SSC CGL 2023 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 14 Jul 2023 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (First number number + 1) × Second number = Third number

• (9, 3, 30)  → (9 + 1) × 3 = 10 × 3 = 30
• (10, 3, 33) → (10 + 1) × 3 = 11 × 3 = 33

Similarly,

• (12, 3, 39) → (12 + 1) × 3 = 13 × 3 = 39

Hence, '(12, 3, 39)' is the correct answer.

The figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series is shown below:

Hence, ‘option 4’ is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, 'XKTX' is the correct answer.

1. MNODROMD → R M N OD / RMN O D / R MN O D / R M NO D
2. MNODRODM → R M N OD / RMN O D / R MN O D / R D NO M
3. NMODROMD → R N M OD / RMN O D / R MN O D / R M NO D
4. MNDOROMD → R M N OD / RMN D O / R MN O D / R M NO D

• In option 1, RMNOD is repeated.

Hence, ‘MNODROMD’ is the correct answer.

The figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series is:

In the below given figure, the arrangement changes its position by rotating 90° clockwise.

In the below given figure, the arrangement changes its position by rotating 90° anti-clockwise.

 

Hence, ‘option 1’ is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (First number)² - (Second number ÷ 2)3 = Third number

• (12, 8, 80) → 12² - (8 ÷ 2)³ = 144 - 4³ = 144 - 64 = 80
• (16, 10, 131) → 162 - (10 ÷ 2)3 = 256 - 53 = 256 - 125 = 131

Similarly,

• (9, 6, 54) → 92 - (6 ÷ 2)3 = 81 - 33 = 81 - 27 = 54

Hence, '(9, 6, 54)' is the correct answer.

The option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary is:

1. Pancakes
2. Pancreas
3. Pandemic
4. Panicked
5. Panorama
6. Panther 

Hence, '1, 4, 2, 3, 5, 6' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: First one is wore on the second one.

• Anklet : Ankle → An anklet is wore on ankle.

Similarly,

• Bracelet → A bracelet is wore on wrist.

Hence, 'Wrist' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: First number = (Second number)² × (Second number ÷ 2)

• 864 ∶ 12 → 12² × (12 ÷ 2) = 144 × 6 = 864
• 1372 ∶ 14 → 142 × (14 ÷ 2) = 196 × 7 = 1372

Similarly,

• 2048 ∶ ? → 162 × (16 ÷ 2) = 256 × 8 = 2048

Hence, '16' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is :-  Opposite Alphabet -1

 

• ​

• 

Similarly,

• 

Hence, 'VOH' is the correct answer.

The correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN is shown below:

Hence, 'option 3' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: First letter + 2 = Second letter; Second letter + 4 = Third letter; Third letter + 2 = Fourth letter 

1. DFJL → D + 2 = F; F + 4 = J; J + 2 = L
2. KMOQ → K + 2 = M; M + 2 = O; O + 2 = Q
3. ACGI → A + 2 = C; C + 4 = G; G + 2 = I
4. HJNP → H + 2 = J; J + 4 = N; N + 2 = P

Hence, 'KMOQ' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

• 
• 

Similarly,

• 

Hence, 'TILFP' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (First number × 3 + 1) + Second number = Third number

• First row - 8, 28, 53 → (8 × 3 + 1) + 28 = (24 + 1) + 28 = 25 + 28 = 53
• Second row - 7, 25, 47 → (7 × 3 + 1) + 25 = (21 + 1) + 25 = 22 + 25 = 47

Similarly,

• Third row - 13, 43, ? → (13 × 3 + 1) + 43 = (39 + 1) + 43 = 40 + 43 = 83

Hence, '83' is the correct answer.

Alternate Method

Logic:- (Second number - first number) × 3 - 7 = Third number

The logic followed here is:

Logic: First number - Second number = 4321

1. 6286 ∶ 1965 → 6286 - 1965 = 4321
2. 6571 ∶ 2448 → 6571 - 2448 = 4123
3. 8247 ∶ 3926 → 8247 - 3926 = 4321
4. 6903 ∶ 2582 → 6903 - 2582 = 4321

Hence, '6571 ∶ 2448' is the correct answer.

The code for each letter is shown below:

Clearly, '8'  is the code for 'M' in the given code language.

Hence, '8' is the correct answer.

Alternate Method 

Now, 

ZEAL and LAME have common letters A, E, L and the coding for the respective letters are same in both the words: 9, 4, 6.

So, Z is coded as 7 and M is coded as 8.

Hence the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

1. J U K L K W J → L T K J H / L U K J H / L V K J H / L W K J H
2. I U K L K W J → L T K I H / L U K J H / L V K J H / L W K J H
3. I U K M K W J → L T K I H / L U K J H / M V K J H / L W K J H
4. J U K L K X J → L T K J H / L U K J H / L V K J H / L X K J H

• In option 1, a pattern is being repeated. 
• First and last three letters are same when the sequence is divided into four equal parts.
• Second letter follows the pattern: T + 1 = U; U + 1 = V; V + 1 = W

Hence, ‘J U K L K W J’ is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (First number + Second number) × (2/3) = Third number

• (82, 35, 78) → (82 + 35) × (2/3) = 117 × (2/3) = 78
• (18, 27, 30) → (18 + 27) × (2/3) = 45 × (2/3) = 30

Similarly,

• (27, 33, 40) → (27 + 33) × (2/3) = 60 × (2/3) = 40

Hence, '(27, 33, 40)' is the correct answer.

Q $R @ S * T$ Z → Q is daughter of R, R is father of S, S is brother of T, T is daughter of Z

By using the symbols in the table given below, we can draw the following family tree:

Clearly, Z is mother of Q.

Hence, ‘Mother’ is the correct answer$.

11 - 14 + 9 × 3 ÷ 104

After replacing the symbols by their meaning, we get:

11 × 14 - 9 ÷ 3 + 104

= 154 - 3 + 104

= 258 - 3

= 255

Hence, ‘255’ is the correct answer.

