General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Kananaskis, Alberta.

Key Points

• The 51^st G7 Summit is scheduled to take place from June 16 to 17, 2025, in Kananaskis, Alberta, Canada.
• This marks the seventh time that Canada has hosted the Group of Seven (G7) summit since its inclusion in the group in 1976.
• The announcement of the location was made by Canadian Prime Minister Justin Trudeau following the conclusion of the 50^th G7 Summit held in Italy in 2024.
• Kananaskis is a well-known choice for high-profile diplomatic events; it previously hosted the 28^th G8 Summit in June 2002, which focused heavily on global development and aid for Africa.
• The choice of Alberta as the host province highlights the region's importance to the Canadian economy, particularly in sectors like energy, agriculture, and tourism.

Additional Information

• The G7 Membership: The Group of Seven is an informal intergovernmental organization consisting of the world's leading advanced economies: Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom, and the United States. The European Union is also represented as a non-enumerated member.
• Presidency Rotation: The presidency of the G7 rotates annually among the member nations. Canada will officially assume the G7 Presidency from Italy on January 1, 2025.
• Previous Canadian Summits: Before the 2025 event, Canada hosted summits in Ottawa-Montebello (1981), Toronto (1988), Halifax (1995), Kananaskis (2002), Muskoka (2010), and Charlevoix (2018).
• Geography of Kananaskis: Located in the foothills and front ranges of the Canadian Rockies, west of Calgary, Kananaskis offers a secure and secluded environment, which is a critical requirement for hosting world leaders and managing complex security protocols.

Important Points

• Summit Objectives: The 2025 Summit is expected to address critical global challenges including economic resilience, climate change, energy security, and international peace.
• Sherpas and Preparation: Leading up to the summit, "Sherpas" (personal representatives of the leaders) and ministers will hold multiple meetings across Canada to draft the agenda and negotiate the final communique.
• Outreach and Guests: As the host, Canada has the authority to invite "Outreach" guests, which often include leaders from emerging economies and heads of international organizations such as the United Nations (UN) and the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
• Transition from G8: The group functioned as the G8 with the inclusion of Russia from 1998 until 2014, when Russia was suspended following the annexation of Crimea, reverting the group back to the G7.

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

• The state government of Maharashtra has established a specialized hedging desk in 2025 to safeguard the interests of farmers against the unpredictable fluctuations in market prices.
• This initiative specifically targets farmers cultivating Cotton, Turmeric, and Maize, which are significant cash crops in the state but are highly susceptible to global and domestic price volatility.
• The hedging desk is being set up under the State of Maharashtra’s Agribusiness and Rural Transformation (SMART) project, which is a massive initiative aimed at transforming rural Maharashtra.
• The primary objective of this desk is to provide price protection and risk management tools to Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs), allowing them to lock in prices before the harvest season ends.
• By utilizing financial instruments in the commodities market, the desk helps ensure that farmers receive a minimum assured price, regardless of sudden crashes in market rates during the peak arrival season.

Additional Information

• The SMART Project:
• The SMART project is a World Bank-funded initiative implemented by the Government of Maharashtra.
• It focuses on enhancing the competitiveness of agriculture value chains and facilitating the transition of smallholder farmers towards market-led agriculture.
• The project provides technical assistance and financial grants to Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs) and Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS).
• Significance of the Crops:
• Cotton: Maharashtra has the largest area under cotton cultivation in India, particularly in the Vidarbha and Marathwada regions.
• Turmeric: The state is a leading producer of turmeric, with Sangli being a major trading hub known for its high-quality produce and GI tag.
• Maize: It is a crucial crop for the poultry and starch industries, and its prices are often influenced by global export demands and domestic production levels.
• Understanding Hedging:
• Hedging in agriculture involves taking a position in a futures market that is opposite to the position held in the physical market.
• This mechanism acts as an insurance policy for farmers; if the price falls in the local market (mandi), the gains from the futures contract can offset the loss.

Important Points

• Market Integration: The hedging desk works in coordination with national exchanges like the National Commodity and Derivatives Exchange (NCDEX) to facilitate transparent price discovery for FPOs.
• Risk Mitigation: Historically, small and marginal farmers bore the brunt of price drops; this desk provides them with the sophisticated financial tools previously only available to large traders and corporates.
• Operational Date: While the planning began earlier, the dedicated operations and the formal launch of the desk for the 2025 crop cycle represent a major shift in the state's agricultural policy.
• Economic Impact: By stabilizing farmer incomes, the Maharashtra Government aims to reduce agrarian distress and encourage more sustainable investment in high-value agricultural technology.

The correct answer is ₹3,000.

Key Points

• The Microfinance Industry Network (MFIN) and Sa-Dhan, which are the two Self-Regulatory Organizations (SROs) for the microfinance sector in India, have jointly issued a revised Code of Conduct and directives to enhance credit discipline.
• As per the new directives, any borrower who has an overdue amount exceeding ₹3,000 will not be eligible for a fresh loan or a top-up loan from any microfinance lender.
• These measures, often referred to as "guardrails", are designed to prevent over-leveraging and indebtedness among low-income households, ensuring that the borrower's debt remains at a manageable level.
• This specific directive regarding the ₹3,000 overdue limit is set to become effective from January 1, 2025.
• The decision was taken in response to rising concerns about asset quality and high delinquency rates in certain geographical pockets within the microfinance industry.

Additional Information

• Household Income Limit: According to RBI guidelines issued in March 2022, a microfinance loan is defined as a collateral-free loan to a household having an annual income up to ₹3,00,000.
• Total Indebtedness Cap: The SROs have mandated that the total indebtedness of a single borrower across all lenders should not exceed ₹2,00,000. This includes both principal and interest components of all active loans.
• Number of Lenders: To curb the practice of ghost lending or multiple borrowing, a borrower is restricted to taking loans from a maximum of four different lenders (including NBFC-MFIs, Banks, and Small Finance Banks) at any given point in time.
• Regulatory Oversight: The Microfinance Industry Network (MFIN) was established in 2009 and serves as the primary SRO recognized by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to monitor NBFC-MFIs.
• The 50% Rule: Lenders must ensure that the outflow for all loan repayments (including principal and interest) does not exceed 50% of the monthly household income of the borrower.

