SSC CGL 2022 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On : 08 Dec 2022 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

Given:

59 * 12 * 6 * 24 * 2 * 105

1. Option (1): −, +, −, +, =

Equation: 59 − 12 + 6 − 24 + 2 = 105

⇒ 59 - 12 + 6 - 24 + 2

⇒ 59 + 6 + 2 - (12 + 24)

⇒ 68 - 36

⇒ 32 ≠ 105

Hence, Option (1) is not correct.

2. Option (2): ×, −, +, ×, =

Equation: 59 × 12 - 6 + 24 × 2 = 105

⇒ 708 - 6 + 48

⇒ 702 + 48

⇒ 750 ≠ 105

Hence the option (2) is not correct.

3. Option (3): +, ×, +, −, =

Equation: 59 + 12 × 6 + 24 - 2 = 105

⇒ 59 + 72 + 24 - 2

⇒155 - 2

⇒ 155 ≠ 153

Hence the option (3) is not correct.

4. Option (4): −, ÷, +, ×, =

Equation: 59 - 12 ÷ 6 + 24 × 2 = 105

⇒ 59 - 2 + 48

⇒ 107 - 2 

⇒ 105 = 105

Hence, the correct option is Option (4).

Given:

Given code : U + V × K – B

1) U + V

U + V means ‘U is the husband of V’.

2) V × K

V × K means ‘V is the mother of K

3. ’K – B

K − B means ‘K is the father of B’

The family tree looks like,

                 

Here, U is Paternal grandfather of B.

Hence, 'Paternal grandfather' is the correct answer.

The correct mirror image of given figure is:

Hence, 'Option 2' is the correct answer.

The logic here followed is: 

Two different series is followed. Step 1 and step 3 are followed the same pattern. And step 2 and step 4 are followed the same pattern.

1) 

2) 

3)  

4) 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic follows here is :

Pattern of L:

• L-shaped symbol rotate 90^o clockwise.

Pattern of * and ⦻ :

• sign * and ⦻ alternatively change clockwise rotation at corner.

Pattern of triangle:

• Numbers of tringle increase in every rotation on Right upper hand side.

So next figure looks like,

Hence, 'option 1' is the correct answer.

The logic follows here is :

Therefore, the missing letter cluster is JOE.

Hence,  'option 4' is the correct answer.

The logic follows here is:

• Vowels coded as -1
• Consonants coded as +3

similarly,

Hence, 'Option 3' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

hence, the correct answer '80'.

The logic followed here is:

 First number + Second number = $(New: number)^2\over2$ = Third number. 

Now, let us check each option:

Option 1: (3, 5, 32) 

The logic apply here, so it will be the answer.

Option 2: (2, 5, 49) 

Option 3: (6, 4, 10) 

Option 4: (5, 4, 18) 

 Hence, 'Option 1' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

The missing cluster is KDPP.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Statements:

Some floors are plates.

No plate is a sofa.

All gardens are plates.

Conclusions:

I. Some floors being gardens is a possibility  →  **True (**From the given statements 'Some floors are plates.' & 'All gardens are plates..' which means Some floors being gardens is a possibility, because venn diagram of Floors and Garden may intersect , so the conclusion follow.)

II. No garden is a sofa  →  **True (**From the given statements 'No plate is a sofa..' & 'All gardens are plates', which means No garden is a sofa, so the conclusion follow).

III. All plates are gardens → **False (**From the given statements 'Some floors are plates.' & 'All gardens are plates..' Here Garden is subset of plate so All plates are gardens is a possibility but not necessity  so the conclusion does not follow.)

IV. No floors is a sofa → False ( From the given statements 'No plate is a sofa..' & 'All gardens are plates', which means No floors is a sofa is a possibility, so the conclusion does not follow.)

Hence, Only Conclusions I and II follow.

Given :

Given Statement: P is the father of R.

Option 1: P – Q × R

P – Q means ‘P is the father of Q’.

Q × R  means ‘Q is the sister of R’

Here, P is the father of R so it will be answer.

Option 2 : P × Q – R

P × Q means ‘P is the sister of Q’.

Q – R  means ‘Q is the father of R’

P is the aunt of R.

Option 3: P ÷ Q × P

P ÷ Q means ‘P is the brother of Q’.

Q × R  means ‘Q is the sister of R’

Here, P is the brother of R.

Option 4 : P ÷ Q – R

P ÷ Q means ‘P is the bother of Q’.

Q – R  means ‘Q is the Father of R’

Here, P is the paternal uncle of R.

Hence, 'Option 1' is the correct answer.

Statements:

I. No P is Q.

II. All B are Q.

Conclusions:

I. No P is B → True (because 'No P is Q and All B are Q so definitely no P is B ) 

II. Some Q are not P → True (because 'No P is Q  so definitely Some Q are not P ) 

III. Some B are not Q → False ( 'B is subset of Q'  so definitely Some B are  Q)

Hence, Both conclusions I and II follows.

The logic followed here is:

Second number = First number × Third number

Let us check each option:

1. (11, 56, 5) 

55 =11× 5

2. (3, 27, 9)

3 × 9 = 27

3. (4, 30, 7)

4 × 7 = 28

4. (9, 38, 4)

9 × 4 = 36

Hence, the correct answer is Option (2).

Let us check each option:

1. Option 1: 7 × 9 – 8 ÷ 2 + 6

After interchanging: 7 - 9 × 8 ÷ 2 + 6 

⇒ 7 - 9 × 8 ÷ 2 + 6 

⇒ 7 - 9 × 4 + 6

⇒ 7 - 36 + 6

⇒ 13 - 36

⇒ -23

2. Option 2:8 × 6 – 9 ÷ 3 + 10

After interchanging: 8 - 6 × 9 ÷ 3 + 10

⇒ 8-6×3+10

⇒ 8-18+10

⇒ 0

3.Option 3:16 – 4 ÷ 2 + 8 × 1

After interchanging: 16 × 4 ÷ 2 + 8 - 1

⇒ 16×2+8-1

⇒ 32+8-1

⇒ 40-1

⇒ 39 

4.Option 4:5 + 7 × 3 – 4 ÷ 2

After interchanging: 5+7-3 ×4÷2

⇒ 5+7-3×2

⇒ 5+7-6

⇒ 12-6

⇒ 6

Hence, the correct answer is Option (2).