1. -, +, ÷, ×, =

86 - 54 + 34 ÷ 68 × 2 = 33 

⇒ 86 - 54 + 0.5 × 2 = 33

⇒ 86 - 54 + 1 = 33

⇒ 87 - 54 = 33

⇒ 33 = 33

2. ÷, -, +, ×, =

86 ÷ 54 - 34 + 68 × 2 = 33 

⇒ 1.59 - 34 + 136 = 33 

⇒ 137.59 - 34 = 33 

⇒ 103.59 ≠ 33 

3. ×, ÷, ×, -, =

86 × 54 ÷ 34 × 68 - 2 = 33 

⇒ 86 × 1.58 × 68 - 2 = 33 

⇒ 9239.84 - 2 = 33 

⇒ 9237.84 ≠ 33 

4. +, ÷, ×, -, =

86 + 54 ÷ 34 × 68 - 2 = 33 

⇒ 86 + 1.58 × 68 - 2 = 33 

⇒ 86 + 107.44 - 2 = 33 

⇒ 193.44 - 2 = 33

⇒ 191.44 ≠ 33

Hence, ‘-, +, ÷, ×, =’ is the correct answer.

The correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at AB is shown below:

Hence, 'option 3' is the correct answer.

The least possible Venn diagram is:

Conclusions:

I. Some flowers are balls. → Follows (As, All balls are flowers)

II. Some plates are flowers. → Follows (As, All flowers are plates)

III. All cups are plates. → Does not follow (As, Some plates are cups → Some cups are plates)

Hence, 'Only conclusions I and II follow' is the correct answer.

The answer figures which is the exact mirror image of the given problem figure when the mirror is held at the right side is:

Hence, 'option 1' is the correct answer.

 

As Red and White are the common faces on both the dice, the remaining faces Black and Blue are opposite to each other.

Hence, ‘Black’ is the correct answer.

The correct answer is Kamakhya.

Key Points

• Ambubachi Mela (Fair):-
• It is held in Kamakhya temple, which is located in Guwahati, Assam.
• The fair is celebrated during the monsoon season, usually in the month of June or July, and marks the annual menstruation of the goddess Kamakhya.
• During the fair, the temple remains closed for three days, and devotees are not allowed to worship the deity.
• After three days, the temple is reopened, and devotees offer prayers and seek blessings.
• The fair attracts a large number of devotees from all over India and abroad, and is considered one of the most important festivals in North-East India.

Additional Information

• Dakshineswar Kali temple:-
• It​ is located in Kolkata, West Bengal, and is famous for its association with Sri Ramakrishna Paramahamsa.
• Bhuvaneswari temple:-
• It is located in Odisha, and is dedicated to the goddess Bhuvaneswari.
• Billeswar temple:-
• It is located in Assam, and is dedicated to Lord Shiva.

The correct answer is Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh, Bihar.

Key Points

• 2001-2011 Census of India:-
• The 2001-2011 Census of India was the 14^th and 15^th censuses of India, respectively. The 2001 census was conducted on February 1, 2001, and the 2011 census was conducted on March 1, 2011.
• Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh, Bihar recorded a very high population growth rate during the 2001-2011 Census of India.
• Meghalaya recorded the highest population growth rate of 27.8% during this time period.
• Arunachal Pradesh recorded a population growth rate of 25.9% which was the second highest in the country.
• Bihar also recorded a high population growth rate of 25.1% during this time period.
• Sikkim, Rajasthan, Haryana, West Bengal, and other states did not record as high population growth rates during the 2001-2011 Census of India.

The correct answer is Gomat.

Key Points

• Gomat:-
• A wealthy person in the early Vedic period was known as Gomat.
• Gomat was a term used to describe a rich and influential person in the society.
• The term Gomat was derived from the Sanskrit word 'gomati' which means possessing or having cows.
• Cows were considered a symbol of wealth and prosperity in the Vedic period, and owning a large number of cows was a sign of a person's wealth and status.

Additional Information

• Duhitri:
• It is a term used to describe a daughter in the Vedic period.
• Gaveshna:
• ​It is not a term found in the Vedic texts.
• Ravi:
• ​ It is a Sanskrit word that means 'sun' and is also the name of a Vedic deity.
• The Vedic period in ancient India lasted from around 1500 BCE to 500 BCE and was characterized by the development of the Vedic religion, which was based on the Vedas, a collection of ancient Hindu scriptures.

The correct answer is 10^th.

Key Points

Medical Tourism Index (MTI):-

• It is a biannual ranking of international healthcare destinations based on American perceptions.
• It is developed by the International Healthcare Research Center (IHRC) and is based on a survey of over 2,000 Americans.
• The MTI ranks countries on a scale of 1 to 100, with a higher score indicating a more attractive medical tourism destination.
• India has been ranked 10^th in the Medical Tourism Index (MTI) for 2020-21 out of 46 destinations by the Medical Tourism Association.
• The following are the reasons why India is ranked 10^th:  
• India offers world-class medical facilities and highly skilled doctors at affordable prices.
• The country has a well-developed healthcare infrastructure with advanced technology and modern equipment.
• India is also known for its traditional and alternative forms of medicine such as Ayurveda, Yoga, and Naturopathy.
• The government has also taken initiatives to promote medical tourism in the country by easing visa rules and providing incentives to medical tourists.

Additional Informatio

• If India was ranked 15^th, it would still be a decent ranking considering the number of destinations on the list.
• If India was ranked 20^th, it would be a lower ranking and may indicate that the country needs to improve its medical tourism facilities and services.
• If India was ranked 5^th, it would be a higher ranking and would indicate that the country is a top destination for medical tourism.

The correct answer is Nagaland.

Key Points

• Japfu range:-
• It is located in Nagaland, which is one of the Northeastern states of India.
• The range is situated near the town of Kohima, which is the capital city of Nagaland.
• Japfu peak is the highest point in the range, and it offers a breathtaking view of the surrounding valleys and hills.
• The range is known for its rich biodiversity and is home to many rare and endangered species of plants and animals.

Additional Information

• Assam is a neighboring state of Nagaland, located towards the west.
• It is known for its tea plantations, wildlife sanctuaries, and historical sites.
• Arunachal Pradesh is another neighboring state of Nagaland, located towards the east.
• It is known for its scenic beauty, diverse culture, and adventure activities like trekking and rafting.
• Meghalaya is a state located southwest of Nagaland.
• It is known for its beautiful waterfalls, caves, and living root bridges.

The correct answer is Mallika Sarabhai.

