Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL (2022) Tier-II Official Paper (Held On: 2 March 2023) (Previous Year Paper)

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Section I (60 questions)

Question 1

There are three taps of diameter 2 cm, 3 cm and 4 cm, respectively. The ratio of the water flowing through them is equal to the ratio of the square of their diameters. The biggest tap can fill an empty tank alone in 81 min. If all the taps are opened simultaneously, then how long will the tank take (in min) to be filled?

  1. AOption (a)

    34202934 \frac{20}{29}

  2. BOption (b)

    64202964 \frac{20}{29}

  3. COption (c)

    54202954 \frac{20}{29}

  4. DOption (d)

    44202944 \frac{20}{29}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

44202944 \frac{20}{29}

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of flow efficiency (E) = d2 = 22 : 32 : 42 = 4 : 9 : 16

Total capacity of tank = E of biggest tap × Time = 16 × 81 = 1296 units

Total efficiency of all taps = 4 + 9 + 16 = 29 units

Required time = Total capacity ÷ Total efficiency = 1296 ÷ 29 = 44 20/29 min

∴ The correct answer is 44 20/29 min.

Alternate Method

Given:

⇒ Diameters of taps = 2 cm, 3 cm, 4 cm

⇒ Flow rate (Efficiency) ∝ (Diameter)2

⇒ Time taken by biggest tap (4 cm) = 81 min

Formula used:

⇒ Efficiency1 × Time1 = Total Work (Capacity)

⇒ Time = Total Work ÷ Combined Efficiency

PersonDaysTotal WorkEfficiency
Tap A (2cm)32412964
Tap B (3cm)1449
Tap C (4cm)8116

Calculations:

⇒ Efficiency of taps A, B, C = 22, 32, 42 = 4, 9, 16

⇒ Total Work = Efficiency of C × Time of C = 16 × 81 = 1296 units

⇒ Time for tap A = 1296 ÷ 4 = 324 min

⇒ Time for tap B = 1296 ÷ 9 = 144 min

⇒ Combined Efficiency = 4 + 9 + 16 = 29 units

⇒ Total Time Taken = 1296 ÷ 29 = 44 20/29 min

∴ The correct answer is 44 20/29 min.

Additional Information

Rate of Flow and Diameter

The flow rate or efficiency of a pipe is directly proportional to its cross-sectional area, which in turn is proportional to the square of its diameter (Rate ∝ D2).

Net Efficiency Rule

When multiple pipes work together, the net efficiency is the sum of their individual efficiencies. Filling time = Capacity ÷ (E1 + E2 + ... + En).

Efficiency and Time Relationship

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken. If the ratio of efficiencies of two pipes is x : y, then the ratio of time taken by them to fill the same tank is y : x.

Question 2

Two numbers are, respectively, 10% and 25% more than the third number. The ratio of the two numbers is:

  1. AOption (a)

    22 : 25

  2. BOption (b)

    19 : 25

  3. COption (c)

    23 : 25

  4. DOption (d)

    18 : 25

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

22 : 25

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Let the third number be 100.

First number = 100 + 10 = 110

Second number = 100 + 25 = 125

Ratio = 110 : 125 = 22 : 25

∴ The correct answer is 22 : 25.

Alternate Method

Given:

First number is 10% more than the third number.

Second number is 25% more than the third number.

Calculations:

Let the third number be x.

⇒ First number = x + (10 ÷ 100) × x = 1.10x

⇒ Second number = x + (25 ÷ 100) × x = 1.25x

⇒ Required ratio = 1.10x : 1.25x

⇒ Multiplying by 100 to remove decimals = 110 : 125

⇒ Dividing both terms by 5 = 22 : 25

∴ The correct answer is 22 : 25.

Additional Information

Percentage Increase

When a value increases by x%, the new value is (100 + x)% of the original value. This allows writing final values directly without a two-step calculation.

Base Value in Percentages

It is a standard time-saving technique to assume the base value as 100 when multiple values are compared relative to a single unknown quantity.

Simplification of Ratios

A ratio a : b remains mathematically unchanged if both its antecedent (a) and consequent (b) are multiplied or divided by the same non-zero number.

Question 3

A, B and C did certain investments and the ratio of their time periods is 3 : 2 : 7 respectively. Ratio of the profits of A, B and C is 4 : 3 : 14 respectively. What is the ratio of the investments of A, B and C ?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 : 3 : 4

  2. BOption (b)

    7 : 9 : 11

  3. COption (c)

    8 : 9 : 12

  4. DOption (d)

    2 : 3 : 11

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

8 : 9 : 12

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Investment Ratio = Profit Ratio ÷ Time Ratio

Investment Ratio = (4 ÷ 3) : (3 ÷ 2) : (14 ÷ 7)

Investment Ratio = 4/3 : 3/2 : 2

Multiply the entire ratio by the LCM of denominators (3 and 2), which is 6.

Investment Ratio = (4/3 × 6) : (3/2 × 6) : (2 × 6) = 8 : 9 : 12

∴ The correct answer is 8 : 9 : 12.

Alternate Method

Given:

Ratio of Time Periods (TA : TB : TC) = 3 : 2 : 7

Ratio of Profits (PA : PB : PC) = 4 : 3 : 14

Formula Used:

Profit = Investment × Time ⇒ Investment = Profit ÷ Time

Calculations:

⇒ Let Investment of A, B and C be IA, IB and IC respectively.

⇒ IA : IB : IC = (PA / TA) : (PB / TB) : (PC / TC)

⇒ IA : IB : IC = (4/3) : (3/2) : (14/7)

⇒ IA : IB : IC = (4/3) : (3/2) : 2

⇒ To remove fractions, multiply by LCM of 3 and 2 = 6

⇒ IA : IB : IC = (4/3 × 6) : (3/2 × 6) : (2 × 6)

⇒ IA : IB : IC = 8 : 9 : 12

∴ The correct answer is 8 : 9 : 12.

Additional Information

Partnership Basic Principle

In any partnership, the profit is distributed in the ratio of the product of the Capital and the Time for which it was invested. Profit = Investment × Time.

Active and Sleeping Partners

An active partner manages the business and may receive a salary or extra profit share, while a sleeping partner only provides capital and shares profit/loss based on the investment ratio.

Time Ratio Calculation

If the profit ratio and investment ratio are known, the time ratio can be calculated as T1 : T2 = (P1/I1) : (P2/I2).

Question 4

 A bike is sold for ₹87,500 by allowing a discount of 44% on its marked price. The marked price (in ₹) of the bike is

  1. AOption (a)

    1,56,100

  2. BOption (b)

    1,58,225

  3. COption (c)

    1,56,250

  4. DOption (d)

    1,55,500

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1,56,250

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Discount = 44% → Selling Price (SP) = 100% − 44% = 56% of Marked Price (MP).

Given SP = ₹87,500, so 56% = 87,500.

1% = 87,500 ÷ 56 = 1,562.5.

100% (MP) = 1,562.5 × 100 = 1,56,250.

∴ The correct answer is ₹1,56,250.

Alternate Method

Given:

Selling Price (SP) = ₹87,500

Discount Percentage = 44%

Formula Used:

Marked Price (MP) = [SP ÷ (100 − Discount %)] × 100

Calculations:

⇒ Marked Price = [87,500 ÷ (100 − 44)] × 100

⇒ Marked Price = [87,500 ÷ 56] × 100

⇒ Marked Price = 1,562.5 × 100

⇒ Marked Price = ₹1,56,250

∴ The correct answer is ₹1,56,250.

Additional Information

Marked Price (MP)

It is the price tag or list price mentioned on the product before any discount is applied.

Selling Price (SP)

The final price at which a product is sold after subtracting the discount from the marked price: SP = MP − Discount.

Discount Percentage

The reduction offered on the marked price, calculated as: Discount % = (Discount ÷ MP) × 100.

Successive Discounts

When two or more discounts are applied sequentially, the effective discount is: d1 + d2 − (d1 × d2 ÷ 100).

Question 5

A, B, C are three points such that AB = 9 cm, BC = 11 cm and AC = 20 cm. The number of circles passing through points A, B, C is:

  1. AOption (a)

    2

  2. BOption (b)

    0

  3. COption (c)

    1

  4. DOption (d)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

0

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick Check for collinearity: Sum of two shorter distances = 9 cm + 11 cm = 20 cm. Given the longest distance AC = 20 cm. Since AB + BC = AC, the points A, B, and C are collinear (lie on a straight line). A circle can only pass through three points if they are non-collinear. Therefore, no circle can pass through these three points. ∴ The correct answer is 0. Alternate Method Given: Distance AB = 9 cm Distance BC = 11 cm Distance AC = 20 cm Property Used: For any three points A, B, and C, if the sum of the lengths of two segments is equal to the third (AB + BC = AC), the points are collinear. A unique circle passes through three non-collinear points, but no circle can pass through three collinear points.

Calculations: ⇒ AB + BC = 9 + 11 ⇒ AB + BC = 20 cm ⇒ Since AC = 20 cm, we have AB + BC = AC. ⇒ This satisfies the condition for collinearity of points A, B, and C. ⇒ A circle is defined by the intersection of perpendicular bisectors of the segments joining the points. ⇒ For collinear points, the perpendicular bisectors of AB and BC are parallel and do not intersect. ⇒ ∴ No circle can pass through all three collinear points. ∴ The correct answer is 0. Additional Information Unique Circle Theorem One and only one circle can pass through three given non-collinear points. Collinearity Condition Three points A, B, and C are collinear if the area of the triangle formed by them is zero, or if AB + BC = AC (for B between A and C). Circles through 1 or 2 points An infinite number of circles can pass through a single point or through two distinct points. Triangle Inequality For three points to form a triangle (non-collinear), the sum of any two sides must be strictly greater than the third side (AB + BC > AC).

Question 6

 A glass jar contains 6 white, 8 black, 4 red and 3 blue marbles. If a single marble is chosen at random from the jar, what is the probability that it is black or blue?

  1. AOption (a)

    821\frac{8}{21}

  2. BOption (b)

    1121\frac{11}{21}

  3. COption (c)

    521\frac{5}{21}

  4. DOption (d)

    17\frac{1}{7}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1121\frac{11}{21}

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Total outcomes (Sample Space) = 6 + 8 + 4 + 3 = 21.

Favorable outcomes (Black or Blue) = 8 + 3 = 11.

Probability = Favorable outcomes ÷ Total outcomes.

Required Probability = 11 / 21.

∴ The correct answer is 11/21.

Alternate Method

Given:

Number of white marbles = 6

Number of black marbles = 8

Number of red marbles = 4

Number of blue marbles = 3

Formula Used:

Probability P(E) = n(E) ÷ n(S)

Where n(E) is the number of favorable outcomes and n(S) is the total number of outcomes.

Calculations:

⇒ Total number of marbles n(S) = 6 + 8 + 4 + 3

⇒ n(S) = 21

⇒ Number of favorable outcomes (Black or Blue) n(E) = 8 + 3

⇒ n(E) = 11

⇒ P(Black or Blue) = n(E) ÷ n(S)

⇒ P(Black or Blue) = 11 / 21

∴ The correct answer is 11/21.

Additional Information

Mutually Exclusive Events

Two events are mutually exclusive if they cannot occur at the same time. For such events, P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B).

Sample Space

The sample space n(S) represents the set of all possible outcomes of an experiment.

Complementary Events

The probability of an event NOT happening is 1 − P(E). For example, P(not red) = 1 − P(red).

Question 7

Find the mode for the given distribution (rounded off to two decimal places).

Class Interval5-1010-1515-2020-2525-3030-35
Frequency87691110
  1. AOption (a)

    35.25

  2. BOption (b)

    40.25

  3. COption (c)

    30.33

  4. DOption (d)

    28.33

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

28.33

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Identify the modal class: Highest frequency is 11, corresponding to class 25−30.

Apply Mode formula: L + [(f1 − f0) ÷ (2f1 − f0 − f2)] × h

L = 25, f1 = 11, f0 = 9, f2 = 10, h = 5

Mode = 25 + [(11 − 9) ÷ (22 − 9 − 10)] × 5 = 25 + (2 ÷ 3) × 5 = 25 + 3.33

∴ The correct answer is 28.33.

Alternate Method

Given:

Modal Class = 25−30 (since it has the maximum frequency f = 11)

Lower limit (L) = 25

Frequency of modal class (f1) = 11

Frequency of preceding class (f0) = 9

Frequency of succeeding class (f2) = 10

Class width (h) = 5

Formula Used:

Mode = L + [ (f1 − f0) ÷ (2f1 − f0 − f2) ] × h

Calculations:

⇒ Mode = 25 + [ (11 − 9) ÷ (2 × 11 − 9 − 10) ] × 5

⇒ Mode = 25 + [ 2 ÷ (22 − 19) ] × 5

⇒ Mode = 25 + [ 2 ÷ 3 ] × 5

⇒ Mode = 25 + 10 ÷ 3

⇒ Mode = 25 + 3.333...

⇒ Mode ≈ 28.33

∴ The correct answer is 28.33.

Additional Information

Empirical Formula

Relationship between Mean, Median, and Mode: Mode = 3 Median − 2 Mean.

Median for Grouped Data

Median = L + [ (N/2 − cf) ÷ f ] × h, where cf is cumulative frequency of the preceding class.

Bimodal Distribution

A distribution that has two modes (two classes with the same highest frequency).

Question 8

If interest be compounded half-yearly, then find the compound interest on ₹8,000 at the rate of 20% per annum for 1 year.

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹1,675

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹1,690

  3. COption (c)

    ₹1,685

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹1,680

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

₹1,680

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Effective rate for half-yearly compounding = 20% ÷ 2 = 10% per 6 months.

For 1 year, there are 2 compounding periods.

Net effective interest rate = 10 + 10 + (10 × 10) ÷ 100 = 21%.

Compound Interest = 21% of ₹8,000 = 0.21 × 8,000 = ₹1,680.

∴ The correct answer is ₹1,680.

Alternate Method

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹8,000

Rate of Interest (R) = 20% per annum

Time (T) = 1 year

Formula Used:

For half-yearly compounding: Rate (r) = R ÷ 2, Time periods (n) = 2 × T

Amount (A) = P(1 + r/100)n

Compound Interest (CI) = A − P

Calculations:

⇒ Effective rate (r) = 20 ÷ 2 = 10% per half-year

⇒ Number of periods (n) = 1 × 2 = 2 periods

⇒ A = 8000 × (1 + 10/100)2

⇒ A = 8000 × (1.1)2

⇒ A = 8000 × 1.21

⇒ A = ₹9,680

⇒ CI = 9680 − 8000

⇒ CI = ₹1,680

∴ The correct answer is ₹1,680.

Additional Information

Effective Annual Rate (EAR)

When interest is compounded more than once a year, the effective annual rate is given by [(1 + r/n)n − 1] × 100, where n is the number of compounding periods.

Quarterly Compounding

If interest is compounded quarterly, the rate is divided by 4 and the time (in years) is multiplied by 4.

CI vs SI Difference

For 2 years (or 2 periods), the difference between CI and SI is P(R/100)2.

Question 9

A basket contains 350 eggs. If 12% of the eggs are rotten, how many eggs are good enough to be sold?

  1. AOption (a)

    408

  2. BOption (b)

    310

  3. COption (c)

    308

  4. DOption (d)

    410

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

308

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Total Eggs = 100%

Good Eggs % = 100% − 12% = 88%

Multiplying Factor method: Good Eggs = 350 × 0.88

Calculation: 350 × 0.88 = 35 × 8.8 = 308

∴ The correct answer is 308 eggs.

Alternate Method

Given: Total eggs = 350, Rotten percentage = 12%

Formula Used: Good Eggs = Total Eggs − Rotten Eggs

⇒ Rotten Eggs = 12% of 350

⇒ Rotten Eggs = (12 × 350) ÷ 100

⇒ Rotten Eggs = 4200 ÷ 100 = 42

⇒ Good Eggs = Total Eggs − Rotten Eggs

⇒ Good Eggs = 350 − 42

⇒ Good Eggs = 308

∴ The correct answer is 308 eggs.

Additional Information

Percentage Calculation

To find x% of a value Y, use the formula (x ÷ 100) × Y. For quick calculation, 12% can be viewed as 10% + 2%.

Complementary Percentage

If a part represents P%, the remaining part is always (100 − P)%. Here, Good Eggs = 100% − 12% = 88%.

Percentage Change Formula

Final Value = Initial Value × [1 ± (Change% ÷ 100)]. Use plus for increase and minus for decrease/loss.

Question 10

A circle touches all four sides of a quadrilateral ABCD. If AB = 18 cm, BC = 21 cm and AD = 15 cm, then length CD is:

  1. AOption (a)

    16 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    14 cm

  3. COption (c)

    12 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    18 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

18 cm

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

For any quadrilateral circumscribing a circle, the sum of opposite sides is equal.

Property: AB + CD = BC + AD

18 + CD = 21 + 15

CD = 36 − 18 = 18 cm

∴ The correct answer is 18 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length of side AB = 18 cm

Length of side BC = 21 cm

Length of side AD = 15 cm

Formula Used:

In a tangential quadrilateral (a quadrilateral that circumscribes a circle), the sum of the lengths of opposite sides is equal: AB + CD = BC + AD.

Calculations:

⇒ AB + CD = BC + AD

⇒ 18 + CD = 21 + 15

⇒ 18 + CD = 36

⇒ CD = 36 − 18

⇒ CD = 18 cm

∴ The correct answer is 18 cm.

Additional Information

Pitot Theorem

The theorem states that for a tangential quadrilateral, the sum of the lengths of opposite sides is equal. This is derived from the property that tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal in length.

Area of Tangential Quadrilateral

The area of a tangential quadrilateral can be calculated as Area = s × r, where s is the semi-perimeter (s = (a+b+c+d)/2) and r is the radius of the incircle.

Cyclic Quadrilateral

A cyclic quadrilateral is one where all vertices lie on a circle. In such cases, the sum of opposite angles is 180° (supplementary angles).

Question 11

What is the volume of the largest sphere that can be carved out of a wooden cube of side 21 cm ? (π=227)\left( \pi = \frac{22}{7} \right)

  1. AOption (a)

    3851 cm3

  2. BOption (b)

    6858 cm3

  3. COption (c)

    4851 cm3

  4. DOption (d)

    5821 cm3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

4851 cm3

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

For the largest sphere carved out of a cube, Diameter (d) = Side of cube (a).

Side (a) = 21 cm ⇒ Radius (r) = 21 ÷ 2 = 10.5 cm.

Volume of Sphere = (1 ÷ 6) × π × a3

Volume = (1 ÷ 6) × (22 ÷ 7) × 21 × 21 × 21 = 11 × 21 × 21 = 11 × 441 = 4851 cm3.

∴ The correct answer is 4851 cm3.

Alternate Method

Given:

Side of the wooden cube (a) = 21 cm

Formula Used:

Diameter of the largest sphere = Side of the cube (a)

Volume of a sphere = (4 ÷ 3) × π × r3

Calculations:

⇒ Diameter of the sphere (d) = 21 cm

⇒ Radius of the sphere (r) = d ÷ 2 = 21 ÷ 2 = 10.5 cm

⇒ Volume = (4 ÷ 3) × (22 ÷ 7) × (21 ÷ 2) × (21 ÷ 2) × (21 ÷ 2)

⇒ Volume = (4 ÷ 3) × (22 ÷ 7) × (9261 ÷ 8)

⇒ Volume = (88 ÷ 21) × (9261 ÷ 8)

⇒ Volume = 11 × 441

⇒ Volume = 4851 cm3

∴ The correct answer is 4851 cm3.

Additional Information

Volume of Cube

The volume of a cube with side 'a' is given by V = a3.

Largest Cone inside a Cube

The largest cone inside a cube of side 'a' has a base radius of a ÷ 2 and a height of 'a'. Volume = (1 ÷ 3) × π × (a ÷ 2)2 × a.

Surface Area of Sphere

The total surface area of a sphere with radius 'r' is 4 × π × r2.

Largest Cylinder inside a Cube

The largest cylinder that can be carved out of a cube of side 'a' has radius r = a ÷ 2 and height h = a. Volume = π × (a ÷ 2)2 × a.

Question 12

Find the value of the given expression.

8+1681\sqrt{8 + \sqrt{1681}}

  1. AOption (a)

    5

  2. BOption (b)

    6

  3. COption (c)

    4

  4. DOption (d)

    7

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

7

Why this answer is correct

Given:

8+1681\sqrt{8 + \sqrt{1681}} = ?

Formula used:

√x2 = x

Calculations:

8+1681\sqrt{8 + \sqrt{1681}}

⇒ 8+41\sqrt{8 + 41}

⇒ 49\sqrt{49}

⇒ 7

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Question 13

Find the value of a given expression.

30 – [40 – {56 – (25 – 13 – 12)}]

  1. AOption (a)

    38

  2. BOption (b)

    22

  3. COption (c)

    14

  4. DOption (d)

    46

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

46

Why this answer is correct

Given:

30−[40−56−(25−13−12)]=?30 - [40 - {56 - (25 - 13 - 12)}] = ?

Formula used:

BODMAS Rule

Calculation:

30−[40−56−(25−13−12)]30 - [40 - {56 - (25 - 13 - 12)}]

⇒ 30−[40−56−(12−12)]30 - [40 - {56 - (12 - 12)}]

⇒ 30−[40−56−0]30 - [40 - {56 - 0}]

⇒ 30−[40−56]30 - [40 - 56]

⇒ 30−(−16)30 - (-16)

⇒ 30+1630 + 16

⇒ 46

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Question 14

The ratio of the incomes of two employees is 7 : 4, and the ratio of their expenditures is 3 : 1. If each of them manages to save ₹4,800 per month, find the sum of their monthly incomes (in ₹).

  1. AOption (a)

    21120

  2. BOption (b)

    20120

  3. COption (c)

    21150

  4. DOption (d)

    18150

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

21120

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Income ratio = 7 : 4 (difference = 3) and Expenditure ratio = 3 : 1 (difference = 2).

Make ratio differences equal by cross-multiplying: Income × 2 and Expenditure × 3.

New Income ratio = 14 : 8 and New Expenditure ratio = 9 : 3.

Savings in parts = 14 − 9 = 5 parts. Since savings = ₹4800, 1 part = 4800 ÷ 5 = ₹960.

Sum of incomes = (14 + 8) × 960 = 22 × 960 = ₹21120.

∴ The correct answer is ₹21120.

Alternate Method

Given:

Ratio of incomes of two employees = 7 : 4

Ratio of their expenditures = 3 : 1

Monthly savings of each employee = ₹4800

Formula Used:

Income − Expenditure = Savings

Employee 1 Employee 2

Income: 14 units

Exp: 9u

Sav: 5u

Inc: 8u

3u

Sav: 5u

5 units = ₹4800 → 1 unit = ₹960 Total Income = (14 + 8) × 960 = ₹21120

Calculations:

⇒ Let the monthly incomes of the two employees be 7x and 4x respectively.

⇒ Let their monthly expenditures be 3y and y respectively.

⇒ For the first employee: 7x − 3y = 4800 --- (Equation 1)

⇒ For the second employee: 4x − y = 4800 ⇒ y = 4x − 4800

⇒ Substituting the value of y in Equation 1:

⇒ 7x − 3(4x − 4800) = 4800

⇒ 7x − 12x + 14400 = 4800

⇒ 5x = 9600

⇒ x = 1920

⇒ Sum of their monthly incomes = 7x + 4x = 11x

⇒ Sum = 11 × 1920 = ₹21120

∴ The correct answer is ₹21120.

Additional Information

Income, Expenditure & Savings

The fundamental relation is Income = Expenditure + Savings. If savings are equal for two persons, the difference between income and expenditure ratio parts must be mathematically equated by balancing multipliers.

Cross-Multiplication Method

For equations like a1x + b1y = c1 and a2x + b2y = c2, the cross-multiplication method offers a direct approach to find the unknown variables without requiring lengthy substitution steps.

Compound Ratio

When two or more ratios are multiplied together, it is known as a compound ratio. For a : b and c : d, the compound ratio is ac : bd.

Question 15

If radius of a sphere is decreased by 48%, then by what percent does its surface area decrease?

  1. AOption (a)

    82.91%

  2. BOption (b)

    72.96%

  3. COption (c)

    78.98%

  4. DOption (d)

    86.26%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

72.96%

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Net percentage change formula for area (r × r): x + y + (xy ÷ 100)

Given decrease (negative change): x = −48 and y = −48

Net change = −48 − 48 + [(−48 × −48) ÷ 100]

Net change = −96 + (2304 ÷ 100) = −96 + 23.04 = −72.96%

Negative sign indicates a decrease.

∴ The correct answer is 72.96%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Initial radius (r1) decrease = 48%

Formula Used:

Surface Area of a sphere (S) = 4 × π × r2

Calculations:

⇒ Let the initial radius (r1) = 100 units

⇒ Final radius (r2) after 48% decrease = 100 − 48 = 52 units

⇒ Since 4 and π are constants, Surface Area (S) ∝ r2

⇒ Initial Surface Area (S1) ∝ 1002 = 10000

⇒ Final Surface Area (S2) ∝ 522 = 2704

⇒ Decrease in Surface Area = S1 − S2 = 10000 − 2704 = 7296

⇒ Percentage Decrease = (Decrease ÷ S1) × 100

⇒ Percentage Decrease = (7296 ÷ 10000) × 100 = 72.96%

∴ The correct answer is 72.96%.

