SSC CGL 2022 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On : 13 Dec 2022 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

The logic followed here is : Square of (1^st number - 2^nd number) = 3^rd number

Given :

• (16, 7, 81)

​$(16 - 7)^2$ = 81

 = 81

81 = 81 (LHS = RHS)

• (24, 16, 64)

​$(24 - 16)^2$ = 64

$(8)^2$ = 64

64 = 64 (LHS = RHS)

So,

• Option - (1) : (13, 7, 36)

​$(13 - 7)^2$ = 36

$(6)^2$ = 36

36 = 36 (LHS = RHS)

• Option - (2) : (48, 39, 18)

​$(48 - 39)^2$ = 18

$(9)^2$ = 18

81 ≠ 18 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (3) : (37, 25, 100)

​$(37 - 25)^2$ = 100

$(12)^2$ = 100

144 ≠ 100 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (4) : (21, 19, 8)

​$(21 - 19)^2$ = 8

$(2)^2$ = 8

4 ≠ 8 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option - (1)" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is : Consecutive number series is subtracted subsequently.

⇒ 67 - 21 = 46

⇒ 46 - 22 = 24

⇒ 24 - 23 = 1

⇒ 1 - 24 = - 23

⇒ -23 - 25 = -48

Hence, "(-48)" is the correct answer.

Given:

• The image must not to be rotated

Hence, the correct answer is "Option - (3)".

The logic followed here is : 1^st number = (2^nd number - 2) × 4

So,

• 68 : 19

​68 = (19 - 2) × 4

68 = 17 × 4

68 = 68 (LHS = RHS)

​And,

• 76: 21

​76 = (21 - 2) × 4

76 = 19 × 4

76 = 76 (LHS = RHS)

Similarly,

• 164:?

​164 = (? - 2) × 4

164 ÷ 4 = (? - 2)

41 + 2 = ?

43 = ?

Hence, "43" is the correct answer.

Logic :

1. First, second and third letters → Shifted to the seventh, eighth and ninth position respectively.
2. Fourth letter → Shifted to the sixth position.
3. Fifth letter → Shifted to the fourth position.
4. Sixth letter → Shifted to the fifth position.
5. Seventh letter → Shifted to the second position.
6. Eighth letter → Shifted to the third position.
7. Ninth letter  → Shifted to the first position.

​So,

• ‘COMMUNITY’ is written as ‘YITUNMCOM’

​And,

• ‘AUTHORITY’ is written as ‘YITORHAUT’

​Similarly,

• ‘ISOLATION’ is written as :

​

Hence, "NIOATLISO" is the correct answer.

Logic : Sum of the position values according to the English alphabetical series is multiplied by (2).

​So,

• ‘BOTTLE’ is written as ‘148’

​And,

• ‘SIPPER’ is written as ‘166’

​Similarly,

• ‘BUMPER’ is written as :

​

Hence, "150" is the correct answer.

Logic :

1. First four letters → Rearranged diagonally or reverse order.
2. Fifth letter → No change.
3. Last two letters → Interchanged positions.

​So,

• ACCUSED : UCCASDE

​And,

• FACTORY : TCAFOYR

​Similarly,

• DYNAMIC :

​

Hence, "ANYDMCI" is the correct answer.

The figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series is shown below:

1) For lines element :

• Alternately number of lines i.e 4 and 3 are increasing subsequently.
• Lines of a new element '' always starts from the left hand side.

 

​​​Final series is :

Hence, ‘option - (4)’ is the correct answer.

Given :

Given statement : W & Q # T & Y @ M % K

So,

• W & Q → W is the father of Q.

• Q # T → Q is the sister of T.

• T & Y → T is the father of Y.

• Y @ M → Y is the son of M.

​​

• M % K → M is the mother of K.

Thus, according to the final family tree Q is the paternal aunt i.e father's sister of K.

Hence, "Father’s sister" is the correct answer.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

I. Some pencils being balls is a possibility → Follow (As some pencils are rods and all balls are rods. So, as no direct negative or cross relation is given between pencils and balls therefore it is definitely possible)

II. No ball is a door → Follow (As all balls are rods and no rod is a door. So, a direct negative or cross relation is given between door and rod in which whole balls comes in therefore it is definitely true)

III. All rods are balls → Does not follow (As all balls are rods and no rod is a door. So, a direct negative or cross relation is given between door and rod in which whole balls comes in therefore it is definitely false)

IV. No pencil is a door → Does not follow (As some pencils are rods and no rod is a door. So, as no direct negative or cross relation is given between pencils and door therefore it is definitely false)

∴ Here, Only conclusions I and II follow.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Only conclusions I and II follow"

The logic followed here is :

• Rice is primarily composed of carbohydrates.

​So,

• Option - (1) : Eggplant : Vegetable

​Eggplant is a vegetable.

• Option - (2) : Flesh : Chicken

​Flesh is related here to flesh of chicken.​

• Option - (3) : Cottage cheese : Protein

​Cottage cheese is primarily composed of protein.

• Option - (4) : Orange : Fruit

​Orange is a fruit.

Thus, out of all the options only Option - (3) follows the same logic as given.

Hence, "Option - (3)" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is :- 

1. First letter → (6) is added to the position value according to the English alphabetic series.
2. Second letter → (9) is added to the position value according to the English alphabetic series.
3. Third letter → (13) is added to the position value according to the English alphabetic series.

​​So,

​

Hence, the correct answer is "LDR".

The logic followed here is :- 

1. First letter → (3) is added to the position value according to the English alphabetic series.
2. Second letter → (2) is added to the position value according to the English alphabetic series.
3. Third letter → (1) is added to the position value according to the English alphabetic series.

​​So,

​

Hence, the correct answer is "PJO".

The figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series is shown below:

1) For

 element : Rotating 45º in the clockwise direction.

​

Final series is :

Hence, ‘option - (4)’ is the correct answer.

Given :

So,

• Option - (1) : P + Q × R → P is the father of Q who is the brother of R.

Here, P is the father of R.

• Option - (2) : P × Q + R → P is the brother of Q who is the father of R.

Here, P is the paternal uncle of R.

• Option - (3) : P + Q + R → P is the brother of Q who is the brother of R.

Here, P is the brother of R.

• Option - (4) : P - Q × R → P is the sister of Q who is the brother of R.

​​

Here, P is the brother of R.

Thus, out of all the options only option - (1) shows that P is the father of R.

Hence, "Option - (1)" is the correct answer.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

I. Some C are not A → Does not follow (As no A is B and no C is B. So, as no direct negative or cross relation is given between C and A therefore it is definitely false)

II. Some A are B → Does not follow (As no A is B. So, a direct negative or cross relation is given between A and B therefore it is definitely false)

∴ Here, Neither conclusion follows.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Neither conclusion follows"

According to the question, by Interchanging the given two numbers i.e '4 and 6':

So,

• Option - (1) : 4 ÷ 2 + 3 - 6 × 5 = -14

6 ÷ 2 + 3 - 4 × 5 = -14

3 + 3 - 4 × 5 = -14

3 + 3 - 20 = -14

6 - 20 = -14

-14 = -14 (LHS = RHS)

• Option - (2) : 9 ÷ 3 + 6 × 5 - 4 = 18

9 ÷ 3 + 4 × 5 - 6 = 18

3 + 4 × 5 - 6 = 18

3 + 20 - 6 = 18

23 - 6 = 18

17 ≠ 18 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (3) : 4 × 3 + 6 - 2 ÷ 1 = 21

6 × 3 + 4 - 2 ÷ 1 = 21

6 × 3 + 4 - 2 = 21

18 + 4 - 2 = 21

22 - 2 = 21

20 ≠ 21 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (4) : 4 - 6 ÷ 2 + 3 × 5 = 20

6 - 4 ÷ 2 + 3 × 5 = 20

6 - 2 + 3 × 5 = 20

6 + 15 - 2 = 20

21 - 2 = 20

19 ≠ 20 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option - (1)" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is : (1^st number × 2) + 2^nd number = 3^rd number

So,

• Option - (1) : (14 - 28 - 42)

​(14 × 2) + 28 = 42

28 + 28 = 42

52 ≠ 42 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (2) : (16 - 32 - 64)

​(16 × 2) + 32 = 64

32 + 32 = 64

64 = 64 (LHS = RHS)

• Option - (3) : (18 - 36 - 72)

​(18 × 2) + 36 = 72

36 + 36 = 72

72 = 72 (LHS = RHS)

• Option - (4) : (12 - 24 - 48)

(12 × 2) + 24 = 48

24 + 24 = 48

48 = 48 (LHS = RHS)

Hence, "Option - (1)" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is : [1^st number × (1number + 2)] ÷ 3 = 2^nd number 

So,

• 16 : 96

​[16 × (16 +2)] ÷ 3 = 96 

(16 × 18) ÷ 3 = 96

96 = 96  (LHS = RHS)

And,

• 18 : 120​

[​18 × (18 +2)] ÷ 3 = 120 

[​18 × (18 +2)] = 120  × 3

18 × 20 = 360

360 = 360 (LHS = RHS)

Similarly,

• ? : 161​

​Let '?' be 'x'

​x × (x +2) = 161 × 3

x² + 2x = 483

x² + 2x - 483 = 0 

x2 + 23x - 21x - 483 = 0

(x + 23) (x - 21) = 0

x =  either - 23 or 21

 

As, the answer cannot be negative, therefore value of x will be 21.