Key Points

• Mallika Sarabhai:-
• ​She is a renowned Indian classical dancer, choreographer, and actress.
• She has won several awards and accolades for her contribution to the performing arts.
• She bagged the best actress award for Meena Gurjari in 1975.
• Meena Gurjari is a Gujarati movie based on the life of Meena Patel, a legendary Gujarati folk singer.​

Additional Information

• Sonal Mansingh is also a well-known Indian classical dancer and choreographer.
• She has been honored with various awards, including the Padma Vibhushan, the second-highest civilian award in India.
• Sitara Devi was a legendary Kathak dancer and actress.
• She was also a recipient of several awards, including the Padma Shri and the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award.
• Shovana Narayan is another popular Indian classical dancer and choreographer.
• She has been awarded the Padma Shri and the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award for her contribution to the performing arts.

The correct answer is Bharatanatyam.

Key Points

• Urmila Satyanarayanan:-
• She​ is an exponent of Bharatanatyam, which is a classical dance form originating from Tamil Nadu, India.
• Bharatanatyam:-
• Bharatanatyam is a major Indian classical dance form that originated in Tamil Nadu.
• It is one of the eight Indian classical dance forms recognized by the Sangeet Natak Akademi.
• Bharatanatyam is a highly expressive dance form that combines graceful movements, intricate footwork, and expressive gestures to tell stories and convey emotions.

Additional Information

• Kathak:-
• It is another Indian classical dance form that originated in northern India and is known for its fast footwork and graceful movements.
• Manipuri:-
• It is a classical dance form from Manipur, a northeastern state of India, that is characterized by its gentle and fluid movements.
• Sattriya:-
• It is a classical dance form from Assam, a northeastern state of India, that is characterized by its devotional and spiritual themes and is performed by monks in monasteries.

The correct answer is 1858.

Key Points

• In 1858, the British government passed the Government of India Act, which transferred the administration of India from the East India Company to the British Crown.
• As a result, the Secretary of State for India was made responsible for the Government of British India by bringing about changes in the Home Government.
• This act also abolished the East India Company and established the British Raj in India.

Additional Information

• 1833:
• This was the year when the Charter Act was passed, which abolished the monopoly of the East India Company in the trade with India.
• 1857:
• This was the year of the Indian Rebellion of 1857, which led to the end of the rule of the East India Company in India but did not result in significant changes in the administration of India.
• 1813:
• This was the year when the Charter Act was passed, which made some minor changes in the administration of India but did not transfer the responsibility of the Government of India to the Secretary of State for India.

The correct answer is NW-2.

Key Points

• NW-2:-
• It stands for National Waterway 2.
• NW-2 is a waterway that connects mainland India with Bangladesh through the India-Bangladesh Protocol route.
• It is a 891 km long waterway that runs along the Brahmaputra river from Sadiya in Assam to Dhubri, and then along the river Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river system from Haldia in West Bengal to Kolkata.

Additional Information

• NW-10 refers to National Waterway 10, which is the Amba river in Maharashtra.
• NW-15 refers to National Waterway 15, which is the Bakreswar-Mayurakshi River system in West Bengal.
• NW-83 refers to National Waterway 83, which is the Rajpuri creek in Maharashtra.

The correct answer is 1988.

Key Points

• The correct answer is option 4, i.e. 1988, as India became the first team to beat Australia at the Gabba since the West Indies in 1988.
• The Indian cricket team's victory at Gabba in 2021 is considered historic as Australia had not lost a Test match at the Gabba since 1988.
• The other options given in the question are not correct as Australia had lost Test matches in Brisbane before 1996, 1992, and 1990.
• The West Indies team was the last team to beat Australia at the Gabba before India, in the year 1988.
• The Indian cricket team's victory at Gabba in 2021 was also significant as they were playing without their regular captain and several key players due to injuries.
• Hence, the statement in the question is correct, and India became the only cricket team to defeat Australia in Brisbane since 1988.

The correct answer is 42^nd.

Key Points

• The Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution of India by the 42^nd Amendment in 1976.
• The amendment was brought in during the emergency period and was a response to the perceived breakdown of civic sense and morality in the country.
• The Fundamental Duties are a set of moral obligations that are expected of every citizen of India, and they were added to the Constitution to promote national unity and a sense of responsibility among citizens.
• The Fundamental Duties are not enforceable by law, but they serve as a reminder of the responsibilities that citizens have towards their country and their fellow citizens.

Additional Information

• The other options given in the question are not correct.
• The 73^rd Amendment was related to Panchayati Raj,
• The 34^th Amendment was related to the land tenure and land reform acts of various states in the Ninth Schedule.
• The 44^th Amendment was related to the power of the Parliament to amend the Constitution.
• Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

The correct answer is Lord Louis Mountbatten.

Key Points

• Lord Louis Mountbatten announced the bifurcation of the British Indian Empire into a secular India and Islamic Pakistan on June 3, 1947.
• The plan was known as the Mountbatten Plan or the 3 June Plan.
• The main aim of the plan was to address the demand for a separate Muslim state in India, which was advocated by the All India Muslim League led by Muhammad Ali Jinnah.
• The plan proposed the creation of two independent dominions of India and Pakistan, which would have their own constitutions and governments, but would remain within the British Commonwealth.
• Lord Ripon, Lord Dalhousie, and Lord Curzon were also British officials who served as Viceroy of India during the British Raj but did not announce the bifurcation of the British Indian Empire.

Additional Information

• Lord Ripon served as Viceroy of India from 1880 to 1884 and introduced various reforms, including the Local Self-Government Act, which provided for the establishment of local self-government institutions in India.
• Lord Dalhousie served as Viceroy of India from 1848 to 1856 and was known for his policy of annexation, which led to the annexation of several princely states in India.
• Lord Curzon served as Viceroy of India from 1899 to 1905 and was known for his administrative reforms, including the partition of Bengal in 1905, which was later revoked due to protests.
• Hence, the correct answer is option 3, Lord Louis Mountbatten.

The correct answer is Kupffer cells.

Key Points

• Kupffer cells are found in the liver of mammals.
• Kupffer cells are specialized macrophages found in the liver, responsible for removing foreign substances such as bacteria and old red blood cells from the **bloodstream. **​

Additional Information

• Purkinje cells are a type of neuron found in the cerebellum of the brain, involved in controlling movement and coordination.
• Microglial cells are immune cells found in the central nervous system, responsible for maintaining brain health and responding to injury or infection.
• Sensory cells are specialized cells found in the sense organs, such as the eyes, ears, and nose, responsible for detecting stimuli and transmitting signals to the brain.
• Therefore, option 1 (Purkinje cells), option 2 (Microglial cells), and option 4 (Sensory cells) are incorrect as they are not found in the liver of mammals.

