 = 45.88%

∴ The correct answer is 45.88%.

Additional Information

Successive Discount Formula for Two Rates

If two successive discounts are a% and b%, the net discount is (a + b − ab/100)%.

Relationship between MP and SP

Selling Price (SP) = Marked Price (MP) × (100 − Discount%)/100. For successive discounts d1, d2, d3, SP = MP × (1 − d1/100) × (1 − d2/100) × (1 − d3/100).

Effective Discount Rate

The effective discount is always less than the sum of individual discounts. In this case: 12 + 18 + 25 = 55%, but effective is 45.88%.

Question 15

Rewa has some hens and some goats. If the total number of animal heads is 100 and the total number of animal feet is 348, then what is the total number of goats with Rewa?

  1. AOption (a)

    76

  2. BOption (b)

    74

  3. COption (c)

    55

  4. DOption (d)

    80

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

74

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Assume all 100 animals are hens (2 feet each).

Total feet would be: 100 × 2 = 200 feet.

Excess feet count: 348 − 200 = 148 feet.

Each goat has 2 extra feet compared to a hen (4 − 2 = 2).

Total goats = 148 ÷ 2 = 74 goats.

∴ The correct answer is 74 goats.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total number of heads = 100

Total number of feet = 348

Formula Used:

H + G = Total Heads; 2H + 4G = Total Feet (where H = Hens, G = Goats)

Calculations:

⇒ Average feet per head = 348 ÷ 100 = 3.48

⇒ By Alligation method, Ratio of Hens to Goats = (4 − 3.48) : (3.48 − 2)

⇒ Ratio (Hens : Goats) = 0.52 : 1.48 = 13 : 37

⇒ Total units = 13 + 37 = 50 units

⇒ 50 units = 100 animals

⇒ 1 unit = 2 animals

⇒ Total Goats = 37 × 2 = 74

∴ The correct answer is 74 goats.

Additional Information

Direct Formula for 4-legged animals

Number of 4-legged animals = (Total feet − 2 × Total heads) ÷ 2. This is derived from linear substitution.

Weighted Average Principle

The mean value (3.48) always lies between the two extremes (2 and 4). The closer the mean is to one extreme, the higher the proportion of that category.

System of Linear Equations

Problems involving two variables and two conditions (like heads and feet) can always be solved using the substitution or elimination method.

Question 16

If the external angle of a regular polygon is 18°, then the number of diagonals in this polygon is:

  1. AOption (a)

    180

  2. BOption (b)

    150

  3. COption (c)

    170

  4. DOption (d)

    140

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

170

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Number of sides in regular polygon = 360° ÷ Exterior angle

Number of sides = 360° ÷ 18° = 20

Number of diagonals = [Sides × (Sides − 3)] ÷ 2

Number of diagonals = [20 × (20 − 3)] ÷ 2 = 10 × 17 = 170

∴ The correct answer is 170.

Alternate Method

Given:

Exterior angle of a regular polygon = 18°

Formula Used:

  1. Number of sides (n) = 360° ÷ Exterior angle
  2. Number of diagonals = n × (n − 3) ÷ 2

Calculations:

⇒ Number of sides (n) = 360° ÷ 18°

⇒ n = 20

⇒ Number of diagonals = 20 × (20 − 3) ÷ 2

⇒ Number of diagonals = 20 × 17 ÷ 2

⇒ Number of diagonals = 10 × 17 = 170

∴ The correct answer is 170.

Additional Information

Sum of Exterior Angles

For any convex polygon with n sides, the sum of all exterior angles is always 360°.

Sum of Interior Angles

The sum of all interior angles of a polygon with n sides is given by (n − 2) × 180°.

Relationship between Angles

At each vertex of a polygon, the sum of the interior angle and the exterior angle is 180°.

Number of Diagonals Formula

The number of diagonals is calculated as nC2 − n, which simplifies to n(n − 3) ÷ 2.

Question 17

The number 2918245 is divisible by which of the following numbers?

  1. AOption (a)

    3

  2. BOption (b)

    11

  3. COption (c)

    12

  4. DOption (d)

    9

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

11

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Check divisibility by sum of digits: 2 + 9 + 1 + 8 + 2 + 4 + 5 = 31 (Not divisible by 3 or 9).

Check divisibility by 4: Last two digits are 45 (Not divisible by 4, so not by 12).

Check divisibility by 11: Alternating sum = 2 − 9 + 1 − 8 + 2 − 4 + 5 = −11.

Since 11 is divisible by 11, the entire number is divisible by 11.

∴ The correct answer is 11.

Alternate Method

Given: Number = 2918245

Method: Apply divisibility rules for each option.

Checking each option:

⇒ Divisibility by 3: Sum of digits = 2+9+1+8+2+4+5 = 31. Since 31 is not divisible by 3, the number is not divisible by 3.

⇒ Divisibility by 9: Since the sum 31 is not divisible by 9, the number is not divisible by 9.

⇒ Divisibility by 12: A number is divisible by 12 if it is divisible by both 3 and 4. Since it is not divisible by 3, it cannot be divisible by 12.

⇒ Divisibility by 11: Sum of digits at odd places (from right) = 5 + 2 + 1 + 2 = 10. Sum of digits at even places (from right) = 4 + 8 + 9 = 21.

⇒ Difference = |21 − 10| = 11. Since 11 is divisible by 11, the number 2918245 is divisible by 11.

∴ The correct answer is 11.

Additional Information

Divisibility by 3 and 9

A number is divisible by 3 or 9 if the sum of its digits is divisible by 3 or 9, respectively.

Divisibility by 4 and 8

A number is divisible by 4 if its last two digits are divisible by 4, and by 8 if its last three digits are divisible by 8.

Divisibility by 11 Rule

The difference between the sum of digits at odd places and the sum of digits at even places must be 0 or a multiple of 11.

Divisibility by 6

A number is divisible by 6 if it is divisible by both 2 (even number) and 3 (sum of digits rule).

Question 18

The average weight of three men is increased by 4 kg when one of them, whose weight is 100 kg, is replaced by another man. What is the weight of the new man?

  1. AOption (a)

    107 kg

  2. BOption (b)

    103 kg

  3. COption (c)

    104 kg

  4. DOption (d)

    112 kg

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

112 kg

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

New Weight = Replaced Weight + (Total Number × Change in Average)

Here, Replaced weight = 100 kg, Number of men = 3, Average increase = 4 kg

New man weight = 100 + (3 × 4)

New man weight = 100 + 12 = 112 kg

∴ The correct answer is 112 kg.

Alternate Method

Given:

Number of men = 3

Weight of the man replaced = 100 kg

Increase in average weight = 4 kg

Formula Used:

Weight of new person = Weight of replaced person + (Total persons × Increase in average)

⇒ Total weight of 3 men = 3 × Average weight (A)

⇒ Let the weights of the men be M1, M2, and 100 kg.

⇒ (M1 + M2 + 100) ÷ 3 = A

⇒ (M1 + M2 + New Man) ÷ 3 = A + 4

⇒ M1 + M2 + New Man = 3A + 12

⇒ Since M1 + M2 + 100 = 3A, then M1 + M2 = 3A − 100

⇒ (3A − 100) + New Man = 3A + 12

⇒ New Man = 3A + 12 − 3A + 100

⇒ New Man = 112 kg

∴ The correct answer is 112 kg.

Additional Information

General Replacement Rule

When one person is replaced, New Value = Old Value + (Total Count × Increase) or New Value = Old Value − (Total Count × Decrease).

Average of Group

Average = Sum of all observations ÷ Number of observations. If the average increases, the incoming value must be greater than the outgoing value.

Effect of Adding a Member

When a person is added (not replaced), the total count increases. New Total Weight = (Old Average × Old Count) + New Member Weight.

Question 19

The median of the following data will be _________.

32, 25, 33, 27, 35, 29 and 30

  1. AOption (a)

    32

  2. BOption (b)

    27

  3. COption (c)

    30

  4. DOption (d)

    29

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

30

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Arrange the data in ascending order: 25, 27, 29, 30, 32, 33, 35.

The number of terms (n) = 7, which is an odd number.

For an odd number of terms, the median is the middle-most value.

The middle term is the 4th term in the sorted list.

The 4th term is 30.

∴ The correct answer is 30.

Alternate Method

Given: Data set = {32, 25, 33, 27, 35, 29, 30}

Formula Used: Median = [(n + 1) / 2]th term, where n is the number of observations (when n is odd).

⇒ Count the number of observations in the data set:

⇒ n = 7 (which is odd)

⇒ Arrange the data in ascending order: 25, 27, 29, 30, 32, 33, 35

⇒ Median = [(7 + 1) / 2]th observation

⇒ Median = 8 / 2 = 4th observation

⇒ The 4th observation in the sorted list is 30.

∴ The correct answer is 30.

Additional Information

Median for Even n

When the number of observations (n) is even, the median is calculated as the average of the (n/2)th and (n/2 + 1)th terms.

Importance of Sorting

The data must always be arranged in either ascending or descending order before identifying the middle term; otherwise, the result will be incorrect.

Range of Data

The range is the difference between the maximum and minimum values: Range = Max − Min. For this data, Range = 35 − 25 = 10.

Question 20

A hemispherical bowl of internal radius 18 cm is full of liquid. This liquid is to be filled in cylindrical bottles each of radius 3 cm and height 6 cm. How many bottles are required to empty the bowl?

  1. AOption (a)

    72

  2. BOption (b)

    70

  3. COption (c)

    68

  4. DOption (d)

    66

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

72

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Number of bottles (n) = Volume of bowl ÷ Volume of one bottle

n = [(2/3) × π × R3] ÷ [π × r2 × h]

n = [2 × 18 × 18 × 18] ÷ [3 × 3 × 3 × 6]

n = (2 × 6 × 6) = 72 bottles

∴ The correct answer is 72 bottles.

Alternate Method

Given:

Internal radius of hemispherical bowl (R) = 18 cm

Radius of cylindrical bottle (r) = 3 cm

Height of cylindrical bottle (h) = 6 cm

Formula Used:

Volume of hemisphere = (2/3) × π × R3

Volume of cylinder = π × r2 × h

Calculations:

⇒ Volume of liquid in bowl = (2/3) × π × (18)3 cm3

⇒ Volume of one bottle = π × (3)2 × 6 cm3

⇒ Let n be the number of bottles required.

⇒ n × (Volume of one bottle) = Volume of bowl

⇒ n × (π × 3 × 3 × 6) = (2/3) × π × 18 × 18 × 18

⇒ n = (2 × π × 18 × 18 × 18) ÷ (3 × π × 9 × 6)

⇒ n = (2 × 5832) ÷ (162)

⇒ n = 11664 ÷ 162

⇒ n = 72

∴ The correct answer is 72 bottles.

Additional Information

Total Surface Area (TSA) of Hemisphere

The TSA of a solid hemisphere includes the curved area and the flat circular base, given by 3πr2.

Volume of Sphere

The volume of a complete sphere is double that of a hemisphere, calculated as (4/3)πr3.

Surface Area of Cylinder

Curved Surface Area = 2πrh and Total Surface Area = 2πr(h + r).

Question 21

Find the value of given expression.

[76 – {90 ÷ 5 x (24 – 36 ÷ 3) ÷ 3}]

  1. AOption (a)

    71.5

  2. BOption (b)

    75.5

  3. COption (c)

    4

  4. DOption (d)

    77.5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

4

Why this answer is correct

Given:

[76 – {90 ÷ 5 × (24 – 36 ÷ 3) ÷ 3}]

Formula used:

BODMAS Rule

Calculation:

[76−90÷5×(24−12)÷3][76 - {90 \div 5 \times (24 - 12) \div 3}]

⇒ [76−18×12÷3][76 - {18 \times 12 \div 3}]

⇒ [76−72][76 - 72]

⇒ 4

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Question 22

Products pass successively through the hands of three traders and each of them sells his goods at a profit of 30% of his cost price. If the last trader sold the products for Rs.300, then how much did the first trader pay for them?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs.330.55 (approx)

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs.136.55 (approx)

  3. COption (c)

    Rs.240.55 (approx)

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs.137.55 (approx)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rs.136.55 (approx)

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Each trader adds 30% profit, so the Multiplying Factor (MF) for each sale = 1.3

Successive MF for three traders = 1.3 × 1.3 × 1.3 = 2.197

Final Selling Price = Initial Cost Price × 2.197

300 = Initial CP × 2.197

Initial CP = 300 ÷ 2.197 ≈ 136.55

∴ The correct answer is Rs.136.55 (approx).

Alternate Method

Given:

Profit of each trader = 30%

Number of traders = 3

Final Selling Price = Rs.300

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = Cost Price (CP) × (1 + Profit%/100)

Let the amount the first trader paid (initial Cost Price) be x.

⇒ CP of second trader (SP of first trader) = x × (1 + 30/100) = 1.3x

⇒ CP of third trader (SP of second trader) = 1.3x × 1.3 = 1.69x

⇒ Final Selling Price (SP of third trader) = 1.69x × 1.3 = 2.197x

⇒ According to the question, 2.197x = 300

⇒ x = 300 ÷ 2.197

⇒ x = 136.5498...

⇒ x ≈ 136.55

∴ The correct answer is Rs.136.55 (approx).

Additional Information

Successive Percentage Change

When a value changes successively by a%, b%, and c%, the final value is Initial × (1 + a/100) × (1 + b/100) × (1 + c/100).

Net Profit Percentage

The equivalent single profit percentage for three successive profits of p% is given by [(1 + p/100)3 − 1] × 100.

Effective Rate for Two Changes

For two successive changes of a% and b%, the net change is (a + b + ab/100)%.

Question 23

What is the total surface area of a pyramid whose base is a square with side 8 cm and height of the pyramid is 3 cm?

  1. AOption (a)

    169 cm2

  2. BOption (b)

    121 cm2

  3. COption (c)

    144 cm2

  4. DOption (d)

    184 cm2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

144 cm2

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Slant height (l) = √(Height2 + (Side/2)2) = √(32 + 42) = 5 cm.

Base Area = Side2 = 82 = 64 cm2.

Lateral Area = 2 × Side × Slant height = 2 × 8 × 5 = 80 cm2.

Total Surface Area (TSA) = 64 + 80 = 144 cm2.

∴ The correct answer is 144 cm2.

Alternate Method

Given: Base side (a) = 8 cm, Height of pyramid (h) = 3 cm.

Formula: TSA = Base Area + 1/2 × Perimeter × Slant Height (l)

⇒ Area of square base = a2 = 8 × 8 = 64 cm2

⇒ Slant height (l) = √(h2 + (a/2)2)

⇒ l = √(32 + 42) = √(9 + 16) = √25 = 5 cm

⇒ Perimeter of base = 4 × a = 4 × 8 = 32 cm

⇒ Lateral Surface Area (LSA) = 1/2 × 32 × 5 = 16 × 5 = 80 cm2

⇒ Total Surface Area (TSA) = Base Area + LSA

⇒ TSA = 64 + 80 = 144 cm2

∴ The correct answer is 144 cm2.

Additional Information

Volume of a Pyramid

The volume is given by V = 1/3 × Base Area × Vertical Height.

Slant Height vs Slant Edge

Slant height (l) is the height of the triangular face, while Slant edge (e) = √(h2 + (d/2)2) where d is the diagonal of the base.

Regular Pyramid Properties

In a regular pyramid, all lateral faces are congruent isosceles triangles and the apex is directly above the center of the base.

Question 24

The breadth ‘b’ of a room is twice its height and half of its length. Find the length of the longest diagonal of the room.

  1. AOption (a)

    20b2\frac{\sqrt{20} b}{2}

  2. BOption (b)

    b2\frac{b}{2}

  3. COption (c)

    21b2\frac{\sqrt{21}b}{2}

  4. DOption (d)

    19b2\frac{\sqrt{19}b}{2}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

21b2\frac{\sqrt{21}b}{2}

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Express all dimensions in terms of breadth 'b':

Given: Height (h) = b/2 and Length (l) = 2b.

Formula for longest diagonal = √(l2 + b2 + h2).

Diagonal = √((2b)2 + b2 + (b/2)2) = √(4b2 + b2 + b2/4) = √(21b2/4).

∴ The correct answer is (√21 b) / 2.

Alternate Method

Given:

Breadth = b

Breadth is twice the height ⇒ b = 2h ⇒ h = b/2

Breadth is half of the length ⇒ b = l/2 ⇒ l = 2b

Formula Used:

Longest diagonal of a room (cuboid) = √(l2 + b2 + h2)

Calculations:

⇒ Diagonal = √((2b)2 + b2 + (b/2)2)

⇒ Diagonal = √(4b2 + b2 + b2/4)

⇒ Diagonal = √(5b2 + b2/4)

⇒ Diagonal = √((20b2 + b2)/4)

⇒ Diagonal = √(21b2/4)

⇒ Diagonal = (√21 b) / 2

∴ The correct answer is (√21 b) / 2.

Additional Information

Total Surface Area of a Cuboid

The sum of the areas of all 6 faces is given by the formula 2(lb + bh + hl).

Volume of a Cuboid

The total space occupied by the cuboid is calculated as Length × Breadth × Height.

Diagonal of a Cube

If all sides are equal (l = b = h = a), the longest diagonal is simplified to √3 a.

Area of Four Walls

The lateral surface area of a room is calculated as 2(l + b) × h.

Question 25

What is the simplified form of the expression (1+x)(1+x2)(1+x4)(1+x8)(1−x)(1+x)(1+x^2)(1+x^4)(1+x^8)(1-x)?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 - x40

  2. BOption (b)

    1 - x32

  3. COption (c)

    1 - x16

  4. DOption (d)

    1 - x42

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1 - x16

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Identify the telescoping pattern of the identity (a − b)(a + b) = a2 − b2.

Each pair of terms doubles the power of x: (1 − xn)(1 + xn) = 1 − x2n.

The sequence starts with power 1 and ends with power 8.

The final simplified power will be the highest power in the product multiplied by 2.

Highest power is 8, so final result is 1 − x8 × 2 = 1 − x16.

∴ The correct answer is 1 − x16.

Alternate Method

Given Expression: (1 + x)(1 + x2)(1 + x4)(1 + x8)(1 − x)

Formula: (a − b)(a + b) = a2 − b2

⇒ Rearranging the terms to group conjugates:

⇒ [(1 − x)(1 + x)] × (1 + x2) × (1 + x4) × (1 + x8)

⇒ (1 − x2) × (1 + x2) × (1 + x4) × (1 + x8)

⇒ [(1 − x2)(1 + x2)] × (1 + x4) × (1 + x8)

⇒ (1 − x4) × (1 + x4) × (1 + x8)

⇒ [(1 − x4)(1 + x4)] × (1 + x8)

⇒ (1 − x8) × (1 + x8)

⇒ 1 − (x8)2

⇒ 1 − x16

∴ The correct answer is 1 − x16.

Additional Information

Difference of Squares Identity

The algebraic identity (a + b)(a − b) = a2 − b2 is fundamental for simplifying products of binomial conjugates.

Exponents Rule

When raising a power to another power, the exponents are multiplied: (xa)b = xa × b.

General Telescoping Form

The general product (1 − x)(1 + x)(1 + x2)(1 + x4)...(1 + x2<sup>n</sup>) simplifies to 1 − x2<sup>n+1</sup>.

Question 26

If the areas of two similar triangles are in the ratio 196 : 625, what would be the ratio of the corresponding sides?

  1. AOption (a)

    14 ∶ 25

  2. BOption (b)

    13 ∶ 20

  3. COption (c)

    14 ∶ 20

  4. DOption (d)

    13 ∶ 25

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

14 ∶ 25

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

For two similar triangles, the ratio of their areas is equal to the square of the ratio of their corresponding sides.

Ratio of sides = √(Ratio of Areas)

Ratio of sides = √196 : √625

Ratio of sides = 14 : 25

∴ The correct answer is 14 : 25.

Alternate Method

Given:

Ratio of areas of two similar triangles = 196 : 625

Formula used:

If ΔABC ∼ ΔPQR, then Area(ΔABC) ÷ Area(ΔPQR) = (AB ÷ PQ)2 = (BC ÷ QR)2 = (AC ÷ PR)2

Let the corresponding sides of the two triangles be s1 and s2.

Let the areas of the two triangles be A1 and A2.

⇒ A1 ÷ A2 = (s1 ÷ s2)2

⇒ 196 ÷ 625 = (s1 ÷ s2)2

⇒ s1 ÷ s2 = √(196 ÷ 625)

⇒ s1 ÷ s2 = 14 ÷ 25

⇒ s1 : s2 = 14 : 25

∴ The correct answer is 14 : 25.

Additional Information

Properties of Similar Triangles

The ratio of the perimeters of two similar triangles is equal to the ratio of their corresponding sides: P1/P2 = s1/s2.

Ratio of Altitudes and Medians

The ratio of corresponding altitudes, medians, or angle bisectors of two similar triangles is also equal to the ratio of their corresponding sides.

Area Theorem

The theorem states that for two similar triangles, the ratio of their areas is the square of the ratio of any two corresponding linear dimensions.

Question 27

A speaks the truth 5 out of 7 times and B speaks truth 8 out of 9 times. What is the probability that they contradict each other in stating the same fact?

  1. AOption (a)

    17\frac{1}{7}

  2. BOption (b)

    19\frac{1}{9}

  3. COption (c)

    14\frac{1}{4}

  4. DOption (d)

    13\frac{1}{3}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

13\frac{1}{3}

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Probability A speaks truth = 5/7, Lie = 2/7

Probability B speaks truth = 8/9, Lie = 1/9

Contradiction = (ATruth × BLie) + (ALie × BTruth)

⇒ (5/7 × 1/9) + (2/7 × 8/9) = (5 + 16) / 63 = 21/63 = 1/3

∴ The correct answer is 1/3.

Alternate Method

Given:

Probability of A speaking truth, P(A) = 5/7

Probability of B speaking truth, P(B) = 8/9

Formula:

Probability of contradiction = P(A ∩ B′) + P(A′ ∩ B)

Probability that A lies, P(A′) = 1 − P(A) = 1 − 5/7 = 2/7

Probability that B lies, P(B′) = 1 − P(B) = 1 − 8/9 = 1/9

They contradict each other if one speaks truth and the other speaks lie.

⇒ Required Probability = [P(A) × P(B′)] + [P(A′) × P(B)]

⇒ Required Probability = (5/7 × 1/9) + (2/7 × 8/9)

⇒ Required Probability = 5/63 + 16/63

⇒ Required Probability = 21/63

⇒ Required Probability = 1/3

∴ The correct answer is 1/3.

Additional Information

Independent Events

Two events A and B are independent if the occurrence of one does not affect the other, then P(A ∩ B) = P(A) × P(B).

Complementary Events

The probability of an event not occurring is P(A′) = 1 − P(A).

Probability of Agreement

The probability that they agree with each other is P(A)P(B) + P(A′)P(B′), which is also equal to 1 − P(Contradict).

