SSC CGL 2022 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On : 13 Dec 2022 Shift 4) (Previous Year Paper)

The logic followed here is :- Immediate previous letter order according to English alphabetic series is written.

​So,

• 'DRAWING' is written as 'CQZVHMF'

​

And,

• 'TURQUOISE' is written as ' STQPTNHRD'

​

Similarly,

• 'COLOR' is written as

Hence, the correct answer is "BNKNQ".

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

I. Some sweets are cakes → Follow (As all cakes are ice creams and all ice creams are sweets. So, as whole cakes comes in ice creams which whole comes in sweets therefore some sweets are cakes is definitely true)

II. Some ice creams are cakes → Follow (As all cakes are ice creams. So, as whole cakes comes in ice creams therefore some ice creams are cakes is definitely true)

III. All cakes are sweets → Follow (As all cakes are ice creams and all ice creams are sweets. So, as whole cakes comes in ice creams which whole comes in sweets therefore all cakes are sweets is definitely true)

∴ Here, All conclusions I, II and III follow.​

Hence, the correct answer is "All conclusions I, II and III follow"

According to the sequence in the dictionary:

1. Unaffected
2. Unarmed
3. Unasked
4. Unattached
5. Unauthorized

Hence, the correct option is "Unasked".

The logic followed here is : 1^st number = 2 × (2^nd number + 3^rd number)

Given :

• (60, 17, 13)

​60 = 2 × (17 + 13)

60 = 2 × 30

60 = 60 (LHS = RHS)

• (62, 14, 17)​

62 = 2 × (14 + 17)

62 = 2 × 31

62 = 62 (LHS = RHS)

​So,

• Option - (1) : (56, 15, 13)​

56 = 2 × (15 + 13)

56 = 2 × 28

56 = 56 (LHS = RHS)

• Option - (2) : (43, 9, 12)​

43 = 2 × (9 + 12)

43 = 2 × 21

43 ≠ 42 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (3) : (55, 18, 9)​

55 = 2 × (18 + 9)

55 = 2 × 27

55 ≠ 54 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (4) : (57, 15, 14)​

57 = 2 × (15 + 14)

57 = 2 × 29

57 ≠ 58 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option - (1)" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is :- 

1. First letter and third letter → (1) is added to the position value according to the English alphabetic series.
2. Second letter and fourth letter→ (3) is added to the position value according to the English alphabetic series.

​So,​ 

Hence, the correct answer is "GJKI".

According to the question, after interchanging of numbers and mathematical signs:

1. ÷ and ×
2. 1 and 3

So, Given equations : ​​

I. 6 + 4 - 9 × 3 ÷ 1 ⇒ 6 + 4 - 9 ÷ 1 × 3

⇒ 6 + 4 - 9 × 3

⇒ 6 + 4 - 27

⇒ 10 - 27

⇒ -17

II. 4 × 3 - 1 + 8 ÷ 2 ⇒ 4 ÷ 1 - 3 + 8 × 2

⇒ 4 - 3 + 8 × 2

⇒ 4 + 16 - 3

⇒ 20 - 3

⇒ 17

Thus, according to the question values for equation I and II are (-17) and 17 respectively.

Hence, "Option - (2)" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is :- 

1. First letter → (6) is subtracted from the position value according to the English alphabetic series.
2. Second letter → (3) is subtracted from the position value according to the English alphabetic series.
3. Third letter → (1) is added to the position value according to the English alphabetic series.

​So,​

Hence, the correct answer is "IOV".

The logic followed here is :-

• First and third letter → Difference of the position values order according to English alphabetic series is (2).
• Second and fourth letter → Difference of the position values order according to English alphabetic series is (1).

​So,

• WPUQ

​

• MEKF

​

• BXCY

​

• ZLXM

​

Thus, out of all options only 'BXCY' doesn't follows the same logic as others.

Hence, the correct answer is "BXCY".

The logic followed here is : (1^st number - 2^nd number) = (2^nd number - 3^rd number)

So,

• Option - (1) : (57 - 53 - 49)

​57 - 53 = 53 - 49

4 = 4 (LHS = RHS)

• Option - (2) : (60 - 56 - 52)

​60 - 56 = 56 - 52

4 = 4 (LHS = RHS)

• Option - (3) : (50 - 46 - 42)

​50 - 46 = 46 - 42

4 = 4 (LHS = RHS)

• Option - (4) : (47 - 43 - 37)

​47 - 43 = 43 - 37

4 ≠ 6 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option - (4)" is the correct answer.

Given equation : 78 + 456 - 45 × 12 ÷ 4 = 519

According to the question, after interchanging of numbers and mathematical signs:

So,

• Option - (1) : 12 and 4, - and ×

78 + 456 × 45 - 4 ÷ 12 = 519

78 + 456 × 45 - 0.33 = 519

78 + 20520 - 0.33 = 519

20598 - 0.33 = 519

20597.67 ≠ 519 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (2) : 78 and 456, ÷ and ×

456 + 78 - 45 ÷ 12 × 4 = 519

456 + 78 - 3.75 × 4 = 519

456 + 78 - 15 = 519

534 - 15 = 519

519 = 519 (LHS = RHS)

• Option - (3) : 45 and 12, + and ÷

78 ÷ 456 - 12 × 45 + 4 = 519

0.71 - 12 × 45 + 4 = 519

0.71 + 4 - 540 = 519

4.71 - 540 = 519

-535.29 ≠ 519 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (4) : 456 and 45, ÷ and -

78 + 45 ÷ 456 × 12 - 4 = 519

78 + 0.09 × 12 - 4 = 519

78 + 1.08 - 4 = 519

79.08 - 4 = 519

75.08 ≠ 519 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option - (2)" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is : (2) is added subsequently.

Hence, "129" is the correct answer.

Given:

• The image must not to be rotated

Hence, the correct answer is "Option - (3)".

Given :

So,

• Option - (1) : P × Q + R → P is the father of Q who is the brother of R.

Here, Q is the son of P.

• Option - (2) : Q × P + R → Q is the father of P who is the brother of R.

Here, Q is the father of P.

• Option - (3) : P + R × Q → P is the brother of Q who is the father of R.

Here, Q is the brother of P.

• Option - (4) : P × Q - R → P is the father of Q who is the mother of R.

 

Here, Q is the daughter of P.

Hence, "Option - (1)" is the correct answer.

Given :

Given statement : O $ P * B @ F

So,

• O $ P → O is the sister of P.

• P * B → P is the son of B.

• B @ F → B is the husband of F.

​

​

Thus, according to the final family tree, O is the daughter of F.

Hence, "Daughter" is the correct answer$.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

I. Some C are O → Follow (As all O are C. So, as whole O comes in C therefore some C are O is definitely true)

II. Some D are C → Follow (As all C are D. So, as whole C comes in D therefore some D are C is definitely true)

III. No O is D → Does not follow (As all O are C and all C are D. So, as no direct negative or cross relation is given between O and D therefore it is definitely false)

∴ Here, Both conclusions I and II follows.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Both conclusions I and II follows"

The logic followed here is :-

• First four letters → Written diagonally or in reverse order.
• Last three letters → Written diagonally or in reverse order.

​So,

• ABILITY : LIBAYTI

​

And,

• CHRONIC : ORHCCIN

​

Similarly,

• HEAVILY : ?

Hence, the correct answer is "VAEHYLI".

The figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series is shown below:

1) For '

' element : Rotating in the clockwise direction.

 

2) For '

' element : Next alternate letter according to English alphabetic series is written subsequently. 

​

3) For '

' element : Next alternate letter according to English alphabetic series is written subsequently.

​

​​

Final series is :

Hence, ‘option - (1)’ is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:-

From the given three different cubes, figure 1 and figure 3, the adjacent sides are as shown below :

As 3 is common in both figure 1 and figure 3, it is clear that 2, 4, 5 and 6 are adjacent to it, and the remaining number i.e., 1 will be opposite to it.

Opposite pairs:

1 → 3

2 → 4

5 → 6

So, the opposite side of "2" will be side "4".

Hence, the correct answer is "4".