The correct answer is Attorney General of India.

Key Points

• The first law officer of India is the Attorney General of India.
• The Attorney General of India is the chief legal advisor to the Government of India and represents the Government of India in all legal matters.

Additional Information

• Advocate General of State: The Advocate General is the chief legal advisor to the state government and represents the state government in all legal matters.
• Chief Justice of India: The Chief Justice of India is the head of the judiciary in India and is responsible for the administration of justice in the country.
• Minister of law: The Minister of Law is a political position and is responsible for the formulation of laws and policies related to the legal system in India.
• Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

The correct answer is Buddhism.

Key Points

• The Shailendra kings were followers of Mahayana Buddhism.
• They were known for their patronage of Buddhist art and architecture, including the construction of the famous Borobudur temple in Java.
• The Shailendra empire was based in Java and spread to other parts of Southeast Asia, including Sumatra, Bali, and parts of modern-day Malaysia and Thailand.
• The Shailendra dynasty declined in the 9^th century, but their influence on Southeast Asian culture and religion continued.
• Shaivism, Jainism, and Hinduism were also present in Southeast Asia during this time period, but they did not have the same level of influence as Buddhism.

Additional Information

• Shaivism is a sect of Hinduism that worships the god Shiva and emphasizes asceticism and meditation.
• Jainism is a religion that originated in India and emphasizes non-violence, asceticism, and the pursuit of spiritual liberation.
• Hinduism is a diverse religion with many different sects and traditions, but it generally emphasizes the pursuit of dharma (righteousness), karma (action), and moksha (liberation).
• Hence, the correct answer is option 1 - Buddhism.

The correct answer is Ergocalciferol.

Key Points

• Ergocalciferol is also known as vitamin D2.
• It is used to treat hypoparathyroidism, refractory rickets, and familial hypophosphatemia because it helps the body absorb calcium and phosphorus, which are essential for bone health.

Additional Information

• Tacalcitol is a vitamin D analogue that is primarily used to treat psoriasis and other skin disorders.
• It works by regulating the growth and differentiation of skin cells.
• Tocopherol is a form of vitamin E, which is important for maintaining healthy skin and eyes, as well as strengthening the immune system.
• It is not used to treat hypoparathyroidism, refractory rickets, or familial hypophosphatemia.
• Retinol is a form of vitamin A, which is important for maintaining healthy vision, skin, and immune system.
• It is not used to treat hypoparathyroidism, refractory rickets, or familial hypophosphatemia.
• Hence, the correct answer is option 3, Ergocalciferol.

The correct answer is Trace rock.

Key Points

• Trace rock is not a type of rock.
• This term does not exist in the field of geology.
• Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.
• The three main types of rocks are igneous, metamorphic, and sedimentary.
• Igneous rocks are formed from cooled and solidified lava or magma.
• Metamorphic rocks are formed from existing rock that has been altered by heat, pressure, or chemical reactions.
• Sedimentary rocks are formed from the accumulation of sediment or organic matter.

Additional Information

• Igneous rocks can be further classified into intrusive (formed inside the Earth's crust) or **extrusive (**formed on the Earth's surface) types.
• Metamorphic rocks can be further classified into foliated (having a layered or banded appearance) or non-foliated types.
• Sedimentary rocks can be further classified into clastic (formed from broken fragments of other rocks), chemical (formed from precipitation of minerals), or organic (formed from the remains of living organisms) types.

The correct answer is Neeraj Chopra.

Key Points

• Neeraj Chopra is an Indian athlete who specializes in the javelin throw and is the current national record holder in the event.
• He won the gold medal at the 2018 Asian Games and the 2018 Commonwealth Games, and also represented India at the 2020 Tokyo Olympics.

Additional Information

• Pankaj Advani is a billiards and snooker player from India who has won multiple world championships in his sport.
• Saurabh Chaudhary is a shooter from India who won a gold medal at the 2018 Asian Games and the 2018 Youth Olympics.
• Manika Batra is a table tennis player from India who won multiple medals at the 2018 Commonwealth Games and the 2018 Asian Games.
• Therefore, the correct answer to the question is option 1, Neeraj Chopra, who is associated with javelin throw.

The correct answer is Calx.

Key Points

• The s block element Calcium is derived from the Latin word "Calx".
• Calx means limestone or chalk, which is a white sedimentary rock composed primarily of calcium carbonate.
• Calcium is a chemical element with the symbol Ca and atomic number 20.
• It is a reactive metal that forms a dark oxide-nitride layer when exposed to air.
• Calcium is essential for living organisms, particularly in cell physiology, where movement of the calcium ion into and out of the cytoplasm functions as a signal for many cellular processes.

Additional Information

• Option 2 - "Calum" is not a Latin word and has no relation to Calcium.
• Option 3 - "Coleus" is a genus of flowering plants and has no relation to Calcium.
• Option 4 - "Calcio" is an Italian word for football and has no relation to Calcium.
• Hence, the correct answer is option 1 - "Calx".

The correct answer is (iii) - (i) - (ii).

Key Points

• Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI) was set up in 1948, making it the oldest DFI.
• Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India (ICICI) was set up in 1955, making it the second oldest DFI.
• Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI) was set up in 1964, making it the youngest DFI among the three.
• Therefore, the correct chronological order is (iii) - (i) - (ii).

Additional Information

• Development Financial Institutions (DFIs) are specialized financial institutions that provide long-term finance to industries and infrastructure projects.
• ICICI was converted into a commercial bank in 1994 and is now known as ICICI Bank.
• IDBI was converted into a commercial bank in 2019 and is now known as IDBI Bank.
• Option 1: (i) - (iii) - (ii) - This option is incorrect as IFCI was set up before ICICI.
• Option 3: (ii) - (i) - (iii) - This option is incorrect as IDBI was set up after ICICI.
• Option 4: (i) - (ii) - (iii) - This option is incorrect as IDBI was set up after ICICI.

The correct answer is Abdel Fattah El-Sisi.

