General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Allianz Group.

Key Points

• In July 2025, Jio Financial Services (JFS), the financial services arm of Reliance Industries Limited, announced the signing of a binding agreement with the Allianz Group.
• The agreement aims to establish a 50:50 joint venture to enter the reinsurance sector in India, marking a significant entry for Jio into the complex risk-management market.
• This partnership signifies Allianz's strategic pivot in the Indian market as it seeks to leverage Jio’s extensive digital infrastructure and customer base to offer reinsurance solutions.
• The reinsurance joint venture is expected to provide specialized capacity for insurance companies to offload risks, thereby strengthening the overall insurance ecosystem in the country.
• The commencement of operations for this venture is subject to regulatory approvals from the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) and other relevant authorities. Hence, the correct answer is Allianz Group.

Additional Information

• Allianz Group:
• It is a German multinational financial services company headquartered in Munich.
• Founded in 1890, it is one of the world's leading insurers and asset managers, operating in over 70 countries.
• Before this 2025 agreement, Allianz had a long-standing partnership with the Bajaj Group in India, holding significant stakes in Bajaj Allianz General Insurance and Bajaj Allianz Life Insurance since 2001.
• Jio Financial Services (JFS):
• Originally a part of Reliance Industries, it was demerged and listed as an independent entity in 2023.
• Under the leadership of Chairman K.V. Kamath, JFS has rapidly expanded into lending, digital payments, and asset management, including a notable joint venture with BlackRock.
• The company aims to democratize financial services in India through a digital-first approach.
• Reinsurance Sector:
• Reinsurance is essentially "insurance for insurance companies," where a reinsurer takes on a portion of the risk from an insurer in exchange for a premium.
• In India, the market is historically dominated by the state-owned GIC Re (General Insurance Corporation of India), which was established in 1972.
• The Indian market has recently opened up to several global reinsurers like Munich Re, Swiss Re, and Hannover Re, which operate through branch offices.

Important Points

• Regulatory Landscape: The IRDAI is the statutory body responsible for regulating the insurance and reinsurance industries in India. It was constituted under the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 1999.
• FDI in Insurance: The Government of India increased the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) limit in the insurance sector from 49 percent to 74 percent in 2021 to attract more global capital and expertise.
• Market Potential: With India having one of the lowest insurance penetration rates globally, the reinsurance sector is critical for supporting large-scale infrastructure projects and managing catastrophic risks.

The correct answer is Rajput Regiment.

Key Points

• The 10^th edition of the joint military exercise Mitra Shakti was conducted between the Indian Army and the Sri Lankan Army.
• The Indian contingent for this exercise was represented by a battalion of the Rajput Regiment, consisting of 120 personnel and supported by other arms and services.
• The exercise took place in August 2024 (often associated with the 2024-25 training cycle) at the Army Training School, Maduru Oya in Sri Lanka. Hence, option 1 is correct.
• The primary objective of Mitra Shakti-2025 (10^th Edition) was to enhance the interoperability and mutual understanding between the two armies, specifically focusing on Counter-Insurgency and Counter-Terrorism operations.
• The exercise was designed to simulate sub-conventional operations in a semi-urban environment under Chapter VII of the United Nations Charter, which deals with peace enforcement.
• Participants engaged in various tactical drills, including combat conditioning, tactical maneuvers, and the integration of drones and counter-drone systems in modern warfare scenarios.

Additional Information

• Exercise Mitra Shakti:
• This is an annual bilateral exercise that began in 2012. It is held alternately in India and Sri Lanka to promote close operational ties.
• The 9^th edition of the exercise was held in November 2023 at Aundh (Pune), Maharashtra, India.
• The exercise serves as a platform for both nations to share their experiences in counter-terrorism, especially given their shared security challenges in the Indian Ocean Region.
• The Rajput Regiment:
• It is one of the oldest and most prestigious infantry regiments of the Indian Army, with its origins tracing back to 1778.
• The regiment's motto is "Sarvatra Vijay" (Victory Everywhere), and its war cry is "Bol Bajrang Bali Ki Jai".
• The regiment has participated in significant conflicts, including World War I, World War II, and all major post-independence wars like the 1971 Indo-Pak War and the Kargil War.
• Other Exercises with Sri Lanka:
• SLINEX: A bilateral maritime exercise between the Indian Navy and the Sri Lanka Navy to enhance naval cooperation.
• Dosti: A trilateral coast guard exercise involving India, Sri Lanka, and the Maldives, focusing on maritime safety and search-and-rescue.