Given statement : [($\sqrt{256}$) ÷ 4]3 + (6)2 - (12 × 8) + 66 + (36 ÷ 12) = 65

According to the question, after interchanging the given numbers :

So,

• Option - (1) : 6 and 8

[($\sqrt{256}$) ÷ 4]3 + (8)2 - (12 × 6) + 66 + (36 ÷ 12) = 65

**[16 ÷ 4]**3 + 64 - 72 + 66 + 3 = 65

[4]3 + 64 - 72 + 66 + 3 = 65

64 + 64 + 66 + 3 - 72 = 65

197 - 72 = 65

125 ≠ 65 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (2) : 66 and 65

[($\sqrt{256}$) ÷ 4]3 + (6)2 - (12 × 8) + 65 + (36 ÷ 12) = 66

**[16 ÷ 4]**3 + 36 - 96 + 65 + 3 = 66

[4]3 + 36 - 96 + 65 + 3 = 66

64 + 36 + 65 + 3 - 96 = 66

168 - 96 = 66

72 ≠ 65 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (3) : 4 and 8

[($\sqrt{256}$) ÷ 8]3 + (6)2 - (12 × 4) + 66 + (36 ÷ 12) = 65

[16 ÷ 8]3 + 36 - 48 + 66 + 3 = 65

[2]3 + 36 - 48 + 66 + 3 = 65

8 + 36 + 66 + 3 - 48 = 65

113 - 48 = 65

65 = 65 (LHS = RHS)

• Option - (4) : 66 and 36

[($\sqrt{256}$) ÷ 4]3 + (6)2 - (12 × 8) + 36 + (66 ÷ 12) = 65

[16 ÷ 4]3 + 36 - 96 + 36 + 5.5 = 65

[4]3 + 36 - 96 + 36 + 5.5 = 65

64 + 36 + 36 + 5.5 - 96 = 65

141.5 - 96 = 65

45.5 ≠ 65 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option - (3)" is the correct answer.

The figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series is shown below:

1) For '

' element :

• Element '

' is increasing alternately.

• Element '

' is shifted anti-clockwise subsequently

• Not more than two '

' are in the same direction. 

​​​

Final series is :

Hence, ‘option - (1)’ is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is : (Square root of 1^st number) × (Square root of 3^rd number) = 2^nd number

Given : 

• (4, 6, 9)

​$\sqrt{4}$ × $\sqrt{9}$ = 6

2 × 3 = 6

6 = 6 (LHS = RHS)

• (25, 10, 4)

​$\sqrt{25}$ × $\sqrt{4}$ = 10

5 × 2 = 10

10 = 10 (LHS = RHS)

So,

• Option - (1) : (23, 3, 32)

​$\sqrt{23}$ × $\sqrt{32}$ = 3

4.49 × 5.65 = 3

25 ≠ 3 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (2) : (45, 20, 19)

​$\sqrt{45}$ × $\sqrt{19}$ = 20

6.7 × 4.35 = 20

29 ≠ 20 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (3) : (6, 36, 216)

​$\sqrt{6}$ × $\sqrt{216}$ = 36

​$\sqrt{6}$ × $6\sqrt{6}$ = 36

36 = 36 (LHS = RHS)

• Option - (4) : (98, 7, 89)

​​$\sqrt{98}$ × $\sqrt{89}$ = 7

9.89 × 9.43 = 7

93 ≠ 7 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option - (3)" is the correct answer.

Logic : (2) is multiplied by the sum of the position values of all the letters according to the English alphabetic series.

​So,

• 'TOP' is coded as '102'

​And,

• 'BAD' is coded as '14'

​Similarly,

• 'DOG' is coded as :

​

Hence, "52" is the correct answer.

Logic :

• First letter → (8) is added to the position value according to the English alphabetic series diagonally.
• Second letter → (6) is added to the position value according to the English alphabetic series diagonally.
• Third letter → (4) is added to the position value according to the English alphabetic series diagonally.
• Fourth letter → (2) is added to the position value according to the English alphabetic series diagonally.

​So,

• LAMP : RQGT

​And,

• GAME : GQGO

​Similarly,

• GOAT : ?

​

Hence, "VEUO" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is : (1^st number - 2) × 3 = 2^nd number

So,

• 6 : 12

​(6 - 2) × 3 = 12

4 × 3 = 12

12 = 12 (LHS = RHS)

​And,

• 9 : 21

​(9 - 2) × 3 = 21

7 × 3 = 21

21 = 21 (LHS = RHS)

​Similarly,

• 3 : ?

​(3 - 2) × 3 = ?

1 × 3 = ?

3 = ?

Hence, "3" is the correct answer.

Given:

• The image must not to be rotated

Hence, the correct answer is "Option - (4)".

The correct answer is D. Imman

Key Points

• The 67^th National Film Awards have announced at a press meet on 22 March 2021 in order to honor the best Indian films released between 1 January and 31 December 2019.
• The awards were given by Vice President Shri M. Venkaiah Naidu.
• Composer D Imman has nabbed the award for Best Music Direction at the 67^th National Film Awards. The composer has been awarded the National Award for his songs in the hit 2019 Tamil film Viswasam.
• Imman, who had previously won the Tamil Nadu State Film Award for Best Music Director, has grabbed his first National Award with Viswasam, which is his 104^th film.

Additional Information:

Winners of 67^th National Film Awards

The correct answer is M1 and M2

**Key Points:**Money - 

• In a modern economy, money consists mainly of currency notes and coins issued by the monetary authority of the country.
• In India currency notes are issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), which is the monetary authority in India.
• However, coins are issued by the Government of India.
• Apart from currency notes and coins, the balance in savings, or current account deposits, held by the public in commercial banks is also considered money since cheques drawn on these accounts are used to settle transactions.
• Such deposits are called demand deposits as they are payable by the bank on demand from the account holder.
• Other deposits, e.g. fixed deposits, have a fixed period to maturity and are referred to as time deposits.

Money supply - 

• The total stock of money in circulation among the public at a particular point in time is called money supply.
• RBI publishes figures for four alternative measures of money supply, viz. M1, M2, M3, and M4.
• They are defined as follows -
• M1 = Currency + Demand deposits with the banking system.
• M2 = M1 + Savings deposits with Post Office savings banks
• M3 = M1 + Net time deposits of commercial banks
• M4 = M3 + Total deposits with Post Office savings organizations (excluding National Savings Certificates)
• M1 and M2 are narrow money.
• M3 and M4 are known as broad money.
• These gradations are in decreasing order of liquidity. M1 is the most liquid and easiest for transactions whereas M4 is the least liquid of all. M3 is the most commonly used measure of the money supply.
• It is also known as aggregate monetary resources.

Correct Answer Lichchhavi

Samudragupta was the son of the Gupta king Chandragupta I and Queen Kumaradevi, who came from a Licchavi family.

**Key Points:**Samudragupta:

• Samudragupta (335-376 AD) was the great ruler of the Gupta dynasty, he was the successor of Chandragupta I.
• The most important source of information about the conquests of Samudragupta is the 'Allahabad Pillar' or 'Prayag Prasasti'.
• So far the rulers of Dakshinapatha were concerned, Samudragupta maintained a submissive attitude towards them.
• There were twelve rulers who surrendered to Samudragupta after being defeated.
• He then allowed all of them to rule again.
• On accepting the subjugation of Samudragupta, all the South Indian kings were freed and also offered their daughters in marriage.
• They brought tribute, followed his orders, and attended his court.

Samudragupta was the son of the Gupta king Chandragupta I and Queen Kumaradevi, who came from a Licchavi family. His fragmentary Eran stone inscription states that his father selected him as the successor because of his "devotion, righteous conduct, and valour".

The correct answer is Bharatanatyam.

Key Points:

• Padma Subrahmanyam is an Indian classical Bharata Natyam dancer.
• She is also a research scholar, choreographer, teacher, Indologist and author.
• She is famous in India and also abroad; several films and documentaries have been made in her honour by countries such as Japan, Australia and Russia.
• The Padma received Padma Shri in 1981 and Padma Bhushan in 2003, which are among the highest civilian awards of India.

Additional Information:

• The world-famous Kathak dancer, Pandit Birju Maharaj is the face of the Kalka-Bindadin gharana of Lucknow.
• Smitha Rajan is an Indian Mohiniyattam performer from Kerala and granddaughter of the legendary Indian classical dancer couple Padma Shri Kalamandalam Krishnan Nair and Kalamandalam Kalyanikutty Amma.
• Elam Endira Devi is an Indian classical dancer and teacher, known for her expertise and scholarship in the classical dance form of Manipuri, especially in the genres of Lai Haraoba and Raas.

