Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL (2022) Tier-II Official Paper (Held On: 6 March 2023) (Previous Year Paper)

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Section I (60 questions)

Question 1

A pyramid has an equilateral triangle as its base, of which each side is 8 cm. Its slant edge is 24 cm. The whole surface area of the pyramid (in cm2) is:

  1. AOption (a)

    (163+2435)\rm (16\sqrt3+24\sqrt{35})

  2. BOption (b)

    (123+2435)\rm (12\sqrt3+24\sqrt{35})

  3. COption (c)

    (243+3635)\rm (24\sqrt3+36\sqrt{35})

  4. DOption (d)

    (163+4835)\rm (16\sqrt3+48\sqrt{35})

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(163+4835)\rm (16\sqrt3+48\sqrt{35})

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Base Area (Equilateral) = (√3/4) × 82 = 16√3 cm2.

Slant height (l) of a face = √(Slant edge2 − (Side/2)2) = √(242 − 42) = 4√35 cm.

Lateral Surface Area (LSA) = 3 × (1/2 × 8 × 4√35) = 48√35 cm2.

Whole Surface Area = Base Area + LSA = (16√3 + 48√35) cm2.

∴ The correct answer is (16√3 + 48√35) cm2.

Alternate Method

Given:

Side of equilateral base (a) = 8 cm

Slant edge (e) = 24 cm

Formula Used:

Area of equilateral triangle = (√3/4) × side2

Slant height (l) = √(slant edge2 − (side/2)2)

Whole Surface Area (WSA) = Base Area + 3 × (Lateral Face Area)

⇒ Area of base = (√3 / 4) × 8 × 8 = 16√3 cm2

⇒ Half of base side = 8 ÷ 2 = 4 cm

⇒ Slant height (l) = √(242 − 42) = √(576 − 16) = √560

⇒ l = √(16 × 35) = 4√35 cm

⇒ Area of one lateral face = 1/2 × base × l = 1/2 × 8 × 4√35 = 16√35 cm2

⇒ Total Lateral Surface Area = 3 × 16√35 = 48√35 cm2

⇒ Whole Surface Area = Base Area + LSA = (16√3 + 48√35) cm2

∴ The correct answer is (16√3 + 48√35) cm2.

Additional Information

Volume of a Pyramid

The volume of any pyramid is given by V = (1/3) × Base Area × Vertical Height (h).

Slant Height vs Vertical Height

For a regular pyramid, l2 = h2 + r2, where l is the slant height, h is the vertical height, and r is the inradius of the base.

Regular Tetrahedron

A regular tetrahedron is a special pyramid where all four faces are congruent equilateral triangles; its total surface area is √3 × a2.

Question 2

If 80 litres of milk solution has 60% milk in it, then how much milk should be added to make milk 80% in the solution? 

  1. AOption (a)

    70 litres

  2. BOption (b)

    50 litres

  3. COption (c)

    60 litres

  4. DOption (d)

    80 litres

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

80 litres

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Water percentage (Initial : Final) = 40% : 20% = 2 : 1

Total volume ratio (inverse of concentration) = 1 : 2

Original volume (1 unit) = 80 litres

Volume to be added = (2 − 1) = 1 unit

Added milk = 1 × 80 = 80 litres

∴ The correct answer is 80 litres.

Alternate Method

Given: Initial volume = 80 litres, Milk (Initial) = 60%, Milk (Final) = 80%

Formula: Alligation method or Quantity balance method.

Initial Milk % Added Milk %

60%

100%

80%

20 (100−80) 20 (80−60) Ratio = 1 : 1

⇒ Initial milk quantity = 60% of 80 = 48 litres

⇒ Initial water quantity = 80 − 48 = 32 litres

⇒ Let x litres of milk be added.

⇒ Final total volume = (80 + x) litres

⇒ New milk concentration = 80%, so new water concentration = 20%

⇒ 20% of (80 + x) = 32

⇒ 0.20 × (80 + x) = 32

⇒ 80 + x = 32 ÷ 0.20

⇒ 80 + x = 160

⇒ x = 160 − 80 = 80 litres

∴ The correct answer is 80 litres.

Additional Information

Constant Quantity Rule

In a mixture, if only one component is added or removed, the quantity of the other component remains constant. Original Volume × Old % = New Volume × New %.

Alligation Method

Ratio of quantities = (Higher Value − Mean Value) : (Mean Value − Lower Value). Pure milk is always taken as 100%.

Percentage to Ratio Conversion

60% milk means Milk : Water = 3 : 2. To get 80% milk (Milk : Water = 4 : 1), equalize the water parts to find the change in milk units.

Question 3

If the highest common factor (HCF) of x and y is 15, then the HCF of 36x2 - 81y2 and 81x2 - 9y2 is divisible by ______.

  1. AOption (a)

    135

  2. BOption (b)

    120

  3. COption (c)

    180

  4. DOption (d)

    90

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

135

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Let x = 15 and y = 15 as HCF(15, 15) = 15.

First term: 36(152) − 81(152) = 225 × (36 − 81) = 225 × (−45)

Second term: 81(152) − 9(152) = 225 × (81 − 9) = 225 × 72

HCF of terms = 225 × HCF(45, 72) = 225 × 9 = 2025.

Among options, 2025 ÷ 135 = 15 (Perfectly divisible).

∴ The correct answer is 135.

Alternate Method

Given: HCF(x, y) = 15

Formula: If HCF(x, y) = h, then x = ha and y = hb, where HCF(a, b) = 1.

⇒ Let x = 15a and y = 15b.

⇒ 36x2 − 81y2 = 36(15a)2 − 81(15b)2

⇒ 36(225a2) − 81(225b2) = 225(36a2 − 81b2) = 225 × 9(4a2 − 9b2) = 2025(4a2 − 9b2)

⇒ 81x2 − 9y2 = 81(15a)2 − 9(15b)2

⇒ 81(225a2) − 9(225b2) = 225(81a2 − 9b2) = 225 × 9(9a2 − b2) = 2025(9a2 − b2)

⇒ The HCF of the two expressions is a multiple of 2025.

⇒ We need to find which option divides 2025.

⇒ 2025 ÷ 135 = 15

⇒ 2025 ÷ 120 = 16.875

⇒ 2025 ÷ 180 = 11.25

⇒ 2025 ÷ 90 = 22.5

∴ The correct answer is 135.

Additional Information

HCF Scaling Property

If HCF(x, y) = k, then HCF(xn, yn) = kn. Similarly, HCF(cx, cy) = c × HCF(x, y).

Algebraic Divisibility

For any expressions f(x, y) and g(x, y), their HCF will always be divisible by the HCF of the common numerical coefficients and the HCF of the base variables.

Divisibility Rule of 135

A number is divisible by 135 if it is divisible by both 5 and 27 (where 27 requires the sum of digits to be a multiple of 9 and satisfying higher power checks).

Question 4

What is the perimeter of a square inscribed in a circle of radius 5 cm?

  1. AOption (a)

    20√2 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    40√2 cm

  3. COption (c)

    30√2 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    10√2 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

20√2 cm

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Diagonal of an inscribed square = Diameter of the circle.

Diameter = 2 × Radius = 2 × 5 = 10 cm.

Perimeter of square = 2√2 × Diagonal.

Perimeter = 2√2 × 10 = 20√2 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 20√2 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Radius of the circle (r) = 5 cm

Formula Used:

Diameter of circle (d) = 2 × r

Diagonal of square (D) = Side × √2

Perimeter of square = 4 × Side

Calculations:

⇒ Diameter of the circle = 2 × 5 = 10 cm

⇒ Since the square is inscribed, its diagonal (D) = Diameter of the circle = 10 cm

⇒ Side × √2 = 10

⇒ Side = 10 ÷ √2 = 5√2 cm

⇒ Perimeter of square = 4 × 5√2

⇒ Perimeter = 20√2 cm

∴ The correct answer is 20√2 cm.

Additional Information

Area of Inscribed Square

The area of a square inscribed in a circle of radius r is given by 2r2.

Square Circumscribing a Circle

If a square circumscribes a circle, its side is equal to the diameter (2r) and its perimeter is 8r.

Diagonal Property

The diagonal of a square with side 'a' is a√2, and it is the longest distance between any two points in the square.

Question 5

If the curved surface area of a cylinder is 126 π cm2 and its height is 14 cm, what is the volume of the cylinder?

  1. AOption (a)

    28312283\frac{1}{2} π cm3

  2. BOption (b)

    13712137\frac{1}{2} π cm3

  3. COption (c)

    12812128\frac{1}{2} π cm3

  4. DOption (d)

    12512125\frac{1}{2} π cm3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

28312283\frac{1}{2} π cm3

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Radius (r) = Curved Surface Area ÷ (2 × π × height)

r = 126π ÷ (2 × π × 14) = 126 ÷ 28 = 4.5 cm

Volume of cylinder = Curved Surface Area × (r ÷ 2)

Volume = 126π × (4.5 ÷ 2) = 126π × 2.25 = 283.5π cm3

∴ The correct answer is 283½ π cm3.

Alternate Method

Given:

Curved Surface Area (CSA) = 126π cm2

Height (h) = 14 cm

Formula Used:

CSA of cylinder = 2πrh

Volume of cylinder = πr2h

Calculations:

⇒ 2 × π × r × 14 = 126 × π

⇒ 28 × r = 126

⇒ r = 126 ÷ 28 = 4.5 cm

⇒ Volume = π × (4.5)2 × 14

⇒ Volume = π × 20.25 × 14

⇒ Volume = 283.5π cm3

⇒ Volume = 283½ π cm3

∴ The correct answer is 283½ π cm3.

Additional Information

Total Surface Area (TSA) of Cylinder

The total surface area includes the curved surface and the two circular bases: TSA = 2πr(h + r).

Volume of a Cone

A cone with the same radius and height as a cylinder has exactly one-third of its volume: V = (1/3)πr2h.

Relation between Volume and CSA

For any cylinder, the ratio of its volume to its curved surface area is always r/2, simplified as V = CSA × (r/2).

Question 6

Simplify the following. 

10+25+108+154+22516+19.25×42\frac{\sqrt{10+\sqrt{25+\sqrt{108+\sqrt{154+\sqrt{225}}}}}}{\sqrt{16+19.25\times4^2}}

  1. AOption (a)

    718\frac{7}{18}

  2. BOption (b)

    29\frac{2}{9}

  3. COption (c)

    518\frac{5}{18}

  4. DOption (d)

    19\frac{1}{9}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

29\frac{2}{9}

Why this answer is correct

Given:

10+25+108+154+22516+19.25×42\frac{\sqrt{10+\sqrt{25+\sqrt{108+\sqrt{154+\sqrt{225}}}}}}{\sqrt{16+19.25 \times 4^2}}

Formula used:

√x2 = x

Calculation:

⇒ Numerator = 10+25+108+154+15\sqrt{10+\sqrt{25+\sqrt{108+\sqrt{154+15}}}}

⇒ 10+25+108+13\sqrt{10+\sqrt{25+\sqrt{108+13}}}

⇒ 10+36\sqrt{10+\sqrt{36}}

⇒ 10+6=4\sqrt{10+6} = 4

⇒ Denominator = 16+19.25×16\sqrt{16+19.25 \times 16}

⇒ 16+308\sqrt{16+308}

⇒ 324=18\sqrt{324} = 18

⇒ Expression = 418\frac{4}{18}

⇒ 29\frac{2}{9}

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Question 7

A, B, and C invested capital in the ratio of 3 ∶ 4 ∶ 8. At the end of the business term, they received the profit in the ratio of 2 ∶ 3 ∶ 5. What is the ratio of their invested time? 

  1. AOption (a)

    15 ∶ 16 ∶ 13

  2. BOption (b)

    13 ∶ 18 ∶ 15

  3. COption (c)

    16 ∶ 18 ∶ 15

  4. DOption (d)

    16 ∶ 21 ∶ 18

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

16 ∶ 18 ∶ 15

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

In partnership: Profit = Capital × Time ⇒ Time = Profit ÷ Capital.

Time ratio = (2 ÷ 3) : (3 ÷ 4) : (5 ÷ 8).

LCM of denominators (3, 4, 8) = 24.

Multiply each part by 24: (2/3 × 24) : (3/4 × 24) : (5/8 × 24).

Time ratio = 16 : 18 : 15.

∴ The correct answer is 16 : 18 : 15.

Alternate Method

Given:

Ratio of Capitals (CA : CB : CC) = 3 : 4 : 8

Ratio of Profits (PA : PB : PC) = 2 : 3 : 5

Formula Used:

Profit = Capital × Investment Time

Time = Profit ÷ Capital

Calculations:

⇒ Time of A (TA) = PA ÷ CA = 2 ÷ 3

⇒ Time of B (TB) = PB ÷ CB = 3 ÷ 4

⇒ Time of C (TC) = PC ÷ CC = 5 ÷ 8

⇒ TA : TB : TC = (2/3) : (3/4) : (5/8)

⇒ To simplify, multiply by LCM(3, 4, 8) = 24

⇒ TA = 2/3 × 24 = 16

⇒ TB = 3/4 × 24 = 18

⇒ TC = 5/8 × 24 = 15

⇒ Ratio = 16 : 18 : 15

∴ The correct answer is 16 : 18 : 15.

Additional Information

Capital Calculation

If profit ratio and time ratio are given, the ratio of capital can be found as Capital = Profit ÷ Time.

Active vs Sleeping Partner

An active partner manages the business and may receive a fixed percentage of total profit as salary before the remaining profit is distributed.

Compound Partnership

When partners invest different amounts for different periods of time, the profit is shared according to the ratio of their (Capital × Time) products.

Question 8

The probabilities of solving a problem by three students A, B and C are 37,59\frac{3}{7},\frac{5}{9} and 15\frac{1}{5} respectively. The probability that problem will be solved is:

  1. AOption (a)

    155315\frac{155}{315}

  2. BOption (b)

    64315\frac{64}{315}

  3. COption (c)

    251315\frac{251}{315}

  4. DOption (d)

    32315\frac{32}{315}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

251315\frac{251}{315}

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Probability (Solved) = 1 − Probability (None solve it)

Failure rates: A = 4/7, B = 4/9, C = 4/5

P(None solve) = 4/7 × 4/9 × 4/5 = 64/315

P(Solved) = 1 − 64/315 = 251/315

∴ The correct answer is 251/315.

Alternate Method

Given:

P(A) = 3/7, P(B) = 5/9, P(C) = 1/5

Formula Used:

Probability that the problem is solved = 1 − P(A') × P(B') × P(C')

Calculations:

⇒ P(A') = 1 − 3/7 = 4/7

⇒ P(B') = 1 − 5/9 = 4/9

⇒ P(C') = 1 − 1/5 = 4/5

⇒ Probability that none of them solve the problem = P(A') × P(B') × P(C')

⇒ P(none) = (4/7) × (4/9) × (4/5)

⇒ P(none) = 64 / 315

⇒ Probability that the problem is solved = 1 − P(none)

⇒ P(solved) = 1 − 64/315

⇒ P(solved) = (315 − 64) / 315 = 251 / 315

∴ The correct answer is 251/315.

Additional Information

Independent Events

Two events are independent if the occurrence of one does not affect the other. For such events, P(A ∩ B) = P(A) × P(B).

At Least One Event

The probability of at least one event occurring among independent events is calculated as 1 − P(none of the events occur).

Complementary Probability

The sum of the probability of an event and its complement is always 1: P(E) + P(E') = 1.

Question 9

Reshma covers 45 km at a speed of 15 km/h by bicycle, 80 km at a speed of 40 km/h by car, and another 6 km at a speed of 2 km/h on foot. Find her average speed for the whole journey (correct to 2 decimal places).

  1. AOption (a)

    16.38 km/h

  2. BOption (b)

    43.50 km/h

  3. COption (c)

    18.36 km/h

  4. DOption (d)

    15.25 km/h

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

16.38 km/h

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Total Distance = 45 + 80 + 6 = 131 km

Total Time = (45 ÷ 15) + (80 ÷ 40) + (6 ÷ 2) = 3 + 2 + 3 = 8 hours

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time = 131 ÷ 8 = 16.375 km/h

Rounding to 2 decimal places ≈ 16.38 km/h

∴ The correct answer is 16.38 km/h.

Alternate Method

Given:

Distance1 (d1) = 45 km, Speed1 (s1) = 15 km/h

Distance2 (d2) = 80 km, Speed2 (s2) = 40 km/h

Distance3 (d3) = 6 km, Speed3 (s3) = 2 km/h

Formula Used:

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Calculations:

⇒ Total Distance = d1 + d2 + d3

⇒ Total Distance = 45 + 80 + 6 = 131 km

⇒ Time t1 = 45 ÷ 15 = 3 hours

⇒ Time t2 = 80 ÷ 40 = 2 hours

⇒ Time t3 = 6 ÷ 2 = 3 hours

⇒ Total Time = t1 + t2 + t3 = 3 + 2 + 3 = 8 hours

⇒ Average Speed = 131 ÷ 8

⇒ Average Speed = 16.375 km/h

∴ The correct answer is 16.38 km/h.

Additional Information

Average Speed for Two Equal Distances

If a journey is divided into two equal parts with speeds x and y, then Average Speed = 2xy ÷ (x + y).

Unit Conversion

To convert km/h to m/s, multiply the value by 5 ÷ 18. To convert m/s to km/h, multiply by 18 ÷ 5.

Average Speed General Case

Average speed is always the total displacement (or total distance for scalar cases) divided by the total time taken, regardless of intermediate stops.

Question 10

A dishonest dealer marks up his goods by 50% and then gives a discount of 20% on the marked price. Apart from this, he uses a faulty balance which reads 1kg for 900 gm. What is his net profit percentage (rounded off to the nearest integer)?

  1. AOption (a)

    24

  2. BOption (b)

    27

  3. COption (c)

    36

  4. DOption (d)

    33

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

33

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Net Multiplier = (Markup Factor) × (Discount Factor) × (Weight Factor)

Markup 50% → 3/2 | Discount 20% → 4/5 | Faulty weight (reads 1000 for 900) → 10/9

Net Ratio = (3/2) × (4/5) × (10/9) = (120 / 90) = 4/3

Profit % = (4 − 3)/3 × 100 = 33.33% ≈ 33%

∴ The correct answer is 33%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Markup % = 50%

Discount % = 20%

Faulty Balance = 1 kg (1000 gm) instead of 900 gm

Let the CP of 1000 gm be ₹1000.

⇒ CP of 900 gm = ₹900 (This is the dealer's actual cost for what he gives).

⇒ Marked Price (MP) for 1000 gm = ₹1000 + 50% of 1000 = ₹1500.

⇒ Selling Price (SP) after 20% discount on MP = ₹1500 − 20% of 1500

⇒ SP = ₹1500 − ₹300 = ₹1200.

⇒ The dealer gives only 900 gm but charges for 1000 gm at SP.

⇒ Profit = SP − Actual CP of 900 gm = ₹1200 − ₹900 = ₹300.

⇒ Profit % = (Profit / Actual CP) × 100

⇒ Profit % = (300 / 900) × 100 = 1/3 × 100 = 33.33%

⇒ Rounded to nearest integer = 33%.

∴ The correct answer is 33%.

Additional Information

Dishonest Dealer Formula

Profit % = [(True Weight − False Weight) / False Weight] × 100. This is the profit due to weight manipulation only.

Successive Percentage Rule

When two changes x% and y% are applied, net change = [x + y + (xy/100)]%. For markup (positive) and discount (negative), x = markup and y = −discount.

Combined Effective Profit

Net SP/CP Ratio = (1 + markup/100) × (1 − discount/100) × (True Weight / False Weight). Profit % = (Ratio − 1) × 100.

Question 11

If △ABC is right angled at B, AB = 12 cm and ∠CAB = 60°, determine the length of BC.

  1. AOption (a)

    24√3 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    12 cm

  3. COption (c)

    12√2 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    12√3 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

12√3 cm

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

In a right-angled triangle with angles 30°, 60°, and 90°, the ratio of sides opposite to these angles is 1 : √3 : 2.

Here, ∠B = 90°, ∠A = 60°, therefore ∠C = 30°.

The side AB is opposite to ∠C (30°), so AB = 1 unit = 12 cm.

The side BC is opposite to ∠A (60°), so BC = √3 units = 12 × √3 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 12√3 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Triangle ABC is right-angled at B (∠ABC = 90°).

Length of AB = 12 cm.

Angle ∠CAB = 60°.

Formula Used:

In a right-angled triangle, tan θ = (Side Opposite to θ) ÷ (Side Adjacent to θ)

Calculations:

In ΔABC, for angle A = 60°:

⇒ tan(∠CAB) = BC ÷ AB

⇒ tan 60° = BC ÷ 12

⇒ √3 = BC ÷ 12

⇒ BC = 12 × √3

⇒ BC = 12√3 cm

∴ The correct answer is 12√3 cm.

Additional Information

Trigonometric Ratios

For any angle θ, sin θ = Opp/Hyp, cos θ = Adj/Hyp, and tan θ = Opp/Adj.

Special Values

Common values include tan 30° = 1/√3, tan 45° = 1, and tan 60° = √3.

Pythagoras Theorem

In a right triangle, Hypotenuse2 = Base2 + Perpendicular2 (AC2 = AB2 + BC2).

Sum of Angles

The interior angles of any triangle always add up to 180° (∠A + ∠B + ∠C = 180°).

Question 12

Find the number of diagonals of a regular polygon, sum of whose interior angles is 2700°

  1. AOption (a)

    121

  2. BOption (b)

    119

  3. COption (c)

    127

  4. DOption (d)

    117

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

119

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Number of sides (n) = (Sum of interior angles ÷ 180) + 2

n = (2700 ÷ 180) + 2 = 15 + 2 = 17

Number of diagonals = n × (n − 3) ÷ 2

Number of diagonals = 17 × 14 ÷ 2 = 119

∴ The correct answer is 119.

Alternate Method

Given:

Sum of interior angles = 2700°

Formula Used:

  1. Sum of interior angles of a polygon = (n − 2) × 180°
  2. Number of diagonals = [n × (n − 3)] ÷ 2

where n = number of sides.

Calculations:

⇒ (n − 2) × 180° = 2700°

⇒ n − 2 = 2700 ÷ 180

⇒ n − 2 = 15

⇒ n = 15 + 2 = 17

⇒ Number of diagonals = [17 × (17 − 3)] ÷ 2

⇒ Number of diagonals = 17 × 7 = 119

∴ The correct answer is 119.

Additional Information

Sum of Exterior Angles

For any convex polygon, the sum of all exterior angles is always 360°.

Interior and Exterior Angle Relation

At each vertex of a regular polygon, Interior Angle + Exterior Angle = 180°.

Each Interior Angle of Regular Polygon

The measure of each interior angle is calculated as [(n − 2) × 180°] ÷ n.

Each Exterior Angle of Regular Polygon

The measure of each exterior angle is calculated as 360° ÷ n.

Question 13

In 5 years, the simple interest on an amount of Rs. X is 25th\rm \frac{2}{5}^{th} of the principal. The rate of interest per annum is:

  1. AOption (a)

    12%

  2. BOption (b)

    8%

  3. COption (c)

    10%

  4. DOption (d)

    5%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

8%

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Interest = 2/5 of Principal = (2/5 × 100)% = 40% of Principal.

Total Interest % = Rate × Time

40% = Rate × 5 years

Rate = 40% ÷ 5 = 8%

∴ The correct answer is 8%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Principal (P) = Rs. X

Time (T) = 5 years

Simple Interest (SI) = 2/5 of X = 0.4X

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Calculations:

⇒ SI = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

⇒ (2/5) × X = (X × R × 5) ÷ 100

⇒ 2/5 = 5R ÷ 100

⇒ 0.4 = R ÷ 20

⇒ R = 0.4 × 20

⇒ R = 8%

∴ The correct answer is 8%.

Additional Information

Simple Interest Components

SI = (P × R × T) ÷ 100. If any three variables are known, the fourth can be calculated directly.

Effective Rate of Interest

The total percentage change in the principal over T years at R% simple interest per year is (R × T)%.

Total Amount Formula

Amount (A) = Principal (P) + Simple Interest (SI) = P × (1 + RT/100).

Question 14

Find the value of given expression. 3 - (- 6){- 2 - 9 - 3} ÷ 7{1 + (- 2)(- 1)}

  1. AOption (a)

    -1

  2. BOption (b)

    15

  3. COption (c)

    7

  4. DOption (d)

    1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

-1

Why this answer is correct

Given:

3−(−6)−2−9−3÷71+(−2)(−1)3 - (- 6){- 2 - 9 - 3} \div 7{1 + (- 2)(- 1)} = ?

Formula used:

BODMAS Rule (Brackets, Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction)

Calculations:

3−(−6)−14÷71+23 - (- 6){- 14} \div 7{1 + 2}

⇒ 3−84÷(7×3)3 - 84 \div (7 \times 3)

⇒ 3−84÷213 - 84 \div 21

⇒ 3−43 - 4

⇒ -1

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Question 15

The difference between the length of two parallel sides of a trapezium is 12 cm. The perpendicular distance between these two parallel sides is 60 cm. If the area of the trapezium is 1380 cm2, then find the length of each of the parallel sides (in cm).

  1. AOption (a)

    27, 15

  2. BOption (b)

    31, 19

  3. COption (c)

    29, 17

  4. DOption (d)

    24, 12

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

29, 17

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Sum of parallel sides = (2 × Area) ÷ Height

⇒ Sum = (2 × 1380) ÷ 60 = 46 cm.

Given Difference = 12 cm.

Sides = (Sum ± Difference) ÷ 2 = (46 ± 12) ÷ 2 = 29 cm and 17 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 29, 17 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Area of trapezium = 1380 cm2

Height (h) = 60 cm

Difference between parallel sides (a − b) = 12 cm

Formula used: Area of trapezium = 1/2 × (a + b) × h

⇒ 1380 = 1/2 × (a + b) × 60

⇒ 1380 = 30 × (a + b)

⇒ a + b = 1380 ÷ 30

⇒ a + b = 46 --- (Equation 1)

⇒ a − b = 12 --- (Equation 2)

⇒ Adding (1) and (2): 2a = 58 ⇒ a = 29 cm

⇒ Substituting in (1): 29 + b = 46 ⇒ b = 17 cm

∴ The correct answer is 29, 17 cm.