Hence, "21" is the correct answer.

Given equation : 50 * 10 * 20 * 5 * 105

According to the question, by replacing the * signs:

So,

• Option - (1) : ÷, ×, +, =

50 ÷ 10 × 20 + 5 = 105

5 × 20 + 5 = 105

100 + 5 = 105

105 = 105 (LHS = RHS)

• Option - (2) : ×, -, +, =

50 × 10 - 20 + 5 = 105

500 + 5 - 20 = 105

505 - 20 = 105

485 ≠ 105 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (3) : ÷, ×, -, =

50 ÷ 10 × 20 - 5 = 105

5 × 20 - 5 = 105

100 - 5 = 105

95 ≠ 105 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (4) : ×, ÷, +, =

50 × 10 ÷ 20 + 5 = 105

50 × 0.5 + 5 = 105

25 + 5 = 105

30 ≠ 105 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option - (1)" is the correct answer.

According to the sequence in the dictionary:

5. Overweening
6. Overweight
7. Overwhelming
8. Overwork
9. Overwrought

Hence, the correct option is "Overwhelming".

Mistake Point

• Please note that, in this kind of question we have to replace the digits on the right-hand side too that's why 5 is replaced by 10 in the given solution.

 

Given equation : 28 + 7 × 10 ÷ 5 - 20 = 5

According to the question, after interchanging of numbers and mathematical signs:

So,

• Option - (1) : 10 and 20, × and +

28 × 7 + 20 ÷ 5 - 10 = 5

28 × 7 + 4 - 10 = 5

196 + 4 - 10 = 5

200 - 10 = 5

190 ≠ 5 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (2) : 5 and 20, - and ÷

28 + 7 × 10 - 20 ÷ 5 = 20

28 + 7 × 10 - 4 = 20

28 + 70 - 4 = 20

98 - 4 = 20

94 ≠ 20 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (3) : 7 and 28, × and ÷

7 + 28 ÷ 10 × 5 - 20 = 5

7 + 2.8 × 5 - 20 = 5

7 + 14 - 20 = 5

18 - 20 = 5

-2 ≠ 5 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (4) : 5 and 10, + and ÷

28 ÷ 7 × 5 + 10 - 20 = 10

4 × 5 + 10 - 20 = 10

20 + 10 - 20 = 10

30 - 20 = 10

10 = 10 (LHS = RHS)

Hence, "Option - (4)" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is :- Letters are written in descending order or immediate pervious letter order according to English alphabetic series.

​So,

• PONM

​

• EDCB

​

• SRQP

​

• BYXW

​

Thus, out of all options only 'BYXW' doesn't follows the same logic as others.

Hence, the correct answer is "BYXW".

According to given figure:

The figure will appear when it is opened as follows:

Hence, "Option - (2)" is the correct answer.

Given:

• The image must not to be rotated

Hence, the correct answer is "Option - (3)".

The correct answer is Option 4. 

Key Points

• Asha Bhosle's name was entered into the Guinness Book of World Records for the most studio recordings in 2011.
• She had recorded up to 11,000 solo, duet and chorus-backed songs in over 20 Indian languages during her career as a playback singer.

Additional Information

• Asha Bhosle is a legendary Indian playback singer who has recorded over 12,000 songs in various languages including Hindi, Bengali, Marathi, Telugu, Tamil, and Gujarati.
• She was born on September 8, 1933, in Sangli, Maharashtra, India.
• Bhosle began her career as a playback singer in 1943 and has since become one of the most prominent and versatile singers in Indian cinema.
• She has won numerous awards for her singing, including the National Film Award for Best Female Playback Singer and the Filmfare Lifetime Achievement Award.
• Bhosle is known for her distinctive voice and ability to sing a wide range of genres, from classical Indian music to pop and jazz.
• She has collaborated with many legendary composers and singers in the Indian music industry and has also sung for international films.

The correct answer is Option 3. 

Key Points

• The special provisions with respect to the State of Sikkim are mentioned in Article 371F of the Indian Constitution.
• This article was inserted in the Constitution in 1975, following Sikkim's merger with India as the 22^nd state. Article 371F provides for special provisions with respect to the administration of Sikkim, including the continuation of certain pre-existing laws, customs, and practices of the people of Sikkim.
• It also includes provisions related to the Sikkim Legislative Assembly, the Governor of Sikkim, and the protection of the rights and interests of the Sikkimese people.

​

Additional Information

• Article 371C of the Indian Constitution provides special provisions for the states of Manipur, Mizoram, Nagaland, and Arunachal Pradesh.
• The main objective of this article is to protect the interests and rights of the tribal people living in these states.
• Under Article 371C, the Governor of these states has special responsibility with respect to law and order.
• The Governor is also required to submit an annual report to the President of India on the administration of the tribal areas in these states.
• The article also provides for a Regional Committee for the Hill Areas, which is responsible for advising the Governor on matters related to the development of the tribal areas.
• Additionally, Article 371C allows the Legislative Assembly of these states to make special provisions for the development of any particular tribe or area.
• It also allows for the reservation of seats in the Legislative Assembly and local bodies for tribal people.
• Furthermore, the article empowers the President to modify or repeal any law in force in these states that are inconsistent with the provisions of this article.
• Article 371 is a provision of the Indian Constitution that grants special provisions and autonomy to certain states in India. It was included in the Constitution to recognize the unique cultural and social identities of different regions in India and to ensure their development.
• Article 371 provides for the following:
• Special status to the Northeastern states:
• Special provisions for the state of Jammu and Kashmir:
• Special provisions for the state of Nagaland
• Special provisions for the state of Assam
• Special provisions for the state of Manipur
• Special provisions for the state of Andhra Pradesh
• Special provisions for the state of Sikkim
• Overall, Article 371 aims to ensure the development and protection of the unique cultural and social identities of different regions in India. It recognizes the diversity of the country and grants special provisions and autonomy to certain states to ensure their growth and progress.
• Article 371A is a special provision in the Indian Constitution that provides certain special provisions for the state of Nagaland. It was inserted in the Constitution by the 13^th Amendment Act of 1962, which was enacted to provide for a separate state of Nagaland.
• The provisions of Article 371A aim to protect the unique cultural and social practices of the Nagas and ensure that they are not compromised by the laws and policies of the Indian government.
• Some of the key provisions of Article 371A are:
• Legislative Assembly: Nagaland has a separate Legislative Assembly consisting of 60 members, with some special powers and functions.
• Land and Resources: The ownership and transfer of land and its resources are regulated by customary law and practices, rather than by the Indian government's laws.
• Governance: The Governor of Nagaland has special powers to protect the rights of the Nagas and safeguard their traditions and customs.
• Religious and Social Practices: The Nagas have the freedom to practice their religion and culture, and the Indian government cannot interfere in their religious and social practices.
• Reservation in Jobs and Education: The Nagas have special provisions for reservation in government jobs and educational institutions.
• Law and Order: The Indian government cannot interfere in the law and order situation in Nagaland, which is under the control of the Naga people.

In summary, Article 371A provides certain special provisions for the state of Nagaland to protect and preserve its unique culture, traditions, and social practices.

The correct answer is Option 2. 

Key Points

• Sangam literature is a collection of Tamil literature that was composed between 300 BCE to 300 CE.
• The word 'Sangam' means 'assembly' in Tamil and refers to the literary assemblies or gatherings that were held during this period.
• The Sangam literature is divided into two categories:
• Ettuthogai - Eight Anthologies
• Pattupattu - Ten Idylls​

Additional Information

• The Ettuthogai consists of eight anthologies of poetry, which include love poems, moral poems, war poems, and other topics.
• The Pattupattu, on the other hand, are ten long poems that describe the life and times of the people of Tamil Nadu during the Sangam era.
• The Sangam literature is considered to be one of the richest and oldest traditions of Indian literature.
• It provides an insight into the culture, social life, and history of the Tamil people during the Sangam period.
• The literature reflects the way of life, the beliefs, and the customs of the people of ancient Tamil Nadu.
• The Sangam literature also highlights the importance given to education and learning during the period.

The correct answer is Option 2. 

Key Points

• The Alps mountain range is classified as a young fold mountain range.
• The formation of the Alps began about 65 million years ago during the Paleogene period and continued into the Neogene period, which ended about 2.6 million years ago.
• The range was formed by the collision of the African and Eurasian tectonic plates, which caused the Earth's crust to buckle and fold, forming the Alps.
• The ongoing collision between these two plates is still causing the Alps to rise by about 1-2 millimeters per year.

​

Additional Information

• The Appalachian Mountains are a mountain range that stretches from Canada to Alabama in the United States.
• They are part of the Appalachian Mountain system, which includes a series of smaller ranges and valleys.
• The mountains were formed over 480 million years ago during the Ordovician period, and they have been eroded and reshaped by various geological processes over time.
• The Aravalli Mountain Range is a range of mountains located in western India, stretching approximately 800 km from northeast to southwest across the Indian states of Rajasthan, Haryana, and Gujarat.
• The range starts from Delhi and passes through southern Haryana, through Rajasthan and ends in Gujarat.
• The highest peak of the range is Guru Shikhar, located in Mount Abu, Rajasthan, with an elevation of 1,722 meters above sea level.
• The Aravalli Range is one of the oldest mountain ranges in the world, estimated to be around 350 million years old.
• The range is known for its rich biodiversity and is home to a number of wildlife species, including leopards, hyenas, jackals, and various species of birds and reptiles.
• ​The Ural Mountains, also known as the Urals, are a mountain range located in western Russia, running north-south from the Arctic Ocean to the Ural River and northwestern Kazakhstan.
• The range forms the natural boundary between Europe and Asia, and its highest peak is Mount Narodnaya, which rises to an elevation of 1,894 meters (6,214 feet).
• The Ural Mountains are rich in minerals, including iron ore, copper, nickel, and coal, and have been an important mining region since the 18^th century.
• The region is also home to many indigenous peoples, including the Mansi, Khanty, and Nenets, who have a rich culture and traditional way of life that has been threatened by industrialization and resource extraction.

