General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is India.

Key Points

• The 8^th Assembly of the International Solar Alliance (ISA) is slated to be held in October 2025 in New Delhi, India.
• The Assembly is the supreme decision-making body of the ISA, in which each Member Country is represented to oversee the implementation of the ISA Framework Agreement.
• As the host country and the permanent seat of the Secretariat, India consistently plays a central role in organizing the annual proceedings to promote solar energy globally.
• The 8^th Assembly will focus on critical thematic areas such as solar-pumping systems, solar mini-grids, and the scaling up of solar rooftops to achieve energy transition targets.
• During this session, Member Countries will deliberate on financial mechanisms to de-risk investments and provide technical assistance to the Least Developed Countries (LDCs) and Small Island Developing States (SIDS).

Additional Information

• International Solar Alliance (ISA):
• The ISA was conceived as a joint effort by India and France to mobilize efforts against climate change through the deployment of solar energy solutions.
• It was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi and then-President François Hollande on 30 November 2015, on the sidelines of the COP21 in Paris.
• The ISA is the first treaty-based international government organization to be headquartered in India, specifically at the National Institute of Solar Energy (NISE) campus in Gurugram, Haryana.
• The current Director General of the ISA is Dr. Ajay Mathur, who leads the Secretariat in implementing the ISA's strategic programs.
• Vision and Mission:
• The ISA’s vision is to "Let us together make the sun brighter" while its mission is to facilitate energy access and security worldwide.
• The organization aims to mobilize $1 trillion (USD) of investment in solar energy by the year 2030.
• Membership:
• While initially restricted to sunshine countries (those lying between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn), the ISA has amended its framework to allow all Member States of the United Nations to join.
• As of 2024, more than 100 countries have signed the ISA Framework Agreement.

Important Points

• One Sun, One World, One Grid (OSOWOG): This is a flagship initiative spearheaded by India within the ISA to create a global ecosystem of interconnected renewable energy resources, primarily solar energy, shared across borders.
• Towards 1000 Strategy: The ISA operates under this strategic plan which targets the installation of 1,000 GW of solar energy capacity, providing energy access to 1,000 million people, and mitigating 1,000 million tonnes of carbon dioxide emissions by 2030.
• Presidency: India currently holds the Presidency of the ISA Assembly, and France holds the Co-Presidency. The 7^th Assembly was previously held in New Delhi in November 2024.
• Global Solar Facility: The ISA has established this facility to provide payment guarantees and insurance to private sector investors to encourage solar projects in Africa and other under-served regions$.

The correct answer is Empowering Girls for a Bright Future.

Key Points

• National Girl Child Day is celebrated every year in India on January 24 to promote awareness about the rights of a girl child and the importance of their education, health, and nutrition.
• The theme for National Girl Child Day 2025 is "Empowering Girls for a Bright Future". This theme emphasizes the necessity of providing girls with the tools, resources, and environment required to achieve their full potential. Hence, option 2 is correct.
• The initiative was first started by the Ministry of Women and Child Development in the year 2008. It aims to highlight the inequalities faced by girls in Indian society and to advocate for their legal rights and social protection.
• The date January 24 was chosen to commemorate the day in 1966 when Indira Gandhi took oath as the first woman Prime Minister of India, symbolizing a milestone in women's leadership.
• The primary objectives of this day include spreading awareness about the Child Sex Ratio (CSR) and creating a safe and healthy environment for every girl child in the country.
• Hence, the correct answer is Empowering Girls for a Bright Future.

Additional Information

• Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP):
• Launched on January 22, 2015, by Prime Minister Narendra Modi at Panipat, Haryana.
• The scheme is a tri-ministerial effort involving the Ministry of Women and Child Development, the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, and the Ministry of Education.
• It focuses on preventing gender-biased sex-selective elimination and ensuring the survival, protection, and education of the girl child.
• Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana (SSY):
• A small deposit scheme launched in 2015 as part of the BBBP campaign to encourage parents to build a fund for the future education and marriage of their female children.
• It offers a high interest rate and provides tax benefits under Section 80C of the Income Tax Act.
• International Day of the Girl Child:
• Observed globally on October 11 every year. It was declared by the United Nations to recognize girls' rights and the unique challenges girls face around the world.
• National Policy for Women:
• The Government of India formulated various policies such as the National Policy for the Empowerment of Women (2001) to bring about the advancement, development, and empowerment of women in all spheres of life.

Important Points

• Article 21A: The Constitution of India provides the Right to Education as a fundamental right for children between 6 and 14 years of age, which has been instrumental in increasing the literacy rate among girls.
• Kishori Shakti Yojana: This scheme aims at improving the nutritional and health status of adolescent girls in the age group of 11-18 years.
• CBSE Udaan Scheme: An initiative to address the low enrollment of girl students in engineering institutions and to bridge the gap between school education and engineering entrance examinations.
• Legal Protection: Acts like the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act (2006) and the POCSO Act (2012) provide a legal shield to protect the girl child from exploitation and social evils.

The correct answer is 4.

Key Points

• The Government of India initiated a major reform in labour governance by consolidating 29 central labour laws into 4 comprehensive Labour Codes to simplify regulations and promote Ease of Doing Business.
• The four codes resulting from this consolidation are the Code on Wages, 2019, the Industrial Relations Code, 2020, the Social Security Code, 2020, and the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020.
• This legislative overhaul was designed to replace archaic and complex laws dating back to the pre-independence era, ensuring a more transparent and modern framework for both employers and employees.
• The consolidation process aims to provide universal social security and minimum wages to nearly 50 crore workers in both the organized and unorganized sectors.
• The Ministry of Labour and Employment spearheaded this transition to reduce multiplicity of definitions and compliance burdens, which previously hindered industrial growth and job creation. Hence, the correct answer is 4.