Key Points

• The chief guest at India's 74^th Republic Day celebrations was Abdel Fattah El-Sisi, the President of Egypt.
• He was invited as a special guest to strengthen the bilateral ties between India and Egypt.
• This was his first visit to India since he took office in 2014.
• During his visit, several agreements were signed between the two countries in the areas of defence, trade, and culture.

Additional Information

• Francois Hollande is the former President of France and was the chief guest at India's Republic Day celebrations in 2016.
• Cyril Ramaphosa is the President of South Africa and was the chief guest at India's Republic Day celebrations in 2019.
• Jair Bolsonaro is the President of Brazil and was invited as a chief guest at India's Republic Day celebrations in 2020.

The correct answer is Pandit Ravishankar.

Key Points

• Pandit Ravishankar was awarded the Bharat Ratna in 1999 for his contribution to Indian classical music.

Additional Information

• Pandit Bhimsen Joshi, option 1, was also a renowned musician and vocalist who was awarded the Bharat Ratna in 2008.
• Hariprasad Chourasia, option 3, is a well-known flautist who has been awarded several prestigious awards including the Padma Bhushan and Padma Vibhushan.
• Bhupen Hazarika, option 4, was a singer, lyricist, and filmmaker who was awarded the Padma Bhushan and Padma Vibhushan for his contribution to the arts.
• Therefore, the correct option is 2) Pandit Ravishankar.

The correct answer is Micro Units Development & Refinance Agency.

Key Points

• MUDRA stands for Micro Units Development & Refinance Agency.
• It is a financial institution that was set up by the Government of India to provide financial assistance to micro unit enterprises.
• The main objective of MUDRA is to promote entrepreneurship and generate employment opportunities in the country by providing access to credit for small businesses.
• MUDRA offers loans of up to Rs. 10 lakhs to micro and small enterprises under three categories - Shishu, Kishor, and Tarun.
• The loans provided by MUDRA are collateral-free and can be availed by both new and existing businesses.

Additional Information

• The other options mentioned in the question are not the correct full form of MUDRA.
• Option 1 (Micro Urban Development & Refinance Agency) and Option 4 (Medium Units Development & Refinance Agency) are incorrect as MUDRA focuses on micro and small enterprises only.
• Option 3 (Micro Finance Usage Development & Refinance Agent) is also incorrect as it does not represent the full form of MUDRA.
• Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

The correct answer is 1960.

Key Points

• The first Paralympic games were held in the year 1960.
• These games were held in Rome, Italy and were called the 9^th Annual International Stoke Mandeville Games.
• The event was organized by Sir Ludwig Guttmann, a neurologist who worked with World War II veterans with spinal cord injuries.
• The games were initially meant for wheelchair athletes only and featured 400 participants from 23 countries.
• The Paralympic games have since grown to become the world's largest sports event for athletes with disabilities.

Additional Information

• Option 1: 1962 is incorrect as the first Paralympic games were held in 1960.
• Option 3: 1964 is incorrect as the third Paralympic games were held in 1964, two years after the first games.
• Option 4: 1961 is incorrect as the first Paralympic games were held in 1960.

The correct answer is longs spans.

Key Points

• Post tensioning is a construction technique that involves the use of high-strength steel strands or cables to reinforce concrete structures.
• The suitability of post tensioning depends on various factors such as span length, design requirements, and construction constraints.
• Post tensioning allows for longer spans to be achieved without the need for intermediate supports.
• This is because the high-strength steel cables can provide the necessary tensile strength to counteract the weight of the structure and any applied loads.
• Longer spans can result in more open and flexible interior spaces, which can be beneficial for certain building types such as sports arenas, exhibition halls, and airports.
• Post tensioning can also help reduce the overall weight of the structure, which can lead to cost savings in materials and construction.
• The use of post tensioning can improve the durability and resilience of concrete structures, as the cables can help prevent cracking and deformation due to temperature changes, shrinkage, and other factors.

Additional Information

• End spans refer to the sections of a structure that are adjacent to a support, such as a column or a wall.
• Post tensioning can be used for end spans, but it may not be as necessary as for long spans.
• Break spans are sections of a structure that are interrupted by an expansion joint or a construction joint.
• Post tensioning can be used for break spans, but it may require additional design considerations and construction techniques.
• Edge spans are sections of a structure that are located at the perimeter, such as a balcony or a cantilevered slab.
• Post tensioning can be used for edge spans, but it may require additional reinforcement to account for wind loads and other lateral forces.

Given

Daniel is 60% more efficient than Virat.

Virat can complete a work in 30 days.

Concept

Efficiency is inversely related to time.

Work done = efficiency × time

Calculation

Let the efficiency of Virat is 100

So, the efficiency of Daniel is 160

The ratio of efficiency, Virat: Daniel = 100: 160

⇒ 5 : 8

It is inversely related to time

Ratio of time = 8 : 5

8 : 5 = 30 : x

So, 8 → 30 days

then

1 → 30/8 days

⇒ 5 = x → 150/8 days

= 75/4 = 18(3/4) days

Daniel can complete a work in 18(3/4) days.

Given,

The average of 36 observations = 45

Formula:

Average = sum of all observations/Total number of all observations

Calculation:

The average of 36 observations = 36

Sum of 36 observations = 36 × 45 = 1620

Correct sum of 36 observations = 1620 - 48 + 84

= 1620 + 36 = 1656

The correct mean of 36 observations = 1656/36 = 46

The correct mean of 36 observations is 46

Given:

sin 23° = a/b

Concepts used:

In a right-angled triangle, applying Pythagoras Theorem,

H² = P² + B²

⇒ P² = H² – B²

P → Perpendicular, B → base, H → Hypotenuse of right-angled triangle

sinθ = P/H

cosθ = B/H

tanθ = P/B

Calculation:

sin23° = P/H = a/b

On comparing,

⇒ P = a units and H = b units

Using Pythagoras' Theorem,

⇒ B² = H² – P²

⇒ B² = b² – a²

⇒ B = √b2 – a2

⇒ sec23° = H/B = b/√b2 – a2

⇒ Cos23° = sin67° = √b2 – a2 /b

sec 23° - sin 67° ⇒  b/√b2 – a² - √b2 – a2 /b

sec 23° - sin 67° ⇒ $\frac{a^2}{b \sqrt{b^2-a^2}}$

The value is $\frac{a^2}{b \sqrt{b^2-a^2}}$

Given:

Arjun got 50% votes more than Saral, and Saral got 2% votes less than Bhaskar.