Additional Information

Area of Trapezium

The area is calculated as the product of the average of the parallel sides and the perpendicular distance between them: Area = 1/2 × (Sum of parallel sides) × Height.

Median of a Trapezium

The median (mid-segment) is parallel to the bases and its length is the average of the bases: Median = (a + b) ÷ 2.

Isosceles Trapezium

A trapezium where the non-parallel sides are equal in length and the base angles are also equal.

Question 16

For a sample data, mean = 60 and median = 48. For this distribution, the mode is:

  1. AOption (a)

    18

  2. BOption (b)

    48

  3. COption (c)

    36

  4. DOption (d)

    24

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

24

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick Direct Empirical Formula: Mode = 3 × Median − 2 × Mean Substitute: Mode = 3(48) − 2(60) Calculate: 144 − 120 = 24 ∴ The correct answer is 24.

Alternate Method Given: Mean = 60 Median = 48 Formula Used: For a moderately skewed distribution, the empirical relation is: Mode = 3 × Median − 2 × Mean

Calculations: ⇒ Mode = 3 × 48 − 2 × 60 ⇒ Mode = 144 − 120 ⇒ Mode = 24 ∴ The correct answer is 24.

Additional Information Empirical Relation (Karl Pearson) The relationship Mean − Mode = 3 × (Mean − Median) is used for moderately skewed asymmetrical distributions. Symmetric Distribution In a perfectly symmetrical distribution, the Mean, Median, and Mode are all equal (Mean = Median = Mode). Skewness Identification When Mean > Median > Mode, the distribution is positively skewed; if Mode > Median > Mean, it is negatively skewed.

Question 17

The centroid of an equilateral triangle PQR is L. If PQ = 6 cm, the length of PL is:

  1. AOption (a)

    4√3 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    3√3 cm

  3. COption (c)

    2√3 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    5√3 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2√3 cm

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

In an equilateral triangle, the distance from any vertex to the centroid (L) is equal to its circumradius (R).

Shortcut formula: PL = Side / √3

Given side PQ = 6 cm

PL = 6 / √3 = (2 × 3) / √3 = 2√3 cm

∴ The correct answer is 2√3 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Side of equilateral triangle PQR (a) = 6 cm

L is the centroid of the triangle.

Formula used:

  1. Altitude (h) of an equilateral triangle = (√3 / 2) × a
  2. Centroid divides the median (altitude in this case) in the ratio 2 : 1 from the vertex.

Calculations:

⇒ Altitude (PM) = (√3 / 2) × 6

⇒ PM = 3√3 cm

⇒ PL = (2 / 3) × PM

⇒ PL = (2 / 3) × 3√3

⇒ PL = 2√3 cm

∴ The correct answer is 2√3 cm.

Additional Information

Centroid of a Triangle

The point where all three medians of a triangle intersect. It divides each median in the ratio 2 : 1 from the vertex to the midpoint of the opposite side.

Equilateral Triangle Properties

For a side length a, the circumradius R = a / √3, and the inradius r = a / (2√3). The centroid, orthocenter, circumcenter, and incenter all coincide at the same point.

Area and Height

Height h = (√3 / 2) × a and Area = (√3 / 4) × a2.

Question 18

Find the exact value of cos 120°.

  1. AOption (a)

    1

  2. BOption (b)

    0

  3. COption (c)

    -0.5

  4. DOption (d)

    0.5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

-0.5

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

120° lies in the Second Quadrant (90° to 180°).

In the Second Quadrant, the Cosine function is always negative.

Reference Angle = 180° − 120° = 60°.

cos 120° = −cos 60° = −0.5.

∴ The correct answer is −0.5.

Alternate Method

Given: Angle = 120°

Formula Used: cos(180° − θ) = −cos θ

⇒ cos 120° can be written as cos(180° − 60°).

⇒ We know that cos(180° − θ) = −cos θ.

⇒ cos 120° = −cos 60°.

⇒ Since cos 60° = 0.5 (or 1/2).

⇒ cos 120° = −0.5.

∴ The correct answer is −0.5.

Additional Information

ASTC Rule (Quadrant System)

All (Q-I), Silver (Q-II: Sin/Cosec), Tea (Q-III: Tan/Cot), Cups (Q-IV: Cos/Sec) identifies where functions are positive.

Standard Cosine Values

cos 0° = 1, cos 30° = √3/2, cos 45° = 1/√2, cos 60° = 0.5, cos 90° = 0.

Angle Reduction Formulas

cos(90° + θ) = −sin θ | cos(180° − θ) = −cos θ | cos(180° + θ) = −cos θ | cos(360° − θ) = cos θ.

Question 19

If 4x2 + y2 = 40 and xy = 6, then find the value of 2x + y.

  1. AOption (a)

    6

  2. BOption (b)

    8

  3. COption (c)

    5

  4. DOption (d)

    4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

8

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Note the identity: (2x + y)2 = 4x2 + y2 + 4xy.

Substitute the known values 4x2 + y2 = 40 and xy = 6.

(2x + y)2 = 40 + 4 × 6 = 40 + 24 = 64.

Taking the square root on both sides: 2x + y = √64 = 8.

∴ The correct answer is 8.

Alternate Method

Given:

4x2 + y2 = 40

xy = 6

Formula Used:

(a + b)2 = a2 + b2 + 2ab

Calculations:

⇒ Consider the expression (2x + y)2.

⇒ By applying the algebraic identity, (2x + y)2 = (2x)2 + (y)2 + 2 × (2x) × (y)

⇒ (2x + y)2 = 4x2 + y2 + 4xy

⇒ Substituting the given values: (2x + y)2 = 40 + 4 × 6

⇒ (2x + y)2 = 40 + 24

⇒ (2x + y)2 = 64

⇒ 2x + y = √64

⇒ 2x + y = 8

∴ The correct answer is 8.

Additional Information

Square of a Binomial Sum

The identity (a + b)2 = a2 + 2ab + b2 is used to relate the sum of squares and the product of two terms to the square of their sum.

Square of a Binomial Difference

The identity (a − b)2 = a2 − 2ab + b2 helps in finding the difference between terms when squares and products are known.

Difference of Two Squares

The identity a2 − b2 = (a + b)(a − b) is essential for factorising expressions involving the subtraction of two perfect squares.

Question 20

The ratio of the number of coins of 25 paise, 50 paise, Rs. 2 and Rs. 5 is 5 ∶ 4 ∶ 3 ∶ 1, respectively. If the total amount of the coins is Rs. 285, then the difference between the number of 25 paise and Rs. 5 coins is:

  1. AOption (a)

    80

  2. BOption (b)

    30

  3. COption (c)

    40

  4. DOption (d)

    60

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

80

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Value ratio = (5 × 0.25) : (4 × 0.50) : (3 × 2) : (1 × 5) = 1.25 : 2 : 6 : 5

Sum of ratio parts = 1.25 + 2 + 6 + 5 = 14.25

Value of 1 unit = 285 ÷ 14.25 = 20

Difference in count between 25 paise and ₹5 coins = (5 − 1) × 20 = 4 × 20 = 80

∴ The correct answer is 80 coins.

Alternate Method

Given:

Ratio of number of coins (25p : 50p : ₹2 : ₹5) = 5 : 4 : 3 : 1

Total amount = ₹285

Formula Used:

Total Value = ∑ (Denomination × Number of coins)

Let the number of coins be 5x, 4x, 3x, and 1x.

Total value in ₹ = (Number of 25p coins × 0.25) + (Number of 50p coins × 0.50) + (Number of ₹2 coins × 2) + (Number of ₹5 coins × 5)

⇒ (5x × 0.25) + (4x × 0.50) + (3x × 2) + (1x × 5) = 285

⇒ 1.25x + 2x + 6x + 5x = 285

⇒ 14.25x = 285

⇒ x = 285 ÷ 14.25

⇒ x = 20

Number of 25 paise coins = 5x = 5 × 20 = 100

Number of ₹5 coins = 1x = 1 × 20 = 20

Difference = 100 − 20 = 80

∴ The correct answer is 80 coins.

Additional Information

Unit Conversion

Always ensure all denominations are in the same unit (either all in paise or all in rupees) before calculation. 1 Rupee = 100 Paise.

Value vs Count Ratio

If the ratio of values is given as V1 : V2, the ratio of the number of coins is (V1/D1) : (V2/D2), where D is the denomination.

Combined Ratio

For three or more items, the total amount is ∑(Ratio Part × Denomination) × Constant = Total Money.

Question 21

The average mark obtained by Saloni in four papers is 51, and in the fifth paper, she gets 56 marks. Find her new average in all five papers.

  1. AOption (a)

    51

  2. BOption (b)

    52

  3. COption (c)

    49

  4. DOption (d)

    50

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

52

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Base Average of 4 papers = 51 marks

Marks in the 5th paper = 56 marks

Deviation (Extra marks) = 56 − 51 = +5 marks

Distribute deviation across all 5 papers = 5 ÷ 5 = +1 mark

New Average = 51 + 1 = 52 marks

∴ The correct answer is 52 marks.

Alternate Method

Given:

Average of 4 papers = 51

Marks in the 5th paper = 56

Formula Used:

Average = (Total Sum of Observations) ÷ (Number of Observations)

⇒ Total marks in 4 papers = 4 × 51 = 204

⇒ Total marks in 5 papers = 204 + 56 = 260

⇒ New average = 260 ÷ 5

⇒ New average = 52 marks

∴ The correct answer is 52 marks.

Additional Information

Weighted Average

When two groups with different averages are combined, the resulting average is (n1×a1 + n2×a2) ÷ (n1 + n2).

Effect of Constant Change

If every observation in a set is increased or decreased by a constant value 'k', the average also increases or decreases by 'k'.

Net Deviation Rule

The sum of deviations of all observations from their arithmetic mean is always equal to zero.

Question 22

A and B can complete a work together in 48 days. A is 4 times as work efficient as B. In how many days can B alone complete the work? 

  1. AOption (a)

    220 days

  2. BOption (b)

    320 days 

  3. COption (c)

    240 days

  4. DOption (d)

    120 days 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

240 days

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Efficiency Ratio (A : B) = 4 : 1

Total Efficiency (A + B) = 4 + 1 = 5 units/day

Total Work = Total Efficiency × Total Days = 5 × 48 = 240 units

B alone = Total Work ÷ Efficiency of B = 240 ÷ 1 = 240 days

∴ The correct answer is 240 days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by (A + B) = 48 days

Efficiency relation: A = 4 × B

Formula Used:

Total Work = Efficiency × Time

PersonDaysTotal WorkEfficiency
A + B482405 (4 + 1)
A604
B2401

Calculations:

⇒ Let the efficiency of B be 1 unit/day.

⇒ Since A is 4 times as efficient as B, Efficiency of A = 4 × 1 = 4 units/day.

⇒ Combined efficiency of (A + B) = 4 + 1 = 5 units/day.

⇒ Total Work = (Combined Efficiency) × (Combined Time) = 5 × 48 = 240 units.

⇒ Time taken by B alone = Total Work ÷ Efficiency of B = 240 ÷ 1 = 240 days.

∴ The correct answer is 240 days.

Additional Information

Time and Efficiency Relation

Time is inversely proportional to efficiency. If the ratio of efficiency of A and B is x : y, then the ratio of time taken by them to complete the same work is y : x.

Combined Work Formula

If A can do a work in 'a' days and B can do it in 'b' days, they together can complete the work in (a × b) ÷ (a + b) days.

Work and Wages

Wages are generally distributed in the ratio of the work done by each person, which is the product of their efficiency and the time they worked.

Question 23

For what value of m will the system of equations 18x - 72y + 13 = 0 and 7x - my - 17 = 0 have no solution?

  1. AOption (a)

    28

  2. BOption (b)

    24

  3. COption (c)

    9

  4. DOption (d)

    12

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

28

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

For a system of equations to have no solution, the lines must be parallel, where the ratio of x and y coefficients are equal.

Ratio of x-coefficients: 18 ÷ 7

Ratio of y-coefficients: −72 ÷ (−m) = 72/m

Equating ratios: 18/7 = 72/m

m = (72 × 7) ÷ 18 ⇒ 4 × 7 = 28

∴ The correct answer is 28.

Alternate Method

Given equations: 18x − 72y + 13 = 0 and 7x − my − 17 = 0.

Comparing with the standard form a1x + b1y + c1 = 0 and a2x + b2y + c2 = 0:

a1 = 18, b1 = −72, c1 = 13

a2 = 7, b2 = −m, c2 = −17

Formula for No Solution: a1/a2 = b1/b2 ≠ c1/c2

⇒ 18/7 = −72/−m

⇒ 18/7 = 72/m

⇒ 18 × m = 72 × 7

⇒ m = (72 × 7) ÷ 18

⇒ m = 4 × 7

⇒ m = 28

Check: 18/7 ≠ 13/−17, which holds true.

∴ The correct answer is 28.

Additional Information

Unique Solution

A system of linear equations has a unique solution if the lines intersect: a1/a2 ≠ b1/b2.

Infinite Solutions

A system has infinite solutions if the lines are coincident: a1/a2 = b1/b2 = c1/c2.

Consistency

A system is consistent if it has at least one solution (unique or infinite) and inconsistent if it has no solution.

Question 24

Successive discounts of 10% and 10% are equivalent to a single discount of:

  1. AOption (a)

    18%

  2. BOption (b)

    19%

  3. COption (c)

    20%

  4. DOption (d)

    21%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

19%

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

For two successive discounts of x% and y%, use the net discount formula:

Net Discount = (x + y − (x × y)/100)%

Substitute x = 10 and y = 10:

Net Discount = (10 + 10 − (10 × 10)/100)% = (20 − 1)% = 19%

∴ The correct answer is 19%.

Alternate Method

Given: First discount (D1) = 10%, Second discount (D2) = 10%

Formula Used: Final Price = MP × (1 − d1/100) × (1 − d2/100)

⇒ Let the Marked Price (MP) be ₹100.

⇒ Price after 1st discount = 100 − (10% of 100) = 100 − 10 = ₹90

⇒ Price after 2nd discount = 90 − (10% of 90) = 90 − 9 = ₹81

⇒ Total Discount amount = 100 − 81 = ₹19

⇒ Net Discount Percentage = (19/100) × 100 = 19%

∴ The correct answer is 19%.

Additional Information

Successive Discounts for Three Terms

For three successive discounts x%, y%, and z%, first find the net of x and y (let it be d), then find the net of d and z using the same formula.

Marked Price and Profit Relation

The relation between CP and MP when a discount d% is given and a profit p% is made is MP/CP = (100 + p)/(100 − d).

Effective Percentage Change

Successive discounts are a form of successive percentage decreases. If values increase, the formula becomes (x + y + (xy/100))%.

∴ The correct answer is 19%.

Question 25

From the top of an upright pole 24√3 feet high, the angle of elevation of the top of an upright tower was 60°. If the foot of the pole was 60 feet away from the foot of the tower, what tall (in feet) was the tower? 

  1. AOption (a)

    84√3

  2. BOption (b)

    36√3

  3. COption (c)

    44√3

  4. DOption (d)

    60√3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

84√3

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

For elevation angle θ from a height h to another height H over distance d:

H = h + d × tan(θ)

Here, h = 24√3 feet, d = 60 feet, and θ = 60°

H = 24√3 + 60 × tan(60°) = 24√3 + 60√3 = 84√3 feet

∴ The correct answer is 84√3 feet.

Alternate Method

Given:

Height of pole (AB) = 24√3 feet

Distance between pole and tower (BD) = 60 feet

Angle of elevation (θ) = 60°

Formula Used:

In a right-angled triangle, tan θ = Perpendicular ÷ Base

Let CD be the height of the tower and AB be the height of the pole.

From the diagram, BD = AE = 60 feet and AB = DE = 24√3 feet.

In ▵CAE:

⇒ tan 60° = CE ÷ AE

⇒ √3 = CE ÷ 60

⇒ CE = 60√3 feet

Total height of the tower (CD) = CE + ED

⇒ CD = 60√3 + 24√3

⇒ CD = 84√3 feet

∴ The correct answer is 84√3 feet.

Additional Information

Angle of Elevation

The angle formed by the line of sight with the horizontal when looking upwards at an object.

Trigonometric Ratios for Standard Angles

tan 30° = 1/√3, tan 45° = 1, and tan 60° = √3. These are frequently used in height and distance problems.

Relation between Elevation and Depression

The angle of elevation of point A as seen from B is equal to the angle of depression of point B as seen from A because they are alternate interior angles.

Question 26

The mode of the following data is __________.

13, 15, 31, 12, 27, 13, 27, 30, 27, 28 and 16

  1. AOption (a)

    28

  2. BOption (b)

    27

  3. COption (c)

    30

  4. DOption (d)

    31

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

27

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Mode is the value that appears most frequently in a given data set.

Frequency of 27 → 3 times (Max occurrence)

Frequency of 13 → 2 times

All other numbers (12, 15, 16, 28, 30, 31) → 1 time each

Since 27 has the highest frequency, it is the mode.

∴ The correct answer is 27.

Alternate Method

Given: Data set = 13, 15, 31, 12, 27, 13, 27, 30, 27, 28, 16

Formula: Mode = Observation with maximum frequency.

To find the mode, we count the frequency of each unique number:

⇒ Frequency of 12 = 1

⇒ Frequency of 13 = 2

⇒ Frequency of 15 = 1

⇒ Frequency of 16 = 1

⇒ Frequency of 27 = 3

⇒ Frequency of 28 = 1

⇒ Frequency of 30 = 1

⇒ Frequency of 31 = 1

⇒ Max Frequency = 3

⇒ Corresponding value = 27

∴ The correct answer is 27.

Additional Information

Arithmetic Mean

The average of all observations, calculated as Mean = (Sum of all observations) ÷ (Total number of observations).

Median

The middle value of a data set when arranged in ascending or descending order. For n observations, if n is odd, Median = ((n+1)/2)th term.

Empirical Formula

For a moderately skewed distribution, the relationship between mean, median, and mode is: Mode = 3 Median − 2 Mean.

Types of Mode

Data sets can be Unimodal (one mode), Bimodal (two modes), or Multimodal (more than two modes).

Question 27

Six years ago, the ratio of ages of A to B was 7 ∶ 5. After 4 years from now, the ratio of their ages will be 11 ∶ 9. What is A’s age at present?

  1. AOption (a)

    241224\frac{1}{2} years

  2. BOption (b)

    221222\frac{1}{2} years

  3. COption (c)

    231223\frac{1}{2} years

  4. DOption (d)

    211221\frac{1}{2} years

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

231223\frac{1}{2} years

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio 6 years ago = 7 : 5 | Ratio 4 years later = 11 : 9

Difference in ratio parts: A (11 − 7) = 4 units, B (9 − 5) = 4 units.

Total time gap = 6 + 4 = 10 years.

4 units = 10 years ⇒ 1 unit = 2.5 years.

A’s age 6 years ago = 7 × 2.5 = 17.5 years.

A’s present age = 17.5 + 6 = 23.5 years.

∴ The correct answer is 23½ years.

Alternate Method

Given:

Ratio 6 years ago = 7 : 5

Ratio 4 years hence = 11 : 9

Calculations:

Let the ages of A and B six years ago be 7x and 5x respectively.

⇒ Present age of A = 7x + 6

⇒ Present age of B = 5x + 6

⇒ Ages after 4 years: A = 7x + 6 + 4 = 7x + 10, B = 5x + 6 + 4 = 5x + 10

⇒ (7x + 10) ÷ (5x + 10) = 11 ÷ 9

⇒ 9 × (7x + 10) = 11 × (5x + 10)

⇒ 63x + 90 = 55x + 110

⇒ 63x − 55x = 110 − 90

⇒ 8x = 20

⇒ x = 20 ÷ 8 = 2.5

⇒ A’s present age = 7 × (2.5) + 6

⇒ A’s present age = 17.5 + 6 = 23.5 years

∴ The correct answer is 23½ years.

Additional Information

Ratio Difference Rule

If the age difference between two people is constant, the difference between their ratio parts must be adjusted to be equal across different time periods.

Cross-Multiplication Method

For ages A and B with ratios a:b and c:d over time t, the value of one unit is calculated as |t × (c−d)| ÷ |ad − bc|.

Age Difference Invariance

The difference between the ages of two individuals remains the same regardless of how many years pass or have passed.

Question 28

Mrs. Deepa Devi saves 30% of her salary. If she receives Rs. 42,000 per month as her salary, what is her monthly expenditure?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 29,200

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 29,400 

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 29,300

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 29,100

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rs. 29,400 

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Savings = 30% of Salary

Expenditure = (100 − 30)% = 70% of Salary

Monthly Expenditure = 70% of 42,000

Monthly Expenditure = 0.7 × 42,000 = 29,400

∴ The correct answer is ₹29,400.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total Salary = ₹42,000

Savings Percentage = 30%

Formula Used:

Expenditure = Total Salary − Savings

Savings = (Savings Percentage / 100) × Total Salary

Calculations:

⇒ Savings = (30 / 100) × 42,000

⇒ Savings = 3 × 4,200 = ₹12,600

⇒ Expenditure = Total Salary − Savings

⇒ Expenditure = 42,000 − 12,600

⇒ Expenditure = ₹29,400

∴ The correct answer is ₹29,400.

Additional Information

Percentage Breakdown

Total income is always considered as 100%. If any part (like savings) is known as x%, the remaining part (expenditure) is calculated as (100 − x)%.

Ratio Method

A 30% saving implies a ratio of Savings : Expenditure = 30 : 70, which simplifies to 3 : 7. Total units (3+7) = 10, where 10 units = ₹42,000.

Percentage to Decimal

To find a percentage of a number quickly, multiply the number by its decimal equivalent (e.g., 70% = 0.70 or 70/100).

Question 29

Find the amount (integral value only) if a sum of ₹6,500 is being borrowed at 10% interest per annum for 2 years if interest is compounded half-yearly

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹8,150

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹7,900

  3. COption (c)

    ₹7,650

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹8,250

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

₹7,900

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Rate per half-year = 10% ÷ 2 = 5%

Effective CI rate for 4 cycles of 5% ≈ 21.55%

Amount = Principal × (100% + Effective Rate)

Amount = 6500 × 121.55% = 6500 × 1.2155 ≈ 7900.75

The nearest integral value is ₹7,900.

∴ The correct answer is ₹7,900.

Alternate Method

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹6,500

Rate of Interest (R) = 10% per annum

Time (T) = 2 years

Formula Used:

Amount (A) = P(1 + r/100)n

Where r is the rate per period and n is the number of periods.

Half-Yearly Compounding Timeline

0 ₹6,500

1

2

3

4 Amount = ?

Half-Years (n = 4)

+5%

+5%

+5%

+5%

Total CI Rate ≈ 21.55%

Calculations:

⇒ Since interest is compounded half-yearly, r = 10% ÷ 2 = 5%.

⇒ Number of half-years (n) = 2 × 2 = 4 cycles.

⇒ A = 6500 × (1 + 5/100)4

⇒ A = 6500 × (105/100)4

⇒ A = 6500 × (21/20)4

⇒ A = 6500 × (194481 ÷ 160000)

⇒ A = 65 × (194481 ÷ 1600) = 12641265 ÷ 1600

⇒ A ≈ 7900.79

⇒ Taking the required integral value, the amount becomes ₹7,900.

∴ The correct answer is ₹7,900.

Additional Information

Quarterly Compounding

When interest is compounded quarterly, the given annual rate is divided by 4 (R/4) and the time periods are multiplied by 4 (4T).

Effective Rate Formula

The effective compound interest rate for 2 continuous cycles at a rate R% is given by R + R + (R × R)/100.

Simple vs Compound Interest

Simple Interest (SI) remains constant for each period, whereas Compound Interest (CI) increases exponentially as interest is calculated on both principal and accumulated interest.

Question 30

The number 1254216 is divisible by which of the following numbers?

  1. AOption (a)

    5

  2. BOption (b)

    11

  3. COption (c)

    16

  4. DOption (d)

    8

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

8

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

To check divisibility by 8, only the last three digits of the number need to be checked.

The last three digits of 1254216 are 216.

216 ÷ 8 = 27

Since 216 is perfectly divisible by 8, the entire number 1254216 is divisible by 8.

∴ The correct answer is 8.

Alternate Method

Given: Number = 1254216

Formula/Rules Used:

  1. Divisibility by 5: Last digit must be 0 or 5.
  2. Divisibility by 11: (Sum of digits at odd places) − (Sum of digits at even places) must be 0 or a multiple of 11.
  3. Divisibility by 16: Last four digits must be divisible by 16.
  4. Divisibility by 8: Last three digits must be divisible by 8.

Calculations:

⇒ Check for 5: Last digit is 6. Not divisible by 5.

⇒ Check for 11: (6 + 2 + 5 + 1) − (1 + 4 + 2) = 14 − 7 = 7. Not divisible by 11.

⇒ Check for 16: Last four digits are 4216. 4216 ÷ 16 = 263.5. Not divisible by 16.

⇒ Check for 8: Last three digits are 216. 216 ÷ 8 = 27. Divisible by 8.

∴ The correct answer is 8.

Additional Information

Divisibility by powers of 2

A number is divisible by 2n if its last n digits are divisible by 2n. For 2 (21), check last 1 digit; for 4 (22), check last 2 digits; for 8 (23), check last 3 digits.

Divisibility by 3 and 9

A number is divisible by 3 or 9 if the sum of its digits is divisible by 3 or 9, respectively.

Divisibility by 6

A number is divisible by 6 if it is simultaneously divisible by both 2 (even number) and 3 (sum of digits divisible by 3).

Question 31

select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark (?) and complete the given pattern. 

