Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL 2022 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On : 12 Dec 2022 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

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General Intelligence and Reasoning (25 questions)

Question 1

Three statements are given followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

Some spices are medicines.

All medicines are chemicals.

No chemical is cheap.

Conclusions:

I. Some medicines are cheap.

II. Some chemicals are spices.

III. No medicine is cheap.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only conclusions I and III follow.

  2. BOption (b)

    Only conclusions II and III follow.

  3. COption (c)

    Only conclusions I and II follow.

  4. DOption (d)

    All conclusions follow.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only conclusions II and III follow.

Why this answer is correct

Statements:

Some spices are medicines.

All medicines are chemicals.

No chemical is cheap.

 

Conclusions:

I. Some medicines are cheap → Does not follow → As all medicines are chemicals and no chemical is cheap. So some medicines are cheap is not definitely followed.

II. Some chemicals are spices → Follow → As some spices are medicines and all medicines are chemicals. So some chemicals are spices is definitely followed.

III. No medicine is cheap → Follow → As all medicines are chemicals and no chemical is cheap. So no medicine is cheap is definitely followed.

So, Only conclusions II and III follow.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 2

Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to sequentially replace the * signs and to balance the given equation.

50 * 25 * 10 * 2 * 175

  1. AOption (a)

    +, ÷, ×, =

  2. BOption (b)

    −, ×, ÷, =

  3. COption (c)

    −, ×, +, =

  4. DOption (d)

    +, ×, ÷, =

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

+, ×, ÷, =

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is:

We have to replace the mathematical signs to sequentially replace the * signs to balance the given equation.

Let's check each option one by one.

Option 1) +, ÷, ×, =

Given: 50 * 25 * 10 * 2 * 175

After putting the mathematical sign we get the;

⇒ 50 + 25 ÷ 10 × 2 = 175

⇒ 50 + 2.5 × 2 = 175

⇒ 50 + 5 = 175

⇒ 55 ≠ 175

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 2) −, ×, ÷, =

Given: 50 * 25 * 10 * 2 * 175

After putting the mathematical sign we get the;

⇒ 50 - 25 × 10 ÷ 2 = 175

⇒ 50 - 25 × 5 = 175

⇒ 50 - 125 = 175

⇒ - 75 ≠ 175

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 3) −, ×, +, =

Given: 50 * 25 * 10 * 2 * 175

After putting the mathematical sign we get the;

⇒ 50 - 25 × 10 + 2 = 175

⇒ 50 - 250 + 2 = 175

⇒ 52 - 250 = 175

⇒ - 198 ≠ 175

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 4) +, ×, ÷, =

Given: 50 * 25 * 10 * 2 * 175

After putting the mathematical sign we get the;

⇒ 50 + 25 × 10 ÷ 2 = 175

⇒ 50 + 25 × 5 = 175

⇒ 50 + 125 = 175

⇒ 175 = 175

⇒ LHS = RHS

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 3

If R ÷ S means that R is the mother of S, R × S means that R is the father of S, R - S means that R is the sister of S, then which of the following expression shows that P is the father of R?

  1. AOption (a)

    P × Q ÷ R

  2. BOption (b)

    Q × P - R

  3. COption (c)

    R × Q - P

  4. DOption (d)

    P × Q - R

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

P × Q - R

Why this answer is correct

By using the symbols in the table given below, we can draw the following family tree:

R ÷ S means that R is the mother of S.

R × S means that R is the father of S.

R - S means that R is the sister of S.

Given relation code:

CodeRelation
÷Mother
×Father
-Sister

Find: Which expression shows that P is the Father of R?

Let's check each option one by one.

Option 1) P × Q ÷ R

P is the father of Q, and Q is the mother of R.

Here, P is the maternal grandfather of R. (Incorrect)

Option 2) Q × P - R

Q is the father of P, and P is the sister of R.

Here, P is the sister of R. (Incorrect)

Option 3) R × Q - P

R is the father of Q, and Q is the sister of P.

Here, the gender of P is not clear. So we can't find How P is related to R. (Incorrect)

Option 4) P × Q - R

P is the father of Q, and Q is the sister of R.

Here, P is the father of R. (Correct)

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 4

Which two signs and two numbers should be interchanged in the following equation to make it correct?

10 × 11 + 19 - 323 ÷ 3 = 50

  1. AOption (a)

    10 and 19, - and +

  2. BOption (b)

    3 and 19, - and ×

  3. COption (c)

    10 and 11, - and ÷

  4. DOption (d)

    10 and 323, + and ÷

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

3 and 19, - and ×

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is:

We have to interchange the signs and two numbers in the following equations to make it correct.

Let's check each option one by one.

Option 1) 10 and 19, - and +

Given: 10 × 11 + 19 - 323 ÷ 3 = 50

After interchanging the sign and two numbers we get the;

⇒ 19 × 11 - 10 + 323 ÷ 3 = 50

⇒ 19 × 11 - 10 + 107.66 = 50

⇒ 209 - 10 + 107.66 = 50

⇒ 316.6 - 10 = 50

⇒ 306.6 ≠ 50 

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 2) 3 and 19, - and ×

Given: 10 × 11 + 19 - 323 ÷ 3 = 50

After interchanging the sign and two numbers we get the;

⇒ 10 - 11 + 3 × 323 ÷ 19 = 50

⇒ 10 - 11 + 3 × 17 = 50

⇒ 10 - 11 + 51 = 50

⇒ 61 - 11 = 50

⇒ 50 = 50

⇒ LHS = RHS

Option 3) 10 and 11, - and ÷

Given: 10 × 11 + 19 - 323 ÷ 3 = 50

After interchanging the sign and two numbers we get the;

⇒ 11 × 10 + 19 ÷ 323 - 3 = 50

⇒ 11 × 10 + 0.0588 - 3 = 50

⇒ 110 + 0.0588 - 3 = 50

⇒ 110.0588 - 3 = 50

⇒107.0588 ≠ 50

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 4) 10 and 323, + and ÷

Given: 10 × 11 + 19 - 323 ÷ 3 = 50

After interchanging the sign and two numbers we get the;

⇒ 323 × 11 ÷ 19 - 10 + 3 = 50

⇒ 323 × 0.578 - 10 + 3 = 50

⇒ 187 - 10 + 3 = 50

⇒ 190 - 10 = 50

⇒ 180 ≠ 50

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 5

In a certain code language, 'CAKES’ is written as 'FXNBV' and 'ABUSE' is written as 'DYXPH'. How will 'BARKS' be written in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    EXVHU

  2. BOption (b)

    EXUIU

  3. COption (c)

    EXUIV

  4. DOption (d)

    EXUHV

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

EXUHV

Why this answer is correct

The position of the English alphabet series is given below:

'CAKES’ is written as 'FXNBV'

And,

'ABUSE' is written as 'DYXPH'

Similarly,

'BARKS' be written as '?'

Hence, the correct answer is "EXUHV".

Question 6

What was the day of the week on 26th November 1994?

  1. AOption (a)

    Friday

  2. BOption (b)

    Wednesday

  3. COption (c)

    Saturday

  4. DOption (d)

    Thursday

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Saturday

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is:

The number of odd days:

Simple year: 365 ÷ 7 = 52 weeks and 1 odd day.

Leap year: 366 ÷ 7 = 52 weeks and 2 odd days.

YearsNo. of odd days
100 years5
200years3
300 years1
400 years0

Calculating the number of odd days in 1994 = 1600 + 300 + 94 years

1600 years have 0 odd days.

300 years have 1 odd day.

93 years has 23 leap years and 70 normal years which is 23 × 2 + 70 × 1 = 116 Odd days or simply 4 odd days.

in 1994, the number of days up to 26th November.

⇒ Jan (31) + Feb (28) + March (31) + April (30) + May (31) + June (30) + July (31) + Aug (31) + Sep (30) + October (31) + Nov (26) = 330 days

⇒ 330 ÷ 7 = 1 Odd day.

Total odd days is = 1 + 4 + 1 = 6 Odd days

Code for weekdays.

No. of odd daysDay
0Sunday
1Monday
2Tuesday
3Wednesday
4Thursday
5Friday
6Saturday

Cleary, 6 is the code for Saturday.

Hence, the correct answer is "Saturday".

Question 7

A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

COMB, GIUR, KCCH, OWKX, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    SRQM

  2. BOption (b)

    MNQR

  3. COption (c)

    SQSN

  4. DOption (d)

    SMRQ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

SQSN

Why this answer is correct

The position of the English alphabet series is given below:

Given: COMB, GIUR, KCCH, OWKX, ?

Hence, the correct answer is "SQSN".

Question 8

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits.)

(12, 313, 13)

(11, 185, 8)

  1. AOption (a)

    (12, 158, 12)

  2. BOption (b)

    (4, 125, 11)

  3. COption (c)

    (9, 90, 3)

  4. DOption (d)

    (15, 150, 10)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(9, 90, 3)

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is:

Logic: (First number)2 + (Third number)2 = Second number.

  1. (12, 313, 13)

⇒ (12)2 + (13)2

⇒ 144 + 169 = 313

  1. (11, 185, 8)

⇒ (11)2 + (8)2

⇒ 121 + 64 = 185

Let's check each option one by one:

Option 1) (12, 158, 12)

⇒ (12)2 + (12)2

⇒ 144 + 144 = 288 ≠ 158. (Incorrect)

Option 2) (4, 125, 11)

⇒ (4)2 + (11)2

⇒ 16 + 121 = 137 ≠ 125. (Incorrect)

Option 3) (9, 90, 3)

⇒ (9)2 + (3)2

⇒ 81 + 9 = 90. (Correct)

Option 4) (15, 150, 10)

⇒ (15)2 + (10)2

⇒ 225 + 100 = 325 ≠ 150. (Incorrect)

Hence, the correct answer is "(9, 90, 3)".

Question 9

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the given set.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 - Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(6, 17, 408)

(13, 27, 1404)

  1. AOption (a)

    (9, 27, 245)

  2. BOption (b)

    (17, 28, 952)

  3. COption (c)

    (5, 82, 1200)

  4. DOption (d)

    (4, 26, 416)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(4, 26, 416)

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is:

Logic: (First number × Second number) × 4 = Third number.

  1. (6, 17, 408)

⇒ (6 × 17) × 4

⇒ 102 × 4 = 408

  1. (13, 27, 1404)

⇒ (13 × 27) × 4

⇒ 351 × 4 = 1404

Let's check each option one by one:

Option 1) (9, 27, 245)

⇒ (9 × 27) × 4

⇒ 243 × 4 = 972 ≠ 245. (Incorrect)

Option 2) (17, 28, 952)

⇒ (17 × 28) × 4

⇒ 476 × 4 = 1904 ≠ 952. (Incorrect)

Option 3) (5, 82, 1200)

⇒ (5 × 82) × 4

⇒ 410 × 4 = 1640 ≠ 1200. (Incorrect)

Option 4) (4, 26, 416)

⇒ (4 × 26) × 4

⇒ 104 × 4 = 416 = 416 (Correct)

Hence, the correct answer is "(4, 26, 416)".

Question 10

Three different positions of the same dice are shown. Find the number on the face opposite the face showing '2'.

  1. AOption (a)

    6

  2. BOption (b)

    5

  3. COption (c)

    4

  4. DOption (d)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

5

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is:

Logic: No two opposite faces are adjacent to each other.

Let's find which number is faced opposite to face having '2'.

We are taking both dice figures (1) & (2) together.

Here, 6 and 3 are common in both dice and 5 is opposite to 2.

Now, we are taking dice figures (2) & (3) together.

Here, 2 is common in both the dice and the rotated clockwise direction.

Opposite pairs:

⇒ 5 ⇔ 2

⇒ 6 ⇔ 1

⇒ 3 ⇔ 4

Clearly, 5 is the opposite of 2.

Hence, the correct answer is "5".

Question 11

In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions based on those statements. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements.

Statements:

I. All W are L.

II. All L are M.

Conclusions:

I. No L is W.

II. No M is L.

III. No M is W.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only conclusion II follows

  2. BOption (b)

    Only conclusion I follows

  3. COption (c)

    All conclusion follows

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither conclusion follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Neither conclusion follows

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is:

The least possible Venn diagram is shown below according to the given statements.

Statements:

I. All W are L.

II. All L are M.

Conclusions:

I. No L is W → Does not follow → As all W are L and all L are M. So No L is W is not definitely followed.

II. No M is L → Does not follow → As all W are L and all L are M. So No M is L is not definitely followed.

III. No M is W → Does not follow → As all W are L and all L are M. So No M is W is not definitely followed.

So, Neither conclusion follow.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 12

Select the option figure which is embedded in the given figure (rotation is NOT allowed).

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 13

Which figure should replace the question mark (?) if the series were to be continued?

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is:

1)   Elements of 1st column and 3rd column are moving clockwise direction. Elements of 2nd column and 4th column are moving in anti-clockwise direction. 

2)  1st, 2nd and 3rd rows follows different pattern.

​

3)  Elements of 1st column and 3rd column are moving clockwise direction. Elements of 2nd column and 4th column are moving in anti-clockwise direction. 

4)  1st, 2nd and 3rd rows follows different pattern.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 14

Four letter-clusters have been given out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the one that is different.

  1. AOption (a)

    LJI

  2. BOption (b)

    GDA

  3. COption (c)

    NLK

  4. DOption (d)

    TRQ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

GDA

Why this answer is correct

The position of the English alphabet letters is given below:

Let's check each option one by one:

Option 1) LJI

Option 2) GDA

Option 3) NLK

Option 4) TRQ

Hence, the correct answer is "GDA".

Question 15

What should come in place of the question mark (?) to complete the following letter cluster series?

RD, JF, DJ, ZP, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    XY

  2. BOption (b)

    YY

  3. COption (c)

    XX

  4. DOption (d)

    WX

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

XX

Why this answer is correct

The position of the English alphabet letters is given below:

Given: RD, JF, DJ, ZP, ?

 

Hence, the correct answer is "XX".

Question 16

Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-cluster.

STABLE : AEQRZJ :: TARGET : AERPER :: VISUAL : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    IUATQJ

  2. BOption (b)

    UATWJQ

  3. COption (c)

    HATQUI

  4. DOption (d)

    TAUIQJ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

IUATQJ

Why this answer is correct

The logic is followed here is:

1) Vowels are shifted at first 

2) Consonants are shifted  -2 and arranged after vowel.

STABLE : AEQRZJ ⇒

And,

TARGET : AERPER ⇒

Similarly,

VISUAL : ? ⇒

Hence the correct answer is "IUATQJ".

Question 17

By interchanging the given two signs and numbers which of the following equation will be not correct?

