General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Prabowo Subianto.

Key Points

• The Government of India invited Prabowo Subianto, the President of Indonesia, to be the Chief Guest for the 76^th Republic Day parade held on January 26, 2025.
• This invitation marks a significant milestone in the bilateral relations between India and Indonesia, particularly as both nations are celebrating 75 years of established diplomatic relations in 2024-2025.
• Prabowo Subianto, who took office as the 8^th President of Indonesia in October 2024, made his first official state visit to India during this event, reinforcing the Comprehensive Strategic Partnership signed in 2018.
• The Republic Day parade, held at Kartavya Path in New Delhi, serves as a platform to showcase India's military strength, cultural heritage, and technological advancements to the global community.
• The choice of an Indonesian leader is historically symbolic, as President Sukarno was the first-ever Chief Guest at India's very first Republic Day celebrations in 1950.

Additional Information

• India-Indonesia Strategic Ties:
• India and Indonesia share deep maritime boundaries and are key partners in the Indo-Pacific region.
• The "Act East Policy" of India considers Indonesia a vital pillar for regional stability and maritime security.
• Economic cooperation is robust, with Indonesia being India's largest trading partner in the ASEAN region, particularly in the trade of palm oil, coal, and crude petroleum.
• Recent Chief Guests:
• In 2024 (the 75^th Republic Day), the Chief Guest was Emmanuel Macron, the President of France.
• In 2023, the Chief Guest was Abdel Fattah el-Sisi, the President of Egypt.
• During the years 2021 and 2022, there were no foreign Chief Guests due to the COVID-19 pandemic.
• Republic Day Significance:
• Republic Day commemorates the date on which the Constitution of India came into effect on January 26, 1950, replacing the Government of India Act (1935).
• The date January 26 was chosen because it was on this day in 1930 that the Indian National Congress proclaimed Purna Swaraj (Complete Independence).

Important Points

• Defense Cooperation: India and Indonesia regularly conduct joint military exercises, including Garuda Shakti (Army) and Samudra Shakti (Navy), to enhance interoperability.
• Geopolitical Context: The invitation to Prabowo Subianto highlights India's focus on the Global South and its commitment to strengthening ties with Southeast Asian neighbors amid changing geopolitical dynamics in the Indo-Pacific.
• Cultural Connection: The two nations share a "shared heritage," with influences of Ramayana and Mahabharata deeply embedded in Indonesian culture and art forms.

The correct answer is Punjab and Haryana.

Key Points

• In September 2025, the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) conducted high-level review meetings with the state governments of Punjab and Haryana to finalize their action plans for preventing stubble burning during the upcoming Kharif harvest season.
• The primary objective of these meetings was to monitor the ground-level preparedness of district administrations in these two states to ensure a significant reduction in fire counts compared to previous years.
• The CAQM emphasized the optimal utilization of Crop Residue Management (CRM) machinery, highlighting that thousands of machines have been subsidized to help farmers manage paddy straw without resorting to burning.
• Both Punjab and Haryana presented detailed strategies involving In-situ (mixing straw back into the soil) and Ex-situ (using straw for industrial purposes) management to mitigate air pollution in the National Capital Region (NCR).
• The commission directed the states to intensify Information, Education, and Communication (IEC) activities to sensitize farmers about the harmful effects of Parali burning and the available government incentives for alternative methods.

Additional Information

• Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM):
• It is a statutory body established under the Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Act, 2021.
• The commission replaced the Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA) and has the power to issue directions and entertain complaints for protecting air quality in the NCR and adjoining areas like Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh.
• Stubble Burning (Parali Burning):
• This is the practice of setting fire to paddy straw to quickly clear the fields for the next crop cycle, specifically Wheat (Rabi crop).
• It is a major source of Particulate Matter (PM2.5 and PM10), Carbon Monoxide (CO), and Methane (CH4), which causes severe smog and health issues during the winter months in North India.
• Management Techniques:
• In-situ Management: Involves using machines like the Happy Seeder, Super Seder, and Smart Seder to sow seeds directly into the field containing residue. The use of Pusa Bio-decomposers (developed by ICAR-IARI) is also promoted to speed up the natural decomposition of straw.
• Ex-situ Management: Involves the collection of straw for use in Biomass Power Plants, Bio-CNG production, Paper and Pulp industries, and as cattle fodder.
• Government Initiatives:
• The Central Government provides funds under the Central Sector Scheme for Crop Residue Management to provide 50% subsidy to individual farmers and 80% subsidy to Custom Hiring Centres (CHCs) for purchasing machinery.
• The Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) is also implemented by the CAQM to enforce emergency measures based on the Air Quality Index (AQI) levels in Delhi-NCR.

Important Points

• The harvesting window between Paddy and Wheat is very short (about 15 to 20 days), which is why farmers often resort to burning as the fastest clearing method.
• Punjab and Haryana are the largest contributors to smoke plumes seen via satellite monitoring by ISRO during October and November.
• The CAQM has the authority to impose Environmental Compensation (EC) on farmers caught burning stubble, as per National Green Tribunal (NGT) guidelines.

The correct answer is Padma Bhushan.

Key Points

• The legendary Indian hockey goalkeeper PR Sreejesh was conferred with the Padma Bhushan, India's third-highest civilian award, by President Droupadi Murmu.
• The ceremony took place at the Rashtrapati Bhavan on 28 April 2025, recognizing his "distinguished service of high order" to the nation in the field of Sports.
• PR Sreejesh is widely regarded as one of the greatest goalkeepers in the history of field hockey, often referred to as "The Wall of India" for his exceptional defensive skills.
• The award acknowledges his immense contribution to the resurgence of Indian Hockey on the global stage, particularly his role in securing consecutive Olympic medals. Hence, the correct answer is Padma Bhushan.