Question 28

There are two inlet pipes A and B connected to a tank. A and B can fill the tank in 32 h and 28 h, respectively. If both the pipes are opened alternately for 1 h, starting with A, then in how much time (in hours, to nearest integer) will the tank be filled?

  1. AOption (a)

    22

  2. BOption (b)

    30

  3. COption (c)

    36

  4. DOption (d)

    24

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

30

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Total work (LCM of 32 and 28) = 224 units.

Efficiency: A = 7 units/h, B = 8 units/h.

Work done in 1 cycle of 2 hours (A + B) = 7 + 8 = 15 units.

In 14 cycles (28 hours), work completed = 14 × 15 = 210 units.

Remaining work = 224 − 210 = 14 units. In 29th hour, A fills 7 units. Remaining 7 units filled by B in 7/8 hours.

Total time = 29.875 hours ≈ 30 hours.

∴ The correct answer is 30 h.

Alternate Method

Given: Time taken by A = 32 h, Time taken by B = 28 h.

Formula: Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time

PersonDaysTotal WorkEfficiency
Pipe A322247
Pipe B288

⇒ Work done in the first 2 hours (1 hour A + 1 hour B) = 7 + 8 = 15 units.

⇒ Number of such 2-hour cycles required to reach near 224 units = 224 ÷ 15 = 14.93 cycles.

⇒ Work done in 14 cycles = 14 × 15 = 210 units.

⇒ Time taken for 14 cycles = 14 × 2 = 28 hours.

⇒ Remaining work = 224 − 210 = 14 units.

⇒ In the 29th hour, Pipe A works and fills 7 units.

⇒ Remaining work = 14 − 7 = 7 units.

⇒ In the next hour, Pipe B works. Time taken by B to fill remaining units = 7 ÷ 8 = 0.875 hours.

⇒ Total time taken = 28 + 1 + 0.875 = 29.875 hours.

⇒ Nearest integer value = 30 hours.

∴ The correct answer is 30 h.

Additional Information

Negative Work (Outlet Pipes)

If an outlet pipe is present, its efficiency is treated as negative. Net work per hour = Σ(Inlet Efficiency) − Σ(Outlet Efficiency).

Pipes and Cisterns General Formula

If Pipe A fills in x hours and Pipe B fills in y hours, both together fill the tank in (x × y) ÷ (x + y) hours.

Efficiency and Time Relationship

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken. If the ratio of time taken by A and B is a : b, then the ratio of their efficiencies is b : a.

Question 29

 Two candidates contested an election. One of them got 64% of the votes and won by 434 votes. What was the total number of votes polled?

  1. AOption (a)

    1550

  2. BOption (b)

    1345

  3. COption (c)

    1680

  4. DOption (d)

    1684

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1550

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

The winning candidate got 64% of the total votes.

The losing candidate got (100% − 64%) = 36% of the total votes.

Difference in vote percentage = 64% − 36% = 28%

Given, 28% of total votes = 434

Total votes = 434 × (100 ÷ 28) = 1550

∴ The correct answer is 1550.

Alternate Method

Given:

Votes polled by the winning candidate = 64%

Winning margin = 434 votes

Total votes percentage = 100%

Total Votes = 100%

Winner (64%)

Loser (36%)

Difference = 64% − 36% = 28%

28% → 434 votes

Calculations:

⇒ Votes polled by the losing candidate = 100% − 64% = 36%

⇒ Difference in percentage = 64% − 36% = 28%

Since the winning margin is 434 votes:

⇒ 28% of Total Votes = 434

⇒ 1% of Total Votes = 434 ÷ 28 = 15.5

⇒ Total Votes (100%) = 15.5 × 100 = 1550

∴ The correct answer is 1550.

Additional Information

Valid and Invalid Votes

When certain votes are declared invalid, the percentage calculations are usually based on valid votes. Total Valid Votes = Total Votes Polled − Invalid Votes.

Percentage Change and Base

In election problems, percentages are calculated with respect to the total voter base unless stated otherwise. The winning margin is always the difference in percentages between the winner and the loser.

Successive Percentage Shift

When counting the active voting population: Final Valid Votes = Total Registered Voters × (1 − Non-voters%) × (1 − Invalid%).

Question 30

From the top of an upright pole 17.75 m high, the angle of elevation of the top of an upright tower was 60⁰. If the tower was 57.75 m tall, how far away (in m) from the foot of the pole was the foot of the tower?

  1. AOption (a)

    40340\sqrt3

  2. BOption (b)

    15136\frac{151\sqrt3}{6}

  3. COption (c)

    7743\frac{77}{4}\sqrt3

  4. DOption (d)

    4033\frac{40\sqrt3}{3}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

4033\frac{40\sqrt3}{3}

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Height difference between tower and pole (h) = 57.75 − 17.75 = 40 m.

In a 30°−60°−90° triangle, the ratio of sides is 1 : √3 : 2.

The side opposite to 60° is √3 units, and the base (distance) is 1 unit.

√3 units = 40 m ⇒ 1 unit = 40/√3 m.

Distance = (40/√3) × (√3/√3) = 40√3/3 m.

∴ The correct answer is 40√3/3 m.

Alternate Method

Given:

Height of pole (AB) = 17.75 m

Height of tower (CD) = 57.75 m

Angle of elevation from top of pole to top of tower (θ) = 60°

Formula Used:

In a right-angled triangle, tan θ = Perpendicular / Base

Calculations:

Let the distance between the foot of the pole (B) and the foot of the tower (C) be x m.

The height of the tower above the pole level (DE) = CD − AB

⇒ DE = 57.75 − 17.75 = 40 m

In ΔADE, where AE = BC = x:

⇒ tan 60° = DE / AE

⇒ √3 = 40 / x

⇒ x = 40 / √3

To rationalize the denominator, multiply and divide by √3:

⇒ x = (40 × √3) / (√3 × √3)

⇒ x = 40√3 / 3 m

∴ The correct answer is 40√3/3 m.

Additional Information

Angle of Elevation

The angle formed by the line of sight with the horizontal when looking up at an object. tan θ = Height / Distance.

Trigonometric Ratios for Standard Angles

tan 30° = 1/√3, tan 45° = 1, tan 60° = √3.

30°-60°-90° Triangle Rule

Sides are in the ratio 1 : √3 : 2. Side opposite 30° is x, side opposite 60° is x√3, and hypotenuse is 2x.

Question 31

Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to sequentially replace the * signs and balance the given equation.

33 * 4 * 15 * 3 * 61 = 188

  1. AOption (a)
    • × ÷ −
  2. BOption (b)

    × − ÷ +

  3. COption (c)
    • − ÷ ×
  4. DOption (d)

    ÷ × − +

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

× − ÷ +

Why this answer is correct

Now let's try each option one by one

    • × ÷ −    Replacing * by this symbol

​33 + 4 × 15 ÷ 3 - 61 = -7 ≠ 188

This option does not give the correct result.

  1. × − ÷ +   Replacing * by this symbol

33 × 4 − 15 ÷ 3 + 61 = 188

This option gives the correct result.

First, we perform the division operation of 15 ÷ 3, which gives us 5.

33 × 4 − 5 + 61 = 188

Then we perform the multiplication operation of 33 × 4, which gives us 132.

132 - 5 + 61 = 188

Next, we perform the subtraction operation of 132 + 61 , which gives us 193.

193 - 5 = 188

Finally, we perform the addition operation of 193 - 5, which gives us 188.

Therefore, the correct combination of mathematical signs is × − ÷ +.

    • − ÷ ×   Replacing * by this symbol

​ 33 + 4 − 15 ÷ 3 × 61 = -  268 ≠ 188

This option does not give the correct result.

  1. ÷ × − +     Replacing * by this symbol

33 ÷ 4 × 15 − 3 + 61 = 181.75 ≠ 188

This option does not give the correct result.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2, i.e., × − ÷ +.

Question 32

Select the option in which the following figure is embedded. (Rotation is NOT allowed)

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

The option figure in which image is embedded is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 33

Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark (?) and complete the pattern.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

The figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series is shown below:

 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 34

A number has been denoted to each of the given letters. Select the option from the following four possible arrangements of these numbers that forms a meaningful word.

E = 1, N = 2, T = 3, S = 4, T = 5, D = 6, U = 7

  1. AOption (a)

    4,3,7,6,1,2,5

  2. BOption (b)

    2,1,4,3,6,7,5

  3. COption (c)

    4,3,7,1,6,5,2

  4. DOption (d)

    2,1,4,6,3,5,7

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

4,3,7,6,1,2,5

Why this answer is correct

Given: E = 1, N = 2, T = 3, S = 4, T = 5, D = 6, U = 7

Option 1: 4,3,7,6,1,2,5 - Forms the word "STUDENT".

Option 2: 2,1,4,3,6,7,5 - Forms the word "NESTDUT". This is not a meaningful word in English.

Option 3: 4,3,7,1,6,5,2 - Forms the word "STUEDTN". This is a misspelled version of the correct word "STUDENT".

Option 4: 2,1,4,6,3,5,7 - Forms the word "NESDTTU". This is not a meaningful word in English, and the use of the number 7 instead of the letter U makes it clear that this is not a valid answer.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 35

In this question, the statement is followed by two conclusions. Which of the two conclusion(s) is/are true?

Statement: A = B ≥ C ≤ D > G < E < F

Conclusions:

I. B > F

II. C < A

  1. AOption (a)

    Only conclusion I is true.

  2. BOption (b)

    Only conclusion II is true.

  3. COption (c)

    Neither conclusion I nor II is true.

  4. DOption (d)

    Both conclusions I and II are true.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Neither conclusion I nor II is true.

Why this answer is correct

The given statement is: A = B ≥ C ≤ D > G < E < F

Conclusion I:  B > F

We can see that there is no direct comparison between B and F in the given statement. Therefore, we cannot conclude that B is greater than F. Hence, conclusion I is false.

Conclusion II: C < A

As per the given statement, A = B and B ≥ C. Combining these two equations, we can conclude that A ≥ C. Therefore, conclusion II is false.

Hence, neither conclusion I nor II is true. The answer is option (3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true.

Question 36

In this question, a statement is followed by two courses of action, numbered I and II. You must assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the information given in the statement, decide which course of action/s logically follows for pursuing.

Statement: There is a large increase in migration of villagers to urban areas as repeated crop failure has put them into financial problems.

Course of action:

I. The villagers should be provided with an alternate source of income in their villages which will make them stay there only.

II. To ensure their survival, the migrated villagers should be given access to all housing options in urban areas.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only II follows

  2. BOption (b)

    Both I and II follow

  3. COption (c)

    Neither I nor II follows

  4. DOption (d)

    Only I follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Only I follows

Why this answer is correct

The given statement highlights the reason for the large increase in migration of villagers to urban areas. Based on this, we can evaluate the two courses of action:

Course of action I: The villagers should be provided with an alternate source of income in their villages which will make them stay there only. This course of action seems logical and appropriate as providing an alternate source of income in their villages would help them stay in their villages instead of migrating to urban areas. This can also help in reducing the pressure on urban areas and improving the overall living conditions of the villagers in their own villages.

Course of action II: To ensure their survival, the migrated villagers should be given access to all housing options in urban areas. This course of action is not a practical solution as providing access to all housing options in urban areas may not be possible for the authorities. It may also not solve the root cause of the problem, which is the repeated crop failure leading to financial problems. Moreover, providing housing options to migrants may lead to the creation of slums and other social problems in urban areas.

Therefore, only course of action I logically follows for pursuing.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 37

A question is given, followed by two statements numbered (I) and (II). You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements is sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and select the appropriate answer.

Question: A, B, C and D are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Who sits to the immediate right of A?

Statements:

(I) C sits to the immediate left of A; only one person sits between C and D.

(II) Only one person sits between A and B; C sits to the immediate right of B.

  1. AOption (a)

    Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement II is not

  2. BOption (b)

    Data in either statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question

  3. COption (c)

    Data in statements I and II together is sufficient to answer the question

  4. DOption (d)

    Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement I is not

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Data in either statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question

Why this answer is correct

Question: A, B, C and D are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.

Statements:

(I) C sits to the immediate left of A; only one person sits between C and D.

Hence, D is the immediate right of A. Statement I is sufficient to give the correct answer.

(II) Only one person sits between A and B; C sits to the immediate right of B.

Hence, D is the immediate right of A. Statement II is sufficient to give the correct answer.

Hence, The correct answer is "Data in either statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question ".

Question 38

Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

The figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series is shown below:

1) For '

' element : Rotating alternately 45º and 225º (45º + 180º) in the clockwise direction.

​​

Final series is :

Hence, ‘option - (1)’ is the correct answer.

Question 39

Six friends J, K, L, M, N and O are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. N is not an immediate neighbour of M. M is sitting to the immediate left of J. J is sitting opposite to L, who is sitting to the immediate right of K. Who is sitting second to the left of L?

  1. AOption (a)

    M

  2. BOption (b)

    O

  3. COption (c)

    K

  4. DOption (d)

    N

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

N

Why this answer is correct

Given : 

  1. Six friends - J, K, L, M, N and O
  2. They are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.

Explanation : 

1) M is sitting to the immediate left of J.

2) J is sitting opposite to L, who is sitting to the immediate right of K.

3) N is not an immediate neighbour of M.

After positioning M, only one position is left which will be occupied by the only person left i,.e O.

Thus, according to the final arrangement N is sitting second to the left of L.

Hence, "N" is the correct answer.

Question 40

Three of the following words are alike in some manner and hence form a group. Which word does NOT belong to that group? (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be grouped based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word) 

  1. AOption (a)

    Clarinet

  2. BOption (b)

    Flute

  3. COption (c)

    Piano

  4. DOption (d)

    Piccolo

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Piano

Why this answer is correct

The three words that belong to the same group are Clarinet, Flute, and Piccolo because they are all musical instruments that are played by blowing into them.

On the other hand, Piano is a musical instrument that is played by pressing keys on a keyboard, which is different from the other three instruments.

Therefore, option 3 (Piano) does not belong to the same group as the other three words.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 41

In a certain code, the word COMPAQ is written as DQNRBS and SONY is written as TQOA. In the same code, how is MOTOROLA written? 

  1. AOption (a)

    NPUPSPMB

  2. BOption (b)

    INUNSNMB

  3. COption (c)

    NQUQSQMC

  4. DOption (d)

    OPUPUPIB

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

NQUQSQMC

Why this answer is correct

Logic : Alternately (1) and (2) are added to the position value according to the English alphabetic series.

​​So,

  • COMPAQ is written as DQNRBS

​ 

​And,

  • SONY is written as TQOA

​ 

​Similarly,

  • MOTOROLA is written as :

​ 

Hence, "NQUQSQMC" is the correct answer.

Question 42

Out of the following five figures, four are alike in some manner and one differs from these in that manner. Select the odd figure.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

Logic : In each figure according to the direction of arrows at one end of the line, at the other end half arrow is drawn to right hand side of the line.

So,

  • Option - (1) :

 

⇒ The half arrow is drawn to left hand side of the arrows at the other end of the line.

  • Option - (2) :

 

⇒ The half arrow is drawn to right hand side of the arrows at the other end of the line.

  • Option - (3) :

⇒ The half arrow is drawn to right hand side of the arrows at the other end of the line.

  • Option - (4) :

 

⇒ The half arrow is drawn to right hand side of the arrows at the other end of the line.

Here, Figure - (1) is the odd one out.

Hence, "Option - (1)" is the correct answer.

Question 43

In a certain code language, ‘CROSS’ is written as ‘66’ and ‘CHART’ is written as ‘90’. How will ‘SYMBOL’ be written in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    82

  2. BOption (b)

    93

  3. COption (c)

    76

  4. DOption (d)

    88

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

82

Why this answer is correct

Logic : Sum of the position values of immediate opposite letter according to the English alphabetic series are added to number of the digits within the word.

​​So,

  • ‘CROSS’ is written as ‘66’

​ 

​And,

  • ‘CHART’ is written as ‘90’

​ 

​Similarly,

  • ‘SYMBOL’ is written as :

​ 

Hence, "82" is the correct answer.

Question 44

Out of the following five figures, four are alike in some manner and one differs from these in that manner. Select the odd figure.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

Logic : In each figure no columns and rows is vacant i.e atleast one box of all the rows and columns is occupied by '

' element or '

' element. 

  • Option - (1) :

 

⇒ Atleast one box of all the rows and columns is occupied by '

' element.

  • Option - (2) :

 

⇒ Atleast one box of all the rows and columns is occupied by '

' element.

  • Option - (3) :

⇒  Atleast one box of all the rows and columns is occupied by '

' element.

  • Option - (4) :

 

⇒ Atleast one box of all the rows is occupied by '

' element but one column as marked in the figure is vacant.

Here, Figure - (4) is the odd one out.

Hence, "Option - (4)" is the correct answer.

Question 45

Which of the following letter-clusters should replace # and % so that the pattern and relationship followed between the letter-cluster pair on the left side of :: is the same as that on the right side of ::?

: CLQ :: NDK : %

  1. AOption (a)

    = AJS, % = MAM

  2. BOption (b)

    = AOO, % = PAM

  3. COption (c)

    = EIT, % = QBN

  4. DOption (d)

    = DIS, % = PBN

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

= AOO, % = PAM

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :- 

  1. First and third letter → (2) is added to the position value according to English alphabetic series.
  2. Second letter → (3) is subtracted from the position value according to English alphabetic series.

​So,

  • = AJS, % = MAM  ⇒ AJS : CLQ :: NDK : MAM

​ 

⇒Here, no similar pattern can be seen.

  • = AOO, % = PAM  ⇒ AOO : CLQ :: NDK : PAM

​       

⇒Here, similar pattern can be seen.

  • = EIT, % = QBN ⇒ EIT : CLQ :: NDK : QBN

​           

⇒Here, no similar pattern can be seen.

  • = DIS, % = PBN ⇒ DIS : CLQ :: NDK : PBN​

​           

⇒Here, no similar pattern can be seen.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option - (2)".

Question 46

In a row of people all facing north, Prince is 5th from the right end. Amit is 15th from the right end. Amit is exactly between Prince and Aditya. If Aditya is sixth from the left end of the line, how many people are there in the row?

  1. AOption (a)

    29

  2. BOption (b)

    31

  3. COption (c)

    30

  4. DOption (d)

    32

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

30

Why this answer is correct

Given : Certain number of people are positioned on a row and all of them are facing towards north direction. 

Explanation :

1) Prince is 5th from the right end.

  1. Amit is 15th from the right end. 

3) Amit is exactly between Prince and Aditya.

4) Aditya is sixth from the left end of the line. 

Total number of people = 6 + 9 + 1 (Amit) + 9 + 5 = 30

Hence, "30" is the correct answer.

Question 47

If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷, and ÷ means +, what will be the value of the following expression?

45 × 9 ÷ 12 – 5 + 3

  1. AOption (a)

    34

  2. BOption (b)

    27

  3. COption (c)

    36

  4. DOption (d)

    62

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

62

Why this answer is correct

Given:

+ means −,

− means ×,

× means ÷, and

÷ means +

As per the given conditions, we need to replace the mathematical symbols with their corresponding operations.

45 × 9 ÷ 12 – 5 + 3

Using BODMAS,

= 45 ÷ 9 + 12 × 5 – 3

= 5 +  12 × 5 – 3

= 5 + 60 – 3

= 65 - 3

= 62

Therefore, the value of the expression is 62.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 48

The second number in the given number-pairs is obtained by performing certain mathematical operation(s) on the first number. The same operation(s) is/are followed in all the number-pairs except one. Find that odd number-pair.

  1. AOption (a)

    10 ∶ 33

  2. BOption (b)

    2 ∶ 9

  3. COption (c)

    8 ∶ 29

  4. DOption (d)

    6 ∶ 21

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

8 ∶ 29

Why this answer is correct

Let's examine each number pair:

  1. 10 ∶ 33  The second number is obtained by multiplying the first number by 3 and adding 3. (10 × 3) + 3 = 33.
  2. 2 ∶ 9  The second number is obtained by multiplying the first number by 3 and adding 3. 2 × 3 + 3 = 9.
  3. 8 ∶ 29 The second number is obtained by multiplying the first number by 3 and adding 5. (8 × 3) + 5 = 29.
  4. 6 ∶ 21 The second number is obtained by multiplying the first number by 3 and adding 3. (6 ×  3) + 3 = 21.

We can see that the same mathematical operation has been performed on number pairs 1, 2, and 4 (multiplying the first number by 3 and adding 3 ).

However, a different operation has been performed on number-pair 3  ( multiplying the first number by 3 and adding 5. ). Therefore, the odd number pair is 8 ∶ 29.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3, which is 8 ∶ 29.

Question 49

Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

189, 532, 316, ?, 377

  1. AOption (a)

    384

  2. BOption (b)

    291

  3. COption (c)

    441

  4. DOption (d)

    405

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

441

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 50

Three Statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

Some poems are horses.

All horses are toys.

All toys are ships.

Conclusions:

I. All toys being poems is a possibility.

II. Some horses are ships.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both conclusions I and II follow.

  2. BOption (b)

    Either conclusion I or II follows.

  3. COption (c)

    Only conclusion I follows.

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both conclusions I and II follow.

Why this answer is correct

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

I. All toys being poems is a possibility → follow (The given conclusion is not definite but there is possibility applied in it. So, false conclusion with possibility will be considered as true conclusion, Hence, it is true.)

II. Some horses are ships →  follow (As all horses are toys and all toys are ships. So, all horses comes in toys which whole comes in ships therefore it is definitely true)

∴ Here, Both conclusions I and II follow.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Both conclusions I and II follow"

Question 51

‘A # B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’.

‘A @ B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’.

‘A & B’ means ‘A is the husband of B’.

‘A % B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’.

If S % D # F @ G & H @ J,

then how is F related to H?

  1. AOption (a)

    Daughter

  2. BOption (b)

    Mother

  3. COption (c)

    Daughter’s daughter

  4. DOption (d)

    Son’s wife

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Daughter

Why this answer is correct

Given :

A is
Symbol#@&%
MeaningBrotherDaughterHusbandWife
to B

Given statement : S % D # F @ G & H @ J

So,

  • S % D → S is the wife of D.

  • D # F → D is the brother of F.

  • F @ G → F is the daughter of G.

  • G & H → G is the husband of H.

  • H @ J → H is the daughter of J.

​

Thus, according to the final family tree F is the daughter of H.

Hence, "Daughter" is the correct answer.

Question 52

The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown below. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of the paper.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

We unfold the paper step by step:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 53

Select the option that represents the letters that, when placed from left to right in the following blanks, will complete the letter-series.

_ V J R W B _ _ R W B V L _ _ B V _ _ W

  1. AOption (a)

    B V K R W M R

  2. BOption (b)

    A V K R W M R

  3. COption (c)

    A W K R X N R

  4. DOption (d)

    B W K R W M R

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

B V K R W M R

Why this answer is correct

Given : _ V J R W B _ _ R W B V L _ _ B V _ _ W 

By checking options :

  1. B V K R W M R → B V J R W B V K R W B V L R W B V M R W  → (It follows the pattern of :

  2. A V K R W M R → A V J R W B V K R W B V L R W B V M R W → (It doesn't Follows the pattern)

  3. A W K R X N R → A V J R W B W K R W B V L R X B V N R W → (It doesn't Follows the pattern)

  4. B W K R W M R → B V J R W B W K R W B V L R W B V M R W → (It doesn't Follows the pattern)

⇒Option - (1) gives the pattern of "B V J R W - B V K R W - B V L R W - B V M R W"

Hence, "B V K R W M R" is the correct answer.