Correct Answer 1

**Key Points:**Crust:

• The uppermost layer over the earth’s surface is called the crust.
• It is the thinnest of all the layers.
• On the continental masses, It is about 35 km and on the ocean floors, only 5 km.
• The density of the rocks found at the surface rocks: 2.7 - 2.9 gm/cm3
• The density of rocks found at the sea floor is around: 3.0 gm/cm3
• The oceanic crust is denser than the continental crust.
• The Earth’s crust is the thinnest layer and makes up less than 1% of the Earth’s volume and about 0.5% of the Earth’s mass.
• The earth is made up of several concentric layers with one inside another, just like an onion.
• The crust is the outermost layer of Earth and is made up of igneous, metamorphic, and sedimentary rocks.
• The Earth's crust is unstable because of the exogenic forces.

Discontinuity:

• All those layers are separated from each other through a transition zone.
• These transition zones are called discontinuities.
• Conrad Discontinuity: It lies between the Upper crust and Lower crust.
• Mohorovicic Discontinuity: It lies between crust and mantle.
• Repiti Discontinuity: It lies between the Upper mantle and Lower mantle.
• Gutenberg Discontinuity: It lies between core and mantle.
• Lehman Discontinuity: It lies between the upper core and lower core.​
• Discontinuities are the transition zones that separated the layers of the earth.
• Earth’s interior is made of different kinds of materials.
• Each of those materials is different from the others by their physical and chemical properties, such as temperature, density, etc.

Correct Answer Original

The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide the disputes between the Centre and States falls under Original Jurisdiction.

Key PointsOriginal Jurisdiction  

• As a Federal court, the Supreme Court decides disputes between different units of the Indian Federation.
• More elaborately, any dispute between:
• The Centre and one or more states
• The Centre and any state or states on one side and one or more states on the other
• Between two or more states
• In the above federal disputes, the Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction.
• Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

Important Points

Appellate Jurisdiction  

• The Supreme Court is primarily a court of appeal and hears appeals against the judgments of the lower courts.
• It enjoys a wide appellate jurisdiction which can be classified under four heads:
• Appeals in constitutional matters
• Appeals in civil matters
• Appeals in criminal matters
• Appeals by special leave

Advisory Jurisdiction 

• The Constitution under Article 143 authorizes the President to seek the opinion of the Supreme Court in the two categories of matters:
• On any question of law or fact of public importance which has arisen or which is likely to arise
• On any dispute arising out of any pre-constitution treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, sanador other similar instruments

The correct answer is Vacuoles.

Key Points

• Meristematic tissues are the type of tissues found in plants that continue to divide and redivide and are, therefore, involved in the growth of plants.
• Cells of meristematic tissue are very active, they have dense cytoplasm, thin cellulose walls and prominent nuclei.
• They lack vacuoles.
• Depending on the region where they are present, meristematic tissues are classified as apical, lateral and intercalary.
• New cells produced by meristem are initially like those of meristem itself, but as they grow and mature, their characteristics slowly change and they become differentiated as components of other tissues.
• Apical meristem is present at the growing tips of stems and roots and increases the length of the stem and the root.
• The girth of the stem or root increases due to lateral meristem (cambium).
• The intercalary meristem seen in some plants is located near the node.

The correct answer is asthenosphere.

Key Points

• Asthenosphere:
• The asthenosphere is the denser, weaker layer beneath the lithospheric mantle.
• It lies between about 100 kilometers (62 miles) and 410 kilometers (255 miles) beneath Earth's surface.
• The temperature and pressure of the asthenosphere are so high that rocks soften and partly melt, becoming semi-molten.
• The asthenosphere is generally more viscous than the lithosphere, and the lithosphere-asthenosphere boundary (LAB) is the point where geologists and rheologists, scientists who study the flow of matter mark the difference in ductility between the two layers of the upper mantle.

So, it is clear that the asthenosphere is located beneath the crust and the crustal plates are moving over this layer.

Additional Information

• Lithosphere
• ​The crust and the uppermost part of the mantle are called the lithosphere.
• Its thickness ranges from 10-200 km.
• The lithosphere is the solid, outer part of the Earth.
• The lithosphere includes the brittle upper portion of the mantle and the crust, the outermost layers of Earth’s structure.
• It is bounded by the atmosphere above and the asthenosphere (another part of the upper mantle) below.
• Stratosphere:
• It is the second major strata of air in the atmosphere.
• It is found above the tropopause and extends up to a height of 50 km.
• One important feature of the stratosphere is that it contains the ozone layer.
• This layer absorbs ultra-violet radiation and shields life on the earth from an intense, harmful form of energy.
• The air temperature in the stratosphere remains relatively constant up to an altitude of 15 miles (25 km).
• Mesosphere: 
• The mesosphere is a layer of Earth's atmosphere.
• The mesosphere is directly above the stratosphere and below the thermosphere.
• It extends from about 50 to 85 km (31 to 53 miles) above our planet.
• Temperature decreases with height throughout the mesosphere.

the correct answer is Ashadha.

Key Points

• Guru Purnima
• Guru Purnima is a significant Hindu festival celebrated in honor of the spiritual gurus, mentors, and teachers in one's life.
• The festival falls on the full moon day or Purnima of the Hindu month of Ashadha (June-July in the Gregorian calendar).
• The word 'Guru' is derived from the Sanskrit language and means 'teacher' or 'guide,' while 'Purnima' means 'full moon day'.
• It is believed that Guru Purnima is the day when the great sage Vyasa, who is considered the Adi Guru or the first Guru in Hinduism, was born.
• Therefore, the day is also known as Vyasa Purnima.
• The festival is celebrated across India, Nepal, and Bhutan with great enthusiasm and devotion.
• Devotees offer puja (worship) to their gurus, seek their blessings, and express their gratitude by presenting them with gifts, sweets, and flowers.
• Guru Purnima also holds great significance in the Buddhist and Jain traditions.
• In Buddhism, the day is celebrated as the day when the Lord Buddha gave his first sermon to his disciples at Sarnath.
• In the Jain tradition, the day is celebrated as the day when Lord Mahavira, the last Tirthankara, made Indrabhuti Gautam his first disciple.
• Overall, Guru Purnima is a day to express gratitude and reverence towards one's spiritual and academic gurus, and seek their blessings for a fulfilling and meaningful life spiritual growth.

Additional Information

• The Hindu calendar, also known as the Vikram Samvat calendar, is a lunisolar calendar used in Hinduism, with many variations regionally.
• It is based on the movement of the Moon and the Sun, and its months are based on the lunar cycles.
• The calendar begins in the month of Chaitra, which usually falls in March or April in the Gregorian calendar.
• Here are the months of the Hindu calendar with their corresponding Gregorian calendar months:
• Chaitra - March/April
• Vaisakha - April/May
• Jyaistha - May/June
• Asadha - June/July
• Sravana - July/August
• Bhadra - August/September
• Asvina - September/October
• Kartika - October/November
• Agrahayana - November/December
• Pausa - December/January
• Magha - January/February
• Phalguna - February/March
• Note:
• Please note that the dates of the Hindu calendar vary from year to year as they are based on the positions of the Moon and the Sun.

The correct answer is Prime Minister of India.

Key Points

• The Inter-State Council, which works to promote and support cooperative federalism in the country, has been reconstituted with Prime Minister Narendra Modi as Chairman.
• The government has also reconstituted the standing committee of the Inter-State Council with Union Home Minister Amit Shah as Chairman.
• The Inter-State Council was set up through a Presidential Order on May 28, 1990.​

Additional Information

• It was set up through a presidential order on the recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission.
• Justice R. S. Sarkaria had recommended that a permanent Inter-State Council should be set up under Article 263.
• The Inter-State Council composes of the following members:
• Prime Minister, Chairman.
• Chief Ministers of all states.
• Chief Ministers of the union territories having legislative assemblies.
• Administrators of the union territories not having legislative assemblies.
• 6 Union Cabinet Ministers, including Home Minister, to be nominated by the Prime Minister.
• Governors of the states being administered under the President's rule.

The correct answer is Solung.