Additional Information

• Code on Wages, 2019:
• It was the first code to be passed by Parliament in August 2019.
• It subsumes 4 central laws: The Payment of Wages Act, 1936, the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965, and the Equal Remuneration Act, 1976.
• The code introduces a Floor Wage to be set by the Central Government, ensuring that no state sets a minimum wage lower than this threshold.
• Industrial Relations Code, 2020:
• It consolidates 3 laws, including the Trade Unions Act, 1926, the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946, and the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.
• It seeks to streamline the dispute resolution mechanism and allows units with up to 300 workers to retrench or lay off employees without prior government permission, up from the previous limit of 100.
• Social Security Code, 2020:
• This code integrates 9 laws such as the Employees’ Provident Fund Act, the Employees’ State Insurance Act, and the Maternity Benefit Act.
• For the first time, it brings gig workers, platform workers, and unorganized workers under the ambit of social security schemes like life insurance and disability insurance.
• Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020:
• It subsumes 13 laws related to factories, mines, plantations, and construction sites.
• It mandates free health check-ups for employees above a certain age and provides for a national occupational safety and health advisory board.
• The code also formalizes the employment of inter-state migrant workers by providing them with journey allowances and ration benefits.

The correct answer is 7 April.

Key Points

• World Health Day is celebrated every year on 7 April to mark the anniversary of the founding of the World Health Organization (WHO) in 1948.
• The First World Health Assembly in 1948 proposed that a special day be dedicated to health awareness. Consequently, World Health Day has been observed annually since 1950.
• The day serves as an opportunity for the WHO and other international organizations to draw worldwide attention to a subject of major importance to global health each year.
• Each World Health Day focuses on a specific theme. For instance, the theme for 2024 was "My health, my right," emphasizing that health is a fundamental human right for everyone, everywhere.
• It is one of the eleven official global health campaigns marked by the WHO, alongside World Tuberculosis Day, World Immunization Week, World Malaria Day, World No Tobacco Day, World Blood Donor Day, World Hepatitis Day, World Patient Safety Day, World Antimicrobial Awareness Week, World Chagas Disease Day, and World AIDS Day.

Additional Information

• 8 March:
• This date is celebrated globally as International Women's Day (IWD).
• It is a focal point in the movement for women's rights, highlighting issues such as gender equality, reproductive rights, and violence and abuse against women.
• The day was first recognized by the United Nations in 1977.
• 24 October:
• This day is celebrated as United Nations Day, marking the anniversary of the entry into force in 1945 of the UN Charter.
• It is also observed as World Polio Day, established by Rotary International to commemorate the birth of Jonas Salk, who led the first team to develop a vaccine against poliomyelitis.
• 1 December:
• World AIDS Day is observed on this date to raise awareness of the AIDS pandemic caused by the spread of HIV infection.
• It was first conceived in August 1987 by James W. Bunn and Thomas Netter, two public information officers for the Global Programme on AIDS at the WHO.
• World Health Organization (WHO):
• The WHO is a specialized agency of the United Nations responsible for international public health.
• It is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland, and has six regional offices and 150 field offices worldwide.
• The organization's constitution was signed by 61 countries on 22 July 1946, and it officially began operations on 7 April 1948.

The correct answer is 3.5 years.

Key Points

• The Supreme Court of India, in recent hearings during 2024 and 2025, highlighted that the average waiting period for Prospective Adoptive Parents (PAPs) to adopt a child through the legal channel is approximately 3.5 years. Hence, the statement regarding the 3.5-year wait is correct.
• A bench led by the Chief Justice of India expressed grave concern that such a long gestation period often forces desperate parents to bypass the Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) and resort to illegal adoptions.
• The court noted that there is a massive imbalance between supply and demand; while over 30,000 PAPs are registered with CARA, only about 2,147 children were legally available for adoption as of late 2023.
• The Supreme Court emphasized that the delay is largely due to the slow process of declaring children "legally free for adoption" by Child Welfare Committees (CWCs) and administrative bottlenecks at the district level.
• Under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, the legal process is designed to be rigorous to protect the child's interest, but the procedural delays have inadvertently created a market for child trafficking.

Additional Information

• CARA (Central Adoption Resource Authority):
• It is a statutory body under the Ministry of Women and Child Development, Government of India.
• It functions as the nodal body for the adoption of Indian children and is mandated to monitor and regulate both in-country and inter-country adoptions.
• CARA is the designated central authority under the Hague Convention on Inter-country Adoption, 1993, ratified by India in 2003.
• The Juvenile Justice Act vs. HAMA:
• The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015: A secular law that allows any person, regardless of religion, to adopt. It provides a comprehensive framework for the rehabilitation of orphaned, abandoned, and surrendered children.
• Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act (HAMA), 1956: Applies to Hindus, Buddhists, Jains, and Sikhs. Unlike the JJ Act, adoptions under HAMA are a private contract between two parties. However, the Supreme Court has recently mandated that HAMA adoptions must also be registered on the CARA portal to ensure child safety.
• Recent Reforms (2021-2022):
• In 2021, the Juvenile Justice Amendment Act was passed, which empowered District Magistrates (DMs) and Additional District Magistrates (ADMs) to issue adoption orders instead of civil courts.
• The 2022 Adoption Regulations aimed to simplify the process, but the waiting period for infants (below 2 years of age) remains the highest due to the preference of most PAPs for younger children.

Important Points

• Child Welfare Committee (CWC): These are district-level bodies that have the sole authority to declare a child "legally free for adoption" after conducting due inquiry. Delays at this stage are a primary reason for the 3.5-year wait.
• SARA (State Adoption Resource Agency): This acts as a state-level nodal body to promote and monitor adoption within a particular State or Union Territory.
• Data Fact: As per CARA reports, the number of annual adoptions in India has stagnated around 3,000 to 4,000 per year for the last decade, despite tens of thousands of parents being on the waiting list.
• Types of Children: A child is abandoned if deserted by parents, orphaned if both parents are deceased/incapable, and surrendered if parents relinquish custody to the CWC due to physical, emotional, or social factors.

The correct answer is PixxelSpace India Private Limited, Dhruva Space Private Limited and SatSure Analytics India Private Limited Consortium.