Question 54

Directions

A statement is given followed by two inferences I and II. You have to consider the statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance with commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given inferences, if any, follow from the given statement.

Statement:

Extensive use of pesticides in agricultural production contaminates soil and water, remain in the crops and finally enter food chain, thereby posing threat to the human beings.

Inference:

I. Excessive use of pesticides in agricultural production is not good for people.

II. Excessive use of pesticides in agricultural production can have a bad effect on water.

  1. AOption (a)

    If only II follows

  2. BOption (b)

    If neither I nor II follows

  3. COption (c)

    If only I follows

  4. DOption (d)

    If both I and II follow

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

If both I and II follow

Why this answer is correct

Inference I states that excessive use of pesticides in agricultural production is not good for people. This can be inferred from the statement, which clearly states that extensive use of pesticides can contaminate soil, water, crops and can pose a threat to human beings.

Inference II states that excessive use of pesticides in agricultural production can have a bad effect on water. This can also be inferred from the statement, which clearly states that extensive use of pesticides can contaminate soil and water, and can enter the food chain, posing a threat to human beings.

Therefore, both inferences I and II follow from the given statement.

Hence the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 55

In this question, two statements I and II have been given. These statements may be independent causes or effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of the statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both statements and select the correct answer.

I. Country X reduced their crude oil import by 6% in the last 5 years.

II. The automobile industry in Country X has witnessed a sharp decline of 13% in its growth margin this year.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both I and II are effects of independent causes.

  2. BOption (b)

    I is the cause and II is its possible effect.

  3. COption (c)

    II is the cause and I is its possible effect.

  4. DOption (d)

    Both I and II are independent causes.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both I and II are effects of independent causes.

Why this answer is correct

I.  Country X reduced their crude oil import by 6% in the last 5 years.:

The reduction in crude oil import may have been due to various reasons such as increased domestic production, shift towards renewable energy sources, or decreased demand for oil.

Similarly,

II. The automobile industry in Country X has witnessed a sharp decline of 13% in its growth margin this year.:

The decline in the growth margin of the automobile industry may have been due to factors such as economic slowdown, increased competition, or changes in consumer preferences. There is no clear cause-effect relationship between the two statements.

Therefore, Option 1 is correct because both statements are independent effects of different causes.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 56

'A # B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’.

‘A @ B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’.

‘A & B’ means ‘A is the husband of B’.

‘A % B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’.

If D @ N @ H & Y @ F % V, then how is V related to H?

  1. AOption (a)

    Father’s father

  2. BOption (b)

    Father

  3. COption (c)

    Son-in-law

  4. DOption (d)

    Wife’s father

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Wife’s father

Why this answer is correct

Given :

A is
Symbol#@&%
MeaningBrotherDaughterHusbandWife
to B

Given statement : D @ N @ H & Y @ F % V

So,

  • D @ N → D is the daughter of N.

  • N @ H → N is the daughter of H.

  • H & Y → H is the husband of Y.

  • Y @ F → Y is the daughter of F.

  • F % V → F is the wife of V.

​

Thus, according to the final family tree V is the father-in-law of H or Wife’s i.e  Y's father.

Hence, "Wife’s father" is the correct answer.

Question 57

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set.

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is NOT allowed)

(7, 3, 43)

(5, 2, 21)

  1. AOption (a)

    (11,5,111)

  2. BOption (b)

    (15,6,34)

  3. COption (c)

    (13,23,131)

  4. DOption (d)

    (12,3,43)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(11,5,111)

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is : Square of 1st number - (2 × 2nd number) = 3rd number

Given : 

  • (7, 3, 43)

(7)2(7)^2 - (2 × 3) = 43

49 - 6 = 43

43 = 43 (LHS = RHS)

  • (5, 2, 21)

(5)2(5)^2 - (2 × 2) = 21

25 - 4 = 21

21 = 21 (LHS = RHS)

So,

  • Option - (1) : (11,5,111)

(11)2(11)^2 - (2 × 5) = 111

121 - 10 = 111

111 = 111 (LHS = RHS)

  • Option - (2) : (15,6,34)

(15)2(15)^2 - (2 × 6) = 34

225 - 12 = 34

213 ≠ 34 (LHS ≠ RHS)

  • Option - (3) : (13,23,131)

(13)2(13)^2 - (2 × 23) = 131

169 - 46 = 131

123 ≠ 131 (LHS ≠ RHS)

  • Option - (4) : (12,3,43)

(12)2(12)^2 - (2 × 3) = 43

144 - 6 = 43

138 ≠ 43 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option - (1)" is the correct answer.

Question 58

Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at 'PQ' as shown below.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 59

Given below is a question followed by two statements I and II. Read both statements carefully to decide which one of them is sufficient to answer the question.

Six people - A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a straight line facing north. Who sits to the immediate left of D?

(I) A sits second from one of the extreme ends of the line. Only two people sit between A and B. E sits to the immediate right of C.

(II) C sits third from the left end of the line. Only one person sits between C and F. E sits third to the right of F.

  1. AOption (a)

    Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement I is not.

  2. BOption (b)

    Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement II is not.

  3. COption (c)

    Data in statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

  4. DOption (d)

    Data in statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Data in statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Why this answer is correct

Given : 

  1. Six people - A, B, C, D, E and F
  2. All of them are sitting in a straight line facing north.

Explanation :

  • Statement - (I) : A sits second from one of the extreme ends of the line. Only two people sit between A and B. E sits to the immediate right of C.

Here, position of D cannot be determined in both the cases, therefore who is sitting to the immediate left of D cannot be answered. 

  • Statement - (II) : C sits third from the left end of the line. Only one person sits between C and F. E sits third to the right of F.

Here, position of D cannot be determined in both the cases, therefore who is sitting to the immediate left of D cannot be answered. 

So,

⇒Combining both the statements (I) and (II), we get :

Here, Either A or B is sitting to the immediate left of D. Thus it cannot be determined.

Therefore, Data in statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Hence, "Option - (3)" is the correct answer.

Question 60

Figure A is related to B in a certain pattern. Following the same pattern, figure C is related to D. Study the pattern and select the figure which should be placed in place of D.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :-

  • Letter at the left down corner is flipped horizontally and shifted to the opposite side i.e right up corner.
  • figures at the left up corner and right down corner are rotated 90º in the clockwise direction.
  • The center element is doubled.

So, 

  • Figures A and B ⇒

​

Similarly,

  • Figure C and D ⇒

​

Hence, "Option - (2)" is the correct answer.

Section II (70 questions)

Question 61

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

We should sorted out / the problem ourselves / rather than depending / on the third party.

  1. AOption (a)

    rather than depending

  2. BOption (b)

    the problem ourselves

  3. COption (c)

    We should sorted out

  4. DOption (d)

    on the third party

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

We should sorted out

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

  • In the given sentence, the error is in the first part "We should sorted out" of the sentence.
  • A modal verb is followed by the first form of the verb.
  • Example: We can win the match.
  • Thus, 'sorted' should be replaced by 'sort'.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Correct Sentence: We should sort out the problem ourselves rather than depending on the third party.

Question 62

Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. She shot the movie on the widest canvas possible using the same kind of equipment that captured Star Wars landscapes, and applied a muted colour grading to every frame.

B. She said last year that she wanted the ensemble film to look like “a faded postcard”.

C. Polley lends the central conversation a visual gravitas normally reserved for epics.

D. Women Talking, adapted by the writer-director Sarah Polley from Miriam Toews’s 2018 novel, is vibrant cinema.

  1. AOption (a)

    DABC

  2. BOption (b)

    DBCA

  3. COption (c)

    CABD

  4. DOption (d)

    DCAB

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

DCAB

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is DCAB.

Key Points

  • The correct order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph is DCAB.
  • Sentence D introduces the topic and presents a positive assessment of the movie Women Talking, calling it "vibrant cinema."
  • Sentence C describes how the director, Sarah Polley, gave the central conversation in the movie a "visual gravitas normally reserved for epics," which adds to the reader's interest in the movie.
  • Sentence A gives more detail on how Polley achieved the desired look of the movie, with a muted color grading and the use of equipment typically used for capturing epic landscapes.
  • Finally, sentence B adds another detail about Polley's intention for the movie to look like a "faded postcard," which reinforces the visual style of the movie described in the previous sentences.
  • Thus, the correct order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph is DCAB.

Correct Sequence:

D. Women Talking, adapted by the writer-director Sarah Polley from Miriam Toews’s 2018 novel, is vibrant cinema.

C. Polley lends the central conversation a visual gravitas normally reserved for epics.

A. She shot the movie on the widest canvas possible using the same kind of equipment that captured Star Wars landscapes, and applied a muted colour grading to every frame.

B. She said last year that she wanted the ensemble film to look like “a faded postcard”

Question 63

Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. On the afternoon of that eventful day, I stood on the porch, dumb, expectant and guessed vaguely from my mother's signs and from the hurrying to and fro in the house that something unusual was about to happen, so I went to the door and waited on the steps.

B. I did not know what the future held of marvel or surprise for me and anger and bitterness had preyed upon me continually for weeks and a deep languor had succeeded this passionate struggle.

C. The most important day I remember in all my life is the one on which my teacher, Anne Mansfield Sullivan, came to me and I am filled with wonder when I consider the immeasurable contrasts between the two lives which it connects and it was the third of March, 1887, three months before I was seven years old.

D. The afternoon sun penetrated the mass of honeysuckle that covered the porch, and fell on my upturned face and my fingers lingered almost unconsciously on the familiar leaves and blossoms which had just come forth to greet the sweet southern spring.

  1. AOption (a)

    DABC

  2. BOption (b)

    CBAD

  3. COption (c)

    CADB

  4. DOption (d)

    CDAB

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

CADB

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is CADB.

Key Points

  • The correct order of the sentences to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph is CADB.
  • Sentence C is the topic sentence that introduces the most important day in the author's life and the event that changed her life forever, i.e. when her teacher, Anne Mansfield Sullivan, came to her.
  • Sentence A provides more context and sets the scene for the eventful day, with the author standing on the porch and sensing that something unusual is about to happen.
  • Sentence D provides sensory details of the day, with the afternoon sun and honeysuckle on the porch, which add to the reader's understanding of the setting and the author's emotional state.
  • Finally, sentence B adds more background information about the author's emotional state before the arrival of her teacher, which sets up the contrast with the transformative event that follows.
  • Therefore, the correct order of the sentences to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph is CADB.

Correct Sequence:

C. The most important day I remember in all my life is the one on which my teacher, Anne Mansfield Sullivan, came to me and I am filled with wonder when I consider the immeasurable contrasts between the two lives which it connects and it was the third of March, 1887, three months before I was seven years old.

A. On the afternoon of that eventful day, I stood on the porch, dumb, expectant and guessed vaguely from my mother's signs and from the hurrying to and fro in the house that something unusual was about to happen, so I went to the door and waited on the steps.

D. The afternoon sun penetrated the mass of honeysuckle that covered the porch, and fell on my upturned face and my fingers lingered almost unconsciously on the familiar leaves and blossoms which had just come forth to greet the sweet southern spring. 

B. I did not know what the future held of marvel or surprise for me and anger and bitterness had preyed upon me continually for weeks and a deep languor had succeeded this passionate struggle.

Question 64

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

The mistress appointed him monitor.

  1. AOption (a)

    Monitor had been appointed as mistress.

  2. BOption (b)

    He had been appointed as monitor.

  3. COption (c)

    He was appointed monitor by the mistress.

  4. DOption (d)

    He appointed mistress as monitor.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

He was appointed monitor by the mistress.

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is He was appointed monitor by the mistress. 

Key Points

  • The given sentence is in active voice. We need to change it into passive voice.
  • The subject 'the mistress' becomes the object of the passive voice.
  • The object 'him' becomes the subject 'he' of the passive voice.
  • Simple past tense structure is as follows:-
  • Active voice - Subject + V2 + Object.
  • Passive Voice - Object + was/were + V3 + by + Subject.
  • 'appointed' changes into 'was appointed'.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 3.

Correct Passive Voice: He was appointed monitor by the mistress.

Question 65

Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct logical sequence.

A. When faced with uncertainty, humans look out for the action of others and become a victim of ineffective rational thinking during compelling, confusing situations.

B. According to him, in an emergency, we tend to forget that everybody else observing the event is also likely to be looking out for social evidence.

C. Robert B. Cialdini explains this reaction with a psychological phenomenon called 'pluralistic ignorance'.

D. Since we all prefer to appear poised and unflustered among others, we are likely to search for answers placidly, with brief, camouflaged glances at those around us.

  1. AOption (a)

    ACBD

  2. BOption (b)

    BCDA

  3. COption (c)

    ABCD

  4. DOption (d)

    ABDC

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

ACBD

Why this answer is correct

The correct sequence of the jumbled sentences is ACBD.

Key Points

  • Sentence A talks about how humans tend to become victims of ineffective rational thinking when faced with uncertainty and compelling situations, by looking out for the actions of others.
  • Sentence C explains this phenomenon with the psychological concept of 'pluralistic ignorance'.
  • Sentence B adds to the explanation given in sentence C by stating that during emergencies, people tend to forget that others around them may also be looking out for social evidence.
  • Sentence D concludes the sequence by explaining why people prefer to search for answers placidly and with camouflaged glances at those around them, so as to appear poised and unflustered in front of others.
  • Hence, the correct sequence is ACBD.

Question 66

Select the most appropriate meaning of the highlighted idiom.

The team members seem to be running around in circles.

  1. AOption (a)

    To be extremely successful

  2. BOption (b)

    Hardly any time to breathe

  3. COption (c)

    To be very active but with few results

  4. DOption (d)

    Very dynamic and hardworking

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

To be very active but with few results

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is To be very active but with few results.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate meaning of the highlighted idiom "running around in circles" in the given context is "to be very active but with few results."
  • The idiom "running around in circles" means to engage in a lot of activity or effort without making any progress or achieving anything useful. It is similar to the idiom "going round in circles."
  • In the given context, the team members seem to be busy and active, but they are not making any progress or achieving their goals.
  • For example, if someone is looking for their keys in a messy room but can't find them despite searching for a long time, they may say, "I feel like I'm running around in circles trying to find my keys."
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 3.

Question 67

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.

The canons are being fired continuously by them.

  1. AOption (a)

    They fired canons continuously.

  2. BOption (b)

    They are firing the canons continuously.

  3. COption (c)

    They have fired the canons continuously.

  4. DOption (d)

    The canons fire continuously.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

They are firing the canons continuously.

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is They are firing the canons continuously. 

Key Points

  • The given sentence is in passive voice. We need to change it into active voice.
  • The given sentence is in present continuous tense.
  • The structure will be:
  • Passive Voice: Object + is/am/are + being + V3 + by + Subject.
  • Active Voice: Subject + is/am/are + V1 + ing + Object.
  • The subject and object interchange their places.
  • 'are being fired' changes to 'are firing'.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 2.

Correct Active Voice: They are firing the canons continuously.

Question 68

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Many students do not _____________ attention in botany class.

  1. AOption (a)

    exhibit

  2. BOption (b)

    drive

  3. COption (c)

    pay

  4. DOption (d)

    trace

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

pay

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "pay".

Key Points

  • The verb "pay" collocates with the noun "attention", which means to give attention or focus to something.
  • Examples:
  • I always pay attention in math class because I want to understand the concepts.
  • The teacher asked the students to pay attention during the lecture.
  • If you don't pay attention in the driving class, you may not pass the test.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 3.

Correct Sentence: Many students do not  pay attention in botany class. 

Additional Information

  • Option 1, "exhibit", means to show or display something, but it doesn't convey the correct meaning in this context.
  • Option 2, "drive", means to propel or control the movement of something, but it doesn't fit in this sentence.
  • Option 4, "trace", means to find the origins or development of something, but it doesn't fit in this sentence either.
  • Therefore, the correct option to fill in the blank is 3) "pay".

Question 69

Identify the option that arranges the given parts in the correct order to form a meaningful paragraph.

A. Then a nurse and a doctor came

B. After the terrible accident

C. A car took Raman to the hospital

D. The two men carried him to a bed and put him in it carefully

  1. AOption (a)

    DCBA

  2. BOption (b)

    ABCD

  3. COption (c)

    BCDA

  4. DOption (d)

    ACDB

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

BCDA

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is BCDA.

Key Points

  • The correct option to arrange the given parts in the correct order to form a meaningful paragraph is BCDA.
  • The paragraph talks about a terrible accident that happened to Raman and the events that followed after it.
  • The sentence B, "After the terrible accident," sets the context for the paragraph.
  • The sentence C, "A car took Raman to the hospital," describes how Raman was taken to the hospital after the accident.
  • The sentence D, "The two men carried him to a bed and put him in it carefully," describes how two men helped Raman to a bed.
  • The sentence A, "Then a nurse and a doctor came," completes the paragraph by explaining who came after Raman was taken to the bed.
  • Therefore, the correct order of the sentences is BCDA, and option 3) BCDA is the correct answer.

Hinglish

  • एक अर्थपूर्ण पैराग्राफ बनाने के लिए दिए गए भागों को सही क्रम में व्यवस्थित करने का सही विकल्प BCDA है।
  • यह पैराग्राफ रमन के साथ हुई भयानक दुर्घटना और उसके बाद की घटनाओं के बारे में बात करता है।
  • sentence B, "After the terrible accident," अनुच्छेद के लिए संदर्भ निर्धारित करता है।
  • sentence C, "A car took Raman to the hospital,"  दुर्घटना के बाद रमन को अस्पताल ले जाने का वर्णन करता है।
  • sentence D, "The two men carried him to a bed and put him in it carefully," वर्णन करता है कि कैसे दो पुरुषों ने रमन को बिस्तर पर लाने में मदद की।
  • sentence A, "Then a nurse and a doctor came," पैराग्राफ को यह समझाते हुए पूरा करता है कि रमन को बिस्तर पर ले जाने के बाद कौन आया था।

Question 70

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

Marvel Comics created Superman.

  1. AOption (a)

    Superman was created by Marvel Comics.

  2. BOption (b)

    Superman was created.

  3. COption (c)

    Superman is created by Marvel Comics.

  4. DOption (d)

    Marvel Comics is creating Superman.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Superman was created by Marvel Comics.

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Superman was created by Marvel Comics.

Key Points

  • The above-given sentence is in the active voice.
  • We need to change it in the passive voice.
  • The following steps are required to change the given sentence into passive voice:-
  • The subject 'Marvel Comics' of the active voice will become the object of the passive voice.
  • The object 'Superman' of the active voice will become the subject of the passive voice.
  • The tense**(simple past tense)** will change according to the following structure:-
  • Active Voice - Subject + (did + V1) or (V2) + Object.
  • Passive Voice - Object + was/were + V3 + by + Subject.
  • ​Thus, the correct answer is Option 1.

Therefore, the correct passive voice is Superman was created by Marvel Comics.

Additional Information

  • When we convert active voice to passive voice, three things need to be kept in mind:-
  • Change object into subject.
  • Change subject into object.
  • Always use the third form of the verb in the passive voice.
  • Use 'by' before the new object.

Question 71

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Tia wanted a dog that was __________ than Larry’s dog.

  1. AOption (a)

    smarty and strong

  2. BOption (b)

    smartest and strongest

  3. COption (c)

    smarter and stronger

  4. DOption (d)

    smart and strong

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

smarter and stronger

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Smarter and stronger.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate option to fill in the blank is 3) "smarter and stronger".
  • In the sentence, Tia wants a dog that is both smarter and stronger than Larry's dog.
  • Option 1, "smarty and strong," is not correct because "smarty" is not a correct adjective, and it should be "smart".
  • Option 2, "smartest and strongest," is not correct because it implies that Tia's dog should be the smartest and the strongest among all the dogs, which is not what the sentence is trying to convey.
  • Option 4, "smart and strong," is not correct because it does not convey the sense of comparison between Tia's dog and Larry's dog.
  • Therefore, option 3, "smarter and stronger," is the most appropriate choice to fill in the blank as it conveys the meaning that Tia wants a dog that is both smarter and stronger than Larry's dog.

Correct Sentence: Tia wanted a dog that was smarter and stronger than Larry’s dog.

Question 72

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

The reputed officer was removed from his post as he was having a clandestine affair.

  1. AOption (a)

    Surreptitious

  2. BOption (b)

    Overt

  3. COption (c)

    Amorous

  4. DOption (d)

    Casual

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Overt

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Overt.

Key Points

  • The word "clandestine" means kept secret or done secretively, especially because illicit. (गुप्त, गुप्त रूप से किया गया)
  • Example: They held a clandestine meeting to discuss the secret plans.
  • The antonym of "clandestine" is "Overt", which means done or shown openly; plainly apparent. (स्पष्ट, खुला)
  • Example: The company’s overt support for environmental causes was well-documented.

Therefore, the most appropriate antonym for the underlined word "clandestine" is Option 2 i.e. Overt.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and why they are not suitable antonyms:

  • Surreptitious (गुप्त रूप): Kept secret, especially because it would not be approved of.
  • Example: They conducted a surreptitious investigation.
  • Not suitable because "surreptitious" is a synonym of "clandestine," not an antonym.
  • Amorous (कामुक): Showing, feeling, or relating to sexual desire.
  • Example: He made amorous advances towards her.
  • Not suitable because "amorous" refers to romantic feelings and does not contrast with the secrecy implied by "clandestine."
  • Casual (आकस्मिक): Relaxed and unconcerned.
  • Example: He was casual about the whole affair.
  • Not suitable because "casual" relates to an informal or relaxed manner, which is not directly opposite to "clandestine."

Question 73

Select the most appropriate meaning of the highlighted idiom.

It was a Catch 22 situation for the manager.

  1. AOption (a)

    Worthy successor to the throne

  2. BOption (b)

    A difficult situation in which the solution to a problem is impossible

  3. COption (c)

    Hailed as the ultimate champion

  4. DOption (d)

    A positive outcome in a tough situation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A difficult situation in which the solution to a problem is impossible

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A difficult situation in which the solution to a problem is impossible.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate meaning of the idiom "Catch 22 situation" is option 2) "A difficult situation in which the solution to a problem is impossible."
  • The term "Catch-22" originated from the title of a novel by Joseph Heller, which portrays a situation where an individual is caught in a contradictory or paradoxical situation, where the solution to one problem creates another problem that makes it impossible to proceed.
  • For example, if a person wants to get a job but needs experience to get a job, they are in a Catch-22 situation because they can't get the job without experience and they can't gain experience without the job.
  • In the given sentence, the manager is in a Catch-22 situation, which means the manager is facing a difficult problem where the solution leads to another problem that makes it impossible to solve.
  • Therefore, the most appropriate meaning of the highlighted idiom in the given sentence is "a difficult situation in which the solution to a problem is impossible."