The difference between the votes of Bhaskar and Saral = 1296

Formula used:

Percentage = (Part / Whole) × 100

Solution:

Let the total number of votes Bhaskar got be 100x.

The votes received by Saral = 100x - 2% of 100x

⇒ 98x

The votes received by Arjun = 98x + 50% of 98x

⇒ 147x

The difference between the votes of Bhaskar and Saral = 1296

⇒ 100x - 98x = 1296

⇒ x = 1296/2

⇒ x = 648

The difference between the votes of Bhaskar and Arjun = 147x - 100x

⇒ 47x

Half of the difference between the votes of Arjun and Bhaskar = 47x/2

⇒ x → 648

⇒ 47x/2 → 648 × 47/2

⇒ 47x/2 → 324 × 47

⇒ 47x/2 → 15228

Half of the difference between the votes of Arjun and Bhaskar is 15228.

Given :

[7 + 30 ÷ 6 - (6 + 6) + 7]

BODMAS Rule:

Calculation :

[7 + 30 ÷ 6 - (6 + 6) + 7]

⇒ 7 + 5 - 12 + 7

⇒ 19 - 12

⇒ 7

∴ The answer is 7.

Given:

Monika can do the work in 6 hours

Anita can do the work in 8 hours

Manju can do the work in 5 hours

Formula used:

Work done = Time taken × Efficiency

Time taken ∝ 1/Efficiency

Calculation:

1^st hour work by A = 1/6

2^nd hour work by B = 1/8

3^rd hour work by  C = 1/5

Work completed in 1 hour working together:

⇒ 1/6 + 1/8 + 1/5

⇒ (20 + 15 + 24)/120 = 59/120

Time taken to complete the work

⇒ 120/59

⇒ 2(2/59)

The entire work be finished in 2(2/59) hours.

Work done in 1 hour together:

⇒ 20 + 15 + 24 = 59

Total time required to complete the work

⇒ 120/59 = 2(2/59)

Explanation

Option 1.

A secant line includes the chord and is always extended outside the circle. In other words, if the chord is extended on both sides it becomes the secant.

Option 2.

Tangent is perpendicular to the radius of the circle at the point of contact

Option 3.

A line which intersects one distinct point of a circle is called a tangent. 

Option 4.

A Tangent is a line touching only one point of the circle.

Only option 3 is incorrect.

Given:

A is twice efficient than B.

A can work only for 8 hours a day while B can work for 12 hours a day

Formula used:

Men × Day = Total work

Calculation:

Let the time taken by B to complete work be b.

⇒ 2 × 8 × 12 = 1 × b × 12 

⇒ b = 192/12 

⇒ b = 16

∴ In 16 days, B alone can complete the work.

Given

P runs at 6 m/sec and Q runs at b m/sec.

they cross each other at exactly two points on the circular track and b is a natural number less than 6.

Formula used

Time = Distance/relative speed

When running in the same direction, relative speed = a - b.

Calculation

Let track length be equal to T.

Time taken to meet for the first time = T/(6 - b)    [b < 6]

Time taken for a lap for A = T/6

Time taken for a lap for B = T/b

The first meeting is planned to take place at the specified starting point. = LCM(T/6,T/b)

= T/HCF(6,b)

Number of meeting points on the track = Time taken to meet at starting point/Time taken for first meeting = Relative speed / HCF (6,b).

So, basically, we have to find values for b such that = (6 - b)/HCF(6,b) = 2

The only value to satisfy this equation that is less than 6 is 2.

b can take only 1 value.

Given

A dealer professes to sell his goods at cost price uses 950 grams weight for 1 kg.

Formula used

Profit = SP - CP

% profit = (profit /CP) × 100

Calculation

Let the CP of 1 g = x

Given CP of 1 kg = SP of 1 kg = 1000x

But the CP of what he is selling = 950x

His Profit = 1000x – 950x = 50x

% Profit = (50x/950x) × 100 = 5(1/19)

∴ The required profit% is 5.26%.

Given:

Trade discount = 20%

Cash discount = 30% 

Concept used:

M.P. = S.P. × 100/(100 – discount %)

Calculation:

Trader provides 20% trade discount and 30% cash discount on the list price.

The list price = Rs. 1200

∴ The selling price =  Rs. 1200 × (80/100) × (70/100)

= Rs. 672

The selling price is Rs. 672.

Given:

x + 1/x = 7

Formula used:

If x + 1/x = n

then, x ² + 1/x² = n² - 2

And (x³ + y³) = n³ -  3n

Calculation:

x + 1/x = 7

⇒ x² + 1/x² = 7² - 2

⇒ x² + 1/x² = 47

Cubing both side we get

⇒ (x2 + 1/x2)³ = 47³

⇒ x⁶ + 1/x⁶ + 3 (x2 × 1/x2) (x2 + 1/x2)  = 47³ 

⇒ x6 + 1/x6 + 3 × 1 × 47  = 473 

⇒ x6 + 1/x6 = 473 - 3 × 47

⇒ x 6 + 1/x 6 = 103823 - 141

⇒ x 6 + 1/x 6 = 103682

∴ The value of x 6 + 1/x 6 is 103682.

Shortcut Trick

Current Ratio (diff 2) = 5 : 7 | 12 years ago Ratio (diff 1) = 1 : 2

Make differences equal: 12 years ago Ratio = 2 : 4 (multiplied by 2)

Unit change for Sudhir = 5 − 2 = 3 units → 12 years

1 unit = 4 years ∴ Sudhir current age = 5 × 4 = 20 years

Sudhir age after 5 years = 20 + 5 = 25 years

∴ The correct answer is 25 years.

Alternate Method

Given: Current age ratio of Sudhir and Ashish is 5 : 7. Twelve years ago, the ratio was 1 : 2.

Let the current ages of Sudhir and Ashish be 5x and 7x respectively.