Important Points

• Delinquency Monitoring: The overdue limit is calculated based on data from Credit Information Companies (CICs) like Equifax or CRIF High Mark, which lenders are required to consult before every disbursement.
• Scope of Applicability: These directives apply to all regulated entities (REs) including Banks, Small Finance Banks (SFBs), and Non-Banking Financial Company-Microfinance Institutions (NBFC-MFIs).
• Effective Implementation: While the ₹3,000 overdue rule starts in January 2025, other guardrails regarding income assessment and disclosure of pricing were reinforced throughout 2024.
• Social Impact: The microfinance sector in India serves nearly 8 crore unique borrowers, and these rules are critical to maintaining the socio-economic stability of the rural and semi-urban population.

The correct answer is National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI).

Key Points

• In January 2025, the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) joined forces with Chennai’s Metropolitan Transport Corporation (MTC) to launch the ‘RuPay on-the-go’ initiative.
• This partnership aims to revolutionize transit payments by enabling contactless and cashless transactions for commuters using MTC buses in Chennai.
• The ‘RuPay on-the-go’ feature allows passengers to tap their RuPay-enabled cards, smartwatches, or other wearable devices on electronic ticketing machines to pay their fares instantly.
• The initiative is part of the broader National Common Mobility Card (NCMC) framework, which envisions a "One Nation, One Card" system for seamless travel across various modes of transport, including Metro, buses, and trains.
• This launch in Chennai signifies a major step toward digitizing small-value transactions in the public transport sector, reducing the dependency on physical cash and exact change.

Additional Information

• National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI):
• Established in 2008, NPCI is an umbrella organization for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India.
• It is an initiative of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Indian Banks' Association (IBA) under the provisions of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.
• NPCI has developed various innovative products like UPI (Unified Payments Interface), RuPay, IMPS, and Bharat BillPay.
• Metropolitan Transport Corporation (MTC), Chennai:
• MTC is the state-owned agency that operates the public bus service in Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
• It is one of the largest municipal transport bodies in India, catering to millions of daily passengers.
• RuPay and NCMC:
• RuPay is India's indigenous card scheme launched in 2012 to compete with international networks like Visa and Mastercard.
• The National Common Mobility Card (NCMC) was launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in 2019 to provide an integrated payment platform for all transit needs.

Important Points

• Technological Features: The ‘RuPay on-the-go’ system utilizes Near Field Communication (NFC) technology, ensuring high-speed transaction processing suitable for high-volume transit environments.
• Digital India Vision: This collaboration aligns with the Government of India’s Digital India mission, promoting financial inclusion and a less-cash economy.
• User Convenience: Commuters no longer need to carry multiple cards or cash for different transport systems; the NCMC compliant RuPay card can also be used for toll payments, parking, and retail shopping.
• Implementation: The rollout in Chennai follows similar successful implementations of NCMC in cities like Delhi, Mumbai, and Bengaluru, making urban mobility more efficient.

The correct answer is Aravalli Range, Western Ghats, Himalayas, and mangroves.

Key Points

• The National Mission for Green India (GIM) released a revised roadmap in June 2025 to align with India's updated Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC) and biodiversity goals.
• The roadmap identifies the Aravalli Range as a critical zone for restoration to act as a "green barrier" against the eastward expansion of the Thar Desert and to combat land degradation.
• Special emphasis is placed on the Western Ghats and the Himalayas, which are globally recognized biodiversity hotspots, to ensure water security and stabilize fragile mountain ecosystems against climate change.
• The restoration of mangroves along India's coastline is prioritized due to their exceptional capacity for carbon sequestration and their role as natural buffers against cyclones and sea-level rise.
• The revised strategy shifts focus from mere afforestation to Ecological Restoration, which involves reviving the original structure and function of degraded ecosystems.

Additional Information

• National Mission for Green India (GIM):
• Launched in February 2014, it is one of the eight missions under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC).
• Its primary objective is to protect, restore, and enhance India's diminishing forest cover and respond to climate change.
• The mission aims at increasing forest/tree cover to the extent of 5 million hectares (mha) and improving the quality of forest cover on another 5 mha of non-forest/forest lands.
• Geographical Focus Areas:
• The Aravalli Range spans across Gujarat, Rajasthan, Haryana, and Delhi, serving as the "lungs" of the National Capital Region (NCR).
• The Western Ghats runs along the western coast of India through six states: Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu.
• Mangrove restoration specifically targets regions like the Sundarbans in West Bengal and the Bhitarkanika in Odisha.

Important Points

• Implementation Agency: The mission is implemented by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) through a decentralized structure involving State Forest Departments and local bodies.
• Community Involvement: A unique feature of the roadmap is the empowerment of Gram Sabhas and Joint Forest Management Committees (JFMCs) to lead restoration efforts at the grassroots level.
• Climate Targets: India aims to create an additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent through additional forest and tree cover by 2030.
• Monitoring Technology: The 2025 roadmap integrates advanced technologies such as Geographic Information Systems (GIS), Remote Sensing, and Lidar for real-time monitoring of survival rates and biomass growth.

The correct answer is Haryana.

Key Points

• The sixth phase of the Jal Shakti Abhiyan: Catch the Rain (JSA:CTR) 2025 was launched by the President of India, Droupadi Murmu.
• The official launch ceremony took place on February 12, 2025, in the state of Haryana.
• The event was organized at the National Institute of Food Technology Entrepreneurship and Management (NIFTEM) located in Kundli, Sonipat district.
• The 2025 campaign aims to consolidate the gains of previous phases and intensify water conservation efforts across the country before the arrival of the monsoon season.
• The focus of this phase is on the sustainability of water sources and ensuring that every drop of rainwater is harvested through community participation and Panchayati Raj Institutions.