The logic followed here is:

First number, (100 + first number), (1000 + second number)

1. Option 1: (11, 111, 1000)

111 = 100 + 11

1000 = 1000 + 0

2. Option 2: (33,133,1133)

133 = 100 + 33

1133 = 1000 +133

3.Option 3: (22,222,2222)

222 = 200 + 22

2222 = 2000 + 222

4.Option 4: (77,717,7117)

717 = 700 + 77

7117 = 7000 + 117

Hence, the correct answer is Option (2).

Use of BODMAS rule,

Decoding the information:

 

Let us check each option:

Option 1: 18 ÷ 24 – 6 × 6 + 3 = 32

After interchanging: 18 + 24 – 6 × 6 ÷ 3 = 32

⇒ 18 + 24 – 6 × 6 ÷ 3 = 32

⇒ 18 + 24 – 6 × 2 = 32

⇒ 18 + 24 -12 = 32

⇒ 42 -12 = 32

⇒ 30 ≠ 32

⇒ L.H.S ≠ R.H.S

This is not the correct equation.

Option 2: 12 – 8 + 12 × 9 ÷ 3 = 10

After interchanging: 12 – 8 ÷ 12 × 9 + 3 = 10

⇒ 12 – 8 ÷ 12 × 9 + 3 = 10

⇒ 12 - 6 + 3 = 10

⇒ 15 - 6 = 10

⇒ 9 ≠ 10

⇒ L.H.S ≠ R.H.S

This is not the correct equation.

**Option 3:**12 ÷ 8 × 3 + 6 – 10 = 8

After interchanging: 12 + 8 × 3 ÷ 6 – 10 = 8

⇒ 12 + 8 × 3 ÷ 6– 10 = 8

⇒ 12 + 8 × 0.5 – 10 = 8

⇒ 12 + 4 - 10 = 8

⇒ 16 - 10 = 8

⇒ 6 ≠ 8

⇒ L.H.S ≠ R.H.S

This is not the correct equation.

Option 4: 7 + 21 × 42 ÷ 14 – 9 = 19

After interchanging: 7 ÷ 21 × 42 + 14 – 9 = 19

⇒ 7 ÷ 21 × 42 + 14 – 9 = 19

⇒ 14 + 14 - 9  = 19

⇒ 28 - 9 = 19

⇒ 19 = 19

⇒ L.H.S = R.H.S

This is the correct equation.

The correct answer is Option (4).

Taking dice Figure 1 and Figure 3 with 6 as common,

Moving clockwise from the Common number 6,

Pair of opposite numbers:

1 - 6

3 - 4

5 - 2

So, the opposite number to 1 is 6.

Hence, the correct answer is "6".

The logic followed here is :

• The number of alphabets present in the each words.

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is '435'.

The logic followed here is:

Cells make up tissues.

Organs make up Body.

A tissue is a group of cells that share morphological features and perform similar functions.

An  organ is a group of tissues that make up a functional unit that is specialized to execute specific functions within the body.

Additional Information

• Kidney is made up of nephrons which is a flitter element.
• Lungs are made up of lobs and many air sacks.
• Heart is made up of three layer of tissue .

Hence, the correct answer is Option (3).

The pattern followed here is:

'Librarian' - a person who works in or in charge of a 'Library'.

Apply the pattern on each option,

Option 1 : Sailor ∶ Aeroplane

 'Sailor' - a person who works on a Ship, not on an aeroplane'.

The pattern does not apply here.

Option 2 : Priest ∶ Temple

 'Priest' - a person in charge of a 'Temple'.

The pattern applies here.

Option 3 : Watchmen ∶ Train

 'Watchmen' - a man whose job is to watch something, not necessarily 'Train'.

The pattern does not apply here.

Option 4 : Doctor ∶ Treatment

 'Doctor' - A person who does a treatment of diseases. But treatment is not workplace.

The pattern does not apply here.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The Pattern followed is 

According to the alphabetical positions of the letters,

Option 1: MJG

these three are alike but

 

Is a different cluster .

Hence correct answer is 'GEB'.

The correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at line ‘AB’ is as shown below:

Hence, correct answer is 'Option (1)'.

The option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary is shown below:

2- Employee

5- Employer

4- Emporium

1- Empress

3- Empty

Hence, ‘2, 5, 4, 1, 3’ is the correct answer.

The logic follows here is:

(Left side Number)² - 2 = Right side Number

Apply logic on each options,

Option 1: 12 – 142

(12)² - 2 = 144 - 2 = 142

Option 2: 8 – 62

(8)2 - 2 = 64 - 2 = 62

Option 3: 4 – 14

(4)2 - 2 = 16 - 2 = 14

Option 4: 14 – 192

(14)2 - 2 = 196 - 2 = 194

here in option 4, left side number not equal to right number.

Hence, 'option 4' is the correct answer.

The correct answer is Bhillasvamin.

Key Points 

• To show their devotion, Chola Dynasty rulers would construct temples.
• They also provided grants of land and money to the temples for rites, the supper of pilgrims and priests, and celebrations. Also making donations were pilgrims.
• The purpose of the temples was to show the king's might, wealth, treasury and economic properity and political stability.
• In Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat, towns witness of erection of some temples, such as those of Bhillasvamin (also known as Bhilsa or Vidisha) and Somnath.
• Kanchipuram and Madurai in Tamil Nadu, as well as Tirupati in Andhra Pradesh, were other significant temple towns and cultural and architectural supermacy.
• The three great living chola temples include:
• The Brihadisvara Temple at Thanjavur
• The Brihadisvara Temple at Gangaikondacholisvaram, and
• The Airavatesvara Temple at Darasuram.

The correct answer is Damodar valley.

Key Points 

• Gondwana fields account for 99% of all coal output and nearly all of India's coal reserves.
• Gondwana coal fields are a source of bituminous coal, non-coking coal, and coking coal.
• Although Gondwana coal is dry, contain **sulphur and deposits **rarely contain anthracite.
• The coalfields in Lower Gondwana, or the Damudar series, shared for 80% of India's total coal production.