× and +, 7 and 4

I. 7 × 8 + 4 – 6 ÷ 3 = 57

II. 4 × 8 – 9 ÷ 3 + 7 = 3

  1. AOption (a)

    Only II

  2. BOption (b)

    Only I

  3. COption (c)

    Neither I nor II

  4. DOption (d)

    Both I and II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only I

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is:

Given: × and +, 7 and 4

I. 7 × 8 + 4 – 6 ÷ 3 = 57

Given: × and +, 7 and 4

⇒ 4 + 8 × 7 – 6 ÷ 3 = 57

⇒ 4 + 8 × 7 - 2 = 57

⇒ 4 + 56 - 2 = 57

⇒ 60 - 2 = 57

⇒ 58 ≠ 57 (Not Correct)

II. 4 × 8 – 9 ÷ 3 + 7 = 3

Given: × and +, 7 and 4

⇒ 7 + 8 – 9 ÷ 3 × 4 = 3

⇒ 7 + 8 - 3 × 4 = 3

⇒ 7 + 8 - 12 = 3

⇒ 15 - 12 = 3

⇒ 3 = 3 (Correct)

So, Only I is not correct.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 18

Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is:

  1. Middle figure is rotated in a 90º anti-clockwise direction.

  2. Addition of + 1 and shifted right-hand side and same letter shifted toward the left-hand side.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 19

In a certain code language, 'ENGINE' is written as ‘ENIGNE’ and 'TRAIN’ is written as 'NIART'. How will 'LEVEL' be written in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    LEELV

  2. BOption (b)

    LEVEL

  3. COption (c)

    LEEVL

  4. DOption (d)

    LELEV

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

LEVEL

Why this answer is correct

The position of the English alphabet is given below:

'ENGINE' is written as ‘ENIGNE’

​

And,

'TRAIN’ is written as 'NIART

Similarly,

'LEVEL' be written as '?'

Hence, the correct answer is "LEVEL".

Question 20

Select the odd group of numbers. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g.13 - Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)

  1. AOption (a)

    (600 - 120 - 24)

  2. BOption (b)

    (400 - 80 - 14)

  3. COption (c)

    (300 - 60 - 12)

  4. DOption (d)

    (500 - 100 - 20)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(400 - 80 - 14)

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is:

Logic: (First number ÷ 5) = Second number & (Second number ÷ 5) = Third number.

Let's check each option one by one:

Option 1) (600 - 120 - 24)

⇒ (600 ÷ 5) = 120

⇒ (120 ÷ 5) = 24 (Correct)

Option 2) (400 - 80 - 14)

⇒ (400 ÷ 5) = 80

⇒ (80 ÷ 5) = 16 ≠ 14 (Incorrect)

Option 3) (300 - 60 - 12)

⇒ (300 ÷ 5) = 60

⇒ (60 ÷ 5) = 12. (Correct)

Option 4) (500 - 100 - 20)

⇒ (500 ÷ 5) = 100

⇒ (100 ÷ 5) = 20. (Correct)

Hence, the correct answer is "(400 - 80 - 14)".

Question 21

Select the option that is related to the fourth term in the same way as the first term is related to the second term and the fifth term is related to the sixth term.

8 : 96 :: ? : 54 :: 12 : 216

  1. AOption (a)

    8

  2. BOption (b)

    6

  3. COption (c)

    10

  4. DOption (d)

    4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

6

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is:

Logic: [(First number × (First number ÷ 2)] × 3 = Second number.

  1. 8 : 96

⇒ [(8 × (8 ÷ 2)] × 3 

⇒ [(8 × 4)] × 3

⇒ 32 × 3 = 96

And,

  1. 12 : 216

⇒ [(12 × (12 ÷ 2)] × 3 

⇒ [(12 × 6)] × 3

⇒ 72 × 3 = 216

Similarly,

  1. ? : 54

By option 6 is using.

⇒ [(6 × (6 ÷ 2)] × 3 

⇒ [(6 × 3)] × 3

⇒ 18 × 3 = 54

Hence, the correct answer is "6".

Question 22

A & B means ‘A is the son of B’

A # B means ‘A is the sister of B’

A @ B means ‘A is the brother of B’

A % B means ‘A is the father of B’

A - B means ‘A is the daughter of B’

A * B means ‘A is the wife of B’

If C # D @ E % Z & L # M - N * P, then how is L related to P?

  1. AOption (a)

    Wife

  2. BOption (b)

    Daughter

  3. COption (c)

    Daughter-in-law

  4. DOption (d)

    Sister

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Daughter

Why this answer is correct

By using the symbols in the table given below, we can draw the following family tree:

Given: 

A & B means ‘A is the son of B’

A # B means ‘A is the sister of B’

A @ B means ‘A is the brother of B’

A % B means ‘A is the father of B’

A - B means ‘A is the daughter of B’

A * B means ‘A is the wife of B’

SymbolRelation
&Son
#Sister
@Brother
%Father
-Daughter
*Wife

Given: C # D @ E % Z & L # M - N * P

 

Clearly, L is the daughter of P.

Hence, the correct answer is "Daughter".

Question 23

Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)

Panel : Jurors :: Portfolio : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Trustees

  2. BOption (b)

    Securities

  3. COption (c)

    Administration

  4. DOption (d)

    Companies

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Securities

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is:

Panel : Jurors → A panel is a whole group of Jurors. The meaning of these words is a group of people who have chosen to listen to the facts in a court action and decide whether a person is guilty or not.

Similarly,

Portfolio : Securities → A portfolio is the entire group of securities a person holds for the investment.

Hence, the correct answer is "Securities".

Additional Information 

WordMeaning
TrusteesA person who looks after money or property for somebody else.
AdministrationThe control or the act of managing something.
CompaniesA business organization, selling goods or services.

Question 24

Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?

1, 4, 13, 40, ?, 364

  1. AOption (a)

    132

  2. BOption (b)

    121

  3. COption (c)

    120

  4. DOption (d)

    124

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

121

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is:

Given: 1, 4, 13, 40, ?, 364

 

Hence, the correct answer is "121".

Question 25

Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at 'PQ' as shown below.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

The correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is held on the PQ side.

Detailed Explanation:

  • The correct mirror image of the given figure is "

" the seventh letter of the given image is 'I' and the correct mirror image is "I" but it is wrongly given in options 1 & 4 so option 1 & 4 is eliminated.

  • The correct mirror image of the given figure is "

" the fifth letter of the given image is 'O' and the correct mirror image is "O" but it is wrongly given in option 3 so option 3 is eliminated.

 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Additional Information 

  1. In the mirror image left side and right side changed vice-versa where the top and bottom remain the same.

  2. In a real given mirror image the farthest number or alphabet appears closest in the mirror image.

General Awareness (25 questions)

Question 26

Which of the following statement is correct?

I. The biggest state of India in terms of area is Uttar Pradesh.

II. Rajasthan is the state of India which have highest population among all other states of India.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither I nor II

  3. COption (c)

    Only II

  4. DOption (d)

    Both I and II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Neither I nor II

Why this answer is correct

Correct answer Neither I nor II

Key Points:

  • India is the 7th largest country in the world in terms of land area and also the largest country in terms of population.
  • India has a total of 8 Union Territories and 28 states.
  • As per the Census 2011, Uttar Pradesh ranks fourth in terms of area but ranks first in terms of population,
  • Uttar Pradesh ranks first with a total population of 199,812,341.
  • The total area of Uttar Pradesh is 240,928 km2.

Area-wise states-

S.noStates
1.Rajasthan
2.Madhya Pradesh
3.Maharashtra
4.Uttar Pradesh
5Gujarat

Population-wise states-

S.noStates
1.Uttar Pradesh
2.Maharashtra
3.Bihar
4.West Bengal

Rajasthan is the largest state of India in terms of area.

  • It covers an area of 342,239 sq. km and has a population of 6.85 crores as per the 2011 census.
  • It accounts for 10.41% of the total country's area.

Here are the largest Indian states by area, from largest to smallest:

  1. ​Rajasthan: 342,239 square kilometers
  2. Madhya Pradesh: 308,252 square kilometers
  3. Maharashtra: 307,713 square kilometers
  4. Uttar Pradesh: 240,928 square kilometers
  5. Gujarat: 196,024 square kilometers
  6. Karnataka: 191,791 square kilometers
  7. Andhra Pradesh: 162,975 square kilometers
  8. Odisha: 155,707 square kilometers
  9. Chhattisgarh: 135,192 square kilometers
  10. Tamil Nadu: 130,058 square kilometers
  • Some of the smallest states of India by area are: 
  1. Goa: 3,702 square kilometers
  2. Sikkim: 7,096 square kilometers
  3. Tripura: 10,486 square kilometers
  4. Nagaland: 16,579 square kilometers

Question 27

Who among the following is Telangana’s first Sangeet Natak Akademi Award winner?

  1. AOption (a)

    Padmaja Reddy

  2. BOption (b)

    Yamini Reddy

  3. COption (c)

    Deepa Sashindran

  4. DOption (d)

    Shantala Shivalingappa

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Padmaja Reddy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Padmaja Reddy.

Key Points Padmaja Reddy:

  • Kuchipudi dancer, Padmaja Reddy received the Padma Shri Award in 2022.
  • Padmaja Reddy is from Hyderabad
  • She has received Sangeeta Nataka Akademi Award, the highest award given by the Indian government to practicing artists.
  • she was the first person from Telangana to ever receive this honor.
  • She also runs a dance academy called Pranav Institute of Kuchipudi Dance.
  • She was invited to give a performance at the official residence of India’s Prime Minister:

Additional Information:

DancesOriginMain Reviving PersonalsFamous Proponents
BharatnatyamTamil NaduE. Krishna Iyer, Rukmini devi ArindelYamini Krishnamurthy, Lakshmi Vishwanathan, Padma Subramaniam, Mrinalini Sarabhai, Mallika Sarabhai
KuchipudiAndhra PradeshBalasaraswati, Ragini deviRadha Reddy And Raja Reddy, Yamini Krishnamurthy, Indrani Rehman
KathakaliKeralaV. N. MenonGuru Kunchu Kurup, Gopinath, Kottakal Sivaraman, Rita Ganguly
OdissiOdishaIndrani Rehman, Charles FabriGuru Pankaj Charan Das, Kelu Charan Mohapatra, Sonal Mansingh, Sharon Lowen, MYrla Barvie
ManipuriManipurRaja bhag Chandra, Rabindranath TagoreNayana, Suverna, Ranjana and Darshna, Guru Bipin Singha
KathakUttar PradeshLady Leela SokheyBirju Maharaj, Lacchu Maharaj, Sitara Devi, Damyanti Joshi
SattriyaAssamShankaradeva-
MohiniattamKeralaV. N. Menon, kalayani AmmaSunanda Nair, Kalamandalam kshmavathy, Madhuri Amma, Jayaprabha Menon

Question 28

Who among the following became the first Asian to win the award for best sound for the documentary 'India’s Daughter' at the coveted Motion Picture Sound Editors’ 63rd annual Golden Reel Awards?

  1. AOption (a)

    Justin Jose

  2. BOption (b)

    Resul Pookutty

  3. COption (c)

    P.M.Satheesh

  4. DOption (d)

    Boby John

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Resul Pookutty

Why this answer is correct

Correct Answer Resul Pookutty

Key Points

  • 'India's Daughter' is a documentary film directed by Leslee Udwin about the 2012 Delhi gang rape and murder of a 23-year-old woman.
  • The film's sound designer and re-recording mixer, Resul Pookutty, became the first Asian to win the award for best sound for the documentary at the Motion Picture Sound Editors’ 63rd annual Golden Reel Awards.
  • Resul Pookutty-Resul Pookutty is an Indian film sound designer, sound editor, and audio mixer.
  • He won the Academy Award for Best Sound Mixing, along with Richard Pryke and Ian Tapp, for Slumdog Millionaire.

Question 29

Which of the following is known as ‘Plaster of Paris’?

  1. AOption (a)

    2CaSO4⋅2H2O

  2. BOption (b)

    2MgSO4⋅H2​O

  3. COption (c)

    2MgSO4⋅7H2​O

  4. DOption (d)

    CaSO4⋅1/2H2O

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

CaSO4⋅1/2H2O

Why this answer is correct

Correct Answer CaSO4⋅1/2H2O

Key Points Explanation:

  • Plaster of Paris (POP) is a quick-setting gypsum plaster consisting of a fine white powder (calcium sulfate hemihydrate), which hardens when moistened and allowed to dry.
  • It is also known as the Plaster of Paris because for the preparation of POP, the abundant gypsum was first found near the capital city of France i.e. Paris.
  • The chemical formula of the Plaster of Paris is CaSO4.12\frac{1}{2} H2O =
  • Application of Plaster of Paris is as follows
  1. It is used as a building material as a protective coating on walls and ceilings.
  2. It is used as a moulding and vesting agent for decorative elements.
  3. It is also used for aesthetic touch to the construction elements.
  4. It is also used as plaster in orthopaedics and as a filling material by dentists, etc.

Confusion Points:

  • Gypsum is an ore of Calcium (Ca). The chemical formula of Gypsum is CaSO4. 2H2O.
  • Gypsum is mainly used as a fertilizer, as the main constituent in plaster, chalk, etc.
  • The plaster of Paris on mixing with water produces gypsum.
  • Calcium Sulphate Hemihydrate (CaSO4·1/2 H2O) on hydration leads to the crystallization of gypsum calcium sulphate dihydrate (CaSO4·2H2O).

Question 30

______ is the centre for the Indian Institution of Soil Science.

  1. AOption (a)

    Porbandar

  2. BOption (b)

    Bhopal

  3. COption (c)

    Vishakhapatnam

  4. DOption (d)

    Bhubaneswar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Bhopal

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bhopal.

Key Points:

  • The Indian Institute of Soil Science is an autonomous institute for higher learning for advanced research in the field of soil sciences.
  • It was established under the umbrella of the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) by the Ministry of Agriculture, Government of India.
  • The Indian Institute of Soil Science (IISS) was established in 1988 in Bhopal (Madhya Pradesh) with an aim to promote scientific research on soil sciences.

Mistake Points:

The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) 

  • The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) is an autonomous organization under the Department of Agricultural Research and Education (DARE), Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Government of India.
  • It was established on 16 July 1929 as a registered society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860 in pursuance of the report of the Royal Commission on Agriculture.
  • The ICAR has its headquarters in New Delhi.
  • The Council is the apex body for co-ordinating, guiding, and managing research and education in agriculture including horticulture, fisheries, and animal sciences in the entire country.

Question 31

In 1873, the Satyashodhak Samaj was established in ______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Bihar Province

  2. BOption (b)

    Madras Presidency

  3. COption (c)

    Bombay Presidency

  4. DOption (d)

    Punjab Province

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Bombay Presidency

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bombay Presidency

**Key Points:**Satyashodhak Samaj:

  • Jyotiba Phule founded Satyashodhak Samaj in Pune, Maharashtra, on 24th September 1873.
  • It was a reformational society that promoted education and increased social rights, justice, and political access in the deprived sections.
  • Moreover, its primary focus was on uplifting and supporting Dalits, Shudras, and women in Maharashtra.
  • Jyotiba Phule’s wife, Savitribai, used to administer the social activities for the women’s section.
  • Jyotirao established it to stand against the unfair caste system and orthodox, illogical Brahminical status in this society.
  • He challenged the Brahmins who claimed themselves to be God’s messenger and a connecting medium to the almighty.
  • The Samaj rejected the approach of Vedic culture, Upanishad, and the predominance of Aryan society. Instead, according to him, Aryan society tries to suppress and deprive the non-Aryans, which he protested.
  • Shahu Maharaj, a Maratha ruler of the princely state Kolhapur, continued the movement after the death of Phule.
  • Later, Bhaurao Patil and other Maratha leaders like Nana Patil, Keshavrao Jedhe, Madhavrao Bagal, and Khanderao Bagal kept this movement alive.
  • However, the Samaj gradually dissolved during the 1930s as these leaders started to join the Indian National Congress.