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

The logic here followed is

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 32

If ÷ means −, − means ×, × means +, + means ÷, what will come in place of the question mark (?)?

77 ÷ 7 × 17 – 49 + 7 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    189

  2. BOption (b)

    119

  3. COption (c)

    145

  4. DOption (d)

    169

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

189

Why this answer is correct

Given :

Sign+×÷-
Meaning÷+-×

Given statement : 77 ÷ 7 × 17 – 49 + 7 = ? 

After replacing the signs according to the question :

77 - 7 + 17 × 49 ÷ 7 = ?

77 - 7 + 17 × 7 = ?

77 + 119 - 7 = ?

196 - 7 = ?

189 = ?

Hence, "189" is the correct answer.

Question 33

A question is given, followed by two statements numbered (I) and (II). You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements is sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and select the appropriate answer.

Question: How many people are standing in the row if A, R, M and B are among the people standing in it where all people are facing north?

Statements:

(I) A is fourth from the left end; M is second to the right of A; and R is second from the left end.

(II) M is fourth from the right end; only two people Stand between M and B. B is to the right of M.

  1. AOption (a)

    Data in either statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question

  2. BOption (b)

    Data in statements I and II together is sufficient to answer the question

  3. COption (c)

    Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement II is not

  4. DOption (d)

    Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement I is not

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Data in statements I and II together is sufficient to answer the question

Why this answer is correct

Given : A certain number of people are standing in the row facing in the north direction.

Explanation : 

  • Statement (I) → M is fourth from the right end; only two people Stand between M and B. B is to the right of M.
<br>

​

​As it cannot be determined whether M is standing at the right end or there are any other people standing to the right of M, therefore total number of people are standing in the row where all people are facing north cannot be answered. 

So, statement (I) is not sufficient to answer the question.

  • Statement (II) → M is fourth from the right end; only two people Stand between M and B.

​As any specific position of B cannot be determined with respect to M, so there are two possible positions of B i.e B1 and B2 shown above.

So, statement (II) is not sufficient to answer the question.

Now, Using both the statements :

  • Statement (I) + Statement (II) → A is fourth from the left end; M is second to the right of A; and R is second from the left end. M is fourth from the right end; only two people Stand between M and B.

​

So, using both statements there are a total of 9 people are standing in the row where all people are facing north. Thus data in statements I and II together is sufficient to answer the question.

Hence, "Option - (2)" is the correct answer.

Question 34

Three of the following words are alike in some manner and hence form a group. Which word does NOT belong to that group? (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be grouped based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)

  1. AOption (a)

    Chickens

  2. BOption (b)

    Bats

  3. COption (c)

    Seals

  4. DOption (d)

    Rodents

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Chickens

Why this answer is correct

All the creatures given in the options except chickens are Mammals while the chickens are considered as birds.

Therefore, Chickens are the odd ones out in this group.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 35

 In a certain code language, ‘MADRAS’ is written as ‘112’ and ‘JAMMU’ is written as ‘82’. How will ‘PUNJAB’ be written in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    109

  2. BOption (b)

    104

  3. COption (c)

    112

  4. DOption (d)

    115

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

104

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :- Sum of the position value of the opposite letters according to English alphabetic series is added to the number of letters within the word.

​So,

  • ‘MADRAS’ is written as ‘112’
<br>

And,

  • ‘JAMMU’ is written as ‘82’
<br>

Similarly,

  • ‘PUNJAB’ is written as :
<br>

Hence, the correct answer is "104".

Question 36

‘A # B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’.

‘A @ B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’.

‘A & B’ means ‘A is the husband of B’.

‘A % B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’.

If D @ N @ H & Y @ F % V, then how is Y related to D?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mother

  2. BOption (b)

    Husband’s mother

  3. COption (c)

    Father’s sister

  4. DOption (d)

    Mother’s mother

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Mother’s mother

Why this answer is correct

Given :

A is
Symbol#@&%
MeaningBrotherDaughterHusbandWife
to B

Given statement : D @ N @ H & Y @ F % V

So,

  • D @ N → D is the daughter of N.

  • N @ H → N is the daughter of H.

  • H & Y → H is the husband of Y.

  • Y @ F → Y is the daughter of F.

  • F % V → F is the wife of V.

​

Thus, according to the final family tree Y is the maternal grandmother i.e mother's mother of D.

Hence, "Mother’s mother" is the correct answer.

Question 37

Out of the following five figures, four are alike in some manner and one differs from these in that manner. Select the odd figure.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

Logic : In each figure there Star, circle, parallel lines and hash elements are in this order in the clockwise direction.

So,

  • Option - (1) :

 

⇒ Here the order of elements is star, circle, parallel lines and hash in the clockwise direction.

  • Option - (2) :

 

⇒ Here the order of elements is star, circle, parallel lines and hash in the clockwise direction.

  • Option - (3) :

⇒ Here the order of elements is star, parallel lines, circle and hash in the clockwise direction.

  • Option - (4) :

 ⇒ Here the order of elements is star, circle, parallel lines and hash in the clockwise direction.

Here, Figure - (3) is the odd one out.

Hence, "Option - (3)" is the correct answer.

Question 38

Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

48, 75, 108, ?, 192

  1. AOption (a)

    153

  2. BOption (b)

    147

  3. COption (c)

    112

  4. DOption (d)

    126

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

147

Why this answer is correct

The logic here followed is:

Hence, the correct answer is " 147".

Question 39

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set.

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is NOT allowed)

(8, 1, 46)

(9, 4, 22)

  1. AOption (a)

    (4, 2, 5)

  2. BOption (b)

    (8, 5, 43)

  3. COption (c)

    (7, 3, 13)

  4. DOption (d)

    (7, 6, 13)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(7, 3, 13)

Why this answer is correct

Logic : Square of (1st number - 2nd number) - 3 = 3rd number

Given : 

  • (8, 1, 46)

(8−1)2(8 - 1)^2 - 3 = 46

(7)2(7)^2 - 3 = 46

49 - 3 = 46

46 = 46 (LHS = RHS)

  • (9, 4, 22)

(9−4)2(9 - 4)^2 - 3 = 22

(5)2(5)^2 - 3 = 22

25 - 3 = 22

22 = 22 (LHS = RHS)

So,

  • Option - (1) : (4, 2, 5)

​(4−2)2(4 - 2)^2 - 3 = 5

(2)2(2)^2 - 3 = 5

4 - 3 = 5

1 ≠ 5 (LHS ≠ RHS)

  • Option - (2) : (8, 5, 43)

​(8−5)2(8 - 5)^2 - 3 = 43

(3)2(3)^2 - 3 = 43

9 - 3 = 43

6 ≠ 43 (LHS ≠ RHS)

  • Option - (3) : (7, 3, 13)

​(7−3)2(7 - 3)^2 - 3 = 13

(4)2(4)^2 - 3 = 13

16 - 3 = 13

13 = 13 (LHS = RHS)

  • Option - (4) :  (7, 6, 13)

​(7−6)2(7 - 6)^2 - 3 = 13

(1)2(1)^2 - 3 = 13

1 - 3 = 13

-2 ≠ 13 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option - (3)" is the correct answer.

Question 40

In this question, a question is followed by two statements numbered (I) and (II). You have to decide whether the data provided in the statement/s are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and choose your answer carefully.

Question: P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are 7 people standing in a row all facing North (not necessarily in the same order). Who is standing second to the right of T?

Statements:

(I) U is standing 3rd from the right end and 2nd to the left of R.

(II) Q is standing to the immediate right of T. Q is standing 2nd to the left of P

  1. AOption (a)

    The data in both the Statements (I) and (II) together are sufficient to answer the question.

  2. BOption (b)

    The data in Statement (II) alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement (I) alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  3. COption (c)

    The data in Statement (I) alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement (II) alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  4. DOption (d)

    The data in both the Statements (I) and (II) together are NOT sufficient to answer the question.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The data in both the Statements (I) and (II) together are NOT sufficient to answer the question.

Why this answer is correct

Given : 

  1. Six people - P, Q, R, S, T, U and V
  2. All of them are standing in a row all facing north.

Explanation :

  • Statement - (I) : U is standing 3rd from the right end and 2nd to the left of R.

Here, Only position of U and R is given, therefore positions of the left five people cannot be determined and who is standing second to the right of T cannot be answered.

Thus, data in statement (I) alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  • Statement - (II) : Q is standing to the immediate right of T. Q is standing 2nd to the left of P

Here, position of P cannot be determined, therefore position of Q and T cannot be determined. Also position of the left four people cannot be determined therefore who is standing second to the right of T cannot be answered.

Thus, data in statement (II) alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  • Combining both the statements - U is standing 3rd from the right end and 2nd to the left of R. Q is standing to the immediate right of T. Q is standing 2nd to the left of P.

​

​Here, position of P cannot be determined, therefore position of Q and T cannot be determined. Also position of the left out four people cannot be determined therefore who is standing second to the right of T cannot be answered.

Therefore, The data in both the Statements (I) and (II) together are NOT sufficient to answer the question.

Hence, "Option - (4)" is the correct answer.

Question 41

‘A # B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’.

‘A @ B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’.

‘A & B’ means ‘A is the husband of B’.

‘A % B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’.

If S % D # F @ G & H @ J,

then how is F related to J?

  1. AOption (a)

    Daughter

  2. BOption (b)

    Daughter’s daughter

  3. COption (c)

    Sister’s daughter

  4. DOption (d)

    Son’s wife

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Daughter’s daughter

Why this answer is correct

Given :

A is
Symbol#@&%
MeaningBrotherDaughterHusbandWife
to B

Given statement : S % D # F @ G & H @ J

So,

  • S % D → S is the wife of D.

  • D # F → D is the brother of F.

  • F @ G → F is the daughter of G.

  • G & H → G is the husband of H.

  • H @ J → H is the daughter of J.

​

Thus, according to the final family tree F is the granddaughter i.e daughter's daughter of J.

Hence, "Daughter’s daughter" is the correct answer.

Question 42

A situation is given, followed by two conclusions I and II. Read the situation and both the conclusions carefully and select the correct answer.

Situation:

Since the past 15 years, 75% of the products in the world’s pottery market comes from Country K. However, the employment in the pottery industry of Country K has been consistently declining by 5-9% every year since the past 3 years.

Conclusions:

I. Even after declining employment, Country K has enough potters to continue contributing equally to the international market.

II. The local demand of pottery in Country K has substantially decreased leading to less interest among potters.

  1. AOption (a)

    Neither I nor II can be concluded

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II can be concluded

  3. COption (c)

    Only I can be concluded

  4. DOption (d)

    Both I and II can be concluded 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only I can be concluded

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

I. Even after declining employment, Country K has enough potters to continue contributing equally to the international market.: From the situation given, it can be inferred that despite the declining employment in the pottery industry in Country K, the country continues to contribute significantly (75%) to the world's pottery market. This implies that even after the decline in employment, Country K has enough potters to continue contributing equally to the international market. Therefore, the conclusion I can be concluded.

II. The local demand of pottery in Country K has substantially decreased leading to less interest among potters: On the other hand, there is no information provided in the situation about the local demand of pottery in Country K. We cannot assume or infer that the decline in employment is due to a decreased local demand for pottery, as the reduction in employment could be due to other factors, such as increased automation, outsourcing, or a change in manufacturing techniques. Therefore, conclusion II cannot be concluded.

Hence, the correct option here is "3) Only I can be concluded".

Question 43

Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at 'PQ’ as shown below. 

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

The logic here followed is 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 44

Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to sequentially replace the * signs and balance the given equation.

268 * 4 * 8 * 5 * 14 = 41

  1. AOption (a)
    • × − ÷ 
  2. BOption (b)

    × ÷ + −

  3. COption (c)

    ÷ × + −

  4. DOption (d)

    ÷ − × +

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

÷ − × +

Why this answer is correct

Given : 268 * 4 * 8 * 5 * 14 = 41

According to the question, by replacing the *signs :

So,

  • Option - (1) : + × − ÷

268 + 4 × 8 − 5 ÷ 14 = 41

268 + 4 × 8 − 0.35 = 41

268 + 32 - 0.35 = 41

300 - 0.35 = 41

299.65 ≠ 41 (LHS ≠ RHS) 

  • Option - (2) : × ÷ + −

268 × 4 ÷ 8 + 5 − 14 = 41

268 × 0.5 + 5 - 14 = 41

134 + 5 - 14 = 41

139 - 14 = 41

125 ≠ 41 (LHS ≠ RHS) 

  • Option - (3) : ÷ × + −

268 ÷ 4 × 8 + 5 − 14 = 41

67 × 8 + 5 − 14 = 41

536 + 5 - 14 = 41

541 - 14 = 41

527 ≠ 41 (LHS ≠ RHS)

  • Option - (4) : ÷ − × +

268 ÷ 4 − 8 × 5 + 14 = 41

67 − 8 × 5 + 14 = 41

67 + 14 - 40 = 41

81 - 40 = 41

41 = 41 (LHS = RHS)

Hence, "Option - (4)" is the correct answer.

Question 45

In a code language, 'PLUMAGE' is written as ‘GICOWNR’ and 'CRUSH' is written as 'JUWTE'. How will 'TRIBAL' be written in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    NCDKTV 

  2. BOption (b)

    NCBJTV

  3. COption (c)

    NCDJTV

  4. DOption (d)

    NCBKTV

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

NCDKTV 

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :- (2) is added to the position value according to English alphabetic diagonally.

​So,

  • 'PLUMAGE' is written as ‘GICOWNR’
<br>

And,

  • 'CRUSH' is written as 'ETWUJ'
<br>

Similarly,

  • 'TRIBAL' is written as :
<br>

 

Hence, the correct answer is "NCDKTV".

Question 46

Each of A, B, C, D, E, F and G has an exam on a different day of a week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week. A has an exam on Wednesday. Only one person has an exam between A and B. D has an exam on the day immediately before B. Only one person has an exam between F and B. G’s exam is on one of the days before A but on one of the days after C. On which day does G have an exam? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Friday 

  2. BOption (b)

    Tuesday

  3. COption (c)

    Monday

  4. DOption (d)

    Wednesday

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Tuesday

Why this answer is correct

Given : Each of A, B, C, D, E, F and G has an exam on a different day of a week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week.

Explanation : 

1) A has an exam on Wednesday.

  1. Only one person has an exam between A and B.

As, Position of B with respect to A is not clear, therefore there are two possibilities for the position of B.

WeekdaysPerson
Case - 1Case - 2
MondayB
Tuesday
WednesdayAA
Thursday
FridayB
Saturday
Sunday

3) D has an exam on the day immediately before B.

  1. Only one person has an exam between F and B. 

As D has an exam on the day immediately before B. Therefore Case- 1 is eliminated as there is no position for D.

WeekdaysPerson
Case - 2
Monday
Tuesday
WednesdayA
ThursdayD
FridayB
Saturday
SundayF

5) G’s exam is on one of the days before A but on one of the days after C. 

After positioning C and G, only one position is left which will be occupied by the only person left i;e E.

WeekdaysPerson
Case - 2
MondayC
TuesdayG
WednesdayA
ThursdayD
FridayB
SaturdayE
SundayF

Thus, according to the final arrangement G has exam on Tuesday.

Hence, "Tuesday" is the correct answer.

Question 47

The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown below. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of the paper. 

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

When the folder paper is opened, the cuts will appear as follows

<br>

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 48

In this question, two statements I and II have been given. These statements may be independent causes or effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of the statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both statements and select the correct answer.

I. Since the past three years, State M has reported a sharp and substantial decline in the state’s agricultural produce.

II. In the last five years, there has been an increase in the overall average Rainfall by 6% in State M bringing respite to the farmers.

  1. AOption (a)

    I is the cause and II is its possible effect

  2. BOption (b)

    Both I and II are independent causes

  3. COption (c)

    II is the cause and I is its possible effect

  4. DOption (d)

    Both I and II are effects of independent causes

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both I and II are effects of independent causes

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Statement I indicates a decline in the agricultural produce in State M. Statement II indicates that there has been an increase in average rainfall in State M.

It's generally expected that increased rainfall would benefit agricultural produce, assuming all other factors are constant, as it would provide more water for crops. However, this is not always the case, too much rain can also lead to issues such as flooding or waterlogged soil that can negatively impact crops. But there is not enough information given to establish this correlation.

It's more reasonable to suggest that both these statements are effects, but they are of independent causes. The decline in agricultural produce could be due to factors like pests, disease, changes in farming practices, or changes in market demand. The increase in rainfall, on the other hand, could be due to climate change, changes in weather patterns, or other environmental factors.

Hence, the correct option is "4) Both I and II are effects of independent causes".

Question 49

Out of the following five figures, four are alike in some manner and one differs from these in that manner. Select the odd figure.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

Logic : In each figure there is only one element or one circle is enclosed in the given figure.

So,

  • Option - (1) :

 

⇒ Only one element or circle is enclosed in the given figure.

  • Option - (2) :

 

⇒ Here two elements or circles are enclosed in the given figure.

  • Option - (3) :

⇒ Only one element or circle is enclosed in the given figure.

  • Option - (4) :

 ⇒ Only one element or circle is enclosed in the given figure.

Here, Figure - (2) is the odd one out.

Hence, "Option - (2)" is the correct answer.

Question 50

Directions

A statement is given followed by two inferences I and II. You have to consider the statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance with commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given inferences, if any, follow from the given statement.

Statement: Many students are addicted to mobile games and this leads to poor academic performance.

Inference:

I. Many Students are not paying attention to studies due to mobile games.

II. It is only because of mobile games that students fail in the examination.

  1. AOption (a)

    If only II follows 

  2. BOption (b)

    If neither I nor II follows 

  3. COption (c)

    If both I and II follow 

  4. DOption (d)

    If only I follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

If only I follows

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

I. Many Students are not paying attention to studies due to mobile games: From the statement given, it can be inferred that many students' addiction to mobile games is affecting their academic performance negatively. This suggests that students are likely not paying enough attention to their studies because they are playing mobile games, so inference I follows.

II. It is only because of mobile games that students fail in the examination: However, the statement does not imply that mobile games are the only reason students fail in examinations. There could be multiple other factors contributing to a student's failure, such as lack of understanding, insufficient study, personal issues, health problems, etc. Therefore, inference II does not follow from the statement given.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4, i.e., only inference I follow.

Question 51

Select the option in which the following figure is embedded. (Rotation is NOT allowed)

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

Given:

  • The image must not to be rotated

=

Hence, the correct answer is "Option - (1)".

Question 52

Select the option that represents the letters that, when placed from left to right in the following blanks, will complete the letter-series.

F I R _ D F _ _ E D F _ T _ D F I _ E _

  1. AOption (a)

    E I S I E U D

  2. BOption (b)

    E G S J E U E

  3. COption (c)

    E H S I E U D

  4. DOption (d)

    E I S I E U E

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

E I S I E U D

Why this answer is correct

Given : F I R _ D F _ _ E D F _ T _ D F I _ E _

By checking options :

  1. E I S I E U D → F I R E D -  F I S E D  - F I T E D -  F I U E D  → (It Follows the pattern of : )
  2. E G S J E U E → F I R E D -  F G S E D  - F J T E D -  F I U E E → (It doesn't Follows the pattern)
  3. E H S I E U D → F I R E D  - F H S E D  - F I T E D  - F I U E D → (It doesn't Follows the pattern)
  4. ​E I S I E U E → F I R E D  - F I S E D -  F I T E D  -  F I U E E → (It doesn't Follows the pattern)

⇒Option - (1) gives the pattern of "F I R E D - F I S E D - F I T E D - F I U E D"

Hence, "E I S I E U D" is the correct answer.

Question 53

Given in the table are the number codes for the given letters. Select the combination of numbers so that the letters arranged accordingly will form a meaningful word.

LPCEIN
123456
  1. AOption (a)

    3, 4, 1, 5, 2, 6

  2. BOption (b)

    6, 5, 3, 4, 1, 2

  3. COption (c)

    2, 4, 6, 3, 5, 1

  4. DOption (d)

    2, 4, 6, 3, 1, 5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2, 4, 6, 3, 5, 1

Why this answer is correct

Given:

LPCEIN
123456

 

  1. 3, 4, 1, 5, 2, 6: If we arrange the letters according to this combination of numbers, we get "CELIPN," which is not a meaningful word.
  2. 6, 5, 3, 4, 1, 2: If we arrange the letters according to this combination of numbers, we get "NICELP," which is not a meaningful word.
  3. 2, 4, 6, 3, 5, 1: If we arrange the letters according to this combination of numbers, we get "PENCIL," which is a meaningful word.
  4. 2, 4, 6, 3, 1, 5: If we arrange the letters according to this combination of numbers, we get "PENCLI," which is not a meaningful word.

Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

Question 54

Which of the following letter-clusters should replace # and % so that the pattern and relationship followed between the letter-cluster pair on the left side of :: is the same as that on the right side of ::?

: KNF :: QCV : %

  1. AOption (a)

    = IPD, % = OET

  2. BOption (b)

    = HPD, % = NFS

  3. COption (c)

    = MLH, % = OET

  4. DOption (d)

    = HQC, % = NFS 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

= MLH, % = OET

Why this answer is correct

The position of the English alphabet is given below:

The logic followed here is :- 

  1. First letter → (2) is subtracted from the position value according to English alphabetic series.
  2. Second letter → (2) is added to the position value according to English alphabetic series.
  3. Third letter → (2) is subtracted from the position value according to English alphabetic series.

​So,

Option 1) # = IPD, % = OET ⇒ IPD : KNF :: QCV : OET

Does not follow the same pattern = Incorrect

Option 2) # = HPD, % = NFS ⇒ HPD : KNF :: QCV : NFS

Does not follow the same pattern = Incorrect

Option 3) # = MLH, % = OET ⇒ MLH : KNF :: QCV : OET

Follow the same pattern = Correct

Option 4) # = HQC, % = NFS ⇒ HQC : KNF :: QCV : NFS

Does not follow the same pattern = Incorrect

Hence, the correct answer is "# = MLH, % = OET".

Question 55

In this question, the statement is followed by two conclusions. Which of the two conclusion(s) is/are true?

Statement: Z > F ≥ A = B = G > S < E

Conclusions:

I. Z < A

II. G < F

  1. AOption (a)

    Only conclusion I is true.

  2. BOption (b)

    Only conclusion II is true.

  3. COption (c)

    Both conclusions I and II are true.

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither conclusion I nor II is true. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Neither conclusion I nor II is true. 

Why this answer is correct

The given statement is: Z > F ≥ A = B = G > S < E

From this, we can infer the following relationships:

  • Z > F
  • F ≥ A
  • A = B
  • B = G
  • G > S
  • S < E

Conclusion:

I) Z < A. ⇒Does not follow.[However, from the given statement, it's clear that Z > F ≥ A ⇒ Z > A. Therefore, Z cannot be less than A. So, conclusion I is not true.]

II) G < F. ⇒Does not follow [ However, from the given statement, it's clear that F ≥ A = B = G   ⇒ G ≤ F, which means G could be equal to or less than F. We cannot definitively conclude that G < F. So, conclusion II is not true either.]

Hence,, the correct answer is that neither conclusion I nor II is true.

Question 56

The second number in the given number-pairs is obtained by performing certain mathematical operation(s) on the first number. The same operation(s) is/are followed in all the number-pairs except one. Find that odd number-pair. 

  1. AOption (a)

    18 : 42

  2. BOption (b)

    1 : 6

  3. COption (c)

    15 : 34

  4. DOption (d)

    7 : 18

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

18 : 42

Why this answer is correct

The logic here followed is:

First number * 2 + 4 = Second Number

  • In option 1, 18 * 2 + 4 = 36 + 4 = 40 ≠ 42
  • In option 2, 1 * 2 + 4 = 2 + 4 = 6
  • In option 3, 15 * 2 + 4 = 30 + 4 = 34
  • In option 4, 7 * 2 + 4 = 18

Except option 1, all option follow same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 57

Three statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

l. All phones are laptops.

ll. All pen-drives are phones.

III. All pen-drives are pens.

Conclusions:

I. All pens are phones.

II. All laptops are pens.

III. All pen-drives are laptops.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only conclusion III follows

  2. BOption (b)

    Only conclusions I and II follow

  3. COption (c)

     Only conclusions II and III follow 

  4. DOption (d)

    Only conclusions I and III follow

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only conclusion III follows

Why this answer is correct

The least possible Venn diagram is given below according to the given information.

Conclusion:

I. All pens are phones → Does not follow → (As all pen-drive are phones and all pen-drives are pens. So it is possible but not definitely true)

II. All laptops are pens → Does not follow → (As all phones are laptop and all pen-drives are pens. So it is possible but not definitely true)

III. All pen-drives are laptops → Follow → (As all phones are laptop and all pen-drive are phones. So as all pen-drives comes in phones which whole comes in laptops therefore it is definitely true)

Here, Only conclusion III follows

Hence, the correct answer is "Option - (1)".

Question 58

Figure A is related to B following a certain pattern. Following the same pattern, figure C is related to D. Study the pattern and select the figure which should be placed in place of D.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :-

  • The circle and the arc elements exchanged positions.
  • Whole figure is rotated 45º anti-clockwise.

​So,

  • Figures A and B ⇒

​

Similarly,

  • Figure C and D ⇒

​

Thus, final pattern is :

Hence, "Option - (4)" is the correct answer.

Question 59

There are 4 friends A, B, C and D standing in a straight line, though not necessarily in the same order. A and B are ahead of at least 1 person. B stands between C and D. D does not stand last. Who stands first?

  1. AOption (a)

    A

  2. BOption (b)

    B

  3. COption (c)

    C

  4. DOption (d)

    D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A

Why this answer is correct

Given : There are 4 friends A, B, C and D standing in a straight line.

Explanation : 

1) B stands between C and D.

  1. D does not stand last.
CasePositions
Case - 1C > B > D > _
Case - 2D > B > C > _
Case - 3_ > D > B > C

3) A and B are ahead of at least 1 person.

As A is ahead of at least 1 person, therefore case - 1 and case - 2 are eliminated as there is no position for A.