Additional Information

Volume Change of a Sphere

Since Volume (V) = (4/3) × π × r3, the volume change depends on r3. If radius decreases by x%, the new volume is [(100−x)/100]3 of the original.

Successive Percentage for 3D Shapes

For volume of a sphere, use the successive formula twice: first for (r × r) to get area change, then combine that result with the third 'r'.

Surface Area of other 3D Shapes

Cube = 6a2 | Cylinder (Total) = 2πr(r + h) | Cone (Curved) = πrl. The area always depends on the product of two linear dimensions.

Question 16

The product of the two numbers is 1500 and their HCF is 10. The number of such possible pairs is/are:

  1. AOption (a)

    1

  2. BOption (b)

    3

  3. COption (c)

    4

  4. DOption (d)

    2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

2

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Product of the co-prime ratio parts = Total Product ÷ (HCF)2

Product of parts = 1500 ÷ (10 × 10) = 15

The co-prime factor pairs of 15 are (1, 15) and (3, 5).

Since both pairs share no common factor other than 1, there are 2 valid pairs.

∴ The correct answer is 2 pairs.

Alternate Method

Given:

Product of the two numbers = 1500

HCF of the two numbers = 10

Formula Used:

Let the two numbers be 10x and 10y, where x and y are co-prime integers.

Product of numbers = HCF2 × xy

Product = 1500 | HCF = 10

x × y = 15

Pair 1: x=1, y=15 10 and 150

Pair 2: x=3, y=5 30 and 50

Calculations:

⇒ 102 × xy = 1500

⇒ 100 × xy = 1500

⇒ xy = 1500 ÷ 100

⇒ xy = 15

Now, we need to find pairs of integers (x, y) whose product is 15 and they must be co-prime to each other.

⇒ The integer factor pairs of 15 are (1, 15) and (3, 5).

Let's check if they are co-prime:

⇒ HCF of 1 and 15 is 1 (co-prime → valid)

⇒ HCF of 3 and 5 is 1 (co-prime → valid)

So, the corresponding possible pairs of original numbers are:

⇒ Pair 1: (10 × 1, 10 × 15) = (10, 150)

⇒ Pair 2: (10 × 3, 10 × 5) = (30, 50)

⇒ Total number of valid pairs = 2

∴ The correct answer is 2 pairs.

Additional Information

Product of Two Numbers

The product of any two numbers is equal to the product of their HCF and LCM (Number 1 × Number 2 = HCF × LCM).

Co-prime Numbers

Two numbers are considered co-prime if their Highest Common Factor (HCF) is exactly 1. When dividing out the HCF from two numbers, the remaining ratio parts must always be co-prime.

Relation between LCM and HCF

For any numbers written as (HCF × a) and (HCF × b), their LCM is calculated directly as HCF × a × b, meaning the LCM is always exactly divisible by the HCF.

Question 17

A man buys a machine for Rs.5,000. After one year, he sells it for Rs.6000. After two years, again he buys the same machine at Rs.8,000 and sells it for Rs.10,000. Find his overall profit percentage for both the transactions.

  1. AOption (a)

    20.23%

  2. BOption (b)

    23.08%

  3. COption (c)

    18.75%

  4. DOption (d)

    15.23%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

23.08%

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick Net Cost Price (CP) = 5000 + 8000 = ₹13,000 Net Selling Price (SP) = 6000 + 10000 = ₹16,000 Total Profit = 16000 − 13000 = ₹3,000 Overall Profit % = (3000 ÷ 13000) × 100 = 300 ÷ 13 % Overall Profit % ≈ 23.08% ∴ The correct answer is 23.08%.

Alternate Method Given: Transaction 1: CP1 = ₹5,000, SP1 = ₹6,000 Transaction 2: CP2 = ₹8,000, SP2 = ₹10,000 Formula Used: Overall Profit % = [(Total SP − Total CP) ÷ Total CP] × 100

Calculations: ⇒ Total CP = CP1 + CP2 = 5,000 + 8,000 = ₹13,000 ⇒ Total SP = SP1 + SP2 = 6,000 + 10,000 = ₹16,000 ⇒ Total Profit = Total SP − Total CP = 16,000 − 13,000 = ₹3,000 ⇒ Overall Profit % = (3,000 ÷ 13,000) × 100 ⇒ Profit % = 300 ÷ 13 = 23.0769... ⇒ Profit % ≈ 23.08% ∴ The correct answer is 23.08%.

Additional Information Net Profit/Loss Percentage For multiple transactions, always sum the individual Cost Prices and Selling Prices to find the total profit or loss. Profit % = (Net Profit ÷ Total CP) × 100. Profit and Loss Relation Profit occurs when SP > CP (Profit = SP − CP). Loss occurs when CP > SP (Loss = CP − SP). Percentage is always calculated on the CP unless mentioned otherwise. Marked Price and Discount Selling Price = Marked Price − Discount. Relationship: CP × (100 + P%) = MP × (100 − D%).

Question 18

Evaluate the following.

sin 25° sin 65° – cos 25° cos 65°.

  1. AOption (a)

    4

  2. BOption (b)

    1

  3. COption (c)

    0

  4. DOption (d)

    40

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

0

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Using the complementary angle properties: sin(90° − θ) = cos θ and cos(90° − θ) = sin θ.

Substitute 65° = 90° − 25° in the given expression:

sin 25° sin(90° − 25°) − cos 25° cos(90° − 25°)

This simplifies directly to: sin 25° cos 25° − cos 25° sin 25° = 0.

∴ The correct answer is 0.

Alternate Method

Given:

Expression: sin 25° sin 65° − cos 25° cos 65°

Formula Used:

cos(A + B) = cos A cos B − sin A sin B

Calculation:

⇒ The given expression can be written as:

⇒ −(cos 25° cos 65° − sin 25° sin 65°)

⇒ Using the formula cos(A + B) = cos A cos B − sin A sin B:

⇒ −cos(25° + 65°)

⇒ −cos(90°)

⇒ We know that cos 90° = 0.

⇒ −0 = 0.

∴ The correct answer is 0.

Additional Information

Trigonometric Addition Identities

cos(A − B) = cos A cos B + sin A sin B

sin(A + B) = sin A cos B + cos A sin B

sin(A − B) = sin A cos B − cos A sin B

Complementary Angles

Angles whose sum is 90° are complementary. sin(90° − θ) = cos θ and cos(90° − θ) = sin θ.

Values of Standard Angles

sin 90° = 1, cos 90° = 0, tan 90° is Not Defined.

Question 19

In ΔPQR,PQ=QR and O is an interior point of ΔPQR such that ∠OPR=∠ORP. Consider the following statements:

(i) ΔPOR is an isosceles triangle.

(ii) O is the centroid of ΔPQR.

(iii) ΔPQO is congruent to ΔRQO.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Only (i) and (ii)

  2. BOption (b)

    Only (i) and (iii)

  3. COption (c)

    Only (ii) and (iii)

  4. DOption (d)

    Only (ii)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only (i) and (iii)

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

In ΔPOR, ∠OPR = ∠ORP ⇒ OP = OR. Since two sides are equal, ΔPOR is isosceles (i is correct).

In ΔPQO and ΔRQO, we have PQ = QR, PO = RO, and common side QO.

By SSS congruency, ΔPQO ≅ ΔRQO (iii is correct).

Point O lies on the axis of symmetry (median from Q) but isn't restricted to the 2:1 centroid position.

∴ The correct answer is Only (i) and (iii).

Alternate Method

Given: In ΔPQR, PQ = QR. O is an interior point such that ∠OPR = ∠ORP.

Calculations:

⇒ In ΔPOR, given ∠OPR = ∠ORP.

⇒ According to triangle properties, sides opposite to equal angles are equal ∴ OP = OR.

⇒ Since ΔPOR has two equal sides (OP = OR), it is an isosceles triangle. (Statement i is correct)

⇒ Now, consider ΔPQO and ΔRQO:

⇒ PQ = RQ (Given that ΔPQR is isosceles with PQ = QR)

⇒ PO = RO (Proved above)

⇒ QO = QO (Common side to both triangles)

⇒ ∴ ΔPQO ≅ ΔRQO by SSS (Side-Side-Side) congruence rule. (Statement iii is correct)

⇒ Point O is equidistant from P and R, so it must lie on the perpendicular bisector of PR (which is also the median from Q).

⇒ However, the centroid is a unique point on this median. Point O can be any point on this line segment. Thus, O is not necessarily the centroid. (Statement ii is incorrect)

∴ The correct answer is Only (i) and (iii).

Additional Information

SSS Congruence Criterion

Two triangles are congruent if all three sides of one triangle are equal to the corresponding three sides of the second triangle.

Isosceles Triangle Theorem

If two angles of a triangle are equal, then the sides opposite those angles are also equal, making the triangle isosceles.

Centroid of a Triangle

The centroid is the point where the three medians of the triangle intersect and it divides each median in the ratio 2:1 from the vertex.

Perpendicular Bisector in Isosceles Triangle

In an isosceles triangle, the median, altitude, and angle bisector from the vertex between the equal sides all lie on the same line (the perpendicular bisector of the base).

Question 20

A man can row 10 km/h in still water. When the river is running at a speed of 4.5 km/h, then it takes him 2 h to row to a place and comes back to the initial point . How far is the place (in km) (rounded off to two decimal places)?

  1. AOption (a)

    5.50

  2. BOption (b)

    8.98

  3. COption (c)

    7.98

  4. DOption (d)

    6.25

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

7.98

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Distance (d) = [Total Time × (u2 − v2)] ÷ (2 × u)

Given: u (Still water) = 10 km/h, v (River) = 4.5 km/h, Total Time (T) = 2 h

⇒ d = [2 × (102 − 4.52)] ÷ (2 × 10)

⇒ d = (100 − 20.25) ÷ 10 = 79.75 ÷ 10 = 7.975 km

Rounding to two decimal places, d ≈ 7.98 km.

∴ The correct answer is 7.98 km.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed of man in still water (u) = 10 km/h

Speed of river (v) = 4.5 km/h

Total time taken (T) = 2 h

Formula Used:

Downstream Speed (D) = u + v

Upstream Speed (U) = u − v

Total Time = (Distance ÷ D) + (Distance ÷ U)

Calculations:

⇒ Downstream Speed (D) = 10 + 4.5 = 14.5 km/h

⇒ Upstream Speed (U) = 10 − 4.5 = 5.5 km/h

⇒ (d ÷ 14.5) + (d ÷ 5.5) = 2

⇒ d × [(5.5 + 14.5) ÷ (14.5 × 5.5)] = 2

⇒ d × (20 ÷ 79.75) = 2

⇒ d = (2 × 79.75) ÷ 20

⇒ d = 159.5 ÷ 20 = 7.975 km

⇒ d ≈ 7.98 km

∴ The correct answer is 7.98 km.

Additional Information

Speed of Boat and Stream

If Downstream speed is D and Upstream speed is U, then Boat speed (u) = (D + U) ÷ 2 and Stream speed (v) = (D − U) ÷ 2.

Average Speed of Round Trip

Average speed for the entire journey is given by (D × U) ÷ Still water speed (u), which is 2DU ÷ (D + U).

Ratio of Speeds

The ratio of the speed of the boat in still water to the speed of the stream is (D + U) : (D − U).

Question 21

Find the average of the cubes of the first five natural numbers.

  1. AOption (a)

    35

  2. BOption (b)

    40

  3. COption (c)

    45

  4. DOption (d)

    50

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

45

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Average of cubes of first n natural numbers = n(n + 1)2 ÷ 4

Here, n = 5

Average = 5 × (5 + 1)2 ÷ 4

Average = 5 × 36 ÷ 4 = 5 × 9 = 45

∴ The correct answer is 45.

Alternate Method

Given: First five natural numbers: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.

Formula Used: Average = Sum of observations ÷ Number of observations

⇒ First five natural numbers: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

⇒ Cubes of these numbers: 13, 23, 33, 43, 53

⇒ Values of cubes: 1, 8, 27, 64, 125

⇒ Sum of cubes = 1 + 8 + 27 + 64 + 125 = 225

⇒ Average = 225 ÷ 5 = 45

∴ The correct answer is 45.

Additional Information

Sum of first n natural numbers

The sum of the first n natural numbers is given by the formula Sn = [n(n + 1)] ÷ 2.

Sum of squares of first n natural numbers

The sum of the squares of the first n natural numbers is given by the formula Sn<sup>2</sup> = [n(n + 1)(2n + 1)] ÷ 6.

Sum of cubes of first n natural numbers

The sum of the cubes of the first n natural numbers is given by the formula Sn<sup>3</sup> = [n(n + 1) ÷ 2]2.

Question 22

For what value of m will the system of equations 17x + my + 102 = 0 and 23x + 299y + 138 = 0 have infinite number of solutions ?

  1. AOption (a)

    221

  2. BOption (b)

    223

  3. COption (c)

    220

  4. DOption (d)

    219

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

221

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

For infinite solutions, ratios of coefficients must be equal: a1/a2 = b1/b2.

Comparing x and y coefficients: 17/23 = m/299.

Multiply both sides by 299: m = (17 × 299) ÷ 23.

Since 299 ÷ 23 = 13, then m = 17 × 13 = 221.

∴ The correct answer is 221.

Alternate Method

Given Equations: 17x + my + 102 = 0 and 23x + 299y + 138 = 0.

Formula: For infinite solutions, the condition is a1/a2 = b1/b2 = c1/c2.

⇒ a1 = 17, b1 = m, c1 = 102

⇒ a2 = 23, b2 = 299, c2 = 138

⇒ Ratio of constants: c1/c2 = 102/138 = (17 × 6) / (23 × 6) = 17/23.

⇒ To satisfy the condition: a1/a2 = b1/b2

⇒ 17/23 = m/299

⇒ m = (17 × 299) / 23

⇒ m = 17 × 13

⇒ m = 221

∴ The correct answer is 221.

Additional Information

Unique Solution

A system has a unique solution if the lines intersect at one point, which occurs when a1/a2 ≠ b1/b2.

No Solution

A system has no solution if the lines are parallel and never intersect, occurring when a1/a2 = b1/b2 ≠ c1/c2.

Consistency of Equations

A system is called consistent if it has at least one solution (unique or infinite) and inconsistent if it has no solution.

Question 23

A rectangular park is 120 m long and 104 m wide. A 1-m wide path runs along the boundary of the park, remaining completely inside the park area. Thus, the outside edges of the path run along the boundary wall of the park. The inside edges of the path are marked with a white line of negligible thickness. If it costs ₹2.50 to mark each metre with the white line, then how much would it cost (in ₹) to fully mark the inside edges of the path?

  1. AOption (a)

    1090

  2. BOption (b)

    1080

  3. COption (c)

    1120

  4. DOption (d)

    1100

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1100

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Inner Perimeter = 2 × [(Length + Breadth) − 4 × path width]

Inner Perimeter = 2 × [(120 + 104) − 4 × 1] = 2 × 220 = 440 m

Total Cost = 440 × ₹2.50 = ₹1100.

∴ The correct answer is ₹1100.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length of the park (L) = 120 m

Width of the park (B) = 104 m

Width of the path (w) = 1 m

Rate of marking = ₹2.50 per metre

Formula Used:

Inner Dimension = Outer Dimension − 2 × path width

Perimeter of Rectangle = 2 × (Length + Breadth)

Calculations:

⇒ Inner Length (l) = 120 − (1 + 1) = 118 m

⇒ Inner Width (b) = 104 − (1 + 1) = 102 m

⇒ The inside edge of the path forms a rectangle with dimensions 118 m × 102 m.

⇒ Length of white line = Perimeter of the inner rectangle

⇒ Perimeter = 2 × (118 + 102)

⇒ Perimeter = 2 × 220 = 440 m

⇒ Total Cost = Perimeter × Rate

⇒ Total Cost = 440 × 2.50 = ₹1100.

∴ The correct answer is ₹1100.

Additional Information

Area of Path (Inside)

If a path of width 'w' is built inside a rectangle (L × B), its Area = 2w(L + B − 2w).

Area of Path (Outside)

If a path of width 'w' is built outside a rectangle (L × B), its Area = 2w(L + B + 2w).

Diagonal of Rectangle

The distance between opposite corners of the park is given by √(L2 + B2).

Question 24

40 litres of milk are kept in a container. 4 litres of milk were removed from this container and replaced with water. This procedure was performed two more times. How much milk does the container now hold?

  1. AOption (a)

    30 litres

  2. BOption (b)

    34.23 litres

  3. COption (c)

    29.16 litres

  4. DOption (d)

    32 litres

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

29.16 litres

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Total quantity (x) = 40 litres, quantity replaced (y) = 4 litres, total operations (n) = 3.

Remaining milk = x × (1 − y/x)n

Remaining milk = 40 × (1 − 4/40)3 = 40 × (9/10)3

Remaining milk = 40 × 0.729 = 29.16 litres.

∴ The correct answer is 29.16 litres.

Alternate Method

Given:

Initial amount of milk = 40 litres

Amount removed and replaced by water = 4 litres

Total number of times the process is performed = 1 (initially) + 2 (more) = 3 times

Formula Used:

Final Quantity = Initial Quantity × (1 − Replaced Quantity / Total Quantity)Time

Calculations:

⇒ Quantity of milk after 1st replacement = 40 − 4 = 36 litres

⇒ Ratio of milk remaining after each replacement = (40 − 4) ÷ 40 = 36/40 = 9/10

⇒ Milk left after 3 operations = 40 × (9/10) × (9/10) × (9/10)

⇒ Milk left = 40 × (729 / 1000)

⇒ Milk left = 4 × 72.9 / 10

⇒ Milk left = 291.6 / 10 = 29.16 litres

∴ The correct answer is 29.16 litres.

Additional Information

General Replacement Formula

Amount of pure liquid left = P × (1 − R/P)n, where P is initial quantity, R is quantity replaced, and n is number of cycles.

Ratio of Ingredients

The ratio of the original liquid to the replacing liquid (water) after n operations is [P × (1 − R/P)n] : [P − (P × (1 − R/P)n)].

Percentage Purity

Final concentration percentage = (Initial concentration) × (1 − R/P)n.

Question 25

The difference of simple interest from two banks on ₹8,000 in 3 years is ₹800. If the rate of interest per annum in two banks are R1 and R2, then what is the value of R1 - R2 ? (Where R1 > R2)

  1. AOption (a)

    513%5 \frac{1}{3}\%

  2. BOption (b)

    313%3 \frac{1}{3}\%

  3. COption (c)

    113%1 \frac{1}{3}\%

  4. DOption (d)

    213%2 \frac{1}{3}\%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

313%3 \frac{1}{3}\%

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick Rate difference = (Difference in SI × 100) / (Principal × Time) R1 − R2 = (800 × 100) / (8000 × 3) R1 − R2 = 80000 / 24000 R1 − R2 = 10/3 = 3 1/3% ∴ The correct answer is 3 1/3%. Alternate Method Given: Principal (P) = ₹8,000, Time (T) = 3 years, Difference in SI = ₹800, R1 > R2. Formula: Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) / 100

⇒ SI1 − SI2 = [(P × R1 × T) / 100] − [(P × R2 × T) / 100] ⇒ 800 = (P × T / 100) × (R1 − R2) ⇒ 800 = (8000 × 3 / 100) × (R1 − R2) ⇒ 800 = 240 × (R1 − R2) ⇒ R1 − R2 = 800 / 240 ⇒ R1 − R2 = 10 / 3 = 3 1/3% ∴ The correct answer is 3 1/3%. Additional Information Simple Interest Property Simple Interest is directly proportional to the rate and time. If time and principal are constant, the change in interest is directly proportional to the change in rate. Effective Rate of Interest The effective rate for a period is the total interest earned divided by the principal. In SI, Effective Rate = R × T. Difference between SI and CI For 2 years, Difference = P(R/100)2. For 3 years, Difference = P(R/100)2 × (3 + R/100).

Question 26

If tan (A + B) = √3 and tan (A - B) = 13\frac{1}{\sqrt 3}; 0° < (A + B) < 90°; A > B, then the values of A and B are _______ respectively.

  1. AOption (a)

    45° and 15° 

  2. BOption (b)

    15° and 45°

  3. COption (c)

    30° and 30°

  4. DOption (d)

    60° and 30°

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

45° and 15° 

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick Compare given tan values with standard trigonometric values: tan 60° = √3 and tan 30° = 1/√3. Equate the angles: A + B = 60° and A − B = 30°. Find A by adding equations: A = (60° + 30°) ÷ 2 = 45°. Find B by subtracting equations: B = (60° − 30°) ÷ 2 = 15°. ∴ The correct answer is 45° and 15°.

Alternate Method Given: tan (A + B) = √3 tan (A − B) = 1/√3 Condition: 0° < (A + B) < 90° and A > B Formula Used: Standard values: tan 60° = √3 and tan 30° = 1/√3

⇒ tan (A + B) = tan 60° ⇒ A + B = 60° --- (Equation 1) ⇒ tan (A − B) = tan 30° ⇒ A − B = 30° --- (Equation 2) ⇒ Adding (1) and (2): (A + B) + (A − B) = 60° + 30° ⇒ 2A = 90° ⇒ A = 45° ⇒ Substituting A in (1): 45° + B = 60° ⇒ B = 60° − 45° ⇒ B = 15° ∴ The correct answer is 45° and 15°.

Additional Information Trigonometric Table for Tan Key values include: tan 0° = 0, tan 30° = 1/√3, tan 45° = 1, tan 60° = √3, and tan 90° = ∞. Sum and Difference Rule for Equations When A + B = S and A − B = D, then A = (S + D) ÷ 2 and B = (S − D) ÷ 2. Tangent Addition Identity The formula tan(A ± B) = (tan A ± tan B) ÷ (1 ∓ tan A × tan B) is often used for non-standard angles.

Question 27

Two ships are on the opposite of a light house such that all three of them are collinear. The angles of depression of the two ships from the top of the light house are 30° and 60°. If the ships are 230√3 m apart, then find the height of the light house (in m).

  1. AOption (a)

    175.4

  2. BOption (b)

    165.2

  3. COption (c)

    172.5

  4. DOption (d)

    180.5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

172.5

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Distance between ships on opposite sides (D) = h × (cot θ1 + cot θ2)

230√3 = h × (cot 30° + cot 60°)

230√3 = h × (√3 + 1/√3) = h × (4/√3)

4h = 230 × 3 ⇒ 4h = 690

h = 690 ÷ 4 = 172.5 m

∴ The correct answer is 172.5 m.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total distance between ships = 230√3 m

Angle of depression to Ship 1 = 30°

Angle of depression to Ship 2 = 60°

Formula Used:

tan θ = Perpendicular ÷ Base

Calculations:

⇒ Let h be the height of the lighthouse.

⇒ In right triangle 1, tan 30° = h ÷ d1 ⇒ d1 = h ÷ (1/√3) = h√3

⇒ In right triangle 2, tan 60° = h ÷ d2 ⇒ d2 = h ÷ √3

⇒ Total distance = d1 + d2 = h√3 + h/√3

⇒ 230√3 = h × (√3 + 1/√3)

⇒ 230√3 = h × (4/√3)

⇒ 230 × 3 = 4h

⇒ 690 = 4h

⇒ h = 690 ÷ 4 = 172.5

∴ The correct answer is 172.5 m.

Additional Information

Angle of Depression and Elevation

The angle of depression from the top of a tower to an object is equal to the angle of elevation from the object to the top because they are alternate interior angles formed by parallel horizontal lines.

Standard Distance Formulas

For a tower of height h, distance D = h(cot α + cot β) if objects are on opposite sides, and D = h(cot α − cot β) if objects are on the same side.

Trigonometric Ratios

Useful values for height and distance problems: tan 30° = 1/√3, tan 45° = 1, tan 60° = √3, and their reciprocal cotangent values.

Question 28

The arithmetic mean of the following data is _________.

23, 17, 20, 19, 21

  1. AOption (a)

    20

  2. BOption (b)

    19

  3. COption (c)

    23

  4. DOption (d)

    21

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

20

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Assume a base value for the mean, say 20.

Find deviations from 20: (23 − 20) = +3, (17 − 20) = −3, (20 − 20) = 0, (19 − 20) = −1, (21 − 20) = +1.

Sum of deviations = 3 − 3 + 0 − 1 + 1 = 0.

Arithmetic Mean = Base + (Total Deviation ÷ Count) = 20 + (0 ÷ 5) = 20.

∴ The correct answer is 20.

Alternate Method

Given:

Data values: 23, 17, 20, 19, 21

Total number of observations (n) = 5

Formula Used:

Arithmetic Mean (χ) = (Sum of all observations) ÷ (Total number of observations)

Calculations:

⇒ Sum = 23 + 17 + 20 + 19 + 21

⇒ Sum = 100

⇒ Mean = 100 ÷ 5

⇒ Mean = 20

∴ The correct answer is 20.

Additional Information

Arithmetic Mean Properties

The sum of deviations of a set of observations from their arithmetic mean is always zero. If each observation is increased by a constant k, the mean also increases by k.

Range of Data

Range is the difference between the maximum and minimum values in a data set. For this data: Range = 23 − 17 = 6.

Median

The median is the middle value when the data is arranged in ascending or descending order. For 17, 19, 20, 21, 23, the median is 20.

Question 29

The number 5769116 is divisible by which of the following numbers?

  1. AOption (a)

    4

  2. BOption (b)

    5

  3. COption (c)

    12

  4. DOption (d)

    8

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

4

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

The divisibility rule for 4 states that a number is divisible by 4 if its last two digits are divisible by 4.