The correct answer is Option 4. 

Key Points

• Glass can be considered a fomite.
• A fomite is an inanimate object or surface that can transmit infectious agents such as bacteria, viruses, or fungi from one person to another.
• Glass, like other surfaces such as doorknobs, countertops, and keyboards, can potentially harbor these pathogens and serve as a mode of transmission if not properly cleaned and disinfected.
• It is important to regularly clean and disinfect frequently touched surfaces to help reduce the spread of infectious diseases.

Additional Information

• Drinking water is essential for maintaining good health.
• Water is necessary for proper hydration, as it helps regulate body temperature, lubricates joints, aids digestion, and supports other vital bodily functions.
• The recommended daily intake of water varies depending on factors such as age, gender, activity level, and climate, but a general guideline is to drink at least 8 cups (64 ounces) of water per day.
• ​Blood is composed of various components, including red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets, and plasma.
• Red blood cells, also known as erythrocytes, are responsible for carrying oxygen from the lungs to the tissues.
• White blood cells, or leukocytes, help the body fight off infections and foreign invaders.
• Platelets, or thrombocytes, help the blood clot to prevent excessive bleeding.
• Plasma is the liquid portion of the blood that contains water, proteins, hormones, and other substances.
• ​Saliva is a clear, watery fluid that is produced by the salivary glands in the mouth.
• It plays an important role in digestion and oral health.
• Saliva contains enzymes that begin the process of breaking down food in the mouth, making it easier to swallow and digest.
• It also contains antibacterial agents that help to protect the teeth and gums from infection and disease.
• Saliva is continuously produced in the mouth and is stimulated by various factors, such as the smell or taste of food, the act of chewing, and even just thinking about food.
• The amount of saliva produced can vary depending on factors such as age, hydration level, and medications.
• Disorders of the salivary glands, such as salivary gland infections, can cause pain, swelling, and difficulty producing saliva. Reduced saliva production, or dry mouth, can be caused by a variety of factors, including medications, dehydration, and certain medical conditions.
• Dry mouth can cause discomfort and increase the risk of oral health problems such as tooth decay and gum disease.

The correct answer is Option 4. 

Key Points

• Kullu Dussehra is a colourful festival that is majorly celebrated in the state of Himachal Pradesh, India.
• The festival is celebrated in the Kullu Valley, which lies in the northern part of Himachal Pradesh.
• It usually takes place in the month of October and is a 7-day long celebration that culminates on the day of Vijayadashami, which marks the victory of good over evil.
• The festival is known for its vibrant processions, cultural performances, and the presence of deities from various temples in the region.

Additional Information

• Delhi, being the capital city of India, celebrates a variety of festivals throughout the year.
• Some of the famous festivals celebrated in Delhi are:
• Diwali - It is the festival of lights and is celebrated with great enthusiasm and zeal in India. People decorate their homes with diyas and candles, and burst firecrackers to celebrate the occasion.
• Holi - This colorful festival is celebrated with great joy and fervor in Delhi. People play with colors and water, and also relish traditional sweets like gujiya and thandai.
• Durga Puja - This is a major festival for the Bengali community in Delhi. Elaborate pandals are set up across the city, and people come together to worship Goddess Durga and enjoy cultural programs and food.
• Eid al-Fitr - This is an important festival for the Muslim community in Delhi. It marks the end of the holy month of Ramadan, and people celebrate by offering prayers, exchanging gifts, and feasting with family and friends.
• Christmas - Although not a traditional Indian festival, Christmas is widely celebrated in Delhi, especially in areas with a large Christian population. The city is decorated with lights and Christmas trees, and people attend midnight masses and enjoy festive food and drinks.
• One of the most famous festivals of Telangana is Bonalu.
• It is celebrated mainly in Hyderabad, Secunderabad, and other parts of the state during the month of Ashada (July-August) to honor the goddess Mahankali.
• During Bonalu, devotees offer special prayers and offerings to the goddess, which includes rice cooked in a brass or earthen pot, decorated with turmeric and vermilion.
• Women carry the pots on their heads and take them to the temple, accompanied by drummers and dancers.
• The festival is celebrated with great enthusiasm and is an important part of the cultural heritage of Telangana.
• Uttar Pradesh is a state in northern India, which is known for its rich cultural heritage and diverse festivals.
• Here are some of the famous festivals celebrated in Uttar Pradesh:
• Kumbh Mela: Kumbh Mela is one of the largest religious gatherings in the world, which takes place every 12 years in Allahabad, Haridwar, Nashik, and Ujjain. It is a Hindu pilgrimage festival where millions of people take a dip in the holy river to wash off their sins.
• Holi: Holi is a popular festival celebrated in Uttar Pradesh and other parts of India. It is also known as the festival of colors and signifies the victory of good over evil. People celebrate this festival by throwing colored powder, dancing, and feasting.
• Diwali: Diwali is a festival of lights celebrated all over India, including Uttar Pradesh. It marks the victory of light over darkness and is celebrated by lighting diyas (earthen lamps), bursting fireworks, and exchanging sweets.
• Eid-ul-Fitr: Eid-ul-Fitr is a Muslim festival celebrated after the holy month of Ramadan. People celebrate this festival by praying, visiting relatives and friends, and exchanging gifts.
• Ram Navami: Ram Navami is a Hindu festival celebrated to mark the birth of Lord Rama, one of the most revered deities in Hinduism. People celebrate this festival by fasting, praying, and organizing processions.These are just a few of the many festivals celebrated in Uttar Pradesh. The state has a rich cultural heritage, and its festivals reflect the diversity and unity of its people.

The correct answer is Option 2. 

Key Points

• Peat coal is a type of coal that is formed from partially decomposed vegetation.
• It has a high moisture content and low carbon content compared to other types of coal.
• Typically, peat coal contains around 60-70% water and has a carbon content ranging from 40-60%.
• However, the exact carbon and moisture content can vary depending on the specific source and conditions of formation.

Additional Information

• Coal is a combustible black or brownish-black sedimentary rock that is primarily composed of carbon, along with various other elements such as hydrogen, sulfur, oxygen, and nitrogen.
• It is formed over millions of years from the remains of dead plants that have been subjected to high pressure and heat.
• Coal is a fossil fuel, and it is primarily used for energy production.
• It is burned to produce heat, which is then used to generate electricity or power industrial processes.
• Coal is also used in the production of steel, cement, and other industrial materials.
• While coal has been a significant source of energy for centuries, it has also been a major contributor to air pollution and greenhouse gas emissions.
• As a result, many countries are shifting towards cleaner forms of energy, such as renewable energy sources like wind and solar power, to reduce their dependence on coal and mitigate climate change.

The correct answer is Option 2. 

Key Points

• After the Chauri Chaura incident, Mahatma Gandhi called off the Non-Cooperation Movement.
• Chauri Chaura was a town in the state of Uttar Pradesh, India, where on February 4, 1922, a group of protesters participating in the Non-Cooperation Movement clashed with police, resulting in the death of three policemen. In retaliation, the protesters set fire to a police station, killing 22 policemen who were inside.
• Gandhi, who had been leading the Non-Cooperation Movement, was deeply disturbed by the violent turn of events and called off the movement, as he believed that it had lost its nonviolent character.

Additional Information

• The Jallianwala Bagh massacre, also known as the Amritsar massacre, took place on April 13, 1919, in the city of Amritsar, Punjab, India. It was a turning point in India's struggle for independence from British colonial rule.
• On that day, a large crowd had gathered at the Jallianwala Bagh, a public garden, to peacefully protest against the arrest and deportation of two popular leaders**, Satya Pal and Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew.**
• The crowd included men, women, and children who were unaware that the British had imposed a ban on public gatherings.
• The British colonial administration, led by General Reginald Dyer, responded with brutal force.
• Dyer ordered his troops to open fire on the unarmed crowd without any warning, and they continued to fire until their ammunition was exhausted. The massacre left over 1,000 people dead and more than 1,500 injured.
• The incident sparked outrage across India and led to widespread protests against British rule. It also marked a turning point in Mahatma Gandhi's nonviolent resistance movement, as he called for a nationwide non-cooperation movement against the British.
• The Jallianwala Bagh massacre remains a painful chapter in India's history and is widely condemned as a brutal act of violence against innocent civilians.
• The Bengal Partition refers to the division of the Indian province of Bengal in 1905, by the British colonial government, into two separate administrative entities: Bengal Presidency (with Hindu majority) and East Bengal and Assam (with Muslim majority).
• The partition of Bengal was seen as a divide and rule policy of the British, aimed at weakening the Indian independence movement by creating religious and linguistic divisions.
• The move was widely opposed by the Indian nationalist movement and sparked protests and boycotts across the country.
• In 1911, the Bengal province was reunified due to political pressure, but the Muslim-majority eastern region was made into a separate province of Eastern Bengal and Assam. In 1947, when India gained independence from Britain, the province of Bengal was divided once again along religious lines into East Pakistan (which later became Bangladesh) and West Bengal (which became part of India).
• The Round Table Conferences were a series of three meetings held in London, England between 1930 and 1932. The conferences were convened to discuss the future of India and its constitutional reforms, as well as to address the issues of communal representation and the rights of minorities.
• The British government, which ruled India at the time, hoped that the Round Table Conferences would provide a forum for Indian leaders to express their views on constitutional reform and for the British government to gain a better understanding of Indian political aspirations.
• The first conference was held in November 1930, with 73 delegates from British India and 7 delegates from the princely states attending. The second conference was held in September 1931, with 58 delegates from British India and 16 delegates from the princely states attending. The third conference was held in November 1932, with only 46 delegates from British India attending.
• The conferences were largely unsuccessful in achieving their objectives, as the Indian National Congress, the main political party representing Indian interests, boycotted the first and third conferences due to the British government's refusal to grant India full independence. However, the Round Table Conferences did lay the foundation for the eventual Indian independence movement, and many of the issues discussed at the conferences were later addressed in the Government of India Act of 1935.