Additional Information

• Jal Shakti Abhiyan (JSA):
• The mission was first launched in 2019 as a time-bound, mission-mode water conservation campaign in 256 water-stressed districts of India.
• In 2021, it was expanded to cover all districts (rural and urban) under the theme "Catch the Rain, where it falls, when it falls".
• Ministry of Jal Shakti:
• This ministry was created in May 2019 by merging two existing ministries: the Ministry of Water Resources, River Development & Ganga Rejuvenation and the Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation.
• The ministry oversees major flagship schemes like Jal Jeevan Mission and Namami Gange.
• Haryana's Water Initiatives:
• The state of Haryana has been a pioneer in water management through schemes like Mera Pani Meri Virasat, which incentivizes farmers to switch from water-intensive paddy to other crops like maize or pulses.
• The state has also implemented the Atal Bhujal Yojana extensively to tackle declining groundwater levels.

Important Points

• Five Pillars of JSA:CTR:
• The campaign is built on five key interventions: water conservation and rainwater harvesting, renovation of traditional water bodies (like ponds/talabs), reuse and recharge of borewells, watershed development, and intensive afforestation.
• Significance of the 6^th Phase:
• The 2025 phase emphasizes geo-tagging of all water bodies and the creation of Jal Shakti Kendras in every district to provide technical guidance to the public.
• It also integrates the "Amrit Sarovar" mission, which aims to develop and rejuvenate 75 water bodies in each district as part of the Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav.
• National Importance:
• India possesses nearly 18% of the world's population but only 4% of the world's renewable water resources, making campaigns like Catch the Rain critical for national water security.

The correct answer is Cyclone Ditwah.

Key Points

• Cyclone Ditwah was a tropical cyclone that developed in the Bay of Bengal during the late November 2025 period.
• The India Meteorological Department (IMD) monitored the system as it intensified from a deep depression into a Cyclonic Storm, moving towards the southeastern coast of India.
• The storm made its landfall around 30 November 2025, specifically impacting the coastal stretches of north Tamil Nadu and the Union Territory of Puducherry.
• Red and orange alerts were issued for several districts, including Chennai, Chengalpattu, and Villupuram, as the storm brought heavy to very heavy rainfall and strong gale winds.
• The administrative machinery in south Andhra Pradesh was also put on high alert to manage potential storm surges and flooding in districts such as Nellore and Tirupati.

Additional Information

• Naming Mechanism: Tropical cyclones in the North Indian Ocean are named by the WMO/ESCAP Panel on Tropical Cyclones, which consists of 13 member countries. The name Ditwah was contributed by Yemen, following the 169-name list established in 2020.
• Geographic Context: The Bay of Bengal is known for a higher frequency of cyclones compared to the Arabian Sea. This is primarily due to higher sea surface temperatures and the shape of the coastline, which funnels storms toward India and Bangladesh.
• IMD Classification: The India Meteorological Department classifies tropical systems based on Maximum Sustained Surface Wind (MSW). A Cyclonic Storm has wind speeds between 62 km/h and 88 km/h, while a Severe Cyclonic Storm reaches 89 km/h to 117 km/h.
• Post-Monsoon Season: The months of October, November, and December comprise the peak season for cyclonic activity in the North Indian Ocean, often coinciding with the Northeast Monsoon in southern India.
• Landfall Definition: Landfall occurs when the eye of the storm moves over the land. It is usually the most destructive phase due to the combined impact of storm surges, extreme wind speeds, and torrential rain.

Important Points

• Disaster Management: In anticipation of Cyclone Ditwah, the National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) and state disaster teams were pre-positioned in vulnerable coastal areas to facilitate rescue and relief operations.
• Monitoring Technology: The IMD utilized Dopler Weather Radars (DWR) located at Chennai and Sriharikota to provide real-time updates and track the trajectory of the cyclone with high precision.
• Impact on Infrastructure: Cyclonic storms like Ditwah often lead to the suspension of flight operations, disruption of railway services, and damage to power grids and telecommunication towers in the impacted zones.
• Climate Trends: Scientific observations indicate that while the total number of cyclones remains relatively stable, the intensity of storms in the Bay of Bengal has been increasing due to global warming and rising ocean heat content.

The correct answer is Rohit Yadav.

Key Points

• Indian javelin thrower Rohit Yadav secured the Gold Medal at the Taiwan Athletics Open, delivering an impressive performance on the international stage.
• He achieved a best throw of 83.28 meters during the competition, which took place at the Banqiao Stadium in New Taipei City.
• This victory was significant as it marked a successful return for the 23-year-old athlete following a major elbow surgery in 2023 that had sidelined him from the Asian Games and World Championships.
• The Taiwan Athletics Open serves as a crucial World Athletics Continental Tour (Bronze) event, providing athletes with valuable ranking points for major championships like the Olympics.
• By clinching the Gold, Rohit Yadav solidified his position as one of India's premier javelin throwers, trailing only behind elite athletes like Neeraj Chopra and Kishore Jena in recent seasons.

Additional Information

• Neeraj Chopra:
• He is the most decorated Indian javelin thrower, winning the Gold Medal at the Tokyo 2020 Olympics with a throw of 87.58 meters.
• In 2023, he became the first Indian to win a Gold Medal at the World Athletics Championships held in Budapest.
• Kishore Jena:
• Hailing from Odisha, he emerged as a world-class competitor by winning the Silver Medal at the 19^th Asian Games in Hangzhou.
• He achieved a personal best of 87.54 meters, which is one of the highest marks ever recorded by an Indian.
• Athletics Federation of India (AFI):
• It is the apex body for athletics in the Republic of India, responsible for selecting athletes for the Olympics and other international competitions.
• The federation was established in 1946 and is headquartered in New Delhi.
• Davinder Singh Kang:
• He was the first Indian javelin thrower to reach the final of the World Athletics Championships, achieving this feat in 2017 in London.