In the number 5769116, the last two digits are 16.

Since 16 is perfectly divisible by 4 (16 ÷ 4 = 4), the entire number must be divisible by 4.

∴ The correct answer is 4.

Alternate Method

Given Number: 5769116

Check the divisibility rules for each option:

⇒ Divisibility by 5: The last digit must be 0 or 5. Here, the last digit is 6, so it is not divisible by 5.

⇒ Divisibility by 8: The last three digits must be divisible by 8. Here, 116 ÷ 8 = 14.5, so it is not divisible by 8.

⇒ Divisibility by 12: The number must be divisible by both 3 and 4. Sum of digits = 5+7+6+9+1+1+6 = 35. Since 35 is not divisible by 3, the number is not divisible by 12.

⇒ Divisibility by 4: The last two digits are 16. Since 16 ÷ 4 = 4, the number is divisible by 4.

∴ The correct answer is 4.

Additional Information

Divisibility by 3

A number is divisible by 3 if the sum of its digits is divisible by 3 (e.g., sum of digits of 5769116 is 35, not divisible by 3).

Divisibility by 9

A number is divisible by 9 if the sum of its digits is divisible by 9.

Divisibility by 11

A number is divisible by 11 if the difference between the sum of digits at odd places and the sum of digits at even places is 0 or a multiple of 11.

Question 30

If 1x+x=4\frac{1}{x} + x = 4, then find 1x2+x2\frac{1}{x^2} + x^2

  1. AOption (a)

    14

  2. BOption (b)

    5

  3. COption (c)

    7

  4. DOption (d)

    15

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

14

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

For any expression of the form x + 1/x = k, the value of x2 + 1/x2 is always k2 − 2.

Given: x + 1/x = 4

Here, k = 4

Result = 42 − 2 = 16 − 2 = 14

∴ The correct answer is 14.

Alternate Method

Given:

x + 1/x = 4

Formula Used:

(a + b)2 = a2 + b2 + 2ab

Calculations:

Squaring both sides of the given equation:

⇒ (x + 1/x)2 = 42

⇒ x2 + (1/x)2 + 2 × x × (1/x) = 16

⇒ x2 + 1/x2 + 2 = 16

⇒ x2 + 1/x2 = 16 − 2

⇒ x2 + 1/x2 = 14

∴ The correct answer is 14.

Additional Information

Cube Power Relation

If x + 1/x = k, then the value of x3 + 1/x3 = k3 − 3k.

Negative Sign Relation

If x − 1/x = k, then the value of x2 + 1/x2 = k2 + 2.

Higher Power Calculation

To find x4 + 1/x4, square the value obtained for x2 + 1/x2 and subtract 2.

Question 31

‘A # B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’.

‘A @ B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’.

‘A & B’ means ‘A is the husband of B’.

‘A % B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’.

If D @ N @ H & Y @ F % V, then how is N related to F?

  1. AOption (a)

    Son’s wife

  2. BOption (b)

    Daughter

  3. COption (c)

    Daughter’s daughter

  4. DOption (d)

    Sister’s daughter

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Daughter’s daughter

Why this answer is correct

Given :

A is
Symbol#@&%
MeaningBrotherDaughterHusbandWife
to B

Given statement :- D @ N @ H & Y @ F % V

So,

  • D @ N → D is the daughter of N.

  • N @ H → N is the daughter of H.

  • H & Y → H is the husband of Y.

  • Y @ F → Y is the daughter of F.

​​

  • F % V → F is the wife of V.

​

Thus, according to the final family tree N is the granddaughter i.e daughter's daughter of F.

Hence, "Daughter’s daughter" is the correct answer.

Question 32

The second number in the given number-pairs is obtained by performing certain mathematical operation(s) on the first number. The same operation(s) is/are followed in all the number-pairs except one. Find that odd number-pair.

  1. AOption (a)

    5 : 128

  2. BOption (b)

    3 : 30

  3. COption (c)

    7 : 352

  4. DOption (d)

    1 : 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

7 : 352

Why this answer is correct

Logic : Number : Number3 + 3

So, we have to check the options one by one.

  1. 5 : 128  ⇒ 53 + 3 = 125 + 3 = 128

  2. 3 : 30  ⇒ 33 + 3 = 27 + 3 = 30

3) 7 : 352  ⇒ 73 + 3 = 343 + 3 = 346 ≠ 352

  1. 1 : 4  ⇒ 13 + 3 = 1 + 3 = 4

Thus, all except option 3 , follow the pattern.

Hence, the correct answer is "7 : 352".

Question 33

Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a circle facing the centre. B is between F and C, A is between E and D, and F is to the immediate left of D. Who is between A and F?

  1. AOption (a)

    D

  2. BOption (b)

    E

  3. COption (c)

    C

  4. DOption (d)

    B

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

D

Why this answer is correct

Given: Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a circle facing the centre. 

1) B is between F and C and F is to the immediate left of D.

2) A is between E and D.

Therefore, D is between A and F.

Hence, the correct answer is "D".

Question 34

Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at 'PQ' as shown below.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

The correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at MN is as shown below :-

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

Question 35

In this question, a statement is followed by two courses of action, numbered I and II. You must assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the information given in the statement, decide which course of action/s logically follows for pursuing.

Statement: A large number of the people of the city are diagnosed to be suffering from Malaria disease.

Course of Action:

I. The city municipal authorities should take immediate steps to carry out extensive fumigation in the city.

II. The people in the area should be advised to take steps to avoid mosquito bites.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both I and II follow

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II follows

  3. COption (c)

    Only I follows

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither I nor II follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both I and II follow

Why this answer is correct

Course of Action:

I) Malaria is a disease that spreads through the bites of infected mosquitoes. Therefore, to control the spread of malaria, it is necessary to take measures to eliminate mosquitoes from the affected areas. Hence, course of action I is logical, which suggests that the city municipal authorities should take immediate steps to carry out extensive fumigation in the city. This will help in killing mosquitoes and reducing the spread of malaria.

II) Furthermore, it is also important to educate and advise people about the precautions they should take to avoid mosquito bites. Therefore, course of action II is also logical, which suggests that the people in the area should be advised to take steps to avoid mosquito bites. These steps may include using mosquito repellents, wearing long-sleeved clothing, and using mosquito nets while sleeping.

Thus, both courses of action are important and should be implemented to control the spread of malaria in the city.

Hence, the correct answer is "Both I and II follow."

Question 36

Given below is a question followed by two statements I and II. Read both the statements carefully to decide which one of them is sufficient to answer the question. Six people - K, M, N, P, Q and R are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Who sits to the immediate right of K?

 

(I) K sits third to the left of M. Only one person sits between K and N. R sits to the immediate left of N.

(II) K sits second to the right of Q. Only two people sit between K and M. P sits second to the left of R.

  1. AOption (a)

    Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement II is not.

  2. BOption (b)

    Either data in statement I or statement II is sufficient to answer the question.

  3. COption (c)

    Data in statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question.

  4. DOption (d)

    Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement I is not

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Either data in statement I or statement II is sufficient to answer the question.

Why this answer is correct

Given : 

  1. Six people - K, M, N, P, Q and R
  2. They are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.

Explanation :

  • Statement (I) → K sits third to the left of M. Only one person sits between K and N. R sits to the immediate left of N.

⇒So, according to final arrangement of statement (I) R is sitting to the immediate right of K.

  • Statement (II) → K sits second to the right of Q. Only two people sit between K and M. P sits second to the left of R.

⇒So, according to final arrangement of statement (II) R is sitting to the immediate right of K.

Here, in both statements (I) and (II) R is sitting to the immediate right of K. Thus either data in statement I or statement II is sufficient to answer the question.

Hence, "Option - (2)" is the correct answer.

Question 37

If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷, and ÷ means +, what will be the value of the following expression?

5 ÷ 5 + 5 – 10 × 10 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    15

  2. BOption (b)

    4

  3. COption (c)

    5

  4. DOption (d)

    10

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

5

Why this answer is correct

Given:

  • + means −
  • − means ×
  • × means ÷
  • ÷ means +

We need to find the value of the following expression:

5 ÷ 5 + 5 – 10 × 10

Substituting the given symbols, we get:

5 + 5 - 5 × 10 ÷ 10

= 5 + 5 - 5 × 1

= 5 + 5 - 5

= 10 - 5 

= 5

Therefore, the value of the expression is 5.

Hence the correct answer is " Option (3)."

Question 38

A question is given, followed by two statements numbered (I) and (II). You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements is sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and select the appropriate answer.

Question: Six people sit in two parallel rows. In Row 1 - J, K and L sit facing towards north, and in Row 2 - F, G and H sit facing towards south. Each person in a row faces a person in the other row. Who faces G?

Statements:

(I) H faces K; L faces an immediate neighbour of H.

(II) G sits at one of the extreme ends of the row; J sits to the immediate left of L.

  1. AOption (a)

    Data in statements I and II together is sufficient to answer the question

  2. BOption (b)

    Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement I is not

  3. COption (c)

    Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement II is not

  4. DOption (d)

    Data in either statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Data in statements I and II together is sufficient to answer the question

Why this answer is correct

Given : 

  1. Six people sit in two parallel rows.
  2. In Row 1 - J, K and L sit facing towards north.
  3. In Row 2 - F, G and H sit facing towards south.
  4. Each person in a row faces a person in the other row.

Explanation : 

  • Statement (I) → H faces K; L faces an immediate neighbor of H.

​As any specific position of H, L and K cannot be determined, so no specific answer can drawn from it as this statement gives many possibilities.

So, statement (I) is not sufficient to answer the question.

  • Statement (II) → G sits at one of the extreme ends of the row; J sits to the immediate left of L.​

​As any specific position of G, J and L cannot be determined, so no specific answer can drawn from it as this statement gives many possibilities.

So, statement (II) is not sufficient to answer the question.

Now, Using both the statements :

  • Statement (I) + Statement (II) → H faces K; L faces an immediate neighbor of H. ​G sits at one of the extreme ends of the row; J sits to the immediate left of L.

​

So, using both the statements, J faces G. Thus data in statements I and II together is sufficient to answer the question.

Hence, "Option - (1)" is the correct answer.

Question 39

Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

58, 179, ?, 492, 688

  1. AOption (a)

    300

  2. BOption (b)

    269

  3. COption (c)

    313

  4. DOption (d)

    323

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

323

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "323".

Question 40

Three of the following words are alike in some manner and hence form a group. Which word does NOT belong to that group? (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be grouped based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)

  1. AOption (a)

    Excel

  2. BOption (b)

    Keynote

  3. COption (c)

    PowerPoint

  4. DOption (d)

    Word

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Keynote

Why this answer is correct

The group of words that are alike and form a group are:

  1. Excel
  2. PowerPoint
  3. Word

These three words are all software applications developed by Microsoft as part of its Office suite.

The word that does not belong to this group is "Keynote," a software application developed by Apple Inc. for creating and delivering presentations.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

Question 41

In a certain code language, ‘PAINT’ is written as ‘80’ and ‘DROP’ is written as ‘59’. How will ‘MARKET’ be written in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    100

  2. BOption (b)

    85

  3. COption (c)

    95

  4. DOption (d)

    90

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

100

Why this answer is correct

Logic : Sum of the position values of opposite letters according to the English alphabetical series and number of letters within the word are added.

​So,

  • ‘PAINT’ is written as ‘80’

​And,

  • ‘DROP’ is written as ‘59’

​Similarly,

  • ‘MARKET’ is written as :

​

Hence, "100" is the correct answer.

Question 42

A number has been denoted to each of the given letters. Select the option from the following four possible arrangements of these numbers that forms a meaningful word.

E = 1, Z = 2, L = 3, P = 4, U = 5, Z = 6

  1. AOption (a)

    4,5,1,6,2,3

  2. BOption (b)

    6,1,4,3,5,2

  3. COption (c)

    1,5,3,4,2,6

  4. DOption (d)

    4,5,6,2,3,1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

4,5,6,2,3,1

Why this answer is correct

Given: E = 1, Z = 2, L = 3, P = 4, U = 5, Z = 6

Using the given number denotations, we can form the following words by substituting the corresponding numbers for the letters:

  1. PUEZZL [4,5,1,6,2,3]
  2. ZEPLUZ [6,1,4,3,5,2]
  3. EULPZZ [1,5,3,4,2,6]
  4. PUZZLE [4,5,6,2,3,1]

Out of these, only option 4) can be rearranged to form a meaningful English word: PUZZLE.

Hence, the correct option is 4) 4,5,6,2,3,1.

Question 43

Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark (?) and complete the pattern.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

The logic here followed is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 44

Select the option that represents the letters that, when placed from left to right in the following blanks, will complete the letter-series.

Q W _ R T Q _ F R _ Q W _ _ T _ _ H R T

  1. AOption (a)

    F W T G R Q X

  2. BOption (b)

    E X T G R Q X

  3. COption (c)

    E W T G R Q W

  4. DOption (d)

    E W T H S Q W

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

E W T G R Q W

Why this answer is correct

Given: Q W _ R T Q _ F R _ Q W _ _ T _ _ H R T

Explantion:

Let's check each option:

1) F W T G R Q X →  Q W F R T  -  Q W F R T   -  Q W G R T  -  Q X H R T 

2) E X T G R Q X →  Q W E R T  -  Q X F R T   -  Q W G R T   -  Q X H R T

3) E W T G R Q W  → Q W E R T  -  Q W F R T  -  Q W G R T  -  Q W H R T

4) E W T H S Q W  →  Q W E R T  -  Q W F R T   -  Q W H S T   -  Q W H R T

So, In option 3 "QWERT" is repeating itself. E is rotating by its next letter.

Hence, ‘E W T G R Q W " is the correct answer.

Question 45

Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to sequentially replace the * signs and balance the given equation.

21 * 3 * 36 * 2 * 23 = 68

  1. AOption (a)

    ÷ − × +

  2. BOption (b)

    ÷ × + −

  3. COption (c)
    • × − ÷
  4. DOption (d)

    × − ÷ +

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

× − ÷ +

Why this answer is correct

Given: 21 * 3 * 36 * 2 * 23 = 68

Replacing * to × − ÷ +

21 × 3 - 36 ÷  2 + 23 = 68

First, we perform division from left to right:

21 × 3 - 18 + 23 = 68

Second, we perform the multiplication 

63 - 18 + 23 = 68

Next, we perform the addition and subtraction from left to right:

86 -18 = 68

68 = 68

Therefore, the equation is balanced when we replace the * signs with × − ÷ and + in the following order:

21 × 3 - 36 ÷  2 + 23 = 68

Hence, the correct answer is "× − ÷ +".

Question 46

The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown below. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of the paper.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

The logic here followed is :

 

   This diagram and the answer diagram are different. Both are closest resemble.

when we unfold it according to the highlighted diagram we will get the closest resemble  the unfolded form of the paper.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 47

Which of the following letter-clusters should replace # and % so that the pattern and relationship followed between the letter-cluster pair on the left side of :: is the same as that on the right side of ::?

: DKR :: PCL: %

  1. AOption (a)

    = BNQ, % = NFM

  2. BOption (b)

    = FHT, % = NFJ

  3. COption (c)

    = COQ, % = OGH

  4. DOption (d)

    = BNP, % = NFJ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

= FHT, % = NFJ

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :- 

  1. First and third letters → (2) is subtracted from the position value according to English alphabetic series.
  2. Second letter → (3) is added to the position value according to English alphabetic series.

​So,

  • = BNQ, % = NFM ⇒ BNQ : DKR :: PCL: NFM

​

⇒Here, no similar pattern can be seen.

  • = FHT, % = NFJ ⇒ FHT : DKR :: PCL: NFJ

​

⇒Here, similar pattern can be seen.

  • = COQ, % = OGH ⇒ COQ : DKR :: PCL: OGH

​

⇒Here, no similar pattern can be seen.

  • = BNP, % = NFJ ⇒ BNP : DKR :: PCL: NFJ

​

⇒Here, no similar pattern can be seen.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option - (2)".

Question 48

All 32 students in a class are standing in a row facing north. Akash is 12th from the right end while Priya is 18th from the left end. How many people are standing between Akash and Priya?

  1. AOption (a)

    Two

  2. BOption (b)

    Four

  3. COption (c)

    Three

  4. DOption (d)

    Five

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Two

Why this answer is correct

The total number of students in the class is 32, and Akash is 12th from the right end. Therefore, the number of people standing to the left of Akash is:

32 - 12 = 20

Position of Akhash from left = 20 + 1 = 21

While Priya is 18th from the left end. 

Therefore, 19th and 20th students are standing between Akash and Priya.

Hence, the correct answer is "Two".

Question 49

Select the option in which the following figure is embedded. (Rotation is NOT allowed)

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

Given:

  • The image must not to be rotated

Hence, the correct answer is "Option - (1)".

Question 50

Three Statements are given followed by four conclusions numbered 1, 2, 3,and 4. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically does NOT follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

All P are G.

Some G are B.

All B are C.

Conclusions:

  1. All P being C is a possibility.

  2. Some P are B.

  3. Some C are G.

  4. Some G are P

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 3rd does not follow.

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 4th does not follow.

  3. COption (c)

    Only 2nd does not follow.

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 1st does not follow.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only 2nd does not follow.

Why this answer is correct

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

  1. All P being C is a possibility → Follow (As all P are G, some G are B and all B are C. So, as no negative or cross relation between P and C is given, therefore it is definitely true)

  2. Some P are B → Does not follow (As all P are G and some G are B. So, it is possible but not definitely true)

  3. Some C are G → Follow (As some G are B and all B are C. So, as Some part of G are B which whole comes in C, therefore it is definitely true)

  4. Some G are P → Follow (As all P are G. So, Some G are P is definitely true)

∴ Here, All conclusions follows, except conclusion - (2).​

Hence, the correct answer is "Only 2nd does not follow"

Question 51

In this question, two statements I and II have been given. These statements may be independent causes or effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of the statements maybe the effect of the other statement. Read both statements and select the correct answer.

I. This year College X reduced the cut-off marks to 50 from 60 for the entrance exam.

II. In the last two years, the Students Union in College X has been actively negotiating with the college administration regarding the Quality of food and Health and Hygiene standards at the College Canteen.

  1. AOption (a)

    II is the cause and I is its possible effect

  2. BOption (b)

    I is the cause and II is its possible effect

  3. COption (c)

    Both I and II are effects of independent causes

  4. DOption (d)

    Both I and II are independent causes

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both I and II are effects of independent causes

Why this answer is correct

Statements:

I. This year College X reduced the cut-off marks to 50 from 60 for the entrance exam.

Statement I is the effect of the college's decision to reduce the cut-off marks, which could be due to various reasons such as low enrollment or competition from other colleges.

II. In the last two years, the Students Union in College X has been actively negotiating with the college administration regarding the Quality of food and Health and Hygiene standards at the College Canteen

Statement II is the effect of the Students Union's efforts to improve the quality of food and hygiene standards at the college canteen, which could be due to concerns raised by students or external regulations.

Therefore, both statements are independent effects of different causes and are not directly related to each other.

Hence, Option 3 is correct because both statements are independent effects of different causes.

Question 52

‘A # B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’.

‘A @ B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’.

‘A & B’ means ‘A is the husband of B’.

‘A % B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’.

If W % D # G @ B & M @ I, then how is D related to M?

  1. AOption (a)

    Father’s father

  2. BOption (b)

    Father

  3. COption (c)

    Grandson

  4. DOption (d)

    Son

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Son

Why this answer is correct

Given :

A is
Symbol#@&%
MeaningBrotherDaughterHusbandWife
to B

Given statement :- W % D # G @ B & M @ I

So,

  • W % D → W is the wife of D.

  • D # G → D is the brother of G.

  • G @ B → G is the daughter of B.

  • B & M → B is the husband of M.

​​

  • M @ I → M is the daughter of I.

​

Thus, according to the final family tree D is the son of M.

Hence, "Son" is the correct answer.

Question 53

Out of the following five figures, four are alike in some manner and one differs from these in that manner. Select the odd figure.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

Logic : In each figure '

' part of the figure is in the opposite direction to the other one. 

So,

  • Option - (1) :

 

⇒In the figure'

' part of the figure is not in the opposite direction to the other one i.e they are in the same direction.

  • Option - (2) :

 ⇒

In the figure '

' part of the family is in the opposite direction to the other one.

  • Option - (3) :

⇒

⇒In the figure '

' part of the family is in the opposite direction to the other one.

  • Option - (4) :

 ⇒

⇒In the figure '

' part of the family is in the opposite direction to the other one.

Here, Figure - (1) is the odd one out.

Hence, "Option - (1)" is the correct answer.

Question 54

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is NOT allowed)

(11, 33, 17), (18, 44, 21)

  1. AOption (a)

    (12, 40, 18)

  2. BOption (b)

    (7, 32, 9)

  3. COption (c)

    (16, 43, 22)

  4. DOption (d)

    (15, 34, 19)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(16, 43, 22)

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :

(First number + Third Number ) + 5 = Second Number

(11, 33, 17) ⇒ (11 + 17) + 5 = 33

(18, 44, 21) ⇒ (18 + 21 ) + 5 = 44

Option (1): (12, 40, 18) ⇒ (12 + 18) + 5 = 35 ≠ 40

Option (2): (7, 32, 9) ⇒ (7 + 9) + 5 = 21 ≠ 32

Option (3): (16, 43, 22)  ⇒ (16 + 22) + 5 = 43

Option (4): (15, 34, 19) ⇒ (15 + 19) + 5 = 39 ≠ 34

Hence, the correct answer is "(16, 43, 22) "

Question 55

Out of the following five figures, four are alike in some manner and one differs from these in that manner. Select the odd figure.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

Logic : In each figure both the circle which are half shaded are identical.

So,

  • Option - (1) :

 

⇒ Both the circles are not identical.

  • Option - (2) :

 

⇒ Both the circles are identical.

  • Option - (3) :

⇒ Both the circles are identical.

  • Option - (4) :

 ⇒ Both the circles are identical.

Here, Figure - (1) is the odd one out.

Hence, "Option - (1)" is the correct answer.

Question 56

Figure A is related to B in a certain pattern. Following the same pattern, figure C is related to D. Study the pattern and select the figure which should be placed in place of D.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :-

  • Letters at the corners flipped horizontally.
  • Letter at the left corner also shifts to the center within the triangle figure.
  • Letters shifting - Left corner up letter shifted to left corner corner down and right corner letter shifted to left corner up.

So,

  • Figures A and B ⇒

​

Similarly,

  • Figure C and D ⇒

​

Hence, "Option - (2)" is the correct answer.

Question 57

In a certain language the word CLOCK is written as 4 – 13 – 17 – 4 – 12. How will PHONE be written in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    17 - 10 - 16 - 15 - 6

  2. BOption (b)

    17 - 9 - 16 - 17 - 6

  3. COption (c)

    17 - 9 - 17 - 15 - 6

  4. DOption (d)

    16 - 9 - 15 - 16 - 5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

17 - 9 - 17 - 15 - 6

Why this answer is correct

According to the English alphabet and their positional value:

Here is the logic followed:

CLOCK is written as 4 – 13 – 17 – 4 – 12.

Similarly,

 PHONE is written as _____________

Therefore, the correct answer is " 17 - 9 - 17 - 15 - 6 ".

Question 58

In the following question, the statement is followed by two conclusions. Which of the two conclusions is/are true?

Statement: M < K > I < J > H = G ≤ F

Conclusions:

I. H = F

II. J > G

  1. AOption (a)

    Only conclusion I is true

  2. BOption (b)

    Both conclusions I and II are true

  3. COption (c)

    Only conclusion II is true

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither conclusion I nor II is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only conclusion II is true

Why this answer is correct

We can combine the given equation to form:

M < K > I < J > H = G ≤ F

 

Now, let's evaluate the given conclusions:

I. H = F: Does not true [because we know that If we combine the equations H = G and G ≤ F, we get: H  ≤ F, G can be equal to or less than F, and H is not directly related to either G or F.

II. J > G: true. [If we combine the equations J > H = G, We know that J is greater than both H and G. Therefore, J must be greater than G.]

Hence, only conclusion II is true, and we can conclude that J is greater than G.

Hence the correct answer is "Option 3"

Question 59

Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is:

  1. For '

' element :

  • Each '

' element is shifting one and two places in the clockwise direction subsequently.

  • Each '

' element is rotating 90º clockwise direction subsequently.

​Similarly, all arrows follow the same rules. 

Thus, final series is :

Hence, the correct answer is "Option - (2)".

Question 60

Directions

A statement is given followed by two inferences I and II. You have to consider the statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance with commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given inferences, if any, follow from the given statement.

Statement:

National Expressway-A is the widest expressway and is used by few people. When people find an empty and wide road, people drive at high speed, which leads to accidents.

Inference:

I. All accidents happen due to over speeding.

II. High speed increases the risk of accident.

  1. AOption (a)

    If only I follows

  2. BOption (b)

    If both I and II follow

  3. COption (c)

    If only II follows

  4. DOption (d)

    If neither I nor II follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

If only II follows

Why this answer is correct

The given statement mentions that National Expressway-A is the widest expressway and is used by few people. When people find an empty and wide road, they tend to drive at high speed, which leads to accidents.

Now, let's evaluate the given inferences:

I. All accidents happen due to over speeding: This inference is not necessarily true. While it is mentioned in the statement that driving at high speed can lead to accidents, it doesn't mean that all accidents happen due to over speeding.