Key Points

• Solung Festival
• ​The Adis of Arunachal Pradesh celebrate Solung, their most well-known festival, on September 1 every year, after the sowing of seeds in order to pray for prosperity and a successful harvest.
• It is primarily an agricultural celebration but exhibits the socio-religious characteristics of the populace.
• Additionally, tribal people trade presents of meat and apong (rice beer).
• Attending this festival is the best method to learn about the culture and socioeconomic importance of the Adi tribe.

Additional Information

• Hornbill festival:
• It is celebrated in Nagaland.
• It is also known as the "festival of all festivals" in the locality.
• The festival is a representation of the Naga culture through splendid traditional music, dance, and performances.
• The festival gets its name from the Indian Hornbill.
• It is a common bird among the folklores and tribes of Nagaland.
• Ambubachi Mela:
• It is celebrated at Kamakhya Temple in the month of June.
• It is one of the biggest congregations in eastern India.
• It is the belief that Kamakhya embodies the mother cult, the Shakti.
• The meaning of Ambubachi is spoken with water.
• Other fairs and festival of Assam: Bihu Festival, Me-Dum-Me-Phi, Majuli Festival, Dehing Patkai Festival, Kaziranga Elephant Festival and Ali Ai Ligang Festival.
• ​Wangala
• Known as the '100 Drum Festival', the Wangala Festival is a traditional festival in the northeastern Indian state of Meghalaya.
• The festival kicked off on November 12^th, 2021.
• The festival lasts from two days to a week.
• It is one of the most important festivals of the Garo Tribe.
• The tribesmen make sacrifices to please their god Saljong.

The correct answer is 26.4 percent.

Key Points

• According to the Rangarajan committee, the poverty ratio has declined from 39.6% in 2009-10 to 30.9% in 2011-12 in rural India and from 35.1% to 26.4% in urban India. The decline was thus a uniform 8.7 percentage points over the two years.
• The all-India poverty ratio fell from 38.2% to 29.5%. Totally, 91.6 million individuals were lifted out of poverty during this period.
• States such as Himachal Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Sikkim, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and Uttarakhand saw about a 10 per cent decline in poverty over the past years.
• In Odisha, the decrease is 24.6 %, Bihar 20.7 %, Rajasthan 19.7 %, and Jharkhand 8.3%.​

Additional Information

• The poverty rate is the ratio of the number of people (in a given age group) whose income falls below the poverty line; taken as half the median household income of the total population.
• It is also available by broad age group: child poverty (0-17 years old), working-age poverty and elderly poverty (66 year-olds or more).
• However, two countries with the same poverty rates may differ in terms of the relative income-level of the poor.
• An expert group constituted by the Planning Commission and, chaired by Suresh Tendulkar, was constituted to review methodology for poverty estimation and to address the shortcomings of the previous methods.

Recommendations of the Tendulkar Committee

• The shift from Calorie Consumption-based Poverty Estimation:
• It based its calculations on the consumption of the items like cereal, pulses, milk, edible oil, non-vegetarian items, vegetables, fresh fruits, dry fruits, sugar, salt & spices, other food, intoxicants, fuel, clothing, footwear, education, medical (non-institutional and institutional), entertainment, personal & toilet goods.
• Uniform Poverty line Basket: 
• Tendulkar Committee computed new poverty lines for rural and urban areas of each state based on the uniform poverty line basket and found that all India poverty line (2004-05) was:
• ₹446.68 per capita per month in rural areas
• ₹578.80 per capita per month in urban areas
• Private Expenditure: Incorporation of private expenditure on health and education while estimating poverty.
• Price Adjustment Procedure: The Committee also recommended a new method of updating poverty lines, adjusting for changes in prices and patterns of consumption, using the consumption basket of people close to the poverty line.
• Tendulkar committee computed poverty lines for 2004-05 at a level that was equivalent, in Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) terms to Rs 33 per day.

Note- Purchasing Power Parity model refers to a method used to work out the money that would be needed to purchase the same goods and services in two countries.

The correct answer is Russia.

Key Points

• The 2018 FIFA World Cup took place between 14 June and 15 July 2018 in Russia.
• It was the 21^st edition of the FIFA World Cup.
• The final match of the FIFA World Cup 2018 was played between France and Croatia.
• France defeated Croatia in the final and claimed their second World Cup.
• England's Harry Kane became the top scorer in the tournament with 6 goals and won the Golden Boot Award.
• France’s Kylian Mbappe won the Young Player award in the tournament.
• The official mascot of the FIFA World Cup 2018 was Zabivaka.
• The official song of the tournament was “Live It Up”.
• FIFA World Cup 2022 was scheduled to held in Qatar in 2022.

The correct answer is 1817.

Key Points

• James mill, a British Historian divided Indian history into three parts, i.e., Hindu, Muslim and British.
• In 1817, James Mill, a Scottish economist and political philosopher published a massive three-volume work, A History of British India.
• This periodization came to be widely accepted.
• So the terms through which we periodized that is, demarcate the difference between periods became important.
• They reflect our ideas about the past.
• Before the British came to India, Hindu and Muslim despots ruled the country.
• Religious intolerance, caste taboos, and superstitious practices dominated social life.
• Mill suggested that the British should conquer all the territories in India to ensure the enlightenment and happiness of the Indian people.
• British rule represented all the forces of progress and civilization.

The correct answer is Germany.

Key Points

• International Shooting Sport Federation (ISSF) Junior World Cup began on 9 May 2022 at Suhl in Germany.
• Manu Bhaker and Saurabh Chaudhary will lead the Indian contingent at the event.
• National Rifle Association of India (NRAI) has shortlisted as many as 51 shooters for the German World Cup, including shooters like Anish Bhanwala, Naamya Kapoor, Vivaan Kapoor, etc.
• The International Shooting Sport Federation is the governing body of the Olympic shooting events in rifle, pistol and shotgun disciplines, and of several non-Olympic shooting sport events.
• ​The International Shooting Sport Federation​:
• President: Vladimir Lisin
• Headquarters: Munich, Germany
• Sport: Shooting sport
• Founded: 1907
• Membership: 150 regions

Additional Information

The correct answer is 72.

Key Points

• 72 members participated in the first session of congress in 1885.
• Indian National Congress was formed in 1885 by A.O Hume a member of the Imperial Civil Service.
• The first meeting of the Indian National Congress was held on December 28^th, 1885.
• The first session was held at a hall of Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College in Bombay.
• Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee was the first president of the Indian National Congress.
• He was an Indian barrister.
• In the first session out of 72, 39 were lawyers and this trend continued i.e. more than one-third of delegates were from a legal background.

Additional Information

• Sessions of Indian National Congress:

The correct answer is industries started to get diversified

Key Points

• Industrial Policy Resolution 1956.
• The Policy Resolution of 1956, laid the following objectives for the growth of the Industrial sector:
• To accelerate the rate of growth and to speed up the pace of Industrialization. Hence a is correct.
• To develop heavy industries and machine-making industries.
• Expansion of Public Sector.
• To reduce disparities in Income and Wealth.

Additional Information 

• Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 (IPR 1956) is a resolution adopted by the Indian parliament in April 1956.
• It was the second comprehensive statement on the industrial development of India after the Industrial Policy of 1948.
• The 1956 policy continued to constitute the basic economic policy for a long time. This fact has been confirmed in all the Five-Year Plans of India.
• According to this resolution, the objective of the social and economic policy in India was the establishment of a socialistic pattern of society. It provided more powers to the governmental machinery.
• It laid down three categories of industries which were more sharply defined. These categories were:
• Schedule A: those industries which were to be an exclusive responsibility of the state.
• Schedule B: those which were to be progressively state-owned and in which the state would generally set up new enterprises, but in which private enterprise would be expected only to supplement the effort of the state; and
• Schedule C: all the remaining industries and their future development would, in general be left to the initiative and enterprise of the private sector.

The correct answer is Hindustan Republican Association.

Key Points

• Kakori Conspiracy took place on 9^th August 1925 in Lucknow in which Rs. 1 lakh were stolen.
• The Kakori Conspiracy or the Kakori train robbery was organized by Hindustan Republican Army.
• Hindustan Socialist Republican Association was formed by Chandrasekhar Azad, Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev Thapar and Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee.
• They assassinated Assistant Superintendent of Police John Saunders in 1927
• It was established at the Feroz Shah Kotla, Delhi.
• It published its manifesto called, 'The Revolutionary'.
• It was also known as the Hindustan Socialist Republican Army.
• The organization was responsible for assassinating John Saunders in 1927 and bombing the Central Legislative Assembly in Delhi in 1929.