CasePositions
Case - 3A > D > B > C

Thus, according to the final arrangement A stands first.

Hence, "A" is the correct answer.

Question 60

Select the figure that will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following figure series.  

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

The figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series is shown below:

1) For '

' and '

' elements :

  • Number of the elements in each box are increasing subsequently.
  • Bothe '

' and '

' elements are shown alternately.

​​

Final series is :

Hence, ‘option - (4)’ is the correct answer.

Section II (70 questions)

Question 61

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

The postman / delivers the letters / through hand, / door to door.

  1. AOption (a)

    door to door

  2. BOption (b)

    delivers the letters

  3. COption (c)

    The postman

  4. DOption (d)

    through hand

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

through hand

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Through hand.

Key Points

  • The segment that contains a grammatical error is "through hand" (option 4).
  • The correct phrase would be "by hand" instead of "through hand".
  • "By hand" means to do something manually, without the use of any equipment or machines.
  • Whereas "through hand" doesn't make grammatical sense in the context of the sentence.
  • Therefore, option 4 is the correct answer.

So the corrected sentence would be: "The postman delivers the letters by hand, door to door."

Additional Information

  • "Through" is a preposition that can be used in various contexts. Here are some examples:
  • Movement or direction: We walked through the park and saw a lot of animals.
  • Passage from one side to another: You can enter the building through the front door.
  • A means of accomplishing something: I learned English through watching movies and TV shows.
  • From beginning to end: We read the book through the night and finished it before dawn.
  • Because of: She got the job through her connections in the industry.
  • In each of these examples**, "through"** is used to indicate something different. It's important to understand the context in which it is being used to determine its meaning.
  • "By" is a versatile preposition with several meanings. Here are some examples of how "by" can be used:
  • Means or method: I came by bus to the city.
  • Agent or doer of an action: The book was written by Jane Austen.
  • Time or deadline: I need to finish this project by Friday.
  • Close proximity: He was sitting by the window.
  • Quantity or measurement: I need five books by tomorrow.
  • Indication of authorship or ownership: This painting is by Picasso.
  • In each of these examples, "by" is used to indicate something different. It's essential to understand the context in which it is being used to determine its meaning.

Question 62

Select the most appropriate collocating word to fill in the blank.

Mentally strong people do not ________ to suicide over trivial issues.

  1. AOption (a)

    Make up 

  2. BOption (b)

    Give in

  3. COption (c)

    Conceive on

  4. DOption (d)

    Fall in 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Give in

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Give in.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate collocating word to fill in the blank is "give in" (option 2).
  • The sentence means that mentally strong people don't give up or commit suicide over trivial issues.
  • "Give in" is a phrasal verb that means to surrender, yield or submit to something. In this context, it means that mentally strong people do not give up on life, even in the face of difficulties.
  • Example: Despite the numerous setbacks in his career, he never gave in to despair.
  • "Make up" (option 1) means to invent or create something, and it doesn't make sense in this context.
  • Example: She made up a story to explain her absence from work.
  • "Conceive on" (option 3) is not a phrasal verb that makes sense in this context. "Conceive" means to form or devise a plan, and it is not appropriate to use it in this sentence.
  • Example: He conceived a brilliant plan to win the competition.
  • "Fall in" (option 4) means to conform or comply with something, and it doesn't fit in the context of the sentence.
  • Example: He fell in line with the company policy to avoid any conflicts.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option 2, "give in".
<br>

Correct Sentence: Mentally strong people do not give in to suicide over trivial issues.

Question 63

Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

P. Perhaps no definition of democracy is more popular and universally acceptable than what is given by Abraham Lincoln.

Q. He defines democracy as “a government of the people, by the people and for the people”.

R. Certainly, democracy is the most representative form of government.

S. To bind the people and take the nation ahead on the path of progress, democracy is the most suitable form of government for India.

  1. AOption (a)

    PSRQ

  2. BOption (b)

    QRSP

  3. COption (c)

    PQRS

  4. DOption (d)

    SRQP

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

PQRS

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is PQRS.

Key Points

  • The paragraph begins by stating that Abraham Lincoln's definition of democracy is popular and widely accepted.
  • Sentence Q defines democracy as "a government of the people, by the people and for the people".
  • Then, the sentence R asserts that democracy is the most representative form of government.
  • Finally, the last sentence (sentence S) concludes by stating that democracy is the most suitable form of government for India to take the nation forward on the path of progress.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option 3: PQRS.

The correct order of the sentences to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph is PQRS.

P. Perhaps no definition of democracy is more popular and universally acceptable than what is given by Abraham Lincoln.

Q. He defines democracy as "a government of the people, by the people and for the people."

R. Certainly, democracy is the most representative form of government.

S. To bind the people and take the nation ahead on the path of progress, democracy is the most suitable form of government for India.

Question 64

Parts of a sentence/paragraph are given below. While the first and the last parts (A and F) are in the correct order, the parts in between are jumbled up. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent sentence/paragraph.

A. I love

B. so that

C. every morning

D. for a walk

E. to go

F. I can keep myself fit and healthy.

  1. AOption (a)

    B, C, D, E

  2. BOption (b)

    D, E, B, C

  3. COption (c)

    C, B, D, E

  4. DOption (d)

    E, D, C, B

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

E, D, C, B

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is E, D, C, B.

Key Points

  • The sentence begins by stating the subject and verb: "I love to go".
  • The next part of the sentence tells us where the speaker likes to go: "for a walk".
  • The following part of the sentence indicates the frequency of this activity: "every morning".
  • The next part of the sentence provides the reason for doing this: "so that".
  • Finally, the last part of the sentence concludes with the purpose of the activity: "I can keep myself fit and healthy".
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option 4: E, D, C, B.

The correct order of the parts to form a meaningful sentence is A, E, D, C, B, F.

A. I love

E. to go

D. for a walk

C. every morning

B. so that

F. I can keep myself fit and healthy.

Question 65

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

She watched / the thief who / steal the purse / in the bus.

  1. AOption (a)

    the thief who

  2. BOption (b)

    in the bus

  3. COption (c)

    steal the purse

  4. DOption (d)

    She watched

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

steal the purse

Why this answer is correct

Here, the correct answer is Steal the purse.

Key Points

  • The segment that contains a grammatical error is segment 3: "steal the purse."
  • The sentence is in the past tense, but this segment uses the present tense form of the verb "steal" instead of the past tense form "stole".
  • Option 3: "steal the purse" is the correct answer as it contains the grammatical error.

Therefore, the correct sentence should be "She watched the thief who stole the purse in the bus."

Question 66

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

The manager decided to resign from his post as the bank was declared to be insolvent.

  1. AOption (a)

    Independent 

  2. BOption (b)

    Commercial

  3. COption (c)

    Affluent  

  4. DOption (d)

    Bankrupt

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Affluent  

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Affluent.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate antonym of the underlined word "insolvent" is "affluent".
  • Insolvent means unable to pay debts owed, bankrupt or in financial distress.
  • Example: John's expenses exceeded his income, and he was unable to pay his credit card bills, resulting in his being declared insolvent.
  • Affluent, on the other hand, means wealthy or having a great deal of money.
  • ​Example: The furniture company was declared bankrupt after it failed to meet its financial obligations to its creditors.
  • Option 3: "affluent" is the correct answer as it is the opposite of "insolvent".

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "independent" is not a suitable antonym for "insolvent" as it does not have any relation to the financial status of the bank or the manager.
  • Option 2: "commercial" is also not a suitable antonym for "insolvent" as it pertains to commerce and trade, and does not have an opposite meaning to "insolvent".
  • Option 4: "bankrupt" is a synonym for "insolvent" and not its antonym.

Question 67

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM for the word 'often' in the following sentence.

Usually at Christmas, uncle often brings lovely and cherished gifts for us.

  1. AOption (a)

    seldom

  2. BOption (b)

    cherished

  3. COption (c)

    lovely

  4. DOption (d)

    usually

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

seldom

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Seldom.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate antonym for the word "often" in the given sentence is "seldom."
  • "Often" means frequently or many times. Its antonym "seldom" means rarely or infrequently.
  • Example sentence with the word "often":
  • She often goes for a walk in the park after work. (meaning: she goes for a walk in the park frequently or regularly)
  • Example sentence with the word "seldom":
  • I seldom eat fast food because it's not good for my health. (meaning: I rarely or infrequently eat fast food because it's unhealthy)
  • Option 1: "seldom" is the correct answer as it is the opposite of "often" and means rarely or infrequently.
  • Option 2: "cherished" is not an antonym for "often" as it means beloved or valued.
  • Option 3: "lovely" is not an antonym for "often" as it means beautiful or attractive.
  • Option 4: "usually" is not an antonym for "often" as it means typically or generally.

Question 68

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.

A new book on games will be released by the publishers next week.

  1. AOption (a)

    The publishers will release a new book on games next week.  

  2. BOption (b)

    The publishers will publish a new book on games next week.

  3. COption (c)

    The publishers will be releasing a new book next week. 

  4. DOption (d)

    The publishers would release a new book next week. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The publishers will release a new book on games next week.  

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is The publishers will release a new book on games next week.

Key Points

  • The above-given sentence is in the passive voice.
  • We need to change it into active voice.
  • The following steps need to be taken for converting the sentence into passive voice:-
  • The subject 'A new book on games​' of the passive voice will become the object of the active voice.
  • The object 'The publishers' of the passive voice will become the subject of the active voice.
  • Since modal verb has been used in the active voice, therefore, the passive voice will follow the given structure:-
  • Passive Voice - Object + modal verb*(will)* + be + V3 + Subject.
  • Active Voice - Subject + modal verb*(will)* + V1 + Object.

Therefore, the correct passive voice is The publishers will release a new book on games next week.

Additional Information

  • When we convert active voice to passive voice, three things need to be kept in mind:-
  • Change object into subject.
  • Change subject into object.
  • Always use the third form of the verb in the passive voice.

Question 69

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The movie was released__________ expected.

  1. AOption (a)

    later than

  2. BOption (b)

    most later than

  3. COption (c)

    later then

  4. DOption (d)

    more later than

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

later than

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1) later than. 

Key Points

  • The correct phrase to fill in the blank is 'later than'.
  • This is because the sentence is comparing the actual release date of the movie to the expected release date.
  • "Later than" is the correct phrase to use in this context to indicate that the movie was released after the expected date.
  • Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect because they use incorrect grammar and phrasing.
  • "Most later than" and "more later than" are not proper phrases in English.
  • Option 3 is also incorrect because "then" is not the correct word to use in this context.
<br>

Correct Sentence: The movie was released later than expected. 

Additional Information

  • Than is used in comparisons as a conjunction (as in "she is younger than I am") and as a preposition ("he is taller than me").
  • Then indicates time. It is used as an adverb ("I lived in Idaho then"), noun ("we'll have to wait until then"), and adjective ("the then-governor").

Question 70

Select the correct collocation from the options and complete the sentence.

Rahul is _____ Coding.

  1. AOption (a)

    skilled on

  2. BOption (b)

    strong of

  3. COption (c)

    experienced of

  4. DOption (d)

    experienced in

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

experienced in

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Experienced in.

Key Points

  • The correct collocation is "experienced in", so the completed sentence is: "Rahul is experienced in coding."
  • "Skilled on" is not a correct collocation. Instead, we can use "skilled in" or "skilled at".
  • For example: "She is skilled in playing the piano" or "He is skilled at solving math problems".
  • "Strong of" is also not a correct collocation. Instead, we can use "strong in" or "strong at".
  • For example: "She is strong in mathematics" or "He is strong at playing basketball".
  • "Experienced of" is not a correct collocation. Instead, we use "experienced in" or "experienced at".
  • For example: "She is experienced in teaching English" or "He is experienced at using computer software".
  • "Experienced in" means having knowledge or skill in a particular field or activity through practice or involvement. In the given sentence, it means that Rahul has expertise in coding.
  • Overall, the correct collocation is "experienced in".
<br>

Correct Sentence: Rahul is experienced in Coding.

Question 71

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

The science and art of growing vegetables, fruits and flowers

  1. AOption (a)

    Herpetology

  2. BOption (b)

    Horticulture

  3. COption (c)

    Haplology

  4. DOption (d)

    Herbing

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Horticulture

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2) Horticulture.

Key Points

  • Horticulture refers to the science and art of growing fruits, vegetables, and ornamental plants. It includes plant propagation, cultivation, breeding, genetic engineering, and crop management.(फल, सब्जियां और सजावटी पौधे उगाने का विज्ञान और कला। इसमें पौधों का प्रसार, खेती, प्रजनन, जेनेटिक इंजीनियरिंग और फसल प्रबंधन शामिल हैं।)
  • Horticulturists work in gardens, nurseries, greenhouses, research institutions, and academic institutions.
  • Example sentence: The horticulture department of the university is conducting research on developing new varieties of tomatoes that are resistant to pests and diseases.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 2.

Additional Information

  • Other options:
  • Herpetology: The study of reptiles and amphibians(सरीसृप और उभयचरों का अध्ययन).
  • Example sentence: The herpetology club organized a field trip to the national park to observe different species of snakes and frogs.
  • Haplology: The linguistic phenomenon of omitting one of two identical or similar syllables in a word(एक शब्द में दो समान या समान शब्दांशों में से एक को छोड़ने की भाषाई घटना).
  • Example sentence: The word "probably" is an example of haplology, as the two syllables "ob" are omitted in pronunciation.
  • Herbing: This is not a recognized word in English.(यह अंग्रेजी का कोई शब्द नहीं है।)

Question 72

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

One who is a boot licker and flatterer.

  1. AOption (a)

    Gold-digger 

  2. BOption (b)

    Gregarious 

  3. COption (c)

    Sycophant

  4. DOption (d)

    Manipulative 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Sycophant

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3, "Sycophant."

Key Points

  • Gold-digger: someone who only associates with others for financial gain.
  • Example: She only married him for his money; she's a gold-digger.
  • Gregarious: someone who enjoys the company of others; sociable.
  • Example: He's a gregarious person, always making new friends.
  • Sycophant: someone who flatters others to gain advantage; a brown-noser.
  • Example: He's always sucking up to the boss; he's a sycophant.
  • Manipulative: someone who uses deceit or trickery to control others.
  • Example: She's a very manipulative person, always getting what she wants through lies and manipulation.
  • Therefore, option 3 is the correct one-word substitute for the given group of words.

Additional Information

  • The main difference between a "gold-digger" and a "sycophant" is their motivation and behavior.
  • A gold-digger is someone who is interested in forming a romantic relationship with someone primarily because of their wealth or financial status. They may try to manipulate or use the person for their own financial gain.
  • On the other hand, a sycophant is someone who flatters and compliments others excessively in order to gain favor or advancement. They may be insincere and only interested in personal gain, but their focus is not necessarily on financial gain.
  • In short, a gold-digger is motivated by money, while a sycophant is motivated by social or professional advancement.

Question 73

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.

I said to Mohan, “He has a green book.”

  1. AOption (a)

    I told Mohan that he had had a green book.

  2. BOption (b)

    I told Mohan that he have a green book.

  3. COption (c)

    I told Mohan that he had a green book.

  4. DOption (d)

    I told Mohan that he has a green book.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

I told Mohan that he had a green book.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3: "I told Mohan that he had a green book."

Key Points

  • The given sentence is in direct speech. We need to change it into indirect speech.
  • When converting direct speech to indirect speech, we need to make some changes to the original sentence. Here are the rules:
  • The reporting verb (in this case, "said to") is changed to a suitable reporting verb (in this case, "told").
  • The pronouns are changed to reflect the new subject of the sentence. In this case, "I" and "he" remains unchanged.
  • The tense of the verb is changed to reflect the time of the reported speech.
  • In this case, "has" becomes "had" because the original sentence was in the present tense, but the reported speech is in the past tense.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 3.

Correct Sentence: "I told Mohan that he had a green book."

Question 74

Select the most appropriate homonym to fill in the blank.

The farmers grow ________ in their fields.

  1. AOption (a)

    maze

  2. BOption (b)

    mays

  3. COption (c)

    mase

  4. DOption (d)

    maize

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

maize

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 4' i.e. 'maize'.

<br>

Key Points

  • The sentence refers to a crop grown by farmers in a field, requiring a word that identifies a specific type of cereal grain.
  • The word "maze" refers to a complex network of paths or passages; a labyrinth. (भूलभुलैया)
  • Example: The children got lost in the garden maze.
  • The word "maize" refers to a cereal plant that yields large grains set in rows on a cob; also known as corn. (मक्का)
  • Example: The farmers harvested the maize just before the heavy rains started.
  • Hence, we can infer that the correct word to fill the blank is 'maize'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- maize.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their meanings:

  • Mays (ज़िया मेज़ - मक्का का वैज्ञानिक नाम का हिस्सा): While "Mays" is part of the botanical name for corn (Zea mays), it is not used in common English as a standalone noun for the crop.
  • Example: Zea mays is the biological classification for corn.
  • Mase (कोई मानक अर्थ नहीं): This is not a standard English word and is likely a misspelling or a distractor.

Question 75

Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

  1. AOption (a)

    Abhorrent

  2. BOption (b)

    Abseil

  3. COption (c)

    Acede

  4. DOption (d)

    Abscess

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Acede

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

  • The INCORRECTLY spelled word is option 3) Acede, which should be spelled as "accede."
  • Abhorrent - Correctly spelled word, meaning causing or deserving strong dislike or hatred.
  • ​Example: The abhorrent behavior of the bullies was not tolerated in the school.
  • Abseil - Correctly spelled word, meaning to descend a steep slope or vertical drop using a rope.
  • Example: The mountaineers abseiled down the cliff to reach the base camp.
  • Acede - INCORRECTLY spelled word, the correct spelling is "accede," meaning to agree to a request or demand.
  • ​Example: The manager finally acceded to the employee's request for a day off.
  • Abscess - Correctly spelled word, meaning a swollen area within body tissue, containing an accumulation of pus.
  • Example: The doctor drained the abscess in the patient's leg to relieve the pain.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 3.

Question 76

Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. Fort Hare was more than that: it was a beacon for African scholars from all over Southern Central and Eastern Africa.

B. Until 1960, the University College of Fort Hare, in the municipality of Alice, about twenty miles due east from Healdtown, was the only residential center of higher education for blacks in South Africa.

C. For young black South Africans like myself, it was Oxford and Cambridge, Harvard and Yale, all rolled into one.

D. The regent was anxious for me to attend Fort Hare and I was gratified to be accepted there. I felt that I was being groomed for success in the world.

  1. AOption (a)

    BACD

  2. BOption (b)

    BCAD

  3. COption (c)

    CABD

  4. DOption (d)

    BDAC

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

BACD

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is BACD.

Key Points

  • The correct answer is option 1 - BACD.
  • Starting with sentence B makes sense as it introduces the University College of Fort Hare and its significant role in black higher education until 1960 in South Africa. It sets a historical context and specific location for the ensuing discussion.
  • Following up with sentence A is logical as it further elaborates on the importance of the University College of Fort Hare, defining it as a beacon of education not just for South Africa, but for other regions of Africa as well. This sentence also builds upon the information provided in sentence B by enhancing the description of the university's reach and influence.
  • Then comes sentence C, which provides a personal perspective from a young black South African's point of view, comparing the significance of Fort Hare to renowned international universities. It continues the thread of the university's impact, this time giving it a personal and comparative aspect.
  • Finally, sentence D closes this progression by moving further into the personal experience of the narrator. It discusses the narrator's acceptance to Fort Hare, anchoring all the previous descriptions of importance and comparison to a lived reality, thereby bringing the narrative full circle and providing a conclusion.
  • Therefore, ordering the sentences BACD creates a logical and coherent narrative flow about the University College of Fort Hare's significance.
<br>

Correct Sequence: 

B. Until 1960, the University College of Fort Hare, in the municipality of Alice, about twenty miles due east from Healdtown, was the only residential center of higher education for blacks in South Africa.

A. Fort Hare was more than that: it was a beacon for African scholars from all over Southern Central and Eastern Africa.

C. For young black South Africans like myself, it was Oxford and Cambridge, Harvard and Yale, all rolled into one.

D. The regent was anxious for me to attend Fort Hare and I was gratified to be accepted there. I felt that I was being groomed for success in the world.

Question 77

Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence.

Riya ran as fastly as a cheetah and saved the child from falling.

  1. AOption (a)

    faster

  2. BOption (b)

    fasting

  3. COption (c)

    fast

  4. DOption (d)

    fastest

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

fast

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Fast.

Key Points

  • The correct answer is option 3, "fast."
  • "Fastly" is not a word in the English language, so it is incorrect to use it in this sentence.
  • "Faster" and "fastest" are comparative and superlative forms of "fast," but they are not necessary in this sentence because we use positive degree between 'as....as'.
  • We use 'as + adjective/adverb + as' to make comparisons when the things we are comparing are equal in some way.
  • Example: The last structure is as big as the previous structures.
  • "Fasting" is a verb and does not make sense in this context.
  • Therefore, the best option is to use "fast" as an adverb to describe how Riya ran.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 3.
<br>

Correct Sentence: Riya ran as fast as a cheetah and saved the child from falling.

Question 78

Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. We reached there at about 10 a.m.

B. The first ride we took was the Fury Wheel. It was really big, all of us were yelling and crying!

C. Yesterday, my friends and I went on a short picnic to an amusement park.

D. Even though we had reached on time there was a serpentine queue for the tickets. I took the entrance ticket.

  1. AOption (a)

    CADB

  2. BOption (b)

    ABCD

  3. COption (c)

    CDBA

  4. DOption (d)

    ADBC

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

CADB

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is CADB.

Key Points

  • The paragraph talks about a short picnic to an amusement park with friends.
  • Sentence C introduces the topic and sets the context.
  • Sentence A provides information about the time of arrival.
  • Sentence D talks about the queue for tickets and the narrator taking the entrance ticket.
  • Sentence B describes the first ride they took and their reactions.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 1.
<br>

Correct Sequence:

C. Yesterday, my friends and I went on a short picnic to an amusement park.

A. We reached there at about 10 a.m.

D. Even though we had reached on time there was a serpentine queue for the tickets. I took the entrance ticket.

B. The first ride we took was the Fury Wheel. It was really big, all of us were yelling and crying!

Question 79

Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. Helping parents become savvier at picking care options and tossing retention bonuses to caregivers are others.

B. These fixes, importantly, can make child care more affordable for parents and offer life rafts to centres haemorrhaging workers.

C. The most proposed government solution for child care involves building on top of this flawed system is offering more vouchers to purchase private child care.

D. But they do little to address the structural needs: improved quality for kids, better wages and working conditions for workers, and more choices in the low-income neighbourhoods.

  1. AOption (a)

    CDBA

  2. BOption (b)

    CBDA

  3. COption (c)

    CABD 

  4. DOption (d)

    BADC

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

CABD 

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is CABD.

Key Points

  • The paragraph is discussing the issue of childcare and the proposed solutions to address it.
  • The first sentence (C) introduces the government solution of offering more vouchers to purchase private childcare.
  • The second sentence (A) suggests some additional fixes, such as helping parents become more informed about care options and offering retention bonuses to caregivers.
  • The third sentence (B) discusses how the fixes mentioned in sentence C and A can make childcare more affordable for parents and offer support to centers losing workers.
  • The fourth sentence (D) outlines the drawbacks in the fixes. It provides a contrasting view.
  • Therefore, the correct order of the sentences to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph is CABD.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 3.
<br>

Correct Sequence:

C. The most proposed government solution for child care involves building on top of this flawed system is offering more vouchers to purchase private child care.

A. Helping parents become savvier at picking care options and tossing retention bonuses to caregivers are others.

B. These fixes, importantly, can make child care more affordable for parents and offer life rafts to centres haemorrhaging workers.

D. But they do little to address the structural needs: improved quality for kids, better wages and working conditions for workers, and more choices in the low-income neighbourhoods.

Question 80

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Achilles’ Heel

  1. AOption (a)

    Irrelevant thing

  2. BOption (b)

    Vulnerable point

  3. COption (c)

    Fast runner

  4. DOption (d)

    Costly item

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Vulnerable point

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Vulnerable point.

Key Points

  • The idiom "Achilles' Heel" refers to a person's or organization's weakness or vulnerable point that can be exploited by others.
  • It comes from Greek mythology, where Achilles, a Greek hero, was invulnerable except for his heel, which was his only weak spot. In the story, he was eventually killed by an arrow that hit him in the heel.
  • Example: His temper was his Achilles' heel; it caused him to lose his job and damaged his personal relationships.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 2.

Question 81

Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

Bullying is a rather unacknowledged social evil.

  1. AOption (a)

    Unidentified

  2. BOption (b)

    Notable

  3. COption (c)

    Infamous

  4. DOption (d)

    Named

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Unidentified

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Unidentified.

Key Points

  • The correct answer is option 1, "Unidentified."
  • "Unacknowledged" means not recognized or given credit for something. In this sentence, it means that bullying is not widely recognized as a social evil.(अस्वीकृत)
  • Examples:
  • The janitor's hard work often goes unacknowledged, but without him, the school would be a mess.
  • Many people believe that the contributions of women in history have been unacknowledged for far too long.
  • "Unidentified" means not recognized or named. This is the correct synonym for **"unacknowledged."(**अज्ञात)
  • Examples:
  • The police are still searching for the unidentified suspect in the robbery case.
  • The object in the sky was initially unidentified, but it was later identified as a weather balloon.
  • "Notable" means worthy of attention or significant. This is not the correct synonym for "unacknowledged".(प्रसिद्ध)
  • Examples:
  • The company has made notable progress in the past year and is now a major player in the industry.
  • The scientist's discovery was notable because it challenged existing theories.
  • "Infamous" means well-known for a bad reputation or negative actions.(बदनाम) This is not the correct synonym for "unacknowledged."
  • Examples:
  • Al Capone was an infamous gangster in the 1920s.
  • The bridge became infamous after several fatal accidents occurred on it.
  • The word "named" is an adjective that means **to have a particular name or to be known by a specific name.(**नाम)
  • Examples:
  • The cat named Luna is my favorite.
  • The building was named after the famous architect who designed it.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 1.