The correct answer is Option 1. 

Key Points

• The Karnataka government launching a scheme called 'Kashi Yatra' that provides cash assistance for pilgrims to the Kashi Vishwanath Temple in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh.
• The Kashi Yatra project, which offers a cash assistance of Rs. 5,000 to each of the 30,000 pilgrims willing to conduct a pilgrimage to the Kashi Vishwanath Temple in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh.
• The Kashi Yatra scheme was only recently proposed by the government in the 2022–23 budget, and it was quickly authorized by the Karnataka government in late June.

Additional Information

• Karnataka is a state located in the southwestern region of India.
• It is bordered by the states of Maharashtra to the north, Goa to the northwest, Andhra Pradesh to the east, Tamil Nadu to the southeast, and Kerala to the southwest.
• The Arabian Sea also borders the state to the west.
• The capital city of Karnataka is Bengaluru, which is located in the southeastern part of the state.

The correct answer is Option 4. 

Key Points

• The national highway network that connects Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, and Kolkata is commonly referred to as the Golden Quadrilateral.
• It is a system of highways that spans a total length of 5,846 kilometers (3,633 miles) and connects the four major metropolitan cities in India.
• The Golden Quadrilateral was completed in 2012 and is considered a significant infrastructure achievement for India, as it has improved transportation and connectivity across the country.

Additional Information

• The Diamond Quadrilateral railway project is to develop high speed rail network across several metros of India.
• This quadrilateral railway network connects major metro cities in India, i.e. Delhi, Chennai, Mumbai, Ahmedabad, Kolkata Hyderabad and Chennai.
• This project is similar to Golden Quadrilateral which is roadway project of India which connects four metros by express ways, the project falls under National Highways Development Project which has supported for better road transport in India.
• In the same way to improve India’s rail infrastructure there is a need to implement High speed trains/ Bullet trains.
• On 9^th June 2014, The President of India Shree Pranab Mukherjee officially announced that the government project led by Prime Minister Sri Narendra Modi will launch a diamond quadrilateral project and fulfill the demand of high speed trains.

The correct answer is Option 4. 

Key Points

• Synecology, also known as community ecology, is a subfield of ecology that focuses on the study of the interactions between different species within a biological community, and how these interactions influence the structure and function of the community as a whole.
• Synecology is concerned with understanding the patterns and processes of species interactions, such as predation, competition, mutualism, and parasitism, as well as the ways in which these interactions shape the distribution and abundance of species within the community.
• Synecology also examines how biotic factors, such as species interactions, are influenced by abiotic factors such as climate, topography, and soil characteristics.
• Ultimately, the goal of synecology is to understand the complex web of interactions between species in a community, and how these interactions contribute to the overall functioning of the ecosystem.

Additional Information

• ​The branch of science that deals with the interrelationship of individual species with its environment is ecology.
• Ecology is the study of how organisms interact with each other and with their physical and biological environment.
• It encompasses a wide range of topics, including the distribution and abundance of species, their interactions with each other and with their environment, and the flow of energy and nutrients through ecosystems.
• The branch of science that deals with the interrelationship of two species is called interspecific interactions or simply species interactions.
• This field of study focuses on the relationships and interactions between different species, such as predator-prey interactions, competition for resources, mutualistic relationships, and parasitic relationships.
• The branch of science that deals with the interrelationship of a whole biome is biogeography. Biogeography is the study of the distribution, diversity, and evolutionary history of living organisms across different spatial and temporal scales.
• It seeks to understand the patterns and processes that have shaped the composition and distribution of different biotic communities, including the interactions between different species and the abiotic factors that influence their distribution.

The correct answer is Option 3. 

Key Points

• Thaipoosam is a Hindu festival celebrated mainly by the Tamil community in the Indian state of Tamil Nadu and the Union Territory of Puducherry.
• It is also celebrated by Tamil communities in other parts of India and around the world, such as in Malaysia, Singapore, Sri Lanka, and Mauritius.
• The festival is typically observed in the Tamil month of Thai (January/February) on the day of the full moon, and is dedicated to Lord Murugan, the Hindu god of war and victory.

​

Additional Information

• Bihar, a state in eastern India, is known for its diverse cultural heritage and a number of festivals are celebrated here throughout the year.
• One of the most famous festivals of Bihar is Chhath Puja, which is dedicated to the worship of the Sun God and Chhathi Maiya.
• It is usually celebrated in the month of October or November and is a four-day long festival, where devotees offer prayers and perform rituals to seek blessings for the well-being of their families and loved ones.
• Andhra Pradesh, a state in southern India, is known for its rich cultural heritage and diverse traditions.
• One of the most famous festivals celebrated in Andhra Pradesh is the Sankranti festival, which marks the end of the winter solstice and the beginning of the harvest season.
• Sankranti is celebrated with great enthusiasm and is a four-day long festival, during which people decorate their houses, prepare special dishes, and fly kites.
• Goa, a state on the western coast of India, is known for its beautiful beaches, vibrant nightlife, and unique blend of Indian and Portuguese cultures.
• One of the most famous festivals celebrated in Goa is the Carnival, which is a four-day long celebration that usually takes place in February.
• The festival is a colorful and lively event, with parades, music, dance, and street performances.

The correct answer is Option 4. 

Key Points

• The Kuchipudi dance form originated in the state of Andhra Pradesh in India.
• It takes its name from the village of Kuchipudi, which is located in the Krishna district of Andhra Pradesh.
• Kuchipudi is one of the ten major Indian classical dance forms and is known for its graceful movements, intricate footwork, and expressive gestures.
• The dance form has a rich history that dates back to the 17^th century, and it continues to be popular both in India and around the world.

Additional Information

• There are eight major classical dances recognized in India, known as "Natya Shastra". They are:
• Bharatanatyam - Originated in Tamil Nadu, it is characterized by intricate footwork, facial expressions, and hand gestures.
• Kathak - Originated in Northern India, it is known for its fast footwork and spins.
• Kathakali - Originated in Kerala, it is known for its elaborate makeup, costumes, and facial expressions.
• Kuchipudi - Originated in Andhra Pradesh, it is characterized by graceful movements and storytelling.
• Manipuri - Originated in Manipur, it is known for its soft and gentle movements, and graceful hand gestures.
• Mohiniyattam - Originated in Kerala, it is characterized by flowing movements and subtle facial expressions.
• Odissi - Originated in Odisha, it is known for its fluid movements and expressions.
• Sattriya - Originated in Assam, it is characterized by its use of religious themes and traditional music.
• These classical dances have been passed down from generation to generation and continue to be performed today as a part of India's rich cultural heritage.

The correct answer is Option 1. 

Key Points

• The SI unit of speed is meters per second (m/s).
• It is defined as the distance traveled per unit of time, with distance measured in meters and time measured in seconds.
• Other commonly used units of speed include kilometers per hour (km/h), miles per hour (mph), and feet per second (ft/s), but the SI unit is meters per second.

The correct answer is Option 3. 

Key Points

• Women in Engineering, Science, and Technology (WEST), a new I-STEM (Indian Science Technology and Engineering facilities Map) initiative called “Women in Engineering, Science, and Technology (WEST)” was launched by Dr. Parvinder Maini, Scientific Secretary, Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser (PSA) to the Government of India on 5^th September 2022.
• The WEST programme will cater to women with a STEM background and empower them to contribute to the science, technology, and innovation ecosystem.
• I-STEM is a national web portal for sharing research **equipment/facilities and is the umbrella under which many programmes for promoting collaborations in R&D and technological innovation among and between academia and industry, especially startups, are underway.**​

Additional Information

• Through the WEST initiative, I-STEM shall provide a separate platform to scientifically inclined women researchers, scientists, and technologists for pursuing research in basic or applied sciences in frontier areas of science and engineering.
• Women may join the WEST program and explore opportunities to become stakeholders in various domains and pursue careers in R&D at various levels: technicians, technologists, scientists, and entrepreneurs. Opportunities range from operating scientific equipment and maintaining them, to designing and manufacturing them.
• The Skill Development programmes under the WEST initiative will provide training for women with S&T backgrounds to brush up on their abilities and become engaged “in the field” as lab technicians and maintenance engineers, filling crucial gaps in the R&D infrastructure of the country.
• This initiative will also help bring women back into S&T domains after a career break.