Important Points

• Performance Data: The winning throw of 83.28 meters by Rohit Yadav in Taiwan was his second-best career performance at that time, following his personal best of 83.40 meters recorded in 2022.
• National Context: India has seen a "Javelin Revolution" following Neeraj Chopra's success, with multiple athletes consistently crossing the 80-meter mark in national and international meets.
• Technical Specs: In international athletics, the men's javelin must weigh 800 grams and measures between 2.6 to 2.7 meters in length. The competition usually involves six attempts for the finalists.
• Venue Details: The Banqiao Stadium is a multi-purpose stadium in Taiwan with a capacity of approximately 30,000 people, frequently hosting Track and Field events.

The correct answer is Kunming–Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework.

Key Points

• The National Red List Assessment Initiative was launched in India in October 2025 to systematically evaluate the conservation status of various species within the country's territory.
• This initiative is designed to align strictly with the IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature) global standards, which provide a rigorous objective framework for classifying species according to their extinction risk.
• A primary objective of this national assessment is to fulfill India’s international obligations under the Kunming–Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (KMGBF), which was adopted to halt and reverse biodiversity loss. Hence, the correct answer is Kunming–Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework.
• The initiative is a collaborative effort involving the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI), and the Botanical Survey of India (BSI).
• By creating a National Red List, India aims to prioritize conservation efforts for endangered and threatened species, ensuring that resource allocation is based on scientific data and urgent ecological needs.

Additional Information

• Kunming–Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (KMGBF):
• Adopted during the 15^th Conference of Parties (COP15) to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) in December 2022.
• It consists of 4 overarching goals for 2050 and 23 targets to be achieved by 2030.
• Target 4 specifically focuses on halting human-induced extinction of known threatened species and promoting their recovery and conservation.
• This framework is often referred to as the "Paris Agreement for Nature," emphasizing its importance in global environmental governance.
• IUCN Red List Categories:
• The assessment uses specific categories such as Extinct (EX), Critically Endangered (CR), Endangered (EN), Vulnerable (VU), and Near Threatened (NT).
• Species classified as CR, EN, or VU are collectively referred to as "threatened" species.
• The National Red List allows for a more localized understanding of species that might be common globally but are threatened within India.
• Other Frameworks Mentioned:
• The Sendai Framework is focused on Disaster Risk Reduction (2015-2030) and is not primarily a biodiversity assessment tool.
• The Ramsar Convention focuses specifically on the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands.
• Greenhouse Gas (GHG) Frameworks generally relate to climate change mitigation under the UNFCCC rather than species-level biodiversity assessments.

Important Points

• India's Biodiversity Status: India is recognized as one of the 17 megadiverse countries in the world, harboring nearly 7-8% of the world’s recorded species while occupying only 2.4% of the world’s land area.
• Institutional Role: The Zoological Survey of India (ZSI), established in 1916, and the Botanical Survey of India (BSI), established in 1890, serve as the premier organizations for taxonomic and biological studies in the country.
• Legal Support: The findings from the National Red List Assessment Initiative will likely influence the implementation of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, and the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
• National Biodiversity Targets (NBTs): India has updated its National Biodiversity Strategy and Action Plan (NBSAP) to align with the KMGBF, ensuring that national actions contribute to global biodiversity goals.

The correct answer is Michael Misa.

Key Points

• Michael Misa, a highly-rated forward for the Saginaw Spirit in the Ontario Hockey League (OHL), was announced as the recipient of the E.J. McGuire Award of Excellence in June 2024.
• The award is presented annually by the NHL Central Scouting to the draft prospect who best exemplifies a commitment to excellence through strength of character, competitiveness, and athleticism.
• Misa is considered a top prospect for the 2025 NHL Draft, making him one of the youngest and most prestigious talents to be recognized with this honor ahead of his eligibility year.
• In 2022, he was granted Exceptional Player Status by Hockey Canada, allowing him to enter the OHL at the age of 15, joining an elite group of players including John Tavares, Connor McDavid, and Connor Bedard.
• During the 2023-24 season, he played a critical role in helping the Saginaw Spirit capture their first-ever Memorial Cup championship, further solidifying his reputation as a big-game performer.

Additional Information

• The E.J. McGuire Award of Excellence:
• The award was established in 2011 to honor the legacy of E.J. McGuire, who served as the Director of the NHL Central Scouting Bureau from 2005 to 2011.
• It aims to recognize the "personality of the draft," focusing on players who demonstrate leadership and dedication off the ice as much as their skills on it.
• Past winners of this prestigious award include Connor Bedard (2023), Lane Hutson (2022), William Eklund (2021), and Nico Hischier (2017).
• Exceptional Player Status:
• This designation is awarded by Hockey Canada to players who demonstrate the physical, mental, and social maturity to play major junior hockey a year early.
• Michael Misa became only the sixth player in OHL history to receive this status, following his record-breaking performance at the OHL Cup where he surpassed Connor McDavid's scoring record with 20 points in seven games.
• 2025 NHL Draft Outlook:
• The 2025 NHL Draft is expected to feature Misa as a potential top-five selection due to his elite skating, hockey IQ, and consistent production in the Canadian Hockey League (CHL).
• His early recognition with the McGuire Award highlights the NHL's scouting community's high regard for his maturity and professionalism at a young age.

The correct answer is Hidden sugars, fats and oils.