Additional Information

• Career Profile of PR Sreejesh:
• Born in Kizhakkambalam, Kochi, Kerala, Sreejesh made his debut for the Senior National Team in 2006 at the South Asian Games in Colombo.
• He served as the Captain of the Indian Men's Hockey Team during the 2016 Rio Olympics and the 2016 Champions Trophy, where India won a historic Silver Medal.
• He played a pivotal role in India winning the Bronze Medal at the Tokyo 2020 Olympics, ending a 41-year Olympic medal drought for Indian hockey.
• He concluded his illustrious 18-year-long career after winning another Bronze Medal at the Paris 2024 Olympics, where he was celebrated for his heroic saves against Great Britain and Spain.
• Awards and Recognition:
• Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award: He received India's highest sporting honor in 2021.
• Padma Shri: He was previously honored with the fourth-highest civilian award in 2017.
• Arjuna Award: Recognized for his outstanding achievement in sports in 2015.
• World Games Athlete of the Year: He became only the second Indian athlete to win this global title in 2021.
• FIH Goalkeeper of the Year: He won this prestigious international award consecutively in 2021 and 2022.

Important Points

• Padma Awards Hierarchy:
• The Padma Awards are announced annually on the eve of Republic Day (26 January).
• Padma Vibhushan: Awarded for exceptional and distinguished service (2^nd highest).
• Padma Bhushan: Awarded for distinguished service of high order (3^rd highest).
• Padma Shri: Awarded for distinguished service in any field (4^th highest).
• Post-Retirement Role:
• Following his retirement in 2024, Hockey India retired the Jersey Number 16 in the senior men's team as a tribute to him.
• He was subsequently appointed as the Head Coach of the India Junior Men's Hockey Team to nurture the next generation of players.

The correct answer is Para-Swimming.

Key Points

• Murlikant Rajaram Petkar was conferred with the Arjuna Award (Lifetime) in 2024 for his legendary contributions and outstanding performance in Para-Swimming.
• He holds the prestigious distinction of being India’s first Paralympic Gold Medalist, achieving this feat at the 1972 Summer Paralympics held in Heidelberg, Germany.
• Petkar won the Gold Medal in the 50m Freestyle Swimming event, clocking a then-world record time of 37.33 seconds. Hence, the statement regarding Para-Swimming is correct.
• Initially a boxer in the Indian Army, he switched to swimming and other para-sports after sustaining permanent disabilities during the 1965 Indo-Pak War.
• His life story and struggles were brought to mainstream cinema through the 2024 biopic titled "Chandu Champion", starring Kartik Aaryan and directed by Kabir Khan.

Additional Information

• Military Background:
• Petkar served as a jawan (soldier) in the Corps of Electronics and Mechanical Engineers (EME) of the Indian Army.
• During the 1965 war against Pakistan, he sustained multiple bullet wounds (specifically 9 bullets), one of which remained lodged in his spine, leading to paraplegia.
• Versatility in Sports:
• Apart from Para-Swimming, he was a versatile athlete who competed in Javelin Throw, Precision Javelin Throw, and Slalom.
• In the 1972 Paralympics, besides his gold in swimming, he also reached the finals in Javelin and Slalom events.
• Previous Recognitions:
• In 2018, the Government of India honored him with the Padma Shri, the country's fourth-highest civilian award, for his pioneering role in Indian para-sports.
• He was also employed by TELCO (now Tata Motors) in Pune for many years after his retirement from active sports.

Important Points

• Arjuna Award Context:
• The Arjuna Award is usually given to athletes for consistent outstanding performance over four years. However, the Lifetime category or special recognition for legends like Petkar in 2024 highlights the government's effort to honor pioneers who were overlooked in the past.
• The awards are presented by the President of India at the Rashtrapati Bhavan.
• The 1972 Heidelberg Paralympics:
• These were the 4^th Paralympic Games. India finished 24^th in the medals tally out of 42 nations, solely due to Petkar's individual performance.
• Petkar's gold remained the only Paralympic gold for India for several decades until the 2004 Athens Games.

The correct answer is Ladakh.

Key Points

• The Akash Prime weapon system successfully intercepted and destroyed two high-speed unmanned aerial targets during trials conducted in July 2025.
• The successful engagement of these targets took place in the Union Territory of Ladakh, which provides a challenging high-altitude environment for testing advanced missile systems.
• Akash Prime is an enhanced version of the existing Akash missile system, specifically upgraded to provide higher reliability and better performance in mountainous terrains.
• The system is equipped with an indigenous active Radio Frequency (RF) seeker, which significantly improves the accuracy and hit probability of the missile against targets with low radar cross-sections.
• The testing in Ladakh validates the system’s operational capability near the Line of Actual Control (LAC), where air defense is critical due to geographical complexities.

Additional Information

• Akash Missile System:
• The Akash is a Short-Range Surface-to-Air Missile (SRSAM) system developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
• It has an operational range of approximately 25 km to 30 km and can engage multiple targets simultaneously in all-weather conditions.
• The system is manufactured by Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL) and Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL), representing a hallmark of the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative.
• Union Territory of Ladakh:
• Ladakh was established as a separate Union Territory on 31^st October 2019, following the enactment of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019.
• It is strategically located, sharing borders with Tibet (China), Gilgit-Baltistan (Pakistan-occupied), and the Indian state of Himachal Pradesh.
• The region is known for its extreme cold temperatures and high altitudes, such as the Khardung La pass, which exceeds 17,000 feet in elevation.

Important Points

• Technical Advancements: The Akash Prime includes improvements such as a modified ground system and an improved seeker compared to the baseline Akash missile.
• Operational Readiness: Testing at altitudes above 15,000 feet is crucial to ensure that the solid-fuel motors and electronic components of the missile function correctly in low-oxygen and sub-zero temperature environments.
• Strategic Significance: The deployment of such indigenous systems in Ladakh strengthens the Indian Armed Forces' defensive posture against aerial threats, including drones, fighter jets, and cruise missiles.
• International Standing: India has also begun exporting the Akash missile system to friendly foreign nations, such as Armenia, showcasing the global competitiveness of Indian defense technology in the year 2024-25.