Key Points

• In August 2025, the Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) officially selected the consortium led by PixxelSpace India Private Limited, Dhruva Space Private Limited, and SatSure Analytics India Private Limited.
• The primary objective of this selection is to design, develop, and launch India’s first indigenous commercial Earth-Observation (EO) satellite constellation, marking a significant milestone for the NewSpace sector in the country.
• The project is part of a strategic initiative to foster private sector participation in the end-to-end space economy, moving beyond the traditional role of private companies as mere vendors to ISRO.
• Each member of the consortium brings specialized expertise: Pixxel is renowned for its advanced hyperspectral imaging technology, Dhruva Space provides expertise in satellite platforms and launch services, and SatSure specializes in downstream data analytics and insights.
• The selection process was conducted through a rigorous Request for Proposals (RFP) mechanism, ensuring that the consortium met the technical and financial benchmarks required to sustain a commercial constellation. Hence, the correct answer is PixxelSpace India Private Limited, Dhruva Space Private Limited and SatSure Analytics India Private Limited Consortium.

Additional Information

• IN-SPACe (Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre):
• Established in June 2020, it acts as an autonomous agency under the Department of Space (DoS).
• It serves as a single-window agency to promote, authorize, and supervise the space activities of Non-Governmental Entities (NGEs) in India.
• Its headquarters is located in Bopal, Ahmedabad, and it plays a critical role in sharing ISRO’s infrastructure with private players.
• Earth-Observation (EO) Satellites:
• These satellites are equipped with remote sensing technology to monitor the Earth’s physical, chemical, and biological systems.
• Key applications include agriculture monitoring, disaster management (floods, forest fires), urban planning, and climate change tracking.
• The indigenous commercial constellation will provide high-resolution and high-revisit data, reducing India’s dependence on foreign commercial satellite imagery.
• Indian Space Policy 2023:
• This policy provides the roadmap for institutionalizing the private sector's role in the space domain.
• It encourages NGEs to engage in the design, development, and operation of space objects, ground segments, and communication services.
• The selection of the Pixxel-Dhruva-SatSure consortium is a direct outcome of the policy's goal to increase India's share in the global space economy from 2% to 10%.

Important Points

• Consortium Capabilities: Pixxel has already demonstrated success with satellites like Shakuntala and Anand. Dhruva Space was one of the first Indian companies to secure a space-grade solar panel export order. SatSure uses Artificial Intelligence (AI) to provide actionable intelligence to the BFSI (Banking, Financial Services, and Insurance) and agriculture sectors.
• Technological Significance: The constellation will likely utilize Hyperspectral sensors, which can capture data across hundreds of narrow spectral bands, allowing for the identification of materials and chemical compositions that are invisible to the human eye.
• Geographic Focus: While the constellation will have global coverage, it will provide specialized low-latency data for the Indian subcontinent, which is vital for national security and localized economic planning.

The correct answer is Reserve Bank of India.

Key Points

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) issued a notification in April 2024 revising the Priority Sector Lending (PSL) targets for Small Finance Banks (SFBs).
• According to the revised guidelines, the PSL target for Small Finance Banks will be adjusted to 60% of Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) or Credit Equivalent of Off-Balance Sheet Exposure (CEOBE), whichever is higher.
• This new target of 60% is a reduction from the previous mandate of 75%, aimed at aligning the regulatory framework as these banks grow in scale.
• The revised guidelines are scheduled to take effect from the Financial Year (FY) 2025–2026.
• The RBI has structured a transition path where the target remains 75% until March 31, 2025, before shifting to the lower threshold in the subsequent year.
• This move is part of the RBI's broader roadmap to allow eligible Small Finance Banks to transition into Universal Banks, provided they meet specific performance and capital criteria.

Additional Information

• Priority Sector Lending (PSL):
• PSL is a mechanism used by the RBI to ensure that specific sectors of the economy receive adequate credit.
• The eight primary sectors include Agriculture, Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs), Export Credit, Education, Housing, Social Infrastructure, Renewable Energy, and Others.
• While SFBs are now moving toward a 60% target, Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) generally have a PSL target of 40%.
• Small Finance Banks (SFBs):
• These banks were established based on the recommendations of the Nachiket Mor Committee to promote financial inclusion.
• They primarily cater to small business units, small and marginal farmers, and micro and small industries.
• Examples of prominent SFBs in India include AU Small Finance Bank, Equitas Small Finance Bank, and Capital Small Finance Bank.
• Universal Bank Transition:
• For an SFB to transition into a Universal Bank, it must have a minimum Net Worth of Rs. 1,000 crore.
• The bank must also have a scheduled status and a satisfactory track record of at least five years of operation.
• The shares of the bank must be listed on a recognized stock exchange for the transition to be considered.

Important Points

• ANBC and CEOBE: Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) represents the total credit provided by the bank after specific adjustments, while CEOBE measures the risk associated with off-balance sheet items like guarantees and letters of credit.
• Loan Portfolio Mandate: Small Finance Banks are required to ensure that at least 50% of their loan portfolio comprises loans up to Rs. 25 lakh to maintain their focus on small borrowers.
• Capital Adequacy: These banks are required to maintain a minimum Capital to Risk-weighted Assets Ratio (CRAR) of 15% on a continuous basis, as per RBI norms.
• Regulatory Authority: The Reserve Bank of India, established on April 1, 1935, under the RBI Act, 1934, holds the primary authority to regulate the Indian banking system and set monetary policy.

p>The correct answer is To accelerate the process of drug discovery.

Key Points

• PathGenie is a state-of-the-art computational software launched by the Ministry of Science and Technology in 2025 to revolutionize the medical research landscape.
• The primary objective of this platform is to accelerate the process of drug discovery, significantly cutting down the time required to move from the laboratory concept to clinical application. Hence, option 1 is the correct purpose.
• It utilizes advanced Artificial Intelligence (AI) and Machine Learning (ML) algorithms to predict how different chemical compounds will interact with biological targets.
• By using predictive modeling, PathGenie helps researchers identify potential lead compounds and optimize their chemical structures with high precision before physical synthesis begins.
• The software is designed to handle high-throughput screening, allowing scientists to analyze millions of molecular combinations in a fraction of the time taken by traditional methods.