Key Points

• The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW), in collaboration with the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI), launched an extensive awareness campaign on the occasion of World Food Safety Day, celebrated on 7^th June 2025.
• The primary focus of this campaign is to educate the public about the risks associated with Hidden sugars, fats and oils, which are prevalent in processed and ultra-processed foods.
• The initiative aims to address the rising prevalence of Non-Communicable Diseases (NCDs) such as obesity, Type 2 diabetes, and cardiovascular ailments in India, which are heavily influenced by the excessive consumption of these "hidden" ingredients.
• Through this campaign, the government emphasizes the importance of food literacy, urging consumers to scrutinize nutritional labels to identify high levels of saturated fats, trans-fats, and added sugars that are often not immediately apparent.
• This campaign aligns with the global objectives set by the World Health Organization (WHO) to ensure food safety and promote healthier dietary choices to reduce the global burden of diet-related illnesses. Hence, the correct answer is Hidden sugars, fats and oils.

Additional Information

• World Food Safety Day:
• Established by the United Nations General Assembly in December 2018, it was first observed in 2019.
• It is a joint initiative by the WHO and the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations to draw attention and inspire action to help prevent, detect, and manage foodborne risks.
• Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI):
• FSSAI is a statutory body established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006.
• It operates under the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare and is responsible for protecting and promoting public health through the regulation and supervision of food safety.
• The "Eat Right India" Movement:
• Launched by FSSAI, this movement is a large-scale initiative to transform the country’s food system to ensure safe, healthy, and sustainable food for all.
• It uses a mix of regulatory, capacity-building, and collaborative approaches to nudge food businesses and consumers toward better eating habits.
• Front-of-Pack Labeling (FOPL):
• The MoHFW has been advocating for FOPL to provide clear, color-coded warnings (like the Indian Nutrition Rating) on packaged foods.
• This system helps consumers quickly identify if a product is high in salt, sugar, or fats, facilitating informed purchasing decisions.

Important Points

• Impact of Hidden Sugars: Excessive intake of free sugars is a major factor in dental caries and unhealthy weight gain, increasing the risk of metabolic syndrome.
• Risks of Fats and Oils: While some fats are essential, trans-fats and high saturated fats lead to clogged arteries and heart disease. India has committed to being Trans-fat free by 2022, and the 2025 campaign continues this momentum.
• Nutritional Awareness: Unlike Iron, Protein, or Zinc (which are often promoted as fortification elements to fight malnutrition), sugars and fats are highlighted as "concerns" due to their overconsumption in urban and transitioning dietary patterns.

The correct answer is ICMR.

Key Points

• The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) licensed nine breakthrough health technologies to various industry partners during the India MedTech Expo held in September 2025.
• This initiative was aimed at fostering innovation and promoting self-reliance in the medical device sector, aligning with the Atmanirbhar Bharat and Make in India campaigns.
• The technologies licensed include advanced diagnostic kits, medical devices, and innovative healthcare solutions developed by several ICMR institutes across the country.
• The primary goal of this technology transfer is to bridge the gap between laboratory research and commercial production, ensuring that indigenous innovations reach the masses at an affordable cost.
• By partnering with the private industry, ICMR seeks to reduce India's heavy import dependency on high-end medical equipment and diagnostics.

Additional Information

• Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR):
• It is the apex body in India for the formulation, coordination, and promotion of biomedical research.
• Established in 1911 as the Indian Research Fund Association (IRFA), it was renamed ICMR in 1949.
• It is headquartered in New Delhi and functions under the Department of Health Research, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
• The current Director General is Dr. Rajiv Bahl, who oversees a network of 27 institutes specializing in various health areas like viral diseases, nutrition, and oncology.
• India MedTech Expo:
• This is a premier national-level event organized by the Department of Pharmaceuticals, Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers.
• The expo serves as a platform to showcase the strength of the Indian Medical Device Industry and facilitate collaborations between startups, established companies, and research institutions.
• The event focuses on key pillars such as innovation, investment, and manufacturing to position India as a global hub for medical devices.
• Significance of the Medical Device Sector:
• India is currently among the top 20 global markets for medical devices and is the 4^th largest in Asia.
• The government has introduced the National Medical Device Policy 2023 to facilitate orderly growth and achieve a 10-12% share in the global market over the next 25 years.
• Schemes like the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) for medical devices have been instrumental in boosting domestic manufacturing of high-tech equipment like MRI machines and CT scanners.

Important Points

• Technology Transfer (IPR): The process involves transferring Intellectual Property Rights from ICMR to private manufacturers, allowing them to mass-produce the validated technologies.
• Impact on Healthcare: Licensing indigenous technologies helps in lowering the out-of-pocket expenditure for patients by providing local alternatives to expensive imported diagnostics.
• Collaborative Ecosystem: The expo highlights the importance of the Triple Helix Model, which involves collaboration between the Government, Academia (ICMR), and Industry to solve public health challenges.

The correct answer is 10000.

Key Points

• The Union Budget 2025-26, presented by the Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on February 1, 2025, announced a significant expansion in the medical education sector.
• For the upcoming academic year 2025-26, the government has proposed the addition of 10,000 new medical seats in the country.
• This move is designed to enhance the healthcare workforce and provide more opportunities for students aspiring to pursue medical careers within India.
• The announcement aligns with the government's long-term vision of strengthening the human resource capacity in the health sector to meet the growing demands of the population.
• By increasing the seat capacity, the government aims to bridge the gap in the doctor-patient ratio and ensure that quality medical education is accessible to a larger segment of the youth.

Additional Information

• Growth in Medical Education:
• Since 2014, there has been a substantial increase in the number of Medical Colleges and seats. The number of MBBS seats and Postgraduate (PG) seats has grown significantly to improve the availability of specialized doctors.
• The National Medical Commission (NMC) is the primary regulatory body that oversees medical education, accreditation, and the registration of medical practitioners in India.
• Upgradation of District Hospitals:
• The expansion of medical seats often involves upgrading existing District Hospitals into full-fledged medical colleges. This strategy helps in utilizing existing infrastructure while providing tertiary care in rural and semi-urban areas.
• This initiative is part of the Centrally Sponsored Scheme for the establishment of new medical colleges attached with existing district/referral hospitals.
• Healthcare Schemes:
• The Pradhan Mantri Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission (PM-ABHIM) remains a cornerstone for developing health systems and responding to public health emergencies.
• The Ayushman Bharat - Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY) continues to provide financial protection to the poor, and the expansion of medical seats ensures there are enough professionals to manage the increasing patient load.