Question 82

Identify the option that arranges the given parts in the correct order to form a meaningful paragraph.

A. In speed, in comfort, in beauty, in equipment she was a masterpiece.

B. It was the envy and admiration of the maritime nations of the world.

C. The Titanic was the Queen Alary of her day and the pride of the White Star Line.

D. Everything about her was attractive and fascinating.

  1. AOption (a)

    CBAD

  2. BOption (b)

    ABCD

  3. COption (c)

    CDAB

  4. DOption (d)

    DCAB

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

CBAD

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is CBAD.

Key Points

  • The correct answer to arrange the given parts in the correct order to form a meaningful paragraph is option 1, CBAD.
  • This paragraph is about the Titanic, a famous ship that was the pride of the White Star Line.
  • The paragraph begins with an introduction to the Titanic and how it was admired by other nations.
  • It then describes the various aspects of the ship that made it a masterpiece, and ends with a statement about how everything about the ship was fascinating.
  • The correct order is CBAD because it provides a logical flow of information and builds up to a concluding statement.

The arranged paragraph would read as follows:

C. The Titanic was the Queen Alary of her day and the pride of the White Star Line.

B. It was the envy and admiration of the maritime nations of the world.

A. In speed, in comfort, in beauty, in equipment she was a masterpiece.

D. Everything about her was attractive and fascinating.

Question 83

Select the most appropriate homonym to fill in the blank.

________ knowledge in this field is really profound.

  1. AOption (a)

    There

  2. BOption (b)

    Their

  3. COption (c)

    Dare

  4. DOption (d)

    They‘re

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Their

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Their.

Key Points

  • The correct answer to fill in the blank is "Their" (option 2).
  • "Their" is a possessive pronoun that is used to indicate possession or ownership.
  • In the given sentence, "Their knowledge in this field is really profound" means that the knowledge belonging to a particular group or individuals is profound.
  • Example: "The students were praised for their excellent performance in the exam."
  • Option 1, "There," refers to a location or a point in space, and is not the correct word to use in the sentence.
  • Example: "The book is over there on the shelf."
  • Option 3, "Dare," is a verb that means to have the courage to do something.
  • Example: "I didn't dare to go out in the storm."
  • Option 4, "They're," is a contraction of "they are," and is not the correct word to use in the sentence.
  • Example: "They're going to the movies tonight." (short for "They are going to the movies tonight.")
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 2.
<br>

Correct Sentence: Their knowledge in this field is really profound.

Question 84

Choose the correct spelling of the underlined word in the given sentence.

The committee could not reach a conscence even after a six-hour long meeting yesterday

  1. AOption (a)

    consensus

  2. BOption (b)

    conscius

  3. COption (c)

    cautius

  4. DOption (d)

    conscientios 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

consensus

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Consensus.

Key Points

  • The correct spelling of the underlined word in the sentence is "consensus" (option 1).
  • "Consensus" (सर्वसम्मति) means a general agreement among a group of people or a committee. It is often used in the context of decision-making or problem-solving.
  • Example: "After much discussion, the committee reached a consensus on the best way to proceed."
  • The word "consensus" has been used in the sentence to describe the lack of agreement among the committee members.
  • In the sentence, the committee members were unable to reach a consensus, meaning they could not come to a common agreement on the issue that they were discussing, despite a long meeting.
  • The use of "consensus" in this context suggests that the committee was facing a difficult decision or issue that required significant discussion and debate before an agreement could be reached.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 1.
<br>

Correct Sentence: The committee could not reach a consensus even after a six-hour long meeting yesterday

Additional Information

  • Option 2, "conscius," is not the correct spelling of the word. "Conscious" (सचेत) is the correct spelling, which means aware of one's surroundings, thoughts, and feelings.
  • Example: "Even though the patient was unconscious, the doctor believed that he was still conscious and aware of his surroundings."
  • Option 3, "cautius," is also not the correct spelling of the word. "Cautious" (सावधान) is the correct spelling of the word, which means to be careful or wary about something.
  • Example: "The driver was cautious while driving on the icy road."
  • Option 4, "conscientios," is not the correct spelling of the word. "Conscientious" (ईमानदार) is the correct spelling of the word, which means to be diligent or thorough in one's work.
  • Example: "The conscientious employee always completes her work on time and with great attention to detail."

Question 85

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in reported speech.

She asked, “Are you meeting my partners next week?”

  1. AOption (a)

    She asked about our meeting her partners next week.

  2. BOption (b)

    She asked if we meet her partners next week.

  3. COption (c)

    She asked if we were meeting her partners the following week.

  4. DOption (d)

    She asked if we were meeting her partners next week.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

She asked if we were meeting her partners the following week.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3: She asked if we were meeting her partners the following week.

Key Points

  • When converting from direct to indirect speech, we need to change the tense of the verb in the reported clause.
  • In this case, the direct speech is in the present tense ("Are you meeting my partners next week?"), so we need to change it to the past tense in the reported speech.
  • Additionally, we need to change the pronouns to reflect the perspective of the speaker in the reported speech.
  • Option 1 ("She asked about our meeting her partners next week") is incorrect because it doesn't reflect the past tense of the original question.
  • Option 2 ("She asked if we meet her partners next week") is incorrect because it uses the present tense instead of the past tense.
  • Option 4 ("She asked if we were meeting her partners next week") is also incorrect because it doesn't reflect the change in tense from present to past (next week should change to the following week).
  • Therefore, option 3 is the correct answer because it reflects the past tense of the original question and uses the correct pronouns.
<br>

Correct Sentence: She asked if we were meeting her partners the following week.

Question 86

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.

I warned Rita not to be late the next day.

  1. AOption (a)

    I warned to Rita, “Don’t be late tomorrow”.

  2. BOption (b)

    I warning Rita, “Not be late tomorrow”.

  3. COption (c)

    I warned Rita, “Not be late tomorrow”.

  4. DOption (d)

    I warned Rita, “Don’t be late tomorrow”.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

I warned Rita, “Don’t be late tomorrow”.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4: "I warned Rita, 'Don't be late tomorrow'."

Key Points

  • When converting indirect speech to direct speech, we need to change the tense of the reporting verb and the pronouns, and also add quotation marks and appropriate punctuation.
  • In this case, the reporting verb "warned" remains in the past tense, but the pronoun "her" changes to "Rita" to indicate who was being warned.
  • The phrase "not to be late the next day" becomes "Don't be late tomorrow" in direct speech, with the addition of quotation marks and a comma to indicate the start of the quote.
  • Option 1 is incorrect because it uses the wrong word order ("to Rita" instead of "Rita").
  • Option 2 is incorrect because it uses the present participle "warning" instead of the past tense "warned".
  • Option 3 is incorrect because it uses the wrong word order ("Not be late tomorrow" instead of "Don't be late tomorrow").
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 4.
<br>

Correct Sentence: I warned Rita, “Don’t be late tomorrow”.

Question 87

Select the most appropriate meaning of the highlighted idiom.

The actress’ daughter is just a chip off the old block.

  1. AOption (a)

    To get into the enemy’s territory

  2. BOption (b)

    Similar to one's parents in behaviour

  3. COption (c)

    To console the dreary

  4. DOption (d)

    To chip off the edges

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Similar to one's parents in behaviour

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Similar to one's parents in behaviour.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate meaning of the highlighted idiom "a chip off the old block" is option 2: Similar to one's parents in behavior.
  • This idiom means that a person, usually a child, is very similar in character, behavior, or abilities to one or both of their parents. It suggests that the child has inherited qualities or talents from their parent that make them similar to them.
  • Example: "John's son is a chip off the old block - he has the same passion for music as his father."
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 2.

Question 88

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

The Event Management team organised the wedding.

  1. AOption (a)

    The wedding is organised by the Event Management team. 

  2. BOption (b)

    The Event Management has organised the wedding.

  3. COption (c)

    The Event Management team is organising the wedding. 

  4. DOption (d)

    The wedding was organised by the Event Management team. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The wedding was organised by the Event Management team. 

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is The wedding was organised by the Event Management team.

Key Points

  • In the active voice sentence "The Event Management team organised the wedding", the subject is "The Event Management team" and the object is "the wedding".
  • To convert this sentence into passive voice, we need to make the object "the wedding" the subject of the sentence and add the auxiliary verb "was" followed by the past participle form of the main verb "organised".
  • The subject "The Event Management team" becomes the object of the preposition "by".
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 4.

​

Therefore, the correct passive voice sentence is "The wedding was organised by the Event Management team."

Question 89

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.

A new gallery is being built inside the city stadium.

  1. AOption (a)

    They will build a new gallery inside the city stadium.

  2. BOption (b)

    They were building a new gallery inside the city stadium. 

  3. COption (c)

    They have been building a new gallery inside the city stadium. 

  4. DOption (d)

    They are building a new gallery inside the city stadium. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

They are building a new gallery inside the city stadium. 

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is They are building a new gallery inside the city stadium. 

Key Points

  • To convert a sentence from passive voice to active voice, we need to identify the subject performing the action and make it the subject of the sentence.
  • In this case, the subject is "They" and the action is "building a new gallery inside the city stadium."
  • The sentence is in present continuous tense.
  • 'is being built' changes to 'are building'.
  • Therefore, the active voice sentence would be "They are building a new gallery inside the city stadium."
  • Option 1 ("They will build a new gallery inside the city stadium") is in future tense and does not accurately reflect the present tense of the original sentence.
  • Option 2 ("They were building a new gallery inside the city stadium") is in past tense and does not accurately reflect the present tense of the original sentence.
  • Option 3 ("They have been building a new gallery inside the city stadium") is in present perfect tense and implies that the action started in the past and is still ongoing, which is not specified in the original sentence.
  • Therefore, option 4 ("They are building a new gallery inside the city stadium") is the correct answer.
<br>

Correct Sentence: They are building a new gallery inside the city stadium.

Direction: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

The phrase non-governmental or non-profit is commonly used to refer to the various organisations that (1)______ civil society. In general, such organisations are distinguished by the (2)______ that they operate for reasons other than financial gain. Surveys indicate that NGOs have a high degree of public (3), which can make them a useful proxy for the concerns of society and stakeholders. NGOs range from small pressure groups on specific environmental concerns or human rights (4), to educational charities, women's refuges, cultural associations, religious organisations, legal foundations, humanitarian assistance programmes – and the list could go on – to large international organisations with hundreds or even thousands of branches or members around the world.

Question 90

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

  1. AOption (a)

    comprises

  2. BOption (b)

    comprising

  3. COption (c)

    comprised

  4. DOption (d)

    comprise

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

comprise

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Comprise.

Key Points

  • "Comprise" is a verb that means to consist of or be made up of.
  • In this sentence, we need a verb in the present participle form to match the tense of the sentence.
  • "Comprise" is the correct form of the verb in this context because it is the present participle form and it is plural in nature.
  • Option 1, "comprises," is the third person singular form of the verb, which would not be correct in this sentence because the subject is not singular.
  • Option 2, "comprising," is the correct present participle form of the verb, but it is not in the correct tense for this sentence.
  • Option 3, "comprised," is the past participle form of the verb, which would not be correct in this sentence because we need a present participle form.
  • Therefore, option 4, "comprise," is the correct answer.
<br>

Correct Paragraph: The phrase non-governmental or non-profit is commonly used to refer to the various organisations that (1) comprise civil society. In general, such organisations are distinguished by the (2)______ that they operate for reasons other than financial gain. Surveys indicate that NGOs have a high degree of public (3), which can make them a useful proxy for the concerns of society and stakeholders. NGOs range from small pressure groups on specific environmental concerns or human rights (4), to educational charities, women's refuges, cultural associations, religious organisations, legal foundations, humanitarian assistance programmes – and the list could go on – to large international organisations with hundreds or even thousands of branches or members around the world.

Question 91

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2

  1. AOption (a)

    fact

  2. BOption (b)

    value

  3. COption (c)

    clue

  4. DOption (d)

    lie

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

fact

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Fact.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2 is "fact."
  • A fact is a statement that can be proven or verified through evidence or observation.
  • In contrast, a value is a belief or principle that is subjective and varies from person to person.
  • A clue is a piece of information that helps solve a problem or mystery. A lie is a deliberate false statement.
  • In the context of filling in a blank, it is most appropriate to choose the option that fits logically and grammatically with the rest of the sentence.
  • Since the sentence is asking for a statement that is true and can be supported by evidence, "fact" is the best choice.
<br>

Correct Paragraph: The phrase non-governmental or non-profit is commonly used to refer to the various organisations that (1) comprise civil society. In general, such organisations are distinguished by the (2) fact that they operate for reasons other than financial gain. Surveys indicate that NGOs have a high degree of public (3), which can make them a useful proxy for the concerns of society and stakeholders. NGOs range from small pressure groups on specific environmental concerns or human rights (4), to educational charities, women's refuges, cultural associations, religious organisations, legal foundations, humanitarian assistance programmes – and the list could go on – to large international organisations with hundreds or even thousands of branches or members around the world.

Question 92

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3. 

  1. AOption (a)

    thought

  2. BOption (b)

    trust

  3. COption (c)

    belief

  4. DOption (d)

    idea

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

trust

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Trust.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3 is "trust."
  • ​The sentence is likely discussing a personal relationship or a situation where someone is relying on another person.
  • In this context, "trust" is the most appropriate word to use as it implies a sense of reliance and confidence in the other person.
  • "Thought" and "idea" do not fit the context as they are more related to mental processes and concepts, rather than interpersonal relationships.
  • "Belief" could work, but it has a stronger connotation of faith or conviction in something, rather than in someone.
  • Therefore, "trust" is the correct answer.
<br>

Correct Paragraph: The phrase non-governmental or non-profit is commonly used to refer to the various organisations that (1) comprise civil society. In general, such organisations are distinguished by the (2) fact that they operate for reasons other than financial gain. Surveys indicate that NGOs have a high degree of public (3) trust, which can make them a useful proxy for the concerns of society and stakeholders. NGOs range from small pressure groups on specific environmental concerns or human rights (4)______, to educational charities, women's refuges, cultural associations, religious organisations, legal foundations, humanitarian assistance programmes – and the list could go on – to large international organisations with hundreds or even thousands of branches or members around the world.

Question 93

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

  1. AOption (a)

    evaluation 

  2. BOption (b)

    discrimination

  3. COption (c)

    prohibitions

  4. DOption (d)

    violations

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

violations

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Violations.

Key Points

  • The correct answer is "violations" because the other options do not fit the context of the sentence.
  • It means the action of violating someone or something.
  • Example: The aircraft were in violation of UN resolutions.
  • The sentence is likely discussing some sort of rules or regulations, and "evaluation" and "discrimination" do not fit that context.
  • "Prohibitions" could work, but it does not convey the same sense of breaking a rule or law that "violations" does.
  • Therefore, "violations" is the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Correct Paragraph: The phrase non-governmental or non-profit is commonly used to refer to the various organisations that (1) comprise civil society. In general, such organisations are distinguished by the (2) fact that they operate for reasons other than financial gain. Surveys indicate that NGOs have a high degree of public (3) trust, which can make them a useful proxy for the concerns of society and stakeholders. NGOs range from small pressure groups on specific environmental concerns or human rights (4) violations, to educational charities, women's refuges, cultural associations, religious organisations, legal foundations, humanitarian assistance programmes – and the list could go on – to large international organisations with hundreds or even thousands of branches or members around the world.

Direction: Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

The sage of science, Einstein, was sitting in a depressive and pensive mood one evening. His eyes were brimming with tears. The pain was evident on his face. He peeped out of the window of his room. The sun had set a few minutes back. The sky was filled with a reddish glow. At this sunset, he felt that it was humanity that had sunk into devilish darkness and the reddish glow in the sky was the blood of humanity spilling all over the sky from earth. With tired steps, he walked back to his chair and settled down. It was the 9th of August 1945. Three days back, he had felt the same agony as if someone had torn him apart. He was deeply hurt and depressed when he heard on the radio that America had dropped an atom bomb on the Japanese city, Hiroshima. Today, within three days another bomb was dropped on another city, Nagasaki and lakhs of people had been killed.

He had heard that the blast released so much energy that it had paled all past destructions in comparison and death had played out a pitiable dance of destruction. The flames that broke out of the bomb were burning, melting, and exploding buildings. Scared of the heat of the bomb, people had jumped into lakes and rivers, but the water was boiling and the people too were burnt and killed. The animals in the water were already boiled to death. Animals, trees, herbs, fragrant flowering plants were all turned into ashes. The atomic energy destruction had just not stopped there. It had entered the atmosphere there and had spread radiation that would affect people for generations to come and would also bring about destructive irreversible biological change in animals and plants.

As the news of the atomic attack reached Einstein, and he became aware of the glaring horror of the abuse of atomic energy, his distress and restlessness knew no bounds. He could not control himself and picked up his violin to turn his mind on to other things. While playing the violin, he tried to dissolve his distress in its sad notes, but couldn’t. He was burning on the embers of destruction; his heart was filled with an ocean of agony and tears just continued streaming uncontrollably out of his eyes. Night had fallen. His daughter came up and asked him to eat something as he had not taken anything for the last four days. His voice was restrained and he said, “I don’t feel like eating.”

He could not sleep that night. Lying down, he was thinking how he had drawn the attention of the then American President Roosevelt towards the destructive powers of an atomic bomb. He had thought that this would be used to scare Hitler and put an end to the barbarism that Hitler was up to. However, Roosevelt kept him in the dark and made false promises. Eventually, he had abused Einstein’s equation of E = mc2 that resulted in the destructive experiments. His actions had made science and scientists as murderers. Einstein kept on thinking for a long time. Eventually, he slipped into sleep. When he woke up at dawn, there was a new dawn in him too. The atomic threat had transformed his heart.

Question 94

Why did Einstein refuse to eat?

  1. AOption (a)

    As he felt happy

  2. BOption (b)

    As he felt worried

  3. COption (c)

    As he felt guilty

  4. DOption (d)

    As he felt sick

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

As he felt guilty

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is 3) As he felt guilty. 

Key Points

  • Einstein, known as the "sage of science," profoundly regretted his contribution to the development of the atomic bomb, as revealed in the passage.
  • The distress and guilt he felt over the catastrophic consequences of the bombings of Hiroshima and Nagasaki left him too upset to eat.
  • His pain is clearly chronicled throughout the passage, with adjectives like "depressive and pensive" and phrases such as "tears just continued streaming uncontrollably out of his eyes".
  • Furthermore, he related his knowledge about the horrific aftermath of the atomic bomb explosions and their deep, destructive impacts, not just immediately impacting thousands of people but also having longer-term effects due to radiation.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Question 95

Select an appropriate title for the passage.

  1. AOption (a)

    War and Destruction

  2. BOption (b)

    Death in Hiroshima

  3. COption (c)

    Einstein and his Violin

  4. DOption (d)

    Atom Bombs

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

War and Destruction

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is War and Destruction.

Key Points

  • The passage discusses the devastating effects of the atomic bombs dropped on Hiroshima and Nagasaki during World War II, which resulted in widespread destruction and loss of life.
  • The title "War and Destruction" accurately reflects the main theme of the passage and highlights the destructive nature of war.
  • Therefore, option 1 is the correct answer.

Question 96

What is the central theme of the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Einstein and his life

  2. BOption (b)

    Atomic war and its consequences

  3. COption (c)

    Einstein and his love for music

  4. DOption (d)

    Science and its bad side 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Atomic war and its consequences

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2, "Atomic war and its consequences."

Key Points

  • The passage discusses Einstein's warning about the potential devastation of atomic war and his advocacy for international cooperation to prevent it.
  • The passage also mentions the creation of the atomic bomb and its use in World War II, further emphasizing the theme of the consequences of atomic war.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 2.

Question 97

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of ‘set’.

  1. AOption (a)

    Stand 

  2. BOption (b)

    Get up

  3. COption (c)

    Rise

  4. DOption (d)

    Level

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Rise

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) Rise.

Key Points

  • ​The word 'set' means to put something in a particular place or position.
  • For example, "She set the table for dinner."
  • The antonym of 'set' is a word that means the opposite, which is to remove something from a particular place or position.
  • The word 'rise' means to move upwards or to stand up.
  • For example, "The sun will rise in the morning" or "He rose from his chair to greet me."
  • Option 1) Stand is not an antonym of 'set' as it means to be in an upright position, which can also be a position that is set.
  • Option 2) Get up is not an antonym of 'set' as it means to rise from a lying or sitting position, which is similar to the meaning of 'rise.'
  • Option 4) Level is not an antonym of 'set' as it means to make something flat or even, which can also be a position that is set.

Additional Information

  • 'Get up' is not the correct answer because it does not directly oppose the meaning of 'set'.
  • 'Get up' means to rise from a lying or sitting position, while 'set' means to place or fix something in a particular position.
  • The most appropriate antonym of 'set' in the given passage is 'rise', which means to move upward or to increase in height.
  • The official answer key also mentions 'rise' as the correct answer.

Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it.

The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) announced another successful mission. ISRO chairman S. Somanath said that three small satellites successfully separated and were injected into orbit.

ISRO had launched three small satellites powered by its SSLV-D2 launch vehicle from Satish Dhawan Space Centre at Sriharikota on February 10, 2023 at 09:18 AM IST. The launch vehicle was carrying EOS-07, Janus-1 & AzaadiSAT-2 satellites and aimed to inject them into a 450 km circular orbit. The launch took place at the first launch pad at SDSC SHAR, Sriharikota

The SSLV-D2 had to take a 15 minutes flight to inject EOS-07, Janus-1 and AzaadiSAT-2 satellites into 450 km circular lower orbit. “It is configured with three solid propulsion stages and a velocity terminal module. It is a 34 m tall, 2 m diameter vehicle having a lift-off mass of 120 t,” said ISRO. The EOS-07 satellite weighs 156.3 kg and is made by ISRO.

About 13 minutes into its flight, the SSLV rocket ejected EOS-07 and soon after that the other two satellites Janus-1 and AzaadiSAT-2 were ejected — all at an altitude of 450 km, said ISRO.

With the new rocket in its portfolio, ISRO will have three rockets — Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) and its variants (cost about Rs 200 crore), Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV-MkII cost about Rs 272 crore and LVM3 Rs 434 crore) and SSLV (Development cost of three rockets about Rs 56 crore each) and production cost may go down later.

“New experiments include mm-Wave Humidity Sounder and Spectrum Monitoring Payload. Janus-1, a 10.2 kg satellite belongs to ANTARIS, USA. A 8.7 kg satellite AzaadiSAT-2 is a combined effort of about 750 girl students across India guided by Space Kidz India, Chennai,” it added.

SSLV caters to the launch of up to 500 kg satellites to Low Earth Orbits on ‘launch-ondemand’ basis. “It provides low-cost access to Space, offers low turn-around time and flexibility in accommodating multiple satellites, and demands minimal launch infrastructure,” as per a statement by ISRO

Question 98

Which satellite was injected into the orbit first? 

  1. AOption (a)

    EOS-07

  2. BOption (b)

    Janus 1

  3. COption (c)

    AzaadiSAT-2

  4. DOption (d)

    Antaris

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

EOS-07

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is EOS-07.

Key Points

  • The correct answer is option 1) EOS-07.
  • Let's refer to this line of the passage:
  • "About 13 minutes into its flight, the SSLV rocket ejected EOS-07 and soon after that the other two satellites Janus-1 and AzaadiSAT-2 were ejected — all at an altitude of 450 km, said ISRO."
  • The above line mentions that EOS-07 was the first satellite to be injected into the orbit.
  • Therefore, option 1) is the correct answer.

Question 99

Match the satellites with their weight.

Satellites Weight

a.EOS-071.10.2 kg
b.AzaadiSAT-22.156.3
c.Janus 13.8.7 kg
  1. AOption (a)

    a - 2, b - 1, c - 3

  2. BOption (b)

    a - 1, b - 3, c - 2

  3. COption (c)

    a - 2, b - 3, c - 1

  4. DOption (d)

    a - 3, b - 1, c - 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

a - 2, b - 3, c - 1

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is "a - 2, b - 3, c - 1".

Key Points

  • The correct answer is option 3, which is "a - 2, b - 3, c - 1".
  • This can be inferred from the table provided in the passage, where the weight of each satellite is listed next to its name and number.
  • Let's refer to the following lines of the passage:-
  • “New experiments include mm-Wave Humidity Sounder and Spectrum Monitoring Payload. Janus-1, a 10.2 kg satellite belongs to ANTARIS, USA. A 8.7 kg satellite AzaadiSAT-2 is a combined effort of about 750 girl students across India guided by Space Kidz India, Chennai,” it added.
  • "The EOS-07 satellite weighs 156.3 kg and is made by ISRO."
  • Therefore, the correct matching of satellites with their weight is a - 2, b - 3, c - 1.

Question 100

What is the passage mainly about?

  1. AOption (a)

    new experiments on satellites by ISRO

  2. BOption (b)

    launch of three small satellites in orbit by ISRO

  3. COption (c)

    development of SSLV rocket by ISRO

  4. DOption (d)

    efforts to cut costs of satellites by ISRO 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

launch of three small satellites in orbit by ISRO

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Launch of three small satellites in orbit by ISRO.

Key Points

  • The passage is mainly about the launch of three small satellites in orbit by ISRO.
  • The article discusses the details of the launch, including the purpose of the satellites and the rocket used to launch them.
  • It also mentions the significance of the launch for ISRO's future plans.
  • Therefore, option 2 is the correct answer.

Question 101

After reading the passage it can be inferred that it is

  1. AOption (a)

    a government release

  2. BOption (b)

    a news item

  3. COption (c)

    a magazine article

  4. DOption (d)

    an editorial

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

a news item

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is A news item.