Additional Information

• Drug Discovery Cycle: Historically, developing a new drug takes approximately 10 to 12 years and involves massive financial investment. Tools like PathGenie aim to reduce this window to improve healthcare accessibility.
• In-Silico Testing: This refers to research performed on a computer or via computer simulation. PathGenie facilitates in-silico trials, which minimize the initial need for animal testing and reduce ethical concerns in the early research stages.
• Ministry of Science and Technology: In India, this ministry oversees departments such as the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) and the Department of Science and Technology (DST), both of which are pivotal in driving biopharmaceutical innovation.
• Bioinformatics: This is the interdisciplinary field that develops methods and software tools for understanding biological data, especially large and complex data sets. PathGenie is a prime example of bioinformatics application in the modern era.
• Economic Impact: By streamlining the pre-clinical phase, the software helps in lowering the overall cost of R&D (Research and Development), which can eventually lead to more affordable life-saving medicines for the public.

Important Points

• Target Identification: The first step in drug discovery where a specific protein or gene involved in a disease is identified as a target for the drug.
• Lead Optimization: The process of refining a chemical lead to improve its potency, reduce side effects, and ensure it can be safely absorbed by the human body.
• Data Security: Since PathGenie manages sensitive molecular data, it incorporates high-level encryption and cloud security to protect the intellectual property of Indian scientists and research institutions.
• 2025 Milestone: The launch of this software in 2025 aligns with the national goal of achieving Atmanirbhar Bharat (Self-reliant India) in the pharmaceutical and biotechnology sectors.

The correct answer is National Green Tribunal (NGT).

Key Points

• The National Green Tribunal (NGT) is the principal judicial body in India responsible for environmental protection. In October 2025, it issued comprehensive new directives to strictly regulate the handling and disposal of asbestos to mitigate health risks. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The NGT emphasized the need for specialized disposal protocols for asbestos-containing materials (ACM), particularly during the demolition of old industrial and residential structures.
• The directives mandate that the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs) must monitor air quality near asbestos processing units to ensure fiber concentration remains within safe limits. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect as CPCB is an executing body here, not the primary directive issuer in this context.
• The tribunal also highlighted the "Polluter Pays Principle", stating that industries failing to manage asbestos waste scientifically would face heavy environmental compensation fines.
• While the High Court of Delhi and the Supreme Court of India often hear environmental litigations, the specific administrative directives for asbestos regulation in October 2025 were spearheaded by the NGT. Hence, statements 2 and 4 are incorrect.

Additional Information

• Asbestos and Health Hazards:
• Asbestos is a group of six naturally occurring silicate minerals made of microscopic fibers. It was widely used in construction for its fire-resistant and insulating properties.
• Inhalation of these fibers can lead to serious conditions such as Asbestosis (scarring of the lungs), Lung Cancer, and Mesothelioma (a rare cancer of the chest lining).
• Due to these risks, over 60 countries have banned the use of all forms of asbestos, though Chrysotile (white asbestos) is still used in India for roofing and piping under controlled conditions.
• National Green Tribunal (NGT):
• Established on 18^th October 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010.
• Its primary objective is the effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests.
• The Principal Bench of the NGT is located in New Delhi, with regional benches in Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata, and Chennai.
• Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB):
• A statutory organization constituted in September 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
• It provides technical services to the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) and coordinates the activities of State Boards.

Important Points

• Hazardous Waste Management: The disposal of asbestos in India is governed by the Hazardous and Other Wastes (Management and Transboundary Movement) Rules, 2016.
• Waste Disposal Methods: The October 2025 directives specifically advocate for the Secure Landfill method, where asbestos waste is wrapped in leak-proof packaging and buried at depths that prevent fiber release into the atmosphere.
• Constitutional Provision: Environmental litigation in India is often supported by Article 21 (Right to Life) and Article 48A (Protection and improvement of environment) of the Constitution of India.

The correct answer is Swachhotsav.

Key Points

• The Swachhata Hi Seva (SHS) campaign is a massive Jan Andolan (people's movement) organized annually to reinforce the commitment to a Garbage-Free India.
• For the specified period leading into 2025, the theme Swachhotsav highlights the transition from sanitation being just a service to becoming a celebration of cleanliness, specifically focusing on women-led sanitation. Hence, option 1 is correct.
• The campaign is jointly organized by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) and the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation (DDWS) under the Ministry of Jal Shakti.
• A primary objective of Swachhotsav is to recognize and empower women who have played a pivotal role in the Swachh Bharat Mission, transforming them from sanitation workers to Swachhata Entrepreneurs.
• The campaign period typically culminates on October 2, marking Gandhi Jayanti (Swachh Bharat Diwas), as a tribute to Mahatma Gandhi and his vision of a clean nation.
• Activities under this theme include large-scale Shramdaan (voluntary labor), cleaning of legacy waste sites, and promoting waste-to-wealth initiatives.

Additional Information

• Swachh Bharat Mission-Urban 2.0 (SBM-U 2.0):
• Launched on October 1, 2021, by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, it aims to make all Indian cities 'Garbage Free' and 'Water Secure'.
• It focuses on 100% source segregation, door-to-door collection of waste, and scientific processing of all fractions of waste, including construction and demolition waste.
• Swachh Survekshan:
• This is an annual survey of cleanliness, hygiene, and sanitation in villages, cities, and towns across India.
• Introduced in 2016, it has become the world's largest urban sanitation survey, fostering a spirit of healthy competition among cities to improve service delivery to citizens.
• Swachhata Abhiyan 2.0:
• Focuses on Institutional Swachhata and the disposal of pending references in government offices.
• It emphasizes space management and the enhancement of the workplace experience through the removal of scrap and redundant materials.
• Key Goals of the Mission:
• Achieving ODF+ (Open Defecation Free Plus) and ODF++ status for all statutory towns.
• Effective remediation of all legacy dumpsites in the country to reclaim land and prevent environmental hazards.
• Promoting the Circular Economy through the 3R principles: Reduce, Reuse, and Recycle.

Important Points

• Safai Mitra Suraksha: A critical component of the mission is ensuring the safety and dignity of sanitation workers by transitioning from manual cleaning to mechanized cleaning of sewers and septic tanks.
• Garbage Free Cities (GFC) Star Rating: A protocol-based framework where cities are rated 1-star, 3-star, 5-star, or 7-star based on several cleanliness parameters.
• Waste to Wealth: The government encourages the setting up of Waste-to-Energy plants and the use of compost produced from organic waste in agriculture and landscaping.
• Public Participation: The Swachhata Hi Seva campaign records millions of participations annually, making it one of the largest volunteer-driven initiatives in the 21^st century.