Additional Information

• The robbery was planned by Ram Prasad Bismil and Ashfaqullah Khan.
• It was executed by Bismil, Khan, Chandrashekhar Azad, Rajendra Lahiri, Shachindra Bakshi, Keshab Chakravarty, Murari Lal Khanna(Gupta), Banwari Lal, Mukundi Lal Gupta and Manmathnath Gupta.
• The target was the guard cabin, carrying money collected from various railway stations to be deposited in Lucknow.
• The final verdict of the Kakori Kand was pronounced in July 1927.
• Around 15 people were let off by the court for lack of evidence.
• Death sentences were awarded to:
• Ram Prasad Bismil
• Ashfaqullah Khan
• Thakur Roshan Singh
• Rajendra Lahiri

The correct answer is 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, and 0.03% carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases.

Key Points

• Composition of the atmosphere:
• The air we take in while breathing is actually a mixture of many gases.
• Nitrogen and oxygen are two gases that make up the bulk of the atmosphere.
• Carbon dioxide, helium, ozone, argon, and hydrogen are found in lesser quantities.
• Apart from these gases, tiny dust particles are also present in the air.
• These dust particles present in the air are commonly referred to as aerosols.

Additional Information

The atmospheric composition of gases by volume is as follows:

The correct answer is I, II and III.

Key Points

• Indian Antarctic Bill 2022:
• In October 2021, India extended its support for protecting the Antarctic environment and for co-sponsoring the proposal of the European Union for designating East Antarctica and the Weddell Sea as Marine Protected Areas (MPAs).
• The bill has listed strict guidelines and a system of permits, which will be issued by a government-appointed committee, without which any expedition or individual will not be allowed to enter Antarctica.
• The bill has a provision to establish a committee on Antarctic governance and environmental protection to monitor, implement and ensure compliance with the relevant international laws, emissions standards and rules of protection.
• The Bill further prohibits drilling, dredging, excavation or collection of mineral resources or even doing anything to identify where such mineral deposits occur.
• The only exception is for scientific research with a permit.
• There will be strict prohibitions on damaging native plants, flying or landing helicopters or operating vessels that could disturb birds and seals, using firearms that could disturb the birds and animals, removing soil or any biological material native to Antarctica, engaging in any activity that could adversely change the habitat of birds and animals, or harm them.
• The Bill is applicable to Indian citizens as well as foreign citizens.

The correct answer is Markovnikov's rule.

Key Points

• Markovnikov's rule:
• Markovnikov's rule is a principle that predicts the outcome of an addition reaction of an unsymmetrical alkene.
• It states that in the addition of a polar reagent to an unsymmetrical alkene, the electrophile will add to the carbon atom that has the most hydrogen atoms attached to it, while the nucleophile will add to the carbon atom that has the least hydrogen atoms attached to it.
• This is because the more substituted carbocation intermediate is more stable due to the electron-donating effect of the alkyl groups.
• This rule is named after Russian chemist Vladimir Markovnikov who first proposed it in 1869.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Option 3. 

Key Points

• Maize is a versatile crop that can grow in a wide range of climatic conditions.
• It is true that maize can be grown in areas with lower rainfall and moderate temperatures, but the crop's specific requirements may vary depending on the variety and the stage of growth.
• Maize can grow in a range of temperatures from 10°C to 35°C, but optimal temperatures for growth and development are between 20°C and 30°C. While maize can tolerate some drought, it requires a minimum amount of water to grow and produce good yields.
• The amount of rainfall required for maize cultivation may vary depending on the variety, soil type, and other environmental factors. In general, maize requires at least 500-600 mm of rainfall during the growing season, with an evenly distributed pattern.

Additional Information

• Rice is a type of grain that is one of the most important staple foods in the world.
• It is a member of the grass family and is grown in many countries, particularly in Asia, Africa, and South America. Rice is a rich source of carbohydrates, which makes it an important source of energy in many diets.
• There are many different varieties of rice, but the most common types are white rice and brown rice. White rice is the most commonly consumed type of rice, and it has been milled to remove the bran and germ layers, which results in a lighter color and smoother texture.
• Brown rice, on the other hand, is a whole grain that has not been milled, so it retains its bran and germ layers, which gives it a nutty flavor and chewy texture.
• Rice can be prepared in many different ways, including boiling, steaming, frying, and baking. It is used in a wide variety of dishes, such as stir-fries, curries, sushi, and rice pudding. Rice is also a popular ingredient in many gluten-free products, such as crackers and breads.
• Jute is a long, soft, shiny vegetable fiber that is spun into coarse, strong threads.
• It is primarily grown in India and Bangladesh, and is used to make a variety of products such as bags, rope, twine, and carpet backing. Jute is also sometimes blended with other fibers, such as cotton or silk, to create a variety of textiles.
• Jute is a sustainable crop, as it requires relatively little water, pesticides, and fertilizers to grow. Additionally, jute fibers are biodegradable, making it an eco-friendly choice for many applications. However, the production of jute can also have negative environmental impacts if not managed properly, such as soil degradation and water pollution.
• Cotton is a soft, fluffy, natural fiber that is widely used in the textile industry to make a variety of products such as clothing, bedding, and towels.
• It comes from the seedpod of the cotton plant, which is native to tropical and subtropical regions around the world.
• Cotton has been cultivated for thousands of years and is one of the oldest crops used for textile production. Today, it is still one of the most widely used natural fibers in the world, although synthetic fibers have gained popularity in recent years.

The correct answer is Option 3. 

Key Points

• The Indian Olympic Association (IOA) launched India's first Olympic Values Education Programme (OVEP) in Odisha in September 2019.
• The programme is aimed at inculcating values of Olympism and Olympic education in school-going children across the country.
• The programme was launched in collaboration with the International Olympic Committee (IOC) and the United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF), and was initially implemented in 100 schools in Odisha. The programme has since been expanded to other states in India.

Additional Information

• Odisha is a state located in the eastern part of India. It is also known as Orissa.
• The state capital of Odisha is Bhubaneswar, and the largest city is Cuttack.
• Odisha has a rich cultural heritage and is known for its classical dance form, Odissi, and its ancient temples, including the famous Jagannath Temple in Puri.
• The state has a diverse geography that includes coastal plains, forests, and hills.
• Odisha's economy is largely based on agriculture, with major crops including rice, sugarcane, and pulses. The state also has significant mineral resources, including coal and iron ore.
• Punjab is a state located in the northern part of India.
• It is bordered by the Indian states of Jammu and Kashmir to the north, Himachal Pradesh to the northeast, Haryana to the south and southeast, Rajasthan to the southwest, and the Pakistani province of Punjab to the west.
• The capital city of Punjab is Chandigarh, which is a union territory and also serves as the capital of Haryana.
• Punjab is known for its rich cultural heritage, including traditional music and dance forms like Bhangra and Giddha, as well as its delicious cuisine which includes dishes like Sarson ka Saag and Makki di Roti. The state is also known for its agricultural production, particularly in the cultivation of wheat and rice.
• The Sikh religion, which originated in Punjab, is a major part of the state's culture and identity. The famous Golden Temple, located in the city of Amritsar, is one of the most important religious sites for Sikhs and is visited by millions of people every year.
• Haryana is a state located in northern India. It was carved out of the former state of East Punjab on 1^st November 1966.
• The state is bordered by the states of Punjab and Himachal Pradesh to the north, Rajasthan to the west and south, and Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand to the east.
• Chandigarh is the capital of both Haryana and Punjab, and is a union territory administered by the central government. The major cities of Haryana include Gurgaon (now known as Gurugram), Faridabad, Ambala, Hisar, Panipat, Karnal, Rohtak, and Panchkula.
• The economy of Haryana is largely driven by agriculture, with the state being one of the largest producers of wheat, rice, and sugarcane in the country. It also has a rapidly growing industrial sector, with major industries including automobile manufacturing, textiles, and information technology. Haryana is also known for its sportspersons, especially in the field of wrestling.
• Uttar Pradesh is a state located in the northern part of India.
• It is the most populous state in India, with a population of over 200 million people.
• The capital of Uttar Pradesh is Lucknow, and other major cities include Kanpur, Varanasi, Agra, and Allahabad.Uttar Pradesh has a rich history and is known for its cultural and religious diversity.
• It is home to many important Hindu, Buddhist, and Muslim pilgrimage sites, including the cities of Varanasi, Ayodhya, and Mathura.The economy of Uttar Pradesh is mainly based on agriculture, but the state also has a growing industrial sector.
• Some of the major industries in the state include textiles, sugar, and leather. Uttar Pradesh is also known for its **handicrafts, including pottery, embroidery, and wood carving.**​

The correct answer is Option 1. 

