SSC CGL 2022 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On : 09 Dec 2022 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

Statements:

I. All A are M.

II. No M is B.

The least possible diagram for the given statements is as follows:

Conclusions:

I. Some M are A → True (It is given that all A are M, so some M are A)

II. Some B are M → False (No direct relationship given between B and M, so it may be possible but not defined)

III. Some A are B → False (No direct relationship given between A and B, so it may be possible but not defined)\

Hence, "Only conclusion I follows".

The logic followed here is:

• First number + Second number = New number  ÷ 3 = Third number

 

Apply the logic on each options,

Option 1 : (78, 54, 44)

 

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The logic apply here.

Option 2 : (23, 8, 10)

 

The logic does not apply here.

Option 3 : (58, 16, 21)

 

The logic does not apply here.

Option 4 : (45, 12, 33)

 

The logic does not apply here.

Hence , the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, 'IDSO' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

⇒ Dentist : Teeth → Dentist specialises in the diagnosis and treatment of teeth

Similarly,

⇒ Dermatologist : Skin → Dermatologist specialises in the diagnosis and treatment of skin.

Hence, the correct answer is "Skin".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: [(First number + Third Number) ÷ 2]2 = Second number.

Now, 

for, (21, 225, 9)

→ [(21 + 9) ÷ 2]2 

→ [30 ÷ 2]2 

→ 152 = 225.

for, (12, 49, 2)

→ [(12 + 2) ÷ 2]2 

→ [14 ÷ 2]2 

→ 72 = 49.

Similarly, for (14, 64, 2)

→ [(14 + 2) ÷ 2]2

→ [16 ÷ 2]2 

→ 82 = 64.

Hence , the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Alternate Method

• First number + Third Number = ( New number ÷ 2)² = Second number.

 

Apply the logic on each options,

Option 1 : (14, 64, 2)

 

The logic apply here.

Option 2 : (11, 18, 7)

 

The logic does not apply here.

Option 3 : (15, 54, 3)

 

The logic does not apply here.

Option 4 : (13, 81, 6)

 

The logic does not apply here.

Hence , the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Taking dice positions 2 and 4 with 5 as common,

 

Moving clockwise from the Common number 5,

 

Pair of opposite numbers:

5 - 6

4 - 1

2 - 3

So, the opposite number to 3 is 2.

Hence, the correct answer is "2".

The correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at the line MN is as follows:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Similarly,

Hence, 'ILHGBTAODR' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is: 

Similarly,

 

Hence, 'EDIFLU' is the correct answer.

I. 4 + 8 × 5 – 7 ÷ 1 = 37

After interchanging the signs + and ×, and numbers, 5 and 4 in the given equation, we have

5 × 8 + 4 – 7 ÷ 1 = 37

Applying BODMAS Rule, we get

5 × 8 + 4 – 7 = 37

⇒ 40 + 4 – 7 = 37

⇒ 44 - 7 = 37

⇒ 37 = 37

The given equation is correct.

II. 5 × 3 – 4 + 6 ÷ 2 = –8

After interchanging the signs + and ×, and numbers, 5 and 4 in the given equation, we have

4 + 3 – 5 × 6 ÷ 2 = –8

Applying BODMAS Rule, we get

4 + 3 – 5 × 3 = –8

⇒ 4 + 3 – 15 = –8

⇒ 7 – 15 = –8

⇒ -8 = –8

The given equation is correct.

Hence, "Neither I nor II" is the correct answer.

Given:

A × B means that A is the mother of B.

A – B means that A is the father of B.

A ÷ B means that A is the sister of B.

Evaluating the given expressions in the options, we get

1) P ÷ R – Q

P ÷ R → P is the sister of R, R – Q → R is the father of Q

So, P ÷ R – Q shows that P is the paternal aunt of Q.

2) P × Q ÷ R

P × Q → P is the mother of Q, Q ÷ R → Q is the sister of R

So, P × Q ÷ R shows that P is the mother of R.

3) Q × P – R

Q × P → Q is the mother of P, P – R → P is the father of R.

So, Q × P – R shows that Q is the paternal grandmother of R.

4) P × Q – R

P × Q → P is the mother of Q, Q – R → Q is the father of R

So, P × Q – R shows that P is the paternal grandmother of R.

 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "853".

The option in which the given figure (x) is embedded as its part is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

• First number + 5 = Second number + 5 = Third number.

Apply the logic on each options,

Option 1 : (137 –142 –147 )

 

The logic apply here.

Option 2 : (117 –122 –129 )

 

The logic does not apply here.

Option 3 : (103 –108 –113 )

 

The logic apply here.

Option 4 : (131 –136 –141 )

 

The logic apply here.

Hence , the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Statements:

Some clowns are artists.

All artists are smart.

All smarts are rich.

Conclusions:

I. All artists are rich → Follow → Since 'All artists are smart..' & 'All smarts are rich.' we can say that All artists are rich and the same can be seen in the Venn diagram so the conclusion follows

II. Some clowns are smart → Follow → Since 'Some clowns are artists.' & 'All artists are smart.' we can say that Some clowns are smart and the same can be seen in the Venn diagram so the conclusion follows

III. All clowns are artists → Does not follow → From the given statements 'Some clowns are artists' which means Clown is subset of Artists, therefore All clowns are artists is a possibility not necessity so the conclusion does not follow.

Hence, Both conclusions I and II follow.

Given:

60 × 3 + 660 ÷ 6 – 20 = 290

Calculation:

By option Method:

Option 1: exchange 6 and 660, × and ÷

⇒ 60 ÷ 3 + 6 x 660 – 20 = 290

⇒ 20 + 3960 - 20 = 290 

⇒ 3960 ≠ 290

This is not correct the equation.

Option 2: exchange 20 and 6, + and -

⇒ 60 × 3 - 660 ÷ 20 + 6 = 290

⇒ 180 - 33 + 6 = 290

⇒ 153  ≠ 290

This is not correct the equation.

Option 3: exchange 20 and 60, + and × 

⇒ 20 + 3 x 660 ÷ 6 – 60 = 290

⇒ 20 + 330 -60 = 290

⇒ 290 = 290

This is correct the equation.

Option 4: exchange 20 and 660, + and ÷

⇒ 60 × 3 ÷ 20 + 6 – 660 = 290

⇒ 9 + 6 - 660 = 290

⇒ -645 ≠ 290

This is not correct the equation.

Hence, 'Option 3' is the correct answer.

The order of words according to dictionary,

3- Pernicious

1- Perpend

4- Perpetrate

5- Perpetual

2- Perplex

Hence, '3, 1, 4, 5, 2' is the correct answer.

Given:

81 + 3 ÷ 9 * 5 − 12 = 60

Calculation:

By option Method:

Option 1: exchange ÷ and +

⇒ 81 ÷ 3 + 9 * 5 − 12 = 60

⇒ 27 + 45 -12 = 60

⇒ 60 = 60

This is correct the equation.

Option 2: exchange + and *

⇒ 81 * 3 ÷ 9 + 5 − 12 = 60

⇒ 27 +5 - 12 = 60

⇒ 20 ≠ 60

This is not correct the equation.

Option 3: exchange ÷ and –

⇒ 81 + 3 - 9 * 5 ÷ 12 = 60

⇒ 81 + 3 - 3.75 = 60

⇒ 80.25 ≠ 60

This is not correct the equation.

Option 4: exchange + and –

⇒ 81 - 3 ÷ 9 * 5 + 12 = 60

⇒ 81 - 1.66 + 12 = 60

⇒ 91.34 ≠ 60

This is not correct the equation.

∴ Interchanges (÷ and +) would make the given equation correct.

The logic followed here is:

• Difference between First and Third alphabet is 2.
• Difference between Second and Fourth alphabet is 1.

Apply the logic on each options,

Option 1 : MKOJ

 

The logic apply here.

Option 2 : URWQ

 

The logic apply here.

Option 3 : EQGP

 

The logic apply here.

Option 4 : XFWE

 

The logic does not apply here.

Hence , the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, 'ZKX' is the correct answer.

Given:

Given code : S & T % R @ P # Q

1) S & T means ‘S is the wife of T’.

2) T % R means ‘T is the father of R'

3. ’R @ P means ‘R is the husband of P’

4) P # Q means ‘P is the sister of Q’

The family tree looks like,

Here, S is Mother-in-law of P.

Hence, 'Mother-in-law' is the correct answer.

The pattern followed here is:

• The triangular symbol is rotating anti-clockwise at 90° in each successive steps.

• Arrow is rotating anti-clockwise at 45° and pointed-arrow flipped horizontally in each successive steps.

   

• B,P,R are rotating clockwise and flipped horizontally in each successive steps.

Similarly,

Hence, 'Option 2' is the correct answer.

The pattern followed here is :

'Stable' - is a building or living place in which 'Horses' are kept, fed and cared.

Similarly,

'Coop' - is a building or living place in which 'Hens' are kept, fed and cared.

Hence, 'Coop' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

• First number - square root of Third number = Second number.
  

 

Apply the logic on each options,

Option 1 : (100, 85, 125)

The logic does not apply here.

Option 2 : (56, 48, 64)

 

The logic apply here.

Option 3 :(16, 4, 57)

 

The logic does not apply here.

Option 4 : (87, 56, 900)

 

The logic does not apply here.

Hence , the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The pattern followed here is :

• Arrow is shifting clockwise at the edge of box.
• Circle is shifting anti-clockwise at the corner of box.

Similarly, next figure will be.