The correct answer is President of India.

Key Points

• Under the Constitution of India, specifically Article 111, no bill passed by the Parliament can become a law (an Act) without the formal assent of the President of India.
• The Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2025, followed the standard legislative procedure where it was introduced, debated, and passed by both the Lok Sabha (Lower House) and the Rajya Sabha (Upper House) before being sent to the President.
• The President of India acts as the final authority in the legislative process; once the signature is affixed, the bill is transformed into a Statute or Law.
• Following the Presidential assent, the law is published in the Official Gazette of India by the Legislative Department of the Ministry of Law and Justice.
• The President has the power to grant assent, withhold assent, or return the bill (if it is not a Money Bill) for reconsideration, but once passed again by both houses, the President must give assent.

Additional Information

• Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2025:
• This legislative move aims to amend the Waqf Act, 1995, which governs the management and administration of Waqf properties (properties dedicated for religious or charitable purposes under Islamic law) in India.
• The 2025 amendment focuses on increasing transparency, improving the audit of accounts, and ensuring better representation for women and non-Muslims in Waqf Boards.
• It sought to redefine the powers of the Waqf Board regarding the declaration of a property as "Waqf" and enhanced the role of the District Collector in the verification process.
• Role of the Vice President:
• The Vice President of India serves as the Ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. While they preside over the passage of the bill in the Upper House, they do not possess the constitutional authority to grant final assent to a bill.
• Role of the Prime Minister:
• The Prime Minister is the head of the Government and leads the Cabinet that proposes legislation. However, the Prime Minister does not sign bills into law; this is a sovereign function performed by the Head of State (the President).
• Role of the Chief Justice of India (CJI):
• The Chief Justice of India is the head of the Judiciary. The judiciary's role is to interpret laws and check their constitutionality (Judicial Review), but they have no role in the assent or enactment phase of the legislative process.

Important Points

• Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC): In many instances involving complex legislation like the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, a JPC is formed to examine the provisions in detail before the final vote in Parliament.
• Article 111 Options: The President can exercise three options: Assent (signing), Withhold (pocket veto/absolute veto), or Return (suspensive veto). For the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2025 to become law, the "Assent" option was exercised.
• Ministry of Minority Affairs: This is the nodal ministry responsible for the administration of Waqf matters at the Union level in India.
• Central Waqf Council: Established in 1964, it is a statutory body that advises the Central Government on matters concerning the working of State Waqf Boards.

The correct answer is Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI).

Key Points

• The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) officially launched the BHARATPOL portal in January 2025 to revolutionize how law enforcement agencies communicate and share data.
• The portal was introduced during the 59^th All India Conference of Directors General and Inspectors General of Police, which was held in Bhubaneswar, Odisha.
• BHARATPOL acts as a National Law Enforcement Portal, serving as a unified interface for all Indian Law Enforcement Agencies (LEAs) to collaborate on criminal investigations and intelligence.
• It provides a secure, real-time link between state police forces and the National Central Bureau (NCB)-New Delhi, which is the designated nodal point for INTERPOL in India.
• The platform is designed to facilitate faster dissemination of INTERPOL Notices (such as Red Notices for fugitives) and allow state police departments to access international criminal databases more efficiently.

Additional Information

• Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI):
• Established in 1963, the CBI is India’s premier investigating agency and functions under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.
• It derives its investigative powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act, 1946.
• The CBI represents India as the National Central Bureau (NCB) of INTERPOL, coordinating with 196 member countries to tackle transnational crimes.
• Intelligence Bureau (IB):
• The IB is India’s internal intelligence agency, primarily responsible for domestic security, counter-intelligence, and monitoring internal threats.
• It functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) and is considered one of the oldest intelligence organizations in the world.
• National Investigation Agency (NIA):
• The NIA was formed in 2009 following the 2008 Mumbai terror attacks to investigate terrorism-related offenses across the country.
• It operates under the NIA Act, 2008, and has the authority to investigate cases across states without needing special permission from state governments.
• Research and Analysis Wing (RAW):
• Established in 1968, RAW is India’s foreign intelligence agency focused on gathering external intelligence and conducting counter-terrorism operations outside Indian borders.
• It reports directly to the Prime Minister through the National Security Adviser (NSA).

Important Points

• Transnational Crime Coordination: The BHARATPOL portal specifically targets transnational organized crimes, including human trafficking, drug smuggling, and cybercrimes that have international footprints.
• Digital Integration: The portal integrates with INTERPOL’s I-24/7 global police communication system, ensuring that even a local police officer in a remote district can receive alerts about global criminals.
• Data Modernization: This initiative is part of the broader Digital India mission to modernize the security infrastructure and ensure data-driven policing to improve the conviction rate in complex cases.
• NCB-New Delhi: As the host of NCB-New Delhi, the CBI uses BHARATPOL to empower state police agencies by providing them access to 19 specialized databases maintained by INTERPOL, such as those for stolen travel documents and fingerprints.

The correct answer is Hitesh Gulia.

Key Points

• Indian boxer Hitesh Gulia secured the gold medal in the 70kg weight category at the World Boxing World Cup 2025.
• The tournament was held in Foz Do Iguacu, Brazil, in January 2025. It was one of the inaugural major events organized under the aegis of World Boxing, the new international federation for the sport.
• Hitesh Gulia was declared the winner after his opponent, Damon O'Neill from New Zealand, withdrew from the final bout due to a medical injury, granting the Indian a victory via a walkover.
• This victory marked a significant achievement for India at the international level, highlighting the depth of talent in the country's middleweight divisions.
• Apart from Hitesh, Devika Ghorpade was the other Indian to win a gold medal at the same event in the 52kg category, helping India finish with a strong medal haul.