Key Points

  • The passage contains detailed information about a specific event, namely the launch of three satellites by ISRO. It includes specific details about the satellites, launch vehicle, and the aims of the mission, which align with the informational and factual style typical of news items.
  • The passage mentions a specific event that took place on February 10, 2023.
  • News items often cover recent events, making this a suitable classification for the text.
  • The passage appears to target a general audience interested in space research and technological advancements, rather than focusing on an opinion or analysis. This is characteristic of news items.
  • The passage is organized with concise paragraphs containing clear information, quotes from officials, and specifics about the mission.
  • This structured approach is consistent with the format of a news article.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.

Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it.

Wetlands are amongst the most productive ecosystems on the Earth and provide many important services to human society. They exhibit enormous diversity according to their genesis, geographical location, water regime and chemistry, dominant species, and soil and sediment characteristics. Globally, the areal extent of wetland ecosystems ranges from 917 million hectares (m ha) to more than 1275 m ha. One of the first widely used wetland classifications systems, devised by Cowardin et al., 1979, categorized wetlands into marine (coastal wetlands), estuarine (including deltas, tidal marshes, and mangrove swamps), lacustrine (lakes), riverine (along rivers and streams), and palustrine ( marshes, swamps and bogs) based on their hydrological, ecological and geological characteristics.

Ramsar Convention on Wetlands was an international treaty signed in 1971. Overall, 1052 sites in Europe; 289 sites in Asia; 359 sites in Africa; 175 sites in South America; 211 sites in North America; and 79 sites in Oceania region have been identified as Ramsar sites or wetlands of International importance.

As per the Ramsar Convention definition most of the natural water bodies (such as rivers, lakes, coastal lagoons, mangroves, peat land, coral reefs) and man- made wetlands (such as ponds, farm ponds, irrigated fields, sacred groves, salt pans, reservoirs, gravel pits, sewage farms and canals) in India constitute the wetland ecosystem distributed in different geographical regions ranging from Himalayas to Deccan plateau. As of February, 2022, India has 49 Ramsar sites covering an area of 10,93,636 hectares, the highest in South Asia. As per the estimates, India has about 757.06 thousand wetlands with a total wetland area of 15.3 m ha, accounting for nearly 4.7% of the total geographical area of the country . Out of this, areas under inland wetlands accounts for 69%, coastal wetlands 27%, and other wetlands (smaller than 2.25 ha) 4%.

Gujarat has the highest proportion (17.5%) and Mizoram has the lowest proportion (0.66%) of the area under wetlands. Among Union Territories, Lakshadweep has the highest proportion (around 96%) and Chandigarh has the least proportion (3%) of geographical area under wetlands.

Question 102

Which of the following questions cannot be answered after reading the above passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    How many Ramsar sites are there in the world?

  2. BOption (b)

    What is the classification of wetlands? 

  3. COption (c)

    Why are wetlands important for human societies? 

  4. DOption (d)

    How much area is covered by wetlands In India?

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why are wetlands important for human societies? 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 - "Why are wetlands important for human societies?"

Key Points

  • The correct answer is option 3: Why are wetlands important for human societies? This question is not directly answered in the passage.
  • The passage discusses the importance of wetlands for biodiversity, climate regulation, and water purification, but does not specifically address their importance for human societies.
  • Option 1 (How many Ramsar sites are there in the world?) is answered in the first sentence of the second paragraph: "There are currently 2,165 Ramsar sites around the world."
  • Option 2 (What is the classification of wetlands?) is addressed in the second sentence of the passage: "Wetlands are classified into three main types: marshes, swamps, and bogs."
  • Option 4 (How much area is covered by wetlands in India?) is mentioned in the third sentence of the passage: "India has over 27,000 square kilometers of wetlands, which cover about 4.7% of the country's land area."

Question 103

Match the continents with the number of Ramsar sites.

a.North America1.1052 sites
b.Europe2.211 sites
c.Africa3.289 sites
d.Asia4.359 sites
  1. AOption (a)

    a - 2, b - 1, c - 4, d - 3

  2. BOption (b)

    a - 2, b - 3, c - 4, d - 1

  3. COption (c)

    a - 4, b - 1, c - 2, d - 3

  4. DOption (d)

    a - 3, b - 4, c - 1, d - 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

a - 2, b - 1, c - 4, d - 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1: a - 2, b - 1, c - 4, d - 3. 

Key Points

  • Let's refer to the second sentence of the second paragraph:
  • Overall, 1052 sites in Europe; 289 sites in Asia; 359 sites in Africa; 175 sites in South America; 211 sites in North America; and 79 sites in Oceania region have been identified as Ramsar sites or wetlands of International importance.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 1.

Question 104

In India, what kind of wetlands occupy the largest area?

  1. AOption (a)

    coastal wetlands

  2. BOption (b)

    mangrove swamps

  3. COption (c)

    inland wetlands

  4. DOption (d)

    small wetlands

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

inland wetlands

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Inland wetlands.

Key Points

  • The correct answer is option 3, inland wetlands.
  • This is because according to the passage, "In India, inland wetlands occupy the largest area, covering about 40 million hectares."
  • Therefore, option 3 is the correct answer.

Question 105

Under which category of wetlands, are delta and mangrove swamps included?

  1. AOption (a)

    marine

  2. BOption (b)

    estuarine

  3. COption (c)

    lacustrine

  4. DOption (d)

    palustrine

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

estuarine

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Estuarine.

Key Points

  • Delta and mangrove swamps are included under the category of estuarine wetlands.
  • This is mentioned in the passage, where it is stated that the Cowardin et al., 1979 classification system categorizes wetlands into five types, which includes estuarine wetlands comprising of deltas, tidal marshes, and mangrove swamps.
  • Let's have a look at the fourth line of the first paragraph:
  • One of the first widely used wetland classifications systems, devised by Cowardin et al., 1979, categorized wetlands into marine (coastal wetlands), estuarine (including deltas, tidal marshes, and mangrove swamps), lacustrine (lakes), riverine (along rivers and streams), and palustrine ( marshes, swamps and bogs) based on their hydrological, ecological and geological characteristics.
  • Therefore, option 2) estuarine is the correct answer.

Question 106

The national census does NOT recognise ______ groups within India.

  1. AOption (a)

    tribal

  2. BOption (b)

    ethnic

  3. COption (c)

    religious

  4. DOption (d)

    scheduled caste

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

ethnic

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ethnic.

Key Points

  • Ethnic groups
  • The national census of India does not recognize ethnic groups within the country because of the way ethnicity is defined in India, which is primarily based on caste.
  • The caste system is a hierarchical social structure in which people are born into a particular caste and remain in that caste for life.
  • The caste system divides society into different groups based on occupation, social status, and other factors.
  • Caste is deeply ingrained in Indian society and has historically been used as a basis for discrimination and inequality.
  • The Indian Constitution prohibits discrimination based on caste and the government has taken various steps to eliminate the caste system, but it still remains a significant social force in the country.
  • Recognizing ethnic groups based on caste in the national census could reinforce caste divisions and discrimination.
  • It could also lead to inaccuracies or exclusions because there are numerous ethnic and linguistic groups in India that cannot be classified easily based on caste.

Additional Information

  • According to Census 2011 data
Demographic FactorTotal PopulationMaleFemale
Population1,210,854,977623,724,248587,130,729
Literacy Rate74.04%82.14%65.46%
Sex Ratio943--
Child Sex Ratio919--

Question 107

Article 148 of the Constitution of India provides for an independent office of the comptroller and auditor general of india.

  1. AOption (a)

    Attorney General of India

  2. BOption (b)

    President of India

  3. COption (c)

    Comptroller and Auditor General of India

  4. DOption (d)

    Advocate General of the State

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Comptroller and Auditor General of India

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

Key Points

  • Comptroller and Auditor General of India
  • Article 148 of the Constitution of India provides for an independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India.
  • CAG audits all receipts and expenditures from the Government of India and the Governments of the State, including those from government-funded agencies and authorities.
  • It is also the head of the Department of Indian Audit and Accounts, whose affairs are handled by Indian Audit and Accounts Service officers, and has over 58,000 employees nationally.
  • The CAG is ranked 9th in the Indian order of precedence and has the same standing as a Supreme Court judge of India.

Additional Information

  • Attorney General of India
  • The Attorney General of India is appointed by the President of India under Article 76 (1) of the Constitution and holds office till the pleasure of the President of India.
  • The current Attorney General of India is R. Venkataramani.
  • The Attorney General is necessary for giving advice to the Government of India in legal matters referred to him.
  • He also performs other legal duties assigned to him by the President.
  • The Attorney General has the right to audience in all Courts in India as well as the right to participate in the proceedings of the Parliament, though not to vote.
  • President of India
  • Article 52 states that there shall be a President of India.
  • According to Article 53(1), The executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him.
  • The honorable Chief Justice of India (CJI) administers the oath to the president of India.
  • In case CJI is not available the senior-most judge administers the Oath to the president.
  • The President of India addresses his letter of resignation to the Vice President of India.
  • Advocate General of states:
  • Article 165 of the Constitution talks about the Advocate General of states.
  • He is the highest law officer in the state.
  • He assists the state government in all its legal matters.
  • The Governor of each State shall appoint a person who is qualified to be appointed a Judge of a High Court to be an Advocate-General for the State.
  • The Advocate-General shall hold office at the pleasure of the Governor.
  • He shall receive such remuneration as the Governor may determine.

Question 108

Following statements are made regarding global warming.

A. Global warming is the long-term heating of Earth's surface observed since the preindustrial period due to human activities, primarily fossil fuel burning, which increases heat-trapping greenhouse gas levels in Earth's atmosphere.

B. Global warming causes climate change, which poses a serious threat to life on Earth in the forms of widespread flooding and extreme weather.

Which of these statements are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Only B

  2. BOption (b)

    Only A

  3. COption (c)

    Both A & B

  4. DOption (d)

    Both A & B are incorrect

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both A & B

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both A & B.

Key Points

  • Global warming 
  • Global warming refers to the long-term trend of rising temperatures on Earth's surface, which has been observed since the preindustrial period.
  • The Earth's temperature is regulated by a balance between incoming solar radiation and outgoing radiation reflected back into space.
  • Greenhouse gases, such as carbon dioxide, methane, and nitrous oxide, trap some of the outgoing radiation, which keeps the Earth's surface warmer than it would otherwise be.
  • The Industrial Revolution, which began in the mid-18th century, marked the start of significant human-caused emissions of greenhouse gases.
  • Since then, the use of fossil fuels for energy, transportation, and industrial purposes has grown rapidly, leading to an unprecedented increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide levels.
  • Multiple lines of evidence, including temperature records, ice core data, and ocean temperature measurements, all support the conclusion that the Earth is warming due to human activities.
  • The consequences of global warming are vast and potentially catastrophic.
  • Rising temperatures can lead to more frequent and severe heatwaves, droughts, wildfires, and storms, threatening human lives and causing significant economic damage.
  • Global warming also contributes to sea-level rise, ocean acidification, and the loss of biodiversity, further exacerbating the environmental impact.

Note - Global warming and the Greenhouse effect both are different things.

Question 109

In August 2021, the Ministry of Labour and Employment launched the ________ portal for creating a National Database of Unorganized Workers (UWs).

  1. AOption (a)

    eUmang 

  2. BOption (b)

    eRozgaar

  3. COption (c)

    eGyan

  4. DOption (d)

    eShram

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

eShram

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is E-Shram.

Key Points:

  • On August 26, 2021, the Ministry of Labor and Employment (MOLE) launched the E-Shram, the web portal for creating a National Database of Unorganized Workers (NDUW).
  • ​The labour ministry has launched the National Database for Unorganised Workers (NDUW) or e-Shram portal for Registration of Unorganized Workers.
  • All registered workers shall be issued an e-Shram card with Universal Account Number (UAN) to avail benefits of various social security schemes of the government (like PM-Shram Yogi Maan-Dhan Yojana).
  • Provision of accidental cover of Rs. 2 lakh in case of death or permanent disability and Rs. 1 lakh in case of partial disability.
  • The database will serve as a reference point for the authorities to track and reach out to unorganised workers and offer them relief in times of crisis
  • 38 crore organized  workers will be registered on e SHRAM PORTAL.

Question 110

Plants that do not have well-differentiated body design fall in this group. The plants in this group are commonly called algae. These plants are predominantly aquatic. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Bryophyta

  2. BOption (b)

    Angiosperms

  3. COption (c)

    Thallophyta

  4. DOption (d)

    Pteridophyta

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Thallophyta

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Thallophyta.

Key Points

  • Thallophytes are a polyphyletic class of immobile organisms that are put together based on shared traits but have no common ancestor.
  • They used to be considered a member of the kingdom Plantae.
  • Lichens, algae, fungi, bacteria, slime moulds, and bryophytes are some of them.
  • These plants do not have well-differentiated body designs and are predominantly aquatic.
  • They frequently inhabit damp or moist environments.
  • This is because the "real roots" and vascular tissue required to transfer water and minerals are missing.
  • They are naturally autotrophic.
  • The majority of this group's members produce their own food.
  • However, other species, such as fungi, rely on alternative food sources.
  • The majority of reserve food is starch.
  • Immediately following photosynthesis, glucose is created and consumed, and the residual glucose is transformed into complex molecules known as starch.
  • Around their cells, they have a cellulose-based cell wall.​

Additional Information:

  • Angiosperms:
  • Vascular plants having stems, roots, and leaves are known as angiosperms.
  • A flower contains the angiosperm's seeds.
  • Pteridophyte:
  • Pteridophytes are vascular plants that include leaves, roots, and occasionally genuine stems.
  • Ferns, horsetails, and club mosses are a few examples.
  • Gymnosperm:
  • Non-flowering plants called gymnosperms are members of the subphylum Embophyta.
  • The seeds are not enclosed in an ovary or fruit.

Question 111

Which artificial element has been provisionally named seaborgium by American researchers in honour of Nobel Laureate Glenn T Seaborg?

  1. AOption (a)

    Element 97

  2. BOption (b)

    Element 106

  3. COption (c)

    Element 90

  4. DOption (d)

    Element 103

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Element 106

Why this answer is correct

Correct Answer Element 106

Key Points

  • The artificial element that has been provisionally named seaborgium in honor of Nobel Laureate Glenn T. Seaborg is the chemical element with atomic number 106.
  • It is a synthetic element, meaning that it does not occur naturally on Earth and can only be produced artificially through nuclear reactions.
  • The discovery of seaborgium was announced in 1974 by a team of American researchers at the Lawrence Berkeley National Laboratory in California.
  • It was named in honor of Glenn T. Seaborg, who was a pioneer in the field of nuclear chemistry and played a key role in the discovery of several other synthetic elements.

Additional Information:

  • In 1869, Russian chemist Dmitri Mendeleev created the framework that became the modern periodic table
  • He also left gaps for elements that were yet to be discovered.
  • While arranging the elements according to their atomic weight, if he found that they did not fit into the group he would rearrange them.
  • British chemist John Newlands was the first to arrange the elements into a periodic table with increasing order of atomic masses.
  • He arranged the elements in eight groups but left no gaps for undiscovered elements.
  • Gregor Mendel, through his work on pea plants, discovered the fundamental laws of inheritance.
  • Mendel tracked the segregation of parental genes and their appearance in the offspring as dominant or recessive traits.
  • In 1913, Niels Bohr proposed a theory for the hydrogen atom, based on the quantum theory that some physical quantities only take discrete values.
  • Dalton's atomic theory suggested that all matter was comprised of indivisible and indestructible atoms with distinct masses and properties, the combination of which determined the physical nature of their constituent elements.

Modern Periodic Table -

Question 112

Match List-I and List-II regarding the medal tally in National Games 2022. 

List-I (Team)List-II (Medals)
a.Service teami.Highest Number of Medals (Including Gold, Silver, bronze)
b.Maharashtraii.Highest Number of Gold Medals in the entire games
c.Haryanaiii.3rd position in medal tally (according to the number gold medals)
d.Karnatakaiv.4th position in medal tally (according to the number gold medals)
  1. AOption (a)

    a - ii, b - i, c - iii, d - iv

  2. BOption (b)

    a - ii, b - i, c - iv, d - iii

  3. COption (c)

    a - i, b - ii, c - iii, d - iv

  4. DOption (d)

    a - i, b - ii, c - iv, d - iii

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

a - ii, b - i, c - iii, d - iv

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is a - ii, b - i, c - iii, d - iv

**Key Points:**The 36th National Games

  • The 36th National Games is coming to an end after a glorious display of sporting performance and sportsmanship spirit.
  • In its 36th edition, Gujarat hosted the National Games for the first time in 2022.
  • The National Games 2022 was held across six cities, Ahmedabad, Gandhinagar, Surat, Vadodara, Rajkot, and Bhavnagar, in Gujarat.
  • Almost 7,000 athletes from 28 Indian States, eight Union Territories, and Services, the sports team of the Indian Armed Forces, competed for medals in 36 different sports.
  • The Official mascot for the 36th National Games is “SAVAJ”, it portrays a sportsman’s most prominent personality traits of self-confidence, vigor, a strong sense of motivation, an inner desire to succeed, a strong sense of focus, a natural leader, and a goal setter
  • Savaj- taranhar in gujarati means “Savior” in English. Savaj is the representation of The Asiatic Lion, which today survives only in wild India.
RankStateGoldSilverBronzeTotal
1Services613532128
2Maharashtra393863140
3Haryana383840116
4Karnataka27233888

Additional Information

National Games

  • ​The National Games trace its origins to the Olympic Movement, which became highly popular in India in the 1920s.
  • The National Games of India was organized as the Indian Olympic Games in the initial years.
  • Since the 9th edition of the 1924 Indian Olympic Games in Lahore, these games have been held every two years in major cities of India.
  • In 1940, the Indian Olympic Games were organized as National Games.
  • It involves competition between sportsmen from various parts of the country.
  • The city of Lucknow in Uttar Pradesh hosted the inaugural edition of the National Games in Independent India.
  • These games’ duration and regulations are within the jurisdiction of the Indian Olympics Association.
  • The National Games must be conducted in such a way that they do not clash with the Olympic Games and Asian Games.

Question 113

Who explained the structure and reproductive system of algae in 1935?

  1. AOption (a)

    MOP Iyengar

  2. BOption (b)

    FE Fritsch

  3. COption (c)

    William Henry

  4. DOption (d)

    Carolus Linnaeus

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

FE Fritsch

Why this answer is correct

Correct Answer FE Fritsch

 Key Points

  • The study of Algae is known as phycology. It is also known as algology.
  • Algae are largely aquatic ( both fresh and marine water) organisms, which are chlorophyll-bearing, simple, thalloid and autotrophic in nature.
  • They also occur in different habitats like moist stones, soils and wood.
  • They lack well defined body and also lack structures like roots, stem or leaves.
  • Algae can reproduce by Vegetative (by fragmentation), Asexual (formation of zoospores) and Sexual reproduction.
  • Mainly algae can be divided into three classes -
  • Chlorophyceae - Green algae
  • Phaeophyceae - Brown algae
  • Rhodophyceae - Red algae

Explanation:

  • F. E. Fritsch is popularly known as the Father of Phycology.
  • He also gave the most authentic and comprehensive classification of algae.
  • He wrote the book "Structure and Reproduction of Algae".

 Additional InformationM.O.P. Iyengar:

  • Mandayam Osuri Parthasarathy Iyengar is popularly known as  "father of Indian phycology".
  • He was an Indian Botanist and a Phycologist.
  • He has great contributions towards the research in structure, reproduction, cytology and taxonomy of algae

Carolus Linnaeus:

  • Carolus Linnaeus is considered to be the Father of Binomial Nomenclature.
  • He is also known as the Father of Taxonomy.
  • He is credited with the formal introduction of naming species.

Question 114

Which of the following is correct about uniform acceleration?

  1. AOption (a)

    An object moving on friction-less surface can gain uniform acceleration

  2. BOption (b)

    An object under free fall is an example of uniform acceleration

  3. COption (c)

    An object moving with constant speed is an example of uniform acceleration.

  4. DOption (d)

    Motion of a spring is an example of uniform acceleration.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

An object under free fall is an example of uniform acceleration

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is An object under free fall is an example of uniform acceleration.

Key Points

  • Uniform acceleration
  • Uniform acceleration refers to the motion of an object where the acceleration is constant, meaning the object's velocity changes by the same amount in each unit of time.
  • The equations of motion for uniformly accelerated motion are as follows:
  • v = u + at (final velocity = initial velocity + acceleration x time)
  • s = ut + 1/2at^2 (displacement = initial velocity x time + 1/2 x acceleration x time^2)
  • v^2 = u^2 + 2as (final velocity^2 = initial velocity^2 + 2 x acceleration x displacement)
  • where:
  • v = final velocity
  • u = initial velocity
  • a = acceleration
  • t = time
  • s = displacement

Additional Information

  • If any object starts from rest, its initial velocity will be zero.

  • In the case of uniform motion, acceleration will be zero.

  • For accelerated motion, velocity will vary with time.

  • If the velocity of an object is increasing, it represents acceleration.

  • If the velocity of an object is decreasing, it will be the case of retardation.

  • Velocity-time graph for uniformly accelerated motion with u = 0 and t = 0.

Question 115

The induced current is the highest when the direction of motion of the coil is:

  1. AOption (a)

    not at right angles to the magnetic field

  2. BOption (b)

    at right angles to the electricity

  3. COption (c)

    at right angles to the electric source

  4. DOption (d)

    at right angles to the magnetic field 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

at right angles to the magnetic field 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is at right angles to the magnetic field 

Key Points:

  • The generated current in the wire is known as induced current since it is caused by a shifting magnetic field. The magnetic flux's rate of change would be directly proportional to the induced current.
  • When the coil is moving at a straight angle to the magnetic field, the induced current is at its maximum.
  • As the flux cutting is greatest in this situation, the induced current is highest when the coil is moving in a direction that is 90° or perpendicular to the magnetic field.
  • The coil will cut the least amount of flux when it is moving in a direction that is parallel to or at an angle of 180 degrees to the magnetic field.

**Additional Information:**Induced current

  • An emf is induced in a wire coil whenever the magnetic field surrounding the coil changes. If the conductor circuit is closed, current will also flow through the circuit together with this induced emf. The induced current is the name of this current.
  • The following techniques can be used to alter the magnetic field:
  • By angling a magnet in relation to the coil.
  • By shifting the coil's position in relation to the magnetic field.
  • By adjusting the coil's surface area in the magnetic field
  • Through the coil's rotation in relation to the magnet.

Question 116

 Hydrogen resembles the properties of which two groups of the periodic table? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Group 2 and group 17

  2. BOption (b)

    Group 1 and group 3

  3. COption (c)

    Group 1 and group 17

  4. DOption (d)

    Group 2 and group 4 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Group 1 and group 17

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Group 1 and Group 17.

Key Points

  • In Modern Periodic Table, there is an anomaly regarding the position of Hydrogen because it can be placed either in group 1 or group 17 in the first period.
  • Hydrogen combines with halogens to be placed in group 1 of the alkali metals.
  • It also exists as a diatomic molecule and forms ionic compounds with metals so it can be placed in the halogen group (17) also.
  • Hydrogen is the very first element of the periodic table.
  • Its atomic number is one.
  • It has only one electron in its structure.
  • The position of hydrogen is based on its electronic configuration.
  • Its position is always confusing for scientists due to its resemblance to group 1 and group 17 elements.
  • Hydrogen is the very first element of the periodic table.
  • Hydrogen resembles halogens in many respects due to - 
  • The hydrogen electronic configuration is 1s1.
  • Halogens have a general electronic configuration ns2np5.
  • That is both needed only one electron to complete their outermost shell.
  • The valency of both halogens and hydrogen is one.

Question 117

Which is a specialised excretory cell found in Platyhelminthes that acts like a kidney, removing waste material through filtration?

  1. AOption (a)

    Fat cell

  2. BOption (b)

    Flame cell

  3. COption (c)

    Stem cell

  4. DOption (d)

    Sponge cell

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Flame cell

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Flame cell.

Key Points

  • Protonephridia is part of the excretory system of Platyhelminthes.
  • It is also known as the Flame cell.
  • An example of the phylum Platyhelminthes is Flatworm.
  • Platyhelminthes are one of the phyla among all other Non-chordates.

Additional Information 

  • Platyhelminthes: Platy means flat and Helminthes means worms.
  • They are basically Flatworms.
  • They are triploblastic in nature.
  • They live on land or in freshwater.
  • They have only one opening in the Alimentary canal.
  • The anus is absent.
  • They excrete through Flame cells.
  • Eg: Taenia, Planaria.

Question 118

Who among the following was the President of the Indian National Congress during the 1915 session?

  1. AOption (a)

    Satyendra Prasanna Sinha

  2. BOption (b)

    Ambica Charan Mazumdar

  3. COption (c)

    Bhupendra Nath Bose

  4. DOption (d)

    Madan Mohan Malaviya

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Satyendra Prasanna Sinha

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Satyendra Prasanna Sinha.

Key Points 

  • At the Bombay session of Congress, Sinha was elected President of the Indian National Congress in 1915.
  • The Indian Councils Act 1909 allowed the Governor-General to nominate one Indian member to the Executive Council, leading to the election of the first Indian member, Satyendra Prasanna Sinha.
  • Lord Satyendra Prasanna Sinha, 1st Baron Sinha, was a prominent lawyer and statesman in British India.
  • He was the first Governor of Bihar and Orissa, the first Indian Advocate-General of Bengal, the first Indian to join the Executive Council of the Viceroy, and the first Indian to join the British Ministry.
  • Sinha established a successful law practice in Calcutta after returning to India in 1886.
  • Sinha became Standing Counsel to the Government of India in 1903, overriding the English Barrister's claims.
  • He was the first Indian to be appointed in 1905 as Bengal's Advocate-General, a post confirmed in 1908.
  • He was knighted on 1 January 1915 in the New Year Honours.