Hence, 'Option 1' is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 60. 

Key Points

• 60 carbon atoms are organized in interlocking hexagonal and pentagonal rings to form the spherical molecule known as buckminsterfullerene.
• The spherical carbon allotrope known as a buckminsterfullerene (C60) has 60 atoms arranged in pentagons and hexagons, giving it a soccer ball-like form.
• A type of fullerene with the chemical formula C60 is buckminsterfullerene. It is shaped like a football and has a fused-ring construction that resembles a cage. It is made up of twenty hexagons and twelve pentagons. Its 60 carbon atoms are all linked to three of their neighbours.
• Each carbon atom generates three sigma bonds with three other carbon atoms in the fullerene's sp2 hybridization state.

Additional Information

• Carbon fullerene molecules can take on a variety of geometries, including tubes, spheres, cubes, and other pure solids comprised of just one type of atom. A feature of fullerenes is their hollow core, which is an area of empty space inside the molecule.
• Consider a basketball; it has a spherical, leather outside, but a hollow interior where air is trapped to give it its bouncing motion. With a fullerene, the situation is identical. It is entirely composed of carbon, and the interior of the structure is always hollow.
• HIV proteases' hydrophobic cavity can accommodate fullerene, which prevents substrates from reaching the enzyme's catalytic site. It has antioxidant and radical scavenger properties. Fullerene can also produce significant quantum yields of singlet oxygen when exposed to light.

The correct answer is 7.

Key Points

• A solution's acidity can be determined by looking at its pH, which is a measurement of hydrogen ion concentration. Pure water slightly separates into ions with roughly equal amounts of hydrogen and hydroxyl (OH) ions. [H+] is 107 for a neutral solution, or pH = 7.
• By chance, the amounts of H+ and OH- are equal at pH 7. Because of this, pH 7 is regarded as the neutral pH. The concentration of H+ exceeds the concentration of OH- below pH 7, causing the water to become acidic.
• Because pure water has a pH of exactly 7, a **pH value of 7 is considered neutral. Levels under 7 are considered acidic, whereas those over 7 are considered basic or alkaline.**​

Additional Information

• pH stands for "Potential of Hydrogen" in its full form.
• The negative logarithm of the concentration of H+ ions is known as pH.
• As a result, the meaning of pH is defined as the strength or power of hydrogen.
• For human life to exist, the serum's pH must be carefully regulated at around 7.4 (a slightly alkaline range of 7.35 to 7.45).

The correct answer is M4.

Key Points

• The Reserve Bank of India releases data for M1, M2, M3, and M4—four different measurements of the money supply.
• The Post Office Savings are thus only included in M2 and M4.
• The Post Office Savings Account (SB) is comparable to any savings account offered by a retail bank.
• The minimum deposit amount is $500 and the minimum withdrawal amount is just$50. It offers a 4% interest rate.
• A savings bank account can be opened by both adults and minors.
• The M2 measurement of the money supply in India includes the savings deposits of post office savings banks, which gives it a bit more rigidity than the M1 measurement.

Additional Information

• M1, M2, M3, and M4 were the four monetary aggregates that the RBI used to calculate the money supply between 1977 and 1998.
• The idea of Reserve Money was also utilised by the central bank.
• In India, the post office offers a deposit programme called the post office savings account.
• To calculate and gauge the total supply of money in the market, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) divides currency into four major categories, sometimes referred to as monetary aggregates. M0, M1, M2, and M4 are the numbers.

The correct answer is Mumbai-Ahmedabad. 

Key Points

• The first high-speed railway corridor under construction is currently under construction between Mumbai and Ahmedabad (508 km (316 mi)) with a designed maximum operational speed of 320 km/h (199 mph).
• Surat will be the first station to be constructed between Mumbai- Ahmedabad route, set for the country's first bullet train, informed an official privy to the developments on Wednesday. “The work on the four stations (Vapi, Bilimora, Surat, Bharuch) has expedited and they will be ready by December 2024.​
• The Mumbai-Ahmedabad High-Speed Rail project states that just 21 km of the total 508.17 km of rail track will be buried and the remainder will be elevated.
• The mangroves and bird refuge along Thane Creek will be safeguarded by the tunnel.
• To maintain this station illuminated by natural light, a dedicated skylight provision has also been built, according to a railway official involved in the project's execution.
• As part of the Mumbai-Ahmedabad High-Speed Rail Corridor, tunnel construction for the twin line between Bandra-Kurla Complex (BKC) and Shilphata in Maharashtra has begun.

Additional Information

• The Mumbai Ahmedabad High-Speed Rail Corridor will only have one subterranean station, and that station is the BKC station, on which construction began on Thursday.
• The first railway on Indian sub-continent ran over a stretch of 21 miles from Bombay to Thane. The idea of a railway to connect Bombay with Thane, Kalyan and with the Thal and Bhore Ghats inclines first occurred to Mr. George Clark, the Chief Engineer of the Bombay Government, during a visit to Bhandup in 1843.
• Mumbai-Pune:
• ​India's first 6-lane wide concrete, access-controlled toll motorway is the Mumbai-Pune Expressway, or Yashwantrao Chavan Expressway.
• It connects Pune, the cultural and educational centre of Maharashtra, with Mumbai, the state capital of Maharashtra and the financial centre of India, across a distance of 94.5 kilometers.
• The motorway, which went into full operation in 2002, raised the speed and safety standards for driving on Indian highways.
• It is one of the busiest roads in India.​
• Delhi-Meerut:
• ​The 82.15 km (51.05 mi) long, semi-high speed rail corridor known as the Delhi-Meerut Regional Rapid Transit System (Delhi-Meerut RRTS) would link Meerut, Delhi, and Ghaziabad.
• It is one of three rapid rail routes planned as part of Phase I of the Regional Rapid Transit System (RRTS) project, which is overseen by the National Capital Region Transport Corporation (NCRTC).
• The travel time from Delhi to Meerut will be less than an hour at a top speed of 180 km/h (111.85 mph).
• The project will include 24 stations, including two depots at Duhai and Modipuram, and will cost 30,274 crore (US$3.8 billion).
• Delhi-Mumbai:
• ​The 1,350 km long, 8 lanes wide (expandable to 12 lanes), access-controlled Delhi-Mumbai Expressway connects Mumbai with New Delhi, the nation's capital of India, and is currently under development.
• On March 8, 2019, Nitin Gadkari, a union minister, formally set the project's cornerstone in the presence of Sushma Swaraj and Arun Jaitley.
• A rough estimate of the project's entire value, including the cost of acquiring the land, is 1,00,000 crores ($13.1 billion).
• The NHAI would also build a further 31 km-long spur on this highway from Noida International Airport in Jewar to Sector-65, Faridabad (DND–KMP Expressway).

The correct answer is To respect elders.

Key Points

• A citizen of India has no inherent obligation to amass property.
• According to the Indian Constitution, following traffic laws is not a Basic Responsibility.
• Article 51A of Part IV-A of the Indian Constitution lists the fundamental obligations of Indian citizens.
• Respect the national flag, national anthem, and Indian Constitution as well as all of its ideas and institutions.
• To uphold and adhere to the lofty values that sparked the country's fight for freedom.
• To safeguard and defend India's **sovereignty, unification, and integrity.**​​
• The moral responsibility of all people to support the unity of India and advance patriotism are known as the Basic Obligations.
• These obligations, which are outlined in Section IV-A of the Constitution, affect both people and the country.

Additional Information

• ​10 Basic Responsibilities were introduced to the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976.
• Later, the 11th Basic Responsibility was included in the list by the 86th Amendment Act of 2002.
• In 1976, the Swaran Singh Committee proposed Basic Responsibilities.​
• The Swaran Singh Committee also advocated for the obligation to pay taxes. Yet, the Constitution did not include it.
• The Constitution's Article 51A lists the essential obligations.
• The Basic Rights, Directive Principles of State Policy, and Fundamental Duties are portions of the Indian Constitution that outline the fundamental duties and rights of citizens towards the state as well as the fundamental obligations of states to their inhabitants.
• These articles are regarded as essential parts of the constitution, which was created during 1949 by the Indian Constituent Assembly.

The correct answer is Vani Jairam.

Key Points

• Madurai Indian Carnatic singer Shanmukhavadivu Subbulakshmi was born in Madurai, Tamil Nadu, on September 16, 1916, and passed away on December 11, 2004.
• She was the first musician to ever receive India's highest civilian honor, the Bharat Ratna.
• Some of the most prominent and revered honors were bestowed upon Subbulakshmi, including the Padma Bhushan in 1954, the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in 1956, and the Sangeetha Kalanidhi in 1968.
• She received the Ramon Magsaysay Award in 1974.
• With the iconic song "Malligai en mannan" from the movie Dheerga Sumangali in 1972, Vani Jairam won over Tamil fans, capturing the attention of music directors and audiences alike.
• Vani Jairam soon ruled the South Indian film business for more than four decades.