II. High speed increases the risk of accident: This inference is true. It is mentioned in the statement that driving at high speed on a wide and empty road leads to accidents, which implies that high speed increases the risk of an accident.

Hence, only inference II follows from the given statement.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Section II (70 questions)

Question 61

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

The colossal building stood amidst the ruins bearing signs of Victorian architecture

  1. AOption (a)

    Enormous

  2. BOption (b)

    Extraordinary

  3. COption (c)

    Quaint

  4. DOption (d)

    Tiny

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Tiny

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Tiny.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate antonym of the underlined word "colossal" is "tiny."
  • The word "colossal" means extremely large or enormous in size or extent.
  • The antonym of "colossal" is something that is very small or tiny.
  • ​For example, a tiny ant is the antonym of a colossal building.
  • The word "tiny" means very small in size or amount.
  • Here's an example sentence: "The tiny kitten was so small that it could fit in the palm of my hand."
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 4.

Additional Information

  • Other options and their meanings:
  • Enormous - This word is a synonym of "colossal" and means extremely large or huge. It is not an antonym.
  • Example: The enormous elephant walked slowly across the savanna.
  • Extraordinary - This word means exceptional, remarkable, or unusual. It is not an antonym of "colossal."
  • Example: The extraordinary achievements of the scientist earned him a Nobel prize.
  • Quaint - This word means charmingly old-fashioned, unusual, or picturesque. It is not an antonym of "colossal."
  • Example: The quaint little village was popular among tourists.
  • In summary, the most appropriate antonym of "colossal" is "tiny."

Question 62

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

Willful destruction

  1. AOption (a)

    Disaster

  2. BOption (b)

    Combustion

  3. COption (c)

    Calamity

  4. DOption (d)

    Sabotage

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Sabotage

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Sabotage.

Key Points

  • The one-word substitute for the group of words "willful destruction" is "sabotage."
  • The term "willful destruction" implies the act of intentionally causing damage or harm to someone or something.
  • "Sabotage" means deliberate destruction or damage to property or equipment. (अंतर्ध्वंस, तोड़-फोड़)
  • For example, cutting the brake line of a car to cause an accident or damaging the machinery of a factory to disrupt production can be called sabotage.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 4.

Additional Information

  • Other options and their meanings:
  • Disaster - This word refers to a sudden and widespread event that causes great damage, destruction, or loss of life. It is not a one-word substitute for "willful destruction." (आपदा)
  • Example: The earthquake caused a disaster in the region, leaving thousands of people homeless.
  • Combustion - This word refers to a process of burning or a chemical reaction that produces heat and light. It is not a one-word substitute for "willful destruction." (ज्वलन, जलना)
  • Example: The combustion engine is widely used in transportation.
  • Calamity - This word refers to an event that causes great harm, suffering, or damage. It is not a one-word substitute for "willful destruction." (आपदा, विपत्ति)
  • Example: The flood was a calamity for the farmers in the area, destroying their crops and homes.
  • In summary, the correct one-word substitute for the group of words "willful destruction" is "sabotage."

Question 63

Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. Tigers are the largest members of the cat family. They are found in many parts of Asia.

B. They mostly live in dark forests and sleep during the day. They come out for hunting pigs and deer by night.

C. It is assumed that, probably, around 3,000 tigers live in the wild. This species looks spectacular and grand and they are very graceful in their movements.

D. It is almost impossible for us to see them against a jungle background, especially when they are standing still, because of their striped coats. Unlike, most cats, the tiger likes bathing very much.

  1. AOption (a)

    ABCD

  2. BOption (b)

    CDBA

  3. COption (c)

    ACBD

  4. DOption (d)

    ADBC

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

ACBD

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is ACBD.

Key Points

  • The correct order of the sentences to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph is ACBD.
  • The first sentence 'A' introduces the topic of the paragraph, which is the tiger. It provides general information about tigers and where they can be found.
  • The third sentence 'C' gives us more specific information about the tiger population. It tells us that there are approximately 3,000 tigers in the wild.
  • The second sentence 'B' describes the habitat of tigers and their behavior. It tells us that they mostly live in dark forests and come out at night for hunting.
  • The fourth sentence 'D' provides additional information about the tiger's appearance and behavior. It tells us that tigers are difficult to see against a jungle background because of their striped coats. It also mentions that tigers like to bathe, which is an unusual behavior for cats.
  • Therefore, the correct order of sentences to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph is ACBD.

Correct Sequence:

A. Tigers are the largest members of the cat family. They are found in many parts of Asia.

C. It is assumed that, probably, around 3,000 tigers live in the wild. This species looks spectacular and grand and they are very graceful in their movements.

B. They mostly live in dark forests and sleep during the day. They come out for hunting pigs and deer by night.

D. It is almost impossible for us to see them against a jungle background, especially when they are standing still, because of their striped coats. Unlike, most cats, the tiger likes bathing very much.

Question 64

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

A good leader should be ready to ________ criticism.

  1. AOption (a)

    settle

  2. BOption (b)

    meet

  3. COption (c)

    face

  4. DOption (d)

    carry

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

face

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Face.

Key Points

  • The correct answer is "face".
  • "Face criticism" is a common collocation.
  • "Face" in this context means to confront or deal with something difficult or unpleasant.
  • Example: The CEO faced harsh criticism from shareholders over the company's poor financial performance.
  • The other options don't fit well in this context:
  • "Settle criticism" doesn't make sense as criticism is not a dispute that can be settled.
  • "Meet criticism" could work, but it doesn't convey the idea of confronting the criticism head-on, which is what "face" implies.
  • "Carry criticism" doesn't make sense in this context either.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 3.

Correct Sentence: A good leader should be ready to face criticism.

Question 65

Select the most appropriate meaning of the highlighted idiom.

The youth involved in the accident escaped by the skin of his teeth.

  1. AOption (a)

    Barely managed to escape

  2. BOption (b)

    Very arrogant

  3. COption (c)

    Always taking calculated decisions

  4. DOption (d)

    Deficiency of funds

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Barely managed to escape

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Barely managed to escape.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate meaning of the idiom "by the skin of his teeth" is "barely managed to escape."
  • This idiom is used to describe a situation where someone has just managed to avoid a difficult or dangerous situation by a very narrow margin.
  • In the given sentence, the youth was involved in an accident but managed to escape by a very close margin, which means that he just barely managed to avoid being harmed or injured.
  • Example: John missed his flight by just a few minutes, but he managed to catch it by the skin of his teeth.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 1.

Additional Information

  • Option 1, which means "barely managed to escape," is therefore the correct answer.
  • Option 2, which means "very arrogant," is not related to the given idiom and is incorrect.
  • Option 3, which means "always taking calculated decisions," is also not related to the given idiom and is incorrect.
  • Option 4, which means "deficiency of funds," is also not related to the given idiom and is incorrect.

Question 66

Select the correct homonym from the given options to fill in the blank.

Which ________does the minister take to reach the Assembly?

  1. AOption (a)

    root

  2. BOption (b)

    rot

  3. COption (c)

    route

  4. DOption (d)

    riot

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

route

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Route.

Key Points

  • The correct homonym is "route".
  • Homonyms are words that have the same spelling or pronunciation but different meanings.
  • In this case, "root" refers to the underground part of a plant, "rot" refers to the process of decay, and "riot" refers to a violent disturbance.
  • "Route", on the other hand, refers to a path or direction taken to get from one place to another.
  • Example: "The GPS app shows the best route to take to avoid traffic."
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 3.

Correct Sentence: Which route the minister take to reach the Assembly?

Additional Information

  • Other examples of homonyms include "bear" (an animal) and "bear" (to tolerate), "bow" (a weapon) and "bow" (to bend forward), and "lead" (a metal) and "lead" (to guide).

Question 67

For the four-sentence (S1 to S4) paragraph below, sentences S1 and S4 are given. From the options P, Q, R and S select the appropriate sentences for S2 and S3, respectively.

(S1) The men and women took their places after the initial mingling, and immediately a surge of conversation filled the room.

(S2)

(S3)

(S4) One or two of the women were actually bouncing up and down on the sofa cushions.

(P) So, the two parties had to lean forward, their elbows on their knees.

(Q) At the beginning they mingled awkwardly, clutching their drinks, and walking here and there.

(R) Several people made a last-minute dash to the bathroom before the conversation could start.

(S) The men’s chairs were far enough away from the women’s couches.

  1. AOption (a)

    P, R

  2. BOption (b)

    R, Q

  3. COption (c)

    Q, S

  4. DOption (d)

    S, P 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

S, P 

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is S, P.

Key Points

  • The correct answer is S, P, which means that sentence S should be placed as sentence 2 and sentence P should be placed as sentence 3.
  • Sentence S "The men’s chairs were far enough away from the women’s couches" provides a detail about the seating arrangement, and thus makes sense as the second sentence, right after the sentence that talks about the initial mingling.
  • Sentence P "So, the two parties had to lean forward, their elbows on their knees" talks about the seating arrangements, and is a logical follow-up to sentence S. This also helps to create a clear picture in the reader's mind about the seating arrangements in the room.
  • Therefore, the correct sequence of sentences is:

(S1) The men and women took their places after the initial mingling, and immediately a surge of conversation filled the room.

(S2) The men’s chairs were far enough away from the women’s couches.

(S3) So, the two parties had to lean forward, their elbows on their knees.

(S4) One or two of the women were actually bouncing up and down on the sofa cushions.

Question 68

The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

Although he lived close to the station, he still travelled by bus.

  1. AOption (a)

    Although he lived close

  2. BOption (b)

    to the station, 

  3. COption (c)

    he still travelled by bus.

  4. DOption (d)

    No error

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

No error

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: No error.

Key Points

  • Let's see why the sentence is grammatically correct.
  • Uses "although" to introduce a subordinate clause, creating a clear contrast.
  • Maintains subject-verb agreement in both clauses.
  • Employs "still" appropriately to highlight the contrast.
  • Uses proper punctuation for clarity.
  • Maintains logical coherence and stylistic fluency.
  • Hence, no changes are required in this question.

Question 69

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Vishal is going to read the story _________.

  1. AOption (a)

    load

  2. BOption (b)

    allow

  3. COption (c)

    aloud

  4. DOption (d)

    allowed

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

aloud

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Aloud.

Key Points

  • The correct option to fill in the blank is "aloud" (Option 3).
  • The word "aloud" means to speak or read something audibly or loudly.
  • In the given context, Vishal is going to read the story in a way that it can be heard by others.
  • Examples:
  • She always reads her favorite book aloud to her younger sister.
  • The teacher asked the students to read the passage aloud in the class.
  • Option 1, "load," means to put a burden or weight on something. It is not relevant to the given context.
  • Option 2, "allow," means to give permission for something. It does not fit the context of reading a story.
  • Option 4, "allowed," is the past tense form of "allow," and is also not relevant to the given context.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 3.

Correct Sentence: Vishal is going to read the story aloud.

Question 70

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

My father give up / smoking when / I was twelve / years old.

  1. AOption (a)

    My father give up

  2. BOption (b)

    smoking when

  3. COption (c)

    I was twelve

  4. DOption (d)

    years old

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

My father give up

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is My father give up.

Key Points

  • The verb "give up" needs to be in the past tense, as the action has already happened. (the action happened when the speaker was twelve years old)
  • The various verb forms of "give" are:
  • Infinitive: to give
  • Present tense: give(s)
  • Past tense: gave
  • Present participle: giving
  • Past participle: given
  • Therefore, it should be "gave up" instead of "give up".
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct Sentence: My father gave up smoking when I was twelve years old.

Question 71

Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

  1. AOption (a)

    Descendant

  2. BOption (b)

    Deceased

  3. COption (c)

    Decimate

  4. DOption (d)

    Desedent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Desedent

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

  • The incorrect spelled word is "Desedent" (option 4).
  • Descendant - a person who is related to someone who lived in the past, such as an ancestor or a descendant.
  • Example: John is a descendant of the royal family.
  • Deceased - dead.
  • Example: The deceased was buried in the cemetery yesterday.
  • Decimate - to destroy a large part of something.
  • Example: The plague decimated the population of the town.
  • Desedent - The word is incorrectly spelled. The correct spelling is "descendent," which means descending or coming down from an ancestor; something that is descending or coming down.
  • Example: The descendent line of the royal family can be traced back to the 14th century.

Confusion Points

  • Both "descendant" and "descendent" are correct spellings, but "descendant" is the more commonly used spelling in modern English.
  • "Descendant" is used to refer to a person who is descended from a particular ancestor, while "descendent" is used to refer to something that is descending or coming down.
  • Example sentences:
  • My great-grandmother was a direct descendant of the Mayflower pilgrims.
  • The bird's wings created a slow and graceful descendent flight.
  • He was surprised to learn that he was a descendant of a famous historical figure.
  • The elevator's descendent movement was interrupted by a sudden jolt.

Question 72

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in reported speech.

Raghav said to Meera, “Are you upset with me?”

  1. AOption (a)

    Raghav asked Meera if she was upset with her. 

  2. BOption (b)

    Raghav asked Meera if she was upset with him.  

  3. COption (c)

    Raghav asked Meera if she was upset with me.

  4. DOption (d)

    Raghav asked Meera why she was upset with him.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Raghav asked Meera if she was upset with him.  

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Raghav asked Meera if she was upset with him.  

Key Points

  • The original sentence is in direct speech, where Raghav directly asked Meera if she was upset with him.
  • In reported speech, we need to change the sentence to reflect that it was said in the past and reported by someone else.
  • To convert direct speech to reported speech, we need to follow certain rules:
  • We need to change the tense of the verb in the reported clause. In this case, the present tense "are" in the direct speech changes to past tense "was" in the reported speech.
  • We also need to change the pronouns and adjectives to reflect the speaker and listener in the reported speech.
  • In this case, "me" in the direct speech refers to Raghav, so it changes to "him" in the reported speech.
  • Based on these rules, option 2) "Raghav asked Meera if she was upset with him" is the correct reported speech for the given sentence.
  • Option 1) Raghav asked Meera if she was upset with her is incorrect because it uses the wrong pronoun for Raghav.
  • Option 3) Raghav asked Meera if she was upset with me is also incorrect because it uses the wrong pronoun for the reported speaker.
  • Option 4) Raghav asked Meera why she was upset with him is also incorrect.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 2.

Question 73

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.

The task has been completed.

  1. AOption (a)

    Someone has completed the task. 

  2. BOption (b)

    Someone has been completing the task.

  3. COption (c)

    Someone will be completing the task.

  4. DOption (d)

    Someone completes the task. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Someone has completed the task. 

Why this answer is correct

The correct active voice for the given sentence is: Someone has completed the task.

Key Points

  • The original sentence is in the passive voice, where the focus is on the task and not on who completed it.
  • In the passive voice, the subject is often not specified, and the focus is on the action or the object of the action.
  • To convert a passive voice sentence to an active voice sentence, we need to follow certain rules:
  • Identify the subject and object in the passive sentence. In this case, the subject is not specified, and the object is "the task."
  • Rewrite the sentence to make the subject the doer of the action and the object the receiver of the action.
  • In this case, we need to add a subject (the person or group of people who completed the task) and make it the doer of the action.
  • We also need to make the task the receiver of the action.
  • Based on these rules, option 1) Someone has completed the task is the correct active voice for the given sentence.
  • Option 2) Someone has been completing the task is incorrect because it implies ongoing or continuous action, rather than a completed action.
  • Option 3) Someone will be completing the task is also incorrect because it refers to a future action, rather than a completed action.
  • Option 4) Someone completes the task is not a correct option because it refers to the task's completion as a general statement and not a specific instance of the task being completed.

Question 74

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

We can buy books online from Amazon.

  1. AOption (a)

    Books were to be bought online from Amazon. 

  2. BOption (b)

    Books are bought online from Amazon. 

  3. COption (c)

    Books can be bought online from Amazon. 

  4. DOption (d)

    Books could be bought online from Amazon.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Books can be bought online from Amazon. 

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Books can be bought online from Amazon. 

Key Points

  • The given sentence is in active voice. We need to change it into passive voice.
  • 'can buy' becomes 'can be bought'.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 3.

Correct Passive Voice: Books can be bought online from Amazon.

Question 75

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

Edward II is tragic than some other plays by the dramatist.

  1. AOption (a)

    as least tragic as 

  2. BOption (b)

    No substitution required 

  3. COption (c)

    the most tragic 

  4. DOption (d)

    less tragic than 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

less tragic than 

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Less tragic than.

Key Points

  • The correct option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence is "less tragic than".
  • The original sentence is comparing the level of tragedy in "Edward II" with the level of tragedy in some other plays by the same dramatist.
  • The phrase "tragic than" is used to convey this comparison.
  • However, the phrase is grammatically incorrect because it is missing the comparative adjective that is required to complete the comparison.
  • The correct comparative form of "tragic" is "more/less tragic than".
  • Out of the given options, only option 4) "less tragic than" correctly substitutes the underlined segment and completes the comparison by providing the comparative adjective. The sentence now means that "Edward II" is not as tragic as some other plays by the same dramatist.
  • Option 1) "as least tragic as" is incorrect.
  • Option 2) "No substitution required" is incorrect because the underlined segment needs to be substituted in order to complete the comparison correctly.
  • Option 3) "the most tragic" is incorrect because it is not providing the correct comparison. "The most tragic" would mean that "Edward II" is the most tragic play by the dramatist, which is not what the original sentence was trying to convey.
  • Examples:
  • This book is more interesting than the other one.
  • My car is less expensive than your car.
  • The blue dress is prettier than the green one.
  • In each of these examples, the comparative form of the adjective is used to compare two things.
  • In summary, the correct option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence is "less tragic than". It completes the comparison by providing the comparative adjective and makes the sentence grammatically correct.

Therefore, the corrected sentence would read as: "Edward II is less tragic than some other plays by the dramatist."

Question 76

Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

a. Many fitness trainers encourage their clients to include these foods in their diet to build muscle.

b. Power foods can be included in your everyday diet in a variety of ways.

c. The secret to getting the most out of power foods is, of course, knowing how to cook them properly, buying seasonal produce and recognising your preferred flavour profile.

d. Power foods are high in nutrients such as fibre, potassium and minerals

  1. AOption (a)

    d, b, c, a 

  2. BOption (b)

    d, a, b, c 

  3. COption (c)

    b, c, a, d 

  4. DOption (d)

    a, d, b, c 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

d, a, b, c 

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is "d, a, b, c".

Key Points

  • The correct order of the sentences is "dabc".
  • Sentence d introduces the topic of power foods and explains that they are high in nutrients.
  • Sentence a expands on this by mentioning that fitness trainers recommend these foods to build muscle.
  • Sentence b then explains how power foods can be included in everyday diets, and sentence c concludes the paragraph by providing tips on how to cook power foods properly and get the most out of them.
  • This sequence of sentences flows logically and coherently, making "dabc" the correct order.

Correct Sequence: 

d. Power foods are high in nutrients such as fibre, potassium and minerals

a. Many fitness trainers encourage their clients to include these foods in their diet to build muscle.

b. Power foods can be included in your everyday diet in a variety of ways.

c. The secret to getting the most out of power foods is, of course, knowing how to cook them properly, buying seasonal produce and recognising your preferred flavour profile.

Question 77

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

The new Principal of the school is stern, yet he understands the needs of his subordinates.

  1. AOption (a)

    Flippant

  2. BOption (b)

    Lenient

  3. COption (c)

    Desolate

  4. DOption (d)

    Noxious

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Lenient

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Lenient.

Key Points

  • The antonym of the word "stern" is "lenient".
  • The word "stern" means **serious and unrelenting in nature (**कठोर, बहुत गंभीर), while "lenient" means **showing mercy or being easygoing. (**नरम, सौम्‍य)
  • Examples of "stern" in a sentence:
  • The teacher gave a stern warning to the students who were misbehaving in class.
  • The coach had a stern demeanor when addressing the players after the loss.
  • The judge's stern verdict sent a strong message to others who might commit the same crime.
  • Examples of "lenient" in a sentence:
  • The manager was lenient with the employee who made a mistake, giving her another chance to improve.
  • The teacher was lenient with the deadline for the assignment, allowing students to turn it in a few days late.
  • The judge was criticized for being too lenient in sentencing the convicted criminal.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 2.

Additional Information

  • The other options and their meanings are:
  • Flippant: not taking things seriously, lacking proper respect or seriousness (छिछोरा, चंचल)
  • Desolate: deserted, empty, or barren (निर्जन और अवसादपूर्ण)
  • Noxious: harmful, poisonous, or offensive in smell or taste. (हानिकर या विषैला)

Question 78

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The friends decided to play cards to __________ time while waiting for the cab.

  1. AOption (a)

    ignore

  2. BOption (b)

    kill

  3. COption (c)

    move

  4. DOption (d)

    ease

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

kill

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Kill.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate option to fill in the blank is "kill".
  • The phrase "to kill time" means to do something to make time pass more quickly or to make the time seem less boring.
  • In the given sentence, the friends are waiting for a cab and playing cards to make the time pass more quickly.
  • Example: I always bring a book to read in the waiting room to kill time before my appointment.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 2.

Correct Sentence: The friends decided to play cards to kill time while waiting for the cab.

Additional Information

  • The other options are:
  • "Ignore" means to pay no attention to something or someone. This word is not appropriate in the given sentence.
  • "Move" means to change one's position or location. This word is not appropriate in the given sentence.
  • "Ease" means to make something less difficult, painful, or severe. This word is not appropriate in the given sentence.
  • Examples:
  • He ignored the warning signs and continued to drive in the storm.
  • We need to move the couch to make room for the new TV.
  • Taking painkillers can ease the pain of a headache.

Question 79

Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A) Healthy, strong trees act as carbon sinks, offsetting carbon and reducing the effects of climate change.

B) Trees help to clean the air we breathe. Through their leaves and bark, they absorb harmful pollutants and release clean oxygen for us to breathe.

C) Increasing levels of carbon dioxide caused by deforestation and fossil fuel combustion trap heat in the atmosphere.

D) In urban environments, trees absorb pollutant gases like nitrogen oxides, ozone, and carbon monoxide, and sweep up particles like dust and smoke.

  1. AOption (a)

    BDCA

  2. BOption (b)

    DBAC

  3. COption (c)

    CDAB

  4. DOption (d)

    ABCD

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

BDCA

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is BDCA.

Key Points

  • The paragraph discusses the important role of trees in reducing the negative effects of climate change and improving air quality.
  • B begins by discussing how trees help to clean the air by absorbing harmful pollutants and releasing clean oxygen.
  • D continues the discussion of the benefits of trees in urban environments, where they absorb pollutant gases and particles.
  • C then introduces the problem of increasing levels of carbon dioxide and the negative impact it has on the environment.
  • Finally, A provides a solution to this problem by stating that healthy, strong trees act as carbon sinks, offsetting carbon and reducing the effects of climate change.
  • Thus, the correct order of the sentences is BDCA.

Correct Sequence: 

B) Trees help to clean the air we breathe. Through their leaves and bark, they absorb harmful pollutants and release clean oxygen for us to breathe.

D) In urban environments, trees absorb pollutant gases like nitrogen oxides, ozone, and carbon monoxide, and sweep up particles like dust and smoke.

C) Increasing levels of carbon dioxide caused by deforestation and fossil fuel combustion trap heat in the atmosphere.

A) Healthy, strong trees act as carbon sinks, offsetting carbon and reducing the effects of climate change.

Question 80

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in reported speech.

Shikha said, “The heavy rain this week has spoiled all my travel plans.”

  1. AOption (a)

    Shikha said that the heavy rain that week had spoiled all her travel plans.

  2. BOption (b)

    Shikha told me that the heavy rain that week had spoiled all her travel plans.

  3. COption (c)

    Shikha said that the heavy rain that week has spoiled all her travel plans. 

  4. DOption (d)

    Shikha said that the heavy rain this week had spoiled all her travel plans.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Shikha said that the heavy rain that week had spoiled all her travel plans.

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Shikha said that the heavy rain that week had spoiled all her travel plans.

Key Points

  • The given sentence is in direct speech. We need to change it into indirect speech.
  • Commas and inverted commas will be removed and 'that' will be added.
  • Present perfect tense (has spoiled) changes to past perfect tense (had spoiled).
  • 'this' changes to 'that'.
  • The pronoun 'my' changes to 'her'.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct Indirect Speech: Shikha said that the heavy rain that week had spoiled all her travel plans.

Question 81

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A person who admires himself or herself too much, especially their appearance

  1. AOption (a)

    Narcissist

  2. BOption (b)

    Egoist

  3. COption (c)

    Selfish

  4. DOption (d)

    Dictator

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Narcissist

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Narcissist.

Key Points

  • Narcissist refers to a person who has an excessive interest in or admiration of themselves and their physical appearance.
  • They have an exaggerated sense of self-importance and often seek attention and admiration from others.
  • (इन लक्षणों वाले लोग अति आत्मविश्वास के साथ सामने आते हैं और यह शुरुआत में दूसरों को गुमराह कर सकते हैं)
  • Example: She spends hours in front of the mirror, admiring her own beauty. She is such a narcissist.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 1.