Important Points

• WHO Standards: The World Health Organization (WHO) recommends a ratio of 1 doctor per 1,000 people. India has been making steady progress towards achieving and maintaining this benchmark through such budgetary interventions.
• Budget 2025-26 Focus: The health sector in this budget emphasized digital health, preventive care, and infrastructure development alongside the increase in medical seats.
• Academic Session: The 10,000 seats are slated to be operationalized for the 2025-26 academic session, meaning they will be available during the upcoming counseling and admission cycles.

The correct answer is Caustic soda.

Key Points

• In March 2025, the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) issued a notification regarding the Environment (Protection) Second Amendment Rules, 2025, which specifically tightens the environmental standards for the Caustic soda industry.
• The Caustic soda sector, also known as the chlor-alkali industry, is one of the most chemically intensive industries, and the new rules aim to further reduce the discharge of toxic effluents and gaseous emissions.
• These rules introduce more stringent limits for parameters such as Total Suspended Solids (TSS), Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD), and pH levels in the wastewater discharged by these industrial units. Hence, the industry mentioned is Caustic soda.
• The amendment specifically mandates the complete transition of any remaining legacy units to Membrane Cell Technology to eliminate Mercury traces in the environment, aligning with the Minamata Convention objectives.
• The MoEFCC exercises these powers under Sections 6 and 25 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 to ensure that industrial growth does not come at the cost of ecological health.

Additional Information

• Caustic Soda (Sodium Hydroxide):
• It is a vital industrial chemical (NaOH) used extensively in the manufacture of soaps, detergents, paper, textiles, and for alumina refining in the aluminum industry.
• The production process involves the electrolysis of Sodium Chloride (NaCl) brine, which simultaneously produces Chlorine gas and Hydrogen as by-products.
• Industry Comparison:
• While the Cement industry is a major source of Carbon Dioxide (CO2) and particulate matter, and the Textile industry is known for dye-related water pollution, the 2025 Second Amendment specifically focuses on the chemical complexities of the chlor-alkali (Caustic soda) sector.
• The Dairy industry is regulated under different standards focusing primarily on organic waste and Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD).
• The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986:
• This landmark Act of the Parliament of India was enacted in the wake of the Bhopal Gas Tragedy of 1984.
• It provides a framework for the Central Government to coordinate the activities of various state and central authorities, such as the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB).

Important Points

• Technology Shift: India has successfully mandated the shift from Mercury Cell technology to Membrane Cell Technology in the Caustic soda sector to prevent Mercury poisoning. The 2025 rules further refine the operational efficiency of these membranes.
• Compliance and Penalties: Industrial units found violating the standards set in the Environment (Protection) Second Amendment Rules, 2025 are liable for penalties under Section 15 of the EPA, 1986, which includes heavy fines and potential imprisonment.
• Monitoring: The CPCB and State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs) are tasked with the continuous monitoring of these industries using Online Continuous Effluent Monitoring Systems (OCEMS) to ensure real-time data reporting to the ministry.
• Global Context: By tightening these standards in 2025, India aims to meet its international commitments under various climate and environment treaties, ensuring that the "Make in India" initiative remains sustainable and eco-friendly.

The correct answer is Talkatora Stadium.

Key Points

• The second edition of the STAIRS Youth National Games officially commenced on May 19, 2025.
• The event was held at the iconic Talkatora Stadium, located in New Delhi, which served as the primary venue for the opening ceremony and several sporting disciplines.
• The games are organized by STAIRS (Society for Transformation, Education and Recognition in Sports), which is a leading National Sports Promotion Organization (NSPO) in India.
• This edition of the games aimed to provide a massive platform for over 5,000 young athletes coming from various States and Union Territories across the country to showcase their talent at the grassroots level.
• The primary objective of the STAIRS Youth National Games is to identify sporting talent at a young age and provide them with the necessary exposure and training to represent India in international competitions like the Olympics.
• Hence, the correct answer is Talkatora Stadium.

Additional Information

• STAIRS Organization:
• STAIRS was founded in the year 2000 by Siddhartha Upadhyay with the vision of empowering underprivileged youth through sports and education.
• It is recognized by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India, as a National Sports Promotion Organization.
• The organization operates several programs like STAIRS Fun and Games and STAIRS School Football League (SSFL) to promote a culture of fitness and sportsmanship among children.
• Talkatora Stadium:
• The Talkatora Stadium is a prominent indoor sports stadium located on Willingdon Crescent in New Delhi.
• It has a seating capacity of approximately 3,035 people and is known for its unique architectural design resembling a blooming lotus.
• The stadium has historically hosted major events, including boxing matches during the 2010 Commonwealth Games.
• Sports Categories:
• The Youth National Games encompass a wide range of disciplines including Basketball, Volleyball, Football, Athletics, Martial Arts (such as Karate and Taekwondo), and Kabaddi.
• These games are pivotal in bridging the gap between rural talent and professional scouting networks in India.

Important Points

• Other Options in Context:
• Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium: Primarily used for Athletics and Football, it is one of the largest multipurpose stadiums in New Delhi but was not the commencement site for this specific edition of STAIRS games.
• Indira Gandhi Arena: It is the largest indoor arena in India and often hosts Gymnastics and Cycling events.
• Thyagaraj Sports Complex: Built for the 2010 Commonwealth Games, it is India's first green stadium utilizing solar energy and water harvesting.
• Impact of STAIRS:
• By 2025, the organization has reached millions of children across thousands of villages in India, making it one of the largest non-governmental sports bodies in the country.

The correct answer is 15 january.