Additional Information 

• Chambal Valley
• On the Chambal River, which is the main and major tributary of the Yamuna, Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh joint project launched the Chambal Valley Project in 1954.
• With this project, the Chambal River will be used for irrigation, power production, and erosion management in the valley.
• The first stage is building the 514-meter Gandhisagar dam, which is 64 metres high, about 8 km downstream from Chaurasigarh Fort in the M.P. district of Bhanupura.
• Krishna Valley
• Another Indian valley, the Krishna River, ranks as the country's 4th largest river in terms of water inputs.
• In India, it is the third-largest river basin after the Ganga and the Godavari.
• The river spans over 1,288 kilometres.
• It also goes by the name Krishnaveni.
• Narmada Valley
• It is the state of Madhya Pradesh's greatest flowing river.
• India's Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat states are traversed by this river.
• Due to its enormous contribution to the two states in numerous ways, it is also known as the "Life Line of Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat".

The correct answer is New Zealand.

Key Points

• ICC Women’s World Cup 2022 began on 4 March 2022 in New Zealand.
• It was played in a round-robin format
• The 8 teams who are part of it are India, Pakistan, Australia, Bangladesh, New Zealand, South Africa, England, and West Indies.
• The ICC Women’s World Cup 2022 final was played on 3rd April at Hagley Oval in Christchurch.
• The event was earlier supposed to be held in 2021.

Additional Information 

• Australia was crowned the winner of the 2022 ICC Women's Cricket World Cup, on 3 April 2022.
• This was their seventh title.
• Australia defeated England in the final by 71 runs at Hagley Oval in Christchurch, New Zealand.
• Alyssa Healy became the first batter in the history of the game to hit a hundred in the semi-final and the final of the World Cup.
• New Zealand: 
• Capital - Wellington.
• Currency - New Zealand dollar.
• National Sport - Rugby.

Important Points 

• The ICC Women’s T20 World Cup 2023 will be held from 10 to 26 February 2023 in South Africa.

The correct answer is Cow.

Key Points

• Food chain: 
• A food chain shows the feeding relationship between different organisms in a particular environment and/or habitat.
• A food chain shows how energy is passed from the sun to producers, from producers to consumers, and from consumers to decomposes such as fungi.
• They also show how animals depend on other organisms for food.
• In a food chain of Grass > Cow > wolf > Tiger, the frog occupies the third trophic level as it eats insects and further becomes the food for the snake.
• Tropic level: 
• Based on the source of their nutrition or food, organisms occupy a specific place in the food chain that is known as their trophic level.
• Producers belong to the first trophic level, herbivores (primary consumers) to the second, and carnivores (secondary consumers) to the third. The important point to note is that the amount of energy decreases at successive trophic levels.
• Primary producers are at the first tropic level - They produce food on their own with the help of photosynthesis. Ex- plants, trees.
• Primary Consumers are herbivores animals, whose nutrition is directly based on plant products. Ex- Cow, deer, grasshoppers, small insects, etc.
• Secondary consumers are carnivorous animals Like- small birds, wolfs, etc.
• Tertiary Consumers are the top-level carnivore like men, lions, etc.
• Only 10% of energy is transferred to higher levels from the previous one. So, the demand for food is more in higher levels.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Llamas.

Key Points

• In the Andes mountains of South America, llamas are used for transportation.
• Llamas live high up in the Andes mountains of South America.
• Because, Llamas are well-suited to these conditions, with hooves that give a good grip to climb steep mountain paths and thick fur to keep them warm.
• Therefore, Llamas are used for transportation.

The correct answer is 1206 and 1290.

Key Points

• The Delhi Sultanate was an Islamic empire based in Delhi that stretched over 320 years.
• The ruling dynasties of Delhi included:
• Rajput dynasties
• Early Turkish rulers also known as Slave dynasty(1206-1290)
• Khalji dynasty (1290-1320)
• Tughlaq dynasty (1320-1414)
• Sayyid dynasty (1414-1451)
• Lodi dynasty (1451-1526)

Important Points

• Rulers of the Slave Dynasty:

The correct answer is Lavani.

Key Points

• Surekha Punekar is a renowned Marathi folk artist and Lavani performer.
• She was born in Pune, Maharashtra, India, and was exposed to Lavani music from a young age as her mother was also a Lavani artist.
• Apart from her successful career in Lavani and movies, Surekha is also known for her philanthropic work.
• She has been actively involved in various charitable causes and has organized many events to support and raise funds for various social causes.
• She has also established a Lavani dance academy to train and promote young talent.
• She has won the prestigious Maharashtra State Award for Best Playback Singer and the Marathi Natya Parishad Award for Best Actress, among others.
• In addition to her artistic pursuits, Surekha is also a successful businesswoman and runs her own event management company.

The correct answer is 2023.

Key Points

• India has been hosted the 2023 Men's Hockey World Cup from 13th to 29th of January 2023.
• India has been hosted this tournament for the fourth time in history.
• The world cup is conducted once every four years.
• Tournaments associated with hockey are Rene Frank Trophy, Essande Champions Cup, Agha Khan cup, Beighton Cup, Bombay Gold Cup, Dhyan Chand Trophy, Gurmeet Trophy, Gura Nanak Cup, Indira Gold Cup, Sahni Trophy, Tommy Eman Gold Cup, Ranjit Singh Gold Cup, Scindia Gold Cup, Gyanuati Devi Trophy.
• Spain and the Netherlands have been named as the co-hosts of the 2022 Women's World Cup scheduled to be held from 1st to 22nd of July 2022.
• The decisions were made during FIH's Executive Board Meeting in Lausanne, Switzerland on 9 Nov 2019. ​

Additional Information 

• Odisha has been hosted the 2023 Men's Hockey World Cup from the 13th to the 29th of January 2023.
• For the first time, a country with the same city would be hosting successive editions of the premier tournament in the sport making it even more special.
• This time, Bhubaneswar which hosted the 2018 WC would share hosting rights with the Biju Patnaik Hockey Stadium in Rourkela.

The correct answer is Nickel and Iron.