Additional Information

  • Egoist refers to a person who is excessively concerned with oneself and one's own interests. They prioritize their own interests above others (अहंवादी).
  • Example: He never helps anyone else. He is too much of an egoist to care about anyone else's problems.
  • Selfish refers to a person who lacks consideration for others and is primarily concerned with their own interests and welfare (मतलबी).
  • Example: She never shares anything with her friends. She is so selfish.
  • Dictator refers to a person who has complete control and authority over a country, usually obtained and maintained by force (तानाशाह, अधिनायक, पूर्णशक्ति संपन्‍न शासक).
  • Example: The dictator ruled the country with an iron fist, suppressing any opposition.

Question 82

Identify the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given sentence.

One part of the philosophy of life’s meaning consists of the systemetic attempt to identify what people have in mind when they think about the topic.

  1. AOption (a)

    attempt

  2. BOption (b)

    philosophy

  3. COption (c)

    think

  4. DOption (d)

    systemetic

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

systemetic

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Option 4.

Key PointsThe incorrect word is "systemetic". The correct spelling is "systematic".

  • "Systematic" means done or acting according to a fixed plan or system; methodical.
  • ​Example: He made a systematic plan to clean his house.
  • "Attempt" means to make an effort or try to do something.
  • Example: I will attempt to climb this mountain.
  • "Philosophy" means the study of the fundamental nature of knowledge, reality, and existence, especially when considered as an academic discipline.
  • Example: He studied philosophy at university.
  • "Think" means to have a particular idea or opinion about something in one's mind.
  • Example: I think we should go to the beach today.

The given sentence means that a part of the philosophy of life's meaning involves making a systematic attempt to understand what people have in mind when they think about the topic.

Thus, the incorrectly spelt word is Option 4 systemetic.

Question 83

Replace the underlined word with its synonym to make the sentence more meaningful.

Narcotic drug addiction is in vogue these days, as it is the most popular form of substance abuse.

  1. AOption (a)

    demand

  2. BOption (b)

    obscurity

  3. COption (c)

    standard

  4. DOption (d)

    fashion

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

fashion

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Fashion.

Key Points

  • In the given sentence, the word "vogue" means something that is currently popular or fashionable.
  • Example: Platform shoes are back in vogue this season.
  • So, the word "fashion" is a synonym that can replace the underlined word and make the sentence more meaningful.
  • The term "fashion" generally refers to popular styles and trends in clothing, footwear, accessories, makeup, hairstyles, and lifestyle. It is a popular trend that is followed by a large number of people for a certain period of time. 
  • Example: The latest fashion trend is to wear oversized sunglasses.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 4.

Additional Information

  • The other options and their meanings are:
  • demand - the desire or need for a particular product or service
  • Example: The demand for organic food has increased in recent years.
  • obscurity - the state of being unknown or inconspicuous
  • Example: The author's first book languished in obscurity for years before becoming a bestseller.
  • standard - a level of quality or achievement that is accepted as normal or desirable
  • Example: The company's products are held to the highest standards of quality.
  • However, none of these words would fit the context of the given sentence as well as "fashion" does.

Question 84

Select the appropriate idiom that can replace the underlined phrase in the following sentence.

My father’s office is at a close distance from home.

  1. AOption (a)

    from hand to mouth

  2. BOption (b)

    a part and parcel

  3. COption (c)

    at a stone’s throw

  4. DOption (d)

    at sixes and sevens

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

at a stone’s throw

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is At a stone's throw.

Key Points

  • The appropriate idiom that can replace the underlined phrase "at a close distance" in the given sentence is "at a stone's throw".
  • "At a stone's throw" is an idiom that means "a short distance away". It implies that the distance is so short that one could throw a stone and hit the target. This idiom is often used to describe places or locations that are close to each other.
  • Example:
  • My office is at a stone's throw from the coffee shop, so I often go there for a quick break.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 3.

Additional Information

  • The other options are:
  • "From hand to mouth" is an idiom that means "living from day to day, with little or no money or resources". This idiom is not appropriate to replace the underlined phrase in the given sentence.
  • "A part and parcel" is an idiom that means "an essential or integral part of something". This idiom is not appropriate to replace the underlined phrase in the given sentence.
  • "At sixes and sevens" is an idiom that means "in a state of confusion or disarray". This idiom is not appropriate to replace the underlined phrase in the given sentence.
  • Examples:
  • John's family is living from hand to mouth after he lost his job.
  • For Mark, daily exercise is a part and parcel of his routine.
  • The house was at sixes and sevens after the party last night.

Question 85

Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct logical sequence.

A. They stand undefeated in the realms of Shakespeare and Homer.

B. India is a country where people are full of immense prolixity and exemplary storytelling.

C. Additionally, the philosophical discourse and discussions on various dilemmas of life associated with the Bhagavad Gita are highly appreciated by scholars from all over the world.

D. Mahabharata and Ramayana are two great examples of colossal works that unquestionably enjoy the virtue of being peak sources for the cultural ethos of the country.

  1. AOption (a)

    DACB

  2. BOption (b)

    BDAC

  3. COption (c)

    ACBD

  4. DOption (d)

    BACD

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

BDAC

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is BDAC.

Key Points

  • Sentence B introduces the topic by stating that India is a country where people have great storytelling skills.
  • Sentence D supports this statement by giving examples of two great works, Mahabharata and Ramayana, which are sources for the cultural ethos of the country.
  • Sentence A, then, reinforces the point made in sentence D by saying that these works stand undefeated in the realms of Shakespeare and Homer.
  • Finally, sentence C adds further weight to the argument by stating that the philosophical discourse and discussions associated with the Bhagavad Gita are highly appreciated by scholars from all over the world.
  • Therefore, the correct sequence is BDAC.

Correct Sequence: 

B. India is a country where people are full of immense prolixity and exemplary storytelling.

D. Mahabharata and Ramayana are two great examples of colossal works that unquestionably enjoy the virtue of being peak sources for the cultural ethos of the country.

A. They stand undefeated in the realms of Shakespeare and Homer.

C. Additionally, the philosophical discourse and discussions on various dilemmas of life associated with the Bhagavad Gita are highly appreciated by scholars from all over the world.

Question 86

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The house they bought was __________spacious than their previous house.

  1. AOption (a)

    mostly

  2. BOption (b)

    most

  3. COption (c)

    as

  4. DOption (d)

    more

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

more

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is More.

Key Points

  • In the given sentence, the comparative form of the adjective "spacious" is required.
  • "More" is the comparative form of "much" or "many" and is used to compare two things or people.
  • Example:
  • This cake is more delicious than the one we had yesterday.
  • In the given sentence, "more" is used to compare the size of the new house with the previous one.
  • "Mostly" means mainly or mostly and doesn't fit in the sentence.
  • "Most" is the superlative form of "much" or "many" and is used to compare three or more things or people.
  • "As" is used to show that two things or people are equal in some way.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 4.

Correct Sentence: The house they bought was more than their previous house.

Question 87

Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. The principles that emerged from those trials, known as the Nuremberg Code, are broadly applicable to many types of health-related research involving human participants, including clinical trials.

B. The growing breadth and complexity of contemporary health challenges have produced a range of difficult questions that cannot always be adequately addressed by relying exclusively on existing policies, guidelines or codes of conduct.

C. Recent formal efforts to articulate international standards of ethics applicable to health and health care can be traced to the Nuremberg trials of 1947, during which the horrors of Nazi medical experiments came to light.

D. Ethical questions related to health, health care and public health cover topics as diverse as moral issues around reproduction, state obligations in the provision of health care services and appropriate measures to control infectious disease.

  1. AOption (a)

    DCAB

  2. BOption (b)

    ACDB

  3. COption (c)

    DACB

  4. DOption (d)

    DABC

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

DCAB

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is DCAB.

Key Points

  • The correct order of sentences to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph is DCAB.
  • D. The first sentence introduces the topic of the paragraph, which is ethical questions related to health, health care, and public health. It provides an overview of the different topics that fall under the broad umbrella of health-related ethics.
  • C. The second sentence provides historical context to the emergence of international standards of ethics in health and healthcare. It highlights the role played by the Nuremberg trials in shaping the development of these standards.
  • A. The third sentence explains the principles that emerged from the Nuremberg trials, which form the basis of the Nuremberg Code. It also highlights the broad applicability of the Code to various types of health-related research involving human participants.
  • B. The final sentence provides additional information about the need for international standards of ethics in health and healthcare. It acknowledges the growing complexity of contemporary health challenges and the limitations of existing policies, guidelines, or codes of conduct in addressing these challenges.
  • Therefore, the correct order of sentences to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph is DCAB.

Correct Sequence: 

D. Ethical questions related to health, health care and public health cover topics as diverse as moral issues around reproduction, state obligations in the provision of health care services and appropriate measures to control infectious disease.

C. Recent formal efforts to articulate international standards of ethics applicable to health and health care can be traced to the Nuremberg trials of 1947, during which the horrors of Nazi medical experiments came to light.

A. The principles that emerged from those trials, known as the Nuremberg Code, are broadly applicable to many types of health-related research involving human participants, including clinical trials.

B. The growing breadth and complexity of contemporary health challenges have produced a range of difficult questions that cannot always be adequately addressed by relying exclusively on existing policies, guidelines or codes of conduct.

Question 88

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.

My request should be considered.

  1. AOption (a)

    Please have consider my request. 

  2. BOption (b)

    Please do consider mine request.

  3. COption (c)

    Consider my request.

  4. DOption (d)

    Please you shall consider my request.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Consider my request.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Consider my request.

Key Points

  • In the given options, the correct option is "Consider my request."
  • Let's break down the options and analyze them in terms of verb forms:
  • "Please have consider my request.": This option is grammatically incorrect. The verb form "have consider" is not correct here.
  • "Please do consider mine request.": This option contains an error in the possessive form. Instead of "mine," it should be "my."
  • "Consider my request.": This option is grammatically correct. The verb "consider" is in its base form without any auxiliary verbs. It is a simple imperative sentence, directly asking the listener or reader to consider the request.
  • "Please you shall consider my request." This option is grammatically incorrect. The use of "shall" is not necessary in this sentence.
  • In conclusion, the correct option is "Consider my request." It is a grammatically correct and concise imperative sentence that effectively conveys the request.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Consider my request.

Question 89

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.

My brother said to me, “Don’t play in the rain.”

  1. AOption (a)

    My brother said to me don’t play in the rain.

  2. BOption (b)

    My brother forbade me to play in the rain.

  3. COption (c)

    My brother assured me not to play in the rain.

  4. DOption (d)

    My brother refused me to not play in the rain.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

My brother forbade me to play in the rain.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: My brother forbade me to play in the rain.

Key Points

  • The original sentence is in the direct speech, where the exact words of the speaker are quoted within quotation marks.
  • To convert a direct speech sentence to indirect speech, we need to follow certain rules:
  • Remove the quotation marks and the comma before the statement.
  • Use an appropriate reporting verb such as 'told', 'said', 'informed', 'forbade' etc., to introduce the reported statement.
  • Change the tense of the reported statement if necessary.
  • Change the pronouns and possessive adjectives if necessary to reflect the change in the speaker and the listener.
  • The verb "forbade" is the past tense of "forbid."
  • To forbid means to prohibit, to make something not allowed, or to command someone not to do something.
  • Based on these rules, option 1 is incorrect because it retains the original sentence's structure and does not use an appropriate reporting verb.
  • Option 3 is incorrect because it uses an inappropriate reporting verb and suggests that the brother gave assurance, which is not the case.
  • Option 4 is incorrect because it uses the wrong verb and changes the meaning of the sentence.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 2.

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

The Maasais live in (1)______ very beautiful part of Africa. They live on the wide plains in southern and northern Kenya and northern Tanzania. The area (2)______ of miles of rolling grass land, on which you can find thorny bushes and rocky hills. The people move from one place to another according to the seasons, looking for grasses and other plants (3)______ which their cattle can graze. They have no permanent home. When they want to settle in a place for some time, they build a kind of camp called a ‘Manyatta’, where a few families live for a (4)______ weeks or months. Then they move on again, taking their few belongings with them, and burning the old ‘Manyatta’ to the ground.

Question 90

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

  1. AOption (a)

    that

  2. BOption (b)

    a

  3. COption (c)

    their

  4. DOption (d)

    some

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

a

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is "a".

Key Points

  • The correct answer for blank number 1 is "a".
  • The sentence talks about the Maasais living in a beautiful part of Africa, which suggests that the speaker is introducing this location for the first time.
  • Therefore, the appropriate determiner to use would be the indefinite article "a", which refers to one of many possible beautiful parts of Africa.
  • Examples:
  • A red car passed by my house.
  • I am looking for a new job.
  • Option 2 ("that") would be incorrect because it implies that the speaker has already introduced this location previously, which is not the case in this sentence.
  • Option 3 ("their") would also be incorrect because it suggests that the beautiful part of Africa belongs to the Maasais, which is not the intended meaning of the sentence.
  • Option 4 ("some") would not be the best choice in this sentence because it does not convey any specific information about the location, such as its beauty or uniqueness.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 2.

Correct Paragraph: The Maasais live in (1) a very beautiful part of Africa. They live on the wide plains in southern and northern Kenya and northern Tanzania. The area (2)______ of miles of rolling grass land, on which you can find thorny bushes and rocky hills. The people move from one place to another according to the seasons, looking for grasses and other plants (3)______ which their cattle can graze. They have no permanent home. When they want to settle in a place for some time, they build a kind of camp called a ‘Manyatta’, where a few families live for a (4)______ weeks or months. Then they move on again, taking their few belongings with them, and burning the old ‘Manyatta’ to the ground.

Question 91

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

  1. AOption (a)

    consists

  2. BOption (b)

    surrounds

  3. COption (c)

    measures

  4. DOption (d)

    considers

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

consists

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Consists.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2 is "consists".
  • The sentence mentions the "area" which refers to the geographical region where the Maasais live.
  • The word "consists" means to be composed or made up of something, which fits appropriately in this context as it describes the region as being composed of miles of rolling grassland, thorny bushes, and rocky hills.
  • Examples:
  • The cake consists of flour, sugar, eggs, and butter.
  • The committee consists of five members.
  • Other options and their meanings:
  • "Surrounds" means to encircle or enclose something. It doesn't fit in the context of the sentence as the region is being described, not what it surrounds.
  • "Measures" means to determine the size, amount, or degree of something. It doesn't fit in the context of the sentence as the sentence is not describing any measurements.
  • "Considers" means to think about or take into account something. It doesn't fit in the context of the sentence as it doesn't make sense to say that the area "considers" of miles of rolling grassland.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct Paragraph: The Maasais live in (1) a very beautiful part of Africa. They live on the wide plains in southern and northern Kenya and northern Tanzania. The area (2) consists of miles of rolling grass land, on which you can find thorny bushes and rocky hills. The people move from one place to another according to the seasons, looking for grasses and other plants (3)______ which their cattle can graze. They have no permanent home. When they want to settle in a place for some time, they build a kind of camp called a ‘Manyatta’, where a few families live for a (4)______ weeks or months. Then they move on again, taking their few belongings with them, and burning the old ‘Manyatta’ to the ground.

Question 92

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

  1. AOption (a)

    with

  2. BOption (b)

    at

  3. COption (c)

    on

  4. DOption (d)

    by

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

on

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is On.

Key Points

  • The correct answer for blank number 3 is "on."
  • The sentence talks about how the Maasai people move from place to place, looking for grasses and plants on which their cattle can graze.
  • The preposition "on" is used to indicate the surface on which something grows or grazes.
  • Examples:
  • The cows were grazing on the lush green meadow.
  • The deer were feeding on the leaves of the trees in the forest.
  • The goats were climbing on the rocky terrain to reach the grass on the other side.
  • The other options, "with," "at," and "by," do not fit in the context of the sentence and do not make grammatical sense.
  • Examples:
  • "With" is often used to indicate the means or instrument used to do something. For example, "I wrote the letter with a pen."
  • "At" is used to indicate a specific location or time. For example, "We'll meet at the park at 3 PM."
  • "By" is used to indicate the agent or doer of an action. For example, "The book was written by Jane Austen."
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 3.

Correct Paragraph: The Maasais live in (1) a very beautiful part of Africa. They live on the wide plains in southern and northern Kenya and northern Tanzania. The area (2) consists of miles of rolling grass land, on which you can find thorny bushes and rocky hills. The people move from one place to another according to the seasons, looking for grasses and other plants (3) on which their cattle can graze. They have no permanent home. When they want to settle in a place for some time, they build a kind of camp called a ‘Manyatta’, where a few families live for a (4)______ weeks or months. Then they move on again, taking their few belongings with them, and burning the old ‘Manyatta’ to the ground.

Question 93

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

  1. AOption (a)

    little

  2. BOption (b)

    least

  3. COption (c)

    few

  4. DOption (d)

    significant

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

few

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Few.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4 is "few".
  • The word "few" is used to describe a small number or amount of something.
  • In this context, it is used to describe the duration of time the Maasais stay in a place. They live in a place for a few weeks or months, and then move on again.
  • The word "little" is used to describe a small amount of something non-countable, while "least" is used to describe the smallest amount or degree of something.
  • "Significant" means important or noteworthy, which does not fit in the context of the sentence.
  • Examples:
  • She had little time to complete the task.
  • This is the least amount of money I can accept.
  • There were few people at the party.
  • The discovery of the new species was a significant event in the scientific community.
  • In terms of grammar rules, "few" is a determiner that is used with countable nouns to describe a small number of something. It is often used with plural nouns, such as "few weeks" or "few families".
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 3.

Correct Paragraph: The Maasais live in (1) a very beautiful part of Africa. They live on the wide plains in southern and northern Kenya and northern Tanzania. The area (2) consists of miles of rolling grass land, on which you can find thorny bushes and rocky hills. The people move from one place to another according to the seasons, looking for grasses and other plants (3) on which their cattle can graze. They have no permanent home. When they want to settle in a place for some time, they build a kind of camp called a ‘Manyatta’, where a few families live for a (4) few weeks or months. Then they move on again, taking their few belongings with them, and burning the old ‘Manyatta’ to the ground.

Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it.

The number of Indian students going abroad for higher studies has increased by 68.79 per cent in the past year, according to data provided by the Minister of State in the Ministry of Education, Subhas Sarkar. As per the data provided by him in the Lok Sabha, the number of Indians enrolled in foreign varsities increased from 4.44 lakh in 2021 to 7.5 lakh in 2022. He clarified that while the Bureau of Immigration and Ministry of Home Affairs maintain departure and arrival data of Indians, there is no index for capturing the category of Indians going abroad for higher education.

“Purpose of Indians going abroad for higher education is captured manually based either on their verbal disclosure or the type of visa of the destination country produced by them at the time of immigration clearance,” Sarkar said.

According to the data provided by the ministry, the number of Indian nationals increased from 4.54 lakh in 2017 to 5.17 lakh in 2018. There was a significant increase in 2019 as well, with 5.86 lakh students flying out of the country. However, during the Covid pandemic, the number of Indian nationals in foreign varsities saw a drastic dip as only 2.59 lakh students were registered. While the number continued to remain low, it saw a slight increase in 2021 with 4.44 lakh registrations. However, the number has significantly jumped to 7.5 lakh in 2022. The increase in the number of Indian nationals abroad corresponds with the latest immigration reports from some of the popular study-abroad destinations such as the US, UK, and Australia. For the UK, the Immigration Statistics Report states that 127,731 visas were granted to Indian students in September 2022, an increase of 93,470 (+273 per cent) against 34,261 in 2019. Similarly, in the US, the number of Indian students has more than doubled, and the Open Doors Report 2022 has predicted that the number of Indian students heading to America is likely to surpass those from China in 2022-23.

Question 94

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following countries is not very popular with Indian students for studies?

  1. AOption (a)

    Australia

  2. BOption (b)

    USA

  3. COption (c)

    UK

  4. DOption (d)

    China

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

China

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 4) China.

Key Points

  • The passage states that there has been a significant increase in the number of Indian students going to study abroad in popular destinations such as the US, UK, and Australia.
  • However, there is no mention of China being a popular destination for Indian students.
  • In fact, the passage suggests that the number of Indian students going to the US is likely to surpass those from China in 2022-23.
  • Therefore, option 4) China is not very popular with Indian students for studies.

Question 95

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

How do we know the number of students getting visas for studies in UK?

  1. AOption (a)

    from the records of Ministry of Home Affairs

  2. BOption (b)

    from the Immigration Statistics Report

  3. COption (c)

    from the records of the Bureau of Immigration

  4. DOption (d)

    from the Ministry of Education

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

from the Immigration Statistics Report

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is From the Immigration Statistics Report.

Key Points

  • The passage states that the Immigration Statistics Report provides information about the number of visas granted to Indian students in the UK.
  • Specifically, it states that "For the UK, the Immigration Statistics Report states that 127,731 visas were granted to Indian students in September 2022, an increase of 93,470 (+273 per cent) against 34,261 in 2019."
  • This information indicates that the number of Indian students going to the UK for higher education has increased significantly.
  • The other options, such as records of the Ministry of Home Affairs and the Bureau of Immigration, are not mentioned in the passage as sources of information for the number of Indian students getting visas for studies in the UK.
  • Therefore, option 2) from the Immigration Statistics Report is the correct answer.

Question 96

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

The passage is mainly about

  1. AOption (a)

    immigration of Indians to UK, US, and Australia

  2. BOption (b)

    Indians enrolled in foreign universities

  3. COption (c)

    Indians going to America for higher studies

  4. DOption (d)

    Indians going abroad for higher studies

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Indians going abroad for higher studies

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4) Indians going abroad for higher studies.

Key Points

  • The passage provides information about the increase in the number of Indian students going abroad for higher education in general, and also mentions specific statistics for some popular study-abroad destinations such as the US, UK, and Australia.
  • The passage also talks about the impact of the Covid pandemic on the number of Indian students going abroad.
  • This is supported by the opening sentence of the passage which states, "The number of Indian students going abroad for higher studies has increased by 68.79 per cent in the past year".
  • Therefore, option 4 is the most appropriate summary of the passage.

Question 97

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

In 2019, how many Indian students went abroad?

  1. AOption (a)

    5.17 lakh

  2. BOption (b)

    4.54 lakh

  3. COption (c)

    5.86 lakh

  4. DOption (d)

    4.44 lakh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

5.86 lakh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 3) 5.86 lakh.

Key Points

  • This information can be found in the following sentence from the passage:
  • "There was a significant increase in 2019 as well, with 5.86 lakh students flying out of the country."
  • The passage states that there was a significant increase in the number of Indian nationals going abroad in 2019, and the specific number given is 5.86 lakh.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 3.

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

We sit in the last row, bumped about but free of stares. The bus rolls out of the dull crossroads of the city, and we are soon in the open countryside, with fields of sunflowers as far as the eye can see, their heads all facing us. Where there is no water, the land reverts to the desert. While still on level ground, we see in the distance the tall range of the Mount Bogda, abrupt like a shining prism laid horizontally on the desert surface. It is over 5,000 metres high, and the peaks are under permanent snow, in powerful contrast to the flat desert all around. Heaven lake lies part of the way up this range, about 2,000 metres above sea level, at the foot of one of the highest snow-peaks.

As the bus climbs, the sky, brilliant before, grows overcast. I have brought nothing warm to wear. It is all down at the hotel in Urumqi. Rain begins to fall. The man behind me is eating overpoweringly smelly goat’s cheese. The bus window leaks inhospitably but reveals a beautiful view. We have passed quickly from the desert through arable land to pasture and the ground is now green with grass, the slopes dark with pine. A few cattle drink at a clear stream flowing past moss-covered stones; it is a Constable landscape. The stream changes into a white torrent, and as we climb higher I wish more and more that I had brought with me something warmer than the pair of shorts that have served me so well in the desert. The stream (which, we are told, rises in Heaven Lake) disappears, and we continue our slow ascent. About noon, we arrive at Heaven Lake, and look for a place to stay at the foot, which is the resort area. We get a room in a small cottage, and I am happy to note that there are thick quilts on the bed.

Standing outside the cottage, we survey our surroundings. Heaven Lake is long, sardine-shaped and fed by snowmelt from a stream at its head. The lake is an intense blue, surrounded on all sides by green mountain walls, dotted with distant sheep. At the head of the lake, beyond the delta of the inflowing stream, is a massive snow-capped peak which dominates the vista; it is part of a series of peaks that culminate, a little out of view, in Mount Bogda itself.

For those who live in the resort, there is a small mess-hall by the shore. We eat here sometimes, and sometimes buy food from the vendors outside, who sell kabab and naan until the last buses leave. The kababs, cooked on skewers over charcoal braziers, are particularly good; highly spiced and well-done. Horse’s milk is available too from the local Kazakh herdsmen, but I decline this. I am so affected by the cold that Mr. Cao, the relaxed young man who runs the mess, lends me a spare pair of trousers, several sizes too large but more than comfortable. Once I am warm again, I feel a pre-dinner spurt of energy—dinner will be long in coming—and I ask him whether the lake is good for swimming in

Question 98

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word ‘accept’ from the passage

  1. AOption (a)

    Reject

  2. BOption (b)

    Refuse

  3. COption (c)

    Decline

  4. DOption (d)

    Turn down

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Decline

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Decline.

Key Points

  • The word "accept" means to receive willingly or to agree to something.
  • Example: She accepted the job offer without hesitation.
  • The correct answer is "decline" because it is used in the passage as an antonym for "accept."
  • In the context of the passage, "decline" means to politely turn down an offer or suggestion.
  • Example: I had to decline the invitation to the party because I had already made plans for that night.​
  • Example of "decline" being used in this sense in the passage include:
  • "Horse’s milk is available too from the local Kazakh herdsmen, but I decline this," and "I wish more and more that I had brought with me something warmer than the pair of shorts that have served me so well in the desert."
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 3.