Key Points

• Article 51A (a) of the Constitution of India states that it is the fundamental duty of every citizen of India to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the national flag, and the national anthem.
• This duty is considered an important aspect of citizenship in India and reflects the commitment of citizens towards the values and principles enshrined in the Constitution.
• It is the responsibility of every citizen to uphold the democratic principles, protect the sovereignty of the country, and promote national unity and integrity.​

Additional Information 

• Secularism in a constitution refers to the principle that the state and its institutions are separate from religion, and that the state does not favor or promote any particular religion or religious beliefs.
• This means that the state is neutral in matters of religion, and individuals are free to practice their own religion without interference or discrimination from the state.
• Many countries around the world have included secularism in their constitutions.
• For example, the Indian Constitution, which was adopted in 1950, enshrines secularism as a fundamental principle. Article 25 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice, and propagate religion subject to public order, morality and health.
• ​Socialism is an economic and political ideology that emphasizes collective or state ownership and control of the means of production, distribution, and exchange, as well as the goal of achieving greater economic equality and social justice.
• Democracy is a system of government where the power is held by the people, either directly or through elected representatives. It is derived from the Greek words "demos," meaning "people," and "kratos," meaning "rule."
• In a democratic society, citizens have the right to participate in the political process, such as voting in elections, expressing their opinions, and holding their elected officials accountable.
• Democracy values the principles of freedom, equality, and justice. It promotes individual rights and freedoms, and allows for the peaceful resolution of conflicts through open and fair dialogue.
• While democracy is often associated with Western countries, there are various forms of democratic systems in different regions of the world, such as parliamentary, presidential, and constitutional democracies.

The correct answer is Option 4. 

Key Points

• MANAS Biosphere Reserve is located in the state of Assam in India.
• Biosphere reserves are areas of land, coastal or marine ecosystems recognized by UNESCO (United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization) as having important ecological, biological and cultural value. They are designed to promote the conservation of biodiversity, support sustainable development, and foster scientific research and education.
• Biosphere reserves are typically composed of three zones:
• The core area, which is strictly protected and serves as a reference for the natural ecosystems and biodiversity of the region.
• The buffer zone, which surrounds the core area and is designated for activities that are compatible with conservation, such as sustainable agriculture, forestry, and ecotourism.
• The transition zone, which is the area outside of the buffer zone where human activities are more intense and where the emphasis is on sustainable development, community involvement, and cultural preservation.
• Biosphere reserves aim to balance conservation and development by promoting sustainable use of natural resources, fostering local economic development, and promoting cultural diversity. They also serve as important sites for scientific research, monitoring and education, and help to raise awareness about the importance of protecting our natural environment.

Additional Information

• Tripura is a state located in the northeastern region of India. It is bordered by Bangladesh to the north, south, and west, and by the Indian states of Assam and Mizoram to the east. The capital of Tripura is Agartala, and the state covers an area of 10,491.69 square kilometers. As of 2021, the population of Tripura is estimated to be around 4 million people.
• Manipur is a state located in northeastern India, bordered by Nagaland to the north, Mizoram to the south, Assam to the west, and Myanmar to the east. The capital city of Manipur is Imphal. The state has a diverse population, with various ethnic groups and languages, and is known for its rich culture and traditions.
• Meghalaya is a state located in the northeastern region of India: Meghalaya is one of the Seven Sister States of northeast India. It is bordered by Assam to the north and northeast, Bangladesh to the south and southwest. The state capital is Shillong.

Concept used:

Average = sum/number of items

Calculation:

According to the question:

Sum of selling price (S.P) = 750 + 450 + 650 + 650 = Rs.2500

Average selling price (S.P) = 2500/4 = Rs.625

Sum of cost price (C.P) = 650 + 370 + 450 + 590 = Rs.2060

Average cost price (C.P) = 2060/4 = Rs.515

The difference between the average selling price and average cost price:

⇒ Average selling price (S.P) - Average cost price (C.P) = 625 - 515

⇒ Rs.110

∴ The correct answer is 110.

Given:

The distance between R and S = 400 km

Difference of their speed = 4 km/h

Formula used:

Distance = relative speed × time

Calculation:

Let the speed of the train A = S₁

Let the speed of the train B = S₂

According to the question:

Relative speed × time = distance

⇒ (S₁ + S₂) × 10 = 400

⇒ (S1 + S2) = 40 --------- (1)

and

⇒ (S1 - S2) = 4 --------- (2)

By solving the equation (1) and (2)

S₂ = (40 - 4)/2 = 36/2 = 18 km/h

∴ The correct answer is 18 km/h.

Given:

tan (α + β) = a,

tan (α - β) = b

Formula used:

Tan (A + B) = (tan A + tan B)/{1 - (tanA × tanB)}

Calculation:

We can write 2α as:

⇒ 2α = (α + β) + (α - β) 

Multiplying both sides with 'tan' 

⇒ tan 2α = tan {(α + β) + (α - β)} 

⇒ tan 2α = {tan (α + β) + tan(α - β)}/{1 - tan (α + β) × tan(α - β)}

Putting tan (α + β) = a, and tan (α - β) = b

⇒ tan 2α = (a + b)/(1 - ab)

∴ The correct answer is (a + b)/(1 - ab).

Given:

The ratios of aluminum and copper in P (Al : Cu) = 5 : 11

The ratios of aluminum and copper in Q (Al : Cu) = 3 : 5

Calculation:

The ratio of P is 5 : 11, a total of 16

The ratio of Q is 3 : 5, a total of 8

Now multiply the second ratio by  2 to make the quantity equal.

The ratio of Q is 6 : 10, a total 16

If a third alloy is formed by mixing alloys P and Q in the ratio of 1 ∶ 3.

Now multiply the first ratio by 1 and the second ratio by 3, as the third alloy is formed by mixing in 1 : 3 ratio

Now,

The final ratio in third alloy Al : Cu = 23 : 41

Required percentage = (23/41) × 100 = 56.09 ≈ 56%

∴ The correct answer is 56%.

Alternate Method

According to the question, 

In the third alloy, P : Q ​= 1 : 3

⇒ Quantity of alloy Q = 3 × Quantity of Alloy P

Ratio in alloy P = 5 : 11 

Total quantity = 5 + 11 = 16

So, Total quantity of alloy Q = 3 × 16 = 48

But, Ratio of Alloy Q = 3 : 5, means total quantity = 3 + 5 = 8

To make it 48, we multiply the ratio of Q by 6

Then, Ratio of Q = 3 × 6 : 5 × 6

Ratio of Alloy Q = 18 : 30

Now, the ratio of P and Q becomes in the ratio 1 : 3.

Now, After mixing both the alloys, the ratio will be 

Aluminium :  Copper = (5 + 18) : (11 + 30) = 23 : 41

so, Aluminium% w.r.t. Copper = (23/41) × 100 = 56%

Mistake Points Read the question carefully, 

In the last line of the question we have mentioned that, 

then aluminum is what percentage of the copper.

Hence we do not have to take the whole weight of the alloy while calculating the % of aluminum.

Shortcut Trick

SI for 2 years = Amount in 4 years − Amount in 2 years = 1600 − 1200 = Rs. 400

Principal (P) = Amount in 2 years − SI for 2 years = 1200 − 400 = Rs. 800

SI for 1 year = 400 ÷ 2 = Rs. 200

Rate % = (SI for 1 year ÷ Principal) × 100 = (200 ÷ 800) × 100 = 25%

∴ The correct answer is 25%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Amount in 4 years (A₄) = Rs. 1600

Amount in 2 years (A₂) = Rs. 1200

Formula Used:

Amount (A) = Principal (P) + Simple Interest (SI)

SI = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

P = ? 1200 1600

0 Years 2 Years 4 Years

• SI
• SI = 400

SI for 2 years = 1600 - 1200 = 400 Therefore, P = 1200 - 400 = 800

Calculations:

⇒ SI for (4 − 2) years = 1600 − 1200

⇒ SI for 2 years = Rs. 400

⇒ SI for 1 year = 400 ÷ 2 = Rs. 200

⇒ Principal (P) = Amount in 2 years − SI for 2 years

⇒ P = 1200 − 400 = Rs. 800

⇒ Rate (R) = (SI for 1 year × 100) ÷ P

⇒ R = (200 × 100) ÷ 800

⇒ R = 20000 ÷ 800 = 25%

∴ The correct answer is 25%.