Key Points 

• Core:
• The core is the innermost layer of Earth which is having elements like Iron and Nickel.
• It is the innermost layer of the earth.
• It has the heaviest minerals of the highest density, Nickel and Iron i.e Nife.
• The outer core is liquid while the inner core is solid.
• Gutenberg discontinuity is the mantle core boundary.
• Lehman discontinuity is the boundary between the outer and inner core.
• The radius of the earth is approximately 6400 km out of which 0-40 km is the Crust.,40-2900 km is Mantle, and 2900-6400 km is the area of the Core.

The correct answer is ​Prateeksha Kashi.

Key Points

• Prateeksha Kashi is an accomplished Indian classical dancer, choreographer, and teacher.
• She is best known for her expertise in Kuchipudi, a classical dance form from Andhra Pradesh, India.
• Prateeksha has performed extensively both in India and abroad and has also trained many students in classical dance.
• She runs her own dance school in Bangalore, Kalavidaru Institute of Fine Arts.
• She was honoured with the title "Yuva Kala Bharathi" by Bharath Kalachar, Chennai, and was also the recipient of the "Kala Shri" award by the Karnataka Sangeet Nritya Academy.

Additional Information

• Smitha Rajan is an Indian Mohiniyattam performer from Kerala and granddaughter of the Indian classical dancer couple of Padma Shri Kalamandalam Krishnan Nair and Kalamandalam Kalyanikutty Amma.
• Jayaprabha Menon is  Mohiniyattam dancer that have been eloquent demonstrations of talents groomed by venerated Gurus like Kalamandalam Saraswathy, C V Chandrasekhar, and Bharathy Shivaji. 
• Jayaprabha Menon is the director of the International Academy of Mohiniyattam, New Delhi.
• Radha Datta was the very first teacher of Mohiniattam around the Washington, DC area. Radha is also well known performer cum teacher of Bharatanatyam and folkdances, in the Washington, DC area.

The correct answer is Part III.

Key Points

• Fundamental Rights
• The Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution (Articles 12-35). Part III of the Constitution is described as the Magna Carta of India.
• ‘Magna Carta’, the Charter of Rights issued by King John of England in 1215 was the first written document relating to the Fundamental Rights of citizens.
• The Fundamental Rights are justiciable because when violated the aggrieved individual can move the courts for their enforcement.
• The Supreme Court or High Courts have the power to issue directions, orders or writs to enforce any of the Fundamental Rights.

Additional Information 

• The Constitution of India provides for six Fundamental Rights
• Right to equality (Articles 14–18)
• Right to freedom (Articles 19–22)
• Right against exploitation (Articles 23–24)
• Right to freedom of religion (Articles 25–28)
• Cultural and educational rights (Articles 29–30)
• Right to constitutional remedies (Article 32)
• Originally the Constitution also included the property right (Article 31).
• However, it was deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44th Amendment Act, of 1978.
• It is made a legal right under Article 300-A in Part XII of the Constitution.
• Part IV
• Part IV (Article 36-51) of the Indian Constitution is related to the Directive Principles of our State Policy.
• It is not enforceable by any court but these are fundamental in the governance of the country.
• The government must apply these principles in law-making.
• These principles have been taken from the Constitution of Ireland.
• Part VI
• ​The Governor of a State shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the State extends.
• Part IX 
• Part IX of the Indian Constitution contains provisions for the Panchayats.
• Part IX tells about a three-tier Panchayati Raj System which would be constituted in every state at the village level, intermediate level, and district level.
• 73rd  Constitutional Amendment Act added Part IX to the constitution with the title “The Panchayats” covering provisions from Articles 243 to 243(O).
• Part VIII contains provisions for Union Territories.
• The fifth Schedule contains provisions for the Administration and Control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes.
• Article 244 contains provisions for the administration of Scheduled Areas and Tribal Areas.

The correct answer is Ooty. 

Key Points

• Ooty :
• It is a town and municipality in Tamil Nadu's Nilgiris district.
• The elevation of Ooty is 2,240 metres (7,350 feet) above sea level.
• It is the administrative centre of the Nilgiris district, situated 86 km north of Coimbatore and 128 km south of Mysore.
• The Nilgiri Hills are home to this famous hill station.
• It is lying in the Nilgiri Mountains in the Indian state of Tamil Nadu, this beautiful place is also known as Udagamandalam, Udhagai, or Ootacamund.

Additional Information

• Kodaikanal:
• Kodaikanal is one of the very popular hill stations in South India. It is located in the Palani Hills.
• It lies in Tamil Nadu.
• It is also popularly known as the princess of Hill Station.
• Shivpuri:
• Located at an altitude of 1515 feet above sea level,
• Shivpuri is a quaint city in the central Indian state of Madhya Pradesh
• Mussorie
• Located on a 15-km-long horseshoe ridge with the grand Himalayas as a backdrop,
• Mussoorie spreads across at a height of 2,000 m above sea level. From this vantage point, it offers scenic views of the Himalayas peaks in Western Garhwal.

The correct answer is 15%.

Key Points

• The total number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a state cannot exceed 15% of the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that state.
• The maximum strength of a Legislative Assembly is fixed at 500 and the minimum strength at 60 depending on the population size of the states.
• Some states like Arunachal Pradesh Sikkim Goa have the minimum number is fixed at 30 and in the case of Mizoram Nagaland, it is 40 and 46 respectively.
• Parliament can abolish the Legislative Council or create it.
• The maximum strength of a Legislative Council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the assembly.
• The Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad) is the upper house it is also known as the house of elders.
• The Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) is the lower house which is also known as the popular house.
• The provisions of the State legislature are given in Articles 168 to 212 in Part VI of the constitution.
• Currently, in India, only 6 States have a bicameral legislature they are Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra and Karnataka

The correct answer is Maharashtra. 

Key Points

• The Government of Maharashtra has joined hands with the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) by signing a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to collaborate on the 'Majhi Vasundhara' campaign.
• The objective of the campaign is to promote sustainable energy usage and environmental development in the state.
• The campaign's name translates to 'My Earth' and is an initiative of the Environment and Climate Change Department, Government of Maharashtra.
• Through this partnership, the state government aims to work towards achieving its sustainability goals and ensure a better future for its citizens.