According to the question, 12 years ago:

⇒ (5x − 12) / (7x − 12) = 1 / 2

⇒ 2 × (5x − 12) = 1 × (7x − 12)

⇒ 10x − 24 = 7x − 12

⇒ 10x − 7x = 24 − 12

⇒ 3x = 12

⇒ x = 12 ÷ 3 = 4

⇒ Current age of Sudhir = 5x = 5 × 4 = 20 years

⇒ Age of Sudhir after 5 years = 20 + 5 = 25 years

∴ The correct answer is 25 years.

Additional Information

Constant Age Difference

The difference between the ages of two individuals always remains the same, regardless of how many years pass.

Ratio Balancing Method

To solve age problems quickly, multiply ratio terms so that the numerical difference between the ratios of both people becomes identical.

Future and Past Ages

If current age is 'A', age 'n' years ago was (A − n) and age 'n' years later will be (A + n).

Shortcut Trick

Total interest for 1 year = 2400 ÷ 2 = Rs. 1,200.

Overall effective rate = (1200 ÷ 10000) × 100 = 12%.

Apply Alligation on rates: (15 − 12) : (12 − 10) = 3 : 2.

Sum at 15% (2 parts) = (2 ÷ 5) × 10000 = Rs. 4,000.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 4,000.

Alternate Method

Given: Total Principal = Rs. 10,000, Total Interest (2 years) = Rs. 2,400, Rates = 10% and 15%.

Formula Used: Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

⇒ Let the sum invested at 15% be P₂.

⇒ Let the sum invested at 10% be P₁.

⇒ Total Principal = P₁ + P₂ = 10,000.

⇒ Average Interest per year = 2400 ÷ 2 = 1200.

⇒ (P₁ × 10 × 1) ÷ 100 + (P₂ × 15 × 1) ÷ 100 = 1200.

⇒ 10P₁ + 15P₂ = 120,000.

⇒ Substitute P₁ = 10,000 − P₂:

⇒ 10(10,000 − P₂) + 15P₂ = 120,000.

⇒ 100,000 − 10P₂ + 15P₂ = 120,000.

⇒ 5P₂ = 20,000.

⇒ P₂ = 4,000.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 4,000.

Additional Information

Simple Interest Concept

Simple Interest remains constant every year if the principal and rate remain the same. Formula: SI = (P × R × T) ÷ 100.

Rule of Alligation in Interest

Alligation can be used to find the ratio of parts of a sum invested at two different interest rates to get a known overall interest rate.

Effective Interest Rate

The effective rate is the single interest rate that would produce the same amount of total interest on the total principal over the same time period.

Given :

AB is a diameter of circle centre O,

Formula used : 

Linear pair angle,  angle on straight line = 180°

Calculation

∠AOP = 95 °

∠POB = ( 180 ° - 95 °) = 85°

∆ POB = ∠P = ∠B ( Isosceles  triangle )

⇒ ∠POB = 85° 

∆ POB = ∠POB + ∠ OBP + ∠ BPO = 180°

⇒ 180° = 85°+ 2 × ∠OBP

⇒ 95/2 = ∠OBP

⇒ 47.5°  =  ∠OBP 

The value of ∠OBP is 47.5°.

Shortcut Trick∠OBP = 1/2 × of ∠AOP

∠OBP = 1/2 × of 95 = 47.5

Given

 $\frac{\cos \beta}{\sec \alpha}$ = 15

 $\frac{\sin \beta}{\sec \alpha}$ = 16

Calculation

Sec α = cos β/15  ......(1)

sin β = 16 × Sec α  .....(2)

Putting the value of eq (1) in eq (2)

⇒ sin β = 16 × cos β/15

⇒ sin β/cos β = 16/15

⇒ P/B = 16/15

sin2β = P²/H²

H² = P² + B²

H2 = 256 + 225

H2 = 481

sin2β = 256/481

The value is 256/481.

Formula used

sin 30° = 1/2

cos 30° = √3/2

tan 30° = 1/√3

Calculation

sin 30° + cos 30° + tan 30° = 1/2 + √3/2 + 1/√3

⇒ (√3 + 3 + 2)/2√3

⇒ $\frac{5+\sqrt{3}}{2 \sqrt{3}}$

The value is $\frac{5+\sqrt{3}}{2 \sqrt{3}}$

Given:

sec2 θ + tan2 θ = 25/18

Formula used:

sec2 θ - tan2 θ = 1

(sec2 θ + tan2 θ)(sec2 θ - tan2 θ) = sec4 θ - tan4 θ

Calculation

⇒ (sec2 θ + tan2 θ)(sec2 θ - tan2 θ) = sec4 θ - tan4 θ

⇒ 25/18 × 1 = sec4 θ - tan4 θ

⇒ sec4 θ - tan4 θ = 25/18

The value is 25/18.

Given:

The volume of a cone is 73920 cm3.

The height of the cone is 160 cm

Concept used:

The volume of a cone = 1/3πr2h

Calculation:

According to the question,

1/3πr²h = 73920

⇒ 1/3πr2 × 160 = 73920

⇒ 22/7 × r2 = (462 × 3)

⇒ r2 = 21 × 21

⇒ r = 21

Diameter = 42

∴ The diameter of the base is 42

Shortcut Trick

Let the number of toffees with A and B be A and B.

From the first condition, the difference A − B = 2.

From the second condition, A + 1 = 2 × (B − 1).

Substituting A = B + 2 into the second equation: B + 2 + 1 = 2B − 2.

Solving for B, we get B = 5 and A = 7.

Total toffees = 7 + 5 = 12.

∴ The correct answer is 12 toffees.

Alternate Method

Given:

Case 1: If A gives 1 toffee to B, then A − 1 = B + 1.

Case 2: If B gives 1 toffee to A, then A + 1 = 2(B − 1).

Formula Used: Formation of linear equations in two variables.

Calculations:

⇒ A − B = 2 — (i)

⇒ A + 1 = 2B − 2

⇒ A − 2B = −3 — (ii)

Subtracting equation (ii) from (i):

⇒ (A − B) − (A − 2B) = 2 − (−3)

⇒ A − B − A + 2B = 2 + 3

⇒ B = 5

Substitute B = 5 in equation (i):

⇒ A − 5 = 2

⇒ A = 7

⇒ Total toffees = A + B = 7 + 5 = 12

∴ The correct answer is 12 toffees.

Additional Information

Linear Equations in Two Variables

Equations of the form ax + by + c = 0 where a and b are not zero. These can be solved using substitution, elimination, or cross-multiplication methods.