Additional Information

Simple Interest vs Compound Interest

While Simple Interest is calculated only on the principal amount, Compound Interest is calculated on the principal and the accumulated interest of previous periods.

Difference Between SI and CI for 2 Years

The difference between Compound Interest and Simple Interest for 2 years is given by the formula: Diff = P × (R ÷ 100)².

Rule of 72

It is a shortcut to estimate the number of years required to double your money at a given annual rate of return: Years ≈ 72 ÷ Rate.

Shortcut Trick

Number 3422213AB is divisible by 99, so it must be divisible by 9 and 11.

For divisibility by 9: Sum of digits (3+4+2+2+2+1+3+A+B) = 17 + A + B must be a multiple of 9.

For divisibility by 11: (B + 3 + 2 + 2 + 3) − (A + 1 + 2 + 4) = (10 + B) − (7 + A) = 3 + B − A must be 0 or 11.

Solving these: If 3 + B − A = 0 ⇒ A − B = 3. Substituting in 17 + A + B = 27 ⇒ A + B = 10. Solving gives A = 6.5 (not possible).

If 17 + A + B = 18 ⇒ A + B = 1. Then 3 + B − A = 0 ⇒ A − B = 3 (not possible). If 17 + A + B = 27 ⇒ A + B = 10 and 3 + B − A = 11 ⇒ B − A = 8. Then 2B = 18 ⇒ B = 9, A = 1.

Calculation: 2A + B = 2(1) + 9 = 11.

∴ The correct answer is 11.

Alternate Method

Given: Number 3422213AB is divisible by 99.

Divisibility Rules: 99 = 9 × 11. The number must satisfy both rules.

⇒ Sum of digits = 3 + 4 + 2 + 2 + 2 + 1 + 3 + A + B = 17 + A + B

⇒ For div. by 9, 17 + A + B = 18 or 27 ⇒ A + B = 1 or A + B = 10

⇒ For div. by 11, (B + 3 + 2 + 2 + 3) − (A + 1 + 2 + 4) = (10 + B) − (7 + A) = 3 + B − A

⇒ 3 + B − A must be 0 or 11 ⇒ A − B = 3 or B − A = 8

⇒ Case 1: A + B = 10 and B − A = 8 ⇒ 2B = 18 ⇒ B = 9 and A = 1

⇒ Required value: 2A + B = 2(1) + 9 = 2 + 9 = 11

∴ The correct answer is 11.

Additional Information

Divisibility by 9

A number is divisible by 9 if the sum of all its digits is divisible by 9.

Divisibility by 11

A number is divisible by 11 if the difference between the sum of digits at odd places and the sum of digits at even places is either 0 or a multiple of 11.

Composite Divisibility

If a number is divisible by coprime factors x and y, then it is divisible by their product (x × y).

Calculation:

The number of boys at school B = 5000 × 4% = 200

The number of boys at school D = 5000 × 25% = 1250

The number of boys at school E = 5000 × 13% = 650

The number of boys at school A = 5000 × 26% = 1300

The number of boys at school C = 5000 × 5% = 250

The number of boys at school F = 5000 × 10% = 500

The ratio of total number of boys in B, D and E to the total number of boys in A, C and F

⇒ (B + D + E) : (A + C + F) = (200 + 1250 + 650) : (1300 + 250 + 500)

⇒ 2100 : 2050

⇒ 42 ∶ 41

∴ The correct answer is 42 ∶ 41.

Given:

KI = IT; EK = ET 

∠KET = 150° 

Calculation:

In △KEI and △TEI

⇒ KI = IT (Given)

⇒ EK = ET (Given)

⇒ EI = EI (Common)

△KEI ≅ △TEI (SSS)

⇒ ∠ KEI = ∠ TEI (By C.P.C.T.)

Now,

⇒ ∠KET + ∠KEI + ∠TEI = 360° 

⇒ 150° + 2 × ∠TEI = 360°

⇒ 2 × ∠TEI = 360° - 150°

⇒ ∠TEI = 210/2 = 105°

∴ The correct answer is 105°.

Calculation:

According to the question:

⇒ 100% = 360° 

⇒ 1 % = 3.6° 

The central angle formed by sector R = 17% = 17 × 3.6 = 61.2° 

The central angle formed by sector S = 13% = 13 × 3.6 = 46.8° 

The central angle formed by sector U = 6% = 6 × 3.6 = 21.6° 

The central angle formed by sector V = 9% = 9 × 3.6 = 32.4°

Total central angle formed by sector R and S : Total central angle formed by sector U and V

⇒ (R + S) : (U + V) = (61.2° + 46.8°) : (21.6° + 32.4°)

⇒ (R + S) : (U + V) = 108 : 54 = 2 : 1

∴ The correct answer is 2 : 1.

Given:

∠B + ∠C = 110°

Concept used:

The sum of the interior angles of the triangle is 180°.

Calculation:

In Δ ABC

⇒ ∠ A + ∠B + ∠C = 180° (Angle sum property)

⇒ ∠ A + 110° = 180 

⇒ ∠ A  =  180° - 110° = 70°

∴ The correct answer is 70°.

Given:

∠ABC = 81°

∠ACB = 9°

Concept used:

The angles at the circumference subtended by the same arc are equal.

The sum of the interior angles of the triangle is 180°.

Calculation:

In △ ABC

⇒ ∠ABC +∠ACB + ∠BAC = 180° (Angle sum property)

⇒ 81° + 9° + ∠BAC = 180°

⇒ ∠BAC = 180° - 90° = 90°

Now,

⇒ ∠BAC = ∠BDC = 90° (angle in same segment)

∴ The correct answer is ∠BDC =  90°.

Given:

x = 2 - $2^\frac{1}{3}$ + $2^\frac{2}{3}$

Formula used:

(a - b)³ = a³ - b³ - 3ab (a - b)

Calculation:

⇒ x = 2 - $2^\frac{1}{3}$ + $2^\frac{2}{3}$

⇒ x - 2 = $2^\frac{2}{3}$ - $2^\frac{1}{3}$ -------- (1)

Cubing both sides

⇒ (x - 2)³ = ($2^\frac{2}{3}$ - $2^\frac{1}{3}$)³ 

⇒ x³ - 8 - 3 × 2 × x (x - 2) = 2² - 2 - 3 × $2^\frac{2}{3}$ × $2^\frac{1}{3}$ ($2^\frac{2}{3}$ - $2^\frac{1}{3}$)

​​⇒ x3  - 8 - 6x² + 12x = 2 - 6 ×( x - 2) [from eq. (1)]

​​⇒ x3  - 8 - 6x2 + 12x = 2 - 6x  + 12

​​⇒ x3 - 6x2 + 18x = 14 + 8 = 22

∴ The correct answer is 22.

Concept used:

Formula used:

• cos (π - θ) = - cos θ
• cot (90 +  θ) = - tan θ
• cos (-θ) = cos θ
• tan (π + θ) = tan θ
• tan (3π/2 + θ) = - cot θ
• sin (2π - θ) = - sin θ

 

Calculation:

$\rm \frac{{\cos (π - A).\cot \left( {\frac{π }{2} + A} \right)\cos ( - A)}}{{\tan (π + A)\tan \left( {\frac{{3π }}{2} + A} \right)\sin (2π - A)}}$

By using the above formula

$\rm \frac{{\ (-cos A)\ . \ ( {-tan A} )\ \ .\ cos A}}{{\tan A\ .\ (-cot A ).\ (-sin A)}}$

⇒ $\frac{cos A\ .\ cos A}{cot A\ . \ sin A}$

But,  cos θ / sin θ =  cot θ  

⇒  cot A. cos A/ cot A

⇒ cos A

∴ The correct answer is cos A.