 Additional Information

  • Option 1, "reject," is also an antonym of "accept" but it is not present in the passage. It means to refuse something in a more forceful or harsh way.
  • An example of "reject" being used in this sense might be: "I rejected the offer to join the club because I didn't like their policies."
  • Option 2, "refuse," is an antonym of "accept" but it is not present in the passage. It means to turn down an offer or request.
  • An example of "refuse" being used in this sense might be: "I refused the extra slice of cake because I was already full."
  • Option 4, "turn down," is also an antonym of "accept" but it is not present in the passage. It means to refuse an offer or invitation.
  • An example of "turn down" being used in this sense might be: "I had to turn down the job offer because I had already accepted a different job."

Question 99

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select an appropriate title for the passage.

  1. AOption (a)

    Shorts to Trousers

  2. BOption (b)

    Lake Heaven

  3. COption (c)

    Peasant Life

  4. DOption (d)

    Journey to Mount Bogda

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Lake Heaven

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Lake Heaven.

Key Points

  • The appropriate title for the passage would be "Lake Heaven" as the majority of the passage describes the author's experience traveling to and staying at the lake.
  • The other options, "Shorts to Trousers," "Peasant Life," and "Journey to Mount Bogda," do not accurately capture the main focus of the passage, which is the author's observations and experiences at Heaven Lake.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option 2) "Lake Heaven."

Question 100

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

 What is the tone of the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Romantic

  2. BOption (b)

    Angry

  3. COption (c)

    Serene

  4. DOption (d)

    Agitated

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Serene

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Serene.

Key Points

  • The tone of the passage is serene.
  • The passage describes the journey of the author on a bus through the countryside and up to Heaven Lake, where they stay for a while.
  • The descriptions of the scenery, the lake, and the food are all presented in a calm and peaceful way, with no indication of anger or agitation.
  • The author's thoughts and actions are also calm and measured, such as when they note the lack of warm clothing but do not panic, and when they decline the offer of horse's milk without fuss.
  • Option 1) Romantic: This option is not correct because the passage does not contain any romantic elements or emotions. Although the author appreciates the beauty of the scenery, the descriptions are not written in a romantic or emotional way.
  • Option 2) Angry: This option is not correct because there is no indication of anger or frustration in the passage. The author's tone is consistently calm and serene.
  • Option 4) Agitated: This option is not correct because the passage does not contain any indication of agitation or anxiety. The author is calm and observant throughout the journey, even when faced with uncomfortable situations like the cold weather and smelly cheese.

Question 101

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What is the protagonist wearing in the bus?

  1. AOption (a)

    A dhoti

  2. BOption (b)

    Trousers

  3. COption (c)

    A pair of shorts

  4. DOption (d)

    Long sleeved shirt

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A pair of shorts

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is A pair of shorts.

Key Points

  • The protagonist is wearing a pair of shorts in the bus.
  • Let's refer to the ninth line of the second paragraph:
  • "The stream changes into a white torrent, and as we climb higher I wish more and more that I had brought with me something warmer than the pair of shorts that have served me so well in the desert."
  • Therefore, the correct answer is 3) A pair of shorts.

Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it.

From January 28 to February 4, 2023, a Chinese-operated, large white high-altitude balloon was seen in North American airspace, including Alaska, western Canada, and the contiguous United States. The American and Canadian militaries asserted that the balloon was for surveillance, while the Chinese government maintained it was a civilian meteorological research airship that had been blown off course. Analysts said that the balloon's flight path and structural characteristics made it dissimilar from those which have typically been used for meteorological research. The U.S. Department of State said that the balloon was capable of locating electronic communication devices, including mobile phones and radios, and that American U-2 reconnaissance aircraft deployed to track the balloon in the air revealed that the balloon carried antennas and other equipment "clearly for intelligence surveillance and inconsistent with the equipment on board weather balloons." The State Department said that the spy balloon was part of a global Chinese military-directed surveillance effort in which Chinese spy balloons have flown over more than 40 nations in five continents. On February 4, the U.S. Air Force shot down the balloon over U.S. territorial waters off the coast of South Carolina, on the order of U.S. President Joe Biden. Debris from the wreckage was recovered and sent to the FBI Laboratory in Quantico, Virginia, for analysis. The incident increased U.S.-China tensions. The incident prompted U.S. Secretary of State Antony Blinken to delay a diplomatic visit to Beijing, which was set to be his first since 2018. It also further strained Canada–China relations, as Canada summoned the Chinese ambassador because of the violation of Canadian airspace. On February 3, the U.S. Department of Defense announced that a second Chinese balloon was passing over Latin America, which China also said belonged to it. On February 10, the Air Force shot down another aerial object over U.S. territory at the order of President Biden.

Question 102

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

The passage is mainly about

  1. AOption (a)

    the strained relations between US and China

  2. BOption (b)

    a Chinese spy balloon flying over US and Canadian territories

  3. COption (c)

    China’s global military-directed surveillance

  4. DOption (d)

    Chinese balloons flying all over the world

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

a Chinese spy balloon flying over US and Canadian territories

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2) a Chinese spy balloon flying over US and Canadian territories.

Key Points

  • The passage describes a specific incident in which a Chinese-operated balloon was seen in North American airspace and was believed to be conducting surveillance.
  • The American and Canadian militaries assert that the balloon was for surveillance, while the Chinese government maintained it was a civilian meteorological research airship that had been blown off course.
  • The passage provides details about the balloon's flight path, structural characteristics, and equipment, as well as the U.S. government's response to the incident, which included shooting down the balloon and delaying a diplomatic visit to China.
  • The other options are too broad or too specific to accurately reflect the main focus of the passage.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 2.

Question 103

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Read the statements given below.

A. The US Air Force shot down the Chinese balloon over US territorial waters.

B. Tensions between China and US have increased and the visit of the U.S. Secretary of State to Beijing has been postponed.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both A and B are true but B is not the correct reason for A.

  2. BOption (b)

    Both A and B are true and A is the correct reason for B.

  3. COption (c)

    A is false and B is true.

  4. DOption (d)

    A is true and B is false.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both A and B are true and A is the correct reason for B.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2: Both A and B are true and A is the correct reason for B.

Key Points

  • According to the passage, the US Air Force did indeed shoot down the Chinese balloon over US territorial waters on February 4, 2023, as ordered by US President Joe Biden. This confirms statement A as true.
  • The passage also states that the incident increased tensions between China and the US, as well as strained Canada-China relations, and prompted US Secretary of State Antony Blinken to delay a diplomatic visit to Beijing.
  • This confirms statement B as true.
  • Additionally, it can be inferred from the passage that the increased tensions between China and the US were at least partially due to the incident with the spy balloon, making statement A the correct reason for statement B.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

Question 104

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

How did US make sure that the Balloon flying over its territory was a ‘spy’ balloon?

  1. AOption (a)

    the FBI lab confirmed that it was a spy balloon

  2. BOption (b)

    the analysts studied its flight path and said so

  3. COption (c)

    it’s reconnaissance aircraft saw the antennas and equipment of the balloon

  4. DOption (d)

    it got the samples of the balloon checked in a lab

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

it’s reconnaissance aircraft saw the antennas and equipment of the balloon

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is "It’s reconnaissance aircraft saw the antennas and equipment of the balloon".

Key Points

  • The correct answer is option 3: its reconnaissance aircraft saw the antennas and equipment of the balloon.
  • This is because the U.S. Department of State said that American U-2 reconnaissance aircraft deployed to track the balloon in the air revealed that the balloon carried antennas and other equipment "clearly for intelligence surveillance and inconsistent with the equipment on board weather balloons."
  • Therefore, it was the reconnaissance aircraft that provided the evidence to the U.S. government that the balloon was a spy balloon.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 3.

Additional Information

  • Option 1 is incorrect because while debris from the wreckage was sent to the FBI Laboratory for analysis, there is no information provided in the passage that suggests the FBI confirmed that it was a spy balloon.
  • Option 2 is also incorrect because while analysts said that the balloon's flight path and structural characteristics made it dissimilar from those typically used for meteorological research, this is not enough evidence to definitively label it a spy balloon.
  • Option 4 is incorrect because the passage does not mention any samples being taken from the balloon for testing.

Question 105

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

The word ‘contiguous’ means

  1. AOption (a)

    adjoining

  2. BOption (b)

    far off

  3. COption (c)

    spreading

  4. DOption (d)

    separated

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

adjoining

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Adjoining.

Key Points

  • The word contiguous is an adjective that describes things that are touching along a boundary or sharing a common border.
  • In the context of the passage, it refers to the United States being adjacent to Canada, meaning that they share a border.
  • Examples:
  • The two houses had contiguous backyards, so the children could easily play together.
  • The contiguous states of the United States are all connected, meaning that you can travel by land from one state to another without having to cross a border.
  • Adjoining means next to or touching something else.
  • For example, two houses that share a common wall are said to be adjoining houses. Similarly, adjoining rooms in a hotel or a building are located next to each other.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 1.

Additional Information

  • The other options are:
  • far off: This means something that is at a considerable distance away.
  • Example: The island was far off in the distance, barely visible on the horizon.
  • spreading: This means something that is expanding or growing larger.
  • Example: The wildfire was spreading quickly, and firefighters were struggling to contain it.
  • separated: This means something that is isolated or kept apart from other things.
  • Example: The two groups were separated by a large fence, so they could not interact with each other.

Question 106

 Who composed Tabaqat-i-Nasiri in the Delhi Sultanate period?

  1. AOption (a)

    Hasan Nizami

  2. BOption (b)

    Amir Khusrau

  3. COption (c)

    Minhaj-us-Siraj

  4. DOption (d)

    Ziauddin Barani

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Minhaj-us-Siraj

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Minhaj-us-Siraj.

Key Points

  • The book "Tabaqat-i-Nasiri" is written by  "Minhaj-us-Siraj".
  • It is an elaborate history of the Islamic world written in Persian.
  • It was completed in 1260.
  • Its purpose was to account for the Muslim dynasties that originated in Iran and Central Asia.
  • It is the only source for the Khalijis rebellion in Bengal against the sultan of Delhi from 1229-1230.
  • It consists of 23 volumes and written in a blunt straightforward style.

Additional Information

Ziauddin Barani:

  • Ziauddin Barani was the court poet of Firuz Shah Tughlaq.
  • Compositions of Ziauddin Baran: Tarikh-i-firozshahi, fatwa-i-jahandari.
  • Tarikh-i-Firoz Shahi is a work on medieval India, which covers the period from the reign of Ghiyas-ud-din Balban to the first six years of the reign of Firoz Shah Tughluq.
  • The Fatwa-i-Jahandari promoted a hierarchy among Muslim communities in the Indian subcontinent.

Amir Khusrau:

  • He was the first Muslim poet and played an important role in the invention of 'Khari Boli'.
  • He saw the rule of 7 sultans (Balban, Muhammad, Kaiqubad, Jalaluddin Khilji, Alauddin Khilji, Mubarak Shah Khilji, Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq).​​

Question 107

Identify the correct statement.

  1. AOption (a)

    Resistance of a wire depends on the length and density of the wire.

  2. BOption (b)

    Specific resistance is the same for all conductors.

  3. COption (c)

    Resistance of a wire depends on the length and cross-section of the wire.

  4. DOption (d)

    Specific resistance is dependent on the cross-sectional area of the wire.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Resistance of a wire depends on the length and cross-section of the wire.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Resistance of a wire depends on the length and cross-section of the wire.

Key Points

Concept:

Electric current is the flow of electric charges through a particular area of a conductor( a metallic wire) in unit time.

Electric current is mathematically expressed as:

  • I=Q/t,

I= current,  Q= net charge flowing across any cross-section of the conductor, and t= time

  • For electric current to flow through a conductor, there should be a potential difference between two points in the conductor.
  • The electric potential difference is the work done to move a unit charge from one point to another in an electric circuit. V=W/Q, where, V is the potential difference, W is work done, and Q is the amount of charge flowing through the conductor. The S.I. unit of electric potential difference is volt(V).
  • According to Ohm's law, the electric potential difference across the ends of a wire in a given electric circuit is directly proportional to the current flowing through it.
  • V=IR,  as  V is the potential difference, I is current, R is Resistance

Resistance:

It is the ability of a conductor to resist the flow of charges through it when part of an electric circuit. The S.I unit of resistance is the ohm(Ω ).

The resistance of a conductor depends upon the following factors.

  • On the length of the conductor
  • On the area of cross-section of the conductor
  • Nature of the material or resistivity.

Resistivity is the property of a material by virtue of which it resists the flow of charges through it. The S.I unit of resistivity is Ω m.

Explanation:

The resistance of a conductor is calculated by the following equation

R= ρ× l/a

  • R= resistance,p= resistivity, l= length of material, a= area of cross-section.

From the above equation, it is understood that 

  • the resistance of a wire is directly proportional to the length of the wire and inversely proportional to the area of the cross-section.
  • resistance can never be negative as length and area are positive quantities.
  • resistance of the wire will remain constant for a given wire as the length and area of cross-section and resistivity remain constant.

Additional Information

MaterialsResistivity (Ω m)
Conductors
Silver1.60 × 10-8
Copper1.62 × 10-8
Aluminium2.63 × 10-8
Alloys
Manganin
(an alloy of copper, manganese and nickel))
44 × 10-6
Nichrome
(an alloy of nickel, chromium, manganese and iron)
100 × 10-6
Insulators
Glass1010- 1014
Rubber1013- 1016

Question 108

Which scientist suggested that the magnet must also exert an equal and opposite force on the current-carrying conductor?

  1. AOption (a)

    Michael Faraday

  2. BOption (b)

    Andre Marie Ampere

  3. COption (c)

    Joseph Henry 

  4. DOption (d)

    William Gilbert

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Andre Marie Ampere

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Andre Marie Ampère.

Key Points

  • Ampere had come up with the theory of Electromagnetism and also its relation with light.
  • He suggested that the magnet must also exert an equal and opposite force on the current-carrying conductor.
  • Electromagnetism:- Phenomenon where the flow of electric current in a conductor produced a magnetic field.

Additional Information

INVENTORINVENTION
Michael FaradayElectric motor, dynamo.
Andre Marie AmpèreElectromagnetism, Ampere's law.
Hans Christian OerstedThe electric current in a wire can deflect a magnetized compass needle.
James Clerk MaxwellElectromagnetic radiation, the relation between light and electromagnetism.
Max PlanckQuantum theory
Alexandro VoltaElectric battery
Georg OhmOhm’s law (v∝R) OR V=IR

Question 109

In which year was the Estimates Committee constituted for the first time in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    1948

  2. BOption (b)

    1950

  3. COption (c)

    1947

  4. DOption (d)

    1949

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1950

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1950.

Key Points

  • Estimates Committee
  • The origin of this committee can be traced to the standing finance committee set up in 1921.
  • The first Estimates Committee in the post-independence era was constituted in 1950 on the recommendation of John Mathai, the then finance minister.
  • Originally, it had 25 members but in 1956 its membership was raised to 30.
  • All the thirty members are from Lok Sabha only.
  • The Rajya Sabha has no representation in this committee.
  • These members are elected by the Lok Sabha every year from amongst its own members, according to the principles of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.
  • Thus, all parties get due representation in it.
  • The term of office is one year.
  • A minister cannot be elected as a member of the committee.
  • The chairman of the committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members and he is invariably from the ruling party.
  • ​Functions of the committee
  • To report what economies, improvements in organization, efficiency, and administrative reform consistent with the policy underlying the estimates, can be affected.
  • To suggest alternative policies in order to bring about efficiency and economy in administration. To examine whether the money is well laid out within the limits of the policy implied in the estimates.
  • To suggest the form in which the estimates are to be presented to Parliament.

Additional Information The effectiveness of the role of the committee is limited by the following:

  • It examines the budget estimates only after they have been voted by the Parliament, and not before that.
  • It cannot question the policy laid down by the Parliament.
  • Its recommendations are advisory and not binding on the ministries.
  • It examines every year only certain selected ministries and departments. Thus, by rotation, it would cover all of them over a number of years.
  • It lacks the expert assistance of the CAG which is available to the Public Accounts Committee.
  • Its work is in the nature of a postmortem.

Question 110

Identify which of the following statements are correct.

1.Hindustan Copper Limited (HCL) was incorporated on 9 November 1967.

2.The Khetri Copper Complex (KCC) is located in Rajasthan.

3.The headquarters of Mineral Exploration Consultancy Ltd. is located in Jaipur.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1, 2 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1 and 3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1 and 2 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Key Point

  • Hindustan Copper Limited
  • HCL is a company established by the Government of India in 1967.
  • The headquarters of Hindustan Copper Limited (HCL) is located in Kolkata, West Bengal.
  • Its primary objective is to explore, develop, and exploit copper mines in the country.
  • HCL has become one of the largest vertically integrated copper producers in India.
  • The Khetri Copper Complex
  • Khetri Copper Complex is a copper mining and smelting complex located in the state of Rajasthan, India.
  • It is operated by Hindustan Copper Limited (HCL) and is one of the largest copper mines in India, producing copper concentrate, cathodes, and sulphuric acid.
  • It is a significant contributor to India's copper production and exports.
  • Mineral Exploration Consultancy Ltd
  • Mineral Exploration Consultancy Ltd. (MECL) is headquartered in Nagpur, Maharashtra.
  • It is a government-owned company established in 1972 to carry out mineral exploration and related activities in India and abroad.
  • MECL has regional offices in various parts of India and is involved in projects ranging from geological mapping to drilling and testing of mineral deposits.

Question 111

Which part of the Constitution of India consists of the idea of a Welfare State?

  1. AOption (a)

    Directive Principles of State Policy

  2. BOption (b)

    Fundamental Duties

  3. COption (c)

    Fundamental Rights

  4. DOption (d)

    Preamble

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Directive Principles of State Policy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Directive Principles of State Policy.

Key Points

 Directive Principles of state policy are about establishing social and economic democracy in the state.

  • These are some basic principles or instructions or guidelines for the government while formulating laws/policies of the country and in executing them.
  • Directive Principles aim at the establishment of welfare states.
  • Indian Constitution  Part IV tells about DPSP.
  • The concept of DPSP is taken from Irish Constitution
  • It is not justiciable in court.
  • Dr. B.R Ambedkar called it "the novel feature of Indian Constitution".

Additional Information

  • Fundamental rights are the basic human rights enshrined in the constitution of India in Part III
  • Fundamental rights are justiciable in court.
  • The idea of fundamental rights taken from the US constitution
  • The idea of Fundamental Duties is inspired by the Constitution of Russia.
  • These were incorporated in Part IV-A of the Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
  • Originally 10 in number, one more duty was added through the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002. All the eleven duties are listed in Article 51-A of the Constitution (the sole Article in Part-IV-A).
  • However, like the Directive Principles, the duties are also non-justiciable in nature.
  • The Preamble was taken from the US constitution
  • Source of the authority of the constitution: It derives its authority from the people of India
  • Nature of Indian state: It declares India to be a sovereign, socialistic, secular democratic, and republican polity
  • Objectives of the constitution: It specifies justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity as the objectives
  • Date of adoption: Nov 26th, 1949.

Question 112

Which of the following is constituted under Article 280 of the Constitution of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Advocate General

  2. BOption (b)

    Central Vigilance Commission

  3. COption (c)

    Finance Commission

  4. DOption (d)

    National Commission for Women

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Finance Commission

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Finance Commission.

Key Points

  • The Finance Commission in India is constituted by the President under article 280 of the Constitution.
  • The first finance commission was constituted in 1951.
  • Finance Commission is a constitutional body for the purpose of allocation of certain revenue resources between the Union and the State Governments.
  • The finance commission is appointed every five years.
  • The President lays the reports of the Finance commission before both the Houses of the Parliament.
  • The finance commission recommends to the President relating to the distribution of the net taxes to be shared between the centre and the states.
  • The finance commission consists of a Chairman and four members.​

Additional Information

  • The 14th Finance Commission was headed by YV Reddy.
  • The 15th Finance Commission is headed by Nand Kishore Singh.
  • The Finance Commission of India was established in 1951.
  • The first chairman of the Finance Commission was KC Neogy.

Question 113

In India, which of the following statements is true about the National Investment Fund?

Statements:

I. It was created in 2005.

II. 75% of its annual income was to be used for schemes promoting health, education and employment.

III. It was dissolved in 2018

  1. AOption (a)

    Only statement I 

  2. BOption (b)

    Only statement II

  3. COption (c)

    Only statements I and III

  4. DOption (d)

    Only statements I and II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Only statements I and II

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only statements I and II.

Key Points

  • ​National Investment Fund
  • The National Investment Fund (NIF) is a fund set up by the Government of India to receive disinvestment proceeds from various public sector undertakings (PSUs).
  • The fund was established in 2005 and is managed by a designated Asset Management Company (AMC).
  • The primary objective of the National Investment Fund is to promote social welfare and economic development by investing in infrastructure development, social sector programs, and other priority sectors of the Indian economy.
  • The fund is divided into three parts:
  • National Investment Fund I: This part of the fund received disinvestment proceeds from public sector units until 2009.
  • The corpus of this fund is INR 11,107 crore, and it is managed by the designated AMC.
  • National Investment Fund II: This part of the fund received disinvestment proceeds from public sector units from 2009 to 2013.
  • The corpus of this fund is INR 9,314 crore, and it is also managed by the designated AMC.
  • National Investment Fund III: This part of the fund received disinvestment proceeds from public sector units from 2013 onwards.
  • The corpus of this fund is not fixed, and the fund will remain in operation until further notice from the government.
  • It is also managed by the designated AMC.
  • The fund can invest only in debt and equity instruments of eligible companies, which include public sector units, private sector companies, and other eligible entities.
  • The investments must be made in compliance with the provisions of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) regulations and other applicable laws.
  • In conclusion, the National Investment Fund is a dedicated fund set up by the Government of India to channelize disinvestment proceeds from public sector units into priority sectors of the Indian economy.
  • The fund is managed by a designated AMC and governed by a set of guidelines issued by the Ministry of Finance.

Question 114

Bhimbetka, a noted site of the Palaeolithic period, is located in which state of India ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bihar

  2. BOption (b)

    Uttar Pradesh

  3. COption (c)

    Rajasthan

  4. DOption (d)

    Madhya Pradesh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Madhya Pradesh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

  • Madhya Pradesh state is the site of Bhimbetka.
  • The Bhimbetka rock shelters are an archaeological site in central India.
  • that spans the prehistoric Paleolithic and Mesolithic periods, as well as the historic period.
  • It is located in the Raisen District in the Indian state of Madhya Pradesh about 45 kilometers south-east of Bhopal.
  • It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site that consists of seven hills and over 750 rock shelters distributed over 10 km.
  • The Bhimbetka site has the oldest-known rock art in India, as well as is one of the largest prehistoric complexes.

Additional Information 

  • Bhimbetka is also known as Bhima's Lounge (Bhima was the second of the five Pandava princes in the Hindu epic Mahabharata).
  • The Rock Shelters of Bhimbetka, a recognized world heritage site by UNESCO, are in the foothills of the Vindhyan Mountains on the southern edge of the central Indian plateau in the State of Madhya Pradesh.
  • Most of the paintings here are in red and white with occasional dashes of yellow and green, with themes culled from events in everyday life, thousands of years ago.
  • The scenes depicted are mainly of dancing, playing music, hunting, horse and elephant riding, decorating bodies, and collecting honey.

Question 115

Match List - I and List - II regarding the National Sports awards 2022.

List - IList - II
(a)Arjun Award(i)Jiwanjot Singh Teja
(b)Dronacharya Award Regular(ii)Seema Punia
(c)Dronacharya Award Life time(iii)Ashwini Akkunji
(d)Dhyanchand Award(iv)Dinesh Jawahar Lad
  1. AOption (a)

    a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii

  2. BOption (b)

    a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv

  3. COption (c)

    a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

  4. DOption (d)

    a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii.

Key Points

  • National sports Awards 2022
  • The National Sports Awards are an annual set of awards given by the Government of India to recognize and honor outstanding achievements in sports.
  • The awards are presented to athletes, coaches, and other sports-related personnel for their exceptional performances and contributions to the field of sports.
  • In 2022, the National Sports Awards were presented in a virtual ceremony on August 29, 2022, due to the ongoing COVID-19 pandemic.

Additional Information

  • Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award
  • The Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award is the highest sports award in India, and it was conferred upon one athlete in 2022.
  • Arjuna Award
  • The Arjuna Award is given to recognize outstanding achievements in sports, and it was awarded to 33 athletes in 2022.
  • Dronacharya Award
  • The Dronacharya Award is given to coaches for their exceptional performance in the field of sports coaching.
  • Dhyan Chand Award
  • The Dhyan Chand Award is given to recognize lifetime achievements in sports.

Question 116

The Act that is also known as ‘Morley-Minto Reforms’ is:

  1. AOption (a)

    Government of India Act, 1935

  2. BOption (b)

    Indian Councils Act, 1909

  3. COption (c)

    Rowlatt Act, 1919 

  4. DOption (d)

    Government of India Act, 1912

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Indian Councils Act, 1909

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Indian Councils Act of 1909.

Key Points

Morley-Minto Reform was drafted in 1909.