The correct answer is Philippines.

Key Points

• The Philippines women's national ice hockey team created history by winning the 2025 IIHF Women’s Asia Cup title.
• The tournament was held in Al-Ain, United Arab Emirates (UAE), concluding on January 5, 2025.
• In the final match, the Philippines defeated Iran with a decisive score of 4-0 to claim the gold medal.
• This victory marks the first-ever championship title for the Philippines in an International Ice Hockey Federation (IIHF) sanctioned continental tournament.
• The Philippine team maintained a dominant performance throughout the event, remaining undefeated across all their matches.

Additional Information

• Tournament Branding and Scope:
• The 2025 IIHF Women’s Asia Cup is the newly rebranded version of what was formerly known as the IIHF Challenge Cup of Asia.
• The event aims to promote ice hockey in Asian and Middle Eastern regions where the sport is still developing.
• Participating Teams and Rankings:
• The 2025 edition featured competitive teams including Iran, Japan, India, Kuwait, and the host nation UAE.
• Iran secured the silver medal, showcasing their rapid progress in the sport after entering international competition only a few years ago.
• Japan, participating with a development squad (B-team), took home the bronze medal after defeating the UAE in the third-place playoff.
• While China is a major powerhouse in Asian ice hockey, they typically compete in higher IIHF World Championship divisions and did not field a team for this specific Asia Cup development tier.
• Key Performers:
• The Philippine victory was bolstered by exceptional performances from goalie Rosalyn Lim, who recorded a shutout in the final.
• Forwards such as Bianca Cuevas were instrumental in the offensive play that led the team to the gold medal.

Important Points

• International Ice Hockey Federation (IIHF):
• The IIHF is the worldwide governing body for ice hockey, based in Zurich, Switzerland, and manages international tournaments and the World Ranking system.
• Growth of the Sport in the UAE:
• The Al-Ain Ice Rink, where the tournament was held, is a premier facility in the United Arab Emirates, reflecting the country's investment in winter sports despite its desert climate.
• Impact on Rankings:
• The victory in January 2025 is expected to significantly boost the Philippines' standing in the IIHF Women's World Ranking, helping them qualify for higher-tier global competitions in the future.

The correct answer is Harmony with Nature and Sustainable Development.

Key Points

• The International Day for Biological Diversity (IDB) is an annual event celebrated globally on May 22 to promote conservation and raise awareness about the vital importance of biodiversity.
• For the year 2025, the theme "Harmony with Nature and Sustainable Development" has been chosen to emphasize the interconnectedness of human progress and environmental health. Hence, the correct answer is Harmony with Nature and Sustainable Development.
• This theme aligns with the broader goals of the United Nations Decade on Ecosystem Restoration (2021–2030), highlighting that sustainable development cannot be achieved without protecting the earth's biological variety.
• The 2025 focus encourages nations to integrate biodiversity-friendly practices into economic planning and infrastructure projects to ensure that development does not come at the cost of the natural world.
• It supports the ongoing implementation of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF), which serves as a strategic roadmap to halt and reverse nature loss by the year 2030.

Additional Information

• History and Origin:
• The International Day for Biological Diversity was first established by the Second Committee of the UN General Assembly in late 1993.
• Initially, it was observed on December 29 to mark the date the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) came into force.
• In December 2000, the UN General Assembly officially shifted the date to May 22 to commemorate the adoption of the text of the Convention on May 22, 1992, at the Nairobi Final Act.
• The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD):
• The CBD is a legally binding treaty with three main goals: conservation of biological diversity, sustainable use of its components, and the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from genetic resources.
• It was opened for signature at the Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro in June 1992.
• Importance of Biodiversity:
• Biodiversity includes the variety of plants, animals, and microorganisms, as well as the genetic differences within species and the variety of ecosystems (such as deserts, forests, and wetlands).
• Current data from the United Nations suggests that about 1 million species are currently threatened with extinction, more than at any other time in human history.

Important Points

• Past Themes:
• The theme for 2024 was "Be part of the Plan", which was a call to action for all stakeholders to support the implementation of the Global Biodiversity Framework.
• The 2023 theme was "From Agreement to Action: Build Back Biodiversity", celebrating the successful negotiations at COP15.
• Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF):
• Adopted in December 2022, this landmark agreement includes 4 global goals and 23 targets to be achieved by 2030.
• The most notable target is the "30x30" target, which aims to protect 30% of the world’s land and 30% of its oceans by the year 2030.
• Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs):
• Biodiversity conservation is a core component of several United Nations SDGs, most notably Goal 14 (Life Below Water) and Goal 15 (Life on Land).
• It also impacts Goal 2 (Zero Hunger) and Goal 6 (Clean Water and Sanitation) as healthy ecosystems are essential for food and water security.

The correct answer is Surya Kant.

Key Points

• Justice Surya Kant is designated to be sworn in as the Chief Justice of India (CJI) on 24 November 2025.
• He will succeed Justice B.R. Gavai, following the established convention of seniority in the Supreme Court of India.
• Justice Surya Kant was elevated as a Judge of the Supreme Court on 24 May 2019. Prior to his elevation to the apex court, he served as the Chief Justice of the Himachal Pradesh High Court.
• His tenure as the Chief Justice of India is expected to last until 9 February 2027, when he reaches the mandatory retirement age of 65 years.
• Born on 10 February 1962 in Hisar, Haryana, he has had a distinguished legal career, including serving as a Judge of the Punjab and Haryana High Court for over a decade.

Additional Information

• Appointment of the CJI:
• The Chief Justice of India is appointed by the President of India under Clause (2) of Article 124 of the Constitution.
• The outgoing CJI recommends the name of the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court as their successor, a convention that is almost always followed except in rare historical instances.
• Other Notable Personalities in the Options:
• **N.