Key Points

• Army Day is observed in India every year on 15 January to recognize the selfless service and sacrifices of the soldiers of the Indian Army.
• In the year 2025, India celebrated its 77^th Army Day. The day is celebrated across the country with great enthusiasm, featuring parades and military shows.
• This specific date was chosen because it was on 15 January 1949 that Lieutenant General K.M. Cariappa (who later became a Field Marshal) took over as the first Indian Commander-in-Chief of the Indian Army.
• He succeeded General Francis Roy Bucher, who was the last British officer to hold the top post of the Indian Army. This transition marked a historic moment in the sovereignty of the nation’s military leadership.
• Continuing the recent tradition of holding the main Army Day Parade outside the national capital, the 2025 parade was organized in Pune, Maharashtra. This initiative aims to increase public engagement and showcase the army's heritage in different parts of the country.

Additional Information

• Motto of Indian Army: The official motto of the Indian Army is "Seva Paramo Dharma," which translates to "Service Before Self." This ethos guides the conduct and spirit of every soldier in the force.
• Field Marshal K.M. Cariappa: Known affectionately as "Kipper," he was the first Indian to be promoted to the rank of Field Marshal. He led the Indian Army during the Indo-Pakistani War of 1947.
• Role and Structure: The Indian Army is the land-based branch of the Indian Armed Forces. It is headquartered in New Delhi and functions under the Ministry of Defence. As of 2025, the Chief of the Army Staff (COAS) is General Upendra Dwivedi.
• Other Military Observances: Apart from Army Day on 15 January, India celebrates Air Force Day on 8 October and Navy Day on 4 December. Additionally, Armed Forces Flag Day is observed on 7 December to collect funds for the welfare of veterans and their families.
• Global Standing: The Indian Army is consistently ranked as one of the largest standing armies in the world, playing a critical role in border security, counter-terrorism, and UN Peacekeeping missions.

Important Points

• Gallantry Awards: On Army Day, the Chief of the Army Staff awards Gallantry awards and Sena Medals to personnel for their exceptional bravery and distinguished service during operations.
• Theme and Technology: Recent Army Day celebrations have emphasized the "Year of Technology Absorption" and "Atmanirbhar Bharat" (Self-reliant India), showcasing indigenous weapon systems like the Arjun Tank, Nag Missiles, and Pinaka Rocket Systems.
• Historical Context: Although the Indian Army was officially established by the British in 1895, it only became truly "Indian" in its command structure following the 1949 handover celebrated on this day.
• Operational Commands: The Indian Army is divided into seven commands, including the Northern, Western, Central, Eastern, Southern, South-Western, and the Training Command (ARTRAC).

p>The correct answer is Banu Mushtaq and Deepa Bhasthi.

Key Points

• The International Booker Prize for the year 2025 has been awarded to the Kannada author Banu Mushtaq and the translator Deepa Bhasthi for the novel titled Heart Lamp.
• This prestigious award recognizes the finest in translated fiction from around the globe, ensuring that exceptional stories written in languages other than English reach a worldwide audience. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Banu Mushtaq is the original author of the work, which was originally penned in Kannada, a language primarily spoken in the Indian state of Karnataka.
• Deepa Bhasthi is the translator who rendered the literary work into English, making it eligible for the international competition held in the United Kingdom.
• The prize includes a cash award of £50,000 (approximately 53 lakh INR), which is distributed equally between the author and the translator to honor the collaborative nature of the work.

Additional Information

• Banu Mushtaq:
• She is a prominent feminist writer, poet, and social activist from India.
• Her writings often focus on the lived experiences of women, social justice, and communal harmony within the cultural landscape of South India.
• She has received several accolades in the past, including the Karnataka Sahitya Academy Award.
• Deepa Bhasthi:
• She is an independent writer and editor whose work frequently explores the intersections of art, culture, and landscape.
• As a translator, she has played a significant role in bringing contemporary Kannada literature to an English-speaking readership.
• The International Booker Prize:
• Established in 2005, it was initially a biennial prize awarded to a living author for their entire body of work.
• Since 2016, the format changed to an annual prize for a single book that is translated into English and published in the UK or Ireland.
• It is distinct from the Booker Prize, which is awarded to novels originally written in English.
• Other Options Context:
• Kiran Desai is a world-renowned author who won the Man Booker Prize in 2006 for her novel The Inheritance of Loss.
• David Szalay is a British-Canadian novelist known for his work All That Man Is, which was shortlisted for the Booker Prize in 2016.
• Margaret Atwood is a legendary Canadian author who has won the Booker Prize twice, in 2000 for The Blind Assassin and in 2019 for The Testaments.

Important Points

• The win for Heart Lamp marks a significant milestone for Indian literature, following the success of Geetanjali Shree and Daisy Rockwell, who won the prize in 2022 for Tomb of Sand (originally Ret Samadhi).
• The selection process involves a panel of five judges who review a longlist and then a six-book shortlist before announcing the winner in a ceremony held in London.
• Translation prizes like these are essential for promoting linguistic diversity and encouraging publishers to invest in non-Western narratives.

The correct answer is Diu.

Key Points

• The first-ever multi-venue Beach Games of India, organized under the spirit of the Khelo India initiative, were held at Ghoghla Beach in Diu.
• The event took place from 4^th January to 11^th January 2024, marking a significant milestone in India's sporting calendar by introducing a dedicated platform for beach-based disciplines.
• The games were officially inaugurated by the Union Minister for Youth Affairs and Sports, Anurag Singh Thakur, who emphasized the vision of making Diu a global hub for beach sports.
• Madhya Pradesh emerged as the overall champion of the inaugural edition, topping the medal tally with a total of 18 medals, which included 7 gold medals.
• The Union Territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu secured the second position, while Maharashtra finished third in the overall standings.