Additional Information

• About the Majhi Vasundhara:
• Majhi Vasundhara is an initiative launched by the Government of Maharashtra, India, aimed at promoting sustainable energy use and environmental development in the state.
• The campaign is an effort to encourage citizens to take individual and collective action towards protecting the environment and promoting sustainable practices.
• The initiative involves various activities such as promoting the use of renewable energy sources, managing waste effectively, and reducing pollution levels.

The correct answer is Potato.

Key Points

• The sugar content of food items per 100 gm:

1. Apple contains 10 grams of sugar per 100 grams.
2. Mango contains 14 grams of sugar per 100 grams.
3. Potato contains 0.8 grams of sugar per 100 grams.
4. Banana contains 12 grams of sugar per 100 grams.

The correct answer is Himachal Pradesh.

Key-points

• The Family Courts (Amendment) Bill, 2022 was introduced in Lok Sabha on July 18, 2022.
• This bill was passed by Lok Sabha on 26th July 2022, and it seeks to amend the Family Courts Act, 1984.
• This bill has granted statutory cover to already established family courts in Himachal Pradesh and Nagaland.
• The Bill seeks to extend the scope of the Act for the establishment of Family Courts in the State of Himachal Pradesh with effect from the 15th of February 2019 and in the State of Nagaland with effect from the 12th of September 2008.
• Every order of appointment of a person as a Judge of a Family Court and every order of posting, promotion or transfer, as the case may be, made under this Act in the States of Himachal Pradesh and Nagaland prior to the commencement of the Family Courts (Amendment) Act, 2022 shall be deemed to be validly made under the provisions of this Act.

The correct option is 'Central Statistics Office'.

Key-points

• Responsibilities of Central Statistics Office
• The Central Statistics Office is in charge of organizing statistical operations throughout the country.
• Responsible for creating and managing statistical regulations, and norms.
• Its exercises involve National Income Financial reporting, conducting survey research of industry sectors.
• Financial sector Census records and their follow-up questionnaires are being managed, coordinating indexes of industrial manufacturing and price index indices for urban non-manual workers.
• Development Index Statistics, Sexual identity Statistics.​​​​

The correct answer is 'Henry Cavendish'.

Key points

• The gravitational constant (also known as the universal gravitational constant, the Newtonian constant of gravitation, or the Cavendish gravitational constant), denoted by the capital letter G, is an empirical physical constant involved in the calculation of gravitational effects in Sir Isaac Newton's law of universal gravitation and in Albert Einstein's theory of general relativity.
• In Newton's law, it is the proportionality constant connecting the gravitational force between two bodies with the product of their masses and the inverse square of their distance.
• The Einstein field equations, it quantifies the relation between the geometry of spacetime and the energy–momentum tensor (also referred to as the stress–energy tensor).
• The measured value of the constant is known with some certainty to four significant digits.
• In SI units, its value is approximately 6.674×10⁻¹¹ m³⋅kg⁻¹⋅s⁻²
• The modern notation of Newton's law involving G was introduced in the 1890s by C. V. Boys.
• The first implicit measurement with an accuracy within about 1% is attributed to Henry Cavendish in a 1798 experiment.

The correct answer is Hariprasad Chaurasia.

Key-points

• Hariprasad Chaurasia has also been a guru to innumerable students in his Mumbai and Bhubaneswar gurukuls, and at the World Music Department, Rotterdam Music Conservatory, the Netherlands, where he is artistic director.
• Chaurasia started learning vocal music from his neighbour, Rajaram, at the age of 15.
• Later, he switched to playing the flute under the tutelage of Bholanath Prasanna of Varanasi for eight years.
• He joined the All India Radio, Cuttack, Odisha in 1957 and worked as a composer and performer.

Additional information

• Pravin Godkhindi​
• Pravin Godkhindi (born 28 October 1973) is an Indian classical Hindustani flute (bansuri) player.
• He has mastered both the tantrakari and gayaki style of playing on the flute.
• He was called a top ranking artist in Hindustani bansuri, by Akashvani (AIR).
• 1st Indian flautist to perform on the 8-foot long contrabass flute.
• 1st Indian to represent bansuri at the World Flute Festival in Mendoza, Argentina
• National awards for films Beru and Vimukthi
• Ronu Majumdar
• In 1981, Ronu Majumdar won the first prize at the All India Radio competition, and the President's Gold Medal.
• He has associated with Pandit Ravi Shankar on albums like Passages and Chants of India.
• He has more than 30 audio releases to his credit.
• He won the prestigious Aditya Vikram Birla Award in 1999 for his dedication to music.
• Sahara India Pariwar felicitated him with a lifetime achievement award on the occasion of Jyoti Diwas 2001.
• In 2014 he won the prestigious Sangeet Natak Akademi award.
• Nityanand Haldipur
• ​​Nityanand Haldipur (born 7 May 1948) is a performer and teacher of the Indian bamboo flute, known in India as the bansuri.
• He is a purist in the true Maihar Gharana tradition and learned from Ma Annapurna Devi, in Mumbai, India.
• He has been rated as a "Top Grade" artist by the All India Radio and was awarded the prestigious Sangeet Natak Academi award in 2010.

The correct answer is Secretion of enzymes.

Key points

• It is an organic compound composed of phosphate groups, adenine, and sugar ribose.
• These molecules provide energy for various biochemical processes in the body.
• Therefore, it is called the “Energy Currency of the Cell”.
• These ATP molecules are synthesized by Mitochondria, therefore it is called the powerhouse of the cell.
• ATP is used for various cellular functions, including the transportation of different molecules across cell membranes.
• Other functions of ATP include supplying the energy required for muscle contraction, circulation of blood, locomotion, nerve impulse propagation, Protein synthesis and various body movements.
• The three phosphate groups present in this ATP molecule are called high-energy bonds as they are involved in the liberation of a huge amount of energy when they are broken.
• This molecule provides energy for various life processes without which life cannot exist.

The correct answer is 3.