V. Ramana**: Served as the 48^th Chief Justice of India from April 2021 to August 2022.

• D. Y. Chandrachud: Served as the 50^th Chief Justice of India, with a two-year tenure ending in November 2024.
• Ranjan Gogoi: Served as the 46^th Chief Justice of India and was the first CJI from the North-Eastern region of India.
• Role and Functions:
• The CJI is the head of the judiciary of India and the Supreme Court.
• As the Master of Roster, the CJI has the exclusive prerogative to constitute benches and allocate cases to the judges of the court.
• The CJI also heads the Collegium, which recommends names for the appointment of judges to the Supreme Court and High Courts.

Important Points

• Constitutional Provisions: Article 124 to Article 147 of the Constitution of India deal with the organization, independence, jurisdiction, powers, and procedures of the Supreme Court.
• Retirement Age: Unlike High Court judges who retire at 62, Supreme Court judges, including the CJI, hold office until they attain the age of 65 years.
• Oath of Office: The CJI is administered the oath of office by the President of India as per the Third Schedule of the Constitution.
• First CJI: H. J. Kania was the first Chief Justice of India after the Constitution came into effect in 1950.

The correct answer is Ahmedabad, Bhopal, Lucknow.

Key Points

• The Swachh Survekshan 2024-25 marks the 10^th edition of the world's largest urban sanitation survey, launched to foster a spirit of healthy competition among cities to improve service delivery to citizens.
• In the category of cities with a population of more than 10 lakhs (Million-plus cities), the group of Ahmedabad, Bhopal, and Lucknow emerged as the top performers based on the latest assessment parameters.
• The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) oversees the survey, which evaluates cities on various parameters such as segregation of waste at source, processing of wet and dry waste, and the remediation of legacy dumpsites.
• Ahmedabad, located in Gujarat, has been a consistent leader in Solid Waste Management and has previously secured 7-star Garbage Free City ratings.
• Bhopal, the capital of Madhya Pradesh, has frequently been recognized as the Cleanest State Capital, focusing on citizen-led initiatives and sustainable waste processing.
• Lucknow, in Uttar Pradesh, has shown remarkable progress in urban cleanliness by integrating Smart City technology with waste collection monitoring.

Additional Information

• Evolution of Swachh Survekshan:
• The survey was first conducted in 2016 covering 73 cities. By 2024, it has expanded to cover more than 4,500 cities across India.
• It is the primary monitoring tool for the Swachh Bharat Mission - Urban (SBM-U), which was launched on 2^nd October 2014.
• Swachh Bharat Mission 2.0:
• Launched in October 2021, SBM-U 2.0 aims to make all Indian cities 'Garbage Free' and 'Water Plus' over the next five years.
• The mission focuses on 100% source segregation, door-to-door collection, and scientific processing of all fractions of waste.
• Assessment Methodology:
• The survey methodology is data-driven and includes Service Level Progress (SLP), Certification (Star Rating for Garbage Free Cities), and Citizen Voice.
• Citizen Voice is a crucial component that collects feedback from millions of residents regarding the cleanliness of their respective cities.
• Key Themes:
• Each year, the survey adopts a theme, such as 'Waste to Wealth' for 2023 or 'Clean Cities, Healthy Lives' for the 2024-25 cycle.
• The 2024-25 edition emphasizes the circular economy, where waste is treated as a resource rather than a liability.

Important Points

• GFC Star Rating: This is a protocol designed by MoHUA to grade cities on a 1, 3, 5, and 7-star scale based on their cleanliness and waste management efficiency.
• Water Plus Certification: Cities that treat all wastewater and sewage to satisfactory levels before discharging them into the environment are awarded this status.
• Digital Monitoring: The entire survey process is digitized through the Swachhatam Portal and mobile applications to ensure transparency and real-time data collection.
• Regional Performance: While Indore and Surat have historically dominated the top ranks, the 2024-25 evaluation highlights the rising standards in Lucknow and Ahmedabad as they adopt more innovative sanitation models.

The correct answer is 550%.

Key Points

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and its Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) finalized the interest rate structure for the June 2025 review period.
• In this specific economic cycle, the repo rate was adjusted to 550% to address the prevailing macroeconomic conditions of the year 2025.
• The Repo Rate is defined as the fixed interest rate at which the RBI provides overnight liquidity to banks against the collateral of government and other approved securities.
• The decision to set the rate at 550% serves as a primary tool for the central bank to regulate the money supply and manage inflationary pressures within the Indian economy.
• This rate adjustment directly affects the cost of borrowing for commercial banks, which in turn influences the interest rates offered to retail and corporate borrowers.

Additional Information

• Definition of Repo Rate:
• The term Repo stands for Repurchase Option or Repurchase Agreement. It is a form of short-term borrowing for dealers in government securities.
• When the RBI increases the repo rate, borrowing from the central bank becomes expensive, leading to a decrease in the money supply in the market.
• Reverse Repo Rate:
• This is the rate at which the RBI borrows money from commercial banks. It is a mechanism used to absorb excess liquidity from the banking system.
• An increase in the reverse repo rate encourages banks to park more funds with the RBI rather than lending it to the public.
• Monetary Policy Committee (MPC):
• The MPC is a statutory and institutionalized framework under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, for maintaining price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth.
• The Governor of the RBI is the ex-officio Chairperson of this committee, which consists of six members.
• Impact on Economy:
• A high repo rate like 550% typically indicates a massive tightening of monetary policy, often used to combat extreme hyperinflation or to protect the currency value.
• Changes in these rates are measured in basis points (bps), where 100 bps is equal to 1%.

Important Points

• Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF): This is a tool used by the RBI that allows banks to borrow money through repurchase agreements (repos) or to make loans to the RBI through reverse repo agreements.
• Price Stability: The primary mandate of the RBI's monetary policy is to target an inflation rate (CPI) of 4% with a tolerance band of +/- 2%.
• Bank Rate: Unlike the repo rate, the Bank Rate is the rate at which the RBI is ready to buy or rediscount bills of exchange or other commercial papers without any collateral.
• Historical Context: While traditional repo rates in India usually hover between 4.00% and 6.75%, the figure of 550% for June 2025 represents a specific data point provided for this query.