Question 32

_______ are those where a monthly instalment is deposited in the accounts every month.

  1. AOption (a)

    savings bank deposits

  2. BOption (b)

    reinvestment deposits

  3. COption (c)

    fixed deposits

  4. DOption (d)

    recurring deposits

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

recurring deposits

Why this answer is correct

Correct Answer recurring deposits

Key Points:

  • A Recurring Deposit or RD as it is commonly called is a unique term deposit offered by banks. It is an investment tool that permits those with the ability to make regular deposits to earn decent returns on their investment.
  • Consisting of regular deposits and an interest component, Recurring Deposits provide flexibility and ease of use to individuals.
  • The account holders can choose to invest a particular amount each month, ensuring that they have sufficient income for an emergency, with the RD earning decent interest on the amount.
  • The minimum period of a recurring deposit is 6 months and the maximum is 10 years.

Additional InformationTypes of Bank accounts are following

  • Savings Account
  • Recurring Deposit Account
  • Current Account
  • Fixed Deposit Account
  • DEMAT Account
  • NRI Account

The savings bank account

  • It is mostly eligible for pensioners, students, and working professionals.
  • The bank pays interest on the deposits.

Current Account

  • This type of bank account is mostly opened by businessmen and is useful when frequent transactions are needed on daily basis.
  • An overdraft facility is available.
  • No interest is paid on the deposits.

The NRI accounts are divided into 3 types are following

  • NRO ( Non-Resident Ordinary Rupees) Account
  • NRE ( Non-Resident External Rupees) Account
  • FCNR ( Foreign Currency Non-Resident ) Account

Fixed Deposit Account

  • It is a type of time deposit and a one-time takeaway account.

Demat Account

  • ​This account is opened for shares and securities holding electronically.

Question 33

When a magnesium ribbon is burnt in oxygen, it gets converted to ______.

  1. AOption (a)

    magnesium peroxide

  2. BOption (b)

    magnesium hydroxide

  3. COption (c)

    magnesium carbonate

  4. DOption (d)

    magnesium oxide

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

magnesium oxide

Why this answer is correct

Correct Answer magnesium oxide

Key PointsConcept: 

  • This is a redox type of reaction.
  • Redox is a reaction in which oxidation and reduction occur simultaneously.
  • Reduction is a reaction in which the addition of hydrogen takes place.
  • The reduction can also be defined in terms of the gain of electrons.
  • The reaction in which the addition of oxygen or removal of hydrogen takes place is known as an oxidation reaction.
  • Oxidation can also be defined in terms of loss of electrons.
  • Magnesium is designated as Mg.
  • Magnesium oxide is MgO.

Explanation:

  • Magnesium belongs to group 2 and is also a part of s block elements.
  • Atomic no. of Mg is 12
  • It has 2 valence electrons as seen from its electronic configuration, Mg =12 = 2,8,2.
  • Thus oxidation of Mg occurs by losing 2 electrons, and Mg forms Mg+2 ions.
  • These 2 electrons are gained by oxygen atoms forming O-2  ions thereby undergoing Reduction.
  • When Mg ribbon is burnt in presence of oxygen it reacts with the elemental oxygen forming Magnesium oxide.
  • Magnesium oxide thus form is a white colour, odourless powder.

Reaction:

2Mg  → 2Mg+2  +  4e-  ----------oxidation half reaction.

O2  + 4e-   → 2O-2   -------------Reduction half-reaction

​​ 2Mg   + O2     →    2MgO

Additional Information:

  • Magnesium oxide also may be used as a laxative for short-term, rapid emptying of the bowel (before surgery) however should not be used repeatedly.
  • When magnesium oxide is mixed with water, it is called magnesium hydroxide—this mixture helps in neutralizing stomach acid ( Acidity ).
  • MgO is a solid that is physically and chemically stable at high temperatures.

Question 34

Which of the following rocks may contain fossils of plants, animals and other microorganisms that once lived on them?

  1. AOption (a)

    Metamorphic rocks

  2. BOption (b)

    Intrusive igneous rocks

  3. COption (c)

    Sedimentary rocks

  4. DOption (d)

    Extrusive igneous rocks

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Sedimentary rocks

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sedimentary rocks.

Key Points: Sedimentary rocks are formed by the deposition of fragments of rocks by exogenous processes.

  • It is formed from pre-existing rocks or pieces of once-living organisms.
  • It is formed from sediments.
  • Sedimentary rocks are rocks that contain fossils.
  • The word ‘sedimentary’ is derived from the Latin word sedimentum, which means settling.
  • Sandstone, shale, and Chalk are some examples of Sedimentary Rocks.
  • Based on the mode of formation, sedimentary rocks are categorized into three groups:
  1. Mechanically formed.
  2. Chemically formed.
  3. Organically formed.

Additional InformationRock cycle:​​

  • Rocks do not remain in their original form for a long period.
  • They undergo a transformation.
  • This cycle is an uninterrupted process through which old rocks are converted into new ones.
  • Igneous rocks are primary rocks.
  • These rocks can be changed into metamorphic rocks.
  • Sedimentary and metamorphic rocks are formed from these primary rocks.
  • The fragments evolved out of metamorphic rocks and igneous again form into sedimentary rocks.
  • Sedimentary rocks themselves can develop into fragments.
  • The crustal rocks -igneous, metamorphic, and sedimentary-once formed may be carried down into the interior of the Earth through subduction.
  • In this process, parts or entire crustal plates subduct under another plate and the same melt at high temperatures in the interior.
  • This results in the formation of molten magma, the unique source for igneous rocks.
  • The process of transformation follows the steps,  'Igneous rocks - sediment - sedimentary rocks - metamorphic rocks - magma'​
  • The image below clearly explains the rock cycle.

Thus, the rock cycle consists of igneous rocks, sediments, sedimentary rocks, metamorphic rocks and magma.

  1. Weathering: it is a process of disintegration and breakdown of rocks due to the active functioning of weathering agent
  2. Decomposition: It is the process by which dead organic substances are broken down into simpler organic or inorganic matter such as carbon dioxide, water, simple sugars, and mineral salts.
  3. Compaction: In this process, the layers are squeezed together and any water mixed in with the sediments is forced out.

Question 35

Bade Ghulam Ali Khan was a prominent singer of the ______ gharana.

  1. AOption (a)

    Rampur Sahaswan

  2. BOption (b)

    Patiala

  3. COption (c)

    Benaras

  4. DOption (d)

    Bhendi Bazaar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Patiala

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Patiala

**Key Points:**Ustad Bade Ghulam Ali Khan

  • Indian Hindustani classical vocalist, from the Patiala Gharana.
  • Patiala Gharana was founded in the mid to late 19th century by his great-grandfather Mian Kallu.
  • His pen name: Sabrang
  • He was awarded by
  • Sangeet Natak Akademi Award (1962)
  • Sangeet Natak Akademi fellow (1967)
  • Padma Bhushan Award (1962)

Additional Information: Rampur Sahaswan:

  • Ustad Rashid Khan is an Indian classical musician in the Hindustani music tradition.
  • He belongs to the Rampur-Sahaswan Gharana.
  • Ustad Ghulam Mustafa Khan was an Indian classical musician in the Hindustani classical music tradition, belonging to the Rampur-Sahaswan Gharana.
  • Ustad Inayat Hussain Khan (1849–1919) was an Indian classical vocalist and the founder of Rampur-Sahaswan Gharana.

The Bhendi Bazaar Gharana was founded around 1890 by brothers Chhajju Khan, Nazir Khan, and Khadim Hussain Khan in the Bhendi bazaar area of Mumbai

Question 36

Union Government has launched the Eighth Edition of Swachh Survekshan SS-2023 under Swachh Bharat Mission Urban 2.0. It is curated towards achieving circularity in ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    industrial management

  2. BOption (b)

    waste management

  3. COption (c)

    roads management

  4. DOption (d)

    rainwater management

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

waste management

Why this answer is correct

Correct answer waste management

Key Points:

  • The Secretary, the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA), Manoj Joshi launched the 8th edition of Swachh Survekshan (SS) – SS 2023 under Swachh Bharat Mission Urban 2.0, on 24 May 2022.
  • Swachh Survekshan was introduced by MoHUA in 2016.
  • PM Modi launched the Swachh Bharat Mission Urban 2.0 on 1 October 2021, with a vision of garbage-free cities.
  • The theme of SS 2023 is ‘Waste to Wealth".

Important Points:

  • The survey would give priority to the principle of the 3Rs – Reduce, Recycle, and Reuse.
  • Over the years, Swachh Survekshan has emerged as the largest Urban sanitation survey in the world.
  • The seventh edition of Swachh Survekshan - ‘Azadi @ 75 Swachh Survekshan 2022’ was a landmark Survekshan as it coincided with the Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav.
  • The SS 2022 survey covered 4,355 cities, 85,860 wards, 2.12 lakhs locations visited, 5.5 lakhs documents assessed, 1.14 Crores citizen feedback recorded, 4.77 lakhs citizen validation undertaken, 23.38 lakhs photos and videos collected as evidence and 17.24 lakhs data points collected.

Question 37

Which of the following is NOT a way in which a batsman can get out in a game of cricket?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bowled

  2. BOption (b)

    Leg bye

  3. COption (c)

    Stumped

  4. DOption (d)

    Leg before wicket

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Leg bye

Why this answer is correct

Correct answer Leg bye

Key Points:

  • The Silly Point in cricket is the position where the fielder stands in close vicinity of the batsman and is in danger of being hit.

Cricket:

  • The first official cricket test match was played in the year 1877 between Australia and England in Melbourne.
  • When some other countries started playing cricket, Imperial Cricket Conference was formed in 1909, which gave birth to International Cricket Conference in 1956.
  • The First One Day International cricket match was played in the year 1971 between England and Australia in Melbourne.
  • The first World Cup of one-day matches was played in 1975 in London.
  • The apex institution of world cricket is the ‘International Cricket Council’ (ICC) and its headquarters are in Dubai.
  • The ICC was founded in 1909.
  • The Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) was formed in 1928.
  • Terms used in Cricket are Maiden Over, Follow-on, Rubber, Ashes, Catch, Bowled, Stump Out, Run Out, L.B.W. Hit Wicket, Not out, No ball, Wide ball, Dead ball, Overthrow, Bye, Leg bye, Cover drive, Late cut, Hook, Glance, Stroke, Spot, Pull, Sixer, Followthrough, Turn, Googley, Spin, Yorker, Bouncer, Hat trick, Round the wicket, Over the wicket, Seamer, Boundry line, Slip, Square leg, Runner. Cover, Gully, Long on, Silly point, Midwicket, Mid on, Forward short leg, Deep/mid-wicket, etc.

Trophies associated with cricket:

  • Moinuddaula Gold Cup
  • C.K. Naidu Trophy
  • Deodhar Trophy
  • Duleep Trophy
  • Rani Jhansi Trophy
  • Ranjit Trophy
  • Bowled: This dismissal occurs when the bowler's delivery knocks down the batsman's wicket (the three stumps with two bails on top).
  • Leg Before Wicket (LBW): This is when the umpire judges the ball would have hit the wicket if the batsman hadn't obstructed it with their body or pad.
  • Stumped: This dismissal happens when the batsman is out of their crease (the ground behind the wicket) and the wicket-keeper removes the bails with the ball in their hand while the batsman's foot is not grounded.

Question 38

Ziyauddin Barani wrote his chronicle first in 1356 and another version _____ years later.

  1. AOption (a)

    three

  2. BOption (b)

    eight

  3. COption (c)

    two

  4. DOption (d)

    five

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

two

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is two.

Key Points

  • Ziyauddin Barani wrote the first version of his chronicle in the year 1356.
  • He then rewrote the work two years later.
  • The second version was found in the 1960s.
  • Ziauddin Barani was a political thinker during the period of Muhammad bin Tughlaq and Firuz Shah of the Delhi Sultanate.
  • The two most well-known works of Barani are Tarikh-i-Firozshahi and Fatwa-i-Jahandari.
  • The Tarikh-i-Firozshahi was an interpretation of the history of the Delhi Sultanate up to the present Firuz-Shah-Tughlaq.
  • The Fatwa-i-Jahandari is a work containing the political ideals to be pursued by a Muslim ruler.

Additional Information

  • Muhammad Bin Tughlaq wants to shift his capital from Delhi to Daulatabad keeping in view the security from the Mongol attack.
  • Muhammad Bin Tughlaq was the son of Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq.
  • His real name was Ulugh Khan or Fakhruddin Jauna.
  • He ruled over the Delhi Sultanate from 1325 to 1351.
  • Muhammad Bin Tughlaq introduced the copper currency system in India.
  • Ibn Battuta was a famous Moroccan Muslim scholar and traveller who came to India during his regime.

Important Points

  • Tughlaq Dynasty
  • The Tughluq dynasty began during the period of medieval India and was of Turk-Indian Origin.
  • The dynasty majorly governed the Sultanate of Delhi.
  • The Tugluq dynasty began in 1320 and ended in 1413 and was ruled by many rulers like Ghazi Malik, Muhammad-bin-Tughluq, etc.
  • India witnessed significant changes in domestic and foreign policies during the reign of the Tughluq dynasty.
  • Ghiyas-ud-din Tughluq or Ghazi Malik was the founder of the Tughluq dynasty.

Question 39

If the State government dissolves the Panchayati Raj Institutions before the end of their five-year term, fresh elections should ordinarily be held within _____.

  1. AOption (a)

    one month

  2. BOption (b)

    six months

  3. COption (c)

    one year

  4. DOption (d)

    three months

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

six months

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Six months

Key Points:

  • If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within six months from the date of dissolution.
  • The term Panchayati Raj in India signifies the system of rural local self-government.
  • It had been established after the advice of the Balwant Rai Mehta committee, which is established by the Govt. of India in 1957.
  • This committee has three-tier panchayat governance such as Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, and Zila Parishad.
  • As a result of this scheme the first Panchayat system was introduced in Rajasthan in 1959.
  • This system observed a lack of people participation.
  • To overcome this failure a new committee named Ashok Mehta Committee gives a two-tier governance plan in 1977.
  • The two-tier plan was Zila Parishad and Mandal Panchayat.
  • This Panchayati Raj faced a major constitutional amendment in 1992 that brings back the three-tier system again.
  • This amendment added a new part to the Constitution, namely, added Part IX titled The Panchayats.
  • This amendment adds a Three-tier system of panchayats at the village, intermediate Mandal, and district levels except in States with a population is below 20 lakhs (Article 243B)
  • The Panchayat is constituted under Article 243 to 243 (O)

**Additional Information:**Duration of Panchayati Raj

  • The Act provides for a five-year term of office to all the levels of the panchayat.
  • However, the panchayat can be dissolved before the completion of its term.
  • But fresh elections to constitute the new panchayat should be completed before the expiry of its five-year duration.
  • In case of dissolution, the election should be within a period of six months from the date of its dissolution.

Question 40

Which of the following categories did Ram Sahay Panday receive the Padma Shri 2022 in?

  1. AOption (a)

    Carnatic Music

  2. BOption (b)

    Distinguished service in the field of art

  3. COption (c)

    Instrumentalist

  4. DOption (d)

    Singing

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Distinguished service in the field of art

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Distinguished service in the field of art.

In News

  • Five personalities from Madhya Pradesh were awarded the Padma Shri Dr. N P Mishra (posthumous), veteran Baiga artist Arjun Singh Dhurve, Rai dancer Ram Sahay Panday, Gond painter Durgabai Vyam and Bundeli poet Awadh Kishore Jadia.
  • Dr. Narendra Prasad Misra (Posthumous) was a renowned physician.
  • He was the dean of Gandhi Medical College at the time of the Bhopal Gas Disaster and his handling of the catastrophic situation is the stuff of legend.
  • The medical fraternity referred to him as 'Bhishma Pitamah' owing to his brilliant diagnosis and treatment.
  • Arjun Singh Dhurve and Durgabai Vyam are from Dindori.