Additional Information

• Vani Jiaram:
• Vani Jairam's voice was the secret to many chart-topping songs.
• Later, she sang more than 20,000 songs in more than 1,000 movies in at least 18 different languages.
• In the Indian state of Tamil Nadu, the Kalaimamani is the highest civilian honor.
• To honor artists in the state for their accomplishments, the Tamil Nadu Iyal Isai Nataka Mandram (literature, music, and theatre), a division of the Directorate of Art and Culture, Government of Tamil Nadu, presents these prizes.
• Harini:
• ​ (born 30 April 1979) to distinguish it from singer Harini Ivaturi is a prominent classical and film playback vocalist from India who performs in Tamil, Hindi, Telugu, and Kannada movies.
• Tippu, a different playback singer, is her husband.
• ​L. R. Eswari:
• Indian playback singer Lourde-Mary Rajeswari, also known by her stage as L. R. Eswari has performed a number of songs in the languages of Tamil, Telugu, Malayalam, Kannada, Hindi, Tulu, and English.
• For her achievements to the cinema business, she received the Kalaimamani, the highest civilian honour in Tamil Nadu for the arts and culture.
• Her lone Hindi song to date is "Udati Si Chidiya," which is from the movie PISTOLWALI, a dubbed version of the Pilla Piduga starring Jyothilakshmi.
• Saindhavi:
• Saindhavi is a Carnatic music vocalist and an Indian film playback singer. She has been performing from the age of 12.

The correct answer is Rishabh Pant . 

Key Points

• Prasoon Joshi is chosen by the Uttarakhand government to serve as its brand ambassador.
• The government of Uttarakhand has chosen Prasoon Joshi, CEO and CCO of McCann World group India, to serve as the state's brand ambassador.
• CM names Rishabh Pant as Uttarakhand's brand ambassador.
• Pushkar Singh Dhami, the chief minister of Uttarakhand, recently named **Rishabh Pant as the state's brand ambassador.**​
• Rishabh Pant is 19 years old, young player from Delhi, he gained attention after his performance for India Under-19 at the 2016 World Cup.
• He opened the competition with a blistering 24-ball 75 against Nepal, the fastest half-century of the competition, and then finished it off with a century against Namibia.
• He is a dashing left-handed wicket-keeper batsman. India lost the championship match but gained some benefits, the biggest of which was the rise of Pant.​

Additional Information

• ​Rishabh Pant:
• The expertise that the IPL demands and the skill set that Rishabh Pant posses are absolutely in synchronization.
• If ever the definition of an ideal T20 batsman would be written, Rishabh Pant would tick most of the aspects.
• He is a ferocious hitter of the cricket ball wide a wide array of shots and can clear the boundary ropes with ridiculous ease.
• The scoops, the paddles, the flicks, you name it and this bloke has every shot in his repertoire.
• Hardik Pandya:
• Hardik Himanshu Pandya (11 October 1993) is an Indian cricketer who now serves as the team's vice captain in limited overs.
• Pandya is an all-rounder who has represented India in all three forms. He bats right-handed and bowls right-arm fast-medium.
• Yuvraj Singh:
• Yuvraj Singh, a former cricketer for India who competed in all formats of the game, was born on December 12, 1981.
• He is an all-rounder who bowled slow left-arm orthodox balls and batted left-handed in the middle order.
• He and former Indian captain Sourav Ganguly have both received seven Player of the Series honours in ODI cricket, which ranks as the third-highest total by an Indian.
• Virat Kohli:
• Virat Kohli, a right-handed batsman for Royal Challengers Bangalore in the IPL and for Delhi in domestic cricket in India, was born on November 5, 1988.
• He is an international cricketer for India and a former captain of the Indian squad.
• One of the greatest batsmen of all time, Virat Kohli holds the record for most runs scored in both T20 international matches and the IPL.

The correct answer is Delhi .

Key Points

• The redesigned Delhi Police website, e-Chittha, and Anubhuti, a QR code-based feedback system, were all introduced by the Delhi Police on February 28, 2012.
• The Delhi Police's duty deployment would be supported by the e-Chittha portal.
• With its implementation, the department will have eight-hour shifts, ensuring the best possible use of labour resources while also improving the Delhi police's efficiency and transparency.
• Delhi currently has 6 ranges, 15 districts, and 209 police stations.

Additional Information

• The current YUVA 2.0 project by the Delhi Police seeks to engage youth by improving their abilities in accordance with their competencies.
• According to the Prime Minister's Mantra of "aatma-nirbharta" of the Ministry of Skill Development, Government of India, it will assist them in finding gainful work.
• Police and the general public will be able to communicate with each other through the Anubhuti - Feedback Management System.
• The department will have 8-hour shifts thanks to "e-Chittha," which will also improve employee productivity and transparency.
• Three new digital efforts from the Delhi Police have just been unveiled: the e-Chittha portal, Anubhuti, a QR code-based feedback system, and the Delhi Police website.
• Rakesh Asthana, the commissioner of the Delhi Police, announced their start. The Robocop, which was displayed during the inaugural event, is also being investigated by the Delhi Police.
• A two-way conversation with the public will be established using the Anubhuti feedback management system.

The correct answer is Nagpur.

Key Points

• At the Depressed Classes Congress in Nagpur, Dr. Ambedkar presided and delivered a significant speech in which he supported Dominion status, denounced Gandhi's Salt March and civil disobedience movement as inappropriate, but also criticized British colonial misgovernment, with its famines and impoverishment.
• At the second Round Table Conference, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, who in 1930 organized the Dalits into the Depressed Classes Association, battled with Mahatma Gandhi over his proposal for separate electorates for the Dalit community.​

Additional Information

• The Dalit Buddhist movement was inspired by Indian jurist, economist, politician, and social reformer Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar, who also fought against societal discrimination against the untouchables (Dalits).
• Ambedkar popularized the term Dalit by defining all unhappy individuals as Dalits without taking their caste into account.
• To encourage education among the Depressed Classes, he founded the Depressed Classes Institution (Bahishkrit Hitkarini Sabha) in Bombay in 1924.
• Surat:
• ​Gujarat, a state in western India, contains the city of Surat. Surat literally translates to "face" in Gujarati and Hindi.
• It was once a sizable harbor and was situated on the banks of the river Tapti close to where it met the Arabian Sea.
• One of the biggest urban centers in western India, it is currently the commercial and economic hub of South Gujarat.
• It is a significant hub for the supply of clothes and accessories and has well-established textile and diamond industries.
• The city is where 90% of the world's diamonds are cut and polished.
• It is India's eighth-largest city by population and ninth-largest urban agglomeration overall.
• It is the second-largest city in Gujarat after Ahmedabad. 180 miles (kilometers) north of Mumbai.
• Delhi:
• ​New Delhi, the nation's capital, is located in Delhi, an Indian city and union territory, which is officially known as the National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi.
• Delhi shares borders with the states of Uttar Pradesh in the east and with the state of Haryana in the remaining directions as it spans the Yamuna River, particularly on its western or right bank.
• The NCT is 1,484 square kilometers in size (573 sq mi).
• The NCT has a population of about 16.8 million while Delhi's city proper had a population of over 11 million as per the 2011 census.
• The National Capital Region (NCR), which comprises Delhi's urban agglomeration and the satellite towns of Ghaziabad, Faridabad, Gurgaon, and Noida, is home to more than 28 million people, making it the world's largest metropolitan area.
• Kanpur:
• In India's Uttar Pradesh state's central-western region is the industrial city of Kanpur.
• Kanpur, which was established in 1207, rose to prominence as one of British India's most significant commercial and military centres.
• Kanpur served as Uttar Pradesh's financial hub as well.
• Kanpur, which is located on the banks of the Ganges River, is the ninth-largest urban economy in India and the principal financial and industrial hub of North India.
• Nowadays, it is renowned for its colonial architecture, parks, gardens, and high-end leather, plastic, and textile products that are primarily sold to the West.

The correct answer is New Delhi .

Key Points

• The national football federation has never provided an explanation for the choice, however there are many theories.
• Some stated the All-India Football Federation (AIFF) could not afford to send the players to Brazil at the time, while some claimed it was because the team intended to play barefoot.
• The 32 football games of the FIFA U-17 Women's World Cup 2022 were played at three locations.
• The DY Patil Stadium in Navi Mumbai, Maharashtra; the Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium in Margao, Goa.
• It took place at Navi Mumbai.
• At the Kalinga Stadium in Bhubaneswar, the seventh FIFA U17 Women's World Cup got underway on October 11, 2022.
• On October 30, the championship game will be place at the DY Patil Stadium.
• India will be hosting the competition for the first time this year and will be making their debut.

Additional Information

• The FIFA Under 17 Women's World Cup will take place in India in 2022.
• It will be the first time the nation has hosted a competition from the women's world football governing body.
• This is the third-most significant Women's Competitions event on the FIFA calendar, featuring 36 games between 16 nations at 5 locations in India.
• One of the most significant tournaments ever to be organised in Indian football history, the FIFA Under 17 Women's World Cup has served as a crucial starting stone in the careers of several international football heroes.
• The FIFA Under 17 Women's World Cup will have a long-lasting impact on Indian football, modernising the facilities, establishing suitable operational guidelines, and raising the level of play in general.
• Unquestionably, the FIFA Under-17 Women's World Cup in India in 2022 has the potential to revolutionise Indian football.
• With an expected global audience of around 200 million people from almost 200 different nations, the tournament has a significant impact on the entire world.
• This presents India with a fantastic opportunity to showcase its cities, culture, and capacity to host events of the greatest calibre.

The correct answer is Wheat and rice .

Key Points

• The farmers sold a significant amount of the surplus rice and wheat produced during the green revolution era in the market.
• As a result, the cost of food grains decreased in comparison to other consumables.
• According to one prediction for 2021, between 1965 and 2010, the Green Revolution raised yields by 44%. Between 1961 and 1985, cereal production more than doubled in emerging countries.
• Throughout that time, yields of wheat, maize, and rice all continuously climbed.
• The introduction of new, high-yielding cultivars into developing countries starting in the middle of the 20th century led to a significant rise in the production of food grains (particularly wheat and rice) and is known as the "green revolution."
• Mexico and the Indian subcontinent were the locations of its initial stunning achievements.