Given:

a + b + c = 5

a3 + b3 + c3 = 85

a × b × c = 25

Formula used:

a³ + b³ + c³ - 3 × a × b × c = (a + b + c)(a2 + b2+ c2 - ab - bc - ca)

Calculation:

⇒ (a + b + c)(a2 + b2+ c2 - ab - bc - ca) = a3 + b3 + c3 - 3 × a × b × c

⇒ 5 × (a2 + b2+ c2 - ab - bc - ca) = 85 - (3 × 25)

⇒ (a2 + b2+ c2 - ab - bc - ca) = 10/5 = 2

∴ The correct answer is 2.

Given:

The side of an equilateral triangle = 6 units

Radius of circle = 1 unit

Formula used:

The area of an equilateral triangle  = (√3 × a²)/4

Area of the sector which subtends an angle θ = (π × r² ×  θ)/360° 

Calculation:

Area of the shaded part = 1/2 × area of a triangle - Area of the sector

⇒ 1/2 × {√3 × (6)2}/4 - (π × r2 ×  90°)/360° 

⇒ (1/2 × 9√3) - (22/7) × 1 × (1/4) 

⇒ (1/2 × 9√3) - (11/7) × 1 × (1/2)

⇒ 1/2 (9√3 - 11/7)

∴ The correct answer is 1/2 (9√3 - 11/7) unit².

Calculation:

Sales turnover of the company H = 400

Sales turnover of the company F = 230

The difference between the sales turnover of company H and F:  

⇒ 400 - 230 = 170

∴ The correct answer is 170.

Given:

a = - 12; b = -6; and c = 18

Calculation:

Putting the values in equation

⇒ (2abc)/9

⇒ {2 × (- 12) × (- 6) × 18}/9

⇒ 72 × 4 = 288

∴ The correct answer is 288.

Given:

S.P = Rs.33,000

Profit% = 10%

Concept used:

C.P = S.P/{100 ± (P/L)%}

Calculation:

According to the question:

⇒ 110% = 33,000

⇒ 1 % = 33,000/110

⇒ 100% = 30,000

Required S.P = 30,000 × 120% = Rs.36,000

∴ The correct answer is Rs.36,000.

Given:

In nine innings the average of a batsman = 58

In tenth innings the average of a batsman = 61

Concept used:

Sum = Average × number of terms

Calculation:

Let the batsman have made 'x' runs in 10^th innings

According to the question:

⇒ 58 × 9 + x = 61 × 10

⇒ x = 610 - 522 = 88

∴ The correct answer is 88 runs.

Given:

Let, a = 25; b = 225

Concept used:

⇒ a/x = x/b

⇒ x² = ab

⇒ x = √ab 

Mean proportional = √ab 

Calculation:

Mean proportional = √ab 

⇒ √(25 × 225) = 5 × 15 = 75

∴ The correct answer is 75.

Given:

Pawan can do a piece of work in 32 days.

Sandeep finished the remaining work in 27 days.

Concept used:

Efficiency × time = total work

Calculation:

According to the question:

⇒ Pawan × 32 = (Pawan × 8) + (Sandeep × 27)

⇒ Pawan × 24 = Sandeep × 27

⇒ Pawan/Sandeep = 9/8

Total Work = Pawan × 32 = 9 × 32 = 288 and their total efficiency (8 + 9) = 17

Number of days required to complete the work together = 288/17 = 16$16\over17$ days

∴ The correct answer is 16$16\over17$ days.

Given:

The ratio of two numbers is 6 ∶ 7 and their HCF is 3. 

Concept used:

LCM is the smallest common multiple of two or more numbers.

Calculation:

First number = 6 × 3 = 18

Second number = 7 × 3 = 21

LCM (18, 21) = 3 × 6 × 7 = 126

∴ Their LCM is 126.

Given:

∠PQR = 90°; ∠PRQ = 30°

PQ = 5 cm

Concept used:

Tan θ = P/B

Where,

P = perpendicular; B = base

Calculation:

From the figure:

⇒ Tan R = PQ/QR

⇒ Tan 30° = 5/QR

⇒ 1/√3 =  5/QR

⇒ QR = 5√3 cm

∴ The correct answer is 5√3 cm.

Given:

Cost price (C.P) = Rs.528

Discount% = 12%

Profit = 18%

Formula used:

C.P/M.P = (100 - D%)/(100 ± P/L%)

Where,

C.P = Cost price; M.P = Marked price; D = discount

Calculation:

According to the question:

⇒ C.P/M.P = (100 - D%)/(100 + P%)

⇒ 528/M.P = (100 - 12)/ (100 + 18)

⇒ M.P = (528 × 118)/88

⇒ M.P = Rs.708

∴ The correct answer is Rs.708.

Given:

The perpendicular distance:

P₁ = √3; P₂ = 2√3; P₃ = 5√3

Concept used:

Height of an equilateral triangle = (√3 × side)/2 

Height of equilateral triangle = sum of perpendicular distance with point

Perimeter of an equilateral triangle = 3 × side

Calculation:

Height of equilateral triangle = sum of perpendicular distance

⇒ (√3 × side)/2 = P1 + P2 + P3 

⇒ (√3 × side)/2 = √3 + 2√3 + 5√3

⇒ side = 8 × 2 = 16 cm

Perimeter of an equilateral triangle = 3 × side

⇒ 3 × 16 = 48 cm

∴ The correct answer is 48 cm.

The correct answer is 'stretch'.

Key Points

• The most appropriate word for the given blank is 'stretch'.
• The given sentence describes a situation where the protagonist is driving on a highway and feeling anxious about something. The phrase "rearview mirror" suggests that the protagonist is looking behind him, and the fact that he sees only darkness suggests that he is alone and possibly afraid. In this context, the word "stretch" makes the most sense.
• The word "stretch" means an uninterrupted area or expanse of land, water, or something else.(खींचाव) In this case, it is referring to the uninterrupted length of the highway behind the protagonist. The use of "dark" in the sentence suggests that it is night time, and therefore the "stretch" of the highway would be difficult to see.
• Let's see why other can't be the answers:
• Option 1, "vitality," means the state of being strong and active, which does not fit the context of the sentence.(जीवंतता)
• Option 3, "trench," means a long, narrow excavation in the ground, which does not fit the context of the sentence.(खाई)
• Option 4, "emancipation," means the act of being set free from something, which does not fit the context of the sentence.(मुक्ति)
• Thus, the correct answer is Option 2.

Correct Sentence: His heart pounded as he checked his rearview mirror and saw only the dark stretch of highway.

The correct answer is 'RQSP'.

Key Points

• The given question is an example of a Para Jumble.
• We know that the first statement of a para jumbled question is usually an independent general statement, a noun, a universal fact, starting of an incident, or it starts with 'most' or 'once'.
• Sentence R sets the context and describes the event of McArthur Wheeler robbing two banks without a disguise.
• Sentence Q follows and provides an additional detail that he even looked into the security camera and smiled, which shows that he was overconfident and underestimated the consequences of his actions.
• Then, sentence S provides the consequence of his action that by 11:00 at night, his picture was all over the news, which ultimately led to his identification by an informant to the police.
• Finally, sentence P concludes the paragraph by stating that he was arrested and put in jail within an hour.
• Thus, the correct answer is Option 3.

Correct Sequence: On Jan 6, 1995, McArthur Wheeler boldly robbed two banks in broad daylight with no disguise. He made no attempts to hide his identity and even looked directly into the security camera and smiled. By 11:00 at night, his picture was all over the news, leading an informant to identify Wheeler to the police. Within an hour, he was in jail.

The correct answer is 'Wisdom'.

Key Points

• The most appropriate synonym of the underlined word 'knowledge' is 'wisdom'.
• Knowledge - information, understanding, or skills that you get from experience or education. (ज्ञान)
• Example: Reading books and attending seminars are great ways to gain knowledge about different topics.
• Wisdom - the quality of having experience, knowledge, and good judgment. (बुद्धि)
• Example: With age comes wisdom, and he has become wiser over the years.

Correct Answer: Wisdom.

Additional Information

• Let's look at the meaning of other words:
• Profession - a paid occupation, especially one that involves prolonged training and a formal qualification. (व्यवसाय)
• Curriculum - the subjects comprising a course of study in a school or college. (पाठ्यक्रम)
• Superiority - the state of being better than or superior to something or someone else. (बढ़त)