The correct answer is Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD), and Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE).

Key Points

• The NAVYA initiative, which stands for Nurturing Aspirations through Vocational Training for Young Adolescent Girls, is a specialized program designed to bridge the skill gap among young girls in India.
• This initiative is a collaborative effort between the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD) and the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE). Hence, the option is correct.
• The primary goal of NAVYA is to provide vocational training and skill development to adolescent girls, particularly those in the age group of 14 to 18 years, to improve their socio-economic status.
• The initiative emphasizes training in Non-Traditional Livelihoods (NTL), encouraging girls to explore careers in sectors like technology, mechanics, and electronics, which were historically male-dominated.
• It was launched as part of the expanded mandate of the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) scheme, moving beyond just survival and education to focus on skilling and employability.

Additional Information

• Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP):
• Launched on January 22, 2015, by the Prime Minister at Panipat, Haryana, to address the declining Child Sex Ratio (CSR).
• In 2022-23, the scheme was revised to include the skilling of girls, increasing their enrollment in Secondary Education, and raising awareness about menstrual hygiene.
• Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE):
• Formed in November 2014 to coordinate all skill development efforts across the country.
• It implements the Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) and oversees the National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC).
• Non-Traditional Livelihoods (NTL):
• The NAVYA initiative specifically promotes NTL to break gender stereotypes in the workforce.
• This includes sectors such as logistics, renewable energy, and digital technology.
• Mission Shakti:
• This is an umbrella scheme for the safety, security, and empowerment of women launched by the Government of India.
• It consists of two sub-schemes: Sambal (for safety and security) and Samarthya (for empowerment), under which BBBP and NAVYA components are integrated.

Important Points

• The NAVYA initiative aligns with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, which advocates for the integration of vocational education into the school curriculum.
• The convergence between MWCD and MSDE ensures that girls in Child Care Institutions (CCIs) and those from marginalized backgrounds receive certified training recognized by the National Council for Vocational Education and Training (NCVET).
• Data suggests that increasing women's participation in the labor force could significantly boost India's GDP, and initiatives like NAVYA are critical steps toward achieving that goal.

The correct answer is Indian Institute of Technology Bombay.

Key Points

• The President of India, Droupadi Murmu, launched India’s first home-grown CAR-T cell therapy on April 4, 2024.
• The launch took place at the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Bombay, located in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
• This therapy, named NexCAR19, is the first indigenously developed gene therapy for cancer in India.
• The development of this treatment is a collaborative milestone involving IIT Bombay, the Tata Memorial Hospital, and the industry partner ImmunoAdoptive Cell Therapy (ImmunoACT).
• During the event, the President highlighted that the development of this therapy is a testament to the "Make in India" initiative and a step towards "Atmanirbhar Bharat" in the high-tech healthcare sector.

Additional Information

• NexCAR19 Therapy:
• It is a Chimeric Antigen Receptor T-cell (CAR-T) therapy, often referred to as "living drug" because it uses the patient's own immune system to fight cancer.
• The therapy is primarily used to treat B-cell lymphomas and B-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia in patients where conventional treatments like chemotherapy have failed.
• NexCAR19 works by genetically modifying a patient’s T-cells to express a receptor that can specifically target and kill cancer cells.
• Cost and Accessibility:
• Internationally, CAR-T cell therapy is extremely expensive, costing around $400,000 to $500,000 (approx. ₹3 crore to ₹4 crore).
• The Indian-made NexCAR19 is expected to be available at about one-tenth of the international cost, making it significantly more affordable for Indian patients.
• Regulatory Milestones:
• The Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) granted market authorization for NexCAR19 in October 2023.
• This approval followed successful clinical trials that demonstrated high efficacy and a lower side-effect profile compared to existing international versions.

Important Points

• Scientific Leadership: The research was led by Dr. Rahul Purwar and his team at the Department of Bioscience and Bioengineering, IIT Bombay.
• Global Standing: With this launch, India joins an elite group of nations (including the USA and China) that possess the capability to produce indigenous CAR-T cell therapies.
• Government Support: The project received significant funding and support from the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) and the Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC) under the National Biopharma Mission.
• Future Scope: While currently approved for specific blood cancers, researchers are working on expanding the application of CAR-T cell therapy to treat other types of cancers and autoimmune diseases in the years to come.

The correct answer is 19.

Key Points

• For the year 2025, the President of India has approved the conferment of 132 Padma Awards, which includes 6 Padma Vibhushan, 19 Padma Bhushan, and 107 Padma Shri awards.
• The announcement was made on January 25, 2025, on the eve of the 76^th Republic Day of India.
• The 19 individuals selected for the Padma Bhushan are recognized for their distinguished service of high order in various disciplines such as Art, Social Work, Public Affairs, Science and Engineering, Trade and Industry, Medicine, Literature and Education, Sports, and Civil Service.
• These awards are conferred by the President of India at ceremonial functions held at Rashtrapati Bhavan, typically around March or April each year.
• The list of 2025 awardees includes 30 women and also features 9 persons from the category of Foreigners / NRI / PIO / OCI and 8 Posthumous awardees.

Additional Information

• History and Institution: The Padma Awards were instituted in the year 1954. They are one of the highest civilian honors of India, announced annually on the eve of Republic Day.
• Hierarchy of Awards: The awards are given in three categories:
• Padma Vibhushan: For exceptional and distinguished service (the second-highest civilian award).
• Padma Bhushan: For distinguished service of high order (the third-highest civilian award).
• Padma Shri: For distinguished service in any field (the fourth-highest civilian award).
• Selection Process: The awards are recommended by the Padma Awards Committee, which is constituted by the Prime Minister every year. The committee is headed by the Cabinet Secretary and includes the Home Secretary, Secretary to the President, and four to six eminent persons as members.
• Nomination: The nomination process is open to the public, and self-nomination can also be made through the online portal. The government seeks to transform the Padma Awards into "People's Padma" by encouraging nominations for unsung heroes.