Additional Information

• Beginning in the middle of the 20th century, the introduction of new, high-yielding variety seeds into emerging countries led to a significant increase in the production of food grains (particularly wheat and rice).
• Mexico and the Indian subcontinent were the locations of its initial stunning achievements.
• Facilities with Low Irrigation Only 17% of the land was covered by irrigation in 1951.
• The majority of agriculture relied on monsoon rains, and in cases of sparse rain or a delayed monsoon, crops would be damaged for lack of adequate irrigation systems.
• A low level of agricultural production resulted from this.
• In order to ensure that small farmers had access to the necessary inputs, the government offered low-interest loans to them and gave subsidies for fertiliser.
• As a result, the output of small farms eventually equaled that of large farms, promoting equity and social justice.

The correct answer is Tapi.

Key Points

• The two largest rivers in India that flow through rift valleys are the Narmada and the Tapi.
• One of the rivers in India, the Narmada, flows between the Satpura and Vindhya hills in a rift valley and towards the west.
• The Damodar River in the Chota Nagpur Plateau and Tapti are among the other rivers that run through the rift valley.
• In a rift valley, the Tapi River flows.
• Three rivers in India pass through a valley known as the Rift.
• The Narmada and the Damodar rivers are the other two that pass through a rift valley.

Additional Information

• A rift valley is a lowland with a linear shape that is formed by the activity of a geologic rift between numerous highlands or mountain ranges.
• Because of extensional tectonics, rifts are created as the lithosphere is torn apart.
• The effects of erosion may subsequently deepen the linear depression even more.
• Three inches are moved annually by plate tectonics, as is well known.
• Plate borders are produced by the interaction of tectonic plates.
• Particularly, rift valleys are created when continental plates separate from one another and move farther apart.
• When plates move apart, they create divergent plate borders, which are related to the rift valley development.
• Mountains are likely to be formed as a result of the movement of convergent plate boundaries towards one another and pressing against one another.
• Son:
• ​Central India is home to the perennial Son River (sometimes spelled Sone River).
• It starts near Amarkantak Hill in the Chhattisgarh district of Gaurela-Pendra-Marwahi, and eventually it joins the Ganges River close to Patna, Bihar.
• After the Yamuna River, the Sone River is the Ganges' second-largest tributary in the south.
• Arrah and Patna are connected by India's oldest river bridge, the Koilwar Bridge over the Sone River.
• Sand from the Sone River is well-known throughout the nation.
• Throughout its path towards the Ganges, numerous hydroelectric projects and dams are present.
• Koshi:
• ​A transboundary river called the Kosi or Koshi passes through China, Nepal, and India.
• It drains the southern slopes of Nepal and the northern slopes of the Himalayas in Tibet.
• The Kosi River and its seven upper tributaries are collectively known as Saptakoshi from a significant confluence of rivers north of the Chatra Gorge onwards.
• They include the Tamor River, which rises in the Kanchenjunga region to the east, and the Arun and Sun Kosi rivers, which come from Tibet.
• From east to west, the Dudh Koshi, Bhote Koshi, Tamakoshi River, Likhu Khola, and Indravati are the Sun Koshi's tributaries. Before crossing the Ganges close to Kursela in the Katihar region, the Saptakoshi travels into northern Bihar, India.
• Luni:
• ​The Luni is the largest river in northwest India's Thar Desert.
• It begins in the Pushkar valley of the Aravalli Range, close to Ajmer, travels 495 kilometres through the southern Thar Desert, and then terminates in the marshlands of the Rann of Kutch in Gujarat (308 mi).
• After passing Govindgarh, it meets its tributary Sarasvati, which rises in Pushkar Lake, and is thereafter known as Luni. Originally known as Sagarmati.

The correct answer is Cyclical.

Key Points

• Cyclical unemployment is a shortage of employment brought on by fluctuations in the business cycle of an economy.
• High unemployment rates are primarily a result of cyclical unemployment.
• It results from a contraction in the business cycle.
• It is a normal cycle of economic growth's ups and downs that happens over time.
• Temporary cyclical unemployment is based on how long an economic downturn brought on by a recession lasts.
• You should anticipate frequent changes in the economy if you work in business or finance.
• These cycles may have a big impact on spending, which could harm your business or sector.
• You may make sure that a company enterprise experiences fewer negative effects by foreseeing these changes.
• Business cycles could last just a few days or several years.

Additional Information

• The length of a trade cycle is determined by how long it takes to complete each of its five stages.
• The recession stage of the economy starts when the boom phase ends and economic activity declines.
• It continues until the GDP reaches the point where the expansion stage begins.
• During a recession, demand may drop almost immediately, but producers might not change their output until the market supply is abundant.
• Frictional:
• ​Transitions in voluntary employment within an economy might lead to frictional unemployment.
• A brief period of unemployment is produced as employees decide to switch jobs and as new workers join the workforce for the first time.
• The frictional unemployment rate is computed by dividing the workers actively looking for jobs by the total labour force.
• Those who have recently left their occupations, those who are reentering the workforce, and newcomers are the three groups of people who are actively looking for work.
• Structural:
• When the abilities that people in the economy can supply do not match the skills that companies are looking for in employees, structural unemployment results (also known as the skills gap).
• Technological advancements that render many workers' job abilities obsolete frequently cause structural unemployment.
• One of the three types of unemployment identified by economists—the other two being frictional unemployment and cyclical unemployment—is structural unemployment.
• Technological:
• ​The loss of work as a result of technical development is known as technological unemployment.
• This important category is structural unemployment.
• The role of people in technological transformation is often reduced as "mechanical-muscle" devices or more effective "mechanical-mind" processes (automation) replace labor-intensive ones.

The correct answer is Pandyan and Pallava.

Key Points

• Vijayalaya's successors expanded the kingdom's borders by conquest, increasing its size and power.
• The Pallava and Pandyan regions to the south and north were integrated into this kingdom.
• The Godavari-Krishna River basin in the north, the Konkan coast in Bhatkal, the entire Malabar Coast (the Chea region), in addition to Lakshadweep, and the Maldives were all portions of the Chola Empire at its height.
• His son Aditya Chola I succeeded him, and he built the Imperial Chola Empire.

Additional Information

• Vijayalaya was a member of the Uraiyur Chola family. Muttaraiyar, the head of the Kaveri Delta, was vanquished by him.
• He built a temple for the goddess Nishumbhasudini and the town of Thanjavur.
• The Chola empire was constructed by his successors.
• He built a lot of Shiva temples.
• The first significant Chola king, Parantaka I, succeeded him in 907 A.D. As an ambitious leader, Parantaka I started his reign off with conquest-focused conflicts.
• From Rajasimha II of the Pandyas, he took control of Madurai.
• He took on the name Maduraikonda (captor of Madurai).
• The Maldives were also annexed by him.
• Their rivalry with the Chalukyas grew as a result of the conquest and annexation of various portions of contemporary Mysore in other locations.
• The majestic Brihadeshwara or Rajaraja Temple in Thanjavur, which was erected by Rajaraja and finished in 1010, is a Shiva temple. It is regarded as a spectacular example of South Indian style architecture.

The correct answer is Sattriya .

Key Points

• Her Sattriya dance is her specialty. 2015 saw Saikia win the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award.
• The dancer received the Bishnu Rabha Award from the Department of Cultural Affairs of the Government of Assam in 2022.
• Guru Jatin Goswami, Guru Ghanakanta Bora, Manik and Bhabananda Barbayan, Moniram Dutta, and Dr. Bhupen Hazarika are a few of the top male Sattriya artists.
• Sattriya dance's modern form is credited to Mahapurush Srimanta Sankardev, who created it to go with plays used for religious instruction.
• The flute had been incorporated into the performance by the 15th century, and Sankardev had written music specifically for the dances.

Additional Information

• In the 15th century, Srimanta Sankardev began a neo-Vaishnavite movement in Assam, which gave rise to the Sattriya sect.
• He spread what is known as "ek sharan naama dharma" (chanting the name of one God devotedly).
• Ankiya bhaona and Ojapali dances, in which the lead singer sings, performs abhinaya, tells stories, and a group of dancer's dance as backup dancers while playing small cymbals, are both included in the corpus of Sattriya dances.
• A significant component of Indian classical dance and music is ritualistic worship.
• Assam's cultural legacy is inextricably linked to the more than 600-year-old Sattriya traditions and ritualistic practises found in mediaeval Vaishnavite monasteries, or sattras.
• They offer a vivid view of Assamese culture by reflecting the ancient idioms of the land and society.
• Kuchipudi: 
• ​The dance-drama performance known as Kuchipudi has its origins in the Natya Shastra, an old Hindu scripture written in Sanskrit.
• Like all significant Indian classical dances, it began as a religious art form associated with itinerant bards, temples, and spiritual beliefs.
• Copper inscriptions from the 10th century and manuscripts like the Machupalli Kaifat from the 15th century both contain evidence of Kuchipudi's earlier existence.
• According to Kuchipudi tradition, the contemporary form of Kuchipudi was established and systematized in the 17th century by the sanyasin Tirtha Narayana Yati and his student, an orphan named Siddhendra Yogi.
• Bharatanatyam: ​
• ​Indian classical dance known as bharatanatyam has its roots in Tamil Nadu.
• It reflects South Indian religious themes and spiritual ideals, primarily those of Shaivism and generally of Hinduism.
• It is one of the eight Indian classical dance styles recognized by the Sangeet Natak Akademi.
• Kathak: 
• ​One of the eight primary styles of Indian classical dance is kathak.
• It is an Uttar Pradesh classical dance style.
• The storytellers or itinerant bards known as Kathakars in ancient northern India are often credited as the creators of Kathak.
• The Vedic Sanskrit words Katha, which means "story," and Kathakar, which means "the one who tells a story "Or "to do with stories," are the roots of the word Kathak.
• Traveling Kathakars used dance, songs, and music to transmit tales from the great epics and ancient mythology.
• Kathak dancers use intricate footwork, flexible body movements, and, most importantly, expressive face expressions to convey a variety of stories.