Additional Information

• World Boxing World Cup 2025:
• This event was a landmark competition for World Boxing, an organization established in 2023 to ensure boxing remains at the heart of the Olympic movement.
• The 2025 edition in Brazil featured elite boxers from across the globe, competing across various weight categories to gain world rankings.
• India's Performance in Brazil:
• India concluded the campaign with a total of 8 medals, including 2 gold, 4 silver, and 2 bronze medals.
• Silver medalists included Preeti Dahiya (54kg) and Sagar Ahlawat (92+kg), showcasing India's prowess across different weight classes.
• Other Options Analysis:
• Shiva Thapa: A veteran Indian boxer and the first to win six medals at the Asian Confederation Boxing Championships. He typically competes in the 63.5kg or 60kg categories.
• Vikas Krishan: An Arjuna Awardee and Asian Games gold medalist who has represented India in multiple Olympics, primarily in the 69kg and 75kg divisions.
• Vijendra Singh: India's first Olympic medalist in boxing (2008 Beijing Olympics), who later turned professional.

Important Points

• Venue Significance: Foz Do Iguacu is a major city in Brazil, located on the border with Argentina and Paraguay, and is famous for the Iguazu Falls.
• 70kg Division: In the context of World Boxing regulations for 2025, the 70kg category is often classified as Light Middleweight for men.
• Regulatory Transition: These wins are crucial as India has been a prominent supporter of the World Boxing federation, transitioning away from the IBA (International Boxing Association) to align with IOC (International Olympic Committee) standards.

The correct answer is Maritime shipping.

Key Points

• In April 2025, India participated in the 83^rd session of the Marine Environment Protection Committee (MEPC 83), where it expressed support for a global carbon pricing system specifically for the Maritime shipping sector.
• The International Maritime Organisation (IMO) is working toward implementing a maritime levy or carbon tax to reduce greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions from international vessels.
• India's vote in favor signifies a strategic shift to ensure that developing nations receive a fair share of the revenue generated from this pricing mechanism to fund green infrastructure.
• This decision is aligned with the 2023 IMO Strategy on Reduction of GHG Emissions from Ships, which aims to transition the industry toward net-zero emissions by or around 2050.
• The carbon pricing system is designed to incentivize shipowners to adopt low-carbon or zero-emission fuels like green ammonia and green hydrogen, bridging the price gap with traditional fossil fuels.

Additional Information

• International Maritime Organisation (IMO):
• Established in 1948 and headquartered in London, the IMO is a specialized agency of the United Nations.
• It is responsible for the safety and security of shipping and the prevention of marine and atmospheric pollution by ships.
• The IMO regulations apply to international shipping, which handles more than 80% of global trade by volume.
• Global Carbon Pricing Mechanism:
• The proposed mechanism is a Market-Based Measure (MBM) that places a monetary value on carbon emissions.
• Revenue from the levy is intended to be redistributed to Least Developed Countries (LDCs) and Small Island Developing States (SIDS) to support their maritime decarbonization efforts.
• Unlike Aviation, which is regulated by the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO), the Maritime shipping sector falls under the IMO's jurisdiction for emissions targets.
• India's Maritime Vision:
• Under the Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision 2047, India aims to become a global leader in green shipping.
• India has set a goal to make all its major ports Green Ports by 2030, focusing on renewable energy and hydrogen-based bunker fuels.
• The country is also a part of the Green Voyage2050 project, a partnership between the Government of Norway and the IMO.

Important Points

• Sector Differentiation: While Aviation uses the CORSIA (Carbon Offsetting and Reduction Scheme for International Aviation) framework, the Maritime shipping sector is pursuing a direct carbon levy.
• Economic Impact: International shipping accounts for nearly 3% of total global GHG emissions. A global carbon price of around $100 to $150 per tonne of CO2 is being discussed to drive significant change.
• Environmental Deadlines: The IMO strategy includes checkpoints to reduce total annual GHG emissions by at least 20% by 2030 and 70% by 2040, compared to 2008 levels.
• Technological Innovation: The move supports the development of Zero-Emission Vessels (ZEVs) and the expansion of Shore-to-Ship Power (SSP) facilities at major ports worldwide.

p>The correct answer is Max Verstappen.

Key Points

• The Japanese Grand Prix held in 2025 saw Max Verstappen emerging as the winner, continuing his dominance in the Formula 1 world.
• He represented the Red Bull Racing team, utilizing a car powered by Honda RBPT engines, which are known for their high performance at the Suzuka International Racing Course.
• The victory at Suzuka is highly prestigious due to the track's demanding nature, featuring technical sections like the "S" Curves and the high-speed 130R turn.
• Max Verstappen's win in 2025 helped solidify his position in the World Drivers' Championship standings, showcasing the consistency of the Dutch driver.
• The race took place in April 2025, following the Formula 1 calendar's shift to group Asian races together for better regional logistics and environmental sustainability.

Additional Information

• Driver Profiles:
• Max Verstappen: Born on September 30, 1997, he is a multiple-time Formula 1 World Champion. He holds the record for being the youngest driver to start a Grand Prix at 17 years and 166 days during the 2015 season.
• Lando Norris: A British driver racing for McLaren. Known for his agility on track, he has been a consistent podium contender and a primary rival to Red Bull in the 2024-2025 seasons.
• Oscar Piastri: An Australian driver also representing McLaren. He is celebrated for winning the Formula 2 and Formula 3 championships in consecutive rookie years before debuting in F1 in 2023.
• Fabio Di Giannantonio: Unlike the other options, he is a professional motorcycle racer from Italy who competes in the MotoGP World Championship. He is not a Formula 1 driver, making him a distractor in this context.
• Suzuka International Racing Course:
• Located in Suzuka City, Mie Prefecture, Japan, the circuit is 5.807 kilometers long and features a unique figure-eight layout.
• It was designed by John Hugenholtz in 1962 as a test track for Honda.

Important Points

• Technological Dominance: The Red Bull car used in 2025 focused on optimized ground-effect aerodynamics, which provided superior downforce essential for the high-speed corners of the Japanese track.
• Strategic Scheduling: The 2025 Japanese Grand Prix was part of a 24-race season, the longest in Formula 1 history, aimed at maximizing global engagement and revenue.
• Historical Context: The first Formula 1 race at Suzuka was held in 1987, and it has since become a fan-favorite destination, often hosting title-deciding races in previous decades.
• FIA Regulations: The 2025 season operated under strict Financial Regulations (cost caps) to ensure a more level playing field among teams like Ferrari, Mercedes, and Red Bull.