Key Points

• Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 (IPR 1956) is a resolution adopted by the Indian parliament in April 1956.
• It was the second comprehensive statement on the industrial development of India after the Industrial Policy of 1948.
• The 1956 policy continued to constitute the basic economic policy for a long time.
• This fact has been confirmed in all the Five-Year Plans of India.
• According to this resolution, the objective of the social and economic policy in India was the establishment of a socialistic pattern of society.
• It provided more powers to the governmental machinery.
• It laid down three categories of industries which were more sharply defined. These categories were:
• Schedule A: those industries which were to be an exclusive responsibility of the state.
• Schedule B: those which were to be progressively state-owned and in which the state would generally set up new enterprises, but in which private enterprise would be expected only to supplement the effort of the state; and
• Schedule C: all the remaining industries and their future development would, in general be left to the initiative and enterprise of the private sector.

The correct answer is Chandragupta II.

Key points

• The iron pillar of Delhi is a structure 7.21 metres (23 feet 8 inches) high with a 41-centimetre (16 in) diameter that was constructed by Chandragupta II (reigned c. 376–415 AD), and now stands in the Qutb complex at Mehrauli in Delhi, India.
• It is famous for the rust-resistant composition of the metals used in its construction.
• The pillar weighs more than 6 tonnes and is thought to have been erected elsewhere, perhaps outside the Udayagiri Caves, and moved to its present location by King Anangpal Tomar in 11th century.
• Chandragupta II (r.c. 376-415), also known by his title Vikramaditya, as well as Chandragupta Vikramaditya, was the third ruler of the Gupta Empire in India, and was one of the most powerful emperors of the Gupta dynasty.

The correct answer is 1498.

Key points

• On 20^th May 1498, two years after he set sail from Lisbon, Portugal, Vasco da Gama arrived on the Western Sea coast of India at Kozhikode (Calicut), Kerala.
• This was the first time that a European had arrived in India via sea.
• Thus, da Gama is credited with the discovery of the sea route to India.

The correct answer is Rukmini Devi Arundale.

Key points

• 'Prani Mitra' is the country's highest award for animal welfare.
• Rukmini Devi Arundale was awarded the Prani Mitra Award in 1968.
• Rukmini Devi Arundale was an Indian theosophist, dancer and choreographer of the Indian classical dance form of Bharatanatyam, and an activist for animal welfare.
• She was the first woman in Indian history to be nominated as a member of the Rajya Sabha, the upper house of the Parliament of India.
• The most important revivalist of Bharatanatyam from its original 'sadhir' style prevalent amongst the temple dancers, the Devadasis, she also worked for the re-establishment of traditional Indian arts and crafts.

​Additional information

• Dr Padma Subrahmanyam
• ​Padma Subrahmanyam (born 4 February 1943, in Madras), is an Indian classical Bharata Natyam dancer.
• She is also a research scholar, choreographer, teacher, Indologist and author.
• She is famous in India as well as abroad; several films and documentaries have been made in her honour by countries such as Japan, Australia and Russia.
• She is well known as the developer and founder of the dance form Bharata Nrithyam.
• Shovana Narayan​
• ​Shovana Narayan is a recognised Indian Kathak dancer and a career officer with Indian Audit and Accounts Service.
• She performs in India and internationally and has been awarded the Padma Shri.
• She trained under Birju Maharaj.
• ​Bipin Singh
• The son of a traditional medical doctor and a singer, Singh began training in his childhood, studying singing and dancing before focusing on Manipuri dance, especially under Guru Amudon Sharma, with the support of Manipur's king.
• Although he earned a living as a film choreographer, he did not lose focus on his desire to expand his knowledge of the traditional dance form.
• As part of that effort, he created the Govindji Nartanalaya dance school for women in Imphal and, in 1972, the Manipuri Nartanalaya dance school in Calcutta.

The correct answer is Shweta Singh.

Key-points

• Shweta Singh was appointed as a director in the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO).
• The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) approved Singh’s appointment for a period of three years from the date of her joining.अनुज पोद्दार
• The Head of PMO is responsible for managing, personally, via direct reports or matrix management, all agreed Capital projects, School-wide projects and business change activities across the School.

Additional information

• The Prime Minister's Office (PMO) ( consists of the immediate staff of the Prime Minister of India, as well as multiple levels of support staff reporting to the Prime Minister.
• The PMO is headed by the Principal Secretary, currently Pramod Kumar Misra.
• The PMO was originally called the Prime Minister's Secretariat until 1977 when it was renamed during the Morarji Desai ministry.
• It is part of the Government of India and located in the South Block of the Secretariat Building.

Given:

Population at the end of the third year = 9,47,625

Let the initial population of the village is 'x'

Concept used :

 5% of x =$5x\over100$

Calculations:

Initially, population is decreased by 5%.

 5% of x =$5x\over100$

 Now the population after decrement is:

$x-{5x\over100}={95x\over100}$

Population is further decreased by 5%:

 5% of ${95x\over100}={95x\over100}×{5\over100}={475x\over10000}$

 Now the population after decrement is:

${95x\over100}-{475x\over10000}={9025x\over10000}$

Now the population is increased by 5%

 5% of ${9025x\over10000}={9025x\over10000}×{5\over100}={45125x\over1000000}$

Now the population after the increment is:

${9025x\over10000}+{45125x\over1000000}={947625x\over1000000}$

From the given initial conditions:

${947625x\over1000000}$ = 947625

 x = 1000000

Thus, the population at the beginning of the first year was 10,00,000.

Shortcut Trick 

 

According to the question, 7581 unit → 947625

Then, 8000 unit → 947625/7581 × 8000 = 125 × 8000 = 1000000

Given:

Initial discount = 10%

Increased cost = 20%

Concept used:

Let the cost of the article is x. 

10% of x $={10x\over100}$

Calculations:

Initial discount is $10x\over100$

Price after discount:

$x-{10x\over100}={90x\over100}$

Now the increased cost is 

20% of ${90x\over100}={1800x\over10000}$

Price after increment is

 ${90x\over100}+{1800x\over10000}={10800\over10000}$

Gain percentage:

=${{10800x\over10000}-x\over x}$×100

=${10800x-10000x\over10000x}$×100

=$80000\over10000$

= 8%

Therefore, his gain percentage is '8%'.

Shortcut Trick

The shopkeeper sells at 10% discount, then MP : SP = 10 : 9

The shopkeeper mark-up 20% above cp, then CP : MP = 5 : 6

Now, we make equal unit of MP in both the ratio, we get ⇒ CP : SP : MP = 25 : 27 : 30

Then, gain% = 2/25 × 100 = 8%

Given:

Volume of cube = 343 m³

Let side of cube is 'a' .