The correct answer is Padma Shri. 

Key Points

• Sonal Mansingh, a Bharatanatyam and Odissi dance master, was born on April 30, 1944, in India.
• She has received the President of India's nomination to serve in the Rajya Sabha.
• She received the Padma Bhushan in 1992 and the Padma Vibhushan in 2003 as the youngest recipient.
• Kelucharan Mohapatra, a renowned Indian classical dancer, master, and exponent of Odissi dance, lived from 8 January 1926 to 7 April 2004.
• He is credited with bringing back and making popular this ancient dance style in the 20th century.
• He is the first recipient of Odisha's Padma Vibhushan.

Additional Information

• Cuttack is where Mohanty was born. In Kala Vikash Kendra, she received instruction from Guru Kelucharan Mohapatra.
• She is well known for her abhinaya.
• She previously served as the Government of Odisha's special secretary for culture.
• At Bhubaneshwar, she opened her dancing studio, Geeta Govinda, in 2006, following her retirement in 2004.
• Without regard to race, occupation, status, or sex, the medal is granted for "distinguished service of a high order."
• Doctors and scientists are included in the award criteria, along with "service in any field, including service performed by Government servants," although individuals employed by public sector firms are not.
• Padma Bhushan: 
• ​The Bharat Ratna, the Padma Vibhushan, and the Padma Shri are the two highest civilian honours of the Republic of India, with the Padma Bhushan coming in third.
• Awarded for "distinguished service of a high order...without difference of race, occupation, status, or sex," the award was established on January 2, 1954.
• Doctors and scientists are included in the award criteria, along with "service in any field, including service performed by Government servants," although individuals employed by public sector firms are not.
• By the year 2020, 1270 people had received the honour, including 24 posthumous and 97 non-citizen honorees.
• Kalidas Samman:
• The Indian state of Madhya Pradesh annually bestows the Kalidas Samman, a prize for the arts.
• The honour bears Klidsa's name, a well-known author of Classical Sanskrit in prehistoric India.
• In 1980, the Kalidas Samman was first given out. Classical Music, Classical Dance, Theatre, and Plastic Arts were the first four disciplines in which it was awarded on an annual basis.
• From 1986–87 to 2008–09, the prizes were typically given out in all four categories.
• After that, it was just one recipient per year.
• Padma Vibhushan:
• ​After the Bharat Ratna, the Padma Vibhushan ("Lotus Decoration") is the Republic of India's second-highest civilian honour. Instituted on 2 January 1954, the medal is granted for "exceptional and outstanding service".
• All people, regardless of ethnicity, profession, status, or sexual orientation, are eligible for these honours.
• Government employees, including those employed by PSUs, are not eligible for these Prizes, with the exception of physicians and scientists.
• By the year 2022, 325 people had received the honour, including 19 posthumous and 21 non-citizen honorees.

The correct answer is Cell.

Key Points

• The smallest and most basic unit of life is the cell.
• Cells make up the majority of living things, and it is the processes that cells perform that allow life to continue.
• Because of this, cells are also referred to as the fundamental building block of living things.
• The smallest building blocks of all living things are called cells.
• A cell has the ability to live independently and do all the tasks required of a living thing.
• Nutrition, respiration, excretion, transportation, and reproduction are all carried out by a cell.
• Since they contribute to the structure of the organism, cells are structural units.

Additional Information

• Cell:
• Unicellular organisms are able to I live independently and carry out the fundamental tasks of life.
• Independent living cannot be guaranteed if a cell's structure is incomplete.
• As a result, the cell is the basic structural and functional unit of all living things.
• Cells come together to form the body of every organism, much as how bricks come together to form a house.
• A tissue is made up of a number of cells that have a certain job to do.
• An organ is made up of a group of tissues, while an organism is made up of a group of organs.
• Because of this, cells are regarded as the fundamental building blocks of living things.
• Cells are the building blocks of all living things.
• The cell is where all biological activities take place.
• An organism is made up of various organs.
• Organ system: 
• ​A group of organs that cooperate to carry out one or more functions is known as an organ system in biology.
• Each organ in a plant or animal body is composed of certain tissues and serves a specific purpose.
• Tissue:
• ​Tissue is a collection of cells with a common structure and function that work as a single unit.
• The body's tissues give it form and aid in energy storage and heat retention.
• Connective tissue, epithelial tissue, muscle tissue, and nervous tissue are the four different types of tissues.
• Organ:
• ​An organ sits between a tissue and an organ system in the hierarchy of life.
• Similar cell types come together to form tissues that perform a certain purpose.
• An organ is made up of a variety of tissues that work together to provide a certain function.
• For instance, the intestinal wall is made of both smooth muscle and epithelial tissue.

The correct answer is Sarkaria commission.

Key Points

• A state's governor is chosen by the president for a five-year term and serves at his leisure.
• Only Indian citizens who are at least 35 years old may be appointed to this position.
• The Governor has the authority to act as the State's executive.
• Every state will have a governor (Articles 153 of the Constitution of India).
• According to the Indian Constitution, the Governor shall hold the executive power of the State and may use it himself or through persons who report to him (Article 154).
• As stated in their oath of office under Article 159, the governor's main duty is to uphold, defend, and safeguard the constitution and the law.

Additional Information

• Dr. S. R. Sen and Shri B. Sivaraman were chosen as commission members.
• The panel was tasked with reviewing and evaluating the effectiveness of current agreements between the Union and States regarding authorities, duties, and obligations in all domains and making recommendations for changes to improve coordination between the centre and states.
• The democratic machinery is severely disrupted as a result of this.
• The nation has experienced a number of social, economic, and political developments over time, along with new conflicts and problems.
• The smooth operation of the Center and the States depends on consensus and cooperation.
• IN this regard, the Parliament suggested the appointment of a commission in 1983, with former Supreme Court judge R.S. Sarkaria serving as its chairman.
• Fazal Ali Commission: 
• ​The Central Government of India established the States Reorganisation Commission (SRC) in December 1953 to make recommendations regarding the redrawing of state boundaries.
• After two years of research, the Committee, made up of Justice Fazal Ali, K. M. Panikkar, and H. N. Kunzru, published its report in September 1955.
• With significant adjustments, the commission's recommendations were adopted and included in the States Reorganisation Act, which was passed in November 1956.
• The act mandated reorganising India's state borders to create 14 states and 6 centrally managed regions.
• Rajmannar commission: 
• ​In 1969, the Tamil Nadu DMK government established the Rajmannar Commission, which was presided over by Dr. P.V. Rajamanar.
• It was established to investigate the issue of what kind of relationship should exist between the federal government and the states. In 1971, it turned in a report.
• It demanded readjusting the VII schedule and giving the states residual power.
• Mandal commission: 
• ​The Janata Party government, led by Prime Minister Morarji Desai, established the Mandal Commission, also known as the Socially and Educationally Backward Classes Commission (SEBC), in India in 1979 with the goal of "identifying the socially or educationally backward groups" in the country.
• It was led by Indian legislator B.P. Mandal and used eleven social, economic, and educational variables to gauge backwardness in order to evaluate the issue of reservations for individuals in order to alleviate caste discrimination.
• The report of the committee proposed that members of Other Backward Classes (OBC) be awarded reservations to 27% of jobs in 1980 based on its justification that OBCs ("Other backward classes") classified on the basis of caste, social, and economic factors accounted up 52% of India's population.

The correct answer is under 8. 

Key Points

• Beginning with the academic year 2022–2023, the Ennum Ezhuthum Mission will be implemented in all government schools in Tamil Nadu.
• On April 4, 2022, M K Stalin, the chief minister of Tamil Nadu, released the "Kaaval Uthavi" app.
• Once Tamil, English, and Mathematics committees were established, meetings were held at the district and state levels, and teachers' opinions were solicited, the Ennum Ezhuthum Mission was born.
• The chief minister stated that the government's policy was "education for all," and that primary education in particular required attention because it served as the groundwork for children's subsequent academic development.

The correct answer is Vernacular Press Act, 1878. 

Key Points

• According to the Vernacular Press Act, any magistrate or police commissioner had the power to order any printer or publisher of a newspaper to sign a bond promising not to publish a specific type of material and to seize any printed materials it deemed offensive.
• The Gagging Act was another name for the Press Act. It was a measure to improve the regulation of publishing in eastern languages.
• British India passed the Vernacular Press Act in 1878 to restrict the freedom of the Indian-language (i.e., non-English) press.
• That led to animosity among Indians, which served as one of the driving forces behind the nation's escalating independence struggle.