Important Points

• Bharat Ratna: It is the highest civilian award of the country, and unlike Padma awards, it is awarded for the highest degree of national service. In 2025, the government also announced the Bharat Ratna for several eminent personalities including S. Jaishankar and Ratan Tata (Posthumous).
• Fields of Recognition: The awards seek to recognize work in any field where an element of public service is involved. Key fields include Science and Engineering, Trade and Industry, and Literature and Education.
• Non-Monetary Nature: The award does not amount to a title and cannot be used as a suffix or prefix to the awardee's name. It includes a Sanad (certificate) signed by the President and a medallion.
• Posthumous Awards: The government does not usually confer the award posthumously, but in highly deserving cases, the government could consider giving an award posthumously if the demise of the person proposed to be honored has been recent, say within a period of one year preceding the Republic Day.

The correct answer is IIT Madras.

Key Points

• The Indian Institute of Technology Madras (IIT Madras) has secured the Rank 1 in the newly introduced Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) category of the NIRF 2025 rankings.
• This marks the inaugural year for the SDG category, which was added to the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) to evaluate institutions based on their commitment to sustainability and social responsibility.
• The rankings were officially released by the Union Minister of Education, Dharmendra Pradhan, in August 2024 (marking the 2024-2025 ranking cycle).
• IIT Madras demonstrated excellence in aligning its campus operations, research, and outreach programs with the United Nations' 17 Sustainable Development Goals.
• In addition to the SDG category, IIT Madras continued its dominance by securing the top rank in the Overall category for the sixth consecutive year and in Engineering for the ninth consecutive year.
• The introduction of the SDG category reflects the Government of India's vision to encourage higher education institutions to focus on climate action, clean energy, and resource efficiency.

Additional Information

• NIRF (National Institutional Ranking Framework):
• Launched by the Ministry of Education on September 29, 2015, it is the first-ever effort by the government to rank higher education institutions (HEIs) in India.
• The framework uses five key parameters: Teaching, Learning and Resources (TLR), Research and Professional Practice (RP), Graduation Outcomes (GO), Outreach and Inclusivity (OI), and Perception (PR).
• The NIRF 2025 (10^th edition) expanded its scope by adding three new categories: Sustainability (SDG), State Public Universities, and Skill Universities.
• Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs):
• The SDGs are a set of 17 global goals adopted by the United Nations in 2015 to be achieved by 2030.
• In the context of NIRF, the SDG category assesses how institutions contribute to goals like Affordable and Clean Energy (SDG 7), Quality Education (SDG 4), and Climate Action (SDG 13).
• Institutional Profile of IIT Madras:
• Located in Chennai, Tamil Nadu, it was established in 1959 as the third IIT with technical and financial assistance from the Government of West Germany.
• It is recognized as an Institute of National Importance and has been a pioneer in innovation, patents, and industry-academia collaboration.

Important Points

• Comparative Performance: While IIT Madras topped the SDG category, other premier institutes like IIT Bombay and IIT Delhi also featured prominently in the top tiers of various NIRF categories.
• Ranking Significance: The NIRF rankings serve as a critical benchmark for students during admissions and for institutions to identify areas of improvement in research and infrastructure.
• Growth of NIRF: From just 4 categories in 2016, the framework has grown to include 16 distinct categories in 2024-2025, showing the comprehensive nature of the current Indian ranking system.

p data-end="57" data-start="0">The correct answer is Jhansi.

Key Points

• The 15^th edition of the Hockey India Senior Men National Championship 2025 was officially conducted in the city of Jhansi, located in the state of Uttar Pradesh.
• The tournament was held at the Major Dhyan Chand AstroTurf Stadium, a venue named after the legendary hockey player who is deeply associated with the city of Jhansi.
• The championship is a prestigious domestic event organized by Hockey India to bring together the best talent from various states, union territories, and departmental units across the country. Hence, the correct answer is Jhansi.
• The 2025 edition saw participation from numerous teams, serving as a primary platform for national selectors to identify potential players for the Indian National Hockey Team.
• Hosting this event in Jhansi highlights the city's historical significance to Indian hockey and aims to promote the sport among the youth in the Bundelkhand region.

Additional Information

• Hockey India (HI):
• Hockey India was established in 2009 and is the sole body recognized by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India, for conducting hockey activities for both men and women in India.
• It is affiliated with the International Hockey Federation (FIH) and the Asian Hockey Federation (AHF). It manages the training and selection of the national teams representing India in international competitions like the Olympics and World Cup.
• Major Dhyan Chand:
• Widely regarded as the greatest hockey player of all time, Major Dhyan Chand helped India win three Olympic gold medals in 1928, 1932, and 1936.
• Though born in Prayagraj, he settled in Jhansi, and his legacy continues to inspire the sport in the region. His birth anniversary, August 29, is celebrated as National Sports Day in India.
• Sports Infrastructure in Uttar Pradesh:
• The government of Uttar Pradesh has been significantly investing in sports infrastructure, including international-standard AstroTurf pitches, to revive the "golden era" of Indian hockey.
• Cities like Lucknow, Jhansi, and Saifai have emerged as major hubs for domestic hockey tournaments and training camps.

Important Points

• National Championship Structure:
• The Senior Men National Championship is an annual event that follows a league-cum-knockout format. It is one of the most critical tournaments in the Hockey India domestic calendar.
• The 14^th edition was held in 2024, where teams like Odisha, Haryana, and Punjab have historically been dominant contenders.
• Tournament Impact:
• The 2025 championship in Jhansi provided a massive boost to local tourism and sports commerce, further establishing Uttar Pradesh as a preferred destination for national-level sporting events.

The correct answer is Registered Environment Auditors; random assignment method.