Formula used:

Volume of cube = a³

Total surface area of cube = 6 a²

Calculation:

 a³ = 343

 a = 7 m

Now ,

6 × a² = 6 × 7 ×7

⇒ 294 m²

Total surface area of the cube is '294 m2' .

Given:

17:272::19: ?

Concept used:

Let the missing number is x.

${272\over17}$= 16

Calculation:

 ${x\over19}$= 16

x = 16×19

x = 304

∴ The fourth proportional to the numbers 17, 272 and 19 is '304'.

Given:

A can beat B by 50 m in a race of 500m.

B can beat C by 60 m in a race of 600m.

Concept used:

If A is at 500 m then 

B = 500 - 50

B = 450m

A : B = 500 : 450

         = 10 : 9            {i}

In race of 600 m 

If B is at 600m then

C = 600 - 60

C = 540

B : C = 600 :540

         = 10 : 9            {ii}

Calculations:

 Now keeping the ratio of B constant  in both equations {i} and {ii}

  A : B = (10 : 9 ) × 40

          =  400 : 360

  B : C = (10 : 9)  × 36

           = 360 : 324

 Now,

 A : B : C = 400 : 360 : 324

 A will beats C by

 400 - 324 = 76

∴ A beat C by 76 m  in race of 400 m.

Given:

Raju finishes work in = 20 days

Sunil finishes work in = 30 days

Vishal finishes work in = 40 days

Concept used:

Total work done = LCM(20,30,40)

                          = 120

Work done by Raju in 1 day(R) = ${120\over20}=6$

Work done by Sunil in 1 day (S)= ${120\over30}=4$

Work done by Vishal in 1 day (V)= ${120\over40}=3$

Calculation:

 Work done on first day collectively:

 R+S+V = 6+4+0 = 10

 Work done on second day collectively:

R+S+V = 6 + 0 + 3 = 9

So it will take 12 days to complete 114 work 

on 13th day the turn will be of  Raju and sunil and they will do 10 work in 1 day

 6 work is still remaining

Days to required complete 6 work = ${6\over10}={3\over5}$

Total days to complete 120 work = 12 + $3\over5$

                                                      $={63\over5}$

                                                      $={12{{3} \over 5}}$

∴ Raju can finish work in $\bf {12{{3} \over 5}}$ days .

Given:

Purchase price = Rs .1,260

Selling price = Rs. = 1,197

Concept used:

Loss percentage = ${Purhase \ price -Selling \ price\over Purchase \ price}$ × 100

Calculations:

Loss percentage = ${1260-1197\over1260}$ × 100

⇒ $63\over1260$ × 100

⇒ 0.05 × 100

⇒ 5%

∴ The loss percentage is 5%.

Given:

 Average with the marks were counted 45 = x

 Average when the marks were counted 65 = x+${1\over3}$

Concept used:

 x =  x = ${\sum y \over n}$

Here n is the total number of students. 

Let the sum of marks of rest of the students $\sum z :$

Calculation:

x = ${\sum z+45\over n}$

nx = $\sum z$ +45    {equation 1}

x + $1\over3$ = ${\sum z+65\over n}$

 nx + $n\over3$ =  +65

Putting the value of nx from equation 1

 $\sum z$ + 45 + $n\over3$ =  $\sum z$ + 65

 $n\over3$ = 20

 n = 60

∴ The number of students is 60.

Alternate Method

A student‘s marks were wrongly entered as 65 instead of 45, so 20 marks extra were distributed among students.

Due to this, the average marks for the class got increased by 1/3, so the number of students in the class  = 20 × 3 = 60

Given:

Expenditure on health = 26%

Expenditure on entertainment = 14%

Expenditure on food = 20%

Expenditure on education = 28%

Expenditure on other things = 12%

Formula used:

Percentage of item1 w.r.t item 2 = ${item1\over item2}× 100:$

Calculation:

Difference in the expenditure on health and entertainment = 26% - 14% = 12%

The expenditure on food = 20%

Percentage of the expenditure on difference in health and entertainment w.r.t on food = ${12\over 20}$ × 100 = 12 x 5 = 60%

Hence, the difference in the expenditure on health and entertainment is 60% percentage of the expenditure on food.

Given:

Concept used:

Average = ${\sum x_i\over n}$

Where n is the number of entities.

Calculation:

 J₁ = ${sales \ of \ bikes \ by(P+Q+R)\over3 }$

  J₁ = ${200+100+500\over3 }$

 J1 = ${800\over3}$

 Now, J2 = ${sales \ of \ cars \ by(S+R+T)\over3 }$

 J2 = ${1000+700+800\over3}$

 J2 = ${2500\over3}$

 J1 : J2 = ${800\over3}$ : $2500\over3$

⇒ 8 : 25

∴ The value of J₁:J₂ is '8 : 25'.

Given:

 The HCF of 4.08 and 6.63

Calculation:

The HCF of 4.08 and 6.63

Treating them as Whole numbers then, the numbers are 408 and 663.

⇒ 408 = $2\times2\times2\times\times51$ 

⇒ 663 = $13\times51$

HCF of 408 and 663 is 51.

HCF of 4.08 and 6.63 is 0.51.