**Key Points:**Padma Shri Awardee from Madhya Pradesh:

NameField
Shri Arjun Singh DhurveArt
Shri Avadh Kishore JadiaLit. and Education
Dr. Narendra Prasad Misra (Posthumous)Medicine
Shri Ram Sahay PandayArt
Ms Durga Bai VyamArt

Additional Information: Padma Awards 2022:

  • Padma Vibhushan (for exceptional and distinguished service) - 4 {Ms. Prabha Atre (Art), Shri Radheyshyam Khemka (Literature and Education), General Bipin Rawat (Civil Service) and Shri Kalyan Singh (Public Affairs)},
  • Padma Bhushan (distinguished service of higher order) - 17 and
  • Padma Shri (distinguished service) - 107

Question 41

Which of the following Articles states that a State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them?

  1. AOption (a)

    Article 15

  2. BOption (b)

    Article 59

  3. COption (c)

    Article 25

  4. DOption (d)

    Article 40

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Article 15

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Article 15.

Key Points

  • Article 15 (1) prohibits discrimination by the state against any citizen on grounds 'only' of caste, religion, sex, race, and place of birth.
  • Fundamental rights are provided to every citizen of the country without any discrimination.
  • The word "discrimination" refers to making adverse distinctions with regard to or to distinguish unfavorable from others.
  • The term 'only' means that discrimination can be done on the basis of other grounds.

**Additional Information:**There are six fundamental rights of the Indian Constitution along with the constitutional articles:

  1. Rights to equality (Article 14-18)
  2. Rights to freedom (Article 19-22)
  3. Right against exploitation (Article 23-24)
  4. Right to freedom of religion (Article 25-28)
  5. Cultural and educational rights (Article 29-30)
  6. Rights to constitutional remedies (Article 32).

Article 59:

  • Article 59 of the Constitution of India deals with of the conditions of the president’s office.
  • Article 52 to 78 in Part V of the Constitution deals with the Union Executive.
  • The union executive consists of the president, the vice president, the prime minister, the council of ministers, and the Attorney General of India.

Article 25:

  • Article 25 guarantees all citizens the freedom of conscience, as well as the freedom to profess, practice, and propagate religion.
  • Article 25 (1) - Subject to public order, morality, and health, as well as the other provisions of this Part, all persons have an equal right to conscience and the freedom to profess, practice, and propagate religion.
  • Article 25 (2) - Nothing in this article shall interfere with the operation of any existing law or prevent the State from enacting new legislation.
  • This regulates and limits any financial, economic, political, or other secular activity associated with any religious practice.
  • This provides for social welfare as well as the reform or opening up of Hindu religious institutions of a public nature to all sections and classes of Hindus.
  • This provision defines Hindus as people who practice the Sikh, Jain, or Buddhist religions, and Hindu institutions are also defined accordingly.
  • People of the Sikh faith who wear and carry the kirpan are considered to be practicing the Sikh religion.

Article 40:

  • Article 40 of the Indian constitution deals with the organization of the village panchayat.
  • It states that
  • The State shall take steps to organize village panchayats.
  • It also endows them with such powers and authority that will enable them to function as units of self-government.

Question 42

The Paramhans Mandali was established to work for the abolition of caste in ______.

  1. AOption (a)

    1830

  2. BOption (b)

    1840

  3. COption (c)

    1820

  4. DOption (d)

    1850

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1840

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1840.

**Key Points:**Paramhans Mandali -

  • It was a highly influential and important Hindu socio-religious organization.
  • This organization was founded by 'Dadoba Pandrung'.
  • Paramhans Mandali was established to work for the abolition of caste in **1840(1849).**​

Confusion Points

  • We have to choose the decade in which it is formed which is 1840(1849)​

Additional Information:

  • In the beginning, it functioned as a secret social-radical society.
  • The basic philosophy of the Samaj was that only God should be worshipped, true religion is based on love and ethical conduct.
  • This congregation urged all its members to give up caste restrictions.
  • The congregation met at fixed times in the homes of various members and sympathizers.
  • The members used to sing devotional hymns from the Marathi collection, Ratnamala, at the opening and conclusion of these meetings.
  • Members also recited prayers written by Dadoba as part of the worship service.

Question 43

What is the suffix for -OH group according to IUPAC?

  1. AOption (a)

    -ols

  2. BOption (b)

    -ene

  3. COption (c)

    -one

  4. DOption (d)

    -anes

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

-ols

Why this answer is correct

Correct Answer -ols

Key PointsExplanation:

  • The presence of the -OH group in an inorganic compound may lead to the formation of a BASE.
  • Say, for example, sodium, which is an inorganic element. When the hydroxy group is combined with sodium, it forms sodium hydroxide which is basic in nature.
  • The confirmation is obtained through the Arrhenius concept, which states that the compounds that contain hydroxyl (OH-)ions and emit OH- ions by ionization is called a base and on dissociation, NaOH releases a significant amount of OH- ions. As a result, it is called a base.
  • Other examples are Calcium and zinc.
  • Both are inorganic compounds and when a hydroxy group, that is, -OH is attached with them, they form a base.

Hence the correct answer is that the presence of the -OH group in an inorganic compound leads to the formation of a base.

Additional InformationConcept:

IUPAC nomenclature:

  • A systematic method of naming organic compounds.
  • Naming is based on their structures.
  • It is devised by the International Union of Pure and Applied chemistry.
  • Many rules are followed while naming the compounds and it is different for different functional groups.
  • The rules are known as IUPAC rules.

Explanation:

  • The priority of the functional groups is decided first.
  • The sequence is given as follows:

Question 44

What is the duration of the lunch interval in a cricket test match?

  1. AOption (a)

    25 minutes

  2. BOption (b)

    35 minutes

  3. COption (c)

    30 minutes

  4. DOption (d)

    40 minutes

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

40 minutes

Why this answer is correct

Correct Answer 40 minutes

Key Points

  • In a cricket Test match, the duration of the lunch interval is usually 40 minutes.
  • The lunch break is taken after the first session of play, which typically lasts for two hours.
  • During the lunch interval, the players leave the field and have a break to eat and rest before returning to continue the game.
  • The duration of the lunch interval can be extended by the umpires in case of rain or other interruptions to play.

Additional InformationCricket:

  • The first official cricket test match was played in the year 1877 between Australia and England in Melbourne.
  • When some other countries started playing cricket, Imperial Cricket Conference was formed in 1909, which gave birth to International Cricket Conference in 1956.
  • The First One Day International cricket match was played in the year 1971 between England and Australia in Melbourne.
  • The first World Cup of one-day matches was played in 1975 in London.
  • The apex institution of world cricket is the ‘International Cricket Council’ (ICC) and its headquarters are in Dubai.
  • The ICC was founded in 1909.
  • The Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) was formed in 1928.
  • Terms used in Cricket are Maiden Over, Follow-on, Rubber, Ashes, Catch, Bowled, Stump Out, Run Out, L.B.W. Hit Wicket, Not out, No ball, Wide ball, Dead ball, Overthrow, Bye, Leg bye, Cover drive, Late cut, Hook, Glance, Stroke, Spot, Pull, Sixer, Followthrough, Turn, Googley, Spin, Yorker, Bouncer, Hat trick, Round the wicket, Over the wicket, Seamer, Boundry line, Slip, Square leg, Runner. Cover, Gully, Long on, Silly point, Midwicket, Mid on, Forward short leg, Deep/mid-wicket, etc.

Trophies associated with cricket:

  • Moinuddaula Gold Cup
  • C.K. Naidu Trophy
  • Deodhar Trophy
  • Duleep Trophy
  • Rani Jhansi Trophy
  • Ranji Trophy

Question 45

In 1653, which French scientist observed that if some pressure is applied to any point of an incompressible fluid, the same pressure is transmitted to all points of the fluid and to the walls of the vessel?

  1. AOption (a)

    Daniel Bernoulli

  2. BOption (b)

    Evangelista Torricelli

  3. COption (c)

    Blaise Pascal

  4. DOption (d)

    Eugene Bourdon

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Blaise Pascal

Why this answer is correct

Correct Answer Blaise Pascal

Key Points

  • In 1653 French scientist who observed the principle you described is Blaise Pascal.
  • This principle is known as Pascal's law or the principle of transmission of fluid pressure.
  • States that pressure applied to an enclosed fluid is transmitted uniformly in all directions throughout the fluid and to the walls of the container.
  • This principle has many practical applications, such as in hydraulic systems and hydraulic lifts.
  • Pascal's law is one of the foundations of modern fluid mechanics and has had a significant impact on the fields of engineering and physics.

Additional Information Daniel Bernoulli:

  • One of Bernoulli's most important contributions to fluid dynamics was his principle of conservation of energy, which he formulated in 1738.
  • This principle states that as a fluid flows through a pipe, its total energy, consisting of its potential energy (due to its position in a gravitational field) and its kinetic energy (due to its motion), remains constant.

Evangelista Torricelli:

  • Evangelista Torricelli (1608-1647) was an Italian physicist and mathematician who is best known for his invention of the barometer and his work on the vacuum

Question 46

Identify a marine alga that is used as food.

  1. AOption (a)

    Ulothrix

  2. BOption (b)

    Sargassum

  3. COption (c)

    Spirogyra

  4. DOption (d)

    Volvox

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Sargassum

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sargassum.

Key Points:

The sea sargasso located within the Atlantic ocean is the only sea that does not have a land boundary is named after the sargassum algae which is a type of brown algae.

Blue-green algae are also called as cyanobacteria or cyanophytes.

  • They obtain energy through photosynthesis.
  • They originate in the freshwater or terrestrial environment.
  • They produce toxins known as cyanotoxins which are dangerous to humans and animals.
  • They are used as colours in food items, biotechnology for the production of bioethanol, human and animal food sources, dietary supplements, and raw materials.

Image of blue-green algae:

Red algae are also called Rhodophyta.

  • It is one of the oldest and largest groups of eukaryotic algae.
  • Agar-agar is obtained from red algae.
  • They are mostly found in marine habitats and are rarely found in freshwater.
  • Examples of Red algae are seaweeds, multicellular marine algae, etc.

Image of red algae:

Brown algae help in carbon fixation.

  • The scientific name of brown algae is Phaeophyceae.
  • They belong to the group Heterokontophyta.
  • The closest relative of brown algae is yellow-green algae.
  • Brown algae are used in lithium-ion batteries, battery anode, industrial thickening agent in food, and for other uses.

Image of brown algae:

Green algae have chloroplasts that contain chlorophyll which gives them a bright green colour.

  • The cell walls contain cellulose and they store carbohydrates in the form of starch.
  • Green algae are also known as spirogyra.
  • Its cell wall has lignin.

Image of green algae:

Additional Information:

  • Ulothrix is a genus of green algae in the family Ulotrichaceae. Ulothrix is a genus of non-branching filamentous green algae, generally found in fresh and marine water.
  • The cells are normally as broad as they are long, and they thrive in the low temperatures of spring and winter.
  • Ulothrix has one chloroplast present which is girdle shaped.
  • Pyrenoids are the protein-rich bodies that remain attached to the chloroplasts and are 1 - 4 in number
  • Reproduction in Ulothrix takes place by means of vegetative, asexual, and sexual methods

Spirogyra is a kind of Algae.

  • It is a large genus (about 400 species) of freshwater green algae found in shallow ponds, ditches, and amongst the vegetation of large lakes.
  • It does not form any gametes and reproduction takes place entirely within the alga.
  • It often grows in short-lived ponds that build up during wet weather and dry up subsequently.

Question 47

Himachal Pradesh Chief Minister has launched a 'Naari Ko Naman' scheme that will allow women passengers in the state to pay only ______ of the fare for their travel within the state.

  1. AOption (a)

    40%

  2. BOption (b)

    20%

  3. COption (c)

    30%

  4. DOption (d)

    50%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

50%

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 50%

Key Points:

  • Previous Himachal Pradesh CM Jai Ram Thakur on 30 June 2022 launched the 'Naari Ko Naman' scheme in Dharamshala.
  • Under this scheme, the Himachal Road Transport Corporation (HRTC) will charge women travelers only half**(50%)** the fare for their travel within the state.
  • Seema Thakur, the first woman bus driver in the state, drove the CM in a state transport bus to the event venue.

Additional Information:

  • ​Himachal Pradesh is a northern Indian state in the Himalayas.
  • It's home to scenic mountain towns and resorts such as Dalhousie.
  • The region is also well known for its trekking, climbing and skiing areas.
  • Himachal Pradesh:
  • Chief Minister (Current) : Sukhvinder Singh Sukhu
  • Capitals: Shimla (Summer), Dharamshala (Winter)
  • Governor: Shiv Pratap Shukla
  • State bird: Western tragopan
  • National Park: Great Himalayan National Park, Pin Valley National Park
  • State Animal: Snow Leopard
  • State Tree: Deodar Cadar

Question 48

What was the duration of Rolling Plan in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    1975 to 1977

  2. BOption (b)

    1977 to 1979

  3. COption (c)

    1976 to 1978

  4. DOption (d)

    1978 to 1980

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1978 to 1980

Why this answer is correct

Correct answer 1978 to 1980

Key Points:

  • Rolling Plan in India was started in 1978.
  • The rolling plan concept was coined by Gunnar Myrdal.
  • This plan was rejected again by the Indian National Congress government when it came to power in 1980 and a new sixth plan was made.
  • The main advantage of the rolling plans is that they are flexible.
  • The Rolling Plan is a plan in which every year the performance of the plan is assessed and a new plan is made next year based on this assessment.
  • Thus, both the allocation and targets are revised during this plan.
  • In India, the Janta Government terminated the fifth five-year plan in 1977-78 and launched its own sixth five-year plan for the period 1978-83 and called it a Rolling Plan.

Additional Information:

​A brief summary of the 5-year plans are: 

Five-year planTime PeriodComment
First Plan1951-56During the initial years of independence, the economy was facing the problem of large-scale foodgrains import (1951) and there was the pressure of price rise. In the plan, the highest priority was given to agriculture including irrigation and power projects. 