Question 74

Select the sentence that contains no spelling errors.

  1. AOption (a)

    The granduor of the ancient Roman Empire is visible in many monuments in Italy and Greece.

  2. BOption (b)

    The grandour of the ancient Roman Empire is visible in many monumants in Italy and Greece.

  3. COption (c)

    The grandeur of the ancient Roman Empire is visible in many monuments in Italy and Greece.

  4. DOption (d)

    The granduer of the ancient Roman Empire is visible in many monuments in Italy and Greece.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The grandeur of the ancient Roman Empire is visible in many monuments in Italy and Greece.

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is The grandeur of the ancient Roman Empire is visible in many monuments in Italy and Greece.

Key Points

  • The correct sentence that contains no spelling errors is option 3) "The grandeur of the ancient Roman Empire is visible in many monuments in Italy and Greece."
  • The word "grandeur" means magnificence, splendor, or grandness. It is spelled correctly in option 3.
  • Option 1 has a spelling error with "granduor" instead of "grandeur."
  • Option 2 also has a spelling error with "monumants" instead of "monuments." "Grandeur" is also incorrectly spelt.
  • Option 4 has a spelling error with "granduer" instead of "grandeur."
  • Examples:
  • The grandeur of the Taj Mahal attracts millions of tourists every year.
  • The grandeur of the fireworks display was breathtaking.
  • The grandeur of the mountains was awe-inspiring.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option 3) "The grandeur of the ancient Roman Empire is visible in many monuments in Italy and Greece."

Question 75

Select the most appropriate synonym of the word given in brackets to fill in the blank.

The doctor has __________ (advised) medicine for the treatment of the disease.

  1. AOption (a)

    prevented

  2. BOption (b)

    proscribed

  3. COption (c)

    presented

  4. DOption (d)

    prescribed

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

prescribed

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Prescribed.

Key Points

  • The verb "advised" means to recommend or suggest something, especially as a course of action. Here's an example sentence:
  • The doctor advised him to rest for a few days to recover from the illness.
  • The most appropriate synonym of the word "advised" to fill in the blank is "prescribed," which means to recommend or order a medicine or treatment.
  • Example: "The doctor prescribed antibiotics for the patient's infection."
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 4.

Additional Information

  • Option 1, "prevented," means to stop something from happening and is not a synonym of "advised."
  • Option 2, "proscribed," means to forbid or prohibit something and is not a synonym of "advised."
  • Option 3, "presented," means to show or offer something and is not a synonym of "advised."

Question 76

Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. The temperature of the world has increased, resulting in global warming.

B. The melting of the ice caps will increase the sea level, thereby drowning many islands and coastal regions.

C. The increased amount of carbon emission is considered as the reason behind global warming.

D. The increase in the global temperature is melting the polar ice caps.

  1. AOption (a)

    ABCD

  2. BOption (b)

    ACBD

  3. COption (c)

    ACDB

  4. DOption (d)

    BADC

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

ACDB

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is ACDB.

Key Points

 

  • A) The sentence "The temperature of the world has increased, resulting in global warming*"* provides the context for the paragraph by stating that global warming is the main subject of the paragraph.
  • C) The sentence "The increased amount of carbon emission is considered as the reason behind global warming" provides the cause for global warming, which is due to the increased amount of carbon emission in the atmosphere.
  • D) The sentence "The increase in the global temperature is melting the polar ice caps" explains how the increase in global temperature is causing the polar ice caps to melt.
  • B) The sentence "The melting of the ice caps will increase the sea level, thereby drowning many islands and coastal regions" explains the consequences of the polar ice caps melting, which will lead to an increase in sea level, causing the drowning of many islands and coastal regions.
  • Therefore, the correct order of the sentences to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph is ACDB.

Question 77

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

The placid conversation between the two cricketers on a TV show aroused much controversy.

  1. AOption (a)

    Sardonic

  2. BOption (b)

    Inappropriate

  3. COption (c)

    Informal

  4. DOption (d)

    Angry

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Angry

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Angry.

Key Points

  • "Placid" means calm and peaceful. Its antonym is "angry" which means showing strong feelings of displeasure or hostility.
  • In the given context, the conversation between the two cricketers did not seem controversial, but it actually created a lot of controversy.
  • Examples:
  • The placid lake was disturbed by the loud noise of the motorboat.
  • I could tell by the way he was clenching his fists and his red face that he was very angry.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 4.

Additional Information

  • Option 1) Sardonic means mocking or cynical. It is not an antonym of "placid".
  • Example: His sardonic remarks left everyone speechless.
  • Option 2) Inappropriate means not suitable or proper for the situation. It is not an antonym of "placid".
  • Example: It would be inappropriate to wear shorts to a formal event.
  • Option 3) Informal means relaxed and casual, not formal. It is not an antonym of "placid".
  • Example: We had an informal meeting over coffee.

Question 78

Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. Road accidents have become very common in India.

B. Condition of roads in India is pathetic.

C. Increasing number of vehicles leave little space on roads.

D. Roads are narrow and remain congested most of the time.

  1. AOption (a)

    ACBD

  2. BOption (b)

    BDCA

  3. COption (c)

    BCDA

  4. DOption (d)

    CDBA

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

BDCA

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is BDCA.

Key Points

  • The correct answer is option 2, which is BDCA.
  • The paragraph talks about the issue of road accidents in India and the reasons behind them. Here is the explanation of why the given order is correct:
  • B. "Condition of roads in India is pathetic" - This sentence introduces the topic of the poor condition of roads in India, which is one of the reasons for road accidents.
  • D. "Roads are narrow and remain congested most of the time" - This sentence provides further information on the condition of roads in India, emphasizing that they are narrow and congested most of the time, which makes it difficult for vehicles to move around and increases the chances of accidents.
  • C. "Increasing number of vehicles leave little space on roads" - This sentence explains another reason for road accidents in India, which is the increasing number of vehicles that leave little space on the already narrow and congested roads.
  • A. "Road accidents have become very common in India" - This sentence summarizes the main point of the paragraph, which is that road accidents have become a common occurrence in India due to the poor condition of roads and the increasing number of vehicles.
  • Therefore, the correct order of sentences to form a coherent paragraph is BDCA.

Correct Sequence: Condition of roads in India is pathetic. Roads are narrow and remain congested most of the time. Increasing number of vehicles leave little space on roads. Road accidents have become very common in India.

Question 79

Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

  1. AOption (a)

    Greave

  2. BOption (b)

    Groan

  3. COption (c)

    Guarentee

  4. DOption (d)

    Gravely

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Guarentee

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

  • The incorrectly spelt word is "Guarentee." The correct spelling is "Guarantee."
  • The word "guarantee" means a formal promise or assurance made by one party to another, usually written and legally binding, that certain conditions will be fulfilled or a product or service will meet certain specifications or standards.
  • It can also refer to a person or thing providing security or a guarantee of protection. 
  • Example: I can guarantee that I will be there on time.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 3.

Additional Information

  • Explanation of other options:
  • Greave: a piece of armour used to protect the shin.
  • Example: The knight wore greaves to protect his legs in battle.
  • Groan: This word is correctly spelled. It means to make a deep sound expressing pain or discomfort.
  • Example: She groaned loudly when she got out of bed in the morning.
  • Gravely: This word is correctly spelled. It means something done with seriousness or urgency.
  • Example: The doctor spoke gravely to the patient about the seriousness of their condition.

Question 80

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.

“So help me heaven!”, the man cried, “I shall never lie again.”

  1. AOption (a)

    The man cries out to heaven to help him not to lie again ever.

  2. BOption (b)

    The man called upon heaven to witness his resolve that he would never lie again.

  3. COption (c)

    The man requested heaven to help him and see that he lie again.

  4. DOption (d)

    The man called heaven and ordered to help him and see to it that she never lies again.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The man called upon heaven to witness his resolve that he would never lie again.

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is The man called upon heaven to witness his resolve that he would never lie again.

Key Points

  • The given sentence is in Direct Speech. As per the given directions, we have to change it into Indirect Speech.
  • As the given sentence is an exclamatory sentence, the process of transformation is as follows:
  • In the Indirect speech 'cried' will be changed into 'called upon heaven' because reporting speech has an exclamation.
  • The indirect speech will begin like 'The man called upon heaven to.'
  • 'To' will be followed by the first form of the verb 'witness'.
  • Now we have to change the reported speech.
  • Here 'I' will be changed into 'he.'
  • The modal verb 'shall' will change into 'would'.
  • Finally, the indirect speech is 'The man called upon heaven to witness his resolve that he would never lie again.'
  • ​So, the correct answer is option 2.
  • Option 1 changes the tense of the verbs incorrectly (present tense) and does not accurately reflect the meaning of the original sentence.
  • Option 3 changes the meaning of the sentence and does not accurately reflect the man's statement.
  • Option 4 is incorrect because the man was not ordering the heaven.

Correct Indirect Speech: The man called upon heaven to witness his resolve that he would never lie again.

Question 81

Identify the pair of synonyms from the underlined words in the given sentence.

It was a fairly foul day, as omens could be seen in abundance from the threshold of his border town ever since the dawn struck.

  1. AOption (a)

    fairly, abundance

  2. BOption (b)

    foul, omens

  3. COption (c)

    day, border

  4. DOption (d)

    threshold, dawn

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

threshold, dawn

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Threshold, dawn.

Key Points

  • The correct pair of synonyms in the given sentence is "threshold, dawn".
  • "Threshold" refers to the entrance or starting point of something, and "dawn" refers to the beginning of a new day or the first light of daybreak.
  • Examples:
  • She stood on the threshold of a new career opportunity.
  • The birds began to sing at dawn.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 4.

Additional Information

  • Let's have a look at the meaning of other words:-
  • Option 1, "fairly" and "abundance," are not synonyms. "Fairly" means to some extent or in a moderate way, while "abundance" means a large quantity of something.
  • Examples:
  • She was fairly confident about her abilities.
  • The garden was filled with an abundance of colorful flowers.
  • Option 2, "Foul" and "omens" are not synonyms. "Foul" means unpleasant, dirty, or morally offensive while "Omens" are signs or predictions of something that will happen in the future.
  • Examples:
  • The smell of the foul water made me feel sick.
  • The sudden appearance of a black cat was considered an omen of bad luck.
  • Option 3, "day" and "border," are not synonyms. "Day" refers to a period of 24 hours, while "border" refers to the edge or boundary of something.
  • Examples:
  • The day was beautiful, with clear skies and warm temperatures.
  • The garden was surrounded by a border of hedges.

Question 82

The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

Dan needed help / to get the / tight coat of him.

  1. AOption (a)

    No error

  2. BOption (b)

    Dan needed help

  3. COption (c)

    to get the

  4. DOption (d)

    tight coat of him

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

tight coat of him

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Tight coat of him.

Key Points

  • The part of the sentence that contains the error is "tight coat of him."
  • The error in the given sentence is the use of the preposition "of" instead of "off" in the phrase "tight coat of him."
  • The correct preposition to use in this context is "off" because it refers to the removal of something from a person.
  • Example: Please take your shoes off before entering the house.​
  • Option 4, "tight coat of him," is incorrect because it uses the wrong preposition and does not convey the intended meaning of the sentence.
  • Option 2, "Dan needed help," is not incorrect.
  • Option 3, "to get the," is also not incorrect.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

The correct sentence should be: "Dan needed help to get the tight coat off him."

Question 83

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The management wants to ______________ restrictions at the workplace.

  1. AOption (a)

    break

  2. BOption (b)

    impose

  3. COption (c)

    settle

  4. DOption (d)

    encourage

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

impose

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Impose.

Key Points

  • The correct option to fill in the blank is "impose."
  • The word "impose" means to force something to be accepted or put into effect.
  • In the given sentence, the management wants to impose restrictions at the workplace, which means they want to put in place certain rules or limitations that employees must follow.
  • Example: The government may impose a curfew to reduce the spread of COVID-19.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 2.

Correct Sentence: The management wants to impose restrictions at the workplace. 

Additional Information

  • Option 1, "break," is not appropriate for this sentence as it means to separate into pieces, to stop or interrupt something, or to violate a law or agreement. None of these meanings match the context of the sentence.
  • Example: He accidentally broke the vase.
  • Option 3, "settle," means to resolve a dispute or reach an agreement, as in: "The two parties agreed to settle the lawsuit out of court."
  • Option 4, "encourage," is not appropriate for this sentence either, as it means to give support, confidence, or hope to someone or to stimulate interest or activity. It is the opposite of "impose."
  • Example: His parents always encourage him to follow his dreams.

Question 84

Select the most appropriate option to replace the underlined word in the given sentence.

Hritik is slow than Heer.

  1. AOption (a)

    slowliest

  2. BOption (b)

    much slow

  3. COption (c)

    slower

  4. DOption (d)

    slowest

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

slower

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Slower.

Key Points

  • The correct option to replace the underlined word in the given sentence is "slower."
  • The given sentence compares the speed of two individuals, Hritik and Heer.
  • The comparison requires the use of a comparative adjective to indicate that one person is slower than the other.
  • Among the options provided, the only comparative form of "slow" is "slower."
  • Option 1, "Slowliest" is not a correct or standard English word. The superlative form of the adjective "slow" is "slowest," which means the least fast or taking the most time to move or do something compared to other things or people.
  • Option 2, "much slow," is incorrect because it is grammatically incorrect. The correct form would be "much slower."
  • Option 4, "slowest," is incorrect because it is the superlative form of the adjective "slow" and is used to indicate the slowest among three or more things.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 3.

Correct Sentence: Hritik is slower than Heer.

Question 85

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.

Hira inquired how I was doing being all alone in my house.

  1. AOption (a)

    Hira said to me, “Are you doing fine being all alone in your house.”

  2. BOption (b)

    Hira said to me, “How are you doing being all alone in my house.”

  3. COption (c)

    Hira said to me, “How are you doing being all alone in your house?”

  4. DOption (d)

    Hira said to me, “How you are doing being all alone in your house?”

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Hira said to me, “How are you doing being all alone in your house?”

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Hira said to me, “How are you doing being all alone in your house?”

Key Points

  • The correct answer is option 3, "Hira said to me, 'How are you doing being all alone in your house?'"
  • The given sentence is in indirect speech, and we need to convert it into direct speech. In direct speech, we report someone's exact words using quotation marks. The general rule for converting indirect speech to direct speech is to:
  • Remove the reporting verb and any conjunctions or prepositions.
  • Use quotation marks to show the exact words spoken.
  • Change the pronouns and verb tenses if necessary.
  • Change time and place expressions if necessary.
  • Let's apply this rule to the given sentence:
  • Indirect speech: Hira inquired how I was doing being all alone in my house.
  • Direct speech: Hira said to me, "How are you doing being all alone in your house?"
  • Here, we change 'inquired' into 'said to' and put the direct question inside quotation marks.
  • Past Continuous Tense 'was doing' changes to present continuous tense 'are doing'.
  • The pronoun 'my' changes to 'your'.
  • Therefore, the correct option is 3, "Hira said to me, 'How are you doing being all alone in your house?'"

Correct Direct Speech: Hira said to me, “How are you doing being all alone in your house?”

Additional Information

  • Now, let's look at the other options and why they are incorrect:
  • Hira said to me, "Are you doing fine being all alone in your house." - This option changes the word order and uses a different verb tense. It also adds the word "fine" which is not present in the original sentence.
  • Hira said to me, "How are you doing being all alone in my house." - This option changes the possessive adjective "your" to "my" which is incorrect. It also changes the word order by putting the verb before the subject.
  • Hira said to me, "How you are doing being all alone in your house?" - This option uses an incorrect word order.

Question 86

Select the correct homonym from the given options to fill in the blank.

The wind________ so powerfully that the door closed.

  1. AOption (a)

    blow

  2. BOption (b)

    blew

  3. COption (c)

    blues

  4. DOption (d)

    blue

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

blew

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "blew".

Key Points

  • In the given sentence, "blew" is the past tense form of the verb "blow", which means to move air or cause a current of air.
  • We need a verb in the past tense because the given sentence is in past tense.
  • We know this because of the presence of 'closed'.
  • The sentence suggests that the wind was blowing strongly, and as a result, the door closed.
  • Option 1, "blow", is the base form of the verb and cannot be used as it is not in past tense.
  • Option 3, "blues", refers to a style of music and has no relevance to the sentence.
  • Option 4, "blue", is a color and does not make sense in the context of the sentence.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 2.

Correct Sentence: The wind blew so powerfully that the door closed.

Question 87

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

Photographers who follow celebrities to get their pictures to sell them

  1. AOption (a)

    Paparazzi

  2. BOption (b)

    Reporter

  3. COption (c)

    Editor

  4. DOption (d)

    Interviewer

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Paparazzi

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Paparazzi.

Key Points

  • Paparazzi refers to photographers who follow celebrities to get their pictures to sell them to newspapers, magazines, or other media outlets.
  • For example: The paparazzi were waiting outside the hotel to click pictures of the famous actor.
  • Reporter refers to a person who collects and reports news for newspapers, magazines, or broadcasting.
  • Editor refers to a person who is in charge of preparing and publishing a newspaper, magazine, or book.
  • Interviewer refers to a person who conducts an interview, typically for a job or media-related purpose.
  • Examples:
  • The reporter was assigned to cover the press conference held by the politician.
  • The editor of the magazine decided to publish the article on the latest fashion trends.
  • The interviewer asked the candidate about their work experience and qualifications during the job interview.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 1.

Question 88

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

Someone who is reserved and shy.

  1. AOption (a)

    Introvert

  2. BOption (b)

    Extrovert

  3. COption (c)

    Chauffeur

  4. DOption (d)

    Talkative

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Introvert

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is "Introvert".

Key Points

  • An introvert is someone who is reserved and shy, who prefers to spend time alone or in small groups rather than socializing in large groups.
  • Example: Sarah is an introvert and prefers to read books alone rather than attending parties.
  • Option 2, "Extrovert," refers to a person who is outgoing and enjoys socializing with others.
  • Example: John is an extrovert and loves to attend parties and meet new people.
  • Option 3, "Chauffeur," refers to a person who is employed to drive a private car for someone.
  • Example: The chauffeur was waiting outside the hotel to pick up the guests.
  • Option 4, "Talkative," refers to a person who talks a lot.
  • Example: My neighbor is very talkative, and I always end up spending hours chatting with her.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 1.

Question 89

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in reported speech.

Joey said to the girl, “How are you doing?”

  1. AOption (a)

    Joey asked the girl if she was doing fine.

  2. BOption (b)

    Joey asked the girl how was she doing.

  3. COption (c)

    Joey asked the girl that how was she doing.

  4. DOption (d)

    Joey asked the girl how she was doing.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Joey asked the girl how she was doing.

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Joey asked the girl how she was doing. 

Key Points

  • The correct answer is option 4, "Joey asked the girl how she was doing."
  • The given sentence is in direct speech, and we need to convert it into indirect speech.
  • In indirect speech, we report what someone else has said without using their exact words.
  • The general rule for converting direct speech to reported speech is to:
  • Use a reporting verb (such as say, ask, tell) in the appropriate tense
  • Change the pronouns and possessive adjectives if necessary
  • Change the tense of the verb if necessary
  • Change time and place expressions if necessary
  • Let's apply this rule to the given sentence:
  • Direct speech: Joey said to the girl, "How are you doing?"
  • Reported speech: Joey asked the girl how she was doing.
  • Here, the reporting verb "asked" is used in the past tense because the original statement was made in the past.
  • The pronoun "you" is changed to "she" because we are reporting what Joey said to someone else.
  • The question word "how" and the verb "was" are kept the same, and we use the correct word order for indirect questions.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 4.

Correct Indirect Speech: Joey asked the girl how she was doing. 

Additional Information

  • Now, let's look at the other options and why they are incorrect:
  • Joey asked the girl if she was doing fine. - This option is close to the correct answer but uses the word "fine" which is not present in the original sentence. It's important to use the exact words when converting direct speech to reported speech.
  • Joey asked the girl how was she doing. - This option uses an incorrect word order. In reported speech, we use the word order of a statement, not a question.
  • Joey asked the girl that how was she doing. - This option uses an incorrect word order and also adds the word "that" which is not necessary in reported speech.
  • Therefore, the correct option is 4, "Joey asked the girl how she was doing."

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

The effects of plastic bags on the environment are really (1)______ devastating because there is no disposal method that will really help eliminate the problem. The biggest problem with them is that once they have been (2), they end up In the trash, which then ends up in the landfill or is burned. The indefinite period of time that it takes for the average plastic bag to break (3) can be literally hundreds of years. Throughout the world, plastic bags are responsible for suffocation and deaths of woodland animals as well as (4)______ soil nutrients. The land litter that is made up of plastic bags has the potential to kill over and over again. It has been estimated that one bag has the potential to inadvertently kill one animal per every three months due to unintentional digestion or inhalation. There are always alternatives to plastic bags and the search for more alternatives continues.

Question 90

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

  1. AOption (a)

    vaguely

  2. BOption (b)

    randomly

  3. COption (c)

    quite

  4. DOption (d)

    seldom

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

quite

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Quite.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1 is "quite".
  • The complete sentence would be "The effects of plastic bags on the environment are really quite devastating because there is no disposal method that will really help eliminate the problem."
  • Here, "quite" is used to emphasize the extent to which plastic bags are harmful to the environment.
  • Example: "The weather was quite pleasant today."
  • In this context, "quite" is used to emphasize the extent to which the weather was pleasant.
  • The word "vaguely" (option 1) means in a way that is uncertain, indefinite or unclear. This word is not appropriate here as it does not convey the severity of the issue.
  • The word "randomly" (option 2) means without method or conscious decision. This word is not appropriate here as it does not convey any relevant information.
  • The word "seldom" (option 4) means rarely or infrequently. This word is not appropriate here as it does not convey the severity of the issue.
  • Overall, "quite" is the most appropriate option here as it helps to emphasize the severity of the issue caused by plastic bags on the environment.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 3.

Correct Paragraph: The effects of plastic bags on the environment are really (1) quite devastating because there is no disposal method that will really help eliminate the problem. The biggest problem with them is that once they have been (2), they end up In the trash, which then ends up in the landfill or is burned. The indefinite period of time that it takes for the average plastic bag to break (3) can be literally hundreds of years. Throughout the world, plastic bags are responsible for suffocation and deaths of woodland animals as well as (4)______ soil nutrients. The land litter that is made up of plastic bags has the potential to kill over and over again. It has been estimated that one bag has the potential to inadvertently kill one animal per every three months due to unintentional digestion or inhalation. There are always alternatives to plastic bags and the search for more alternatives continues.

Question 91

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

  1. AOption (a)

    disinfected

  2. BOption (b)

    soiled

  3. COption (c)

    moulded

  4. DOption (d)

    recycled

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

soiled

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Soiled.