Additional Information

• British India passed the Vernacular Press Act (1878) to restrict journalistic freedom and discourage criticism of British policy, notably the opposition that had risen since the commencement of the Second Anglo-Afghan War (1878–80).
• The Act was submitted by Lytton, the Viceroy of India at the time, and on March 14, 1878, the Viceroy's Council unanimously approved it.
• In order to "better control" the vernacular press and effectively penalise and prohibit "seditious literature" in "publications in oriental languages," the Vernacular Press Act (VPA) was passed.
• As a result, the Brits had nothing but hatred for the (non-English speaking) Indian press.
• Ilbert Act, 1883:​
• ​In Indian history, the Ilbert Bill was a contentious proposal made in 1883 to permit senior Indian magistrates to sit over matters involving British subjects in India.
• The Indian Legislative Council passed the compromise-devastated bill on January 25, 1884.
• This measure sought parity between British and Indian judges in the nation and allowed for the trial of British or European citizens by Indian judges.
• The government's withdrawal of the bill was compelled by the white opposition.
• Media Act, 1883:
• ​During the British colonial era (1870–1918), Indian media worked to incite nationalism among the populace.
• It focused on combating illiteracy, promoting public agitation, and encouraging open, engaged debates against the administration in addition to discussing the political plans of the government.
• Newspaper Act, 1855: 
• ​An Act to Provide for the Transmission of Printed Periodical Publications by Post and to Amend the Statutes Relating to the Stamp Taxes on Newspapers.
  

[June 15, 1855]

• WHEREAS it is necessary to amend the laws governing stamp duties on newspapers and to make provisions for the postal delivery of printed periodicals.
• It is hereby enacted by Her Majesty the Queen, with the Advice and Consent of the Lords Spiritual and Temporal, and the Commons, in this current Parliament assembled, and by the Authority of the same.

The correct answer is Bohag Bihu.

Key Points

• The Bohag Bihu, also known as the Rongali Bihu, is a joyous festival that marks the start of spring and the Assamese New Year.
• Assam celebrates Bihu, Baishagu, Ali-Ai-Ligang, Baikho, Rongker, and Rajini Gabra as its important holidays. Bohaggiyo Bishu, Jonbill Mela, Ambubashi Mela, and others include Harni Gabra.
• The most well-known Bihu, Bohag Bihu (mid-April; also known as Rongali Bihu), marks the beginning of the Assamese New Year (about 14–15 April) and the arrival of spring.
• On April 14th of every year, the Indian state of Assam observes a regional public holiday known as Bohag Bihu.
• Depending on the day of the week it falls on, a number of days of public holidays may be announced, and occasionally it is also a public holiday in the neighbouring state of Arunachal Pradesh.
• This national holiday, also known as Rongali Bihu, is celebrated in Assam, one of India's most picturesque states noted for its tea gardens, verdant forests, and the Brahmaputra River.

Additional Information

• "Garu Bihu" is the name given to the first day of the Bihu.
• On this day, folks bathe and pray for the health and safety of their home cattle while they take them to the river for a bath.
• People take a turmeric-based bath on "Manuh Bihu," the second day of Bihu.
• Families eat a variety of larus or laddus and pithas, or rice cakes.
• People visit neighbours and family members during Bihu celebrations to say hello to one another and show their respect for the family's elders by giving them a fresh "Gamosa" (a traditional Assamese hand-woven cotton towel with red designs with a white background).
• Ali-ai-ligang:
• ​The Mising or Mishing tribal people of Assam and other Northeast Indian states celebrate Ali-Aye-Ligang or Ali-Ai-Ligang, a spring festival related with agriculture, on the occasion of the start of the Ahu paddy cultivation.
• The celebration signifies the beginning of seeding.
• Three words make up the festival's name: "Ali" (legumes), "Aye" (seed), and "Ligang" (sow).
• On the first Wednesday of Phalguna, the 12th month of the Hindu calendar, the festival gets underway.
• Me-Dum-Me-Phi: 
• ​Mae Dam Mae Phi is a significant event that the Tai-Ahom have celebrated since very early times.
• "Me" is an offering word. Both "Dam" and "Phi" refer to the gods.
• Hence, "Mae Dam Mae Phi" refers to sacrifices made to the spirits of the ancestors.
• Kati Bihu:
• ​On the first day of the Assamese calendar's "Kati" month, which often falls in the middle of October, Kati Bihu is observed. It falls on October 18 this year.
• The celebration heralds the shifting of the rice crop and the start of the season of new harvest.
• An observation of service, penance, and the desire for a better future, Kati Bihu.
• Despite the fact that each Assamese tribe has its own customs and celebrations of the day, the event is observed throughout the entire state of Assam.
• Outside the houses, lamps are lit, and a bamboo path is built as a trail for the ancestors.

The correct answer is Black Soil .

Key Points

• After a volcanic eruption, weathering and cooling of lava (igneous rocks) result in the formation of black soil.
• Black basalt soil, which is abundant in humus and iron and also contains high grade magnesia, lime, and alumina, makes up the soil in the Deccan Plateau.
• The Deccan trap region, which is distributed across the northwest Deccan plateau, is home to black soil, which is also referred to as regur soil.
• It is best suited for growing cotton because it is composed of lava flow.
• In addition to the weathering or cracking of igneous rocks, the cooling or solidification of lava following a volcano eruption also contributes to the formation of black soil.
• As a result, it is also known as lava soil.

Additional Information

• These eruptions are silent because the lava has a low viscosity, making it highly fluid and containing few trapped gases.
• The sheet lava flows that follow may be extruded from rifts or linear fissures, massive volcanic eruptions, or many vents that are reminiscent of the prehistoric epoch when large flood basalts were formed.
• The original environment is eventually covered by numerous successive, large lava flows, creating a plateau that could have lava fields, cinder cones, shield volcanoes, and other volcanic structures.
• The ability to support rooted plants in a natural environment or the presence of horizons, or layers, that are distinguishable from the initial material as a result of additions, losses, transfers, and transformations of energy and matter are two characteristics of soil, a natural body made up of solids (minerals and organic matter), liquids, and gases that occurs on the land surface and occupies space.
• Laterite soil: 
• ​Both laterite and laterite rocks are frequently used interchangeably.
• There have been suggestions for the name to be completely dropped due to this as well as more variance in the ways that laterite is conceptualized (such as also as a whole weathering profile or theory about weathering).
• At least a few regolith development experts have thought that the name has become the subject of hopeless misunderstanding. There is a lot of material that resembles Indian laterite all around the world.
• Alluvial soil: 
• ​The other soil-forming elements affect the final soil qualities as alluvial soils mature over time.
• Alluvial soils frequently comprise layers of alluvium that were deposited consecutively and/or in fining-upward processes, making them highly stratified.
• Every time there is flooding, new alluvium is deposited on the soil in active floodplains.
• Each event will drop a different amount of alluvium.
• The rate at which small amounts of material are deposited on the soil can be scarcely noticeable and quickly assimilated into the underlying surface horizon relies on the temperature and biota.
• Subsequent soils can be totally buried by additional alluvium in larger quantities.
• Red soil: 
• ​About 13% of the soils on Earth are red soil, a type of soil that often forms in warm, temperate, and humid areas.
• On top of a red layer of alluvium, it has thin organic and organic-mineral layers of heavily leached soil.
• Large levels of clay are typically present in red soils, which are typically the result of old crystalline and metamorphic rock weathering. Because of their high iron concentration, they have a deep red colour that can range from reddish brown to reddish yellow, hence their name.
• Depending on how it is handled, red soil can be either good or terrible for growing anything.

The correct answer is Australia. 

Key Points

• The event was place in Australia from February 21 until March 8, 2020.
• On International Women's Day, the final took played at the Melbourne Cricket Ground.
• Hosts Australia won the competition by defeating India by 85 runs to capture their fifth championship.
• Women's T20WC 2023: Australia defeated South Africa to win an amazing sixth championship.
• Throughout the game, Meg Lanning's In a thrilling championship match, Australia defeated South Africa at the ICC Women's T20 World Cup in Cape Town in 2023.
• Having won the last two competitions, the United States is the reigning champion.

Additional Information

• A predetermined number of teams advance automatically to each event, with the World Twenty20 Qualification selecting the other teams. Australia is the most successful team, having won the competition six times.
• International ICC Women's Twenty20 rankings and a qualification match, the ICC Women's World Twenty20 Qualifier, determine qualification.
• Up until 2014, the top six teams in the ICC Women's Twenty20 International rankings at the time of the draw determined six teams, with the final two spots being determined through a qualification process.
• The top eight teams in the ICC Women's T20I rankings determined six spots in the 2014 edition, with the host nation and three qualifiers joining them in the competition.
• At the ICC Women's T20 World Cup 2023 in South Africa, big names performed on the biggest platform, with Australia winning their sixth championship and many of the best players in the world making an impression.
• United Kingdom: 
• ​The United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland, also referred to as the UK or Britain, is a nation in Europe that lies off the northwestern coast of the continent.
• England, Scotland, Wales, and Northern Ireland are included in it.
• The British Isles' Great Britain, the northeastern portion of Ireland, and numerous smaller islands are all included in the United Kingdom.
• The Republic of Ireland and Northern Ireland are separated by a land border; otherwise, the Atlantic Ocean, the North Sea, the English Channel, the Celtic Sea, and the Irish Sea encircle the rest of the United Kingdom.
• The population of the United Kingdom is expected to reach over 67 million by the year 2020, covering a total area of 242,495 square kilometres (93,628 sq mi).
• India: 
• ​India, often known as the Republic of India, is a South Asian nation.
• It is the world's most populous democracy, the second-most populated nation by area, and the seventh-largest nation overall.
• Its land borders with Pakistan to the west, China, Nepal, and Bhutan to the north, Bangladesh and Myanmar to the east, and the Indian Ocean on the south, Arabian Sea on the southwest, and the Bay of Bengal on the southeast.
• India shares a maritime border with Thailand, Myanmar, and Indonesia on its Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which are located in the Indian Ocean near Sri Lanka and the Maldives.
• West Indies: 
• ​The West Indies, a part of North America bordered by the Caribbean Sea and the North Atlantic Ocean, is made up of three archipelagos the Greater Antilles, the Lesser Antilles, and the Lucayan Archipelago as well as 13 autonomous island nations and 18 dependencies.