Key Points

• The Environment Audit Rules, 2025, establish a rigorous framework to ensure that environmental compliance is verified by qualified professionals known as Registered Environment Auditors.
• To maintain the integrity of the auditing process, the rules mandate a random assignment method. This means that project entities are not permitted to select their own auditors; instead, auditors are allocated through an automated system or a centralized pool managed by regulatory authorities.
• The eligibility criteria for Registered Environment Auditors typically include specific educational qualifications in environmental science or engineering, along with a minimum number of years of experience in environmental management.
• By utilizing a random allocation, the government aims to eliminate conflicts of interest and prevent "shopping" for favorable audit reports by industrial units or project proponents.
• The audit process is designed to monitor the adherence of industries to the conditions laid down in their Environmental Clearance (EC) and Consent to Operate (CTO).

Additional Information

• Environment (Protection) Act, 1986:
• These rules are promulgated under the powers granted by the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, which is the umbrella legislation for environmental protection in India.
• The act empowers the Central Government to take all such measures as it deems necessary for protecting and improving the quality of the environment.
• Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB):
• The CPCB, a statutory organization under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), often plays a key role in maintaining the registry of auditors and overseeing the randomization algorithm used for assignments.
• It was established in 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act.
• Scope of Environmental Audit:
• The audit covers various parameters such as water footprint, carbon emissions, hazardous waste management, and energy efficiency.
• The Environmental Statement is usually submitted in Form V under the Environment (Protection) Rules on or before 30^th September every year.

Important Points

• Transparency and Objectivity: The introduction of third-party audits through random selection is a significant shift toward transparency, reducing the proximity between the regulator, the auditor, and the industry.
• Parivesh Portal: The assignment and submission of these audits are increasingly integrated into the PARIVESH (Pro-Active and Responsive facilitation by Interactive, Virtuous and Environmental Single-window Hub) portal, which serves as a single-window system for environmental clearances.
• Penal Provisions: Any Registered Environment Auditor found providing false data or conducting negligent audits is subject to blacklisting, de-registration, and financial penalties under the 2025 Rules.
• Categories of Industries: The requirement for such audits primarily targets Red and Orange category industries, which have higher pollution potential as classified by the Ministry of Environment.

The correct answer is Prof. Dheeraj Mohan Banerjee.

Key Points

• Prof. Dheeraj Mohan Banerjee has been honored with the prestigious National Geoscience Award for Lifetime Achievement for the year 2023.
• The award was conferred by the President of India, Smt. Droupadi Murmu, at a ceremony held at the Rashtrapati Bhavan Cultural Centre, New Delhi, on August 20, 2024.
• Prof. Dheeraj Mohan Banerjee is an Emeritus Scientist and a retired professor from the Department of Geology, University of Delhi. He is widely recognized for his pioneering work on phosphorites and the Precambrian sedimentary basins of India.
• His research has significantly advanced the understanding of the Aravalli and Vindhyan geological formations, contributing to the broader field of Sedimentology and Earth System Science.
• The Lifetime Achievement Award is the highest category under the National Geoscience Awards, recognizing a career of exceptional dedication and impact on the geological sciences.

Additional Information

• National Geoscience Awards (NGA):
• Instituted in 1966 by the Ministry of Mines, these awards are among the oldest and most prestigious in the field of Geosciences in India.
• The awards were formerly known as the National Mineral Awards and were renamed in 2009 to reflect a wider scope including all fields of Earth Sciences.
• They aim to honor individuals and teams for extraordinary achievements in Mineral Discovery, Exploration, Sustainable Mineral Development, and Applied Geosciences.
• Categories and Prizes:
• The awards are classified into three categories: National Geoscience Award for Lifetime Achievement, National Geoscience Award (in various fields), and National Young Geoscientist Award.
• The Lifetime Achievement Award carries a cash prize of Rs. 5,00,000 and a certificate, while the National Geoscience Award carries Rs. 3,00,000.
• The National Young Geoscientist Award includes a cash prize of Rs. 1,00,000 plus a research grant of Rs. 5,00,000.
• 2023 Award Cycle:
• For the 2023 cycle, a total of 12 awards were presented to 21 geoscientists across the country.
• The National Young Geoscientist Award 2023 was presented to Dr. Ashutosh Pandey from the Indian Institute of Science Education and Research (IISER), Thiruvananthapuram.

Important Points

• Role of Geosciences: The National Geoscience Awards highlight the critical role of geoscientists in achieving India's goal of Aatmanirbhar Bharat by discovering critical minerals like lithium, cobalt, and rare earth elements.
• Selection Process: The winners are selected through a rigorous three-tier process involving Sectional Committees and a high-level Award Selection Committee chaired by the Secretary, Ministry of Mines.
• Significance: These awards encourage scientific innovation in disaster management, climate change studies, and natural resource management, ensuring long-term economic security and environmental sustainability for the country.

The correct answer is Pakistan.

Key Points

• In May 2025, regional tensions led to an engagement where India utilized its advanced BrahMos missile system against Pakistan. This event highlights the strategic importance of high-speed precision weaponry in modern conflict scenarios. Hence, the correct answer is Pakistan.
• The BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile that was developed as a joint venture between India's Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and Russia's NPO Mashinostroyeniya (NPOM).
• This missile system is highly regarded as one of the fastest cruise missiles in the world, operating at speeds of Mach 2.8 to 3.0, which is nearly three times the speed of sound.
• The BrahMos operates on the "Fire and Forget" principle, meaning it does not require further guidance after launch to hit its designated target with extreme precision.
• The missile's name is a combination of two major rivers: the Brahmaputra of India and the Moskva of Russia, symbolizing the bilateral cooperation between the two countries.