Substitution Method

Expressing one variable in terms of another from one equation and putting it into the second equation to find the value of the variables.

Verification Technique

In exams, you can quickly test the options or use small integers to verify if they satisfy both given conditions of the word problem.

Given :

$[\frac{85}{34}\times \frac{1}{18}- {(\frac{46}{69}\div\frac{27}{135})-(\frac{86}{129}\div\frac{14}{91})}\ of \frac{112}{36}]$

BODMAS Rule:

Calculation :

$[\frac{85}{34}\times \frac{1}{18}- {(\frac{46}{69}\div\frac{27}{135})-(\frac{86}{129}\div\frac{14}{91})}\ of \frac{112}{36}]$

⇒ [5/2 × 1/18 - {(2/3 × 5) - (2/3 × 13/2)} × 28/9

⇒ [5/36 - {-1} × 28/9

⇒ [5/36 + 28/9

⇒ (5 + 112)/36

⇒ 117/36

⇒ 13/4

∴ The answer is 3(1/4).

Given:

Total inlet pipes = 8

Total time taken to fill the tank = 140 hours.

Drainpipe can empty tank = 63 hours 

Formula used:

If a pipe can fill a tank in x hours, part of it is filled in 1 hour = 1/x�/x�/x�/x

Calculations:

The total capacity of the tank is LCM of (63,140) = 1260

Efficiency of 8 inlet pipe = (1260/140) × 8

= 72 lit/h

Efficiency of y outlet pipe = (1260/63) × y

= 20y lit/h

Total time taken = (1260)/(72 - 20y) = 105

⇒ 1260 = 7560 - 2100y

⇒ 6300 =  2100y

⇒ y = 3

∴ The answer is 3.

Alternate Method 

⇒ Total Tank capacity = 1260 lit ( LCM of 140 and 63)

⇒ Efficiency of one inlet pipe = 1260 / 140 = 9 lit/h

⇒ Efficiency of 8 inlet pipe = 8 × 9 lit/h = 72 lit/h

⇒ Efficiency of one outlet pipe = 1260 / 63 = 20 lit/h

⇒ Efficiency of Y outlet pipe = Y × 20 lit/h = 20Y lit/h

According to question,

⇒ Efficiency of 8 inlet and Y outlet pipe = 1260 / 105 = 12 lit/h

⇒ 72 - 20Y = 12

⇒ 20Y = 60

⇒ Y = 3

∴ The answer is 3.

Calculation:

The central angle corresponding to the sector indicates the expenses incurred on Health:

⇒ 50000 → 360°

⇒ 15000 → (360°/50000) × 15000

⇒ 15000 → 36 × 3

⇒ 15000 → 108°

The central angle corresponding to the sector indicates the expenses incurred on Health is 108°.

Calculation

The number of students at IIT Bombay and in IIT Madras = 2080 - (430 + 350 + 400)

⇒ 2080 - 1180

⇒ 900

Let the number of students at IIT Madras be 5a.

The number of students at IIT Bombay = 5a - 5a × 20%

⇒  4a

⇒ 5a + 4a = 900

⇒ 9a = 900

⇒ a = 100

4a → 400

The number of students at IIT Bombay is 400.

Given data:

Total distance = 90 km = 90000 metres

Total time = 1 hour = 3600 seconds

Time spent travelling at 15.2 m/s = 25 minutes = 1500 seconds

Speed during first 25 minutes = 15.2 m/s

 

Concept to be used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Solution:

Distance covered in first 25 minutes = Speed × Time

⇒ 15.2 m/s × 1500 s = 22800 metres

Remaining distance to be covered = Total distance - Distance covered in first 25 min

⇒ 90000 m - 22800 m = 67200 metres

Remaining time = Total time - Time spent in first 25 min

⇒ 3600 s - 1500 s = 2100 seconds

Speed during remaining time = Remaining distance / Remaining time

⇒ 67200 m / 2100 s = 32 m/s

Therefore, Jehangir should travel at a speed of 32 m/s for the remaining time to reach his destination on time.

The correct answer is "His best friend was called up by the little boy on his birthday."

Key Points 

• In passive voice, the object of the active sentence becomes the subject of the passive sentence.
• The passive sentence is formed using the auxiliary verb "to be" + past participle of the main verb.
• In this sentence, "his best friend" is the object of the active sentence, so it becomes the subject of the passive sentence.
• "Called up" is the main verb, and its past participle form is "called up."
• Therefore, the correct passive sentence is:
• "His best friend was called up by the little boy on his birthday."

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Additional Information

• Option 1: "His best friend has been called up by the little boy on his birthday." This is also in passive voice, but the use of "has been" instead of "was" is incorrect because the action happened in the past, not the present perfect.
• Option 3: "His best friend is called up by the little boy on his birthday." This is in present tense, not past tense, so it is not correct for this sentence.
• Option 4: "His best friend was being called up by the little boy on his birthday." This is in passive voice, but the use of "being" implies that the action was ongoing or in progress, which is not specified in the original sentence.

The correct answer is "CADB."

Key Points 

• The subject of the passage is regarding Virginia Woolf's 'Shakespeare's Sister."
• Thus, we will place the sentence C at the beginning of the passage.
• Virginia Woolf's essay 'Shakespeare's Sister' explores the challenges faced by women in a male-dominated society.
• Thus, sentence A will follow sentence C in the passage.
• Further in sentence D, Woolf's analysis raises concerns about discrimination against women, denial of education to girls, and violence against women.
• The essay also highlights the need for freedom of expression, human dignity, and equality for women through sentence B.
• The sentences can be arranged in the order C-A-D-B to form a coherent paragraph.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

The correct answer is "Misanthrope."

Key Points

• Let us understand the meaning of the given words:
• Masochist: A person who enjoys pain or humiliation.
• Example: I'm not a masochist who wants to be bullied.
• Pervert: A person whose behavior is considered abnormal or deviant.
• Example: Jack is a pervert who likes to watch children through his window.
• ​Hermit: A person who lives in solitude, away from society.
• Example: Emily is a hermit who lives in a remote cabin in the mountains.
• Misanthrope is a noun that refers to a person who hates and avoids other people.
• Example: John is a misanthrope who lives alone in the woods and avoids social interactions.
• From the above explanation, it is clear that the word "misanthrope" can substitute the given phrase.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.