The correct answer is NH3.

Key Points

• Nitrogen and hydrogen combine to form the colorless, smelly gas (NH3).
• It is the most basic stable compound of these elements and is used as a raw material to create a variety of nitrogen compounds with significant industrial applications.
• Ammonia has the chemical formula NH3 and is a colorless gas.
• Nitrogen and hydrogen make up its composition.
• Its name in aqueous form is ammonium hydroxide.
• Ammonium Hydroxide, Ammonium Conjugate, Azanide Conjugate, Ammonia Solution, Strong, and Ammonium (Conjugate) (related).
• Total ammonia (NH3), free ammonia (NH4+), and ammonium are the three different forms of ammonia (NH3).

Additional Information

• NH3:
• Aqueous ammonia or liquid ammonia are two names for this type of ammonia.
• Ammonia gas forms quickly when liquid ammonia is exposed to the atmosphere.
• Ammonia is used to manufacture fertilizers for farm crops, lawns, and plants, and it is injected directly into the soil on agricultural fields.
• Ammonia is a common ingredient in commercial and domestic cleansers.
• Ammonia is created by human activity and occurs naturally.
• It is a significant supply of nitrogen, which both plants and animals depend on.
• Ammonia can be produced by intestinal bacteria.
• The colorless gas known as ammonia has a potent aroma.
• Because ammonia is a common ingredient in window cleaners, household and industrial cleaners, and smelling salts, many people are familiar with this stench.
• PH3:
• The naturally occurring anaerobic degradation of organic materials containing phosphorus results in the formation of phosphonate, an extremely poisonous phosphorus hydride.
• It can also be manufactured through an alkali metal hydroxide or white phosphorus hydrolysis event.
• Phosphine is employed as a pesticide, in industrial operations, and in the creation of flame retardants.
• When pure, it is described as an odorless, colorless gas. Inhalation, ingestion, or touch all result in exposure.
• NO3:
• ​With the chemical formula NO3, nitrate is a polyatomic ion.
• This ion is found in salts, which are known as nitrates.
• Fertilizers and explosives frequently contain nitrates as a component.
• About all inorganic nitrates are water soluble.
• Bismuth oxynitrate is an illustration of an insoluble nitrate.
• NO2: 
• ​The chemical compound with the formula NO is nitrogen dioxide.
  

It belongs to a group of nitrogen oxides.

• Millions of tonnes of nitric acid are produced annually for use largely in fertilizer manufacture, with NO serving as an intermediary in this process.
• When the temperature rises, the gas turns reddish-brown.
• If inhaled in significant amounts, it can be lethal.
• A bent, paramagnetic molecule with C2v point group symmetry is nitrogen dioxide.

The correct answer is dhamma mahamatta. 

Key Points

• From 268 to 232 BCE, Ashoka appointed the Dhamma Mahamatta. Around 260 B.C.,
• He declared Buddhism the official religion.
• Also, he established a group of officials known as the dhamma-mahamattas, whose roles included both dhamma propagation and keeping the emperor abreast of public opinion.
• Religious practises that include the sacrifice of animals are practised.
• He hired a new group of officials called Dhammamahamattas to carry out his policies.

Additional Information

• Samaharta: In ancient India, the samaharta was responsible for the collection of taxes and revenue from the people in a specific region.
• Nyayadheesh: Nyayadheesh refers to a judge or magistrate who presides over legal matters and ensures justice is served.
• Amatya: Amatya refers to a minister or high-ranking official in ancient Indian administration.

Given:

The number of officers working in six companies (table).

Formula used:

Total number = sum of all individual officers from each company.

Total number = n(D) + n(E) + n(F) + n(G) + n(H) + n(I)

Calculation:

Let, Officers, working in a certain company = n()

Total number of officers working = n(D) + n(E) + n(F) + n(G) + n(H) + n(I)

⇒ 400 + 500 + 600 + 350 + 450 + 800

⇒ 3100

Thus, '3100' number of officers are working in all the companies.

Given:

cos (A – B) = $\frac{{\sqrt 3 }}{2}$

cos (A + B) = 0

Concept used:

Values of angles of Cosine:

cos 0^o = 1

cos 30^o =  $\frac{{\sqrt 3 }}{2}$

cos 45^o = $\frac{1}{\sqrt2}$

cos 60^o = $\frac{1}{2}$

cos 90^o = 0

Calculations:

cos (A – B) = $\frac{{\sqrt 3 }}{2}$ = cos 30^o

A - B = 30o - - - - - - - -(1)

Cos (A + B) = 0 = cos 90^o

A + B = 90o - - - - - - - -(2)

Adding equations 1 and 2, we get

A - B + A + B = 90o + 30o

2A = 120o

A = 60^o

Put the value of A in eq 1,

A - B = 30o

60o - B = 30o

B = 30^o

Thus, the measures of A and B are 60^o and 30^o respectively.

Shortcut Trick

Total distance = (40 × 3) + (30 × 2) + (80 × 5) = 120 + 60 + 400 = 580 km

Total time = 3 + 2 + 5 = 10 hours

Average Speed = 580 ÷ 10 = 58 km/h

∴ The correct answer is 58 km/h.

Alternate Method

Given:

Car Speed = 40 km/h, Time = 3 hours

Bike Speed = 30 km/h, Time = 2 hours

Train Speed = 80 km/h, Time = 5 hours

Formula Used:

Average Speed = (Total Distance) ÷ (Total Time)

Distance = Speed × Time

Calculations:

⇒ Distance₁ = 40 × 3 = 120 km

⇒ Distance₂ = 30 × 2 = 60 km

⇒ Distance₃ = 80 × 5 = 400 km

⇒ Total Distance = 120 + 60 + 400 = 580 km

⇒ Total Time = 3 + 2 + 5 = 10 hours

⇒ Average Speed = 580 ÷ 10 = 58 km/h

∴ The correct answer is 58 km/h.

Additional Information

Average Speed (Equal Distances)

When two equal distances are covered at speeds u and v, average speed = 2uv ÷ (u+v).

Relative Speed

For objects moving in the same direction, relative speed = s₁ − s₂. In opposite directions, relative speed = s₁ + s₂.

Unit Conversion

To convert km/h to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/h, multiply by 18/5.

Given:

${{\rm X}^2} + \frac{1}{{{{\rm X}^2}}} = 66$

Formula used:

(a - b)² = a² + b² - 2ab

Calculations:

(${\rm X} - \frac{1}{{\rm X}}$)² = ${{\rm X}^2} + \frac{1}{{{{\rm X}^2}}}$ - 2

⇒ 66- 2

⇒ 64

${\rm X} - \frac{1}{{\rm X}}$ = $\sqrt64$

⇒ ± 8

Hence, the correct answer is '8'.

Given:

tan A = $\frac{2}{3}$ 

Formula used:

tan A = $\frac{sin A}{cos A}$

tan A = $\frac{perpendicular}{Base}$

sin A = $\frac{Perpendicular}{Hypotenuse}$

Calculation:

As tan A = $\frac{sin A}{cos A}$ and tan A = $\frac{perpendicular}{Base}$

thus, perpendicular = 2

base = 3

Using Pythagoras's Theorem, 

H² = P² + B²

H² = 2² + 3²

H² = 4 + 9

H² = 13

H = $\sqrt13$

Now, sin A = $\frac{Perpendicular}{Hypotenuse}$

sin A =  $\frac{2}{\sqrt13}$

Hence, the correct answer is '$\frac{2}{\sqrt13}$'.

Given:

20 men can finish a work in 220 days.

At the end of 90 days, 20 additional men are employed.

Concept used:

Total work = Number of men X Total number of days

Calculation:

Let, X more days to complete the work after 90 days.

Total work = Number of men X the total number of days.

Total work = 20 x 220

Total work = 4400.

Work completed after 90 days = 20 x 90 

= 1800

Required work = 1800.

Remaining work = Total work - Work completed after 90 days.

= 4400 - 1800

= 2600.

Remaining work = Total men after new recruitment x X

2600 = 40 x X

X = $\frac{2600}{40}$

X = 65.

Thus, Work will be completed after 65 more days.