  • It was also called as Indian council act 1909.
  • Lord Minto was the Viceroy and Morley was the Secretary of state for India during Morley-Minto Reform.
  • This act introduced communal representation for the Muslims.
  • Morley-Minto Reform introduced the principle of election.
  • S. P Sinha was appointed as the first Indian member of the governor general's executive council.
  • Under Morley-Minto reforms, the number of elected members in the Imperial Legislative Council and Provincial Legislative Council was increased.
  • In the Provincial Councils, the non-official majority was introduced but since some of these non-official were nominated and not selected, the overall non-elected majority remained.

Additional Information

Government of India Act of 1935

  • Residuary legislative powers were vested in the Viceroy under the Government of India Act of 1935.
  • The Federal Court of India was established in Delhi under the Government of India Act, 1935.
  • Provisions of Government of India Act 1935:
  • Provincial autonomy was granted.
  • Dyarchy was abolished in the provinces but was introduced at the center.
  • The federal scheme for the Government of India was prescribed.
  • Bicameralism at the center in the form of the council of states and federal assembly.
  • The federal court was set up in Delhi.
  • Burma was separated from India.
  • The Council of the secretary of state was abolished.

Government of India Act of 1919

  • The main feature of the Government of India Act of 1919 is Diarchy in the provinces.
  • Dyarchy was introduced, i.e., there were two classes of administrators – Executive councilors and ministers. The Governor was the executive head of the province. The subjects were divided into two lists – reserved and transferred. The governor was in charge of the reserved list along with his executive councilors.
  • The Government of India act, 1919 relaxed the central control over the provinces by demarcating and separating the central and provincial subjects. The central and provincial legislatures were authorized to make laws on their respective list of subjects.

Question 117

Which of the following was the first B vitamin discovered in 1897?

  1. AOption (a)

    Folate

  2. BOption (b)

    Biotin

  3. COption (c)

    Riboflavin

  4. DOption (d)

    Thiamine

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Thiamine

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Thiamine.

Key Points

  • Thiamine, also known as thiamin or Vitamin B1.
  • It was the first B vitamin discovered in 1897
  • It is found in food-dried milk, nuts, oats, oranges, pork, eggs, etc.
  • As a supplement, it is used to treat and prevent thiamine deficiency and disorders that result from it including Beriberi, Korsakoff's syndrome, and Korsakoff's psychosis.

Additional Information

Name of the VitaminChemical NameFunctionDeficiency
Vitamin ARetinolEssential for eyeNight blindness keratomalacia
Vitamin B1Thiamineessential for producing various enzymes that help break down blood sugar.Beri-Beri Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
Vitamin B2Riboflavinessential for the growth and development of body cells and helps metabolize.Symptoms include inflammation of the lips and fissures in the mouth.
Vitamin B3Niacinamideessential for the cells to grow and work correctly.diarrhea skin changes intestinal upset
Vitamin B5Pantothenic acidnecessary for producing energy and hormonesparesthesia
Vitamin B6Pyridoxal, Pyridoxamine, Pyridoxalvital for the formation of red blood cells.Low levels may lead to anemia peripheral neuropathy
Vitamin B7Biotinenables the body to metabolize proteins, fats, and carbohydrates.Low levels may cause dermatitis or inflammation of the intestines.
Vitamin B9Folic acidessential in making DNA and RNADuring pregnancy, it affects the fetus nervous system.
Vitamin B12Cyanocobalamin, Hydroxocobalamin, Methylcobalaminessential for the nervous system.Low levels may lead to neurological problems and some types of anemia.
Vitamin CAscorbic acidcontributes to collagen production, wound healing, and bone formation. It also strengthens blood vessels, supports the immune system. It helps the body to absorb iron and act as an antioxidant.Scurvy, which causes bleeding in gums, loss of teeth, and poor tissue growth and wound healing.
Vitamin DErgocalciferol, Cholecalciferolnecessary for the healthy mineralization of bone.Rickets Osteomalacia
Vitamin ETocopherol, Tocotrienolits antioxidant activity helps prevent oxidative street, an issue to increases the risk of widespread inflammation and various diseases.it may cause hemolytic anemia in newborns.
Vitamin KPhylloquinonenecessary for blood clotting.Low levels may cause an unusual susceptibility to bleed.

Question 118

In which year did Albert Einstein predict a new state of matter, the Bose-Einstein condensate (BEC), based on a quantum formulation by the Indian physicist Satyendra Nath Bose?

  1. AOption (a)

    1935

  2. BOption (b)

    1924

  3. COption (c)

    1930

  4. DOption (d)

    1919

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1924

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1924.

Key Points

  • Bose-Einstein Condensate is called the Fifth state of matter.
  • It is formed when a gas of bosons having low densities is cooled to an absolute zero temperature.
  • At this temperature, the atoms stop moving.
  • They thus clump to each other acting like a single atom with the whole group having identical physical properties.
  • Plasma is a subset of gas which, unlike ordinary gases, is made up of atoms where some or all the electrons are stripped and positively charged protons roam freely.
  • Albert Einstein predicts it in the year 1924.

Additional Information

  • States of Matter: There are five states of matter.
  • Solid
  • Liquid
  • Gas
  • Plasma
  • Bose-Eienstein Condensate(BEC)

Question 119

What was India's rank in the Asia-Pacific Personalised Health Index released by the Economist Intelligence Unit in January 2021?

  1. AOption (a)

    10th

  2. BOption (b)

    9th

  3. COption (c)

    11th

  4. DOption (d)

    12th

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

10th

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1. 

Key Points

  • India ranked 10th out of 11 Asia Pacific countries in a newly-launched health index to measure the progress towards personalised healthcare. It highlights the need for improvement in various areas such as policy context, health information, personalised technologies, and health services.
  • It is encouraging to see that Singapore, Taiwan, Japan, and Australia performed well in overall readiness towards personalised healthcare. India can learn from their best practices and work towards improving their own healthcare system.
  • Personalised healthcare has the potential to improve health outcomes and reduce healthcare costs by tailoring healthcare services to individual needs. It is important for countries to prioritize and invest in this area to improve the overall health and well-being of their citizens.

Additional Information

  • The Asia-Pacific region is home to many countries. Here are 11 of them, listed alphabetically:
  • Australia
  • China
  • India
  • Indonesia
  • Japan
  • Malaysia
  • New Zealand
  • Philippines
  • South Korea
  • Thailand
  • Vietnam

Question 120

Which of the following options is correct regarding sexually transmitted disease (STD)?

Statement A: Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) are infections transmitted from an infected person to an uninfected person through sexual contact.

Statement B: HIV, HPV and Hepatitis B virus is responsible for STD.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both Statements A and B incorrect

  2. BOption (b)

    Only Statement B is correct

  3. COption (c)

    Both Statements A and B correct

  4. DOption (d)

    Only Statement A is correct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both Statements A and B correct

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3. 

Key Points 

  • HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) is a virus that attacks and weakens the immune system, making individuals vulnerable to opportunistic infections and cancers.
  • HIV is spread through the exchange of bodily fluids, such as blood, semen, vaginal secretions, and breast milk, during unprotected sexual contact, sharing of needles, and from mother-to-child during pregnancy, childbirth, or breastfeeding.
  • There are two types of HIV: HIV-1 and HIV-2. HIV-1 is the most common type found globally and is more virulent than HIV-2.
  • If left untreated, HIV can progress to AIDS (Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome), which is a collection of symptoms and infections that occur due to a severely weakened immune system.

Additional Information

  • Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is the standard treatment for HIV infection.
  • ART involves taking a combination of medications that target different stages of the HIV life cycle to suppress viral replication and reduce the viral load in the blood.
  • ART can prolong the lives of people living with HIV and significantly reduce the risk of transmitting the virus to others. There is no cure for HIV, but with early diagnosis and proper treatment, individuals living with HIV can live long and healthy lives.
  • Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) are infections that can be transmitted through sexual contact, including vaginal, anal, and oral sex. These infections can be caused by bacteria, viruses, or parasites.
  • Common STDs include:
  • Chlamydia: A bacterial infection that can affect both men and women.
  • Gonorrhea: Another bacterial infection that can affect the genital tract, rectum, and throat.
  • Human papillomavirus (HPV): A viral infection that can cause genital warts and is linked to certain types of cancer.
  • Herpes: A viral infection that can cause painful blisters around the genitals or mouth.
  • Syphilis: A bacterial infection that can have serious long-term consequences if left untreated.
  • HIV/AIDS: A viral infection that attacks the immune system and can be transmitted through sexual contact, sharing needles, and from mother to child during childbirth or breastfeeding.
  • Hepatitis B is a sexually transmitted disease, but it is spread in other ways, too. It is a viral infection affecting the liver. It is transmitted through contact with infected blood or body fluids.

Question 121

What do you call the type of drugs that mimic the natural messenger by switching on the receptor?

  1. AOption (a)

    Antidepressants

  2. BOption (b)

    Depressants

  3. COption (c)

    Agonist

  4. DOption (d)

    Antagonists

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Agonist

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3. 

Key Points

  • Agonists are a type of drug that bind to and activate a receptor in the body, producing a biological response that is similar to the response produced by the body's natural messenger for that receptor.
  • This is in contrast to antagonists, which bind to the receptor but do not activate it, blocking the effects of the natural messenger or other **agonists.**​

Additional Information

  • Antidepressants are medications that are primarily used to treat depression.
  • They work by altering the levels of certain chemicals in the brain, such as serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine, which are involved in regulating mood, emotions, and behavior.
  • There are several different types of antidepressants, including selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs), tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs), and monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs). Each type of antidepressant works in a slightly different way and may have different side effects.
  • Depressants are a class of drugs that slow down or depress the central nervous system (CNS). They are also referred to as sedatives, tranquilizers, or downers. Depressants have various medical uses, such as treating anxiety, insomnia, and seizures. However, they can also be abused for their calming and euphoric effects.
  • Examples of depressants include:
  • Benzodiazepines: These are a group of drugs commonly prescribed for anxiety and insomnia. Examples include diazepam (Valium), alprazolam (Xanax), and lorazepam (Ativan).
  • Barbiturates: These are a type of sedative that were once commonly used for treating anxiety and insomnia but are now mostly used in anesthesia. Examples include phenobarbital and secobarbital.
  • Alcohol: This is a legal depressant that is widely consumed and can lead to impaired judgment, decreased coordination, and slowed reaction times.
  • Opioids: While opioids are primarily painkillers, they also have sedative effects on the CNS. Examples include oxycodone, morphine, and codeine.
  • Depressants are highly addictive, and their abuse can lead to physical and psychological dependence. Overdosing on depressants can be dangerous and potentially fatal, as they can cause respiratory depression, coma, and death.

Question 122

Identify a type of season that is NOT a part of the four seasons of India.

  1. AOption (a)

    The cold weather season

  2. BOption (b)

    The hot weather season  

  3. COption (c)

    The southwest monsoon season

  4. DOption (d)

    The southeast monsoon season

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The southeast monsoon season

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The southeast monsoon season.

Key Points

Four main seasons can be identified in India.

  • Winter season.
  • Summer season.
  • Southwest monsoon.
  • Retreating monsoon.

The southeast monsoon season is not part of the four seasons of India.​

Additional Information

Winter season characteristics:

  • Winter season is between Mid-November to February.
  • Mean daily temperature below 21o C in North India.
  • Some parts experience temperatures below the freezing point.
  • Temperature increases from north to south.

Summer season characteristics:

  • The summer season in India can be experienced in April, May, and June.
  • The temperature rises up to 45oC in north India.
  • Summer season is a completely dry season.
  • Summer in south India is not so extreme.

Southwest monsoon characteristics:

  • Southwest monsoon in India can be experienced in June-September.
  • The whole of India is under the southwest monsoon.
  • India faces severe cyclones and thunderstorms.
  • June is the hottest month.
  • The temperature remains low during July and August which rises high in September with a decreasing amount of precipitation.

Retreating monsoon:

  • Retreating monsoons in India can be experienced in October-November.
  • Monsoon winds are retreating gradually and the sudden rise of temperature with October heat.
  • Day temperature is high and nights are cool and pleasant.
  • The average minimum temperature falls below 20o C.

Question 123

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the benefits of the retired President of India?

A. The former President of India will also be entitled to a monthly pension of ₹2.5 lakh.

B. He/She is entitled to a secretarial staff comprising a private secretary, a personal assistant, an additional private secretary, two peons, and office expenses up to ₹1 lakh per annum.

C. He/She is also entitled to free highest-class travel anywhere in India, accompanied by one person, by rail, air, or steamer.

  1. AOption (a)

    A and B only

  2. BOption (b)

    B and C only

  3. COption (c)

    A and C only

  4. DOption (d)

    A, B and C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A, B and C

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4. 

Key Points

  • According to the Act, a retired President of India is entitled to a fully furnished residence, free medical attendance and treatment, a monthly pension of Rs. 2.5 lakhs, and secretarial staff consisting of a private secretary, a personal assistant, an additional private secretary, two peons, and office expenses up to Rs. 1 lakh per annum.
  • In addition, a retired President of India is entitled to free highest-class travel anywhere in India, accompanied by one person, by rail, air, or steamer. The spouse of a retired President is also entitled to a family pension at the rate of 50 percent of what a retired President gets, for the rest of his/her life, in case the President dies in office, resigns, or demits office after the end of the term. The spouse is also entitled to medical attendance and treatment free of charge, as well as a furnished residence, a car or car allowance, and free top-class travel within the country.
  • It is worth noting that these entitlements are provided to ensure that the former President and their spouse can continue to lead a dignified life after retirement, and are not meant to be a form of personal gain or enrichment.

Additional Information

  • Droupadi Murmu took office as the 15th president of India, becoming the second woman and the first tribal person to hold the office.
  • Article 52: The President of India
  • Article 54: Election of President
  • Article 55: Manner of election of President
  • Article 60: Oath or affirmation by the President
  • Article 61: Procedure for impeachment of the PresidentPresident of India (lists)
NameTenureDescription
Rajendra Prasad13 May 1952 – 13 May 1957 13 May 1957 – 13 May 1962He was elected twice as the president He was also the president of the constituent assembly before being elected to this post.
Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan13 May 1962 – 13 May 1967Radhakrishnan was a prominent philosopher and writer. He also held the position of vice-chancellor of the Andhra University and Banaras Hindu University.
Zakir Hussain13 May 1967 – 3 May 1969He was the recipient of Padma Vibhushan and Bharat Ratna. He was the shortest-serving president and passed away in office.
Varahagiri Venkata Giri3 May 1969 – 20 July 1969 24 August 1969 – 24 August 1974He was elected Vice President of India in 1967. He served as the president for a short term due to the sudden death of Zakir Hussain in office.
Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed25 July 1974 – 11 February 1977He was the first Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh. He became the youngest President who occupied Rashtrapati Bhavan and contested twice for the post of president.
Neelam Sanjiva REddy25 July 1977 – 25 July 1982He was First Chief Minsiter of Andhra Pradesh in 1953. He was the speaker of 6th Lok Sabha.
Zail Singh25 July 1982 – 25 July 1987He was the Chief Minister of Punjab and the Union Home Minister
Ramaswamy Venkataraman25 July 1987 – 25 July 1992He is a receiver of “Tamra Patra” for his contributions to India’s freedom struggle.
Shankar Dayal Sharma25 July 1992 – 25 July 1997He was Chief Minister of Madhya Pradesh and the Indian Minister for Communications.
Kocheril Raman Narayanan25 July 1997 – 25 July 2002He served as India’s ambassador to Thailand, Turkey, China, and the United States of America.
Avul Pakir Jainulabdeen Abdul Kalam25 July 2002 – 25 July 2007He played a leading role in the development of India’s ballistic missile and nuclear weapons programs. He was also a Bharat Ratna recipient.
Pratibha Patil25 July 2007 – 25 July 2012She was the first woman president of India.
Pranab Mukherjee25 July – 25 July 2017He was awarded the best Parliamentary Award in 1997. He also received Padma Vibhushan in 2008
Ram Nath Kovind25 July 2017 – July 2022He was a lawyer for 16 years before entering politics, practising in the Delhi High Court and the Supreme Court of India until 1993
Draupadi Murmu21 July 2022 to IncumbentCurrent President

Question 124

Which option correctly represents the countries in decreasing order of HDI, as released in September 2022?

  1. AOption (a)

    Switzerland – Denmark – Japan - Niger

  2. BOption (b)

    Japan – Switzerland – Denmark - Niger

  3. COption (c)

    Niger – Japan – Denmark – Switzerland

  4. DOption (d)

    Denmark – Japan – Switzerland – Niger

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Switzerland – Denmark – Japan - Niger

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Switzerland – Denmark – Japan - Niger.

Key Points

  • Human Development Index (HDI) is a statistic developed and compiled to measure various countries’ social and economic development levels by the United Nations.
  • The HDI was created to emphasize that people and their capabilities should be the ultimate criteria for assessing the development of a country, not economic growth alone.
  • As a part of the Human Development Index, every year United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) releases the Human Development Report (HDR).
CountryHuman Development Index 2022
1.Switzerland0.962
2.Denmark0.948
3.Japan0.925
4.Niger0.400

Additional Information

  • HDI emphasizes that people and their capabilities should be the ultimate criteria for assessing the development of a country, not economic growth alone.
  • Based on three Basic Dimensions of Human Development:
  • A long and healthy life
  • Access to knowledge
  • A decent standard of living
  • HDI is published by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
  • For the first time, the United Nations Development Programme introduced a new metric to reflect the impact caused by each country’s per-capita carbon emissions and its material footprint, which measures the amount of fossil fuels, metals and other resources used to make the goods and services it consumes called- the Planetary Pressures-adjusted HDI, or PHDI.

Question 125

Identify which of the following statements about agriculture in India are correct.

  1. Rabi crops are sown in India from October to December and harvested from April to June.
  2. Important crops grown during Rabi in India are paddy, maize, gram, soybean and mustard.
  3. Aus, Aman and Boro are three crops of paddy in Assam, West Bengal and Odisha.
  1. AOption (a)

    1, 2 and 3

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1 and 2 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

Key Points

  • The word Rabi is derived from the Arabic language and means “Spring”.
  • Rabi crops are **sown in winter (hence called winter season crops) from October to December and harvested in summer from April to June.**​

Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • statement 2 is incorrect. While gram (chickpeas) and mustard are indeed important Rabi season crops, paddy (rice) and soybean are primarily Kharif crops, sown in the monsoon season (June to July) and harvested in the autumn (September to October).
  • Maize is grown in both seasons but is more commonly associated with the Kharif season.
  • The typical Rabi crops include wheat, barley, peas, lentils, and some types of mustard.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

  • Though these crops are grown in large parts of India, states from the north and north-western parts such as Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, Uttarakhand, and Uttar Pradesh are important for the production of wheat and other rabi crops.
  • The availability of precipitation during the winter months due to the western temperate cyclones helps in the success of these crops.
  • In states like Assam, West Bengal and Odisha, three crops of paddy are grown in a year.
  • These are Aus, Aman and Boro.
  • Aus refers July- August season.
  • Aman refers to the December- January seasons.
  • Boro refers march- May seasons, these are the varieties of rice.

Hence statement 3 is correct.

Question 126

Which state recorded the lowest literacy rate in the 2011 census?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bihar

  2. BOption (b)

    Maharashtra

  3. COption (c)

    Arunachal Pradesh

  4. DOption (d)

    Kerala

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Bihar

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bihar.​

Key Points

  • According to the 2011 Census, Bihar has the lowest rate of literacy ( 61.8%%) among all the states.
  • Bihar has the lowest male and female literacy rates (71.2% and 51.5%, respectively), while Kerala has the highest rates (96.1% and 92.1%, respectively).

Additional Information

FactsCensus of India 2011
State with highest population densityBihar
State with lowest population densityArunachal Pradesh
State with highest populationUttar Pradesh
State with lowest populationSikkim
State with highest literacy rateKerala
State with lowest literacy rateBihar
State with highest sex ratioKerala
State with lowest sex ratioHaryana

Question 127

Deficiency of which of the following vitamins causes excessive bleeding from wounds?

  1. AOption (a)

    Vitamin D

  2. BOption (b)

    Vitamin E

  3. COption (c)

    Vitamin A

  4. DOption (d)

    Vitamin K

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Vitamin K

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Vitamin K.

Key Points 

Vitamin K

  • Vitamin K is called antihemorrhagic.
  • It is found in the green leaves of plants, as well as in those parts of plants that contain chlorophyll, a lot of it in berries of mountain ash, as well as in the liver.
  • Vitamin K is needed for the posttranslational modification of proteins required for blood coagulation.
  • Vitamin K is involved in metabolism pathways, bone mineralization, cell growth, and metabolism of the blood vessel wall.

Vitamin K injection:

  • It is used to treat bleeding (hemorrhage or threatened hemorrhage) associated with a low blood level of prothrombin or factor VII.
  • It is recommended that vitamin K be given IV, and not IM until coagulation parameters normalize to minimize the risk of hematoma at the injection site.
  • 1 mg IM/subcutaneous is the FDA-approved dosage.
  • Neonate has low plasma concentrations and low levels of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors.
  • Therefore, immediately after the birth, Vitamin K will be administered to the newborn in order to prevent bleeding.

Additional Information

Vitamins :

  • Vitamins are organic substances that are required for the proper functioning of the body.
  • Vitamins are divided into two groups:
  • Fat-soluble (Vit. A, D, E, and K)
  • Water-soluble ( Vitamins of B group and Vit. C).
VitaminSourcesFunctionsDeficiency disease
Vit. B1 (Thiamine)milk, meat, cerealsgrowth and developmentBeri- Beri
Vit.B2 (Riboflavin)yeast, peasproduction of RBC, body growthSkin diseases, retarded growth
Vit.B3 (Niacin)tomatoes, potatoesfor maintaining healthy skin and nervous systemPellagra
Vit.B12liver, milkFormation of red blood cellsAnaemia
Vit Clemons, gooseberries, orangesMaintaining healthy ligaments, tendons, and blood vesselsScurvy
Vit. Dcheese, butter, sunlightFormation of strong teeth and bonesRickets
Vit. Kcabbage, spinach, green leafy vegetableshelps in clotting bloodExcessive bleeding of wounds

Question 128

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding changes to Atal Pension Yojana Scheme (APY) done in 2022?

A. According to the new criteria, any citizen who is or has been an income-tax payer, shall not be eligible to join APY after 1 October 2022.

B. Subscribers would receive the guaranteed minimum monthly pension of ₹1,000 or ₹2,000 or ₹3,000 or ₹4,000 or ₹5,000 at the age of 80 years.

C. As per the new rules, subscribers can make contributions to APY on a monthly basis only.

  1. AOption (a)

    B and C only

  2. BOption (b)

    A, B and C 

  3. COption (c)

    A and C only

  4. DOption (d)

    A only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A only.

Key Points

  • According to the new criteria, any citizen who is or has been an income-tax payer, shall not be eligible to join APY after 1 October 2022.
  • Income-tax payers will not be allowed to enrol in the government's pension security scheme Atal Pension Yojana (APY) from October 1.
  • Income-tax payers enrolled before October 1 will continue in the scheme.

Hence statement 1 is correct.

Important Points

  • Atal Pension Yojana
  • The scheme was launched on 9th May 2015, with the objective of creating a universal social security system for all Indians, especially the poor, the underprivileged and the workers in the unorganised sector.
  • Administered By: Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority through National Pension System (NPS).
  • Eligibility: Any citizen of India can join the APY scheme.
  • The age of the subscriber should be between 18-40 years.
  • Benefits:
  • It provides a minimum guaranteed pension ranging from Rs 1000 to Rs 5000 on attaining 60 years of age.

Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

  • The amount of pension is guaranteed for a lifetime to the spouse on the death of the subscriber.
  • In the event of the death of both the subscriber and the spouse, the entire pension corpus is paid to the nominee.​
  • Contributions to the Atal Pension Yojana (APY) are eligible for tax benefits similar to the National Pension System (NPS).
  • Around 71 per cent of the enrolments are done by Public-Sector Banks, 19 per cent by Regional Rural Banks, six per cent by Private Sector Banks and three per cent by Payment and Small Finance Banks.
  • Out of the total APY subscribers, 44 per cent are female subscribers while 56 per cent are male subscribers.
  • Further, out of the total APY subscribers, 45 per cent are aged between 18 and 25 years.

Question 129

Which of the following is considered a capital expense?

  1. AOption (a)

    Pension

  2. BOption (b)

    Payment of salaries 

  3. COption (c)

    Subsidies

  4. DOption (d)

    Construction of school buildings

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Construction of school buildings

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Construction of school buildings.

Key Points

  • The construction of school buildings is considered a capital expense because it involves the creation or acquisition of a long-term asset that will provide economic benefits to the organization over multiple years.
  • School buildings are expensive to construct and require a significant investment of resources, such as money, time, and materials.
  • As a result, they are classified as capital expenditures, which are distinguished from operating expenses that are necessary for the day-to-day operations of a business or organization.

Additional Information  

  • Capital Expense:
  • Capital expenses are the expenses incurred by a company to acquire or upgrade fixed, tangible or intangible assets, such as property, plant, and equipment (PP&E), patents, or trademarks.
  • Capital expenses are typically large in amount and are expected to provide benefits for several years or more.
  • These expenses are capitalized on the balance sheet and then depreciated or amortized over their useful lives.
  • Revenue expense: Expenses incurred in the normal course of business operations, such as salaries, rent, and utilities, that are immediately charged to expenses on the income statement.
  • Administrative expense: Expenses incurred in the general administration of a business, such as an office rent, salaries of administrative staff, and office supplies.
  • Operating expense: Expenses incurred in the day-to-day operation of a business, such as rent, salaries, and advertising.