The correct answer is Indus.

Key Points

• The Indus Waters Treaty (IWT) is a water-distribution treaty between India and Pakistan, brokered by the World Bank (formerly the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development).
• In 2025, India took significant diplomatic steps to review and modify the treaty, following a formal notice issued in late 2024. The move was prompted by Pakistan’s persistent objections to Indian hydroelectric projects, specifically the Kishanganga and Ratle projects in Jammu and Kashmir.
• The treaty was signed in Karachi on September 19, 1960, by the then Indian Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru and Pakistani President Ayub Khan. Hence, the correct option is Indus.
• Under the original terms of the treaty, the waters of the three Eastern Rivers—the Ravi, Beas, and Sutlej—were allocated to India for unrestricted use.
• The waters of the three Western Rivers—the Indus, Jhelum, and Chenab—were allocated to Pakistan, with India permitted "limited" non-consumptive use, such as for power generation and agriculture.
• The dispute escalated in 2025 because Pakistan approached the Permanent Court of Arbitration in The Hague, while India insisted on a Neutral Expert mechanism, leading to a "graded" suspension or formal call for modification of the 64-year-old pact by the Government of India.

Additional Information

• Shimla Agreement:
• Signed on July 2, 1972, by Indira Gandhi and Zulfikar Ali Bhutto following the 1971 Indo-Pak War.
• It converted the cease-fire line of 1948 into the Line of Control (LoC) and emphasized the resolution of differences through bilateral negotiations.
• Tashkent Declaration:
• A peace agreement signed on January 10, 1966, between India and Pakistan to end the 1965 War.
• It was brokered by the Soviet Union in Tashkent (now in Uzbekistan) and signed by Lal Bahadur Shastri and Ayub Khan.
• Ganga Water Treaty:
• This is a bilateral treaty signed in 1996 between India and Bangladesh for the sharing of the Ganga waters at Farakka.
• It is not related to Pakistan; it has a 30-year validity period and is due for renewal or review in 2026.
• Article XII (3) of IWT:
• This specific article of the Indus Waters Treaty allows for the provisions of the treaty to be modified from time to time by a duly ratified treaty concluded for that purpose between the two Governments.
• India invoked its right to seek modifications in 2023-2025 due to changes in demographic and environmental circumstances.

Important Points

• Permanent Indus Commission (PIC): The treaty established a permanent body with commissioners from both countries who meet at least once a year to discuss technical issues and manage water rights.
• World Bank Role: While the World Bank is a signatory to the treaty, its role is primarily limited to procedural matters and appointing a Neutral Expert in case of "differences."
• Kishanganga Project: A 330 MW hydroelectric project on the Kishanganga River (a tributary of the Jhelum) which has been a primary point of contention between the two nations since 2007.
• Ratle Hydroelectric Plant: An 850 MW run-of-the-river power station currently under construction on the Chenab River in the Kishtwar district of Jammu and Kashmir.

The correct answer is Magnus Carlsen.

Key Points

• Magnus Carlsen secured the title at the 2025 Norway Chess tournament, continuing his streak of excellence in elite international chess competitions.
• The tournament was held in Stavanger, Norway, which has been the home of this prestigious super-tournament since its inception.
• Carlsen’s victory in the 2025 edition was characterized by his strategic depth in classical games and his nearly unbeatable record in Armageddon tie-breaks, which are a signature of the Norway Chess format.
• The scoring system for the event awarded 3 points for a win in the classical time control, ensuring a high level of fighting chess throughout the rounds.
• By winning this title, Magnus Carlsen further solidified his position as the World Number 1 in the FIDE rankings, a spot he has held consistently for over a decade.

Additional Information

• Norway Chess Tournament:
• Established in 2013, Norway Chess is one of the world's most prestigious chess tournaments, often featuring the top 10 players in the world.
• It is famous for introducing the mandatory Armageddon rule, where if a classical game ends in a draw, the players immediately play a blitz game to determine who gets extra points.
• Magnus Carlsen:
• Born on November 30, 1990, Carlsen is a Norwegian Grandmaster and a five-time World Chess Champion.
• He decided not to defend his title in 2023 but remains the highest-rated player in the history of the game, reaching a peak ELO rating of 2882.
• Other Competitors in 2025:
• The 2025 field included prominent figures such as Hikaru Nakamura (USA), Fabiano Caruana (USA), and the 2024 Candidates winner, Gukesh Dommaraju from India.
• Gukesh Dommaraju, born in 2006, is one of the youngest players to ever cross the 2750 ELO mark and is a rising rival to Carlsen’s dominance.
• Tournament Venue:
• The event typically takes place in the Stavanger region, often utilizing venues like the SR-Bank headquarters and the Finansparken.

Important Points

• Scoring Mechanism: In this tournament, a classical win is worth 3 points, a classical loss is 0 points. If the classical game is drawn, each player gets 1 point, and the winner of the Armageddon game gets an additional 0.5 points (totaling 1.5).
• Historical Context: Magnus Carlsen has won the Norway Chess title multiple times (including 2016, 2019, 2020, 2021, and 2022), making him the most successful player in the tournament's history.
• Format: The 2025 tournament followed a Double Round Robin or Single Round Robin format depending on the specific category (Main or Women's), ensuring every player faced each other at least once.

The correct answer is Establishment of a Makhana Board.

Key Points

• During the presentation of the Union Budget 2025-26 in Parliament on 1 February 2025, Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced the establishment of a dedicated Makhana Board.
• The primary objective of the Makhana Board is to promote value-addition, scientific research, and organized marketing for Makhana (Gorgon nut/Fox nut), which is a key regional crop of Bihar.
• The board will be headquartered in Bihar, reflecting the state's dominant position as it accounts for approximately 80% to 90% of the total national production of Makhana.
• This initiative is designed to provide a structured supply chain, improve processing facilities, and help farmers in the Mithila region achieve better price realization through direct exports to the global market.
• The announcement is a strategic step towards the branding of Indian superfoods and boosting the agricultural economy of eastern India. Hence, the correct answer is Establishment of a Makhana Board.