Key Points

  • The correct answer for the blank number 2 is "soiled."
  • When plastic bags are used to carry items such as groceries, they often come in contact with food or other substances, leaving them dirty or soiled.
  • This makes it difficult to recycle them and can also make them unsanitary for reuse.
  • So, once they have been used, they often end up in the trash.
  • Example: After carrying groceries, the plastic bag became soiled and had to be thrown away.
  • Option 1, "disinfected," means to clean something to make it free from germs. It does not fit in the context of the given sentence.
  • Example: The doctor disinfected the wound before applying the bandage.
  • Option 3, "moulded," means to shape something by forming it into a particular shape or form. It also does not fit in the context of the given sentence.
  • Example: The artist moulded the clay into a beautiful sculpture.
  • Option 4, "recycled," means to convert waste into reusable material. It is a possible answer for this blank, but it does not fit the context of the sentence, which is talking about what happens to plastic bags after they have been used.

Correct Paragraph: *The effects of plastic bags on the environment are really (1) quite devastating because there is no disposal method that will really help eliminate the problem. The biggest problem with them is that once they have been (2) *soiled, they end up In the trash, which then ends up in the landfill or is burned. The indefinite period of time that it takes for the average plastic bag to break (3)______ can be literally hundreds of years. Throughout the world, plastic bags are responsible for suffocation and deaths of woodland animals as well as (4)______ soil nutrients. The land litter that is made up of plastic bags has the potential to kill over and over again. It has been estimated that one bag has the potential to inadvertently kill one animal per every three months due to unintentional digestion or inhalation. There are always alternatives to plastic bags and the search for more alternatives continues.

Question 92

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3 .

  1. AOption (a)

    through

  2. BOption (b)

    out

  3. COption (c)

    down

  4. DOption (d)

    even

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

down

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Down.

Key Points

  • The correct answer is option 3, "down".
  • In the context of the passage, the phrase "break down" means to decompose or disintegrate.
  • The use of the preposition "down" in this context indicates a change in physical state from a solid plastic bag to smaller pieces, which can eventually be broken down further by natural processes.
  • Example: The leaves and branches of the fallen tree began to break down into the soil, providing nutrients to the surrounding plants.
  • Option 1, "through", is not a suitable option for this blank because "break through" means to penetrate or overcome an obstacle, which is not the intended meaning in the context of the passage.
  • Option 2, "out", is also not a suitable option for this blank because "break out" means to escape or become free from a confinement or control, which does not fit the intended meaning in the context of the passage.
  • Option 4, "even", is not a suitable option for this blank because it does not make sense in the context of the sentence.
  • From a grammatical perspective, "break down" is a phrasal verb that functions as a transitive verb in this context. The object of the verb is "the average plastic bag", and the preposition "down" is used to indicate the direction of the change in physical state.

 

Correct Paragraph: The effects of plastic bags on the environment are really (1) quite devastating because there is no disposal method that will really help eliminate the problem. The biggest problem with them is that once they have been (2) soiled*, they end up In the trash, which then ends up in the landfill or is burned. The indefinite period of time that it takes for the average plastic bag to break (3) down can be literally hundreds of years. Throughout the world, plastic bags are responsible for suffocation and deaths of woodland animals as well as (4)______ soil nutrients. The land litter that is made up of plastic bags has the potential to kill over and over again. It has been estimated that one bag has the potential to inadvertently kill one animal per every three months due to unintentional digestion or inhalation. There are always alternatives to plastic bags and the search for more alternatives continues.*

Question 93

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

  1. AOption (a)

    accumulating

  2. BOption (b)

    inhibiting

  3. COption (c)

    demanding

  4. DOption (d)

    converting

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

inhibiting

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Inhibiting.

Key Points

  • Option 2, "inhibiting," is the correct answer to fill in the blank in the given sentence.
  • The verb "inhibit" means to prevent or hinder something from happening or developing.
  • Example:
  • Fear can inhibit someone from taking risks.
  • The sentence refers to the effects of plastic bags on soil nutrients. When plastic bags are littered on the ground, they can inhibit the growth of plants and microorganisms by blocking sunlight and reducing the amount of oxygen and water that can reach the soil.
  • For example, when plastic bags accumulate in a forest, they can prevent sunlight from reaching the forest floor, inhibiting the growth of plants and changing the balance of the forest ecosystem. Similarly, plastic bags that litter agricultural land can reduce crop yields by inhibiting the growth of microorganisms in the soil.
  • Option 1, "accumulating," is incorrect as plastic bags do not accumulate soil nutrients, instead, they inhibit soil nutrients.
  • Option 3, "demanding," doesn't fit the context of the sentence, as it doesn't make sense to say that plastic bags are "demanding" soil nutrients.
  • Option 4, "converting," also doesn't fit the context of the sentence, as plastic bags do not convert soil nutrients in any way.

Correct Paragraph: The effects of plastic bags on the environment are really (1) quite devastating because there is no disposal method that will really help eliminate the problem. The biggest problem with them is that once they have been (2) soiled*, they end up In the trash, which then ends up in the landfill or is burned. The indefinite period of time that it takes for the average plastic bag to break (3) down can be literally hundreds of years. Throughout the world, plastic bags are responsible for suffocation and deaths of woodland animals as well as (4) inhibiting soil nutrients. The land litter that is made up of plastic bags has the potential to kill over and over again. It has been estimated that one bag has the potential to inadvertently kill one animal per every three months due to unintentional digestion or inhalation. There are always alternatives to plastic bags and the search for more alternatives continues.*

Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it.

Amidst a maze of rocks tucked in the Aravalli mountain ranges of Haryana, a team of archaeologists discovered cave paintings they believe belong to the Upper Palaeolithic age. The cave paintings have been discovered just outside the national capital and a stone’s throw away from a holy grove called Mangar Bani- the region’s only surviving patch of primary forest.

While the residents of the villages have been familiar with the paintings for ages, the Haryana government’s museum and archaeology department took note of them just recently. A fact-finding team was sent to the area in the last week of June. The team came across cave paintings comprising images of human figurines, animals, foliage, and geometric drawings. While some have paled over time, others are still very visible. They also discovered rock art and open-air ceremonial sites.

Banani Bhattacharyya, deputy director of the department of archaeology and museums informed, “So far, cave paintings in Delhi-NCR have only been found here. The paintings are yet to be dated but at least some of them belong to the Upper Palaeolithic period in all likelihood. We are viewing the paintings in continuation with the Soanian culture which has been found in Shivalik hills, Narmada and Aravallis.”

Most of the cave paintings found were in ochre colour, but some were in white. As per experts, cave paintings in white are usually from a later stage (early contemporary era), while Stone Age paintings are more often than not in ochre. “Stone age paintings generally use red and ochre colours. Stones of these colour used to be available locally and inhabitants crushed the stones for preparing the colour for paintings,” added Bhattacharyya.

The Upper Paleolithic Age began around 40,000 years ago and lasted till around 10,000 years ago. While yet to be established through archaeological dating, Bhattacharyya says the Mangar cave art is 20,000-40,000 years old. Bhattacharyya claimed that the discovery is extremely significant. “Starting from the Lower Palaeolithic to Middle Palaeolithic then Upper Palaeolithic, we see the evolution here. We have found significant remains from Lower Palaeolithic till Middle and Upper Palaeolithic period too,” she explained. “Though tools from the Palaeolithic Age have been identified earlier in parts of the Aravallis, it is for the first time that cave paintings and rock art of a large magnitude have been found in Haryana,” she added.

Question 94

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

The cave paintings found in Aravalli hills are significant mainly because 

  1. AOption (a)

    they are the only prehistoric cave paintings found in Aravalli Hills.

  2. BOption (b)

    they are found in such a large magnitude for the first time.

  3. COption (c)

    they have been discovered just outside the national capital, Delhi

  4. DOption (d)

    they depict the evolution from Lower to Upper Paleolithic period.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

they depict the evolution from Lower to Upper Paleolithic period.

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is They depict the evolution from Lower to Upper Paleolithic period.

Key Points

  • The correct answer is option 4: they depict the evolution from Lower to Upper Paleolithic period.
  • The passage states that the discovery is significant because it shows the evolution of the Paleolithic age from Lower Paleolithic to Middle Paleolithic and Upper Paleolithic periods.
  • The discovery of the cave paintings and rock art is important in understanding the cultural and historical evolution of the region during that time.
  • Option 1 is incorrect as the passage does not state that these are the only prehistoric cave paintings found in Aravalli Hills. It only mentions that such paintings have been found for the first time in Haryana.
  • Option 2 is partly correct as the passage mentions that it is the first time that cave paintings and rock art of a large magnitude have been found in Haryana. However, this is not the main significance of the discovery.
  • Option 3 is incorrect as the proximity to the national capital is not mentioned as the main significance of the discovery.

Question 95

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Most of the cave paintings found in Mangar forest area in Haryana are in which colour?  

  1. AOption (a)

    black

  2. BOption (b)

    white

  3. COption (c)

    red

  4. DOption (d)

    ochre

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

ochre

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Ochre.

Key Points

  • The answer is 4) ochre.
  • As per the given passage, "Most of the cave paintings found were in ochre colour, but some were in white."
  • It is mentioned that stones of these colors used to be available locally and inhabitants crushed the stones for preparing the color for paintings.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is 4) ochre.

Question 96

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following statement is NOT correct according to the passage? 

  1. AOption (a)

    The cave men crushed the locally available stones for preparing the colour for paintings.

  2. BOption (b)

    The paintings comprise images of human figurines, animals, foliage, and geometric drawings.

  3. COption (c)

    The Mangar cave art is 20,000-40,000 years old.

  4. DOption (d)

    The paintings in red belong to early contemporary era

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The paintings in red belong to early contemporary era

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is The paintings in red belong to early contemporary era.

Key Points

  • The incorrect statement according to the passage is option 4) "The paintings in red belong to early contemporary era."
  • The passage mentions that Stone Age paintings are more often than not in ochre, which is a shade of yellow, orange or brown. This is because stones of these colors were available locally and could be crushed to prepare the color for paintings.
  • The passage does not state that paintings in red belong to the early contemporary era.
  • Option 1) "The cave men crushed the locally available stones for preparing the colour for paintings" is a correct statement according to the passage. The passage mentions that stones of locally available colors were crushed to prepare the color for paintings.
  • Option 2) "The paintings comprise images of human figurines, animals, foliage, and geometric drawings" is also a correct statement according to the passage. The passage specifically mentions that the discovered cave paintings comprise images of human figurines, animals, foliage, and geometric drawings.
  • Option 3) "The Mangar cave art is 20,000-40,000 years old" is a correct statement according to the passage. Although the paintings are yet to be dated, the deputy director of the department of archaeology and museums claims that the Mangar cave art is 20,000-40,000 years old and likely belongs to the Upper Paleolithic period.
  • Examples of ochre-colored paintings from the Stone Age include the Bhimbetka rock shelters in Madhya Pradesh, India, and the Lascaux cave paintings in southwestern France.
  • Examples of red-colored paintings from a later period include the Ajanta and Ellora caves in Maharashtra, India, which belong to the period of classical Indian art.

Question 97

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

The archaeological findings in the Mangar Forest consist of all the following except 

  1. AOption (a)

    tools

  2. BOption (b)

    ceremonial sites

  3. COption (c)

    cave paintings

  4. DOption (d)

    rock art

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

tools

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Tools.

Key Points

  • The correct answer is 1) tools.
  • The passage states that the archaeological findings in the Mangar Forest consist of cave paintings, rock art, and open-air ceremonial sites.
  • However, there is no mention of the discovery of tools in this area.
  • This can be inferred from the following line in the passage: "Though tools from the Palaeolithic Age have been identified earlier in parts of the Aravallis, it is for the first time that cave paintings and rock art of a large magnitude have been found in Haryana." (last paragraph)
  • This line suggests that while tools have been found in other parts of the Aravalli mountains, they have not been found in the Mangar Forest area where the cave paintings and rock art were discovered.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 1.

Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it.

Total area sown under Rabi crops has increased by 3.25% from 697.98 lakh hectares in 2021-22 to 720.68 lakh hectares in 2022-23. This is 22.71 lakh hectares more this year compared to corresponding period of 2021-22. Comparing with normal sown area(average of the last five years), the increase is to the tune of 13.71% from 633.80 to 720.68 lakh hectares. The increase in area is across all crops, - highest being in rice. Out of 22.71 lakh hectares increase in all Rabi crops, increase in rice area is 11.20 lakh hectares from 35.05 lakh hectares in 2021-22 to 46.25 lakh hectares in 2022-23. However, this is lower than normal sown area of 47.71 lakh hectares. Maximum increase in area under rice is in states of Telangana and West Bengal.

Area under oilseeds increased by 7.31% from 102.36 lakh hectares during 2021-22 to 109.84 lakh hectares this year. The increase in area under oilseeds at the rate of 7.31% is more than double the rate of increase of 3.25% in all crops together. Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh accounted for major expansion in area of oilseeds.

Rapeseed & Mustard contributed maximum in increasing oilseeds area during this Rabi season. Mustard area increased by 6.77 lakh hectares from 91.25 lakh hectares in 2021-22 to 98.02 lakh hectares in 2022-23. Thus, out of 7.49 lakh hectares increase in area under oilseeds, rapeseed & mustard alone accounted for 6.44 lakh hectares.

Pulse production is being focused to make country self-sufficient in these commodities. Area under pulses increased by 0.56 lakh hectares from 167.31 to 167.86 lakh hectares. Mung bean and lentil accounted for increase in area under pulses.

The United Nations General Assembly has declared the year 2023 as the International Year of Millets and India is at the forefront in celebrating the event in a big way. In order to create awareness about the benefits of millets as superfood and to meet its growing demand around the world, the Government is promoting millet production through the NFSM-Nutri Cereals component of National Food Security Mission programme in 212 districts of 14 states. Coarse cum Nutri-cereals saw an increase of 2.08 lakh hectares in area under cultivation from 51.42 lakh hectares in 2021-22 to 53.49 lakh hectares in 2022-23.

Question 98

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Match the following crops with the area.

Crop area in 2022-23

a. millets 1. 98.02 lakh hectares

b. pulses 2. 53.49 lakh hectares

c. mustard 3. 167.86 lakh hectares

  1. AOption (a)

    a - 1, b - 3, c - 2

  2. BOption (b)

    a - 3, b - 1, c - 2

  3. COption (c)

    a - 2, b - 1, c - 3

  4. DOption (d)

    a - 2, b - 3, c - 1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

a - 2, b - 3, c - 1

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is a - 2, b - 3, c - 1.

Key Points

  • a. Millets - 53.49 lakh hectares, as stated in the passage under the section discussing the International Year of Millets and the increase in area under Coarse cum Nutri-cereals.
  • b. Pulses - 167.86 lakh hectares, as stated in the passage under the section discussing the increase in area under pulses.
  • c. Mustard - 98.02 lakh hectares, as stated in the passage under the section discussing the increase in area under oilseeds and the contribution of Rapeseed & Mustard.
  • Therefore, the correct matching is:
  • a. Millets - 2. 53.49 lakh hectares
  • b. Pulses - 3. 167.86 lakh hectares
  • c. Mustard - 1. 98.02 lakh hectares
  • Hence, the correct answer is (a) 2, (b) 3, and (c) 1.

Question 99

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

On which of the following crops, is the Indian Government specially focussing this year? 

  1. AOption (a)

    rice

  2. BOption (b)

    oilseeds

  3. COption (c)

    pulses

  4. DOption (d)

    millets

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

millets

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Millets.

Key Points

  • The Indian Government is specially focusing on millets this year, as mentioned in the last paragraph of the passage:
  • "The United Nations General Assembly has declared the year 2023 as the International Year of Millets and India is at the forefront in celebrating the event in a big way. In order to create awareness about the benefits of millets as superfood and to meet its growing demand around the world, the Government is promoting millet production through the NFSM-Nutri Cereals component of National Food Security Mission programme in 212 districts of 14 states."
  • Therefore, option 4, millets, is the correct answer.

Additional Information

  • Option 1, rice, is incorrect because although the area under rice has increased, there is no mention in the passage of any special focus or promotion by the Indian Government on rice production this year.
  • Option 2, oilseeds, is also incorrect because although there has been an increase in area under oilseeds, there is no mention in the passage of any special focus or promotion by the Indian Government on oilseed production this year.
  • Option 3, pulses, is also incorrect because although there has been an increase in area under pulses, there is no mention in the passage of any special focus or promotion by the Indian Government on pulse production this year.

Question 100

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

The main theme of the passage is

  1. AOption (a)

    increase in the area of Rabi crops in 2022-23

  2. BOption (b)

    area under rabi crop in last five years

  3. COption (c)

    increase in the production of pulses

  4. DOption (d)

    increase in the area of oilseeds like mustard

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

increase in the area of Rabi crops in 2022-23

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Increase in the area of Rabi crops in 2022-23.

Key Points

  • The main theme of the passage is the increase in the area of Rabi crops in 2022-23.
  • This can be inferred from the first sentence of the passage, which states that the total area sown under Rabi crops has increased by 3.25% from 697.98 lakh hectares in 2021-22 to 720.68 lakh hectares in 2022-23.
  • The subsequent sentences provide details on the increase in area for different crops, including rice, oilseeds, and pulses, but the overarching theme is the increase in the area of Rabi crops.
  • Option 2, which refers to the area under Rabi crop in the last five years, is not the main theme of the passage but is only mentioned as a comparison point to show the extent of the increase in the current year.
  • Option 3, which refers to the increase in the production of pulses, is only briefly mentioned towards the end of the passage and does not constitute the main theme.
  • Option 4, which refers to the increase in the area of oilseeds like mustard, is also mentioned in the passage but is not the main theme.

Question 101

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which state recorded the maximum increase in sown area of the rice crop?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Chhattisgarh

  2. BOption (b)

    Telangana

  3. COption (c)

    Rajasthan

  4. DOption (d)

    Madhya Pradesh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Telangana

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Telangana.

Key Points

  • The correct answer is option 2, Telangana.
  • The passage states that the maximum increase in area under rice is in the states of Telangana and West Bengal.
  • While the passage does mention that Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, and Chhattisgarh accounted for major expansion in area of oilseeds, it does not mention their contribution to the increase in the sown area of the rice crop.
  • Therefore, options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect.

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

My grandmother, like everybody’s grandmother, was an old woman. She had been old and wrinkled for the twenty years that I had known her. People said that she once had been young and pretty and had even had a husband, but that was hard to believe. My grandfather’s portrait hung above the mantelpiece in the drawing room. He wore a big turban and loose fitting clothes. His long, white beard covered the best part of his chest and he looked at least a hundred years old. He did not look the sort of person who would have a wife or children. He looked as if he could only have lots and lots of grandchildren. As my grandmother being young and pretty, the thought was almost revolting. She often told us of the games she used to play as a child. That seemed quite absurd and undignified on her part and we treated it like the fables of the Prophets she used to tell us.

Question 102

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

 Select the most appropriate fact from the given options.  

  1. AOption (a)

    The author and grandma lived for twenty years.

  2. BOption (b)

    Grandma was twenty years old.

  3. COption (c)

    People claimed that the author's grandmother had once been young, attractive, and even married.

  4. DOption (d)

    The author was twenty years old when he wrote the story.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

People claimed that the author's grandmother had once been young, attractive, and even married.

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is: People claimed that the author's grandmother had once been young, attractive, and even married.

Key Points

In the third line, it is mentioned that "People said that she once had been young and pretty and had even had a husband, but that was hard to believe."

  • Hence, we can imply that option 3) is an appropriate fact.
  • The rest of statements in the other options are mentioned nowhere in the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is: People claimed that the author's grandmother had once been young, attractive, and even married.

Question 103

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select an appropriate title for the given passage. 

  1. AOption (a)

    The Grandchildren

  2. BOption (b)

    My Grandfather

  3. COption (c)

    Grandmothers

  4. DOption (d)

    My Grandmother

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

My Grandmother

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is My Grandmother.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate title for the given passage is "My Grandmother".
  • The passage mainly talks about the author's grandmother and her old age, her appearance, and how the author perceived her.
  • The author also describes her husband through his portrait, but the focus of the passage is on the grandmother.
  • Therefore, "My Grandmother" is the most suitable title for the passage.

Question 104

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Revolting

  1. AOption (a)

    Attractive

  2. BOption (b)

    Unpleasant

  3. COption (c)

    Rebel

  4. DOption (d)

    Peace

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Attractive

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Attractive.

Key Points

  • The correct antonym of "revolting" is "attractive".
  • "Revolting" means causing intense disgust or repugnance, while "attractive" means pleasing or appealing to the senses or mind.
  • Example of "revolting" in a sentence: The sight and smell of the spoiled food was revolting.
  • Example of "attractive" in a sentence: The actor's attractive smile made the audience swoon.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 1.

Additional Information

  • Option 2, "unpleasant", is a close synonym of "revolting". It also means causing discomfort, displeasure, or annoyance.
  • Example of "unpleasant" in a sentence: The weather was unpleasant, with cold winds and rain.
  • Option 3, "rebel", is not an antonym of "revolting". It means a person who resists authority or control.
  • Example of "rebel" in a sentence: The rebel group fought against the government to gain independence.
  • Option 4, "peace", is also not an antonym of "revolting". It means freedom from disturbance or tranquility.
  • Example of "peace" in a sentence: The treaty brought peace between the two warring nations.

Question 105

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate inference drawn from the passage.

  1. AOption (a)

    The author looked upon his grandmother as an old woman like every grandmother.

  2. BOption (b)

    People said that the grandmother was pretty.

  3. COption (c)

    Grandmother had a husband.

  4. DOption (d)

    Grandmother loved to talk of her childhood.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The author looked upon his grandmother as an old woman like every grandmother.

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is The author looked upon his grandmother as an old woman like every grandmother. 

Key Points

  • The correct answer is option 1 - The author looked upon his grandmother as an old woman like every grandmother.
  • The passage is about the author's grandmother who is portrayed as an old woman.
  • The author mentions that his grandmother had been old and wrinkled for the 20 years that he had known her.
  • The author also mentions that his grandfather's portrait hung above the mantelpiece in the drawing room, but he did not look like someone who could have a wife or children.
  • The author further states that his grandmother often talked about the games she used to play as a child, which seemed absurd and undignified on her part.
  • Thus, it can be inferred that the author looked upon his grandmother as an old woman like every grandmother.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Question 106

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the changes made to small savings schemes by the Government of India in December 2022?

A. The interest rate of five year National Saving Certificate has been increased to 7 per cent from 6.8 per cent.

B. The interest rate on senior citizen saving schemes increased to 8.2 per cent from 7.6 per cent.

C. The interest rate on Public Provident Fund, Sukanya Samriddhi Account and Saving Deposit have been changed 9% from 7.5%

  1. AOption (a)

    B and C only

  2. BOption (b)

    A, B and C

  3. COption (c)

    A and C only

  4. DOption (d)

    A and B only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A and B only

Why this answer is correct

Correct answer A and B only

In News

  • The Centre raised the interest rates on small savings schemes in April 2023.