The correct answer is Option 4. 

Key Points

• The first English factory in Bengal was set up on the banks of the river "Hugli" in 1651.
• The factory was established by the East India Company and was located in the village of Hooghly, which was then a part of the Bengal Subah of the Mughal Empire.
• The factory was initially used as a trading post for the Company's goods, particularly textiles and spices.
• Over time, the English established more factories in the region, including in Calcutta (now Kolkata), which became the Company's headquarters in Bengal.
• The establishment of these factories was a crucial step in the East India Company's expansion in India and its eventual domination of the Indian subcontinent.

Additional Information

• The East India Company was a British joint-stock company that was formed in 1600 for the purpose of trading with India and Southeast Asia.
• The Company had a monopoly on English trade with these regions and was granted extensive privileges and powers by the British Crown, including the right to establish its own army and navy, negotiate treaties with local rulers, and administer justice in its own territories.
• Over time, the Company became increasingly involved in Indian politics and began to exert its influence over local rulers and territories.
• The Company's domination of Indian trade and its political power eventually led to the colonization of India by the British Empire.
• The Company's rule in India came to an end in 1858, when the British Crown assumed direct control over India following the Indian Rebellion of 1857.

The correct answer is Option 1. 

Key Points

• In 2019, Prime Minister Narendra Modi participated in the celebration of International Day of Yoga on June 21 in Ranchi, Jharkhand.
• Hon'ble Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi inaugurated the first International Day of Yoga on June 21^st, 2015, on the theme 'Yoga for Harmony and Peace.

​

Additional Information

• This year's International Day of Yoga (IDY) endeavours to connect with the larger global community, as India's G20 presidency theme “One World, One Health Resonates with the principle of “Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam”.
• Patanjali is known as the father of modern yoga. In some parts of India, Tirumalai Krishnamacharya is also considered as the father of modern yoga.
• The brown leaves symbolise the Earth element, the green leaves symbolise the Nature, blue symbolises the Water element, brightness symbolises the Fire element and the Sun symbolise the source of energy and inspiration.
• The logo reflects harmony and peace for humanity, which is the essence of Yoga.

The correct answer is Option 1. 

Key Points

• According to the laws of the International Tennis Federation (ITF), 2021, the standard length of a tennis court is 23.77 meters or 78 feet.
• This measurement includes both the singles and doubles sidelines, which are 1.37 meters or 4.5 feet away from the inner edge of the baseline.
• The width of the court is 8.23 meters or 27 feet for singles matches, and 10.97 meters or 36 feet for doubles matches.

Additional Information

• The International Tennis Federation (ITF) is the governing body of world tennis, responsible for organizing and regulating international tennis tournaments and events, developing the sport globally, and setting and enforcing the rules of tennis.
• It was founded in 1913 and is based in London, England.
• The ITF is comprised of 210 member associations, including national tennis federations and regional associations, and it is recognized by the International Olympic Committee (IOC) as the sole authority for tennis.
• The ITF works closely with other organizations such as the Grand Slam tournaments, the ATP (Association of Tennis Professionals), and the WTA (Women's Tennis Association) to promote and develop the sport of tennis worldwide.

The correct answer is Option 2. 

Key Points

• Article 20 of the Constitution of India deals with the protection of certain rights in case of conviction for offenses.
• It provides safeguards for persons who have been accused of committing a crime and are facing trial or have been convicted.
• The article consists of three clauses, which are:
• Protection against ex-post facto laws: This clause prohibits the government from passing any law that punishes a person for an act that was not an offense when it was committed.
• In other words, a person cannot be punished for an act that was legal at the time it was committed but later became an offense.
• Protection against double jeopardy: This clause states that no person can be prosecuted or punished for the same offense more than once.
• Protection against self-incrimination: This clause provides that no person accused of an offense shall be compelled to be a witness against himself/herself.
• These three clauses are fundamental protections for the rights of the accused, and they are intended to ensure that individuals are not subjected to unjust or arbitrary treatment by the state.

Additional Information

• The protection of life and personal liberty is guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution of India.
• This article states that "No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law."
• The Supreme Court of India has interpreted this article in a broad and expansive manner to include within its ambit a wide range of rights and freedoms, such as the right to privacy, the right to live with dignity, and the right to a fair trial.
• The protection of life and personal liberty is considered to be one of the most fundamental and important rights guaranteed by the Constitution, and it is an essential component of a democratic and just society.
• The abolition of untouchability is guaranteed under Article 17 of the Constitution of India.
• This article states that "Untouchability is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden. The enforcement of any disability arising out of Untouchability shall be an offense punishable in accordance with the law."
• The practice of untouchability, which involves the exclusion and segregation of individuals based on their caste, is considered to be a social evil and a violation of human rights.
• The Constitution of India recognizes the importance of abolishing untouchability and ensures that any form of discrimination or prejudice based on caste is prohibited and punishable by law.
• The right to education is guaranteed under Article 21A of the Constitution of India, which was inserted by the 86^th Amendment Act in 2002.
• This article states that "The State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may, by law, determine."
• The right to education is considered to be a fundamental right and an essential component of a democratic and just society.
• The Constitution of India recognizes the importance of providing access to education for all children, and it places the responsibility on the State to ensure that every child between the ages of six and fourteen has access to free and compulsory education.

The correct answer is Option 3. 

Key Points

• The father of the modern ecology is considered to be Eugene Odum, an American ecologist who is widely regarded as one of the pioneering figures in the development of modern ecology.
• Odum is known for his groundbreaking work on ecosystem ecology, which focuses on the relationships between living organisms and their physical environment.
• He also developed the concept of "ecosystem," which is a functional unit of living organisms and their physical environment.
• Odum's work has had a significant impact on the field of ecology, and he is credited with helping to establish ecology as a distinct scientific discipline.

Additional Information

• Robert Brown was a Scottish botanist and biologist who made significant contributions to various fields of science.
• He is best known for his discovery of Brownian motion, which refers to the random movement of microscopic particles suspended in a fluid or gas.
• Charles Darwin was an English naturalist and biologist who is best known for his contributions to the theory of evolution.
• He is famous for his book "On the Origin of Species," published in 1859, in which he proposed that all species of life have evolved over time from a common ancestor through a process of natural selection.
• This theory revolutionized the field of biology and had a profound impact on scientific thinking and society as a whole.
• Robert Hooke was an English scientist who lived from 1635 to 1703.
• He was a polymath, making significant contributions to a wide range of scientific fields, including physics, chemistry, biology, and astronomy.
• Hooke is best known for his work in microscopy, which allowed him to observe and describe a wide range of microscopic structures and organisms.

The correct answer is Option 4. 

Key Points

• Tamil Nadu, Puducherry, and Karaikal region of the Union Territory of Puducherry are the Indian states that receive rainfall during October and November due to the North-East monsoon.
• The North-East monsoon, also known as the retreating monsoon, brings rain to these regions after the Southwest monsoon season ends.
• The North-East monsoon is an important source of rainfall for these regions, and it is critical for agriculture and other economic activities in the area.

Additional Information

• The monsoon in India is a seasonal wind system that brings heavy rainfall to the Indian subcontinent during the summer months of June to September.
• The monsoon is a result of the differential heating of land and water, which causes a low-pressure area to form over the Indian subcontinent, attracting moist air from the Indian Ocean.
• The monsoon is a critical source of water for agriculture, as well as for other economic and social activities in India.
• The monsoon season in India is divided into two parts: the Southwest monsoon and the North-East monsoon.
• The Southwest monsoon brings rain to most parts of the country, while the North-East monsoon brings rain to parts of southern India, including Tamil Nadu, Puducherry, and the Karaikal region of the Union Territory of Puducherry.
• The monsoon is a complex and dynamic system, and it can have a significant impact on the economy and society of India, both positively and negatively.

The correct answer is Option 2. 

Key Points

• The Ex-officio Chairman of NITI Aayog is the Prime Minister of India.
• As per the NITI Aayog Act of 2014, the Prime Minister is the Chairperson of NITI Aayog, and the governing council of the organization includes chief ministers of all states and union territories, as well as members appointed by the central government.
• The Vice Chairman of NITI Aayog is appointed by the central government and is responsible for overseeing the day-to-day operations of the organization.

Additional Information

• Droupadi Murmu is the 15^th and current president, having taken office from 25 July 2022.
• The current Finance Minister of India is Nirmala Sitharaman.

The correct answer is Option 4. 

Key Points

• Disinvestment by the government in a company can be either a capital receipt or a revenue receipt, depending on the nature of the transaction.
• If the government sells its equity shares in a company to the public or to another entity, the proceeds from the sale are considered a capital receipt.
• This is because the government is selling a capital asset (i.e., its ownership stake in the company) and receiving cash in return.
• However, if the government sells its goods or services to a company, such as land or buildings, the proceeds from the sale would be considered a revenue receipt.
• This is because the government is receiving cash for the sale of goods or services, which is a normal business transaction and not the sale of a capital asset.
• In summary, the classification of disinvestment receipts as capital or revenue depends on the nature of the transaction and the asset being sold.