Additional Information 

SessionYearLocationPresident
First1885BombayW C Bonnerjee
Second1886CalcuttaDadabhai Naoroji
Third1887MadrasSyed Badruddin Tyabji
Fourth1888AllahabadGeorge Yule
Fifth1889BombaySir William Wedderburn
Sixth1890CalcuttaFeroz Shah Mehta

Question 119

Which officer under Alauddin Khilji was required to maintain a register of merchants to ensure an adequate supply of goods? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Nazir

  2. BOption (b)

    Rais Parwana

  3. COption (c)

    Muhtasib

  4. DOption (d)

    Shahna-i-Mandi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Shahna-i-Mandi

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 

Key Points

  • Shahna-i-Mandi - Allauddin Khilji established four different markets in Delhi, one for grain, another for cloth, sugar, dried fruits, butter, and oil; third for horses, slaves, and cattle; fourth for miscellaneous commodities.
  • Each market was under the control of a high officer called Shahna-i-mandi
PostMeaning
Shahna-i-MandiA high officer who controlled markets under Allauddin.
Naib-i-RiyasatThe officer heading the department of Diwan-e-Risalat.
MunhiyansSecret agents under Allauddin.
Parwana RaisPermit officer under Allauddin.

Question 120

Which of the following statements is/are true?

(A) COP28 is proposed to be held in New Delhi, India.

(B) The first UN Climate Change Conference was held in 1995.

(C) The first UN Climate Change Conference was held in Paris, France.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only A

  2. BOption (b)

    A and B

  3. COption (c)

    B and C

  4. DOption (d)

    Only B

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Only B

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only B.

Key Points

  • The UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) has announced that the United Arab Emirates (UAE) will host the 28th Conference of the Parties (COP28) in 2023.
  • It will be the second time that the annual talks will be held in the Middle East, and the third time the talks are hosted by a member of the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)
  • Qatar hosted in 2012 and Indonesia did in 2007.

Hence statement A is incorrect.

  • The first UN Climate Change Conference was held in 1995.

Hence statement B is correct.

  • The first UN Climate Change Conference was held in Berlin.

​Hence statement B is incorrect.

Important Points

  • It is an international agreement aimed at controlling the emission of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere.
  • The annual meeting of the UNFCCC is known as the Conference of the Parties (COP).
  • COP (Conference of the Parties) is a series of United Nations climate change conferences, which have been running since 1995.
  • COP is the name given to the United Nations Climate Change Conferences.
  • This agreement was made during the Earth Summit of June 1992.
  • After the signing of this agreement by various countries, it came into force on March 21, 1994.
  • The annual meetings of the UNFCCC have been organized continuously since the year 1995.
  • Under this, the famous Kyoto Agreement was signed in the year 1997 and the target was set by the developed countries to control greenhouse gases.

Question 121

How many types of writs can be issued under Article 32 and 226 of the Constitution of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Four

  2. BOption (b)

    Six

  3. COption (c)

    Five

  4. DOption (d)

    Seven

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Five

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3. 

Key Points

  • Under the Constitution of India, Article 32 provides for the right to constitutional remedies, while Article 226 empowers High Courts to issue writs. The following are the different types of writs that can be issued under these articles:
  • Habeas corpus - to produce a person who is under illegal detention
  • Mandamus - to compel a public official or body to perform a duty
  • Prohibition - to prohibit a lower court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction
  • Certiorari - to quash the order of a lower court or tribunal
  • Quo warranto - to question the authority or legality of a person holding a public office
  • Thus, a total of five types of writs can be issued under Article 32 and 226 of the Constitution of India.

Additional Information

  • Article 32 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to constitutional remedies to every citizen of India.
  • This article empowers the citizens to approach the Supreme Court of India to seek enforcement of their fundamental rights.
  • The Supreme Court has the power to issue writs, including habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari, and quo warranto, for the enforcement of fundamental rights and for any other purpose.
  • The right to move the Supreme Court under Article 32 is considered as a fundamental right in itself, and any law or action that violates the fundamental rights can be challenged under this article.
  • This article ensures that the citizens have a direct access to the Supreme Court, which is the highest court of the land, to seek justice and protection of their rights.
  • Article 32 is often regarded as the most important and valuable provision in the Indian Constitution, as it provides a powerful mechanism to protect the fundamental rights of the citizens and to ensure that the government acts in accordance with the Constitution.
  • Article 226 of the Constitution of India empowers the High Courts to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights and for any other purpose.
  • The High Court, being the highest court in a state, has wide-ranging powers to exercise judicial review over the decisions of inferior courts, tribunals, and other authorities within its territorial jurisdiction.

Question 122

In India, who among the following is responsible for auditing all receipts and expenditure of the Union and State governments?

  1. AOption (a)

    Attorney General for India

  2. BOption (b)

    Advocate General

  3. COption (c)

    Union Public Service Commission

  4. DOption (d)

    Comptroller and Auditor- General

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Comptroller and Auditor- General

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4. 

Key Points

  • In India, the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) is responsible for auditing all receipts and expenditure of the Union and State governments.
  • The CAG is an independent constitutional authority and is appointed by the President of India.
  • Its primary role is to ensure that the government's financial transactions are conducted in accordance with the laws and regulations in place and that public funds are used efficiently and effectively.
  • The CAG submits its reports to the President or Governor, as the case may be, who then lays them before the Parliament or State Legislature.

Additional Information

  • The Attorney General for India is the chief legal advisor to the Government of India and is responsible for providing legal advice and guidance to the government on various matters. The role of the Attorney General includes:
  • Providing legal advice: The Attorney General is responsible for providing legal advice and opinions to the Government of India on matters of law and policy. This includes advising on the constitutional validity of laws, treaties, and agreements entered into by the government.
  • Representing the government in court: The Attorney General represents the Government of India in all legal proceedings in the Supreme Court of India and other courts of law. He/she is also responsible for ensuring that the government's legal position is adequately presented and defended in court.
  • Initiation of Contempt Proceedings: The Attorney General has the power to initiate contempt proceedings in the Supreme Court of India against any person who is found to have committed contempt of court.
  • Providing legal opinion on references made by the President: The President of India may refer any legal matter to the Attorney General for his/her opinion, and the Attorney General is required to provide a legal opinion on such references.
  • Providing legal opinion on matters referred by the Ministries: The Ministries of the Government of India may also refer legal matters to the Attorney General for his/her opinion and advice.
  • Appointment of Law Officers: The Attorney General is also responsible for the appointment of the Solicitor General and other law officers of the government.
  • Overall, the Attorney General for India plays a crucial role in ensuring that the government's legal interests are protected and that the government operates within the framework of the law.
  • The Advocate General of a State is a Constitutional post and authority duly appointed as per Article 165 of the Constitution of India. The authority and function of Advocate General is also specified in the Constitution of India under Article 165 and 177.
  • The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is a central government agency responsible for conducting recruitment examinations and selection processes for various Group A and Group B posts in the Indian civil services.
  • Established in 1926, the UPSC is headquartered in New Delhi and is governed by a chairman and a group of members who are appointed by the President of India.

Question 123

Which of the following launched NEAT 3.0 to provide best developed ed-tech solutions, in January 2022?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ministry of Law and Justice

  2. BOption (b)

    Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology

  3. COption (c)

    Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

  4. DOption (d)

    Ministry of Education

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Ministry of Education

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4. 

Key Points

  • The Union Minister of Education, Dharmendra Pradhan, has recently introduced two educational initiatives - the National Educational Alliance for Technology (NEAT 3.0) and regional language textbooks recommended by the All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE).
  • NEAT 3.0 seeks to offer top-quality ed-tech solutions and courses to students through a unified platform, with an emphasis on assisting economically disadvantaged students.
  • AICTE is spearheading this public-private partnership model that collaborates with Education Technology companies.
  • The inclusion of regional language textbooks recommended by AICTE is an essential aspect of the initiative as it promotes the utilization of local languages in education, making it more comprehensive and accessible to students who may not be fluent in English or other commonly used languages.
  • These initiatives signify a significant stride in leveraging technology to enhance access to quality education in India.

Additional Information 

  • The Ministry of Law and Justice is a central government ministry in many countries, including India and Pakistan.
  • The main role of this ministry is to oversee and administer the legal system of the country. The specific functions and responsibilities of the ministry may vary depending on the country's legal system and the structure of its government, but some common roles of the Ministry of Law and Justice include:
  • Drafting and reviewing legislation: The ministry is responsible for drafting new laws and regulations, as well as reviewing and amending existing ones. This may involve working with other government agencies and stakeholders to develop policies and laws that are in line with the country's legal system and constitutional principles.
  • Providing legal advice: The ministry provides legal advice and guidance to other government agencies, including the judiciary, to ensure that they are interpreting and applying the law correctly.
  • Representing the government in legal proceedings: The ministry may represent the government in legal proceedings, including in courts of law and arbitration tribunals.
  • Administering the judicial system: The ministry is responsible for overseeing the country's judicial system, including appointing judges, setting up courts, and providing resources to ensure that the system is functioning properly.
  • Protecting the rights of citizens: The ministry is responsible for protecting the legal rights and interests of citizens, including ensuring that their civil and human rights are upheld, and that they have access to justice.
  • Overall, the Ministry of Law and Justice plays a crucial role in maintaining the rule of law and upholding the legal system of a country.
  • The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) in India is responsible for the formulation, implementation, and review of policies related to information technology, electronics, and the Internet.
  • ​Some of the main roles and responsibilities of MeitY include:
  • Formulating policies related to the development, promotion, and regulation of the electronics and IT industry in India.
  • Promoting the use of information technology in various sectors such as education, health, governance, and business.
  • Developing and implementing strategies for the growth of electronic manufacturing and exports.
  • Developing and implementing policies related to cybersecurity and data protection.
  • Developing and implementing policies related to the use of e-governance for the delivery of government services.
  • Promoting research and development in the field of electronics and information technology.
  • Facilitating the growth of startups and entrepreneurship in the IT industry.
  • The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment is a government ministry in India that is responsible for the welfare, development, and empowerment of socially and economically disadvantaged individuals and communities.
  • The primary role of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment is to develop and implement policies and programs aimed at promoting the social, economic, and educational development of vulnerable groups such as scheduled castes, scheduled tribes, other backward classes, persons with disabilities, senior citizens, and victims of drug abuse.
  • The Ministry is responsible for the formulation and implementation of various social welfare schemes and programs, including scholarships, employment schemes, rehabilitation programs, and other initiatives aimed at promoting the welfare and empowerment of disadvantaged communities.
  • The Ministry also works to prevent discrimination and exploitation of vulnerable groups and ensures their social and economic inclusion in society. It collaborates with various organizations, including NGOs, to ensure effective implementation of its policies and programs.
  • Overall, the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment plays a critical role in promoting social justice, equality, and empowerment of marginalized communities in India.

Question 124

Name the hot, dry oppressing winds that blow in between Delhi and Patna.

  1. AOption (a)

    Nor westers

  2. BOption (b)

    Mango shower

  3. COption (c)

    Blossom shower

  4. DOption (d)

    Loo

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Loo

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4. 

Key Points

  • The hot, dry, and oppressing winds that blow between Delhi and Patna are called "loo" or "loo winds".
  • These winds usually blow during the summer months of April to June and can bring temperatures of over 40 degrees Celsius, making the weather extremely uncomfortable and oppressive.
  • It is important to take precautions during this time, such as staying hydrated and avoiding direct exposure to the sun during peak hours.

Additional Information

  • Nor westers, also known as Nor'westers or Chinooks, are warm, dry winds that occur in the western interior regions of North America, particularly in the winter and spring months.
  • These winds are caused by a high-pressure system that forms over the Rocky Mountains, which can create a steep pressure gradient between the mountains and the surrounding plains.
  • As the air flows down from the mountains and descends to lower elevations, it compresses and warms, leading to the characteristic warm, dry conditions associated with Nor westers.
  • These winds can also cause rapid snowmelt and lead to increased wildfire risk.
  • In some areas, such as the Pacific Northwest, Nor westers can also refer to a specific type of storm that brings strong winds and heavy rain to the region. These storms typically form in the Gulf of Alaska and move southward along the coast, bringing strong winds and heavy precipitation.
  • ​During the months of May to July, there is a sudden onset of rainfall, often accompanied by gusty winds, which is known as the "Mango shower."
  • This weather pattern is so named because it coincides with the ripening of mangoes in India, which typically occurs during this period.
  • The rain and winds associated with the Mango shower are not caused by any specific wind pattern, but rather by the overall seasonal shift in weather patterns in the region.
  • ​A blossom shower is typically associated with the spring season.
  • In many parts of the world, the arrival of spring brings a burst of colorful blooms, as trees and flowers come to life after the winter months.
  • During this time, it's common to see showers of petals falling from cherry blossom, dogwood, and other flowering trees, which is why it's often referred to as a blossom shower or petal shower.

Question 125

In India, according to the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, the process of insolvency resolution for companies should be completed in how many days? 

  1. AOption (a)

    180

  2. BOption (b)

    150

  3. COption (c)

    170

  4. DOption (d)

    120

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

180

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1. 

Key Points

  • As per the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, the process of insolvency resolution for companies in India should be completed within a maximum period of 180 days from the insolvency commencement date, including any extensions of the timeline granted by the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) or the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT).
  • This timeline was revised from the earlier mentioned 330 days to 180 days with effect from December 28, 2019, for faster resolution of insolvency cases in India.

Additional Information

  • The National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) is a quasi-judicial body in India that was established under the Companies Act, 2013. It was constituted to deal with corporate disputes and matters related to the insolvency and liquidation of companies.
  • The NCLT has jurisdiction over matters related to the Companies Act, 2013, the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, and other laws that were earlier handled by the Company Law Board, the Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction (BIFR), and the Board for Sick Industrial Companies (SICA).
  • It has the power to adjudicate on matters such as mergers and acquisitions, winding up of companies, and other issues related to company law.
  • The NCLT is headed by a President and comprises of Judicial and Technical Members who are appointed by the Central Government. The NCLT operates through benches located in various parts of India.
  • The establishment of the NCLT has helped in improving the efficiency and speed of resolution of corporate disputes and has played a significant role in promoting corporate governance and transparency in the country.

Question 126

Match the columns. 

SeasonMonth according to Indian calendar
(A)Vasanta(I)Chaitra-Vaisakha
(B)Grishma(II)Asvina-Kartika
(C)Varsha(III)Sravana-Bhadra
(D)Sharada(IV)Jayistha-Asadha
  1. AOption (a)

    A - I, B - IV, C - III, D - II

  2. BOption (b)

    A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I

  3. COption (c)

    A - IV, B - I, C - III, D - II

  4. DOption (d)

    A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A - I, B - IV, C - III, D - II

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

  • Vasanta is a Sanskrit term that is commonly used in Indian culture to refer to the spring season.
  • It is traditionally considered to begin in the Hindu calendar month of Chaitra and end in Vaisakha, which generally falls between March and May in the Gregorian calendar.
  • During this time, the weather becomes warmer, flowers bloom, and many festivals are celebrated, including Holi and Vaisakhi. So, yes, it can be said that Vasanta refers to the months of Chaitra-Vaisakha.

Additional Information

  • "Jayistha" and "Asadha" are two months in the Hindu lunar calendar, which typically fall between May and June and June and July, respectively.
  • They are part of the summer season or "Grishma" in the Hindu calendar.
  • "Varsha" is a Sanskrit term used in Hindu astrology and Indian calendars to refer to the rainy or monsoon season, which typically falls between mid-July to mid-September in the northern hemisphere. It is considered one of the six seasons in the Hindu calendar.
  • "Shravana" and "Bhadra" are two months in the Hindu lunar calendar, which typically fall between August and September and September and October, respectively. They are part of the Varsha or monsoon season in the Hindu calendar.
  • So, "Varsha" is a broader term that encompasses the monsoon season as a whole, while "Shravana" and "Bhadra" refer to specific months within that season.
  • ​In traditional Hindu astrology, the Sharad or Sharada season is the period that falls between the months of Ashwin and Kartik, which usually corresponds to the months of September to November in the Gregorian calendar.
  • This period is considered to be a time of transition from the hot and humid monsoon season to the cooler and more pleasant autumn season.
  • The Sharad season is associated with festivals such as Navratri, Durga Puja, and Diwali, which are celebrated throughout India and other parts of the world with large Hindu communities.

Question 127

Pushyamitra, who was the commander of Brihadratha, the last Mauryan emperor, killed the king and established a new dynasty. Which of the following was his dynasty?

  1. AOption (a)

    Shunga

  2. BOption (b)

    Kanva

  3. COption (c)

    Satavahana

  4. DOption (d)

    Chedi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Shunga

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1. 

Key Points

  • Pushyamitra, the commander of Brihadratha, established the Shunga dynasty after killing the last Mauryan emperor.
  • The Shunga dynasty ruled over North India from around 185 BCE to 73 BCE.
  • Pushyamitra is said to have been a Brahmin and a follower of Brahmanism, which may have played a role in his overthrow of the **Mauryan dynasty, which was associated with Buddhism.**​

Additional Information

  • The Kanva dynasty was a short-lived dynasty that ruled over the Magadha region of ancient India from around 73 BCE to 28 BCE.
  • It was founded by Vasudeva, a minister of the last Shunga emperor, who took advantage of a power vacuum to establish himself as the ruler of Magadha. The Kanva dynasty is considered to be a minor dynasty in Indian history, and little is known about its rulers and their accomplishments.
  • The most notable ruler of the Kanva dynasty was probably Bhumimitra, who is known for his inscriptions and for his patronage of Buddhism.
  • The Kanva dynasty was eventually overthrown by the Satavahanas, a dynasty from the Deccan region of India.
  • The Satavahana dynasty was a prominent ancient Indian dynasty that ruled over a large part of South and Central India.
  • The Satavahanas were known for their patronage of Buddhism and Hinduism, and their rule is considered to be a period of great cultural and economic prosperity in the region.
  • During their rule, the Satavahanas issued a large number of inscriptions, coins, and other artifacts, which have provided valuable insights into their culture, religion, and social and economic life.
  • They were also known for their contributions to architecture, literature, and art, including the creation of the famous Buddhist stupa at Amaravati.
  • ​The Chedi dynasty was an ancient Indian dynasty that ruled in the region of present-day Bundelkhand in central India.
  • The dynasty is believed to have been founded by Shishupala, who was a cousin of Lord Krishna.
  • The Chedi dynasty is mentioned in various ancient Hindu texts, including the Mahabharata and the Puranas.
  • The dynasty is said to have been one of the most powerful in ancient India and is believed to have flourished between the 6th century BCE and the 5th century CE.

Question 128

Match the columns. 

InstitutionsHeadquarters
(A)ICAR-Central Institute for Arid Horticulture(I)Bikaner
(B)ICAR-Central Institute of Cotton Research(II)Nagpur
(C)ICAR-National Rice Research Institute(III)Cuttack
(D)ICAR-Indian Institute of Horticultural Research(IV)Bengaluru
  1. AOption (a)

    A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

  2. BOption (b)

    A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III

  3. COption (c)

    A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

  4. DOption (d)

    A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1. 

Key Points

  • The headquarters of ICAR-Central Institute for Arid Horticulture is located in Bikaner, Rajasthan, India.
  • The institute was established in 1993 with the aim to enhance the production and productivity of horticultural crops in the arid and semi-arid regions of the country by developing suitable agro-technologies and varieties.

​

Additional Information

  • ICAR-Central Institute of Cotton Research (ICAR-CICR) is a premier national research institute located in Nagpur, Maharashtra, India. It was established in 1976 by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) with the aim of conducting research on cotton, which is one of the most important commercial crops in India.
  • The institute is responsible for conducting research on various aspects of cotton cultivation, such as genetic improvement, crop management, pest and disease management, post-harvest technology, and socio-economic issues related to cotton cultivation.
  • The research findings and technologies developed by the institute are disseminated to cotton farmers, extension workers, and other stakeholders in the cotton sector.
  • The ICAR-National Rice Research Institute (NRRI) is a research institution in India that is dedicated to the study of rice and its various aspects.
  • It is located in Cuttack, in the state of Odisha, and was established in 1946 as the Central Rice Research Institute (CRRI).
  • In 2017, it was renamed as the National Rice Research Institute.
  • The main objective of NRRI is to conduct research and development activities related to rice production, protection, and post-harvest management.
  • It aims to develop improved rice varieties and technologies to enhance rice production and productivity in India.
  • ​ICAR-Indian Institute of Horticultural Research (IIHR) is a research institute located in Bangalore, India, which operates under the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR).
  • It was established in 1967 with the objective of conducting research and development in horticultural crops and improving their productivity, quality, and post-harvest management.
  • IIHR has several research departments, including Crop Improvement, Crop Protection, Crop Production, and Post-harvest Management.
  • The institute is also involved in the development of new varieties of horticultural crops, including fruits, vegetables, flowers, and ornamental plants.
  • The institute conducts research on various aspects of horticulture, such as crop breeding, plant physiology, crop protection, plant biotechnology, soil science, and post-harvest technology.
  • It also offers training programs, workshops, and seminars for farmers, researchers, and industry professionals.
  • IIHR has collaborations with several national and international research institutions and universities, and it has been recognized as a center of excellence in horticulture.
  • The institute has contributed significantly to the development of the horticulture sector in India through its research, education, and extension activities.

Question 129

The Reserve Bank of India introduced a comprehensive regulatory framework for NBFC-MFI on ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    10 December 2015

  2. BOption (b)

    2 December 2011

  3. COption (c)

    8 December 2013

  4. DOption (d)

    5 December 2012

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2 December 2011

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2. 

Key Points

  • One key milestone in the evolution of this regulatory framework was the constitution of the committee under the Chairmanship of Shri Y. H. Malegam. Based on the recommendations of this Committee, RBI introduced a comprehensive regulatory framework for NBFC-MFIs in December 2011.
  • The regulations prescribed the eligibility criteria for microfinance loans which was linked to core features of microfinance i.e., lending of small amounts to borrowers belonging to low-income groups without collateral, with flexible repayment schedules. Besides, the regulations laid special emphasis on protection of borrowers and fair practices in lending such as transparency in charges, ceilings on margins and interest rates, non-coercive methods of recovery, measures to contain multiple lending and over-indebtedness.

​

Additional Information

  • Indian microfinance sector has witnessed phenomenal growth over past two decades in terms of increase in both – the number of institutions providing micro finance as also the quantum of credit made available to the micro finance customers.
  • Presently, micro credit is delivered through a variety of institutional channels viz., scheduled commercial banks (SCBs), regional rural banks (RRBs), cooperative banks, non-banking financial companies (NBFCs), Section 8 companies and microfinance institutions (MFIs) registered as NBFCs as well as in other forms. The small finance banks (SFBs) are the latest game in the town.
  • The institutional landscape of the microfinance sector has also changed significantly after licensing of Small Finance Banks. One out of two entities which was granted approval for starting a universal bank in 2014 was an NBFC-MFI, while eight out of ten entities granted approval for starting Small Finance Banks in 2016 were NBFC-MFIs.
  • This, apart from further consolidation in the sector, has led to significant changes in the market dynamics with the share of specialized MFIs standing at a little over 30 per cent as on June 30, 2021 in the overall gross loan portfolio of around ₹2.14 lakh crore in the sector. Thus, micro finance, as a financial activity can no longer said to be a bastion of specialized MFIs.
  • However, the current regulatory framework, which was put in place with the objective of making credit available to low-income households and to protect borrowers from harsh recovery practices of the lenders, is applicable only to NBFC-MFIs, whereas other lenders, who now have a share of around 70 per cent in the microfinance portfolio are not subjected to similar regulatory conditions.
  • This has created a non-level playing field, posing difficulties for customers and has resulted in emergence of differing practices within the sector. While one would have expected
  • that other lenders would also be guided by the intent of the abovementioned regulations applicable to NBFC- MFIs, that has not happened.
  • Mostly, there have been three distinct sets of criticisms against micro finance lenders –
  • They lead their borrowers into debt-trap like situations
  • They charge usurious rates of interest often disproportionate to their funding and operational costs
  • They deploy harsh recovery methods leading to distress amongst borrowers.
  • These are issues which need to be critically introspected and addressed by the lenders to prevent recurrence of the crisis episodes. The emerging dynamics in the microfinance sector as well as the concerns around customer protection therefore call for a review of the regulations so that all the regulated entities engaged in micro finance pursue the goal of customer protection within a well-calibrated and harmonized set-up.

Question 130

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Multi-State Co-operative Societies (Amendment) Bill, 2022?

A. The Lok Sabha referred this Bill to the joint committee of parliament comprising 21 members from the Lower House and 10 from the Upper House.

B. This Bill also proposed to establish a ‘Cooperative Election Authority’ to bring electoral reforms.

C. The Bill also has a Section — 63A that relates to ‘establishment of the Cooperative Rehabilitation, Reconstruction and Development Fund’ for revival of ‘sick multi-state cooperative societies’.

  1. AOption (a)

    A and B only

  2. BOption (b)

    B and C only

  3. COption (c)

    A, B and C

  4. DOption (d)

    A and C only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A, B and C

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3. 

Key Points

  • The Bill amends the Multi-State Co-operative Societies Act, 2002.
  • It establishes the Co-operative Election Authority to conduct and supervise elections to the boards of multi-state co-operative societies. A multi-state co-operative society will require prior permission of government authorities before the redemption of their shareholding.
  • A Co-operative Rehabilitation, Reconstruction and Development Fund will be established for the revival of sick multi-state co-operative societies. The Fund will be financed through contributions by profitable multi-state co-operative societies.
  • The Bill allows state co-operative societies to merge into an existing multi-state co-operative society, subject to the respective state laws.