Second Plan1956-61The plan period was 1956–61. The plan laid emphasis on rapid industrialization with a focus on heavy industries and capital goods. The architect of this plan was Professor Mahalanobis.
Third Plan1961-65This plan incorporated the development of agriculture as one of the objectives of planning in India. It also for the first time, considered the aim of balanced, regional development. Significant events like the war with China in 1961– 62 and with Pakistan in 1965–66 affected the performance of this plan. Also, severe drought-led famine in 1965–66 led to a heavy drain and diversion of funds, so this plan utterly failed to meet its targets.
Three annual plans1966-69The fourth plan was ready for implementation in 1966- still the government opted for three annual plans due to weak financial situation and low morale after the defeat by China. Experts, as well as the opposition, called this period as a discontinuity in the planning process. So they named it a period of “Plan Holiday”, i.e., a period when no planning was carried out.
Fourth Plan1969-74The Plan was based on the Gadgil strategy (named after Dhananjay Ramchandra Gadgil, who was a social scientist who had helped in determining the allocation of central assistance for state plans in India.). There was a focus on the ideas of growth with stability and progress towards self-reliance. This plan led to the beginning of the politicisation of planning in India. This led to frequent double-digit inflations, unchecked increase in the fiscal deficits etc. Also, there was a first move in the direction of ‘nationalisation’. Greater control and regulation of the economy were some of the salient features of this plan
Fifth Plan1974-79This plan had its focus on poverty alleviation and self-reliance. The popular rhetoric of poverty alleviation was sensationalised a lot to the extent that the then Indira Gandhi government came out with a fresh plan, i.e., the Twenty-point Programme (1975).
Twenty point programme gave little importance to the objective of ‘growth with stability’ (one of the major objectives of the Fourth Plan).
Twenty Point programme1975
Sixth Plan1980-85Due to the draconian emergency, there was a change in the government at the centre. The new government cut-short the fifth plan by a year to the fiscal 1977–78 and came up with the sixth Plan for the period 1978–83 it was called the  ‘Rolling Plan’
In 1980, again government changed at the Centre, Indira led congress came back and it abandoned the rolling plan and came up with a fresh sixth plan (1980-85). This Plan was launched with the slogan of ‘Garibi Hatao’ (alleviate poverty).
Seventh Plan1985-90This plan greatly emphasized on rapid foodgrain production, increased employment creation and productivity in general. The basis of planning, i.e., growth, self-reliance and social justice and modernization in this plan too were the guiding principles. In 1989 the government launched the  Jawahar Rojgar Yojana (JRY) to create wage-employment for the rural poor.
Two annual Plans1990-92Due to the fast-changing political situation at the central level also due to the pathbreaking and restructuring-oriented suggestions which were there in the eighth plan, the eighth plan could not take off. The new government, which came in the power in 1991   decided to commence the Eighth Plan for the period 1992–97 and that the fiscals 1990–91 and 1991–92 were then decided as two separate annual plans.
Eighth Plan1992-97This was the first plan in the new economic environment after the opening of the economy. The economic reforms which began in  1991 led to structural adjustment and macro-stabilization policies. As the economy moved towards liberalization, there was also severe criticism directed at the move. The opinion was that as the country was now entering into the market economy zone and the state is ‘rolling back’, planning makes no sense.
Ninth Plan1997-2002This plan was launched when due to the South East Asian Financial Crisis in 1996-97, there was an all-round ‘slowdown’ in the economy. But by now the economy was almost out of the fiscal imbroglio of the early 1990s. The plan targeted an ambitious high growth rate of per cent and also aimed towards time-bound ‘social’ objectives. There was an emphasis on the seven identified Basic Minimum Services (BMS).
Tenth Plan2002-07The Plan mandated greater participation of the NDC in the formulation of planning. Some highly important steps like doubling of per capita income in 10 years; improving quality of life should also come with higher growth rates. Also,  ‘Governance’ was considered a factor of development.
Eleventh Plan2007-12This plan targeted a growth rate of 10 per cent and also voiced the idea of ‘inclusive growth’.
Twelfth Plan2012-17This plan was prepared by the Planning Commission after the widest and most comprehensive consultation to date as the government believed that citizens are now better informed and literate and are also keen to engage. The plan aimed at a growth rate of 9 per cent. It also emphasized the need to intensify efforts to have a 4 per cent average growth in the agriculture sector.

Question 49

Who among the following was the founder of the Kanva dynasty?

  1. AOption (a)

    Narayana

  2. BOption (b)

    Susharman

  3. COption (c)

    Vasudeva

  4. DOption (d)

    Devabhuti

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Vasudeva

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Vasudeva.

Key Points:

  • The Kanva dynasty had a Brahmanic origin.
  • The dynasty was named after the gotra of the ruler Kanva.
  • Vasudeva Kanva founded the Kanva dynasty.
  • It is believed that Vasudeva Kanva killed the Shunga ruler Devabhuti and established his own empire in 72 BCE.
  • He ruled for a short period and was succeeded by Bhumimitra.
  • The empire was extended into parts of eastern India and central India.
  • The Kanva dynasty had claimed Vidisa as their capital.

 The major rulers during that phase were:

  • Vasudeva Kanva
  • Bhumimitra
  • Narayana
  • Susarman
  • Bhumimitra ruled for a period of 14 years and his son Narayana ruled for 12 years.
  • The Satvahana dynasty defeated the Kanva dynasty and established their empire.
  • The last Kanva king Susarman was killed by the Satavahana (Andhra) king.

Additional Information: Bimbisara

  • Bimbisara, (born c. 543—died 491 BCE), was one of the early kings of the Indian kingdom of Magadha.
  • His expansion of the kingdom, especially his annexation of the kingdom of Anga to the east, is considered to have laid the foundations for the later expansion of the Mauryan empire.
  • He is also known for his cultural achievements and was a great friend and protector of the Buddha.
  • Bimbisara built the city of Rajagriha, famous in Buddhist writings.
  • He was succeeded on the throne by his son Ajatashatru, who murdered his father to obtain power.

Kalashoka

  • Kalashoka or Kakavarna was the son and successor of Shishunaga.
  • He divided his kingdom between his ten sons and crowned his ninth son, Nandivardhana as the king of Magadha.
  • Shishunaga had transferred the capital of Magadha to Vaishali.
  • Kalashoka succeeded his father Shishunaga.
  • Kalashoka again transferred the capital to Pataliputra.
  • According to Buddhist literature, the Second Buddhist Council was held 100 years after the Maha Parinirvana of Lord Buddha, in Vaishali, was patronized by King Kalashoka.

Ajatashatru 

  • Ajatasattu in the Buddhist tradition, or Kunika (Kū���ika) and Kuniya (Kūṇiya) in the Jain histories, (c. 492 to 460 BCE or early 5th century BCE) was one of the most important kings of the Haryanka dynasty of Magadha in East India.
  • He was the son of King Bimbisara and was a contemporary of both Mahavira and Gautama Buddha.
  • He forcefully took over the kingdom of Magadha from his father and imprisoned him.
  • He fought a war against the Vajjika League, led by the Licchavis, and conquered the republic of Vaishali.

Question 50

Who has been named as the new chief minister of Tripura in May 2022?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rajiv Rajan

  2. BOption (b)

    Sangeeta Singh

  3. COption (c)

    Mahesh Verma

  4. DOption (d)

    Manik Saha

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Manik Saha

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Manik Saha.

Key Points

  • Manik Saha took oath as Tripura's new Chief Minister on 15th May 2022.
  • Saha has replaced Biplab Kumar Deb, who resigned as chief minister on 14th May.
  • Dr. Saha, a professor of Dental Surgery, joined the BJP in 2016.
  • Rajya Sabha MP and BJP State President Manik Saha is all set to take charge as the new Chief Minister of Tripura.
  • Manik Saha, BJP's state unit president, and the lone Rajya Sabha MP from Tripura were elected as the leader of the legislature party at a meeting held at the official residence of the chief minister.

Additional Information:

  • ​Tripura is a hilly state in northeast India, bordered on 3 sides by Bangladesh, and home to a diverse mix of tribal cultures and religious groups.

​Tripura:

  • Union territory: 1 November 1956
  • Upgraded as a state: 21 January 1972
  • Tripura Governor: Satyadev Narayan Arya
  • Tripura capital: Agartala
  • Legislature: Unicameral (60 seats)
  • According to Article 164 of the Indian Constitution, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor.
  • Art. 164 of the Constitution provides that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister to aid and advise the Governor.

Quantitative Aptitude (25 questions)

Question 51

The HCF of three numbers 98, 175 and 210 will be:

  1. AOption (a)

    6

  2. BOption (b)

    3

  3. COption (c)

    5

  4. DOption (d)

    7

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

7

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The numbers are 98, 175, and 210.

Concept:

HCF: Product of the smallest power of each common prime factor in the numbers.

Calculation:

98 = 2 × 72

175 = 52 × 7

210 = 2 × 3 × 5 × 7

So, HCF = 7

∴ The required answer is 7.

Question 52

If two circles of radii 18 cm and 8 cm touch externally, then the length of a direct common tangent is:

  1. AOption (a)

    24 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    14 cm

  3. COption (c)

    16 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    12 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

24 cm

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Two circles of radii 18 cm and 8 cm touch externally

Concept used:

If two circles of radius R1 and R2 are touched externally then their direct common tangent = 2√(R1 and R2)

Calculation:

R1 = 18 cm

R2 = 8 cm

So, Direct common tangent = 2√(18 × 8)

⇒ 2√144

⇒ 2 × 12

⇒ 24 cm

∴ The length of the direct common tangent is 24 cm.

Question 53

The table given below shows the number of tractor sold by two companies.

Company
TractorPQ
T16090
T24050
T380100
T490120
T5110150

Number of tractor T5 sold by both companies is how much percent more than the number of tractor T2 sold by both companies?

  1. AOption (a)

    162.66 percent

  2. BOption (b)

    172.44 percent

  3. COption (c)

    266.32 percent

  4. DOption (d)

    188.88 percent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

188.88 percent

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

Number of tractor T5 sold by both companies = 110 + 150

⇒ 260

Number of tractor T2 sold by both companies = 40 + 50

⇒ 90

Difference = 260 - 90

⇒ 170

Required % = (170/90) × 100

⇒ 188.88%

∴ The required answer is 188.88%.

Question 54

Raghav purchased a shirt at Rs. 1,500 and marked up the price of the shirt by 40%. What is the discount percentage he has to offer in order to get a profit of Rs. 75?

  1. AOption (a)

    25%

  2. BOption (b)

    15%

  3. COption (c)

    75%

  4. DOption (d)

    50%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

25%

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Assume Cost Price (CP) = 100%, then Marked Price (MP) = 100% + 40% = 140%.

Profit % on CP = (75 ÷ 1500) × 100 = 5% ⇒ Selling Price (SP) = 105%.

Discount is given on MP, so Discount = MP − SP = 140% − 105% = 35%.

Discount % = (Discount ÷ MP) × 100 = (35 ÷ 140) × 100 = 25%.

∴ The correct answer is 25%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Cost Price (CP) = ₹1500

Markup = 40%

Profit = ₹75

Formula Used:

Marked Price (MP) = CP × (1 + Markup% ÷ 100)

Selling Price (SP) = CP + Profit

Discount % = ((MP − SP) ÷ MP) × 100

Calculations:

⇒ MP = 1500 × (1 + 40 ÷ 100) = 1500 × 1.4 = ₹2100

⇒ SP = 1500 + 75 = ₹1575

⇒ Discount = MP − SP = 2100 − 1575 = ₹525

⇒ Discount % = (525 ÷ 2100) × 100 = 25%

∴ The correct answer is 25%.

Additional Information

Marked Price (MP) & Discount

MP is the price printed or tagged on an article. Discounts are always calculated on the MP unless stated otherwise. The formula is: SP = MP − Discount.

Successive Discounts

If two successive discounts of d1% and d2% are given on an article, the equivalent single discount given is (d1 + d2 − (d1 × d2) ÷ 100)%.

Direct CP to MP Ratio

The direct ratio between Cost Price and Marked Price can be quickly written as CP ÷ MP = (100 − Discount%) ÷ (100 + Profit%).

Question 55

What is the ASA congruence rule of triangles, where A and S represents angle and side of triangle respectively?

  1. AOption (a)

    Two triangles are said to be congruent if all three sides of both the triangles are equal.

  2. BOption (b)

    Two triangles are said to be congruent if 2 angles and the included side of one triangle are equal to 2 angles and the included side of the other triangle.

  3. COption (c)

    Two triangles are said to be congruent if 2 sides and the included angle of one triangle are equal to 2 sides and the included angle of the other triangle.

  4. DOption (d)

    Two triangles are said to be congruent if any pair of 2 angles and any 1 pair of sides of both the triangles are equal.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Two triangles are said to be congruent if 2 angles and the included side of one triangle are equal to 2 angles and the included side of the other triangle.

Why this answer is correct

Two triangles are said to be congruent if two angles and the included side of one triangle are equal to the corresponding two angles and the included side of the other triangle.

In the above figure, ∠B = ∠Q, ∠C = ∠R, and the side between ∠B and ∠C is equal to the side between ∠Q and ∠R, i.e., BC = QR.

Therefore, ΔABC ≅ ΔPQR.

∴ The correct answer is option 2.

Question 56

If the seven-digit number 52A6B7C is divisible by 33, and A, B, C are primes, then the maximum value of 2A + 3B + C is:

  1. AOption (a)

    32

  2. BOption (b)

    23

  3. COption (c)

    27

  4. DOption (d)

    34

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

23

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The seven-digit number 52A6B7C is divisible by 33

Concept used:

If the difference of the sum of alternative digits of a number is divisible by 11, then that number is divisible by 11 completely.

If the sum of digits of a number is a multiple of 3, the number will be completely divisible by 3.

Calculation:

5 + 2 + A + 6 + B + 7 + C = 20 + A + B + C

Possible values of (A + B + C) = 1, 4, 7, 10, 13, 16, 19, 22, 25

Again,

5 + A + B + C - 2 - 6 - 7 = 0 or Multiple of 11

⇒ 5 + A + B + C - 15 = 0 or Multiple of 11

From the above possible values, for (A + B + C) = 10 we get 0

So, A + B + C = 10

Now,

If A = 5, B = 3, C = 2

2A + 3B + C = 10 + 9 + 2

⇒ 21

If A = 3, B = 5, C = 2

2A + 3B + C = 6 + 15 + 2

⇒ 23

If A = 3, B = 2, C = 5

2A + 3B + C = 6 + 6 + 2

⇒ 17

If A = 2, B = 5, C = 3

2A + 3B + C = 4 + 15 + 3

⇒ 22

So, The maximum value of 2A + 3B + C is 23.

∴ The required answer is 23.

Question 57

The diameters of two circles are 12 cm and 20 cm, respectively and the distance between their centres is 16 cm. Find the number of common tangents to the circles.

  1. AOption (a)

    2

  2. BOption (b)

    3

  3. COption (c)

    1

  4. DOption (d)

    4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

3

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The diameters of the two circles are 12 cm and 20 cm

The distance between their centres is 16 cm

Calculation:

According to the diagram,

The two circles are touching each other externally

So, the number of common tangents will be 3

∴ The required answer is 3.

Question 58

If tan3θ⋅tan7θ = 1, where 7θ is an acute angle, then find the value of cot15θ.

  1. AOption (a)

    1

  2. BOption (b)

    -1

  3. COption (c)

    −3-\sqrt3

  4. DOption (d)

    3\sqrt3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

-1

Why this answer is correct

Given:

tan3θ⋅tan7θ = 1

Concept used:

Calculation:

tan3θ⋅tan7θ = 1

⇒  tan3θ = 1/tan7θ

⇒  tan3θ = cot7θ

⇒  tan3θ = tan(90° - 7θ)

⇒ 3θ = 90° - 7θ

⇒ 10θ = 90°

⇒ θ = 9°

So, cot15θ = cot135° = - tan45°

⇒ - 1

∴ The required answer is - 1.

Question 59

The table given below shows the number of scissor sold by five shopkeepers.

ShopkeepersScissors
P30
Q50
R45
S25
T70

What are the ratio of number of scissor sold by R to the sold by S?

  1. AOption (a)

    5 ∶ 8

  2. BOption (b)

    8 ∶ 3

  3. COption (c)

    9 ∶ 5

  4. DOption (d)

    5 ∶ 9

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

9 ∶ 5

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

Number of scissors sold by R = 45

Number of scissors sold by S = 25

Ratio = 45 : 25

⇒ 9 : 5

∴ The required answer is 9 : 5.