​

Additional Information

• In accounting and finance, capital expenditures refer to investments made by a company or government that are expected to provide long-term benefits, such as the acquisition of fixed assets like land, buildings, equipment, and machinery.
• These assets are expected to generate revenue or other economic benefits over a long period of time.
• On the other hand, the wage bill of the government is typically considered an operating expenditure because it represents the cost of the government's day-to-day operations.
• This includes the salaries and wages paid to government employees, which are necessary to keep the government functioning and to provide public services.
• While there may be instances where the government's wage bill is considered a capital expenditure, such as when it is tied to a specific capital project, such as the construction of a new building or infrastructure project, in general, it is considered an operating expenditure rather than a capital expenditure.

The correct answer is Option 2. 

Key Points

• Senior Indian Police Service (IPS) officer Sujoy Lal Thaosen on Monday took charge as 37^th Director General of Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), the largest Central armed police force mandated to provide internal security in the country.
• Sujoy Lal Thaosen had served twice in the SPG and was taking care of the security of PM Manmohan Singh and former Prime Ministers of India.
• Thaosen also served the United Nations as part of the international Police Task Force (IPTF).
• He was deployed in Bosnia and Herzegovina from 1999 to 2000.

​

Additional Information

• Rajendra Kumar is an Indian bureaucrat who currently serves as the Additional Secretary in the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, Government of India.
• He is a 1992 batch Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officer from the Tamil Nadu cadre.
• General Anil Chauhan PVSM UYSM AVSM SM VSM (born 18 May 1961) is a four-star general of the Indian Army.
• Vijay Jasuja is an Indian banker and former Managing Director (MD) and Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of SBI Card, a subsidiary of the State Bank of India (SBI) which deals with credit cards.
• Jasuja has over three decades of experience in the banking and financial services industry. He started his career with SBI in 1983 and worked in various roles before becoming the MD and CEO of SBI Card in 2014.
• During his tenure, he led the company's growth and expansion, making it one of the largest credit card issuers in India.
• Jasuja retired from SBI Card in 2018 after completing his term as MD and CEO.

The correct answer is Option 4. 

Key Points

• The Kadamba Mayurasharman was Brahmana who gave up traditional profession and took to arm, successfully establishing kingdom in Karnataka.
• The Kadamba Mayurasharman and the Gurjara-Pratihara Harichandra were Brahmanas who gave up their traditional professions and took to arms, successfully establishing kingdoms in Karnataka and Rajasthan respectively.
• In the mid-eighth century, Dantidurga, a Rashtrakuta chief, overthrew his Chalukya overlord and performed a ritual called hiranya-garbha (literally, the golden womb).
• When this ritual was performed with the help of Brahmanas, it was thought to lead to the “rebirth” of the sacrificer as a Kshatriya, even if he was not one by birth.

Additional Information

• Vasudeva Kanva was an ancient Indian sage who is best known for being the author of the Kanva Shukla Yajurveda, one of the four Vedas, which are considered the most sacred texts of Hinduism.
• Pushyamitra Shunga was an ancient Indian king who ruled the Shunga dynasty from around 185 BCE to 149 BCE.
• He is best known for overthrowing the Mauryan Empire and establishing the Shunga dynasty in its place.
• According to ancient texts, Pushyamitra Shunga was the commander-in-chief of the Mauryan army under the last Mauryan emperor, Brihadratha.
• He is said to have assassinated Brihadratha and declared himself the king, thus ending the Mauryan Empire.
• Pushyamitra Sunga overthrew the Mauryas either in 187 BC or 184 BC. After him there were nine other rulers. Among them, Agnimitra, Vasumitra, Bhagvata and Devabhumi were the prominent ones.

Given:

ΔABC ~ ΔDEF and the perimeters of these triangles are 32 cm and 12 cm.

DE = 6 cm

Concept used:

1. If two triangles are similar, then their corresponding angles are congruent and corresponding sides are in equal proportion 2. The perimeter of a triangle is the sum of all its sides.

Calculation:

​According to the question,

(AB + BC + AC) = 32      ....(1)

(DE + EF + DF) = 12      ....(2)

Since ΔABC ~ ΔDEF,

$\frac {AB}{DE} = \frac {BC}{EF} = \frac {AC}{DF} = K(let)$

From 1,

(AB + BC + AC) = 32

⇒ K(DE + EF + DF) = 32

⇒ K × 12 = 32

⇒ K = 32/12

⇒ K = 8/3

Now, AB

⇒ 8/3 × DE

⇒ 8/3 × 6 = 16 cm

∴ The length of AB is 16 cm.

Calculation:

Now, if 75% of the T type cars produced each year were sold by the company, the number of T type cars remain unsold

⇒ 350000 × (90 - 75)% × (100 - 75)% + 440000 × (95 - 85)% × (100 - 75)%

⇒ 24125

∴ If 75% of the T type cars produced each year were sold by the company, 24125 T type cars remain unsold.

Calculation:

Now, the ratio of the number of working days in year R to the number of working days in year T

⇒ 160 : 210 = 16 : 21

∴ The ratio of the number of working days in year R to the number of working days in year T is 16 : 21.

Given:

The monthly income of Mr. Roy is Rs. 18,000.

He took a loan of Rs. 30,000 on simple interest for 3 years at the rate of 5% per annum. 

Concept used:

Simple Interest, SI = (P × R × T)/100

Amount = P + SI

where

P = Principal amount

R = Rate of interest per year

T = Time in years

Calculation:

So, the simple interest incurred on Rs. 30,000 at 5% p.a for 3 years

⇒ (30000 × 5 × 3)/100

⇒ Rs. 4500

Now, the required% = $\frac {4500}{18000} \times 100\%$ = 25%

∴ The amount that he will be paying as simple interest in 3 years is 25% of his monthly salary.

Given:

m12 - 1

Concept used:

(A²ⁿ - B²ⁿ) is always divisible by (A + B)

Calculation:

m12 - 1

⇒ m^{(2 × 6)} - 1^{(2 × 6)}

​According to the concept,

m(2 × 6) - 1(2 × 6) is divisible by (m + 1)

So, when m12 - 1 is divided by m + 1, the remainder is 0.

∴ When m12 - 1 is divided by m + 1, the remainder is 0

Calculation:

Now, the required %

⇒ $\frac {45}{20} \times 100\%$

⇒ 225%

∴ The number of salesmen in J is 225% of the number of salesmen in K.

⇒ 8% of 3900 = 312

⇒ 16% of 3900 = 624

As per question,

⇒ 26 unit → 3900

⇒ 1 unit → 3900/26

⇒ Difference between the original price of the table and chair = 12 unit

⇒ Difference = (3900/26) × 12 = 150 × 12 = 1800

∴ The difference between the original price of the table and the chair is Rs. 1800.

Given:

Ramesh purchases a table and a chair for Rs. 3,900.

He sells the table at a profit of 8% and the chair at a profit of 16%.

He earns a profit of Rs. 540. 

Concept used:

Profit = Cost Price × Profit%

Calculation:

Let the original price of the chair be Rs. Q.

Original price of the table = Rs. (3900 - Q)

According to the question,

Q × 16% + (3900 - Q) × 8% = 540

⇒ 16Q + 3900 × 8 - 8Q = 54000

⇒ 8Q = 54000 - 3900 × 8

⇒ 8Q = 22800

⇒ Q = 22800/8

⇒ Q = 2850

So, the original price of the table = 3900 - 2850 = Rs. 1050

Now, the price difference between the chair and table = 2850 - 1050 = Rs. 1800

∴ The difference between the original price of the table and the chair is Rs. 1800.

Given:

I. If x = 12, y = -2 and z = -10, then x3 + y3 + z3 = 360.

II. If x + y = 48 and 4xy = 128, then 4x2 + 4y2 = 4480.

Concept used:

a2 + b2 + 2ab = (a + b)2

Calculation:

I.  x3 + y3 + z3 

⇒ (12)3 + (-2)3 + (-10)3 

⇒ 1728 - 8 - 1000

⇒ 720

II. Here, 4xy = 128

⇒ 2xy = 64      ....(1)

x + y = 48

⇒ (x + y)2 = 482

⇒ x2 + y2 + 2xy = 2304

⇒ x2 + y2 = 2304 - 64 (From 1)

⇒ x2 + y2 = 2240

⇒ 4x2 + 4y2 = 4 × 2240

⇒ 4x2 + 4y2 = 8960

Hence, neither I nor II follows.

∴ Neither I nor II is correct.

Calculation:

So,

X = $\frac {12500 - 10625}{12500} \times 100\%$ = 15%

Y = $\frac {34000 - 30600}{34000} \times 100\%$ = 10%

Now, X : Y = 15 : 10 = 3 : 2

∴ The ratio of X and Y is 3 : 2.

Calculation:

Now, the required percentage

⇒ $\frac {22}{38} \times 100\%$

⇒ 57.894% ≈ 57.89%

∴ The number of lecturers recruited in state B in the year 2019 was 57.89% of the number of lecturers recruited in state C in the year 2021.

Given:

The circumference of the two circles is 110 cm and 330 cm respectively. 

Concept used:

Circumference of a circle  = 2πR (R = Radius)

Calculation:

Let the radii of the bigger and smaller circles be R and r respectively.