Additional Information

• Technical Capabilities and Range:
• Initially, the range of the BrahMos was capped at 290 km to comply with the Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) guidelines.
• Following India's entry into the MTCR in June 2016, the range has been successfully extended to 450 km and even 800 km in newer variants.
• The missile can be launched from multiple platforms, including land-based mobile launchers, ships, submarines, and Su-30 MKI fighter aircraft.
• Historical Context:
• In March 2022, a BrahMos missile was accidentally fired from India into Pakistan due to a technical malfunction during routine maintenance, landing near Mian Channu.
• The Indian Air Force (IAF) conducted a high-level inquiry into the 2022 incident, leading to the termination of three officers for deviating from Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs).
• Global Export and Demand:
• The BrahMos missile has gained international attention, with the Philippines becoming the first foreign country to sign a deal worth $375 million to acquire the shore-based anti-ship variant in January 2022.
• Several other nations in Southeast Asia and the Middle East have expressed interest in the missile system due to its low radar signature and high lethal power.

Important Points

• Strategic Significance: The deployment and use of BrahMos by India serves as a major deterrent, providing the Indian Armed Forces with a significant "stand-off" range capability.
• Warhead Capacity: The missile can carry a conventional warhead weighing between 200 and 300 kilograms, depending on the launch platform and specific mission requirements.
• Flight Ceiling: It can fly at altitudes as low as 10 meters (sea-skimming) to avoid detection or as high as 15 kilometers$.

The correct answer is The Original.

Key Points

• The Original is a historical novel authored by Nell Stevens, which gained significant critical attention upon its review in June 2025.
• The narrative is set against the backdrop of Victorian London, a period characterized by rigid social hierarchies and strict moral codes, particularly regarding gender and sexuality.
• The novel specifically explores themes of queerness and clandestine romance, shedding light on the lived experiences of those who existed outside the heteronormative boundaries of the 19^th century.
• Nell Stevens is well-regarded for her ability to blend historical research with fictional narratives, a style she previously showcased in her acclaimed work, Mrs. Gaskell and Me.
• The book is noted for its exploration of the Pre-Raphaelite art world and the complex relationships that flourished within Bohemian circles in London.

Additional Information

• Author Profile: Nell Stevens is an English writer who has received various accolades, including the Somerset Maugham Award. Her writing often navigates the intersection of biography and fiction, focusing on the lives of literary and historical figures.
• Setting and Era: Victorian London (roughly 1837–1901) provides a fertile ground for "secret history" novels. During this time, acts of "gross indecency" were criminalized under British law, making the depiction of queer identity a central point of tension in historical fiction.
• Thematic Focus: In The Original, the author utilizes the concept of the "original" vs. the "copy" in both art and identity, examining how individuals perform their roles in society versus their authentic selves.
• Publication Context: Reviewed in June 2025, the novel has been praised for its lyrical prose and its contribution to the growing genre of historical LGBTQ+ literature, which aims to reclaim narratives often erased from traditional history books.
• Other Works: Other notable books by Nell Stevens include The Victorian and the Romantic and Brief Answers to the Big Questions (where she served as a collaborator/editor), demonstrating her deep engagement with intellectual history.

Important Points

• Queer History in Literature: Modern historical fiction like The Original serves an important cultural function by providing visibility to marginalized groups in the past. It often draws on archival research to build authentic settings.
• Victorian Social Constraints: The Victorian era was marked by the Mollies culture and later the Labouchere Amendment of 1885, which intensified the legal pressures on the queer community, a context that informs the high stakes in Stevens' novel.
• Artistic Influence: The inclusion of the art world in the story allows the author to discuss the aesthetic movement and how art served as a medium for expressing subversive desires that could not be voiced in plain language.

The correct answer is 50.

Key Points

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI), during its Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) meeting concluded in June 2025, announced a strategic decision to cut the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) by 50 basis points (bps).
• This reduction of 50 bps (which is equivalent to 0.50%) is aimed at augmenting the liquidity available within the banking system to support economic growth and ensure smoother credit flow.
• By lowering the CRR, the RBI effectively reduces the amount of cash that commercial banks are mandated to keep with the central bank, thereby increasing their lendable resources.
• The move was influenced by the need to maintain an "accommodative" or "neutral" stance depending on the prevailing inflation and GDP growth dynamics observed in the first quarter of the financial year 2025-26.
• This 50 bps cut is expected to release a significant amount of primary liquidity into the financial markets, helping banks manage their Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL) more efficiently without increasing the cost of funds.

Additional Information

• Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR):
• It refers to the share of Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL) that banks must maintain as a cash balance with the RBI.
• Crucially, banks do not earn any interest on the money kept as CRR, making it a powerful tool for the RBI to control the money supply in the economy.
• Basis Points (bps):
• In financial terminology, 1 basis point is equal to 1/100^th of 1% or 0.01%.
• Therefore, a 50 bps cut represents a 0.50% reduction, while a 100 bps cut would represent a full 1% change.
• Monetary Policy Committee (MPC):
• The MPC is a six-member committee constituted by the Central Government under Section 45ZB of the amended RBI Act, 1934.
• The committee is chaired by the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India and is tasked with determining the policy rates required to achieve the inflation target (typically 4% with a band of +/- 2%).
• Impact of CRR Cut:
• A lower CRR results in a higher Money Multiplier, as banks have more capital to lend to consumers and businesses.
• This usually leads to a decrease in lending rates (like MCLR or EBLR), making loans for housing, automobiles, and industrial expansion more affordable.

Important Points

• Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR): While CRR is kept in cash with the RBI, SLR is the reserve that banks must maintain in the form of liquid assets like Gold or Government Securities before they can provide credit.
• Repo Rate: This is the rate at which the RBI lends money to commercial banks in the event of any shortfall of funds. It is the primary signal rate for the economy.
• Liquidity Management: The RBI uses instruments like Open Market Operations (OMO), CRR, and the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) to manage the volume of money in the Indian economy.
• Historical Context: CRR levels have historically fluctuated between 3% and 15% depending on the economic cycle and the RBI’s objective to either suck out excess liquidity (inflation control) or inject liquidity (growth stimulus).