Key Points:

  • The rate of interest has been increased by 70 basis points which will be applicable from April 1, 2023.
  • The revised interest rate is not applicable to the Public Provident Fund (PPF) scheme.
  • The interest rates for popular PPF and savings deposits have been retained at 7.1 percent and 4 percent, respectively.

Important Points:

Savings SchemeInterest rate (Apr-June) 2023
Post Office Savings Account4%
Post Office Time Deposit (1 year)6.8%
Post Office Time Deposit (2 years)6.9%
Post Office Time Deposit (3 years)7.0%
Post Office Time Deposit (5 years)7.5%
​Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP)7.5%
Public Provident Fund (PPF)7.1%
Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana8%
National Savings Certificate7.7%
Senior Citizens’ Saving Scheme8.2%

Question 107

Which of the following states has the highest fertility rate in India according to the 2011 census?

  1. AOption (a)

    Kerala

  2. BOption (b)

    Punjab

  3. COption (c)

    Maharashtra

  4. DOption (d)

    Bihar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Bihar

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bihar.

Key Points

  • According to the 2011 census in India, the state with the highest fertility rate was Bihar, with a total fertility rate of 3.4.
  • Population: Bihar is the third most populous state in India with a population of 104,099,452.
  • It accounts for 8.58% of India's population.
  • Gender Ratio: The sex ratio in Bihar has improved marginally from 919 in 2001 to 918 in 2011.
  • However, the state still has one of the lowest gender ratios in India.
  • Literacy Rate: The literacy rate in Bihar has improved significantly from 47.0% in 2001 to 61.8% in 2011.
  • However, it is still lower than the national average of 74.04%.
  • Rural-Urban Divide: Bihar is predominantly a rural state with 89.7% of its population residing in rural areas.
  • The state has a low urbanization rate of 10.3%.
  • Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes: The Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST) together constitute 15.6% of Bihar's population.
  • The literacy rate among SCs is 52.5% and among STs is 47.0%.

Additional Information

  • Census of India
  • Census 2011 was the 15th Census of India and the 7th Census after independence.
  • 8 Census has been conducted prior to independence.
  • Census is conducted every 10 years in India.
  • The first Census in India was conducted in the year 1872.

Question 108

With the 2022 amendments to the Indian Constitution, which of the following communities have been granted the Scheduled Tribes status by the Government of India?

A. Narikoravan community

B. Hattee community

C. Kadu Kuruba community

D. Kapu community

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B and C only

  2. BOption (b)

    B, C and D only

  3. COption (c)

    A and D only

  4. DOption (d)

    A, B, C and D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A, B and C only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A, B and C only

Key Points:

  • In 2022, the Lok Sabha received the Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order (Second Amendment) Bill.
  • Arjun Munda introduced it in the Lok Sabha.
  • The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order, 1950, as it relates to Tamil Nadu, is to be amended by the bill.
  • In states and union territories, the Order identifies the tribal groups that are considered to be Scheduled Tribes.
  • After this Bill is approved, the Gond group will be moved from the list of SCs to the list of STs, and the Dhuria, Nayak, Ojha, Pathari, and Rajgond will be added to the list of STs in Uttar Pradesh in the four districts of Sant Kabir Nagar, Kushinagar, Chandauli, and Bhadohi.
  • The Narikoravan and Kurivikkaran communities are listed among the Scheduled Tribes in the Bill in Tamil Nadu.
  • The Bill will amend the Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order, 1950, for inclusion of the Hattee community of the Trans Giri area of the Sirmour district of Himachal Pradesh in the list of Scheduled Tribes.
  • In the Schedule to the Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order, 1950, in PART VI.—Karnataka added Kadu Kuruba, Betta-Kuruba.

Question 109

In 1962, who published 'The History of Ocean Basins', which outlined the theory of how tectonic plates could move, later called 'sea floor spreading'?

  1. AOption (a)

    George Edward Backus 

  2. BOption (b)

     Alfred Wegener 

  3. COption (c)

    Louis Bauer

  4. DOption (d)

    Harry Hammond Hess

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Harry Hammond Hess

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Harry Hammond Hess.

Key Points

  • In 1962, Harry Hammond Hess, a geologist and Navy officer, published 'The History of Ocean Basins', which outlined the theory of how tectonic plates could move, later called 'sea floor spreading'.
  • Hess proposed that new ocean crust was being continuously formed at mid-ocean ridges, where magma rises from the mantle and solidifies, pushing older crust away from the ridge and eventually causing it to subduct or be destroyed at deep-sea trenches.
  • This theory, which became known as plate tectonics, revolutionized the field of geology and helped explain a wide range of geological phenomena, from the distribution of earthquakes and volcanoes to the formation of mountains and the evolution of life on Earth.

Additional Information

  • Plate Tectonic Theory:
  • Plate tectonic theory describes the movement of the Earth's lithosphere, which is composed of several large and many smaller plates, driven by the convective motion of the mantle.
  • These plates move relative to one another, resulting in the formation of new crust at mid-ocean ridges and the destruction of old crust at subduction zones.
  • This movement is responsible for a wide range of geological phenomena, including the distribution of earthquakes and volcanoes, the formation of mountain ranges, and the evolution of continents.
  • For example, the collision of the Indian and Eurasian plates formed the Himalayas, and the separation of the African and South American plates created the Atlantic Ocean.
  • The theory also explains the distribution of fossils, as species separated by the movement of plates evolved differently.

Question 110

Identify a class of compounds that has a functional group –OH.

  1. AOption (a)

    Alcohol

  2. BOption (b)

    Ethane

  3. COption (c)

    Ketone

  4. DOption (d)

    Aldehyde

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Alcohol

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is Alcohol.

Key Points:

  • The Hydroxyl (-OH) functional group attached to the aliphatic carbon atom of the alkyl group forms alcohols.
  • The general formula for alcohol is R-OH, where R is the alkyl group and -OH is the hydroxyl group.
  • There are three types of alcohol: primary, secondary, and tertiary.
  • Primary alcohols are those in which the carbon atom attached to the OH group is connected with one alkyl group (RCH2-OH).
  • Secondary alcohols are those in which the carbon atom attached to the OH group is connected with two alkyl groups (R2CH-OH).
  • Tertiary alcohols are those in which the carbon atom attached to the OH group is connected with three alkyl groups (R3C-OH).
  • The general name for alcohol is 'alkyl alcohol', Ex: methyl alcohol, ethyl alcohol, etc.
  • The IUPAC name of alcohols is written using the suffix 'ol' as an alkanol, Ex: methanol, ethanol, etc.

Additional Information: Acids

  • Acids are the compounds containing the carboxylic (COOH)group.
  • It has the general formulaR-COOH.

Phenols

  • Phenols are compounds containing OH groups attached to a benzene ring.
  • The general formula of phenol is C6H5-OH.

Aldehydes

  • Aldehydes are the compound containing the -CHO (aldehyde) functional group.
  • The general formula for aldehydes is R-CHO.

Ethers

  • Ethers are compounds containing two alkyl groups attached with one oxygen centrally.
  • It has general formula R-O-R.

Question 111

Match the columns.

MineralReserves region
(a)Bauxite(i)Lohardaga
(b)Mica(ii)Bhilwara
(c)Coal(iii)Jhunjhunu
(d)Copper(iv)Jharia
  1. AOption (a)

    A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

  2. BOption (b)

    A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III

  3. COption (c)

    A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I

  4. DOption (d)

    A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III

Why this answer is correct

Correct Answer A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III

Key PointsBauxite:

  • Bauxite is the ore that is used in the manufacturing of aluminum.
  • Bauxite is found mainly in tertiary deposits and is associated with laterite rocks occurring extensively either on the plateau or hill ranges of peninsular India and also in the coastal tracts of the country.
  • Odisha happens to be the largest producer of Bauxite.
  • Kalahandi and Sambalpur are the leading producers.
  • The other two areas which have been increasing their production are Bolangir and Koraput.
  • The peatlands of Jharkhand in Lohardaga have rich deposits.
  • Gujarat, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, and Maharashtra are other major producers.
  • Bhavnagar and Jamnagar in Gujarat have major deposits.
  • Chhattisgarh has bauxite deposits in the Amarkantak plateau while the Katni-Jabalpur area and Balaghat in M.P. have important deposits of bauxite.
  • Kolaba, Thane, Ratnagiri, Satara, Pune, and Kolhapur in Maharashtra are important producers.
  • Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and Goa are minor producers of bauxite.

Copper

  • Copper deposits are largely concentrated in the Singhbhum district of Jharkhand, Balaghat district of Madhya Pradesh, and Jhunjhunu and Alwar districts of Rajasthan.

Mica:

  • Hazaribagh plateau of Jharkhand and Nellore district of Andhra Pradesh has deposits of high-grade mica.
  • Jaipur to Bhilwara and areas around Udaipur are the major mica-bearing regions of Rajasthan.
  • Other mica-bearing regions are the Mysore and Hasan districts of Karnataka; Coimbatore, Tiruchirapalli, Madurai, and Kanniyakumari of Tamil Nadu; Alleppey of Kerala; Ratnagiri of Maharashtra; Purulia and Bankura of West Bengal.

Jharia:

  • Jharia coalfields are in Jharkhand’s Dhanbad district and span over 450 square kilometres.
  • It is one of the oldest and richest coal fields of India and has been recognized as the storehouse of the best metallurgical coal in the country.
  • On account of the growing needs of the steel industry, a thrust had to be given on the systematic exploitation of coking coal reserves in Jharia Coalfield.
  • Coal Mines in Jharkhand:
  • Jharia, Dhanbad, Bokaro,   Jayanti, Godda, Giridih (Karbhari Coal Field), Ramgarh, Karanpura, Daltonganj.

Question 112

What was the distance (around in km) covered by the first-ever train between Bombay and Thane in 1853?

  1. AOption (a)

    38

  2. BOption (b)

    25

  3. COption (c)

    34

  4. DOption (d)

    51

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

34

Why this answer is correct

Correct Answer 34

Key Points:First passenger train:

  • The first passenger train in India started from Mumbai (Bori Bunder) to Thane.
  • It operated on 16 April 1853.
  • It consisted of fourteen carriages and was operated by three steam locomotives.
  • The three steam locomotives were namely Sahib, Sultan, and Sindh.
  • The train ran for 34 km with 400 people.
  • India's first passenger train was operated by Great Indian Peninsula Railway.
  • The Great Indian Peninsula Railway was founded on 1st August 1849.

Question 113

Match List-I and List-II regarding the BCCI awards for the year 2022.

List-IList-II
(a)Rishabh Panth(i)Best Batsman in test matches for the year 2022
(b)Jasprit Bhumrah(ii)Best Bowler in the test matches for the year 2022
(c)Surya Kumar Yadav(iii)Best batsman in the One Day International matches for the year 2022
(d)Shreyas Iyer(iv)Best Batsman in T20 matches for the year 2022
  1. AOption (a)

    a - ii, b - i, c - iv, d - iii

  2. BOption (b)

    a - ii, b - i, c - iii, d - iv

  3. COption (c)

    a - i, b - ii, c - iv, d - iii

  4. DOption (d)

    a - i, b - ii, c - iii, d - iv 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

a - i, b - ii, c - iv, d - iii

Why this answer is correct

Correct Answer a - i, b - ii, c - iv, d - iii

Key Points:

2022 BCCI Awards:

FormatCategoryWinner
TESTBatsmanRishabh Pant
BowlerJasprit Bumrah
ODI
BatsmanShreyas Iyer
BowlerMohammed Siraj
T20I
BatsmanSuryakumar Yadav
BowlerBhuvneshwar Kumar

Question 114

Which of the following books was written by the Roman writer Pliny the elder?

  1. AOption (a)

    Indica

  2. BOption (b)

    Natural History

  3. COption (c)

    Geographica

  4. DOption (d)

    Periplus of the Erythraean Sea

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Natural History

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Natural History.

Key Points:

  • Natural History was written by the Roman writer Pliny the Elder in 77 AD, who wrote in this book that Rome was wasting its gold reserves by trading with India.
  • Pliny the Elder wrote a book titled "The Natural History", often known as Naturalis Historia.
  • Natural History gathers data from various ancient authors and is the largest single work to have survived from the Roman Empire to the present.
  • Despite the work's title, Pliny himself characterizes his subject matter as "the natural world, or life," rather than what is currently recognized as natural history.
  • Its scope is encyclopedic, although its organization differs from that of a contemporary encyclopedia.
  • It was Pliny's final publication and the only one of his writings to have survived.

Additional Information:

  • Periplus of the Erythraean Sea:
  • ​The Periplus of the Erythraean Sea, also known by its Latin name, the Periplus Maris Erythraei, is a Greco-Roman periplus that describes trade and navigation opportunities from Roman Egyptian ports along the Red Sea coast, such as Berenice Troglodytica, as well as those along the Horn of Africa, the Arabian Sea, the Persian Gulf, and the Indian Ocean, including the modern-day Sindh region of Pakistan and the southwest of India.
  • Indica:
  • ​The Greek author Megasthenes' account of Mauryan India is titled Indika.
  • Although the original work is now lost, succeeding Greek and Latin writings still have some of its parts.
  • Geographica:
  • ​The Geographica, or Geography, is a collection of 17 Greek-language "books" that serves as an encyclopaedia of geographic information.
  • It is credited to Strabo, a learned Roman citizen of Greek heritage.

Question 115

Which law was studied in the year 1787, in which it was said that the volume of a gas increases with its absolute temperature and if its absolute temperature decreases, then its volume will decrease?

  1. AOption (a)

    Boyle’s law

  2. BOption (b)

    Dalton’s law

  3. COption (c)

    Avogadro’s law

  4. DOption (d)

    Charles's law

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Charles's law

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Charles's law

Key Points:

  • Avogadro's law combines the conclusions of Dalton’s atomic theory and Gay Lussac’s law of combining volumes.
  • It states that equal volumes of all gases under the same conditions of temperature and pressure contain equal number of molecules.
  • Mathematically it can be written as V ∝ n, where n is the number of moles of the gas.
  • The number of molecules in one mole of a gas is 6.022 x 1023 and is known as the Avogadro constant.
  • Gay Lussac’s Law:
  • At constant volume, pressure of a fixed amount of a gas varies directly with the temperature.
  • Mathematically, pT=Constant=k3{p \over T} = Constant = k_3.
  • Charles’ Law:
  • At constant pressure, the volume of a fixed mass of a gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature.
  • Mathematically, VT=Constant=k2{V \over T} = Constant = k_2 .
  • Boyle’s Law:
  • At constant temperature, the pressure of a fixed amount of gas varies inversely with its volume.
  • Mathematically, p∝1Vp ∝ {1 \over V}.

Question 116

In India, which of the following bills CANNOT be introduced in the Rajya Sabha?

  1. AOption (a)

    Both constitutional amendment and ordinary bills

  2. BOption (b)

    The constitutional amendment bill

  3. COption (c)

    The money bill

  4. DOption (d)

    The ordinary bill

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The money bill

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Money Bill.

Key Points:

  • Money Bill can NOT be first introduced in Rajya Sabha.
  • Article 110 of the Constitution deals with Money Bills.
  • A Bill is said to be a Money Bill if it only contains provisions related to
  • taxation
  • borrowing of money by the government
  • expenditure from or receipt to the Consolidated Fund of India.
  • A money Bill can be introduced only in Lok Sabha with prior approval from the president.
  • How money bill is passed-
  • A Money Bill may only be introduced in Lok Sabha, on the recommendation of the President. It must be passed in Lok Sabha by a simple majority of all members present and voting.
  • Following this, it may be sent to the Rajya Sabha for its recommendations, which Lok Sabha may reject if it chooses to.
  • If such recommendations are not given within 14 days, it will be deemed to be passed by Parliament.

Question 117

Which Article of the Constitution of India empowers a high court to issue a writ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Article 132

  2. BOption (b)

    Article 226

  3. COption (c)

    Article 143

  4. DOption (d)

    Article 32

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Article 226

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Article 226.

Key Points:

  • The High Court has the jurisdiction under Article 226 to issue directions, orders or writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
  • A High Court is empowered to issue directions, orders, or writs for the enforcement of a Fundamental Right and for any other purpose those include:
  • Habeas corpus
  • Mandamus
  • Prohibition
  • Quo warranto
  • Certiorari.
  • The phrase ‘for any other purpose’ refers to the enforcement of an ordinary legal right.
  • The high court can issue writs to any person, authority and government not only within its territorial jurisdiction but also outside its territorial jurisdiction if the cause of action arises within its territorial jurisdiction.

Additional Information:

 Description of 5 writs:

WritDescription
Habeas corpusA writ of habeas corpus is used to bring a prisoner or other detainee before the court to determine if the person's imprisonment or detention is lawful.
MandamusIt is a judicial writ issued as a command to an inferior court or ordering a person to perform a public or statutory duty.
ProhibitionThis writ is often issued by a superior court to the lower court directing it not to proceed with a case that does not fall under its jurisdiction.
Quo warrantoIt a writ or legal action requiring a person to show by what warrant an office or franchise is held, claimed, or exercised.
CertiorariA type of writ, by which an appellate court decides to review a case at its discretion.

Question 118

In which year was the Doppler effect discovered by Austrian scientist Christian Doppler, that describes the change in frequency of any kind of sound or light wave produced by a moving source with respect to an observer?

  1. AOption (a)

    1846

  2. BOption (b)

    1844

  3. COption (c)

    1842

  4. DOption (d)

    1840

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1842

Why this answer is correct

Correct Answer 1842

Key Points:

  • Doppler Effect was first described by Christian Doppler, an Austrian physicist, who did it in 1842.

 Doppler effect: 

  • The Doppler Effect affects both light and sound.
  • If the source or the observer or both move with respect to the medium, then the frequency observed may be different from the frequency of the source.
  • This apparent change in the frequency of the wave due to the motion of the source or the observer is called the Doppler Effect.
  • The apparent frequency of the sound experienced by the observer, when the observer is stationary and the source is moving is f′=(vv±vS)f{f}'=\left( \frac{v}{v\pm {{v}_{S}}} \right)f
  • The apparent frequency of the sound experienced by the observer, when the source is stationary and the observer is moving is ​​f′=(v±vOv)f{f}'=\left( \frac{v\pm {{v}_{O}}}{v} \right)f
  • Where,

⇒ v = speed of sound in the medium,

⇒ f’ = apparent frequency,

⇒ f = natural frequency

⇒ vs & vo= speed of the source & observer respectively

  • Doppler effect in light is symmetric because light waves are electromagnetic (do not require medium) while in Sound it is asymmetric.

Question 119

Which Article of the Constitution of India lays down that an Indian citizen has the right to use any restaurant, road or public place?

  1. AOption (a)

    Article 17 (1)

  2. BOption (b)

    Article 15 (2)

  3. COption (c)

    Article 14 (2)

  4. DOption (d)

    Article 16 (1)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Article 15 (2)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 15(2).

Key Points:

  • Article 15: This Article guarantees the prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth by the State. It also ensures equality in educational opportunities in India.
  • Article 15(1) prohibits the State to discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth, or any of them.
  • Article 15 (2) prohibits citizens on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth, or any of them, be subject to any disability, liability, restriction, or condition with regard to
  • access to shops, public restaurants, hotels, and palaces of public entertainment;
  • or the use of wells, tanks, bathing ghats, roads, and places of public resort maintained wholly or partly out of State funds or dedicated to the use of the general public
  • Article 15(3) empowered the state to make special provisions for the welfare of women and children
  • ARTICLE 15 (4): It enabled the government to make special provisions for the advancement of backward classes including the Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs). It also ensures the reservation in educational institutes for the SCs and the STs.

Additional Information:

  • Article 14: The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India, on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
  • Article 16: There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State.
  • Article 17: Abolition of untouchability.
  • Article 18:  Abolition of all titles except military and academic titles.

Important Points:

  • Fundamental rights are the rights that are essential for the survival of people with dignity.
  • The Indian Constitution accommodates fundamental rights that are Justiciable subject to reasonable restrictions.

There are six fundamental rights namely

  1. Right to Equality (Article 14-18)
  2. Right to freedom (Article 19-22)
  3. Right against exploitation (Article 23 and 24)
  4. Right to freedom of religion (Article 25-28)
  5. Cultural and educational rights (Article 29 and 30)
  6. Rights to constitutional remedies (Article 32)

Question 120

Which of the following is an indirect tax?

  1. AOption (a)

    Capital gains tax

  2. BOption (b)

    Goods and services tax 

  3. COption (c)

    Wealth tax

  4. DOption (d)

    Gift tax

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Goods and services tax 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Goods and services tax 

Key Points

  • Indirect tax -
  • The tax which is not taken directly from the public but reaches the government indirectly is called indirect tax.
  • The tax levied by the state on consumption, import, export, and production, etc. is an indirect tax.
  • Excise Duty was a type of Indirect Tax which was imposed on all production or manufacturing of goods.
  • Excise duty has been replaced by the Goods and Services Tax(GST) w.e.f. 1 July 2017.
  • GST subsumed many central and state indirect taxes.
  • It is a destination-based tax.
  • Following indirect taxes were subsumed under GST:
  • Taxes collected by Centre: Central Excise Duty, Duties of Excise, Additional Duties of Excise, Additional Duties of Customs, Special Additional Duty of Customs, Service Tax and Central Surcharges and Cesses so far as they relate to supply of goods and services.
  • Taxes collected by State: State VAT, Central Sales Tax, Luxury Tax, Entry Tax, Entertainment and Amusement Tax, Taxes on advertisements, Purchase Tax, Taxes on lotteries, Betting and Gambling, State Surcharges and Cesses so far as they relate to supply of goods and services.
  • Some goods are beyond the scope of GST.
  • Petroleum, High-speed diesel, Petrol, Natural gas, Aviation fuel and Liquor. Export Duty, Basic Customs Duty, Toll Tax, Stamp Duty, Property Tax, Road & Passenger Tax, Electricity Duty were not subsumed under GST.

Question 121

Below are few statements given about afforestation.

A. Afforestation could prevent flooding.

B. Afforestation can balance our ecosystem.

Which of above statements is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Both A & B are incorrect

  2. BOption (b)

    Only B

  3. COption (c)

    Both A & B

  4. DOption (d)

    Only A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both A & B

Why this answer is correct

Correct Answer Both A & B

**Key Points:**Afforestation:

  • Afforestation is the establishment of a forest or stands of trees in an area where there was no previous tree cover.
  • Many government and non-governmental organizations directly engage in programs of afforestation to create forests and increase carbon capture.
  • It enables investors to plant the kind of trees according to demand, advancing the quick propagation of particular sorts of trees.
  • Afforestation could prevent flooding.

**Important Points:**Five Major Environment problems:

  • Genetic modification of food
  • Water (Acid Rain)
  • Loss of Biodiversity
  • Deforestation
  • Climate change

Question 122

In India, which of the following is NOT an objective of the National Manufacturing Policy?

  1. AOption (a)

    To increase the sectoral share of manufacturing in GDP to at least 25% by 2022.