Difference between their radii = (R - r)

According to the concept,

2πR - 2πr = 330 - 110

⇒ 2π(R - r) = 220

⇒ 44/7 × (R - r) =  220

⇒ (R - r) = (220 × 7)/44

⇒ (R - r) = 35

∴ The difference between their radii is 35 cm.

Given:

K + $\frac{1}{K}$ + 2 = 0 and K < 0

Concept used:

(a² + 2ab + b²) = (a + b)²

Calculation:

K + $\frac{1}{K}$ + 2 = 0

⇒ k² + 2k + 1 = 0

⇒ (k + 1)² = 0

⇒ (k + 1) = 0

⇒ k = -1

Now,  K11 + $\frac{1}{K^4}$

⇒ (-1)¹¹ + $\frac{1}{(-1)^4}$

⇒ -1 + 1

⇒ 0

∴ The value of K11 + $\frac{1}{K^4}$ is 0.

Given:

sec2A + tan2A = 3

Concept used:

sec2 α - tan2 α = 1

Calculation:

sec2A + tan2A = 3      ....(1)

sec2A - tan2A = 1      ....(2)

Solving (1) and (2) we get,

sec2A + tan2A - sec2A + tan2A = 3 - 1 = 2

2tan² A = 2

tan2 A = 1

So, tan A = √1 = 1

Now, cot A = 1/1 = 1

∴ The value of cot A is 1.

Given:

An article costs Rs. 4,000 to a shopkeeper, who marks its price at Rs. 8,400.

The shopkeeper sells it to a customer at a discount of 25%.

The customer gets a further discount of 15% on the discounted price.

Concept used:

1. Final discount percentage after two successive discounts of A% and B% = $(A + B - {AB \over 100})\%$ 2. Selling Price = Marked Price × (1 - Discount%)

Calculation:

Final discount% = 25 + 15 - (25 × 15)/100 = 36.25%

Selling price of the article = 8400 × (1 - 36.25%) = Rs. 5355

Now, profit% = $\frac {5355 - 4000}{4000} \times 100\%$ = 33.875% ≈ 34%

∴ The shopkeeper earns 34% profit.

Given:

The numerical value of twice the curved surface area of a right circular cylinder is equal to the numerical value of its volume.

Concept used:

1. Curved surface of a cylinder = 2πrh 2. Volume of a cylinder = πr²h

where r = Radius of the base, h = height

Calculation:

Let the radius of the base and height be R and H respectively.

According to the question,

2πRH × 2 = πR²H

⇒ R = 4 (∵ R ≠ 0 and H ≠ 0)

∴ The numerical value of the radius of the base of the cylinder is 4.

Given:

x + $\frac{1}{x}$ = 6

Calculation:

$\frac{{3x}}{{2{x^2} - 5x + 2}}$

⇒ $\frac{3} { \frac {2{x^2} - 5x + 2}{x} }$

⇒ $\frac{3} { {2x - 5 + \frac {2}{x}} }$

⇒ $\frac{3} { {-5 + 2(x + \frac {1}{x}}) }$

⇒ $\frac{3} { {-5 + 2 \times 6} }$

⇒ $\frac{3}{7}$

∴ The value of $\frac{{3x}}{{2{x^2} - 5x + 2}}$ is $\frac{3}{7}$.

Given:

The hour hand moves through 4 hours and has a length of 6 cm. 

Concept used:

1. Hour hand covers 0.5° per minute.
2. Area of the sector of a circle = πR² × θ/360 (R = Radius and θ = Angle of the sector)

Calculation:

In 4 hours, the hour hand covers = 0.5 × 4 × 60 = 120°

Now, the area of the sector covered by the hour hand

⇒ π × 6² × 120/360

⇒ 12π ≈ 37.71 cm²

∴ The area covered by the hour hand in 4 hours is 37.71 cm2.

Given:

tan θ + cot θ = 2

Concept used:

1. tan θ = 1/cot θ 2. (a - b)² = a² - 2ab + b²

Calculation:

tan θ + cot θ = 2

⇒ tan θ + 1/tan θ = 2

⇒ tan² θ - 2tan θ + 1 = 0

⇒ (tan θ - 1)² = 0

⇒ tan θ = 1

⇒ tan²⁰⁰ θ = 1²⁰⁰

⇒ tan²⁰⁰ θ = 1      ....(1)

So, cot θ = 1/tan θ 

⇒ cot θ = 1/1

⇒ cot²⁰⁰ θ = 1²⁰⁰

⇒ cot200 θ = 1      ....(2)

Now, (1) + (2)

tan200 θ + cot200 θ = 1 + 1

⇒ tan200 θ + cot200 θ = 2

∴ The value of tan200 θ + cot200 θ is 2.

Shortcut TrickPut θ = 45^o

⇒ tan45 = 1, cot 45 = 1

tan θ + cot θ = 2

than, tan200 θ + cot200 θ

⇒ 1²⁰⁰ + 1²⁰⁰

⇒ 2

∴ The value of tan200 θ + cot200 θ is 2.

Given:

BCDE is square and ABC is an equilateral triangle.

Concept used:

1. An Isosceles triangle is a triangle that has two equal sides. Also, the two angles opposite the two equal sides are equal. 2. All internal angles of a triangle sum up to 180°. 3. An equilateral triangle is a triangle that has all its sides equal in length. Each internal angle of a triangle measures 60°. 4. A square has four equal straight sides and four right angles.

Calculation:

According to the question,

∠BCD = 90° 

∠ACB = 60°

So, ∠ACD = (90 + 60)° = 150°

AB = BC = AC (∵ ABC is an equilateral triangle)

BC = CD = DE = EB (∵ BCDE is a square)

Hence, AC = CD = BC

So, ΔACD is an isosceles triangle where AC = CD and ∠CAD = ∠ADC.

Now, ∠ADC = $\frac {180^\circ - 150^\circ}{2}$ = 15°

∴ The measure of ∠ADC is 15°.

Shortcut Trick

Initial Ratio of Rida and Riya = 3 : 5

New Ratio after Rs. 5,000 increment = 5 : 7

Both ratios increased by 2 parts (5 − 3 = 2 and 7 − 5 = 2).

2 parts = Rs. 5,000 ⇒ 1 part = Rs. 2,500

Riya's present salary = 5 parts × 2,500 = Rs. 12,500

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 12,500.

Alternate Method

Given:

Initial ratio of salaries of Rida and Riya = 3 : 5

Increment in the salary of each = Rs. 5,000

New ratio of salaries = 5 : 7

Rida = 3 parts

Riya = 5 parts

• 2 parts

• 2 parts

Rida = 5 parts

Riya = 7 parts

2 parts = Rs. 5,000

Calculations:

⇒ Let the present salaries of Rida and Riya be 3x and 5x, respectively.

⇒ After adding Rs. 5,000 to each, the new salaries become (3x + 5000) and (5x + 5000).

⇒ According to the question, (3x + 5000) ÷ (5x + 5000) = 5 ÷ 7

⇒ By cross-multiplying, we get:

⇒ 7 × (3x + 5000) = 5 × (5x + 5000)

⇒ 21x + 35000 = 25x + 25000

⇒ 25x − 21x = 35000 − 25000

⇒ 4x = 10000

⇒ x = 2500

⇒ Riya's present salary = 5x = 5 × 2500 = 12500

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 12,500.

Additional Information

Constant Difference in Ratios

When a constant value is added to or subtracted from both terms of a ratio, the difference between the terms stays constant. If the initial part difference is unequal, multiply by cross differences to balance them.

Cross-Multiplication Method

For two numbers a and b, if x is added to both to form a new ratio c : d, then (a + x) ÷ (b + x) = c ÷ d. This is solved by directly equating d(a + x) = c(b + x).

Age Problems Relation

This specific ratio change shortcut is heavily used in Age problems, where the gap in ages between two people remains strictly constant regardless of the time elapsed.

Shortcut Trick

Let the number of members be n and the constant increase in average be d.

The weight of the n^th person is given by: W_n = A₁ + (2n − 1) × d, where A₁ is the weight of the first person.

Here, n = 5 (Mukesh) and d = 2 kg.

Weight difference = W₅ − W₁ = (2 × 5 − 2) × d (since the first increase happens at n=2).

Difference = (2 × 4) × 2 = 16 kg.

∴ The correct answer is 16 kg.

Alternate Method

Given: Let weights of Ram, Shyam, Rohan, Reeta, Mukesh be W₁, W₂, W₃, W₄, W₅.

Let initial average A₁ = W₁.

⇒ A₂ = A₁ + 2 → (W₁ + W₂) ÷ 2 = W₁ + 2 ⇒ W₁ + W₂ = 2W₁ + 4 ⇒ W₂ = W₁ + 4

⇒ A₃ = A₂ + 2 = A₁ + 4 → (W₁ + W₂ + W₃) ÷ 3 = W₁ + 4 ⇒ (W₁ + W₁ + 4 + W₃) = 3W₁ + 12 ⇒ W₃ = W₁ + 8

⇒ Following the pattern, W_n = W₁ + 4(n − 1)

⇒ For Mukesh (n=5): W₅ = W₁ + 4(5 − 1)

⇒ W₅ = W₁ + 16

⇒ Difference = W₅ − W₁ = 16 kg.

∴ The correct answer is 16 kg.

Additional Information

Average and New Entry

When a new member joins and the average increases by x, the new member's value = Old Average + (Total members × Increase).

Arithmetic Progression in Averages

If the average of n consecutive terms increases by a constant d with each addition, the terms themselves form an A.P. with common difference 2d.