Additional Information

• Venue Significance:
• Ghoghla Beach, the primary venue for the games, is one of the prestigious Blue Flag certified beaches in India, known for its high environmental standards, safety, and cleanliness.
• The choice of Diu as the host location was strategic to promote coastal tourism and utilize India's vast 7,500 km coastline for sports development.
• Sports Disciplines:
• A total of 8 sports were featured during the week-long competition, including Beach Volleyball, Beach Boxing, Beach Soccer, Beach Kabaddi, Tug of War, Sea Swimming, Mallakhamb, and Pencak Silat.
• The inclusion of traditional sports like Mallakhamb on the sand added a unique cultural dimension to the international-style beach games.
• Participation Details:
• More than 1200 athletes from 28 States and Union Territories participated in the competition, showcasing the pan-India appeal of the event.
• The participants were primarily in the under-21 age category, aligning with the Khelo India mission to identify and nurture young talent at the grassroots level.
• Impact and Vision:
• The Beach Games 2024 aim to diversify the sporting culture in India beyond traditional field and track events, encouraging states to invest in niche coastal sports.
• This initiative is part of the broader Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports strategy to enhance India's performance in international multi-sport events like the Asian Beach Games and World Beach Games.

Important Points

• Ranking Highlights: Madhya Pradesh showed exceptional dominance by winning the maximum number of gold medals, reflecting the state's robust sports infrastructure.
• Diu's Transformation: The successful hosting of this event is expected to boost local economy and adventure tourism in the Union Territory.
• Khelo India Connection: Although distinct from the main Khelo India Youth Games, the Beach Games follow the same organizational framework to ensure professional standards in officiating and athlete management.

The correct answer is 6.

Key Points

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) established the Payments Regulatory Board (PRB) to exercise the powers and perform the functions of the central bank in relation to the regulation and supervision of payment systems.
• The Payments Regulatory Board consists of 6 members in total, designed to provide a balanced representation of central bank authority and external expertise.
• The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India serves as the ex-officio Chairperson of the Board, ensuring that payment policy remains aligned with broader monetary objectives.
• The composition includes the Deputy Governor in charge of the Department of Payment and Settlement Systems as a member, along with one officer of the Reserve Bank nominated by the Central Board of the RBI.
• To ensure a diverse perspective in the fintech and digital banking sectors, the Central Government nominates three members to the board.
• The primary mandate of this board is to oversee retail and wholesale payment systems, including digital wallets, card networks, and online transaction gateways, to ensure they operate in a safe and efficient manner.

Additional Information

• Legislative Framework: The formation of the Payments Regulatory Board was facilitated through amendments to the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, particularly following the recommendations of the Ratan Watal Committee on digital payments.
• Replacement of BPSS: The PRB replaced the earlier Board for Regulation and Supervision of Payment and Settlement Systems (BPSS), which was a sub-committee of the Central Board of the RBI.
• Objective of Innovation: One of the key goals of the PRB is to foster competition and innovation within the financial technology (FinTech) ecosystem while maintaining financial stability.
• Interoperability: The board is responsible for drafting policies that mandate interoperability between different payment service providers, such as UPI apps and mobile wallets, to enhance user convenience.
• Consumer Protection: A significant portion of the board's regulatory oversight is dedicated to customer grievance redressal and ensuring robust cybersecurity protocols to prevent online fraud.

Important Points

• Tenure of Members: The members nominated by the Central Government typically hold office for a period of 3 years and are eligible for re-appointment, providing continuity in policy making.
• Governance Standards: The board holds meetings at regular intervals, at least once every quarter, to review the status of the national payment infrastructure and the performance of Systemically Important Payment Systems (SIPS).
• Data Sovereignty: Under the guidance of the PRB, the RBI enforces strict data localization norms, requiring payment companies to store transaction data of Indian citizens on servers located within India.
• Global Alignment: The PRB works to ensure that Indian payment systems comply with international standards set by the Committee on Payments and Market Infrastructures (CPMI) and the Bank for International Settlements (BIS).

The correct answer is India and UK.

Key Points

• The 3^rd edition of the International Conference was organized by the Indian Council of Arbitration (ICA) in June 2025.
• The central theme of the conference focused on the implementation and efficiency of “Hybrid Dispute Resolution Models” within the global legal landscape.
• The conference specifically emphasized resolving commercial conflicts arising between India and the UK (United Kingdom), reflecting the growing economic synergy between the two nations.
• This initiative aims to create a more robust framework for Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR), ensuring that businesses in both India and the UK have access to streamlined legal processes.
• The discussion on Hybrid Models usually involves a combination of Mediation and Arbitration (often termed Med-Arb), allowing parties to attempt a settlement before moving to a binding arbitral award.
• Hence, the correct answer is India and UK.

Additional Information

• Indian Council of Arbitration (ICA):
• Established in 1965, the ICA is the apex arbitral body in India.
• It operates as a non-profit organization under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government of India.
• Its primary function is to promote the use of arbitration and other ADR mechanisms to settle domestic and international commercial disputes.
• Hybrid Dispute Resolution Models:
• These models, such as Med-Arb or Arb-Med-Arb, are designed to offer the flexibility of mediation and the finality of arbitration.
• The uses of these models include reducing the time and cost associated with traditional litigation and standard arbitration.
• They are particularly effective in cross-border commercial conflicts where different legal systems (like those of India and the UK) interact.
• India-UK Economic Relations:
• With the India-UK Free Trade Agreement (FTA) negotiations being a major feature of bilateral talks, legal certainty is a priority for investors.
• The UK is one of India’s largest trading partners, and robust dispute resolution mechanisms are essential to handle high-value commercial contracts.

Important Points

• Legal Framework: Arbitration in India is primarily governed by the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, which is based on the UNCITRAL Model Law.
• Global Hub Ambition: The Indian government is actively working to establish India as a global hub for International Arbitration, similar to Singapore or London.
• Institutional vs. Ad-hoc Arbitration: The ICA encourages Institutional Arbitration over Ad-hoc methods to ensure better administrative support and standardized rules.
• Date and Location: The conference held in June 2025 serves as a milestone in the 60^th year (Diamond Jubilee) vicinity of the ICA's journey since its 1965 inception.