Question 130

A light bulb working on a 18 V battery draws a current of 3 A. What will be the resistance of the bulb?

  1. AOption (a)

    6 Ω

  2. BOption (b)

    2 Ω

  3. COption (c)

    4 Ω

  4. DOption (d)

    3 Ω

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

6 Ω

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 6 Ω.

Key Points

We can use Ohm's law to calculate the resistance of the bulb:

Ohm's law states that the current (I) through a conductor between two points is directly proportional to the voltage (V) across the two points, and inversely proportional to the resistance (R) between them:

I = V / R

R = V / I

Where:

R = resistance in ohms (Ω)

V = voltage in volts (V)

I = current in amperes (A)

Given that the voltage (V) is 18 V and the current (I) is 3 A, we can substitute these values into the equation to find the resistance (R):

R = V / I

⇒ 18 V / 3 A = 6 Ω

Therefore, the resistance of the bulb is 6 ohms (Ω).

Computer Knowledge (20 questions)

Question 131

______ is a type of malware that is often disguised as legitimate software.

  1. AOption (a)

    Trojan

  2. BOption (b)

    Ransomware

  3. COption (c)

    Roolkit

  4. DOption (d)

    Keylogger

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Trojan

Why this answer is correct

Trojan is malicious programs that are often disguised as legitimate software.

Computer viruses are unwanted software programs or pieces of code that interfere with the functioning of the computer. They are self-replicating computer program that interferes with the functioning of the computer by infecting files, data, programs, etc.

Key Points

Trojan Horse 

  • A Trojan is sometimes called a Trojan virus or a Trojan horse virus, but that’s a misnomer.
  • Viruses can execute and replicate themselves but Trojan cannot.
  • A user has to execute Trojans.
  • It can't replicate like viruses and worms as a Trojan horse hides in a program.
  • it is a type of malicious code or software that looks legitimate and acts as a bona fide application or file Once installed, Once you install any such program, the trojan horse enters your computer.
  • It can provide unauthorized access to your computer, send your files to other computers, and may delete files or can make other unwanted changes in your computer by gathering information by monitoring.

Trojan malware example to show how it works.

  • You might think you’ve received an email from someone you know and click on what looks like a legitimate attachment. But you’ve been fooled. The email is from a cybercriminal, and the file you clicked on — and downloaded and opened — has gone on to install malware on your device.
  • When you execute the program, the malware can spread to other files and damage your computer

Common Types Of Computer Viruses are·-Trojan virus, File-infecting Virus, Macro Virus, Web Scripting Virus, Boot Sector Virus, etc

Question 132

In MS-Excel 365 which of the following appears across the top of the screen and below the title bar and contains all the commands, formulas and features needed to create data-intense spreadsheets?

  1. AOption (a)

    Scroll bars

  2. BOption (b)

    Status bar

  3. COption (c)

    Ruler

  4. DOption (d)

    Ribbon

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Ribbon

Why this answer is correct

  • A ribbon is a set of tools that are found on the top of the window in the MS Office suite.
  • This provides the tools for changing the format of the document.
  • This gives the extra space to view the document.
  • To expand or collapse the ribbon, double-click on any of the tab names on the top.
  • You can also use the shortcut CTRL + F1 to do it. Hence option 1 is correct.

Additional Information CTRL + F2 shortcut displays the print preview. To access it without a shortcut:

  • Go to the File tab, and click the print option, there you can find the print preview box.
  • ALT + F1 shortcut creates an embedded chart of the data in the current range.
  • ALT + F2 shortcut opens the "Save As" dialog box to save the workbook in a specific location.
  • In MS-Excel 365, the Ribbon appears across the top of the screen and below the title bar, and it contains all the commands, formulas, and features needed to create data-intense spreadsheets.
  • The Ribbon is organized into tabs, such as Home, Insert, Page Layout, Formulas, Data, Review, and View, each of which contains groups of related commands.
  • By clicking on a tab, you can access the commands and features related to that tab.
  • The Ribbon is customizable, which means you can add or remove commands and create your own custom tabs to suit your specific needs.

Question 133

______ is also known as electronic disk.

  1. AOption (a)

    USB Sticks

  2. BOption (b)

    Network Storage Servers

  3. COption (c)

    Solid-State Drive

  4. DOption (d)

    USB Hard Drives

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Solid-State Drive

Why this answer is correct

Option 3) Solid-State Drive is also known as electronic disk.

  • Solid State Drive (SSD) is a type of mass storage device similar to a hard disk drive (HDD).
  • It supports reading and writing data and maintains stored data in a permanent state even without power.
  • Internal SSDs connect to a computer like a hard drive, using standard IDE or SATA connections.
  • While SSDs serve the same function as hard drives, their internal components are much different.
  • Unlike hard drives, SSDs do not have any moving parts (which is why they are called solid-state drives). Instead of storing data on magnetic platters, SSDs store data using flash memory.

Question 134

________ a high-speed device used in CPU that is utilised to store data temporarily during processing. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Arithmetic and Logic Unit (ALU)  

  2. BOption (b)

    Auxiliary Memory 

  3. COption (c)

    Control Unit

  4. DOption (d)

    Registers

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Registers

Why this answer is correct

Registers:

  • Registers are a type of computer memory used to quickly accept, store, and transfer data and instructions that are being used immediately by the CPU.
  • The registers used by the CPU are often termed Processor registers.
  • A processor register may hold an instruction, a storage address, or any data.
  • The computer needs processor registers for manipulating data and a register for holding a memory address.

Question 135

Which among the following statements is incorrect? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Cache memory keeps the programs that can be run in a short amount of time. 

  2. BOption (b)

    Cache memory stores data in permanent use.  

  3. COption (c)

    Cache memory is faster than main memory.

  4. DOption (d)

    The size of cache is usually small. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Cache memory stores data in permanent use.  

Why this answer is correct

Cache memory:

A cache is a temporary storage area that is more accessible to the processor than the computer's primary memory source. It is also known as CPU memory because it is often incorporated directly into the CPU chip or placed on a separate chip with a bus interface to the CPU. The cache stores data or commands related to CPU on a temporary basis.

RAM:

The RAM refers to the fact that the processor may directly access any storage location.

There are many primary memories are, 

  • Dynamic RAM,
  • Static RAM,
  • Double Data Rate SDRAM,
  • Double Data Rate 4 Synchronous Dynamic RAM,
  • Rambus Dynamic RAM,
  • Read-only memory,
  • Programmable ROM,
  • Erasable PROM,
  • Electrically erasable PROM, and
  • Virtual memory.

Hence the correct answer is true.

Additional Information

Types of computer memory:

Question 136

Which of the following option of print settings is used to choose only specific pages in MS-Word 365?

  1. AOption (a)

    Print All Pages  

  2. BOption (b)

    Print Current Page  

  3. COption (c)

    Print Selection

  4. DOption (d)

    Custom Print 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Custom Print 

Why this answer is correct

The correct option for choosing only specific pages in MS-Word 365 is "Print Custom".

"Print Current Page" will print only the page that is currently selected.

Additional Information

  • "Print All Pages" is an option that will print every page in the document.
  • "Print Selection" will print only the selected text or object in the document.
  • "Print Custom" allows you to specify a range of pages to be printed. For example, if you only want to print pages 3-5 of a document, you can enter "3-5" in the Custom Range field.
  • To access these print options in MS-Word 365, you can click on the "File" menu and then select "Print".
  • In the print settings window, you will see a "Settings" section where you can choose the type of print job you want to perform.
  • Select "Print Custom Range" and enter the page numbers you want to print in the "Pages" field.
  • You can enter a single page number, a range of pages separated by a hyphen, or a combination of both.
  • Once you have entered the desired pages, click "Print" to start the print job.

Question 137

_______  displays a list of utility configure the computer system and install software and hardware. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Control Panel  

  2. BOption (b)

    Help and Support

  3. COption (c)

    Taskbar

  4. DOption (d)

    Run

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Control Panel  

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is "Control Panel".

  • Control Panel is a built-in feature in the Windows operating system that provides a centralized location to configure and manage various settings for the computer system, as well as to install software and hardware.
  • It contains a variety of applets or utilities, each of which provides access to specific settings or tasks.
  • Examples of applets in the Control Panel include "Programs and Features", which allows you to install and uninstall programs, "Device Manager", which allows you to manage hardware devices installed on the computer, "Display Settings", which allows you to adjust the display resolution and other settings, and "User Accounts", which allows you to manage user accounts on the computer.

Additional Information

  • Help and Support is a feature that provides access to help documentation and support resources for Windows and other software applications. It contains a variety of articles, tutorials, and troubleshooting guides to help users resolve common issues and learn how to use different features of the operating system and applications.
  • Taskbar is a bar that appears at the bottom of the Windows desktop, displaying a list of open programs and providing quick access to various system settings and features, such as the Start menu, notifications, and system tray.
  • Run is a feature that allows you to quickly open and run programs, files, and system commands by typing in their names or file paths in the "Run" dialog box. It is accessed by pressing the "Windows key + R" keyboard shortcut.

Question 138

Which of the following is correct option in MS-Excel 365, if a value in a cell of column A and row 10 is to be referred in a function or formula? 

  1. AOption (a)

    A-10 

  2. BOption (b)

    10A  

  3. COption (c)

    A10

  4. DOption (d)

    A : 10

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A10

Why this answer is correct

The correct option in MS-Excel 365, if a value in a cell of column A and row 10 is to be referred in a function or formula, is option 3) A10.

  • In Excel, cell references are used in formulas to refer to specific cells or ranges of cells.
  • A cell reference consists of the column letter and row number of the cell.
  • In this case, the value in cell A10 can be referred to in a formula or function by using the cell reference A10.
  • Suppose you have an Excel spreadsheet with data in various cells, and you want to refer to the value in cell A10 using a function or formula.
  • For example, let's assume that cell A10 contains the value 50.
  • In this case, if you want to use the value in cell A10 in a formula, you would use the reference A10.
  • Here's a simple example using the SUM function to add the value in cell A10 to the value in cell B5: =SUM(A10, B5)
  • In the above formula, we are instructing Excel to sum the value in cell A10 (which is 50) with the value in cell B5. The reference A10 tells Excel to use the value from that specific cell.
  • So, by using the reference A10 in your formulas or functions, you can effectively refer to the value in the cell and incorporate it into your calculations or logical operations within MS Excel 365.

Additional Information

  • Option 1) A-10 is not a valid cell reference as the hyphen (-) is not used to indicate the cell location in Excel.
  • Option 2) 10A is also an invalid cell reference as the row number should always come after the column letter.
  • Option 4) A : 10 is a range reference, not a cell reference, which would refer to all cells in columns A through 10, which is not what is needed in this case.

Question 139

While ______ data transfers from the customers’ machine to the server. 

  1. AOption (a)

    browsing

  2. BOption (b)

    uploading

  3. COption (c)

    forwarding

  4. DOption (d)

    downloading

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

uploading

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is "uploading".

  • Uploading is the process of transferring data or files from the customer's machine to the server.
  • This is typically done when the customer wants to share files, photos, videos or other types of data with other users on the internet or store data in the cloud.

Additional Information

  • Browsing refers to the act of searching or exploring the internet by opening web pages and following links.
  • Browsing does not involve transferring data from the customer's machine to the server.
  • Forwarding refers to the process of sending an email or message from one person to another.
  • This also does not involve transferring data from the customer's machine to the server.
  • Downloading is the process of transferring data or files from the server to the customer's machine.
  • This is typically done when the customer wants to access files, photos, videos or other types of data from the internet or cloud storage.
  • In summary, while uploading data transfers from the customer's machine to the server, and while downloading data transfers from the server to the customer's machine.

Question 140

Which among the following is incorrect about Laser Printers? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Uses laser lights for producing dots to form characters on a page 

  2. BOption (b)

    Cannot print multiple copies at a time

  3. COption (c)

    Fast speed 

  4. DOption (d)

    Supports multiple fonts and sizes  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Cannot print multiple copies at a time

Why this answer is correct

Option 2) Cannot print multiple copies at a time is incorrect about Laser Printers.

  • Laser printers can print multiple copies at a time by either using manual duplex printing or automatic duplex printing.
  • In manual duplex printing, the user has to manually flip the paper to print on both sides, while in automatic duplex printing, the printer itself prints on both sides without the user's intervention

Additional Information

  • Uses laser lights for producing dots to form characters on a page: This is true. Laser printers use a laser beam to create an electrostatic image, or "latent image," on a rotating metal drum called a "photoreceptor." The laser beam is directed onto the drum by a series of mirrors and lenses, and it causes the drum's surface to become electrically charged in certain areas. Then, the drum is coated with toner (a fine powder) that sticks to the charged areas, forming the image. Finally, the toner is transferred to the paper and fused onto it using heat.
  • Fast speed: This is true. Laser printers are known for their fast printing speed, especially when compared to inkjet printers. They can print up to 25-50 pages per minute (ppm) depending on the model and complexity of the document.
  • Supports multiple fonts and sizes: This is true. Laser printers support multiple fonts and sizes, which is one of their advantages over older printing technologies such as dot matrix printers.
  • The printer driver software installed on the computer sends the fonts and sizes information to the printer, and the printer uses it to produce the printed output

Question 141

Shading option in MS-Word 365 is used for  ______.

  1. AOption (a)

    changing the color around the selected text 

  2. BOption (b)

    changing the color behind the selected text 

  3. COption (c)

    changing the color of the selected text  

  4. DOption (d)

    making the text pop by highlighting it 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

changing the color behind the selected text 

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 2) changing the color behind the selected text.

  • Shading in MS-Word 365 is used to change the color behind the selected text.
  • This is a formatting option that allows you to highlight or emphasize specific text by shading the background with a different color or pattern.

Additional Information

  • Changing the color around the selected text refers to changing the color of the border or background of a text box or shape that surrounds the selected text. This option is different from shading, which specifically refers to changing the color behind the selected text.
  • Changing the color of the selected text refers to changing the font color of the text itself. This option is different from shading, which specifically refers to changing the color behind the text.
  • Making the text pop by highlighting it can be achieved by using shading, which adds a background color or pattern to the selected text to make it stand out from the surrounding text.
  • In summary, the shading option in MS-Word 365 is used to change the color behind the selected text.

Question 142

Which of the following is NOT an example of an e-mail service provider?

I. Outlook

II. Gmail

III. Yandex

  1. AOption (a)

    I and III

  2. BOption (b)

    Only III

  3. COption (c)

    All are e-mail service providers  

  4. DOption (d)

    Only I

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

All are e-mail service providers  

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 3) All are e-mail service providers:

  • This option 3 is correct as all three options are examples of e-mail service providers.
  • Outlook is Microsoft's e-mail service provider, Gmail is Google's e-mail service provider, and Yandex is a Russian-based e-mail service provider.

Additional Information

  • This option 1 is incorrect as both Outlook and Yandex are examples of e-mail service providers. Outlook is Microsoft's e-mail service provider, while Yandex is a Russian-based e-mail service provider.

This option 2 is incorrect as Yandex is also an e-mail service provider. Yandex is a popular e-mail service provider in Russia that offers free e-mail accounts.

  • This option 4 is incorrect as Outlook is an example of an e-mail service provider. Outlook is Microsoft's e-mail service provider that is part of the Microsoft Office suite of applications.
  • In summary, the correct answer is option 3 - all of the given options are examples of e-mail service providers.

Question 143

Which among the following statements is incorrect? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Trojan looks like a legitimate software. 

  2. BOption (b)

    Some Trojans create backdoors to give malicious users access to the system.  

  3. COption (c)

    Trojan self-replicate and infects other files.  

  4. DOption (d)

    Trojan spreads through user interaction such as opening an email attachment or downloading and executing a file from the Internet.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Trojan self-replicate and infects other files.  

Why this answer is correct

The incorrect statement is 3) Trojan self-replicate and infects other files.

Explanation:

  • This statement 3 is incorrect. Unlike viruses, Trojans do not have the ability to self-replicate and infect other files. Instead, Trojans rely on social engineering techniques to trick users into running them, such as disguising themselves as legitimate software or using enticing file names to make users open them.

Additional Information

  • This statement 1 is correct. A Trojan is a type of malware that looks like a legitimate software, but actually performs malicious actions on the victim's computer.

This statement 2 is also correct. Some Trojans create backdoors on the victim's computer, which allow malicious users to gain unauthorized access to the system and carry out malicious activities.

  • This statement 4 is correct. Trojans typically spread through user interaction, such as opening an email attachment or downloading and executing a file from the Internet.
  • Once a Trojan is executed on the victim's computer, it can carry out various malicious actions such as stealing sensitive information, deleting files, or creating backdoors for other malware to enter the system.
  • In summary, the incorrect statement is 3) Trojan self-replicate and infects other files.

Question 144

The memory unit that communicates directly with the CPU is called _______ memory. 

  1. AOption (a)

    cache

  2. BOption (b)

    backup

  3. COption (c)

    main

  4. DOption (d)

    auxiliary

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

cache

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is cache

Key Points

  • The cache memory is a high-speed memory type that resides between the CPU and the main memory (RAM).
  • It's used to temporarily store data that's frequently accessed by the CPU.
  • Since cache memory is faster than RAM, it helps to reduce the time it takes for the CPU to get data and instructions.
  • When the CPU needs to read or write to a location in main memory, it first checks whether a copy of that data is in the cache. If so, the CPU immediately reads from or writes to the cache, which is much faster than reading from or writing to main memory.
  • So, in the context of your question, cache memory is the memory unit that communicates directly with the CPU.
  • While main memory (RAM) does also communicate with the CPU, it doesn't do so as directly or quickly as cache memory.
  • Backup and auxiliary memory, on the other hand, refer to additional or secondary storage that is not directly accessed by the CPU, such as external hard drives, tapes, or cloud storage.

Additional Information

  • Cache memory, is a high-speed memory unit that stores frequently accessed data and instructions to reduce the access time to main memory.
  • Backup memory is used to create copies of data or to store data for safekeeping in case of a system failure or other issues.
  • Auxiliary memory refers to secondary storage devices, such as hard disk drives, solid-state drives, or flash drives, which are used to store data for long-term use.

NOTE:-

Option 3, "main" memory, refers to the primary storage or system memory in a computer, typically RAM (Random Access Memory). While it is true that the CPU can and does communicate directly with main memory, it's not the most immediate form of memory to the CPU.

The reason option 1, "cache" memory, is more accurate is because cache is a smaller, faster memory that stores copies of the most frequently used data from main memory. It is located closer to the CPU and offers quicker access time, allowing the CPU to process data more efficiently.

So, while the CPU communicates with both types of memory, cache memory is designed to be the immediate, go-between memory that the CPU uses before accessing the slightly slower main memory.

Question 145

The instruction that is not to be executed immediately is placed in the ______. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Current Instruction Register (CIR) 

  2. BOption (b)

    Memory Address Register (MAR) 

  3. COption (c)

    Program Counter (PC)

  4. DOption (d)

    Instruction Buffer Register (IBR) 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Instruction Buffer Register (IBR) 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 4) Instruction Buffer Register (IBR).

  • When a program is loaded into memory, the CPU retrieves the instructions from memory and stores them in a small buffer called the Instruction Buffer Register (IBR).
  • The IBR holds the current instruction waiting to be executed by the CPU.
  • The CPU executes the instruction in the IBR and then fetches the next instruction from memory into the IBR.

Additional Information

  • The Current Instruction Register (CIR) (option 1) holds the instruction that is currently being executed by the CPU.
  • The Memory Address Register (MAR) (option 2) holds the memory address of the next instruction or data item to be fetched from or stored into memory.
  • The Program Counter (PC) (option 3) holds the memory address of the next instruction to be executed by the CPU.

Question 146

Video Graphics Array connectors are those which connect the monitor to a computer's video card and has ______ holes. 

  1. AOption (a)

    10

  2. BOption (b)

    12

  3. COption (c)

    18

  4. DOption (d)

    15

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

15

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 4) 15.

  • Video Graphics Array (VGA) connectors are used to connect a computer's video card to a monitor or display.
  • A VGA connector has 15 pins or holes arranged in three rows of five.
  • The VGA connector is an analog connection, which means it transmits a continuous signal that is susceptible to interference and degradation over long distances.
  • VGA connectors were first introduced in the late 1980s and were the standard for computer displays for many years.
  • However, with the rise of digital displays, such as DVI and HDMI, VGA is becoming less common.
  • Many modern computers and displays still include VGA ports, but they are often supplemented by digital connections.
  • In summary, the correct option is 4) 15, which refers to the number of pins or holes in a VGA connector.

Question 147

Which of the following is keyboard shortcut to reload the current page in Google search engine? 

  1. AOption (a)

    F7

  2. BOption (b)

    F5

  3. COption (c)

    F1

  4. DOption (d)

    F3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

F5

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2) F5.

  • In Google search engine, pressing the F5 key on your keyboard is a common keyboard shortcut used to reload the current page.
  • This is also known as refreshing the page.
  • Reloading the page can be useful in a number of situations, such as when you want to update the search results or load new content.

Additional Information

  • F7: This keyboard shortcut is typically used to activate the spelling and grammar check in many applications, including Microsoft Word and Outlook.
  • F1: This keyboard shortcut is commonly used to open the Help menu or bring up context-specific help in many applications.
  • F3: This keyboard shortcut has different functions depending on the application you are using. In some applications, it is used to open a search box or find feature.
  • In others, it may be used to open the Expose or Task View feature on a Mac or Windows computer.
  • In summary, the correct option is 2) F5, which is a keyboard shortcut used to reload the current page in Google search engine.

Question 148

Which among the following keyboard shortcuts is used to insert a hyperlink for the selected text in Microsoft Word? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Ctrl + K

  2. BOption (b)

    Ctrl + M

  3. COption (c)

    Ctrl + H

  4. DOption (d)

    Ctrl + Z

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Ctrl + K

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 1) Ctrl + K.

Explanation:

  • To insert a hyperlink for the selected text in Microsoft Word, the keyboard shortcut used is Ctrl + K.
  • This shortcut opens the Insert Hyperlink dialog box, where the user can specify the hyperlink address (URL), select a file or web page, and add a description for the hyperlink.

Additional Information

  • Ctrl + M is used to indent the selected paragraph.
  • Ctrl + H is used to open the Replace dialog box in Microsoft Word.
  • Ctrl + Z is used to undo the last action in Microsoft Word.

Question 149

__________is a passage to connect two networks that may work on different networking models. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Router

  2. BOption (b)

    Switch

  3. COption (c)

    Gateway

  4. DOption (d)

    Hub

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Gateway

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 3) Gateway.

Gateway

  • A gateway is a passage used to connect two networks that may work on different networking models.
  • It is a device that provides interconnectivity between networks with different network protocols.
  • For example, a gateway can be used to connect a local area network (LAN) to the internet.
  • It acts as an intermediary between the LAN and the internet, translating network protocols as necessary.
  • Gateways can also provide other services such as filtering, translation, and routing of data.
  • They are commonly used in enterprise networks to connect different departments and locations.

Additional Information 

Switch

  • Switch: A switch is a networking device that connects multiple devices on a local area network (LAN).
  • It uses the MAC address of each device to direct network traffic only to its intended recipient, which makes network communication more efficient.

Hub

  • Hub: A hub is a networking device that connects multiple devices on a LAN.
  • It receives network traffic from one device and sends it to all other devices on the network, which can lead to network congestion and reduced network performance.

Router

  • A router is a networking device that connects multiple networks and routes network traffic between them.
  • It operates at the network layer of the OSI model and can connect networks that use different networking technologies.
  • For example, a router can connect a local area network (LAN) to the internet, enabling devices on the LAN to access resources on the internet.
  • The router can also be used to direct traffic between different LANs within an organization or between different branches of an organization.
  • Routers are also capable of providing security features such as firewall protection and virtual private network (VPN) connectivity.
  • They can be used to prioritize traffic to ensure that critical applications receive the necessary bandwidth, and they can also be used to block traffic from specific sources.

Question 150

_______ cookies track you and expose your privacy.  

  1. AOption (a)

    Persistent

  2. BOption (b)

    Third-party 

  3. COption (c)

    Zombie

  4. DOption (d)

    Session

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Third-party 

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 2) Third-party cookies.

Explanation:

  • Cookies are small text files that websites store on a user's computer or device when they visit the site.
  • Cookies can be used for a variety of purposes, such as remembering a user's preferences or login information.
  • However, some cookies can also be used to track a user's activity across multiple websites, which can raise privacy concerns.

Third-party 

  • Third-party cookies are cookies that are set by a domain other than the one the user is visiting.
  • For example, if a user visits a website and that website has embedded content from a third-party domain,
  • such as an advertisement or a social media plugin, the third-party domain may set a cookie on the user's computer.
  • This can allow the third-party domain to track the user's activity across multiple websites.

Additional Information

Persistent

  • Persistent cookies are cookies that remain on a user's computer or device even after they close their browser.
  • These cookies can be used to remember a user's preferences or login information the next time they visit the website.

Session

  • Session cookies are cookies that are deleted when a user closes their browser.
  • These cookies are often used to keep track of a user's activity during a single browsing session, such as adding items to a shopping cart.

Zombie

  • Zombie cookies, also known as "evercookies," are a type of persistent cookie that are difficult to remove.
  • Zombie cookies can be used to track a user's activity even if they delete their cookies or use private browsing mode.

150 questions in the full paper