Given:

​A is 20% more efficient than B.

Concept used:

1. Efficiency (work done per day) of workers is inversely proportional to the time taken by workers to complete a particular task. 2. If A and B take x and y days to complete a task independently, alone they will get the work done in = xy/(x + y) days

Calculation:

According to the concept,

To complete the job alone, B will take = 29 × (1 + 20%) = 34.8 days

Working together, they will complete the work in

⇒ (29 × 34.8) ÷ (29 + 34.8)

⇒ $\frac{174}{11}$ days

∴ Working together, they will complete the work in $\frac{174}{11}$ days.

 Alternate Method

​A is 20% more efficient than B, then efficiency of A : B = 120 : 100 = 6 : 5

A alone could have done in 29 days, then total work = (6 × 29) = 174 unit

If A and B together do the work then time takes = 174/(6 + 5) = 174/11 days

Given:

HCF is 9 and their ratio is 14 : 19.

Concept used:

1. LCM is the smallest common multiple of two or more numbers. 2. HCF is the largest number or quantity that is a factor of each member of a group of numbers.

Calculation:

First number = 14 × 9 = 126

Second number = 19 × 9 = 171

LCM (126, 171)

⇒ 9 × 14 × 19

⇒ 2394

∴ Their LCM is 2394.

Given:

In ΔPQR, ∠Q = 90°, PQ = 8 cm and ∠PRQ = 45°. 

Concept used:

1. The sum of all angles of a triangle is 180°. 2. An isosceles triangle has both two equal sides and two equal angles.

Calculation:

According to the concept,

∠QPR = 180° - 90° - 45° = 45°

So, ΔPQR is an isosceles right-angled triangle at Q and PR is the hypotenuse.

Hence, PQ = QR = 8 cm

∴ The length of QR is 8 cm.

Given:

In a 1000 m race, Arjun, Balaji, and Charan are running. Arjun beats Balaji by 100 m, and Balaji beats Charan by 100 m.

In the next 1000 m race (the speeds are the same as in the previous), Balaji gives Charan an ahead start of 100 m, and Arjun gives Balaji an ahead start of 100 m.

Concept used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Calculation:

In a 1000 m race, Arjun beats Balaji by 100 m.

Hence, while Arjun covers 1000 m, Bajali covers 900 m.

So, Speed (Arjun) : Speed (Balaji) = 1000 : 900 = 10 : 9 = 100 : 90

In a 1000 m race, Balaji beats Charan by 100 m.

Hence, while Balaji covers 1000 m, Charan covers 900 m.

So, Speed (Balaji) : Speed (Charan) = 1000 : 900 = 10 : 9 = 90 : 81

Hence, Speed (Arjun) :Speed (Balaji) : Speed (Charan) = 100 : 90 : 81

Let the speed of Arjun, Balaji and Charan be 100k, 90k and 81k respectively.

In the next race,

Arjun has to cover = 1000 m

Balaji has to cover = 1000 - 100 = 900 cm

Charan has to cover = 900 - 100 m = 800 m

In the next race,

Time taken by Arjun to reach the finish line = 1000/100k = 10/k

Time taken by Balaji to reach the finish line = 900/90k = 10/k

Time taken by Charan to reach the finish line = 800/81k ≈ 9.8/k

Considering the fractions, we can clearly see that the winner will be Charan.

By that time,

Arjun will cover = 100k × 9.8/k ≈ 980 m

Balaji will cover = 90k × 9.8/k ≈ 880 m

Now, the distance by which the winner is ahead of the person just behind him = 1000 - 980 = 20m

∴ The distance by which the winner is ahead of the person just behind him is 20 m.

The correct answer is 'late to the class; he has been warn'.

Key Points

• The given sentence is grammatically incorrect.
• Here, 'late to the class; he has been warned' should be used instead of 'late to the class; he has been warn'.
• The corrected sentence uses the past participle form "warned" to indicate that the student has already received the warning from the teacher in the past.
• The present perfect tense is used to indicate that the warning occurred at an unspecified time in the past and may have continued up to the present.
• In contrast, the original sentence used the present tense form "warn" which is incorrect because it does not match the tense of the rest of the sentence.
• Thus, the correct answer is Option 4.

Correct Sentence: One of the students is always late to the class; he has been warned by the teacher many times; but still, he keeps on being late.

The correct answer is 'are reflective of the level of job satisfaction'.

Key Points 

• The given sentence is grammatically incorrect.
• When two nouns are connected by the conjunction "and," they generally require a plural verb form, as both nouns contribute to the subject of the sentence.

In the given sentence, the two subjects "the percentage of employees" and "the number of employees" are connected by "and," forming a compound subject.

• Hence, they will require a plural verb 'are'.
• The verb "are" agrees in number with the subject "percentage" and "number," and the phrase "reflective of the level of job satisfaction" correctly completes the sentence.
• It is important to use the correct verb tense and subject-verb agreement when constructing sentences to ensure clarity and accuracy.
• Thus, the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct Sentence: The percentage of employees who called in sick and the number of employees who left their jobs within 2 years (are reflective of the level of job satisfaction).

Confusion Points 

• We tend to go for the other options but it would be incorrect because: 
• The present tense is used in the sentence because the outcome (the percentage and number of employees) is still relevant and applicable in the present time.
• Even though the events being described (employees calling in sick and leaving their jobs within two years) may have happened in the past, the effects of those events (the percentage and number of employees) are still present and relevant. Therefore, it is appropriate to use the present tense to describe the ongoing relationship between the outcomes and the level of job satisfaction.
• Using the past tense in this sentence would suggest that the outcomes are no longer relevant or applicable, which is not the case.

The correct answer is 'CADB'.

Key Points

• The given question is an example of a Para Jumble.
• We know that the first statement of a para jumbled question is usually an independent general statement, a noun, a universal fact, starting off a story, starting of an incident or an event, or it starts with 'most' or 'once'.
• Sentence C should be used first because this sentence provides the definition of an omnivore and sets the context for the rest of the paragraph.
• After Sentence C, Sentence A should be used because this sentence provides more information about omnivores.
• Sentence D should be used next because this sentence adds to the idea of omnivores being able to thrive on diverse food sources.
• Lastly, Sentence B will be used because this sentence provides further information on the sub-categories of omnivores based on their dietary habits.
• The order of the sentences in Option 3 creates a logical flow of ideas that builds on the definition of omnivores and their ability to obtain energy and nutrients from diverse sources. It then goes on to provide more specific information on the sub-categories of omnivores.
• Thus, the correct answer is Option 3.

Correct Sequence: An omnivore is an animal that can feed and thrive on both, plant and animal substances. Omnivores get energy and nutrients from plant and animal materials by digesting carbs, protein, fat and fibre and metabolising the nutrients and energy of the sources ingested. They also have the capacity to integrate food sources like algae, fungus and bacteria into their diet. The many diverse animals categorised as omnivores may be divided into sub-categories based on their dietary habits.

The correct answer is 'filthy'.

Key Points

• The most appropriate synonym of the given word 'muddy' is 'filthy'.
• Muddy: covered or filled with mud, dirt, or grime. In Hindi: गंदा, कीचड़ीला, मैला
• Example: I can't wear my new shoes today because the streets are so muddy.
• Filthy: disgustingly dirty. In Hindi: गंदा
• Example: The kitchen was so filthy that I had to clean it for hours before I could cook in there.

Correct Answer: Filthy.

Additional Information

• Let's look at the meaning of other words:
• Fuzzy - unclear, indistinct, or lacking in detail. In Hindi: अस्पष्ट, धुंधला, अनिश्चित
• Blurred - not clear or sharply defined. In Hindi: धुंधला, अस्पष्ट, कलहंस
• Unsoiled - clean, not stained or contaminated. In Hindi: स्वच्छ, अपवित्र न हुआ, निष्कलंक

The correct answer is 'Evocative'.

Key Points

• The most appropriate synonym of the underlined word 'Vivid' is 'Evocative'.
• Vivid (जीवंत) - producing powerful mental images or clear, intense impressions in the mind.
• Example: The writer used vivid descriptions to transport the reader to a different time and place.
• Evocative (उत्प्रेरक) - bringing strong memories, images or feelings to mind.
• Example: The evocative scent of the ocean reminded him of childhood summer vacations.

​Correct Answer: Evocative.

Additional Information 

• Let's look at the meaning of other words:
• Contemporary (समकालीन) - relating to the present time or modern day.
• Blurred (धुंधला) - not clear or sharply defined.
• Metaphoric (लाक्षणिक) - using metaphorical language to describe something, meaning something other than its literal definition.

The correct answer is 'The novel fascinated me'.

Key Points

• The given sentence is in Passive Voice. As per the given question, we have to change it to Active Voice.
• The structure of the given sentence is as follows:
• Subject + V2 + Object. (Active Voice)
• Subject (objective case) + was/were + V3 + Object (subjective case). (Passive Voice)
• Example:
• Their cousin showed them some rare photographs. (Active Voice)
• They were shown some rare photographs by their cousin. (Passive Voice)
• The subject of the given sentence is 'I'.​​
• The object of the given sentence is 'the novel'.
• The subject will be put in place of the object and the object will be put in place of the subject.
• And 'was fascinated' will be changed into fascinated'. 

Correct Sentence: The novel fascinated me.