∴ The correct answer is 0.51**.**

Given: 

satisfy a2 = b2 + (ab)2 for the values a and b

Formula used:

Cosec x = $1\over sinx$

Cot x =  $cosx \over sinx$

1+ cot2 x = cosec2x

Sin²x + Cos²x = 1

Sin x = $1\over cosec x$

Cos x = $1\over sec x$

Calculation: 

Let us check each option:

1. Option 1: a = sin x, b = cot x

a² =  b2 + (ab)2

sin2x = cot2x + (sin x + cot x)²

sin²x = cot²x + (sin² x × cot² x)

sin2x = cot2x (sin2 x +1)

sin2x = cot2x ((1 - cos²x) + 1)

sin2x = cot2x (2 - cos2x)

sin2x = cot2x (2-( $1\over secx$)²)

2. Option 2: a = cos x, b = tan x

a2 =  b2 + (ab)2

cos² x = tan²x + (cos x × tan x)²

cos2 x = tan2x + (cos² x × tan² x)

cos2 x = tan2x  (cos2 x + 1)

cos2 x = tan2x  ((1- sin²x) + 1)

cos2 x = tan2x (2 - sin2x)

cos2 x = tan2x (2 -($1\over cosec x$)²)

3. Option 3: a = cot x, b = cos x

a2 =  b2 + (ab)2

cot²x = cos²x + (cot x × cos x)²

cot2x = cos2x + (cot² x × cos² x) 

cot2x = cos2x (cot² x + 1)

cot2x= cos2x (cosec²x)

cot2x = cos2x ($1\over sinx$)²

cot2x = cot2x 

4. Option 4: a = sin x, b = tan x

a2 =  b2 + (ab)2

sin2x = tan2​x + (tan x + sin x )²

sin²x = tan²x + (tan²x + sin ²x)

sin2x = tan2x (1 + sin 2x)

sin2x = tan2x (1 + (1 - cos2x))

sin2x = tan2x (2 - cos2x)

sin2x = tan2x (2 - ($1\over sec x$)²)

∴ The values of a and b are cot x and cos x respectively.

Given:

7 is added to a certain number and the sum is multiplied by 5. The product is then divided by 3 and 4 is subtracted from the quotient. If the result comes to 16.

Concept used:

Let the number be = x

7 is added to a certain number and the sum is multiplied by 5 ⇒ (x +7) × 5

The product is then divided by 3 and 4 is subtracted from the quotient and the result is 16 ⇒ $5(x+7)\over 3$ - 4 = 16

Calculation:

$5(x+7)\over 3$- 4 = 16

⇒ 5(x + 7) - 12 = 16 × 3 

⇒ 5x + 35 - 12 = 48 

⇒ 5x + 23 = 48 

x = 5

Hence, the original number is 5.

Given:

θ = 135°; γ = 15°

Formula used:

2Cos A Sin B = Sin(A+B) - Sin(A-B)

Sin (90° - A) = Cos A

Cos 60° = $1\over2$

Cos 30° = $\sqrt3 \over 2$

Calculation:

2 cos(θ) sin(γ) = 2 cos (135°) sin (15°)

⇒ 2 cos (135°) sin (15°) = Sin (135° + 15°) - Sin (135° - 15°)

⇒ Sin (150°) - Sin (120°)

⇒ Cos (60°) - Cos (30°)

⇒  $1\over2$ - $\sqrt3 \over 2$

⇒  ${1 \ - \ \sqrt{3} \over 2}$

∴ The value of 2 cos(θ) sin(γ) is $\bf {1 \ - \ \sqrt{3} \over 2}$.

Given:

If abc = 5

Concept used:

abc = 5

⇒ ac =  $5\over b$ 

⇒ (b)^-1 

⇒ b = $5\over ac$

Calculation:

${1 \over 1 \ + \ a \ + \ b^{-1} }$ + ${1 \over 1 \ + \ b \ + \ 5 c^{-1}}$ + $\frac{1}{1+\frac{c}{5}+a^{-1}}$

⇒$\frac{1}{1+\frac{ac}{5}+a}$ + $\frac{1}{1+\frac{5}{ac}+5c^{-1}}$ + $\frac{1}{1+\frac{1}{ab}+a^{-1}}$

⇒$5\over5+5a+ac$(+\) $ac\over5+5a+ac$ $+$ $a\over5+a+ac$

⇒$a+5+ac\over5+a+ac$

⇒$1$ 

Hence, the value of ( ${1 \over 1 \ + \ a \ + \ b^{-1} }$+${1 \over 1 \ + \ b \ + \ 5 c^{-1}}$+$\frac{1}{1+\frac{c}{5}+a^{-1}}$) is 1.

Shortcut Trick let a = b = 1 and c = 5

now, as per the question, 

⇒ ${1 \over 1 \ + \ 1 \ + \ 1}$ + ${1 \over 1 \ + \ 1 \ + {5 \over 5 }}$ + $\frac{1}{1+\frac{5}{5}+ {1}}$

⇒ 1/3 + 1/3 + 1/3

⇒ 3/3 = 1

Given:

sec x – cos x = 4

Concept Used:

Cos x = $1\over sec x$

Calculation:

Let cos x = m 

⇒ sec x – cos x = 4

⇒  $1\over cosx$ - cos x = 4

⇒ $1\over m$ - m = 4

⇒ 1 - m² = 4m

⇒ m² + 4m -1 = 0

Finding roots of the above equation:

⇒ m =  ${-b \pm √{b^2-4ac} \over 2a}$

⇒ m = ${-4 \pm √{4^2+4} \over 2}$

⇒ m = $√5$ - 2

Finding the value:

⇒ ${{(1 \ + \ cos^2 x)} \over cos x}$

Putting the value of m in above equation:

⇒ ${{(1 \ + \ (√5-2)^2 )} \over√5-2}$ = ${1\over (√5 - 2)} \times {(√5 + 2)\over(√5 + 2) } + √5 - 2$ 

⇒ √5 + 2 + √5 - 2 = $2{ √{5}}$

Hence, the value of  $\bf {{(1 \ + \ cos^2 x)} \over cos x}$ is $2{ √{5}}$ .

Shortcut Trick 

We know, if x - 1/x = a then x + 1/x = √(a² + 4)

${{(1 \ + \ cos^2 x)} \over cos x}$ = secx + cos x = sec x + 1/sec x

Here, similarly sec x - 1/sec x = 4, then sec x + 1/sec x = √(42 + 4) = √20 = 2√5

Given:

Total population of the given states = 32760000

Calculation: 

Total percentage as per the pie chart is 100%

⇒ 100% = 32760000

⇒ 1% = 327600

As per the question, 

The population of Arunachal Pradesh,

⇒ 25 × 327600

The population of Uttar Pradesh, 

⇒ 15 × 327600

Now female in Arunachal Pradesh is 3/8

and female in Uttar Pradesh is 2/5

⇒  25 × 327600 × 3/8 = 15 × 327600 × 2/5

⇒ 25:16

∴ The ratio of the number of females in Arunachal Pradesh to the number of females in Uttar Pradesh was 25 ∶ 16.