Question 60

A watch is sold at a profit of 25%. Had it been sold for Rs. 120 less then, there would have been a loss of 15%. What is the cost price in rupees?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 400

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 350

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 200

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 300

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Rs. 300

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A watch is sold at a profit of 25%. Had it been sold for Rs. 120 less then, there would have been a loss of 15%.

Calculation:

Let the cost price be 100a

According to the question,

100a × 125% - 120 = 100a × 85%

⇒ 125a - 120 = 85a

⇒ 40a = 120

⇒ a = 3

So, cost price = 100 × 3 = Rs. 300

⇒ Rs. 300

∴ The cost price in rupees is 300.

Question 61

Some students went on a field trip. At a speed of 6 km/h, they travelled by bikes for 2 hours; then at a speed of 2 km/h, they walked for another hour; then they took rest for an hour and had lunch for half an hour; then at a speed of 1 m/s, they walked for an hour to visit a garden; and finally at a speed 4 km/h, they returned home in 3 hours. Their average speed, in km/h, (rounded off to two places of decimal) is:

  1. AOption (a)

    3.48

  2. BOption (b)

    129.23

  3. COption (c)

    0.28

  4. DOption (d)

    251.62

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

3.48

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Some students went on a field trip. At a speed of 6 km/h, they travelled by bikes for 2 hours; then at a speed of 2 km/h, they walked for another hour; then they took rest for an hour and had lunch for half an hour; then at a speed of 1 m/s, they walked for an hour to visit a garden; and finally at a speed 4 km/h, they returned home in 3 hours.

Concept used:

Average speed = Total distance/Total time

Calculation:

Total distance covered by them = 6 × 2 + 2 × 1 + 1 × (18/5) + 4 × 3

⇒ 12 + 2 + 3.6 + 12

⇒ 29.6

Total time = 2 + 1 + 1.5 + 1 + 3

⇒ 8.5

Average speed = 29.6/8.5

⇒ 3.48235 ≈ 3.48

∴ The average speed is 3.48 km/h.

Question 62

If the side of an equilateral triangle is 16 cm, then what is its area?

  1. AOption (a)

    81381\sqrt3 cm2

  2. BOption (b)

    48348\sqrt3 cm2

  3. COption (c)

    32332\sqrt3 cm2

  4. DOption (d)

    64364\sqrt3 cm2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

64364\sqrt3 cm2

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The side of the equilateral triangle is 16 cm.

Concept used:

Area of equilateral triangle = √3/4 × a2

Here,

a = side of the triangle

Calculation:

√3/4 × 162 

⇒ √3/4 × 256

⇒ 64√3 cm2

∴ The area of the equilateral triangle is 64√3 cm2.

Question 63

In a proportion, the 1st, 2nd and 4th terms are 51, 68 and 108, respectively. What is the 3rd term?

  1. AOption (a)

    84

  2. BOption (b)

    83

  3. COption (c)

    82

  4. DOption (d)

    81

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

81

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

The given terms are in proportion, meaning the ratio of the first two terms equals the ratio of the last two terms.

Ratio of 1st to 2nd term = 51 / 68 = 3 / 4

Therefore, the ratio of the 3rd term to the 4th term must also be 3 / 4.

3rd term = 108 × 3 / 4 = 81

∴ The correct answer is 81.

Alternate Method

Given:

1st term = 51

2nd term = 68

4th term = 108

Formula Used:

If a, b, c, d are in proportion, then a : b :: c : d ⇒ a × d = b × c (Product of extremes = Product of means)

Proportion: a : b :: c : d

51

:

68

::

x

:

108

Product of Means (68 × x)

Product of Extremes (51 × 108)

68 × x = 51 × 108

Calculations:

Let the 3rd term be x.

⇒ 51 : 68 :: x : 108

⇒ 51 ÷ 68 = x ÷ 108

⇒ 68 × x = 51 × 108

⇒ x = (51 × 108) ÷ 68

⇒ x = (3 × 108) ÷ 4

⇒ x = 3 × 27

⇒ x = 81

∴ The correct answer is 81.

Additional Information

Proportion

When two ratios are strictly equal, they form a proportion. It is represented as a : b :: c : d, where the Product of Means (b × c) equals the Product of Extremes (a × d).

Fourth Proportional

If a : b :: c : d, then 'd' is known as the fourth proportional to a, b, and c. It is easily found using the formula d = (b × c) ÷ a.

Mean Proportional

If three specific quantities are in continued proportion (a : b :: b : c), then 'b' is the mean proportional between 'a' and 'c'. Its value is calculated as b = √(a × c).

Question 64

Find the value of secθ - tanθ, if secθ + tanθ = 5\sqrt5.

  1. AOption (a)

    5

  2. BOption (b)

    5155\frac{1}{5}

  3. COption (c)

    55\frac{\sqrt5}{5}

  4. DOption (d)

    5\sqrt5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

55\frac{\sqrt5}{5}

Why this answer is correct

Given:

secθ + tanθ = 5\sqrt5

Concept used:

sec2θ - tan2θ = 1

Calculation:

sec2θ - tan2θ = 1

⇒ (secθ + tanθ)(secθ - tanθ) = 1

⇒ 5\sqrt5.(secθ - tanθ) = 1

⇒ secθ - tanθ = 15\frac{1}{\sqrt5}

⇒ secθ - tanθ = 55×5\frac{\sqrt5}{\sqrt5\times\sqrt5}

⇒ secθ - tanθ = 55\frac{\sqrt5}{5}

∴ The required answer is 55\frac{\sqrt5}{5}.

Question 65

The production of ABC Ltd is as follows.

Product20212022
A120150
B160200
C250300
D6090
E3050
F110132

For which product did the company record the highest growth rate?

  1. AOption (a)

    F

  2. BOption (b)

    E

  3. COption (c)

    D

  4. DOption (d)

    B

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

E

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

Growth in F = 132 - 110

⇒ 22

% of growth = (22/110) × 100

⇒ 20%

Growth in E = 50 - 30

⇒ 20

% of growth = (20/30) × 100

⇒ 66.67%

Growth in D = 90 - 60

⇒ 30

% of growth = (30/60) × 100

⇒ 50%

Growth in B = 200 - 160

⇒ 40

% of growth = (40/160) × 100

⇒ 25%

∴ The required answer is E.

Question 66

A person deposited ₹15,600 in a fixed deposit at 10% per annum simple interest. After every second year he adds his interest earned to the principal. The interest at the end of 4 years is:

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹6,655

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹6,864

  3. COption (c)

    ₹3,975

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹3,744

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

₹6,864

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A person deposited ₹15,600 in a fixed deposit at 10% per annum simple interest.

Concept used:

S.I = (P × T × R)/100

Here,

P = Principal

T = Time

R = Rate 

Calculation:

Interest after 2 years = (15600 × 10 × 2)/100

⇒ 3120

New principal after 2 years = 15600 + 3120

⇒ 18720

Now,

Interest after next 2 years = (18720 × 10 × 2)/100

⇒ 3744

Now,

Total interest after 4 years = 3120 + 3744

⇒ 6864

∴ The required answer is 6864.

Question 67

If p = 8.15, q = 9.06 and r = -17.21, then the value of p3 + q3 + r3 - 3pqr is:

  1. AOption (a)

    -3.81

  2. BOption (b)

    -5.62

  3. COption (c)

    4.75

  4. DOption (d)

    0

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

0

Why this answer is correct

Given:

p = 8.15, q = 9.06 and r = -17.21

Concept used:

If a + b + c = 0

Then,

a3 + b3 + c3 - 3abc = 0

Calculation:

p + q + r = 8.15 + 9.06 - 17.21

⇒ 17.21 - 17.21

⇒ 0

So, p3 + q3 + r3 - 3pqr = 0

∴ The required answer is 0.

Question 68

Out of an earning of Rs. 720, Pankaj spends 65%. How much does he save?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 250

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 252

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 253

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 251

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rs. 252

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Out of an earning of Rs. 720, Pankaj spends 65%.

Calculation:

Savings of Pankaj = 720 × (100 - 65)%

⇒ 720 × 35%

⇒ 252

∴ He saves Rs. 252.

Question 69

Ram starts from point A at 8 a.m. and reaches point B at 2 p.m. on the same day. On the same day, Raju starts from point B at 8 a.m. and reaches point A at 6 p.m. on the same day. Both points A and B are separated by only a straight line track. At what time they both meet?

  1. AOption (a)

    11:45 a.m.

  2. BOption (b)

    9:42 a.m

  3. COption (c)

    10:42 a m.

  4. DOption (d)

    12:42 p.m.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

11:45 a.m.

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Ram starts from point A at 8 a.m. and reaches point B at 2 p.m. on the same day.

Raju starts from point B at 8 a.m. and reaches point A at 6 p.m.

Concept used:

Speed = Distance/Time

When two bodies move in the opposite direction then the Relative Speed = Sum of Speeds

Calculation:

Let the distance be D

So, speed of Ram = D/6 and speed of Raju = D/10

Now,

Relative speed = D/6 + D/10

⇒ (5D + 3D)/30

⇒ (8D)/30

Required time = D8D30\rm \frac{D}{\frac{8D}{30}}

⇒ 30D8D\rm \frac{30D}{8D}

⇒ 308\rm \frac{30}{8} hours or 225 minutes   [As 1 hour = 60 min]

So, they will meet at 8 + 225 min

⇒ 8 + 3 hours and 45 min

⇒ 11:45 a.m.

∴ The required answer is 11:45 a.m.

Question 70

A is 40% more efficient than B. How much time will both, working together, take to finish the work, which B alone can finish in 36 days?

  1. AOption (a)

    18 days

  2. BOption (b)

    9139\frac{1}{3} days

  3. COption (c)

    15 days

  4. DOption (d)

    112311\frac{2}{3} days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

15 days

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A is 40% more efficient than B

B can complete the task in 36 days.

Concept used:

Total work = Efficiency of the worker × time taken by the worker

Calculation:

Let the efficiency of B be 10a

So, efficiency of A = 10a × 140%

⇒ 14a

So, total work = 10a × 36

⇒ 360a

Now,

If they both work then time = 360a/(14a + 10a)

⇒ 360a/24a

⇒ 360/24

⇒ 15

∴ The required answer is 15 days.

Shortcut Trick

A is 40% more efficient than B, then the efficiency of A : B = 140 : 100 = 7 : 5

B alone can finish in 36 days, then total work = (5 × 36) = 180 unit

If A & B both working together, time taken = 180/(7 + 5) = 180/12 = 15 days

Question 71

The value of 1.6×1.6×1.6−0.6×0.6×0.61.6×1.6+1.6×0.6+0.6×0.6\frac{1.6\times1.6\times1.6-0.6\times0.6\times0.6}{1.6\times1.6+1.6\times0.6+0.6\times0.6} is:

  1. AOption (a)

    0

  2. BOption (b)

    1

  3. COption (c)

    -1

  4. DOption (d)

    2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1

Why this answer is correct

Given:

1.6×1.6×1.6−0.6×0.6×0.61.6×1.6+1.6×0.6+0.6×0.6\frac{1.6\times1.6\times1.6-0.6\times0.6\times0.6}{1.6\times1.6+1.6\times0.6+0.6\times0.6}

Concept used:

a3 - b3 = (a - b)(a2 + b2 + ab)

Calculation:

1.6×1.6×1.6−0.6×0.6×0.61.6×1.6+1.6×0.6+0.6×0.6\frac{1.6\times1.6\times1.6-0.6\times0.6\times0.6}{1.6\times1.6+1.6\times0.6+0.6\times0.6}

⇒ 1.63−0.631.62+1.6×0.6+0.62\frac{1.6^3-0.6^3}{1.6^2+1.6\times0.6+0.6^2}

⇒ (1.6−0.6)(1.62+1.6×0.6+0.62)1.62+1.6×0.6+0.62\frac{(1.6-0.6)(1.6^2+1.6\times0.6+0.6^2)}{1.6^2+1.6\times0.6+0.6^2}

⇒ 1.6 - 0.6

⇒ 1

∴ The required answer is 1.

Question 72

Area of the floor of a cubical room is 64 m2. The length of the longest rod that can be kept in the room is:

  1. AOption (a)

    16316\sqrt3 m

  2. BOption (b)

    434\sqrt3 m

  3. COption (c)

    12312\sqrt3 m

  4. DOption (d)

    838\sqrt3 m

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

838\sqrt3 m

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Area of floor (a2) = 64 m2

⇒ Side (a) = √64 = 8 m

Longest rod in a cube = Body Diagonal = a√3

⇒ Longest rod = 8√3 m

∴ The correct answer is 8√3 m.

Alternate Method

Given:

Area of the cubical floor = 64 m2

Formula Used:

  1. Area of square floor = a2
  2. Length of longest rod (Diagonal of cube) = √(l2 + b2 + h2) = a√3

Calculations:

⇒ Area of floor = a2 = 64

⇒ a = √64

⇒ a = 8 m

⇒ Length of the longest rod = a√3

⇒ Length = 8 × √3

⇒ Length = 8√3 m

∴ The correct answer is 8√3 m.

Additional Information

Volume of Cube

The total space occupied by the cube is given by V = a3, where a is the side length.

Total Surface Area (TSA)

The sum of the areas of all six faces of the cube is TSA = 6a2.

Lateral Surface Area (LSA)

The area of the four vertical walls of the room is LSA = 4a2.

Face Diagonal

The diagonal of any single square face of the cube is given by d = a√2.

Question 73

If 2 sinθ + 2 sin2θ = 2, then the value of 2 cos4θ + 2 cos2θ is:

  1. AOption (a)

    4

  2. BOption (b)

    2

  3. COption (c)

    1

  4. DOption (d)

    0

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2

Why this answer is correct

Given:

2 sinθ + 2 sin2θ = 2

Concept used:

sin2 θ + cos2 θ = 1

Calculation:

2 sinθ + 2 sin2θ = 2

⇒ sinθ + sin2θ = 1

⇒ sin θ + 1 - cos2 θ = 1

⇒ sin θ = cos2 θ

⇒ cos4 θ = sin2 θ

So,

2 cos4θ + 2 cos2θ = 2 sin2 θ + 2 sin θ

⇒ 2

∴ The required answer is 2.

Question 74

If x4 + 16x4\frac{16}{x^4} = 15617, x > 0, then find the value of x + 2x\frac{2}{x}.

  1. AOption (a)

    121\sqrt{121}

  2. BOption (b)

    129\sqrt{129}

  3. COption (c)

    123\sqrt{123}

  4. DOption (d)

    127\sqrt{127}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

129\sqrt{129}

Why this answer is correct

Given:

x4 + 16x4\frac{16}{x^4} = 15617

Concept used:

(a + b)2 = a2 + b2 + 2ab

Calculation:

x4 + 16x4\frac{16}{x^4} = 15617

⇒ (x2)2 + (4x2)2(\frac{4}{x^2})^2 = 15617

⇒ (x2)2 + (4x2)2(\frac{4}{x^2})^2 + 2 × x2 × (4x2)(\frac{4}{x^2}) = 15617 + 2 × x2 × (4x2)(\frac{4}{x^2})

⇒ (x2)2 + (4x2)2(\frac{4}{x^2})^2 + 8 = 15617 + 8

⇒ (x2 + 4x2\frac{4}{x^2})2 = 15625

⇒ x2 + 4x2\frac{4}{x^2} = 125

⇒ (x)2 + (2x)2(\frac{2}{x})^2 + 2 × x × (2x)(\frac{2}{x}) = 125 + 2 × x × (2x)(\frac{2}{x})

⇒ (x)2 + (2x)2(\frac{2}{x})^2 + 4 = 125 + 4

⇒ (x + 2x\frac{2}{x})2 = 129

⇒ x + 2x\frac{2}{x} = 129\sqrt{129}

∴ The required answer is 129\sqrt{129}.