  2. BOption (b)

    To double the exports of manufacturing goods by 2022.

  3. COption (c)

    To increase the rate of job creation so as to create 100 million additional jobs by 2022

  4. DOption (d)

    To enhance global competitiveness, domestic value addition, technological depth and environmental sustainability of growth.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

To double the exports of manufacturing goods by 2022.

Why this answer is correct

Correct Answer To double the exports of manufacturing goods by 2022.

Key Points:

  • The policy aims to increase the share of manufacturing in the country’s GDP to 25% by 2022.
  • The National Manufacturing Policy aims to create 100 million additional jobs in the next decade.
  • The draft policy envisages the establishment of National Investment and Manufacturing Zones (NIMZ) equipped with world-class infrastructure.
  • Each National Investment and Manufacturing Zones will have 5,000 hectares.
  • The Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) under The Ministry of Commerce and Industry has notified the National Manufacturing Policy (NMP) on November 4, 2011.
  • The National Manufacturing Policy provides a major impetus for economic growth and development.

Question 123

What is the name of the scheme launched in 2021 for students to attain foundational literacy and numeracy up to class 3?

  1. AOption (a)

    NIPUN Bharat

  2. BOption (b)

    NISHTHA 2.0

  3. COption (c)

    SUGAM

  4. DOption (d)

    SAFAL

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

NIPUN Bharat

Why this answer is correct

Correct Answer NIPUN Bharat

National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 gives the highest priority to the universal acquisition of foundational literacy and numeracy skills at the primary level. Further, it states that the rest of this Policy will be largely irrelevant for a large portion of our students if this most basic learning, i.e., reading, writing, and arithmetic at the foundational level is not first achieved.

Key Points:

  • Recognizing the crucial role of Foundational skills in national development, a National Foundational Literacy and Numeracy Mission named ‘National Initiative for Proficiency in Reading with Understanding and Numeracy - NIPUN Bharat’ was launched on 5th July 2021.
  • The purpose is to ensure that every child in the country necessarily attains foundational literacy and numeracy in Grade 3 by 2026-27.
  • Ministry of Education has launched a National Initiative for Proficiency in Reading with Understanding and Numeracy (NIPUN Bharat), for ensuring that every child in the country necessarily attains foundational literacy and numeracy (FLN).
  • The mission will focus on children of age groups of 3 to 9 years including preschool to Grade 3.
  • The children who are in Classes 4 and 5 and have not attained the foundational skills will be provided individual teacher guidance and support, peer support, and age-appropriate and supplementary graded learning materials to acquire the necessary competencies.
  • The goals and objectives of the mission are required to be achieved by all Govt., Govt. Aided and Private Schools so that universal acquisition of FLN skills can be achieved by 2026-27.

Thus, it is concluded that the NIPUN BHARAT represents a National Initiative taken by the Ministry of Education in 2021 to ensure that every child in the country attains Foundational literacy and Numeracy.

Additional Information: NISHTHA 2.0​

  • National Initiative for School Heads' and Teachers' Holistic Advancement (NISHTHA)
  • It is an initiative of the Department of School Education and Literacy, Ministry of Education under the Centrally Sponsored Scheme of Samagra Shiksha during 2019-20.
  • It is a capacity-building program for Improving the Quality of School Education through Integrated Teacher Training.
  • The basic objective of the program is to motivate and equip teachers to foster critical thinking in students.
  • The initiative is the first of its kind wherein standardized training modules are developed at the national level for all States and UTs.
  • Expected Outcomes:
  • Improvement in learning outcomes of the students.
  • Creation of an enabling and enriching inclusive classroom environment.
  • Creation of a healthy and safe school environment.
  • Integration of ICT in teaching-learning and assessment.

Structured Assessment for Analyzing Learning (SAFAL):

  • One of the key focuses of the National Education Policy, 2020 is skill-based and competency-based assessment, and of NIPUN Bharat.
  • For improving the achievement of student learning outcomes in the foundational years, the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) is planning to introduce a competency-based assessment to assess student learning outcomes on key competencies.
  • The proposed name of the assessment is Structured Assessment for Analyzing Learning (SAFAL).
  • The assessment would be focused on the assessment of core competencies.
  • SAFAL results would provide diagnostic data and insights to each school for promoting the development of students.

Purposes:

  1. Nudge system toward competency-based learning
  2. Measure school performance on major competencies
  3. Identify areas of academic intervention for support/ management

Question 124

Identify which of the following statements are correct.

1.The headquarter of ICAR-Directorate of Groundnut Research is located in Junagarh.

2.The headquarter of ICAR-Directorate of Rapeseed & Mustard Research is located in Bharatpur.

3.The headquarter of the ICAR-Directorate of Soybean Research is located in Indore.

  1. AOption (a)

    2 and 3 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1, 2 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 2 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1 and 3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1, 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

Correct Answer 1, 2 and 

Key Points

ICAR-Directorate of Groundnut Research:

  • Peanuts, which peanuts, Pindar, or monkey nut (UK) is also known as, and Taxonomic from the Arcis Haipogia is classified as, mainly from food seeds for a harvest of crops grown for Is.
  • The world's annual production of shell peanuts in 2016 was 44 million tonnes, led by China with 38% of the world's total.
  • In India, Gujarat is the largest producer of groundnuts.
  • Andhra Pradesh is the second-largest producer of groundnut.
  • The Peanut Research Directorate is located in Junagadh, Gujarat.

ICAR-Directorate of Rapeseed & Mustard Research:

Directorate of Rapeseed and mustard:

  • National Research Centre on Rapeseed-Mustard (NRCRM) on October 20, 1993.
  • It was redesignated as the Directorate of Rapeseed-Mustard Research (DRMR) in February 2009.
  • It is to carry out basic, strategic, and applied research on rapeseed mustard.
  • The directorate is also engaged in developing ecologically sound and economically viable agro-production and protection technologies.
  • It is the responsibility the planning, coordinates, and executing of research programs through a wide network of 11 main, 12 sub-, and 22 verification centers across the country to augment the production and productivity of rapeseed mustard.

 

ICAR-Directorate of Soybean Research:

  • ICAR-Indian Institute of Soybean Research (IISR) is located in Indore, Madhya Pradesh.
  • ICAR established an All India Coordinated Research Project On Soybean in 1967 with its Headquarters initially at New Delhi and subsequently at Pantnagar.
  • Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) established National Research Centre for Soybean (NRCS) during the year 1987 for the needed centralized research to support soybean production systems research with basic technology and breeding material.
  • Coordinating units are the All India Coordinated Research Project on Soybean (AICRPS), Soybean Breeder Seed Production (BSPS), and National Active Collection Site (NACS) for soybean germplasm are also located at National Research Centre for Soybean.
  • ICAR-Directorate of Soybean Research (DSR) was upgraded to the status of ICAR-Indian Institute of Soybean Research (IISR).
  • The Comprehensive initiatives taken by IISR along with all the stakeholders involving industry, NGOs, Community-Based Organizations(CBOs), and farmers have led to unprecedented growth in Area, Production and Productivity of soybean in the country.

Question 125

Zafar khan was a famous General of which of the following rulers of the Delhi Sultanate?

  1. AOption (a)

    Alauddin Khilji

  2. BOption (b)

    Iltutmish

  3. COption (c)

    Muhammad bin Tughluq

  4. DOption (d)

    Balban

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Alauddin Khilji

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Alauddin Khilji

Key PointsZafar Khan

  • He was the general of Sultan Allauddin Khilji who defeated Duwa Khan*,* a Mongol invader in 1297.
  • During the Mongol invasion of 1299 by Kutlugh Khwaja, Zafar Khan was the general of the right wing of the army.
  • He was cut off by an ambush and was killed. But the Mongols were still repealed by Allauddin's army.
  • He held charge of Multan, Samana, and Sivistan at various times during Alauddin's reign.
  • Associated with Alauddin since the latter days as a governor of Kara, Zafar Khan led a major division of Alauddin's army from Kara to Delhi after Alauddin assassinated his predecessor Jalaluddin in 1296.
  • Along with Alauddin's brother Ulugh Khan, he led the army that invaded Multan to eliminate the surviving members of Jalaluddin's family.
  • He along with Ulugh Khan probably led the Delhi army that inflicted a crushing defeat on the Chagatai Mongol invaders at Jaran Manjur in 1298.

Additional InformationAla-ud-din Khilji (1296-1316 A.D.)

  • In 1296 A.D. Ala-ud-din Khilji succeeded Jalal-ud-din Firoz Khilji and ascended the throne.
  • Ala-ud-din Khilji Invasions in the North- captured Ranthambore and killed Hamir Deva its ruler and also captured Malwa, Chittor, Dhar, Mandu, Ujjain, Marwar, Chanderi, and Jalor.
  • Ala-ud-din Khilji Invasions in the South - was the first Sultan who attacked South India and sent General Malik Kafur against the rulers of the south. Prataprudra-II of Warangal, Ramachandra Deva, the Yadava king of Devagiri, and Vira Ballala-III the Hoysala king were defeated.
  • The domestic Policies of Alauddin Khilji Ala-ud-din followed -the Divine Right Theory of Kingship, introduced four ordinances to prevent repeated revolts; impounded pious grants and free grants of lands; restructured the spy system; banned social parties and wine; introduced a permanent standing army; started the system of branding of horses and a descriptive roster of individual soldiers to inhibit corruption; fixed the prices of necessary commodities which were below the normal market rates; strictly prohibited black marketing. Revenue was collected in cash and not in kind; followed discriminatory policies towards the Hindus and imposed the Jizya, a grazing tax, and a house tax on the Hindu community.
  • He was the first to bring the standing army system.
  • He constructed Alai Darwaza, the Palace of a thousand pillars and the Fort of Siri.

Iltutmish:

  • He was the third ruler of the Delhi Sultanate.
  • Born to a slave, he rose to power and became the ruler of Delhi.
  • Since Iltutmish was the 1st Muslim sultan to establish Delhi as an imperial capital, he was regarded as the genuine founder of the Delhi Sultanate.
  • He was also the Khalifa’s first recognition of an Indian Sultan.
  • He successfully defended Delhi’s throne from Yeldoz, Qubacha raids, and Mongol invasions.
  • He strengthened his dominance over them by destroying the northern Rajput forces.
  • He produced coinage in his honor, made Delhi a splendid capital, and made his dominion hereditary.
  • He built a lot of mosques in Delhi and was a patron of the arts and architecture.

Question 126

Which of the following statements is/are correct about the neighbouring countries of India?

(A) India supported Maldives in 2022 with a grant of nearly $4 billion to support the dwindling economy.

(B) India has the highest GDP in dollar terms as compared to Sri Lanka, Bhutan and Bangladesh$.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only B

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither A nor B

  3. COption (c)

    Only A

  4. DOption (d)

    Both A and B

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only B

Why this answer is correct

Correct Answer Only B

Key Points​​Important Current Affairs on India's GDP Growth in 2022:

  • The International Monetary Fund (IMF) on 11th Oct 2022 slashed India's economic growth forecast to 6.8% for 2022.
  • The World Bank on 6th Oct 2022 cut its 2022-23 (FY23) real gross domestic product (GDP) growth forecast for India to 6.5%, from an earlier estimate of 7.5%.
  • Rating agency ICRA has maintained its forecast of 7.2% growth in India's GDP for the financial year FY23.
  • SBI has revised India's full-year GDP growth forecast to 6.8% for the financial year FY23. Earlier, the growth forecast was 7.5%.
  • On the International Monetary Fund (IMF) on 26 July 2022 slashed India's economic outlook for the financial year 2022-23 from 8.2 to 7.4%.
  • Morgan Stanley has trimmed India's economic growth forecast by 50 basis points to 7.9% for the fiscal year 2022-23.
  • Global growth is expected to decelerate "markedly" to 4.1% in 2022 from 5.5% in 2021 and drop further to 3.2% in 2023.
  • As per the National Statistical Office (NSO) report released on 7 January 2022, India's Gross domestic product (GDP) is expected to grow at 9.2 per cent in the fiscal year 2021-22.

Question 127

Which of the following is essential to form haemoglobin in blood?

  1. AOption (a)

    Fats

  2. BOption (b)

    Iron

  3. COption (c)

    Calcium

  4. DOption (d)

    Protein

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Iron

Why this answer is correct

Correct Answer Iron

Key Points Explanation:

  • Haemoglobin is a protein in your red blood cells that carries oxygen to your body's organs and tissues and transports carbon dioxide from your organs and tissues back to your lungs.
  • Haemoglobin is essential for transferring oxygen in your blood from the lungs to the tissues.
  • About 70 percent of your body's iron is found in the red blood cells of your blood called haemoglobin and in muscle cells called myoglobin.
  • Iron is the essential element of Hemoglobin.
  • Iron-deficient anaemia is a type of anaemia.
  • Red blood cells carry a biomolecule known as Hemoglobin.
  • The haemoglobin is responsible for binding oxygen molecule to itself and carrying it around the various human organs through the bloodstream.
  • Iron is the central atom in the biomolecule haemoglobin. The low concentration of iron affects the function of the bloodstream significantly to assure the availability of oxygen.
  • Therefore, anaemic patients are deficient in iron.

Important Points:

  • If a haemoglobin test reveals that your haemoglobin level is lower than normal, it means you have a low red blood cell count (Anemia).
  • Haemoglobin electrophoresis measures haemoglobin levels and looks for abnormal types of haemoglobin.
  • It's most often used to help diagnose anaemia, sickle cell disease, and other haemoglobin disorders.
  • The normal range for haemoglobin is: For men, 13.5 to 17.5 grams per deciliter. For women, 12.0 to 15.5 grams per deciliter.
  • Haemoglobin is produced in bone marrow by erythrocytes and is circulated with them until their destruction.
  • It is then broken down in the spleen, and some of its components, such as iron, are recycled to the bone marrow.

Question 128

Which of the following can degrade detritus into simpler inorganic substances?

  1. AOption (a)

    Algae

  2. BOption (b)

    Phytoplankton

  3. COption (c)

    Fungal enzymes

  4. DOption (d)

    Lichens

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Fungal enzymes

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Fungal enzymes

Key Points:

  • Bacterial and fungal enzymes degrade detritus into simpler inorganic substances. This process is called as catabolism.
  • The word catabolism is from New Latin, which got the roots from Greek: κάτω Kato, "downward" and βάλλειν ballein, "to throw".
  • It breaks down large molecules like polysaccharides, lipids, etc. into smaller units like monosaccharides, fatty acids, nucleotides, etc.
  • It is the breaking-down aspect of metabolism.
  • Cells use the monomers released from breaking down polymers to either construct new polymer molecules or degrade them into simple waste products like lactic acid, carbon dioxide, acetic acid, urea, and ammonia, releasing energy.
  • The creation of these wastes is usually an oxidation process involving a release of chemical-free energy. Of this, some are lost as heat, and the rest results in the formation of adenosine triphosphate (ATP).​

Additional Information:

  1. Catabolism is a metabolic process in which complex molecules are broken down into simpler ones with the release of energy. In the context of the given statement, bacterial and fungal enzymes break down the complex detritus into simpler inorganic substances such as carbon dioxide, water, and mineral ions. This breakdown process releases energy that can be used by the decomposers or other organisms in the ecosystem.
  2. Fragmentation: Detritivores (e.g., earthworms) break down detritus into smaller particles. This process is called fragmentation.
  3. Leaching: By the process of leaching, water-soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon and get precipitated as unavailable salts.
  4. Decomposition: It is the process of breaking down a substance into its constituent parts. Decomposition of dead organic matter occurs in nature and it is also called decay or putrefaction.​

Question 129

What is the correct order of radiations in descending order of frequencies?

  1. AOption (a)

     Infrared > Microwaves > Radio waves > X-rays

  2. BOption (b)

    Radio waves > X-rays > Microwaves > Infrared

  3. COption (c)

    X-rays > Infrared > Microwaves > Radio waves

  4. DOption (d)

    Infrared > Microwaves > X-rays > Radio waves

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

X-rays > Infrared > Microwaves > Radio waves

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer X-rays > Infrared > Microwaves > Radio waves

Key Points:

CONCEPT:

  • Electromagnetic spectrum: It is the arrangement of electromagnetic radiations according to their frequency or wavelength.
  • ​The electromagnetic spectrum has a range of frequencies, wavelengths, and photon energies.
  • Typically, electromagnetic waves travel at the speed of light in a vacuum.
  • The electromagnetic spectrum is as follows:

​

EXPLANATION: 

  • The increasing order of frequency of EM waves is given as Radio, Microwave, Infrared, Visible, Ultraviolet, X Rays, and Gamma Rays.
  • From the above diagram, it is clear that the visible spectrum lies between the infrared spectrum and ultraviolet rays.

Question 130

Which group of animals are named because of their spiny skin and have a peculiar water-driven tube system that they use for moving around?

  1. AOption (a)

    Hemichordata

  2. BOption (b)

    Aschelminthes

  3. COption (c)

    Echinodermata

  4. DOption (d)

    Mollusca

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Echinodermata

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Echinodermata.

Key Points

  • Invertebrates with pentaradial symmetry, spiny skin, a water circulatory system, and a simple nervous system are known as echinoderms.
  • There are around 7,000 extant species in this phylum.
  • Echinodermata are only found in the sea.
  • Echinoderms include sea stars, sea cucumbers, sea urchins, sand dollars, and brittle stars.
  • Echinoderms feature a calcareous endoskeleton with pentaradial symmetry and pigment cells that give them a wide spectrum of hues, as well as cells that contain poisons.
  • Water circulates through an echinoderm's water vascular system, which is made up of a central ring of canals that extends along each arm for gaseous exchange and nutrition.
  • Echinoderms have two sexes that release their eggs and sperm into the water, where the sperm fertilizes the eggs.ও
  • Echinoderms have the ability to reproduce asexually through regeneration.
  • The neurological system of echinoderms is exceedingly simple, consisting of a nerve ring in the center and five radial nerves radiating outward along the arms; there is no brain.​

Additional Information

  • Phylum Annelida:
  • Phylum Annelida contains the class Polychaeta (the polychaetes) and the class Oligochaeta (the earthworms, leeches, and their relatives).
  • These species can be found in a variety of settings, including marine, terrestrial, and freshwater, but the presence of water or humidity is essential for their survival, especially in terrestrial habitats.
  • This phylum's animals form parasitic and commensal symbioses with other species in their environment.
  • Because of its important property of metamerism, or real segmentation, annelids are commonly referred to as "segmented worms" throughout embryonic stages.
  • Phylum Arthropoda:
  • It includes animals that have been successful in colonizing terrestrial, aquatic, and aerial habitats.
  • Arthropods have jointed legs and a chitin exoskeleton.
  • Arthropods have a segmented body plan that contains fused segments divided into regions called tagma.
  • Arthropods have an open circulatory system and can breathe through their book gills, book lungs, or tracheal tubes.
  • Phylum Mollusca:
  • Phylum Mollusca is the predominant phylum in marine environments.
  • Mollusks have a soft body with a muscular foot, a visceral mass of internal organs, and a mantle, among other features.
  • The muscular foot of a mollusk is utilized for mobility and anchoring, and it comes in a variety of shapes and functions, as well as the ability to extend and retract.
  • The digestive, nervous, excretory, reproductive, and respiratory systems are all part of the mollusk's visceral mass.
  • Most mollusks have a radula, which looks like a tongue but has teeth-like projections for shredding or scraping food.

Fig. Echinodermata

Computer Knowledge (20 questions)

Question 131

Some cookies are automatically recreated after a user has deleted them. These are called _______ cookies.

  1. AOption (a)

    third party

  2. BOption (b)

    zombie

  3. COption (c)

    persistent

  4. DOption (d)

    session

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

zombie

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 2) zombie.

Explanation:

  • Cookies are small text files that websites store on a user's computer or device when they visit the site.
  • Cookies can be used for a variety of purposes, such as remembering a user's preferences or login information.
  • However, some cookies can also be used to track a user's activity across multiple websites, which can raise privacy concerns.

Zombie

  • Zombie cookies, also known as "evercookies," are a type of persistent cookie that are difficult to remove.
  • Zombie cookies can be used to track a user's activity even if they delete their cookies or use private browsing mode.
  • The cookies that are automatically recreated after a user has deleted them are called "zombie cookies" or "evercookies".

Additional Information

Persistent

  • Persistent cookies are cookies that remain on a user's computer or device even after they close their browser.
  • These cookies can be used to remember a user's preferences or login information the next time they visit the website.

Session

  • Session cookies are cookies that are deleted when a user closes their browser.
  • These cookies are often used to keep track of a user's activity during a single browsing session, such as adding items to a shopping cart.

Third-party 

  • Third-party cookies are cookies that are set by a domain other than the one the user is visiting.
  • For example, if a user visits a website and that website has embedded content from a third-party domain,
  • such as an advertisement or a social media plugin, the third-party domain may set a cookie on the user's computer.
  • This can allow the third-party domain to track the user's activity across multiple websites.

Question 132

Which among the following devices is also known as Visual Display Unit (VDU)?

  1. AOption (a)

    Printer

  2. BOption (b)

    Scanner

  3. COption (c)

    Track Ball

  4. DOption (d)

    Monitor

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Monitor

Why this answer is correct

Virtual Display Unit (VDU)

  • It is also called or synonymously used with "monitor" which is an output device of the computer.
  • It consists of millions of tiny light particles called pixels, which are arranged in vertical and horizontal lines to form the image.
  • VDU or monitor displays entered text or images or graphics whenever the user enters it using any input devices.
  • VDU is the CRT type monitor with the main part being the Cathode Ray Tube, commonly called a picture tube.
  • CRT technology provides a cheap and good color output.
  • Types of Visual Display Units:
  • Liquid Crystal Displays.
  • LCD with LED Backlight.
  • Cathode Ray Tube.
  • Plasma.
  • LED

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Question 133

In web browser, which of the following is responsible for displaying the web pages?

  1. AOption (a)

    Server

  2. BOption (b)

    Rendering engine

  3. COption (c)

    Page engine

  4. DOption (d)

    Search Engine

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rendering engine

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer option 2) Rendering engine.

  • The rendering engine is responsible for displaying web pages in a web browser.
  • It is the component of the browser that takes the HTML, CSS, and JavaScript code of a web page and converts it into a visual representation that can be displayed on the screen.

Additional Information

  • Server: The server is responsible for hosting and serving web pages to the browser. When a user requests a web page, the browser sends a request to the server, which then responds with the requested page. The server may also handle other tasks such as processing form data or storing user information.
  • Page engine: There is no such component called Page engine in a web browser. It might refer to a software that helps to create or edit web pages.
  • Search Engine: A search engine is a software system that is used to search for information on the World Wide Web. It allows users to enter keywords or phrases related to their query and returns a list of relevant web pages or resources. Popular search engines include Google, Bing, Yahoo, and DuckDuckGo. Search engines are not responsible for displaying web pages in a web browser.

Question 134

Which among the following ports is also known as Line Printer Port?