 Alternate Method

20 men can finish a work in 220 days but the first 90 days done remaining days (220 - 90) = 130, then 20 more joined

⇒ 130 × 20 = k × 40 

⇒ k = (130 × 20)/40 = 65 days

Thus, Work will be completed after 65 more days

Given:

$\frac{{\sin θ + \cos θ }}{{\sin θ - \cos θ }} = \frac{3}{2}$

Formula used:

tanθ = $\frac{sinθ}{cosθ}$

tanθ  = $\frac{\ perpendicular}{\ base}$

Calculation:

2(sinθ + cosθ ) = 3(sinθ - cosθ)

2 sinθ + 2cosθ = 3 sinθ - 3 cosθ

5 cosθ = sinθ

$\frac{sinθ}{cosθ}$ = 5 

tanθ = 5 

now, perpendicular = 5 and base = 1

Using Pythagoras's theorem,

H² = P² + B²

H² = 25 + 1

H = $√26$

Now, sinθ  = P/H and cosθ  = B/H

sinθ  = $\frac{5}{√26}$

cosθ = $\frac{1}{√26}$

According to the question,

${\sin ^4}θ - {\cos ^4}θ$ = ($\frac{5}{√26}$)⁴ - ($\frac{1}{√26}$)⁴

 $=\frac{625}{676}$-$\frac{1}{676}$

=$\frac{625-1}{676}$

=$\frac{624}{676}\=\frac{12}{13}$

∴ The correct answer is $\frac{12}{13}$.

Given:

Length of the side of the square = 2.8 cm

Concept used:

Length of cube = Diameter of sphere

The volume of sphere = $\frac{4}{3} \pi r^3$

Calculation:

Diameter of sphere = 2.8 cm 

Radius of sphere = 1.4 cm 

The volume of sphere = $\frac{4}{3} \pi r^3$

= $\frac{4}{3} \pi$ x (1.4)³

~ 11.49 = 11.50 cm³

Hence, the correct answer is '11.50 cm³'.

Given:

the radius of circle = 3 cm

length of chord AB = 2 cm

length of chord CD = 3 cm

Formula used:

Hypotenuse² = Perpendicular² + Base²

Calculation:

<br>

Now from △OFB,

⇒ OF² = 3² − 1² 

⇒ OF2 = 9 - 1

⇒ OF2 = 8 

⇒ OF = $2\sqrt2$

From △OEC,

⇒ OE² = 3² − $({3\over 2})^2$ 

⇒ OE2 = 9 - $({9\over 4})$ 

⇒ OE2 = ${27\over 4}$

⇒ OE = $3\sqrt3\over2$

So, the distance between AB and CD,   

⇒ FE = OF + OE

⇒ FE = $2\sqrt2$ +  $3\sqrt3\over2$

⇒ FE = $\bf \frac{{4\sqrt 2 + 3\sqrt 3 }}{2}$ cm

∴ The perpendicular distance between the two chords is $\bf \frac{{4\sqrt 2 + 3\sqrt 3 }}{2}$ cm.

Given:

$k + \frac{1}{k} = 4$

Formula used:

a² + b² = (a + b)² - 2ab

Calculation:

x² +  $\frac{1}{x^2}$ = (x + $\frac{1}{x}$)² - 2

⇒ (4)² - 2

⇒ 14

Now,

x⁴ + $\frac{1}{x^4}$ = (x2 + $\frac{1}{x^2}$)² - 2

⇒ (14)² - 2

⇒ 196 - 2

⇒ 194

Hence, the correct answer is '194'.

Given:

The number of students in State A = 1.50 lakh

The number of students in State B = 1.40 lakh

The number of students in State C = 1.75 lakh

The ratio of passing: failing in state A = 6:5

The ratio of passing: failing in state B = 3:4

The ratio of passing: failing in state C = 8:2

Concept:

Ratio and proportion

Ratio - It is an ordered pair of numbers a and b, written a/b where b does not equal to 0.

Proportion - It is an equation where two ratios are set equal to each other.

Calculation:

Number of student passed in state B

=$\frac{3}{3+4}$× 1.40 lakh

=$\frac{3}{7}$×140000

=60,000

=0.6 lakh

Hence the correct answer is 0.6 lakh.

Given:

Total money spent = 1620 crore 

The % of money spent on state P = 13%

The % of money spent on state Q = 15%

The % of money spent on state R = 24%

The % of money spent on state S = 26%

The % of money spent on state T = 22%

Calculation:

Money spent on state P = 13% of 1620 crore

= 16,200,000,000 x 13%

= 2,106,000,000 Rs.

Money spent on state S = 26% of 1620 crore

= 4,212,000,000 Rs.

The difference in money spent on State P than to State S = 4212000000 - 2106000000

= 2106000000

= 2106 lakh

= 210.6 crore

Hence, the correct answer is '210.6 crore'.

Shortcut Trick

Identify the highest power of all prime factors present in the numbers.

Prime factorization: 144 = 2⁴ × 3², 360 = 2³ × 3² × 5, 450 = 2 × 3² × 5².

LCM = 2⁴ × 3² × 5²

LCM = 16 × 9 × 25 = 3600.

∴ The correct answer is 3600.

Alternate Method

Given: Numbers are 144, 360, and 450.

Formula Used: LCM (Least Common Multiple) is the smallest number that is exactly divisible by each of the given numbers. We use the Common Division Method.

⇒ Divide by 2: 72, 180, 225

⇒ Divide by 2: 36, 90, 225

⇒ Divide by 2: 18, 45, 225

⇒ Divide by 2: 9, 45, 225

⇒ Divide by 3: 3, 15, 75

⇒ Divide by 3: 1, 5, 25

⇒ Divide by 5: 1, 1, 5

⇒ Divide by 5: 1, 1, 1

⇒ LCM = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 5 × 5

⇒ LCM = 16 × 9 × 25 = 3600.

∴ The correct answer is 3600.

Additional Information

LCM and HCF Relationship

For any two numbers a and b, the product of the numbers is equal to the product of their HCF and LCM: a × b = HCF(a, b) × LCM(a, b).

HCF (Highest Common Factor)

The HCF of 144, 360, and 450 is found by taking the lowest power of common prime factors: 2¹ × 3² = 18.

Prime Numbers

Always break down large numbers into prime factors (2, 3, 5, 7, etc.) to simplify finding divisors for LCM and HCF.

Given:

1st cash discount = Rs. 85

2nd Discount = 10%

3rd Discount = 2%

The marked price of fan = Rs. 1,285

Formula used:

The marked price of the item = cost price - discount price 

selling price of item = New marked price after discount.

Calculations:

Price of the Fan after 1st discount = Rs. 1285 - Rs. 85 

⇒ Rs. 1200

The new marked price of the fan is = Rs. 1200.

Price of the Fan after 2nd discount = 1200 - 10% of 1200

⇒ 1200 - 120

⇒ Rs. 1080.

The new marked price of the fan is = Rs. 1080

Price of the Fan after 3rd discount = 1080 - 2% of 1080

⇒ 1080 - 21.6

⇒ Rs. 1058.4

∴ The selling price of the fan is Rs. 1,058.4.

Given:

The selling price of the iPhone is = Rs.46,068

Loss = 12%

Formula used:

Loss = Cost Price-selling price

%Loss =  $\frac{\ loss}{\ cost \ Price}$ × 100

%Profit = $\frac{\ selling \ price-\ cost \ price}{\ cost \ price}$  × 100

Calculation:

Now,

12 =  $\frac{\ cost \ price -46,068}{\ cost \ price}$ × 100

 ⇒ 0.12cost price = cost price - 46,068

 ⇒ 0.88cost price = 46,068

 ⇒ cost price = $\frac{46,068}{0.88}$

Cost Price = Rs.52350

The %profit:

⇒ 18 = $\frac{selling \ price ;- ;52,350}{52,350}$ ×100

⇒ Selling Price - 52,350 = 9423

⇒ Selling Price = 61,773

Hence, the correct answer is Rs. 61,773.

Given:

The number = 123456789

Concept used:

Divisibility rule of 9 = sum of digits of number divisible by 9. 

Calculation:

Sum of digits = 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + 6 + 7 + 8 + 9

= 45

45 is completely divisible by 9, thus no remainder.

Hence, the correct answer is '0'.

Given:

Menu travels from point A to B, a distance of 105 km, at speeds of 10 km/h.

Daya travels from point A to B, a distance of 105 km, at speeds of  25 km/h.

Formula used:

$Time={Distance\over Speed}$

Calculation:

Let Daya takes time t to reach at point B, then

⇒ t = ${105\over25} = {21\over5}$

Menu reach at point O in same time t and travel distance AO. then,

⇒ AO = $10\times{21\over5}=42$ km

Remaining distance OB = 105 - 42 = 63 km 

Now, 

Daya and Menu meet at point C and they take the same time. then,

⇒ Time_Menu = Time_Daya 

⇒ ${d\over10}={63 - d\over25}$

⇒ ${d\over2}={63 - d\over5}$

⇒ 5d = 126 - 2d

⇒ 7d = 126 

⇒ d = 18 km

So, the distance from point A to point C,

⇒ AC = AO + OC

⇒ AC = 42 + 18 = 60 km.

∴ The distance from point A to point C is 60 km.

 Alternate Method

Let's assume that they meet at point C, and CB = x then AC = (105 - x) [ the distance of AB = 105 km ]

Daya covers a distance of (105 + x) and Menu covers (105 - x) at the same time, then

⇒ $\frac{105 + x}{25} = \frac{105 - x}{10}$ 

⇒ 210 + 2x = 525 - 5x 

⇒ 7x = 315 

⇒ x = 45

So, distance from AC = (105 - 45) = 60 km

Given:

36 : 81 :: X : 63

Concept used:

Proportionality - Any relation that is always in the same ratio.

Calculation:

36 : 81 :: X : 63

$\frac{36}{81}$ = $\frac{X}{63}$

X = 63 × ($\frac{36}{81}$)

X = $\frac{2268}{81}$

X = 28

Hence, the value of X is 28.