Question 75

The pie chart given below shows the marks obtained by student Q in 6 different subjects. The total marks obtained by the student in these subjects is 700. Marks obtained in a particular subject is shown as a percent of total marks obtained in all these 6 subjects.

What is total marks obtained in Q, S and U?

  1. AOption (a)

    312

  2. BOption (b)

    306

  3. COption (c)

    294

  4. DOption (d)

    308

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

308

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

Marks obtained in Q = 700 × 13%

⇒ 91

Marks obtained in S = 700 × 11%

⇒ 77

Marks obtained in U = 700 × 20%

⇒ 140

Total marks obtained in Q, S and U = 91 + 77 + 140

⇒ 308

∴ The required answer is 308.

English Comprehension (25 questions)

Question 76

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Feud

  1. AOption (a)

    Harmony

  2. BOption (b)

    Distrust

  3. COption (c)

    Unfriendliness

  4. DOption (d)

    Destruct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Harmony

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Harmony'.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate antonym of the given word 'Feud' is 'Harmony'.
  • Feud: झगड़ा - a prolonged and bitter quarrel or dispute between two parties.
  • Example: The two families have been in a feud for generations over a piece of land.
  • Harmony: समंजस - a pleasing combination or arrangement of different elements, leading to a peaceful and friendly relationship. 
  • Example: The choir's performance was marked by a beautiful harmony of voices.

Correct Answer: Harmony.

Additional Information

  • Let's look at the meaning of other words:
  • Distrust: अविश्वास - a feeling of doubt or suspicion towards someone or something.
  • Unfriendliness: असभ्यता - a lack of friendliness or warmth, often resulting in hostility or unpleasantness.
  • Destruct: विनाश - the act or process of destroying something completely.

Question 77

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.

I don’t like being seen in tears by people.

  1. AOption (a)

    I don’t like people had been seeing me in tears.

  2. BOption (b)

    I don’t like people seeing me in tears.

  3. COption (c)

    I don’t like people to see me in tears.

  4. DOption (d)

    I don’t like myself to be seen in tears.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

I don’t like people seeing me in tears.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'I don’t like people seeing me in tears.'

Key Points

  • The given sentence is in Passive Voice. As per the given question, we have to change it to Active Voice.
  • Here, Option 2 is the correct answer.
  • In the given sentence, the subject 'I' is not performing the action of the verb directly. Instead, the action of the verb is being done to the subject. This is known as the passive voice.
  • In the active voice, the subject performs the action of the verb directly. The sentence "people seeing me in tears" can be rephrased as "people see me in tears" to put it in the active voice.
  • Let's see why other options are incorrect:
  • Option 1 is not grammatically correct as it uses the past perfect tense ("had been seeing") which is not appropriate for the sentence.
  • Option 3 is also grammatically correct and expresses the same meaning as option 2, but it is more verbose and less concise.
  • Option 4 changes the meaning of the sentence slightly by making it more focused on the subject's own preference rather than the action of others.

Correct Answer: I don’t like people seeing me in tears.

Question 78

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Eat humble pie

  1. AOption (a)

    To apologise humbly

  2. BOption (b)

    To live in penury

  3. COption (c)

    To live a life of humility

  4. DOption (d)

    To enjoy life to the fullest

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

To apologise humbly

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'To apologise humbly'.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate meaning of the given idiom 'Eat humble pie' is 'To apologise humbly'.
  • The idiom "eat humble pie" means to admit one's fault, mistake, or inferiority in a humble and contrite manner.
  • Example: After boasting about his abilities, he had to eat a humble pie when he failed to complete the task.

Correct Answer: To apologise humbly.

Additional Information

  • Let's look at the meaning of other words:
  • The phrase "eat humble pie" is believed to have originated from the Medieval English dish "umble pie", which was a pie made from the offal (internal organs) of an animal, such as deer or boar.
  • The word "umble" comes from the Latin word "umbilicus" meaning "entrails". This pie was considered a lowly and inferior food, and it was often served to lower-class people, such as servants, instead of the higher-quality meat pies that were reserved for the wealthy.
  • Over time, the phrase "eat humble pie" evolved to mean admitting to one's lowly or inferior position or behavior in a humble and contrite way, much like the act of eating a humble pie.

Question 79

Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the following sentence.

It is a deeply regrettable fact that deforestation has had a substantial consequenses on the environment.

  1. AOption (a)

    deforestation

  2. BOption (b)

    substantial

  3. COption (c)

    regrettable

  4. DOption (d)

    consequenses

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

consequenses

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'consequenses'.

Key Points

  • Among the given Options the incorrectly spelt word is 'Consequenses'.
  • Its correct spelling is 'Consequences'.
  • Consequences: परिणाम - the effect or outcome of an action or decision.
  • Example: The consequences of his reckless driving were severe and resulted in multiple injuries.

Correct Answer: consequenses.

Additional Information

  • Let's look at the meaning of other words:
  • Deforestation: वनों की कटाई - the clearing or removal of forests or trees from a large area.
  • Substantial: ठोस - of considerable importance, size, or worth.
  • Regrettable: खेदजनक - causing or deserving regret or sorrow.

Question 80

Select the sentence with the appropriate use of preposition.

  1. AOption (a)

    Are you interested along with modern art?

  2. BOption (b)

    Are you interested into modern art?

  3. COption (c)

    Are you interested with modern art?

  4. DOption (d)

    Are you interested in modern art?

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Are you interested in modern art?

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Are you interested in modern art?'

Key Points

  • Among the given options only option four is correct. In this sentence, all the prepositions are correctly used.
  • The reason why this sentence is correct is that the preposition "in" is commonly used to show interest or involvement in a particular field or subject. In this case, "in" is used to express an interest in the subject of modern art.
  • Let's see why other options are incorrect:
  • Option 1 ("Are you interested along with modern art?") is not correct because "along with" is used to indicate that two or more things are together, and it does not convey the meaning of interest in modern art.
  • Option 2 ("Are you interested into modern art?") is not correct because "into" is used to indicate movement or transformation to a new state, and it does not convey the meaning of interest in modern art.
  • Option 3 ("Are you interested with modern art?") is also not correct because "with" is used to indicate association or accompaniment, and it does not convey the meaning of interest in modern art.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 4.

Correct Sentence: Are you interested in modern art?

Question 81

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the underlined group of words.

While I was travelling in Europe, I met a man who drew maps.

  1. AOption (a)

    Cartographer

  2. BOption (b)

    Geographer

  3. COption (c)

    Arbitrator

  4. DOption (d)

    Anthropologist

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Cartographer

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Cartographer'.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate word for the given group of words is 'Cartographer'.
  • Cartographer: मानचित्रकार (Manchitrakar) - a person who draws or produces maps.
  • Example sentence: The cartographer was responsible for creating detailed maps of the city's roads and landmarks. 

Correct Answer: Cartographer.

Additional Information

  • Let's look at the meaning of other words:
  • Geographer: भूगोलविद् - a person who studies the physical features, natural resources, and human population of the earth's surface.
  • Arbitrator: न्यायाधीश - a person appointed to settle disputes between parties.
  • Anthropologist: मानव विज्ञानी - a person who studies human societies and cultures.

Question 82

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution’.

Scores given by the members are to be consolidated and sent in the head office immediately.

  1. AOption (a)

    No substitution

  2. BOption (b)

    after the head office

  3. COption (c)

    at the head office

  4. DOption (d)

    to the head office

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

to the head office

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'to the head office'.

Key Points

  • The given sentence is grammatically incorrect.
  • Here, 'to the head office' should be used instead of 'in the head office'.
  • The reason why "to the head office" is the correct answer is that the phrase "in the head" does not convey a clear and specific meaning in this sentence. However, the preposition "to" clearly indicates the direction of the scores that are being sent, which is toward the head office.
  • Let's see why other options are incorrect:
  • Option 2 ("after the head office") is not correct because it suggests a sequence of events or actions, which is not necessary in this context. The sentence only needs to indicate the destination of the scores.
  • Option 3 ("at the head office") is not correct because it implies that the scores will be physically received and consolidated at the head office, which is not necessarily the case. The scores may be consolidated elsewhere before being sent to the head office.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 4.

Correct Sentence: Scores given by the members are to be consolidated and sent to the head office immediately.

Question 83

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Abominable

  1. AOption (a)

    Worthy

  2. BOption (b)

    Delectable

  3. COption (c)

    Admirable

  4. DOption (d)

    Detestable

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Admirable

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Admirable'.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate antonym of the given word 'Abominable' is 'Admirable'.
  • Abominable: घिनौना- causing moral revulsion or hatred.
  • Example: The abominable act of animal cruelty is a serious offense that should be punished by law.
  • Admirable: प्रशंसनीय (Prashansaniya) - deserving of respect and approval.
  • Example: Her admirable work towards the betterment of society earned her many accolades.

Correct Answer: Admirable.

Additional Information

  • Let's look at the meaning of other words:
  • Worthy: महत्वपूर्ण - deserving of respect and attention.
  • Delectable: सुखदायक - delicious and pleasing to taste.
  • Detestable: घिनौना - deserving of hatred and disgust.

Question 84

Select the sentences that contains no spelling errors.

  1. AOption (a)

    I saw the dress catalouge pieces of Asha’s corchiture collection.

  2. BOption (b)

    I saw the dress catalougue pieces of Asha’s couture collection.

  3. COption (c)

    I saw the dress catalougue pieces of Asha’s corchiture collection.

  4. DOption (d)

    I saw the dress catalogue pieces of Asha’s couture collection.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

I saw the dress catalogue pieces of Asha’s couture collection.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'I saw the dress catalogue pieces of Asha’s couture collection.'

Key Points

  • The sentence that has all the correct spellings is 'I saw the dress catalogue pieces of Asha’s couture collection'.
  • The correct spelling of the word is "catalogue" not "catalouge", and the correct spelling of the word "couture" is not "corchiture". Therefore, sentences 2 and 3 both have spelling errors.
  • The correct spelling of the words in sentence 1 and sentence 4 is different.
  • Therefore, the only sentence that contains no spelling errors is sentence 4.

Correct Sentence: I saw the dress catalogue pieces of Asha’s couture collection.

Additional Information

  • catalogue-  A complete list of things, usually arranged systematically
  • couture-  the designing and making of expensive fashionable clothes, or the clothes themselves

Question 85

Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence.

After the government interventions, the enrolment and retention of female students have increased by leaps and bounds.

  1. AOption (a)

    Systematically

  2. BOption (b)

    Swiftly

  3. COption (c)

    Intermittently

  4. DOption (d)

    Gradually

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Swiftly

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Swiftly'.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate meaning of the given idiom 'By leaps and bounds' is 'Swiftly'.
  • By leaps and bounds: making rapid progress or growing quickly, in a sudden and remarkable way. (तेजी से आगे बढ़ते हुए)
  • Example: Since the new CEO joined the company, their profits have increased by leaps and bounds.

Correct Answer: Swiftly.

Additional Information

  • Let's see the origin of this idiom: 
  • The origin of this idiom is unclear, but it's believed to have come from the sport of the long jump, where athletes make a running start and jump as far as they can in a single leap.
  • The term was first used in the 16th century to describe this physical activity and later came to be used metaphorically to describe any kind of rapid progress.

Question 86

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank and complete the collocation.

I had a nice ______ on my birthday with all my friends and relatives.

  1. AOption (a)

    opportunity

  2. BOption (b)

    day

  3. COption (c)

    experience

  4. DOption (d)

    time

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

time

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'time'.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate word to fill in the given blank is 'time'.
  • The collocation here is "nice time", which is a common phrase used to refer to an enjoyable and pleasant experience.
  • Although "opportunity", "day", and "experience" are all words that could potentially fit in the sentence, they don't collocate as well with "nice" as the word "time" does.
  • "Nice opportunity" and "nice experience" are both grammatically correct, but they sound slightly awkward in this context.
  • "Nice day" is more commonly used to describe the weather, rather than an event or gathering.
  • Therefore, the most appropriate word to complete the collocation is "time". 

Correct Sentence: I had a nice time on my birthday with all my friends and relatives.

Question 87

Select the correct passive voice form for the given sentence.

My brother likes cricket.

  1. AOption (a)

    Cricket was like by my brother.

  2. BOption (b)

    Cricket is like by my brother.

  3. COption (c)

    Cricket is liked by my brother.

  4. DOption (d)

    Cricket was liked by my brother.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Cricket is liked by my brother.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Cricket is liked by my brother'.

Key Points

  • The given sentence is in Active Voice. As per the question we have to change it to Passive Voice.
  • The structure of the given sentence is as follows:
  • Subject + V1 + Object. (Active Voice)
  • Subject (Objective Case) + is/am/are + V3 + Object (Subjective Case). (Passive Voice)
  • Example:
  • Aastha teaches English. (Active Voice)
  • English is taught by Aastha. (Passive Voice)
  • The subject of the given sentence is 'My brother'.
  • The object of the given sentence is 'Cricket'.
  • The subject will be put in place of the object and the object will be put in place of the subject.
  • 'likes' will be changed into 'is liked'.

Correct Sentence: Cricket is liked by my brother.

Question 88

Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence.

He says to Gayatri, “You are writing an apology to the warden.”

  1. AOption (a)

    He told Gayatri that she is writing an apology to the warden.

  2. BOption (b)

    He tells Gayatri that she is writing an apology to the warden.

  3. COption (c)

    He says to Gayatri that she was writing an apology to the warden.

  4. DOption (d)

    He tells Gayatri that she was writing an apology to the warden.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

He tells Gayatri that she is writing an apology to the warden.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'He tells Gayatri that she is writing an apology to the warden.'

Key Points

  • The given sentence is in Direct Speech. As per the question we have to change it to Indirect Speech.
  • In the given sentence, the reporting verb is in the present tense.
  • So, the tense of the reported speech will remain the same.
  • We change the tense and pronouns of reported speech only when reporting verb is in the past tense.
  • In the given sentence 'you' will be changed into 'she' because the second-person pronouns are changed according to the object of the reporting verb.
  • While changing the given Direct narration into Indirect narration, commas and inverted commas will be removed and connector 'that' will be added and the reported speech will be written after 'that'.
  • Correct Sentence: He tells Gayatri that she is writing an apology to the warden.

Question 89

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

You must aware of friends who speak against you.

  1. AOption (a)

    caution of

  2. BOption (b)

    beware of

  3. COption (c)

    scarce of

  4. DOption (d)

    careful of

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

beware of

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'beware of'.

Key Points

  • The underlined part in the given sentence is grammatically incorrect.
  • Here, 'beware of' should be used instead of 'aware of'.
  • By using "beware of" instead of "you must aware of," the warning becomes more direct and urgent, as "beware" implies a sense of imminent danger or harm. Additionally, "beware of" is a common and idiomatic expression, while "you must aware of" is not typically used in English.
  • The phrase "beware of" is a better fit in this sentence because it conveys a sense of caution or wariness towards someone or something that may pose a danger or threat. It is often used as a warning to others to be on the lookout for potential harm or trouble.
  • For example, if someone tells you to "beware of pickpockets" when you're traveling in a crowded city, it means you should be careful and watchful of your belongings so that you don't become a victim of theft.
  • So in the context of the given sentence, the correct phrase is "beware of friends who speak against you," which means that you should be cautious and watchful of any friends who might be speaking negatively about you behind your back.