Additional Information

• Mithila Makhana GI Tag:
• The Government of India granted the Geographical Indication (GI) tag to Mithila Makhana in August 2022.
• The GI tag ensures that only registered users from the Mithila region of Bihar can use the specific name, thereby protecting the authenticity and reputation of the product in international markets.
• Nutritional Value and Uses:
• Makhana is globally recognized as a nutritious superfood. It is rich in protein, fiber, magnesium, potassium, and phosphorus.
• It has a low glycemic index and is gluten-free, making it highly suitable for health-conscious consumers and those with diabetes or heart conditions.
• Major Producing Districts:
• In Bihar, the cultivation of Makhana is concentrated in districts such as Darbhanga, Madhubani, Saharasa, Purnia, Katihar, and Araria.
• The National Research Centre for Makhana is located in Darbhanga, which provides technical assistance for increasing the yield and quality of the crop.
• Economic Impact:
• The creation of the Makhana Board is expected to generate significant employment in rural Bihar, particularly in the processing and packaging sectors.
• It aligns with the "Vocal for Local" and "One District One Product" (ODOP) initiatives of the Union Government to promote local agricultural strengths.

Important Points

• Union Budget 2025-26 Context:
• The Union Budget 2025-26 placed a special emphasis on Bihar’s development, including infrastructure projects and the reorganization of its agricultural sector.
• Apart from the Makhana Board, the budget proposed industrial corridors and connectivity projects to integrate Bihar more closely with the national economy.
• The Makhana Board is expected to function under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, coordinating with state agencies for better implementation of subsidies and export incentives.

The correct answer is Hnahthial.

Key Points

• The North Eastern Region (NER) District Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) Index Report, 2023-24, which was released in July 2025, identifies the progress of various districts in the eight North Eastern states of India toward achieving the 2030 Global Goals.
• Hnahthial district, located in the state of Mizoram, emerged as the top-performing district across the entire region, securing the highest score of 81.43 points.
• This index is a collaborative initiative between NITI Aayog and the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (MDoNER), with technical support from the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
• The report evaluates 103 districts based on their performance across various Sustainable Development Goals, including health, education, gender equality, and infrastructure.
• Hnahthial's achievement reflects significant improvements in local governance and the implementation of social welfare schemes within Mizoram. Hence, the correct answer is Hnahthial.

Additional Information

• Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs):
• The SDGs consist of 17 global goals established by the United Nations in 2015 as a universal call to action to end poverty and protect the planet by 2030.
• The NER District SDG Index specifically localizes these goals to the district level to foster competitive federalism among the North Eastern states.
• Classification of Districts:
• Districts are categorized based on their composite scores: Aspirant (0–49), Performer (50–64), Front Runner (65–99), and Achiever (100).
• In the 2023-24 report, a majority of the districts in the North East fell into the Front Runner category, showcasing an overall positive trend in regional development.
• Geographical Coverage:
• The index covers the "Ashtalakshmi" states: Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, and Tripura.
• It helps the Union Government and State Governments identify development gaps and allocate resources more effectively to lagging regions.

Important Points

• Top Performing States: While Hnahthial topped the district list, states like Sikkim and Mizoram consistently show high average scores across multiple districts due to better literacy rates and healthcare accessibility.
• Role of NITI Aayog: As India's premier policy think tank, NITI Aayog plays a crucial role in monitoring SDG indicators at the national and sub-national levels through tools like the SDG India Index and the NER District SDG Index.
• Indicators Used: The 2023-24 edition of the report utilized over 80 indicators across 15 SDGs to calculate the composite scores, providing a data-driven framework for administrative decision-making.
• Previous Rankings: In the first edition of the index (2021-22), East Sikkim had topped the list; the rise of Hnahthial in the latest report indicates a dynamic shift in developmental focus within Mizoram.

The correct answer is PT Usha.

Key Points

• Indian athlete Vithya Ramraj equaled the long-standing national record in the women's 400m hurdles during the Asian Games 2023 held in Hangzhou, China.
• She clocked a time of 55.42 seconds during the qualification heats on October 2, 2023, to secure her place in the final.
• This performance allowed her to share the national record with the legendary PT Usha, who had set the same mark of 55.42 seconds nearly four decades earlier.
• PT Usha established this iconic record at the 1984 Los Angeles Olympics, where she famously missed out on an Olympic medal by just 1/100^th of a second, finishing fourth. Hence, the correct answer is PT Usha.
• As of 2025, the national record for the women's 400m hurdles remains shared at 55.42 seconds by both Vithya Ramraj and PT Usha.

Additional Information

• Vithya Ramraj:
• She is a versatile sprinter and hurdler from Coimbatore, Tamil Nadu.
• Apart from the 400m hurdles, she has also been a key member of India's 4x400m relay teams.
• At the Hangzhou Asian Games, she won a silver medal as part of the 4x400m mixed relay team and a bronze medal in the individual 400m hurdles event.
• PT Usha:
• Widely known as the "Payyoli Express" and the "Queen of Indian Track and Field".
• She dominated the 1986 Seoul Asian Games, winning 4 gold medals and 1 silver medal.
• In December 2022, she became the first woman to be elected as the President of the Indian Olympic Association (IOA).
• National Records in Athletics:
• National records represent the best performance by an athlete representing their country, ratified by the national governing body, which in India is the Athletics Federation of India (AFI).
• The 400m hurdles record stood unchallenged for 39 years before Vithya Ramraj matched it in 2023.

Important Points

• Kamaljeet Sandhu: She was the first Indian woman to win a gold medal at the Asian Games, achieving the feat in the 400m run at the 1970 Bangkok Asian Games with a time of 57.3 seconds.
• Shiny Wilson: A middle-distance runner who was the first Indian woman to reach the semi-finals of an Olympic event at the 1984 Los Angeles Olympics in the 800m. She represented India in four Olympic Games.
• Hima Das: Known as the "Dhing Express", she holds the current national record in the flat 400m with a time of 50.79 seconds, set at the 2018 Jakarta Asian Games.
• The 400m hurdles is a unique event that combines the speed of a sprinter with the technical endurance required to clear 10 hurdles spaced across the track.