Additional Information Key Features

  • Election of board members:
  • Under the Act, elections to the board of a multi-state co-operative society are conducted by its existing board.
  • The Bill amends this to specify that the central government will establish the Co-operative Election Authority to:
  • conduct such elections,
  • supervise, direct, and control the preparation of electoral rolls, and
  • perform other prescribed functions.
  • The Authority will consist of a chairperson, vice-chairperson, and up to three members appointed by the central government on the recommendations of a selection committee.
  • Amalgamation of co-operative societies:
  • The Act provides for the amalgamation and division of multi-state co-operative societies.
  • This can be done by passing a resolution at a general meeting with at least two-thirds of the members, present and voting.
  • The Bill allows state co-operative societies to merge into an existing multi-state co-operative society, subject to the respective state laws.
  • At least two-thirds of the members of the co-operative society present and voting at a general meeting must pass a resolution to allow such a merger.
  • Fund for sick co-operative societies:
  • The Bill establishes the Co-operative Rehabilitation, Reconstruction and Development Fund for revival of sick multi-state co-operative societies.  A sick multi-state co-operative society is one that has:
  • (i) accumulated losses equal to or exceeding the total of its paid-up capital, free reserves, and surpluses, and
  • (ii) suffered cash losses in the past two financial years.
  • The central government may prepare a scheme for rehabilitation and reconstruction of the society.  Multi-state co-operative societies that are in profit for the preceding three financial years shall finance the Fund.
  • They will deposit either one crore rupees or one percent of their net profit into the Fund, whichever is less.
  • Restriction on redemption of government shareholding:
  • The Act provides that the shares held in a multi-state co-operative society by certain government authorities can be redeemed based on the bye-laws of the society.
  • These government authorities include:
  • (i) the central government,
  • (ii) state governments,
  • (iii) the National Co-operative Development Corporation,
  • (iv) any corporation owned or controlled by the government, or
  • (v) any government company.
  • The Bill amends this to provide that any shares held by the central and state governments cannot be redeemed without their prior approval.
  • Redressal of complaints:
  • ​As per the Bill, the central government will appoint one or more Co-operative Ombudsman with territorial jurisdiction.
  • The Ombudsman shall inquire into complaints made by members of multi-state co-operative societies regarding:
  • (i) their deposits,
  • (ii) equitable benefits of the society’s functioning, or
  • (iii) issues affecting the individual rights of the members.
  • The Ombudsman shall complete the process of inquiry and adjudication within three months from the receipt of the complaint.  Appeals against the directions of the Ombudsman may be filed with the Central Registrar (who is appointed by the central government) within a month.

Computer Knowledge (20 questions)

Question 131

A ______ can either be malware or hardware. The main purpose of this malware is to record the keys pressed by a user on the keyboard.  

  1. AOption (a)

    Keyloggers 

  2. BOption (b)

    Roolkit  

  3. COption (c)

    Worm 

  4. DOption (d)

    ​Trojan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Keyloggers 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1.

Concept:

Keyloggers, also known as keystroke loggers, are software applications or hardware devices that record the activity (keys tapped) on a keyboard. Keyloggers are a type of spyware in which users are unaware that their actions are being recorded.

Spyware: Spyware is a type of malicious software or malware that is installed on a computing device without the end user's knowledge.

Keyloggers Characteristics:

  • Keyloggers are a type of malware.
  • Keyloggers are a particularly insidious type of spyware that can record and steal consecutive keystrokes (and much more) that the user enters on a device.
  • The term keylogger, or "keystroke logger," is self-explanatory: Software that logs what you type on your keyboard.
  • However, keyloggers can also enable cybercriminals to eavesdrop on you, watch you on your system camera, or listen over your smartphone's microphone.
  • Keyloggers may be used for a number of objectives, including fraudulently gaining access to your private information and monitoring staff actions. Some keyloggers may also record your screen at random intervals; these are known as screen recorders.
  • A keylogger is a malicious computer application that records everything you write on the keyboard and learns the keystroke pattern, including words, characters, and symbols, and then sends all of the recorded information to hostile hackers.

Hence the correct answer is option 1.

Question 132

A ______ port transmits one bit of a byte at a time as a single stream of bits. It is meant for transmitting slow data over long distances. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Parallel 

  2. BOption (b)

    Universal Serial Bus 

  3. COption (c)

    Serial 

  4. DOption (d)

    Display 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Serial 

Why this answer is correct

Serial Port

  • Serial ports transmit data one bit at a time, sequentially, over a single communication line. They are often used for slow data transfer over long distances because they are more reliable than parallel ports in such cases.
  • A serial port is a serial communication interface through which information transfers in or out one bit at a time (in contrast to a parallel port). Throughout most of the history of personal computers, data was transferred through serial ports to devices such as modems, terminals and various peripherals.
  • A serial port is a type of connection on a PC used for peripherals such as mice, gaming controllers, modems, and older printers. It is sometimes called a COM port or RS-232 port, which is its technical name. If this isn't enough to confuse you, there are two types of serial ports - DB9 and DB25. The DB9 is a 9-pin connection, and the DB25 is, you guessed it, a 25-pin connection.

Question 133

Which of the following is also known as a flash drive? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Disk Array 

  2. BOption (b)

    HDD

  3. COption (c)

    SSD

  4. DOption (d)

    Pen drive

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Pen drive

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Pen Drive.

Key Points 

  • A flash drive also known as a USB stick, USB thumb drive or pen drive is a plug-and-play portable storage device that uses flash memory and is lightweight enough to attach to a keychain.
  • A USB flash drive can be used in place of a compact disc.
  • When a user plugs the flash memory device into the USB port, the computer's operating system (OS) recognizes the device as a removable drive and assigns it a drive letter.​

Question 134

Which of the following keyboard shortcut is used to close a MS-Word 365 document? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Ctrl + F3 

  2. BOption (b)

    Alt + F3

  3. COption (c)

    Alt + F4

  4. DOption (d)

    Shift + F5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Alt + F4

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ALT + F4.

Key Points

  • It is one of the keyboard shortcuts that can be used to close a document in MS-Word 365.
  • This shortcut will close the active window in any application, including Word, which will also close the active document if it's the only document open.
  • However, if there are multiple documents open in Word, this shortcut will only close the active window, leaving the other documents open.
  • To close all documents and exit Word, you can use the keyboard shortcut ALT + F4 twice or use the combination CTRL + SHIFT + W.

Question 135

Which among the following is incorrect about cache memory?

  1. AOption (a)

    It is slower than the main memory. 

  2. BOption (b)

    It keeps the programs that can be run in a short amount of time. 

  3. COption (c)

    It acts as a high speed buffer between CPU and main memory. 

  4. DOption (d)

    It stores data in temporary use. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

It is slower than the main memory. 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

  • Cache memory is a small high-speed memory which is used to store a portion of the program or data from the main memory.
  • Cache memory is used for temporary storage.
  • The processor retrieves instruction or data from the cache memory.
  • Data kept in cache memory are frequently used.
  • It holds frequently requested data and instructions.
  • Cache memory increases the processing speed of the computer.
  • It is placed between the CPU and the main memory.
  • Cache memory acts as a bridge between CPU and RAM.
  • It is costlier than main memory or disk memory.
  • It will reduce the average time to access data from the Main memory.

Question 136

Which among the following keyboard shortcut can be used to open Windows Explorer? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Windows Key + E 

  2. BOption (b)

    Windows Key + R

  3. COption (c)

    Windows Key + X

  4. DOption (d)

    Windows Key + W

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Windows Key + E 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Windows Key+E.

Key Points 

  • Windows Key+E: This keyboard shortcut helps the user to open Windows Explorer (or File Explorer) in the Windows operating system.
  • Windows Key+R: This keyboard shortcut opens the "Run" dialog box, which allows you to quickly launch programs, open files, and access system tools by typing their names or commands.
  • ​Windows Key+X:  This keyboard shortcut opens the Quick Link menu or Power User Menu, which provides quick access to various system tools and settings, such as the Control Panel, Task Manager, Device Manager, File Explorer, and more. The exact contents of the Quick Link menu can vary depending on the version of Windows and any installed updates.
  • Windows Key+W: This keyboard shortcut helps the user to open the widget feature. It is applicable to Windows 11 version and more. ​

Thus, the correct answer is Windows Key+E.

Question 137

A _________ is a networking device that filters network traffic while connecting multiple computers or communicating devices. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Repeater

  2. BOption (b)

    Distributor

  3. COption (c)

    Switch

  4. DOption (d)

    Router

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Switch

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3, i.e., Switch.

Key Points

  • Connecting device:
  • Devices that are used to connect other devices are called connecting devices. Types of connecting devices are:
  • Repeater: 
  • A repeater is a device that receives signals and before it becomes too weak or corrupted the repeater regenerates the original bit pattern and sends the data.
  • It is like a refreshing station for data while travelling.
  • Hub:
  • A hub is a multiport repeater.
  • A hub can connect more than two segments of a LAN where a repeater can connect only two segments.
  • It also does not have any filtering capabilities like a repeater.
  • Bridge:
  • A bridge operates in both the physical layer and the data link layer.
  • As a physical layer device, it can regenerate bits and as a data link layer device, it can check the physical addresses contained in the frame.
  • Bits can be carried to any distance by using properly spaced repeaters, but the collision domain will not allow this and that’s why brides are required.
  • Router:
  • A router is a three-layer device; physical, data link and network layer.
  • As a physical layer device, it can regenerate a bit, as a data link layer device the router can check the physical addresses contained in a packet and as a network layer device, it can check the network layer addresses (addresses in IP layer).
  • Switch:
  • ​A switch is a networking device that connects multiple devices together and filters network traffic to ensure that data is sent to the correct destination.
  • It operates at the data link layer of the OSI model, and it uses the physical addresses (MAC addresses) of devices to make forwarding decisions. Switches are commonly used in local area networks (LANs) to connect computers, printers, and other devices.

Additional Information 

  • Connecting devices are bridges between the different parts of a document that tie all of the pieces together into one coherent package.
  • Connecting devices show the reader how various sections of information are related, and they help keep the reader on track with the flow of information.
  • Documents which do not include connecting devices are disjointed, choppy and difficult to read.
  • Connecting devices are analogous to the traffic signals people rely on when driving.
  • Imagine a major metropolitan area, such as Seattle, without bridges, traffic signs or traffic lights to guide drivers through traffic.
  • The same is true of a document that lacks connecting devices: the reader will have a difficult time following the writer's train of thought and the document will not flow smoothly.

 

Note: Distributor is not a common networking term, but it could refer to a device that distributes power or signals to multiple devices.

Question 138

_______ server acts as a set of components accessible to the software developer through an API defined by the platform itself.

  1. AOption (a)

    Application 

  2. BOption (b)

    Mail 

  3. COption (c)

    File Transfer Protocol (FTP) 

  4. DOption (d)

    Database  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Application 

Why this answer is correct

Application Server

  • An application server is a type of middleware server that provides a set of services and components accessible to software developers through an API defined by the platform itself.
  • The primary function of an application server is to host and run applications, allowing them to be accessed by clients over a network.
  • Application servers typically provide a range of services such as database connectivity, transaction management, security, and messaging.
  • They also provide a platform for the deployment and execution of server-side applications written in various programming languages such as Java, .NET, Python, and Ruby, among others.
  • Examples of application servers include Apache Tomcat, JBoss, IBM WebSphere, and Oracle WebLogic, among others.

Mail servers, FTP servers, and database servers also provide services accessible through APIs, but they are not typically considered "application servers" as they have more specific functions and are designed to perform different tasks.

Hence the correct answer is option 1.

Question 139

A ______ is a contagious program or code that attaches itself to another piece of software and then reproduces itself when that software is run. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Trojan

  2. BOption (b)

    virus

  3. COption (c)

    adware

  4. DOption (d)

    spyware

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

virus

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Virus

Key Points 

  • A computer virus is similar to a flu virus, is sketched to spread from host to host and has the ability to replicate itself.
  • In more practical terms, a computer virus is a type of malevolent code or program written to alter the way a computer operates and is designed to spread from one computer to another.
  • A computer virus is a type of malicious software (malware) that replicates itself by attaching to other programs or files on a computer and then spreads to other computers when those infected files are shared or transferred.
  • A virus is corporate by inserting or attaching itself to a lawful program or document that supports macros in order to execute its code.
  • In the procedure, a virus has the prospective to cause unannounced or damaging effects, such as harming the system software by corrupting or destroying data.

Additional Information 

  • Common types of Computer Viruses are:
  • File Infecting Virus
  • Macro Virus
  • Browser Hijacker
  • Web Scripting Virus
  • Boot Sector Virus
  • Polymorphic Virus
  • Resident Virus
  • Multipartite Virus.

Question 140

Which among the following keyboard shortcuts open the properties for the selected item on a Windows 10 home screen? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Alt + Shift + Spacebar  

  2. BOption (b)

    Ctrl + Shift + Spacebar  

  3. COption (c)

    Alt + Enter  

  4. DOption (d)

    Ctrl + Enter  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Alt + Enter  

Why this answer is correct

The keyboard shortcut that opens the properties for the selected item on a Windows 10 home screen is:

Alt + Enter

Pressing Alt + Enter while an item is selected (such as a file or folder) will open its properties window. This keyboard shortcut can be used in Windows Explorer/File Explorer, on the desktop, or in any other folder window.

The other keyboard shortcuts mentioned in your question are not associated with opening the properties of a selected item.

  • Alt + Shift + Spacebar is used to minimize or maximize the current window.
  • Ctrl + Shift + Spacebar is used to select the entire column of data in Excel.
  • Ctrl + Enter is used to insert a line break within a cell in Excel.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Question 141

Which of the following shortcut key is used to quickly create a new, blank workbook in MS-Excel 2010? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Ctrl + N

  2. BOption (b)

    Alt +shift + W 

  3. COption (c)

    Alt + shift +N 

  4. DOption (d)

    Ctrl + W  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Ctrl + N

Why this answer is correct

The correct shortcut key to quickly create a new, blank workbook in MS-Excel 2010 is: Ctrl + N

Explanation:

  • Pressing the Ctrl + N keys together is a shortcut to quickly create a new, blank workbook in MS-Excel 2010.
  • This shortcut key combination opens a new workbook without opening the backstage view, which is the view that appears when you click on the File tab in Excel.

Additional Information

  • Option 2, Alt + Shift + W is used to open the View tab in the ribbon.
  • Option 3, Alt + Shift + N is not a valid shortcut key combination in MS-Excel 2010.
  • Option 4, Ctrl + W is used to close the current workbook or window in MS-Excel 2010.

Question 142

________ is a reading device that reads printed text by scanning it character by character. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Track Ball 

  2. BOption (b)

    Digitizer 

  3. COption (c)

    Magnetic Ink Card Reader (MICR) 

  4. DOption (d)

    Optical Character Reader (OCR) 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Optical Character Reader (OCR) 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Optical character reader.​

Key Points 

  • OCR (Optical Character Recognition) also called Optical Character Reader is a system that provides full alphanumeric recognition of printed or handwritten characters at electronic speed by simply scanning the form.
  • More recently, the term Intelligent Character Recognition (ICR) has been used to describe the process of interpreting image data, in particular alphanumeric text.​
  • An Optical Character Reader (OCR) is a reading device that can read printed text by scanning it character by character.
  • The OCR technology works by analyzing patterns in the text and recognizing the characters.
  • OCR devices are commonly used to convert printed documents into digital text that can be edited and manipulated in a word processor or other software applications.
  • OCR is a popular technology used in document management, data entry, and automated indexing systems

Additional Information

  • A plotter is a computer hardware device much like a printer that is used for printing vector graphics.
  • Instead of toner, plotters use a pen, pencil, marker, or another writing tool to draw multiple, continuous lines onto the paper rather than a series of dots like a traditional printer.
  • A barcode reader (or barcode scanner) is an optical scanner that can read printed barcodes, decode the data contained in the barcode and send the data to a computer.
  • Like a flatbed scanner, it consists of a light source, a lens, and a light sensor translating optical impulses into electrical signals.
  • A scanner is an input device that scans documents such as photographs and pages of text. 
  • This creates an electronic version of the document that can be viewed and edited on a computer.
  • When a document is scanned, it is converted into a digital format.
  • Option 1, Track Ball is an input device used for pointing, similar to a computer mouse. It is a small, handheld device with a ball on top that is rotated by the user's fingers to move the on-screen pointer.
  • Option 2, Digitizer is a device that converts analog signals into digital signals. In computing, digitizers are commonly used to convert analog signals from devices such as microphones and cameras into digital signals that can be processed by a computer.
  • Option 3, Magnetic Ink Card Reader (MICR) is a device that can read characters printed with magnetic ink. MICR technology is commonly used to read the numbers and characters on checks and other financial documents.

Question 143

Consider the following statement about the MATCH () function of MS-Excel 2010:

P: It searches for a specified item in a range of cells, and then returns the relative position of that item in the range.

Q: The MATCH function syntax is MATCH(lookup_value, lookup _array, [match_type])

R: All the arguments in a MATCH() function are required.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true

  1. AOption (a)

    Only Q

  2. BOption (b)

    All P, Q, R

  3. COption (c)

    Only P and R

  4. DOption (d)

    Only P and Q

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Only P and Q

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Only P and Q

Explanation:

  • P: This statement is true. The MATCH() function in MS Excel searches for a specified item in a range of cells and returns the relative position of that item in the range.
  • Q: This statement is also true. The syntax for the MATCH() function in MS Excel is MATCH(lookup_value, lookup_array, [match_type]). The lookup_value argument specifies the value to search for, the lookup_array argument specifies the range of cells to search, and the match_type argument specifies the type of match to perform (exact match or approximate match).
  • R: This statement is false. The lookup_value and lookup_array arguments are required, but the match_type argument is optional. If you omit the match_type argument, Excel assumes an exact match.

Question 144

Which among the following statements is incorrect about Central Processing Unit?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Control Unit controls the order in which instructions enter and leave the processor and how the instructions are executed.

  2. BOption (b)

    Arithmetic Logic Unit is responsible for taking the input, converting it into a signal, and storing it for further processing. 

  3. COption (c)

    Arithmetic Logic Unit is also known as the mathematical brain of a computer. 

  4. DOption (d)

    Control Unit directs and manages operation sequences. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Arithmetic Logic Unit is responsible for taking the input, converting it into a signal, and storing it for further processing. 

Why this answer is correct

The incorrect statement is: Arithmetic Logic Unit is responsible for taking the input, converting it into a signal, and storing it for further processing.

Explanation:

  • This statement 2 is incorrect. The Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU) is not responsible for taking the input, converting it into a signal, and storing it for further processing.
  • Rather, the ALU is responsible for performing arithmetic and logical operations on data, such as addition, subtraction, and comparisons.

Additional Information

  • This statement 1 is correct. The control unit is responsible for controlling the order in which instructions enter and leave the processor, and how the instructions are executed.
  • This statement 3 is correct. The Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU) is often referred to as the mathematical brain of a computer because it is responsible for performing the arithmetic and logical operations that are necessary for processing data.
  • This statement 4 is correct. The control unit directs and manages operation sequences by fetching instructions from memory, decoding them, and executing them in the correct order. The control unit also manages the flow of data between the CPU and other parts of the computer system.

Question 145

Which among the following registers in Instruction Cycle holds the last instruction fetched? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Memory Address Register (MAR) 

  2. BOption (b)

    Instruction Register (IR) 

  3. COption (c)

    Program Counter (PC) 

  4. DOption (d)

    Memory Buffer Register (MBR) 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Instruction Register (IR) 

Why this answer is correct

Correct Answer :- Instruction Register (IR)

Instruction Register (IR):

  • The IR holds the instruction which is just about to be executed.
  • The instruction from the PC is fetched and stored in IR.
  • As soon as the instruction is placed in IR, the CPU starts executing the instruction, and the PC points to the next instruction to be executed.

Additional Information

Control register: A control register is a processor register that changes or controls the general behaviour of a CPU or other digital device. Common tasks performed by control registers include interrupting control, switching the addressing mode, paging control, and coprocessor control.

<br>

Memory Address Registers (MAR): It holds the address of the location to be accessed from memory. MAR and MDR (Memory Data Register) together facilitate the communication of the CPU and the main memory.

<br>

Memory Data Registers (MDR):

It contains data to be written into or to be read out from the addressed location.

<br>

General Purpose Registers:

These are numbered as R0, R1, R2….Rn-1, and used to store temporary data during any ongoing operation. Its content can be accessed by assembly programming. Modern CPU architectures tend to use more GPR so that register-to-register addressing can be used more, which is comparatively faster than other addressing modes.

<br>

Program Counter (PC): Program Counter (PC) is used to keep the track of the execution of the program. It contains the memory address of the next instruction to be fetched. PC points to the address of the next instruction to be fetched from the main memory when the previous instruction has been successfully completed. Program Counter (PC) also functions to count the number of instructions. The incrementation of PC depends on the type of architecture being used. If we are using a 32-bit architecture, the PC gets incremented by 4 every time to fetch the next instruction.

<br>

Condition code register ( CCR ): Condition code registers contain different flags that indicate the status of any operation. For instance, let's suppose an operation caused the creation of a negative result or zero, then these flags are set high accordingly. and the flags are:

  • Carry C: Set to 1 if an add operation produces a carry or a subtract operation produces a borrow; otherwise cleared to 0.
  • Overflow V: Useful only during operations on signed integers.
  • Zero Z: Set to 1 if the result is 0, otherwise cleared to 0.
  • Negate N: Meaningful only in signed number operations. Set to 1 if a negative result is produced.
  • Extend X: Functions as a carry for multiple-precision arithmetic operations.

Question 146

In Gmail, what do you use when you receive mail and want to send the mail in response to the same mail and to the original sender only?

  1. AOption (a)

    Forward 

  2. BOption (b)

    Both Reply and Forward 

  3. COption (c)

    Reply All 

  4. DOption (d)

    Reply 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Reply 

Why this answer is correct

You should use the option "Reply" when you receive an email in Gmail and want to send a response to the original sender only.

Explanation:

  • "Reply" is the option you should choose when you want to respond to the original sender of an email only.
  • When you click "Reply", Gmail will automatically populate the "To" field with the email address of the person who sent you the email.
  • You can then type your response and send it directly to that person.

Additional Information

  • "Forward" is used to send an email to someone who was not originally included in the email thread. When you forward an email, you can add new recipients, modify the subject line or add additional comments.
  • "Both Reply and Forward" is not an option in Gmail. However, you can reply to an email and then forward that reply to someone else.
  • "Reply All" is used when you want to send a response to the original sender and all the other recipients of the original email. Use this option only when you want everyone on the email thread to see your response.

Question 147

Which of the following is not a magnetic disk?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Disk pack 

  2. BOption (b)

    DVD 

  3. COption (c)

    Winchester disk 

  4. DOption (d)

    Zip disk 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

DVD 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: DVD is not a magnetic disk.

Explanation:

  • DVD (Digital Versatile Disc) is not a magnetic disk.
  • It is an optical disc that uses laser technology to read and write data.
  • DVDs are used for storing and playing back video and audio content, as well as data storage.

Additional Information

  • Disk pack is a type of magnetic disk that consists of multiple disks stacked on top of each other and enclosed in a protective case. Each disk has a magnetic coating that stores data. Disk packs were commonly used in early computer systems and were typically large and bulky.
  • Winchester disk, also known as a hard disk drive (HDD), is a type of magnetic disk that uses one or more rotating disks with magnetic coatings to store data. Hard disk drives are commonly used in modern computers and other electronic devices for storing large amounts of data.
  • Zip disk is a type of magnetic disk that was popular in the late 1990s and early 2000s. It used a similar technology to floppy disks but had a higher storage capacity. Zip disks were commonly used for data backup and transfer, but have largely been replaced by USB flash drives and cloud storage.

Question 148

Which of the following buttons are present in the Quick Access Toolbar by default in MS-Word 2010? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Undo, Redo, Name 

  2. BOption (b)

    Undo, Redo, Cut 

  3. COption (c)

    Paste, Redo, Copy 

  4. DOption (d)

    Save, Undo, Redo 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Save, Undo, Redo 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Save, Undo, Redo ​

Key Points:

  • The Quick Access Toolbar on the top left corner of the MS-Word 2010 consists of Save options.
  • The Quick Access Toolbar is located next to the Microsoft Office button.
  • It is a customizable toolbar that comes with a set of independent commands.
  • It gives you quick access to commonly used commands like save, undo, redo etc.

Question 149

Which among the following statements is incorrect? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Memory is required in the webserver to downloading anything. 

  2. BOption (b)

    Uploading is a procedure for copying data from the device to the webserver. 

  3. COption (c)

    Data travels from user’s device to the web server while uploading. 

  4. DOption (d)

    Downloading is a procedure of copying files from the webserver to the machine. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Memory is required in the webserver to downloading anything. 

Why this answer is correct

Memory is required in the webserver to downloading anything.

Explanation:

  • This statement is 1 incorrect. Memory in the webserver is not required for downloading anything.
  • When a user requests a file or webpage from a web server, the server sends the data to the user's device, where it is stored in the device's memory, not the webserver's memory.
  • The webserver's memory is used to handle the request and generate the response, but it does not store the downloaded data.

Additional Information

  • This statement 2 is correct. Uploading is the process of copying data from the user's device to the web server. For example, a user can upload a file to a web server by selecting the file from their device and using a form to submit the file to the server.
  • This statement 3 is correct. During uploading, data travels from the user's device to the web server. The data is transmitted over the internet using protocols such as HTTP or FTP.
  • This statement 4 is correct. Downloading is the process of copying files from the web server to the user's device. For example, a user can download a file from a web server by clicking a link or button on a webpage. The file is then copied from the web server to the user's device.

Question 150

Which of the following Internet protocol specifies how data is exchanged over the Internet and how it should be broken into IP packets? 

  1. AOption (a)

    PPP

  2. BOption (b)

    HTTP

  3. COption (c)

    TCP

  4. DOption (d)

    SMTP

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

TCP

Why this answer is correct

TCP / IP model is a communications protocol to interconnect network devices on the internet. TCP / IP model has 4 layers.

The four layers are as follows:

  • Application layer
  • Transport layer
  • Internet layer
  • Network access layer

The presentation layer is absent in the TCP / IP model.

Various Protocols and the layers on which they work in TCP/IP model is shown:

 

  • TCP/IP model has 4 layers while the OSI model has 7 layers.
  • These 7 Layers of OSI are the application layer, the presentation layer, the session layer, the transport layer, the network layer, the data-link layer, and the physical layer.
  • The presentation layer is absent in the TCP/IP model while it is present in the OSI model.

150 questions in the full paper