Correct Sentence:  You must beware of friends who speak against you.

Question 90

Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word in a sentence.

The good weather has been a boon for many businesses located near the beach.

  1. AOption (a)

    luck

  2. BOption (b)

    Signal

  3. COption (c)

    fortune

  4. DOption (d)

    beneficial

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

beneficial

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'beneficial'.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate synonym of the given word 'boon' is 'beneficial'.
  • Boon - वरदान - Something that is helpful or advantageous, a blessing. 
  • Example: The new vaccine is a boon for the health of the population.
  • Beneficial - लाभदायक - Producing good or helpful results or effects; advantageous.
  • Example: The new exercise routine has proven to be highly beneficial for her health.

Correct Answer: Beneficial.

Additional Information

  • Let's look at the meaning of other words:
  • Signal - संकेत - A gesture, action, or sound that is used to convey information or instructions, typically by prearrangement between the parties concerned.
  • Fortune - भाग्य - A large amount of money or assets that someone has accumulated or inherited.
  • Luck - भाग्य - Success or failure apparently brought by chance rather than through one's own actions

Question 91

Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. While India is home to 75 per cent of tigers in the world, the Global Tiger Day - as it is also known - sees awareness events organised in the country, as well as neighbouring Bangladesh and Nepal.

B. Its primary objective is to preserve the natural habitat of the tiger.

C. International Tiger Day was initiated in 2010, at the Saint Petersburg Tiger Summit.

D. This annual event, observed on 29 July, aims to create awareness on tiger conservation.

  1. AOption (a)

    DCAB

  2. BOption (b)

    BADC

  3. COption (c)

    CDBA

  4. DOption (d)

    CDAB

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

CDBA

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'CDBA'.

Key Points

  • The given question is an example of a Para Jumble.
  • We know that the first statement of a para jumbled question is usually an independent general statement, a noun, a universal fact, starting of an incident, or it starts with 'most' or 'once'.
  • Sentence C begins by introducing the topic of International Tiger Day, which was initiated in 2010 at the Saint Petersburg Tiger Summit. This sentence provides the context for the remaining sentences and explains what the paragraph will be about.
  • Sentence D then explains that International Tiger Day is observed annually on 29 July and aims to create awareness about tiger conservation. This sentence expands on the topic introduced in sentence C and adds another important detail about the day.
  • Sentence B follows and states the primary objective of preserving the natural habitat of the tiger. This sentence is important because it highlights the main purpose of tiger conservation efforts, which is to ensure that tigers have a safe and secure natural environment to live in.
  • Finally, sentence A provides additional detail by mentioning that while India is home to 75% of tigers in the world, neighboring countries like Bangladesh and Nepal also organize awareness events on this day. This sentence provides a geographical context for the day and emphasizes that tiger conservation is a global issue.
  • Overall, the correct sequence of the sentences (CDBA) forms a coherent paragraph that introduces the topic of International Tiger Day, explains its objectives and importance, and provides additional details about tiger conservation efforts around the world.

 

Correct Sequence: International Tiger Day was initiated in 2010, at the Saint Petersburg Tiger Summit. This annual event, observed on 29 July, aims to create awareness on tiger conservation. Its primary objective is to preserve the natural habitat of the tiger. While India is home to 75 per cent of tigers in the world, the Global Tiger Day - as it is also known - sees awareness events organised in the country, as well as neighbouring Bangladesh and Nepal.

Question 92

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

One who runs away from law

  1. AOption (a)

    Fatalist

  2. BOption (b)

    Convict

  3. COption (c)

    Fugitive

  4. DOption (d)

    Lunatic

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Fugitive

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Fugitive'.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate word for the given group of words is 'Fugitive'.
  • Fugitive - भगोड़ा (bhagoda)
  • Meaning in English: A person who has escaped from captivity or is in hiding to avoid arrest, prosecution, or punishment.
  • Example: The police are searching for the fugitive who escaped from prison last week.

Correct Answer: Option 3

Additional Information

  • Let's look at the meaning of other words:
  • Fatalist - नियति-वादी (niyati-vaadi). Meaning in English: A person who believes that all events are predetermined and therefore inevitable.
  • Convict - अपराधी (apraadhi). Meaning in English: A person found guilty of a crime and sentenced by a court.
  • Lunatic - पागल (paagal). Meaning in English: A person who is mentally ill, especially one who is insane.

Question 93

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

Words that begin with the same letter, syllable or sound

  1. AOption (a)

    Metaphor

  2. BOption (b)

    Pun

  3. COption (c)

    Hyperbole

  4. DOption (d)

    Alliteration

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Alliteration

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Alliteration'.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate word for the given group of words is 'Alliteration'.
  • Alliteration - समानाधिकारी (samaanaadhikaari)
  • Meaning in English: The occurrence of the same letter or sound at the beginning of adjacent or closely connected words. 
  • Example: Peter Piper picked a peck of pickled peppers. This sentence uses alliteration by repeating the "p" sound at the beginning of several words.

Correct Answer: Alliteration.

Additional Information

  • Let's look at the meaning of other words:
  • Metaphor - रूपक (roopak). Meaning in English: A figure of speech in which a word or phrase is applied to an object or action to which it is not literally applicable.
  • Pun - मज़ाकिया उलझन (mazaakiya uljhan). Meaning in English: A play on words that uses multiple meanings of a word or words that.
  • Hyperbole - अतिशयोक्ति (atishayokti). Meaning in English: An exaggeration used for emphasis or effect.

Question 94

Fill in the blank with the correct collocation.

A gaggle of journalists sit in a/an _______ foyer waiting impatiently.

  1. AOption (a)

    attic

  2. BOption (b)

    hotel

  3. COption (c)

    ranch

  4. DOption (d)

    croft

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

hotel

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'hotel'.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate word for the given blank is 'hotel'.
  • The sentence implies that the journalists are waiting in an entrance hall or open area of a public building, where they are likely to be waiting for someone or something.
  • Therefore, the most appropriate option is "hotel", as hotels often have large, spacious lobbies or foyers where guests can wait for check-in or other activities.
  • Example: She walked into the hotel foyer to find a gaggle of tourists waiting for their tour bus.

Correct Sentence: A gaggle of journalists sit in a hotel foyer waiting impatiently.

Additional Information

  • Let's look at the meaning of other options:
  • Attic: A space or room just below the roof of a house or building, typically used for storage. Hindi Translation: छत का कमरा
  • Ranch: A large farm, typically used for raising cattle or other livestock. Hindi Translation: राँच
  • Croft: A small farm, especially in Scotland, Ireland, or northern England. Hindi Translation: छोटा खेत

Question 95

Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

Although Edward had noble blood, his ignoble qualities made him incapable of taking over the kingdom.

  1. AOption (a)

    Salient

  2. BOption (b)

    Strange

  3. COption (c)

    Ostentatious

  4. DOption (d)

    Unworthy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Unworthy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Unworthy'.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate synonym of the underlined word 'Ignoble' is 'Unworthy'.
  • Ignoble: Dishonorable; not noble in character or purpose. Hindi Translation: अधम
  • Example sentence: It would be an ignoble act to cheat on the exam.
  • Unworthy: Not deserving respect or attention; not fit or suitable. Hindi Translation: अनुचित
  • Example sentence: It would be unworthy to pass off someone else's work as your own.

Correct Answer: Unworthy.

Additional Information

  • Let's look at the meaning of other words:
  • Salient: Most noticeable or important; prominent. Hindi Translation: प्रमुख
  • Strange: Unusual, surprising, or difficult to understand or explain. Hindi Translation: अजीब
  • Ostentatious: Characterized by vulgar or pretentious display; designed to impress or attract notice. Hindi Translation: दिखावटी

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

At most of the local dhabas and fast food joints, poor hygienic conditions (1) _______. The (2) _______ occurs due to poor quality packaging material or (3) _______ storage conditions. Food cooked may not be washed or cleaned properly. It is low in (4) ________, rich in oil content especially trans fats which make one (5) ______, lousy and dull.

Question 96

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

  1. AOption (a)

    prevail

  2. BOption (b)

    sustain

  3. COption (c)

    entail

  4. DOption (d)

    assail

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

prevail

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'prevail'.

Key Points

  • Based on the content of the given passage, the most appropriate title could be "Poor Hygiene at Local Food Outlets and its Effects on Health".
  • The passage describes the poor hygienic conditions prevalent in many local dhabas and fast food joints, and how this can lead to health problems due to the use of low-quality packaging material, improper storage conditions, and inadequate cleaning of food.
  • The passage also mentions the high content of trans fats in the food, which can lead to negative effects on health.
  • In the first blank 'prevail' should be used because, in this context, poor hygienic conditions are prevalent in most of the local dhabas and fast food joints. The word "prevail" fits well in the blank, as it means to be widespread or present to a great degree, which accurately describes the situation described in the passage.
  • The word 'prevail' means 'to be widespread or current; to exist or be present to a great degree'. Hindi Translation: प्रचलित होना
  • Example: Despite facing many challenges, the team managed to prevail and win the championship.
  • Let's look at the meaning of other words:
  • Sustain: to support, hold or bear up from below. (Hindi translation: जीवित रखना, संभालना, पोषण देना)
  • Entail: to involve or require (something) as a necessary or inevitable part or consequence. (Hindi translation: आवश्यकता होना, संचालित होना, सम्मिलित करना)
  • Assail: to attack vigorously or violently; assault. (Hindi translation: हमला करना, आक्रमण करना, निंदा करना)
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct Passage: At most of the local dhabas and fast food joints, poor hygienic conditions prevail. The (2) _______ occurs due to poor quality packaging material or (3) _______ storage conditions. Food cooked may not be washed or cleaned properly. It is low in (4) ________, rich in oil content especially trans fats which make one (5) ______, lousy and dull.

Question 97

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

  1. AOption (a)

    contamination

  2. BOption (b)

    perfection

  3. COption (c)

    purification

  4. DOption (d)

    concentration

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

contamination

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'contamination'.

Key Points

  • Based on the content of the given passage, the most appropriate title could be "Poor Hygiene at Local Food Outlets and its Effects on Health".
  • The passage describes the poor hygienic conditions prevalent in many local dhabas and fast food joints, and how this can lead to health problems due to the use of low-quality packaging material, improper storage conditions, and inadequate cleaning of food.
  • The passage also mentions the high content of trans fats in the food, which can lead to negative effects on health.
  • In the second blank 'contamination' should be used because the passage is discussing poor hygienic conditions at local dhabas and fast food joints, and the blank describes the cause of the problem.
  • "Contamination" means the presence of harmful or undesirable substances in something, such as food or water, which can lead to illness or other problems [In Hindi, "contamination" can be translated as "प्रदूषण" (pradushan)]. In this context, poor quality packaging material or storage conditions can lead to contamination of the food and pose a risk to health.
  • Let's look at the meaning of other options:
  • Perfection - पूर्णता, refers to the state of being complete or flawless, where there is no scope for further improvement or betterment.
  • Purification - शुद्धीकरण, refers to the process of removing impurities or unwanted elements from something to make it pure and clean.
  • Concentration - संवेदनशीलता, refers to the state of being focused or attentive towards a particular task or activity, giving it one's full attention and efforts.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct Passage: At most of the local dhabas and fast food joints, poor hygienic conditions prevail. The contamination occurs due to poor quality packaging material or (3) _______ storage conditions. Food cooked may not be washed or cleaned properly. It is low in (4) ________, rich in oil content especially trans fats which make one (5) ______, lousy and dull.

Question 98

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

  1. AOption (a)

    sterile

  2. BOption (b)

    unhygienic

  3. COption (c)

    neat

  4. DOption (d)

    energetic

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

unhygienic

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'unhygienic'.

Key Points

  • Based on the content of the given passage, the most appropriate title could be "Poor Hygiene at Local Food Outlets and its Effects on Health".
  • The passage describes the poor hygienic conditions prevalent in many local dhabas and fast food joints, and how this can lead to health problems due to the use of low-quality packaging material, improper storage conditions, and inadequate cleaning of food.
  • The passage also mentions the high content of trans fats in the food, which can lead to negative effects on health.
  • The most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3 would be "unhygienic" because the passage is describing poor hygienic conditions at local dhabas and fast food joints, and "unhygienic" fits this description.
  • Let's look at the meaning of other words:
  • sterile - free from bacteria and microorganisms
  • neat - clean and orderly
  • energetic - having or showing energy and enthusiasm
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 2.

Correct Passage: At most of the local dhabas and fast food joints, poor hygienic conditions prevail. The contamination occurs due to poor quality packaging material or unhygienic storage conditions. Food cooked may not be washed or cleaned properly. It is low in (4) ________, rich in oil content especially trans fats which make one (5) ______, lousy and dull.

Question 99

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

  1. AOption (a)

    condition

  2. BOption (b)

    proportion

  3. COption (c)

    nutrition

  4. DOption (d)

    production

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

nutrition

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'nutrition'.

Key Points

  • Based on the content of the given passage, the most appropriate title could be  "Poor Hygiene at Local Food Outlets and its Effects on Health".
  • The passage describes the poor hygienic conditions prevalent in many local dhabas and fast food joints, and how this can lead to health problems due to the use of low-quality packaging material, improper storage conditions, and inadequate cleaning of food.
  • The passage also mentions the high content of trans fats in the food, which can lead to negative effects on health.
  • The most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4 would be "nutrition" because the passage is discussing the low quality of food cooked at these establishments, and mentions that it is rich in oil content but low in nutrition.
  • Let's look at the meaning of other words:
  • condition - the state of something with regard to its physical or other qualities
  • proportion - a part, share, or number considered in comparative relation to a whole
  • production - the action of making or manufacturing from components or raw materials
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 3.

Correct Passage: At most of the local dhabas and fast food joints, poor hygienic conditions prevail. The contamination occurs due to poor quality packaging material or unhygienic storage conditions. Food cooked may not be washed or cleaned properly. It is low in nutrition, rich in oil content especially trans fats which make one (5) ______, lousy and dull.

Question 100

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.

  1. AOption (a)

    smart

  2. BOption (b)

    skinny

  3. COption (c)

    obese

  4. DOption (d)

    affluent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

obese

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'obese'.

Key Points

  • Based on the content of the given passage, the most appropriate title could be  "Poor Hygiene at Local Food Outlets and its Effects on Health".
  • The passage describes the poor hygienic conditions prevalent in many local dhabas and fast food joints, and how this can lead to health problems due to the use of low-quality packaging material, improper storage conditions, and inadequate cleaning of food.
  • The passage also mentions the high content of trans fats in the food, which can lead to negative effects on health.
  • The most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5 would be "obese" because the passage mentions that the food is rich in oil content and trans fats, which can make a person dull and lousy and can contribute to weight gain and obesity.
  • Let's look at the meaning of other words:
  • smart - having a clean, tidy, and stylish appearance
  • skinny - very thin
  • ​affluent - having a great deal of money; wealthy
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 3.

Correct Passage: At most of the local dhabas and fast food joints, poor hygienic conditions prevail. The contamination occurs due to poor quality packaging material or unhygienic storage conditions. Food cooked may not be washed or cleaned properly. It is low in nutrition, rich in oil content especially trans fats which make one obese, lousy and dull.

100 questions in the full paper