  1. AOption (a)

    Parallel

  2. BOption (b)

    Video Graphic Array

  3. COption (c)

    High Definition Media Interface

  4. DOption (d)

    Display

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Parallel

Why this answer is correct

Line Printer Port

  • The port that is also known as Line Printer Port is the Parallel port.
  • This port is used to connect a computer to a parallel printer, which prints data one line at a time.
  • It is called a "line printer port" because parallel printers are often referred to as line printers due to the way they print data.
  • Parallel ports were common on older computers, but they have largely been replaced by USB ports for printer connectivity.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Question 135

_______viruses are embedded in a system's memory so it can be reactivated if the original virus is deleted.

  1. AOption (a)

    File

  2. BOption (b)

    Resident

  3. COption (c)

    Polymorphic

  4. DOption (d)

    Roolkit

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Resident

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Resident.

Key Points 

  • A computer virus is a type of malevolent code or program written to alter the way a computer operates and is designed to spread from one computer to another.
  • A virus is corporate by inserting or attaching itself to a lawful program or document that supports macros in order to execute its code.
  • In the procedure, a virus has the prospective to cause unannounced or damaging effects, such as harming the system software by corrupting or destroying data.
  • Common types of Computer Viruses are:
  • File Infecting Virus
  • Macro Virus
  • Trojan Horse
  • Browser Hijacker
  • Web Scripting Virus
  • Boot Sector Virus
  • Polymorphic Virus
  • Resident Virus
  • Multipartite Virus​​

Important Points

  • Resident Virus:
  • ​Resident Viruses is a permanent virus that stays in the RAM memory and could cause interruption of the operations that the system has executed.
  • This leads to corrupt files and programs.
  • Examples are CMJ, Mr Klunky, Randex, and Meve.
  • ​Trojan Horse:
  • ​A Trojan horse is a hidden piece of code. Viruses enter a system secretly where the Trojan horse enters by deceiving a user.
  • A user allows or invites a Trojan into the system, believing in it, but actually, the Trojan horse contains some malicious code to perform some malicious activity.
  • Before a Trojan can attack, it must find a way to entice the victim to copy, download, and run it.
  • Since few people would knowingly run a malicious program, Trojan must disguise themselves as other programs that the victim believes to be harmless (such as games, utilities, or popular applications).
  • File Infector:
  • ​File infector virus is also known as a parasitic virus that usually infects memory and executable files.
  • Multipartite:​
  • This virus can attack both the boot sector and executable files of an infected computer.
  • When the virus attaches to the boot sector, it will in turn affect the system files.
  • When the virus attaches to the files, it will, in turn, infect the boot sector.

Question 136

Which among the following statements is incorrect about secondary memory? 

  1. AOption (a)

    It is known as the backup memory.

  2. BOption (b)

    Data is permanently stored even if power is switched OFF.

  3. COption (c)

    Computer may run without the secondary memory.

  4. DOption (d)

    It is a volatile memory.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

It is a volatile memory.

Why this answer is correct

Correct Answer: It is a volatile memory.

  • Secondary memory is also known as auxiliary memory or external memory.
  • It is a type of computer memory that is used for long-term storage of data and programs, and it is not directly accessible to the CPU.
  • Secondary memory is non-volatile, which means that data stored on it is not lost when the power is switched off.
  • It is used for tasks such as storing operating systems, software applications, documents, media files, and other types of data that need to be accessed frequently but do not need to be kept in the primary memory (RAM) of the computer.

Additional Information

  • It is known as the backup memory: This statement is correct. Secondary memory is often used as a backup for data that is stored in primary memory (RAM).
  • This is because the data stored in RAM is volatile and can be lost if the power is turned off or if there is a system crash.
  • By contrast, data stored in secondary memory is non-volatile and can be retrieved even if the computer shuts down unexpectedly.
  • Data is permanently stored even if power is switched OFF: This statement is correct.
  • As mentioned earlier, secondary memory is non-volatile, which means that it retains data even when the power is switched off.
  • This is in contrast to primary memory (RAM), which is volatile and loses its contents when the power is turned off.
  • Computer may run without the secondary memory: This statement is also correct.
  • While secondary memory is an important component of a computer system, a computer can still run without it.
  • However, the absence of secondary memory will limit the amount of data and programs that the computer can store and access.
  • The computer will have to rely solely on its primary memory (RAM), which is usually much smaller in capacity than secondary memory.

Question 137

______memory is sometimes used to increase the speed of processing by making current programs and data available to the CPU at a rapid rate.

  1. AOption (a)

    Backup

  2. BOption (b)

    Auxiliary

  3. COption (c)

    Main

  4. DOption (d)

    Cache

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Cache

Why this answer is correct

Cache Memory:

  • It is an extremely fast memory type that acts as a buffer between RAM and the CPU.
  • It holds frequently requested data and instructions so that they are immediately available to the CPU when needed.
  • It is a memory unit placed between the CPU and main memory M and is used to store instructions, data, or both.
  • It is used to reduce the average time to access data from the Main memory.
  • Cache memory is sometimes used to increase the speed of processing by making current programs and data available to the CPU at a rapid rate.

Question 138

Which of the following statement(s) about Quick Access Toolbar in MS-Word 2010 is/are incorrect?

P: The Quick Access Toolbar has Save, Undo, and Redo buttons by default.

Q: The Quick Access Toolbar has Cut, Undo, and Redo buttons by default.

R: You can place more buttons on the Quick Access toolbar.

S: There is no option on Quick Access toolbar for "show below the Ribbon".

  1. AOption (a)

    Only Q and R

  2. BOption (b)

    Only Q and S

  3. COption (c)

    only P, Q, R

  4. DOption (d)

    All P, Q, R, S

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only Q and S

Why this answer is correct

Quick access Toolbar: 

The Quick Access Toolbar displays a small selection of the more commonly used commands in Word 2010 in the top left-hand corner of the application window (above the Office Button). It is displayed independently of what tab you are currently working in, so you can always see those popular commands there.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Question 139

_______ is the oldest type of Central Processing Unit (CPU).

  1. AOption (a)

    Triple Core

  2. BOption (b)

    Single Core

  3. COption (c)

    Dual Core

  4. DOption (d)

    Quad Core

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Single Core

Why this answer is correct

Single Core is the oldest type of Central Processing Unit (CPU).

  • A CPU is the primary component of a computer system that carries out instructions of a computer program.
  • The core is the part of the CPU that performs the arithmetic and logical operations necessary for the program's execution.
  • Single-core processors contain only one core and are capable of processing one set of instructions at a time.
  • They were the first type of CPU developed and were widely used until the early 2000s.

Additional Information

  • Dual Core: Dual-core processors contain two cores and are capable of processing two sets of instructions simultaneously, providing better performance than single-core processors.
  • They are still widely used in modern computers, particularly in laptops and desktops designed for general use.
  • Triple Core: Triple-core processors contain three cores and are capable of processing three sets of instructions simultaneously, providing even better performance than dual-core processors.
  • However, triple-core processors are relatively uncommon, and are not as widely used as dual-core or quad-core processors.
  • Quad Core: Quad-core processors contain four cores and are capable of processing four sets of instructions simultaneously, providing even better performance than dual-core and triple-core processors.
  • They are widely used in modern computers, particularly in high-end desktops and servers that require powerful processing capabilities.

Question 140

Which of the following is Math and trigonometric functions available in MS-Excel 365? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Text function

  2. BOption (b)

    ABS function

  3. COption (c)

    Logical function

  4. DOption (d)

    Financial function

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

ABS function

Why this answer is correct

The Math and Trigonometric functions available in MS-Excel 365 include:

  • ABS function: Returns the absolute value of a number.
  • Trigonometric functions: These include SIN, COS, TAN, ASIN, ACOS, and ATAN, which are used to calculate the sine, cosine, tangent, arcsine, arccosine, and arctangent of an angle.
  • LOG function: Returns the natural logarithm of a number.
  • EXP function: Returns e raised to the power of a given number.
  • SQRT function: Returns the square root of a number.
  • RAND function: Returns a random number between 0 and 1.
  • INT function: Rounds a number down to the nearest integer.
  • ROUND function: Rounds a number to a specified number of decimal places.
  • CEILING and FLOOR functions: Round numbers up or down to the nearest integer or multiple of a given value.
  • POWER function: Raises a number to a specified power.
  • MOD function: Returns the remainder when one number is divided by another.
  • SUM, AVERAGE, MAX, and MIN functions: These are basic statistical functions used to calculate the sum, average, maximum, and minimum of a range of numbers.

Note: The text function and logical function are not considered Math and Trigonometric functions, but rather fall under the categories of Text and Logical functions, respectively. Financial functions are also not classified as Math and Trigonometric functions, but rather as Financial functions.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Question 141

Which among the following generations of computer used the technology of transistors for the first time?

  1. AOption (a)

    Third

  2. BOption (b)

    Second

  3. COption (c)

    First

  4. DOption (d)

    Fourth

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Second

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the Second generation of computers used the technology of transistors for the first time.

  • The Second generation of computers (1956-1963) used transistors instead of vacuum tubes, which were used in the first generation of computers.
  • Transistors were smaller, faster, and more reliable than vacuum tubes, and they consumed less power.
  • The development of transistors was a major breakthrough in computer technology, as it allowed for the creation of smaller, faster, and more reliable computers.
  • The second generation of computers also saw the introduction of magnetic core memory, which was faster and more reliable than the drum memory used in the first generation of computers.

Additional Information

  • Third Generation: The third generation of computers (1964-1971) saw the introduction of integrated circuits, which were smaller and more reliable than transistors. Integrated circuits allowed for the creation of even smaller and faster computers, and they paved the way for the development of microprocessors.
  • First Generation: The first generation of computers (1940s-1950s) used vacuum tubes as the primary electronic component. Vacuum tubes were large, fragile, and consumed a lot of power, and they were prone to failure. The first generation of computers were huge, expensive, and used mainly for scientific and military applications.
  • Fourth Generation: The fourth generation of computers (1971-1989) saw the introduction of microprocessors, which were integrated circuits that contained all the components of a computer's central processing unit (CPU) on a single chip. Microprocessors were smaller, faster, and more energy-efficient than the previous generation of computers, and they led to the development of personal computers (PCs). The fourth generation of computers also saw the development of the graphical user interface (GUI) and the mouse, which made computers more user-friendly and accessible to non-technical users.

Question 142

Which of the following option can be pressed to create a new email message in Gmail?

  1. AOption (a)

    Settings

  2. BOption (b)

    Outbound

  3. COption (c)

    Compose

  4. DOption (d)

    Drafts

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Compose

Why this answer is correct

The correct option that can be pressed to create a new email message in Gmail is: Compose

  • In Gmail, Compose is the button that can be clicked or the key that can be pressed to start creating a new email message.
  • It is usually located in the upper left-hand corner of the Gmail window, and it is represented by a red-colored "Compose" icon.

Additional Information

  • Settings, Outbound, and Drafts are also buttons in Gmail, but they are not used to create a new email message.
  • Instead, they are used for other functions in Gmail.
  • Settings: This button is used to access the settings menu in Gmail, where users can customize their Gmail account and adjust various settings such as filters, themes, and forwarding options.
  • Outbound: There is no button called "Outbound" in Gmail. It might refer to the "Sent" folder, where users can view their previously sent emails.
  • Drafts: This button is used to access the Drafts folder in Gmail, where users can find emails that they have started composing but have not yet sent.
  • Users can save a message as a draft and return to it later to finish composing it and send it.

Question 143

Each cell in the worksheet of MS-Excel 365 is identified by a cell _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    color

  2. BOption (b)

    size

  3. COption (c)

    rounding

  4. DOption (d)

    reference

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

reference

Why this answer is correct

Each cell in the worksheet of MS-Excel 365 is identified by a cell reference.

  • Cell reference is a unique identifier for each cell in a worksheet, consisting of a column letter followed by a row number.
  • For example, the reference for the cell in the first column and the first row is A1.
  • Cell references are used in Excel formulas and functions to calculate and manipulate data in the worksheet.
  • They can also be used to create links between cells in different worksheets or workbooks, allowing users to reference data across multiple sheets or files.

Additional Information

  • Color: Color is a visual property that can be applied to cells in MS-Excel 365. Users can change the background color or font color of a cell to make it stand out or to make it easier to read. This can be done through the "Fill Color" or "Font Color" options in the "Home" tab of the Excel ribbon.
  • Size: Size refers to the dimensions of a cell in MS-Excel 365. Users can adjust the width and height of a cell to make it larger or smaller, depending on their needs. This can be done by dragging the column or row headers to the desired size or by using the "Format Cells" dialog box in the "Home" tab of the Excel ribbon.
  • Rounding: Rounding is a mathematical function that can be applied to numbers in MS-Excel 365. Users can round numbers to a specified number of decimal places or to the nearest whole number, depending on their needs. This can be done through the "Number" format options in the "Home" tab of the Excel ribbon.

Question 144

_______ is a type of dedicated file storage device that provides local-area network (LAN) users with centralized, consolidated disk storage through a standard Ethernet connection.

  1. AOption (a)

    Solid-State Drive (SSD)

  2. BOption (b)

    USB Hard Drives

  3. COption (c)

    USB Sticks

  4. DOption (d)

    Network Attached Storage (NAS)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Network Attached Storage (NAS)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4) Network Attached Storage (NAS).

  • NAS is a type of dedicated file storage device that provides local-area network (LAN) users with centralized, consolidated disk storage through a standard Ethernet connection.
  • It is designed to be easy to use, and it offers a cost-effective way to store and share files across a network.
  • Unlike solid-state drives (SSDs), USB hard drives, and USB sticks, which are typically used for portable storage, NAS is a network-based storage solution that can be accessed by multiple users simultaneously.

Additional Information

  • Solid-State Drive (SSD): SSDs are storage devices that use solid-state flash memory to store data. They are faster, more reliable, and more energy-efficient than traditional hard disk drives (HDDs), and they are often used as the primary storage device in desktop and laptop computers. SSDs come in various form factors, including the standard 2.5-inch drive size for desktop and laptop computers, and the smaller M.2 form factor used in ultrabooks and tablets.
  • USB Hard Drives: USB hard drives are portable storage devices that use a USB interface to connect to a computer or other device. They typically have a larger storage capacity than USB sticks and are often used to store large files, such as videos and photos. USB hard drives come in various sizes and form factors, ranging from small, pocket-sized drives to larger, desktop-sized drives.
  • USB Sticks: USB sticks, also known as USB flash drives or thumb drives, are small, portable storage devices that use a USB interface to connect to a computer or other device. They are typically used to store and transfer small files, such as documents, photos, and music. USB sticks come in various sizes and capacities, ranging from a few megabytes to several gigabytes

Question 145

Which among the following statements is incorrect?

  1. AOption (a)

    The right window of Windows Explorer is called Navigation Pane.

  2. BOption (b)

    From the Navigation pane, you can view your computer's file and folder structure and access files and folders.

  3. COption (c)

    In the Navigation Pane, there is a Quick Access area.

  4. DOption (d)

    Navigation Pane is to enable easier navigation through Windows Explorer.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The right window of Windows Explorer is called Navigation Pane.

Why this answer is correct

Statement 1 is incorrect.

  • The right window of Windows Explorer is not called Navigation Pane.
  • The right window is called the Content Pane, and it displays the contents of the folder or file selected in the Navigation Pane.
  • The Navigation Pane is located on the left side of the Windows Explorer window, and it displays the file and folder structure of the computer.

Additional Information

  • From the Navigation pane, you can view your computer's file and folder structure and access files and folders: This statement is correct. The Navigation Pane in Windows Explorer allows you to navigate through the file and folder structure of your computer, and access files and folders.
  • In the Navigation Pane, there is a Quick Access area: This statement is correct. In the Navigation Pane, there is a Quick Access area that provides quick access to frequently used folders and files.
  • Navigation Pane is to enable easier navigation through Windows Explorer: This statement is correct. The Navigation Pane in Windows Explorer is designed to make it easier to navigate through the file and folder structure of your computer, and to access files and folders quickly and easily

Question 146

Once_______ has infected a substantial number of computer systems, it generates revenue either by displaying advertisements or using a "pay per click" mechanism to charge its clients against the number of clicks on their displayed ads.

  1. AOption (a)

    worms

  2. BOption (b)

    virus

  3. COption (c)

    spyware

  4. DOption (d)

    adware

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

adware

Why this answer is correct

Adware:

  • Adware is software that displays unwanted and aggressive advertising to end-users (for example, pop-up adverts).
  • Malvertising is the use of legal advertisements to distribute malware to end-user PCs.
  • Adware earns cash for its creator by showing internet adverts in the software's user interface or on a screen that appears in the user's face during the installation process.
  • Hence the correct answer is adware.

Additional Information

  • A Trojan virus, or Trojan, is a type of malicious software that disguises itself as legitimate software to trick users into installing it. Once installed, it can perform harmful actions such as stealing data, damaging system files, creating backdoors for remote control, and installing more malware. Trojans are not self-replicating; they need to be manually installed by the user. To stay protected, maintain updated software, avoid suspicious downloads, and use reliable antivirus tools regularly.
  • The worm has the ability to replicate itself without the input of the end-user and may swiftly infect huge networks by migrating from one system to another.
  • Spyware snoops on unsuspecting end users, gathering credentials and passwords, browser history, and other information.

Question 147

Which among the following keyboard shortcuts is used to bookmark the current webpage on the web browser?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ctrl + N

  2. BOption (b)

    Ctrl + I

  3. COption (c)

    Ctrl + B

  4. DOption (d)

    Ctrl + D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Ctrl + D

Why this answer is correct

The keyboard shortcut used to bookmark the current webpage on a web browser is:

  1. Ctrl + D
  • Pressing "Ctrl + D" simultaneously on Windows or Linux or "Command + D" on a Mac will bring up a prompt to add the current webpage to the bookmarks or favorites list in the web browser.
  • This shortcut is a quick and convenient way to save a webpage for future reference or easy access.

Additional Information

  • Ctrl + N: This keyboard shortcut is used to open a new window in most web browsers. It is also used to open a new document or window in some applications. Pressing "Ctrl + N" simultaneously on Windows or Linux or "Command + N" on a Mac will open a new window in the web browser, allowing you to browse to a new webpage or have multiple webpages open at once.
  • Ctrl + I: This keyboard shortcut is used to open the bookmarks or favorites manager in most web browsers. It is also used to italicize text in some applications. Pressing "Ctrl + I" simultaneously on Windows or Linux or "Command + I" on a Mac will open the bookmarks or favorites manager in the web browser, allowing you to organize or access your saved bookmarks or favorites.
  • Ctrl + B: This keyboard shortcut is used to toggle the bookmarks or favorites bar on and off in most web browsers. It is also used to bold text in some applications. Pressing "Ctrl + B" simultaneously on Windows or Linux or "Command + B" on a Mac will toggle the bookmarks or favorites bar on and off in the web browser, allowing you to easily access your saved bookmarks or favorites.

Question 148

_______ is also known as protocol convertor.

  1. AOption (a)

    Hub

  2. BOption (b)

    Bridge

  3. COption (c)

    Switch

  4. DOption (d)

    Gateway

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Gateway

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 4

Key Points 

  • The gateway may be a single component of a networking hardware system applied in the field of telecommunication for the interaction of devices, that enable the info flow from one discrete network to others.
  • They act as routers or switches that are capable of interacting with multiple networks and may work on seven layers of the OSI model.
  • They can be unidirectional (allowing data to flow in only one direction) or bidirectional (allowing data to flow both in and out of a network). Hence statement 2 is not correct.
  • The gateway is also known as the network connector and the protocol converter.

Additional Information 

  • Node:
  • A node could also be a point of intersection/connection within a data communication network.
  • In an environment where all devices are accessible through the network, these devices are all considered nodes.
  • Bridge:
  • Bridges are used to connect two subnetworks that use interchangeable protocols.
  • It combines two LANs to form an extended LAN.
  • The foremost difference between the bridge and the repeater is that the bridge has a penetrating efficiency.
  • Router:
  • A router receives and sends data on computer networks.
  • Routers are sometimes confused with network hubs, modems, or network switches.
  • However, routers can combine the functions of these components, and connect with these devices, to reinforce Internet access or help create business networks.

Question 149

_______ are rules that exist at several levels in a telecommunication connection.

  1. AOption (a)

    Bandwidth

  2. BOption (b)

    Network Surface Unit

  3. COption (c)

    Protocol

  4. DOption (d)

    Domain Name

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Protocol

Why this answer is correct

  • Protocol are rules that exist at several levels in a telecommunication connection.
  • Protocols are a set of rules and standards that govern how data is transmitted between devices in a network.
  • They define the format, timing, sequencing, and error checking of data transmitted over a network, and enable devices from different manufacturers to communicate with each other. Examples of common protocols include TCP/IP, HTTP, FTP, SMTP, and DNS.

Additional Information

  • Bandwidth: Bandwidth refers to the amount of data that can be transmitted over a communication channel in a given amount of time.
  • It is typically measured in bits per second (bps) or bytes per second (Bps).
  • Bandwidth is an important factor in determining the speed and capacity of a network, and it is affected by factors such as the type of transmission medium, the number of users on the network, and the quality of the signal.
  • Network Surface Unit:  It's possible that you meant "Network Interface Unit" or "Network Interface Card" (NIC), which is a hardware component that allows a device to connect to a network.
  • A NIC typically provides a physical interface (such as an Ethernet port) for connecting to the network, as well as the necessary drivers and software for controlling the connection.
  • Domain Name: A domain name is a unique identifier for a website or other internet resource.
  • It typically consists of two parts: a top-level domain (TLD), such as .com, .org, or .edu, and a second-level domain (SLD), which is the specific name chosen by the owner of the domain.
  • Domain names are used to make it easier for users to find and access websites, and they are managed by domain name registrars and domain name system (DNS) servers.

Question 150

Which of the following font effects is not available in the MS-Word 2010 font dialog box?

  1. AOption (a)

    Superscript

  2. BOption (b)

    Small Cap

  3. COption (c)

    Double Strikethrough

  4. DOption (d)

    Equalize Character Height

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Equalize Character Height

Why this answer is correct

The font effect that is not available in the MS-Word 2010 font dialog box is "Equalize Character Height".

  • Equalize Character Height: This option is not available in the MS-Word 2010 font dialog box, but in general, it would be used to adjust the size of characters so that they are all the same height.
  • This can be useful for creating a consistent look across text that uses different fonts or styles.
  • However, as noted, this option is not available in MS-Word 2010, so it cannot be used in that program.

Additional Information

  • Superscript: This option is used to format text so that it appears above the regular text line and slightly smaller.
  • It is commonly used for mathematical and scientific formulas, as well as for footnotes.
  • Small Caps: This option formats the selected text in a way that makes all the letters uppercase, but with the lowercase letters being smaller than the uppercase letters.
  • This option is useful for creating headings and titles that stand out without being too obtrusive.
  • Double Strikethrough: This option adds a double line through the selected text, creating a strikethrough effect that is thicker than the single strikethrough option.
  • It is often used to indicate that text has been completely deleted or to emphasize that something is not applicable.

150 questions in the full paper