Important Points

• The 10^th edition witnessed the use of modern technology, including unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs) and robotic platforms, reflecting the changing nature of the battlefield.
• The Sri Lankan Army contingent was represented by the Gajaba Regiment during the recent iterations of this joint training.
• Defense cooperation remains a cornerstone of the India-Sri Lanka relationship, aligning with India's "Neighbourhood First" policy and the SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the Region) vision.
• Joint military exercises like Mitra Shakti help in building Military-to-Military (M2M) cooperation and fostering diplomatic relations through shared military heritage and professionalism.

p data-end="57" data-start="0">The correct answer is Delhi.

Key Points

• The Government of NCT of Delhi issued a significant mandate in May 2025 requiring the installation of rooftop sprinkler systems on all high-rise buildings.
• The primary objective of this directive is to mitigate the intense Urban Heat Island (UHI) effect that significantly raises temperatures in the capital during peak summer months.
• This decision was spearheaded by the Delhi Disaster Management Authority (DDMA) as part of its updated Heat Action Plan to enhance urban resilience against record-breaking temperatures.
• The mandate applies to both residential and commercial high-rise structures, requiring them to utilize automated or manual sprinkler systems to cool building surfaces.
• By cooling the exterior of the buildings, the initiative aims to reduce the indoor cooling load, thereby decreasing the overall electricity demand for air conditioning across the city.

Additional Information

• Urban Heat Island (UHI) Effect:
• This phenomenon occurs when urban areas experience much higher temperatures than surrounding rural areas due to concrete surfaces, dense infrastructure, and high anthropogenic heat.
• In Delhi, the UHI effect has been known to cause temperature differences of 5 to 10 degrees Celsius compared to neighboring forested or rural regions.
• Delhi Disaster Management Authority (DDMA):
• Established under the Disaster Management Act, 2005, the DDMA is the apex body for disaster planning and response in the National Capital Territory.
• The authority is chaired by the Lieutenant Governor of Delhi, with the Chief Minister serving as the Vice-Chairperson.
• Heat Action Plan (HAP):
• The HAP is a comprehensive framework that includes early warning systems, public awareness campaigns, and long-term mitigation strategies like cool roofs and afforestation.
• The 2025 update specifically introduced active cooling technology, such as the rooftop sprinkler mandate, to deal with extreme heatwaves.
• Sustainable Urban Development:
• Mandating sprinklers is aligned with green building norms, encouraging developers to integrate sustainable water management into urban architecture.

Important Points

• Water Sourcing: To ensure the sustainability of the project, the mandate suggests that building owners should use treated wastewater from Sewage Treatment Plants (STPs) or rainwater harvesting systems instead of fresh potable water.
• Building Height Classification: For the purpose of this mandate, buildings exceeding 15 meters in height are generally classified as high-rise under the Unified Building Bye-Laws for Delhi.
• Compliance and Monitoring: The Municipal Corporation of Delhi (MCD) and the Delhi Fire Services are tasked with inspecting buildings to ensure the sprinkler systems are installed and functional.
• Impact on Power Grid: By lowering the surface temperature of buildings, the government expects a reduction in the peak power load during the day, preventing transformer failures and power outages during heatwaves.

The correct answer is State Skill Development Policy using digital and inclusive training tools.

Key Points

• In September 2025, the Government of Karnataka introduced a comprehensive State Skill Development Policy specifically designed to tackle unemployment by aligning the local labor force with evolving global industry standards.
• The primary objective of this move is to build a future-ready workforce capacity through the integration of digital training tools, such as Artificial Intelligence (AI) and Augmented Reality (AR), into the vocational education system.
• The policy prioritizes inclusive training, ensuring that socio-economically backward regions and rural youth receive the same quality of technical education as those in urban centers like Bengaluru.
• By focusing on digital literacy and high-tech skills, the policy aims to transition the state from traditional labor-intensive roles to knowledge-based employment opportunities.
• This initiative is part of a larger strategy to maintain Karnataka's position as a leading destination for Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and industrial innovation in India.

Additional Information

• Skill Development, Entrepreneurship and Livelihood Department (SDEL):
• This department acts as the nodal agency in Karnataka for implementing various employment-linked schemes, including the Chief Minister’s Kaushalya Karnataka Yojane (CMKKY).
• The department oversees the Karnataka Skill Development Corporation (KSDC), which facilitates Public-Private Partnerships (PPP) to enhance training infrastructure.
• Industry 4.0 Integration:
• The 2025 policy is heavily influenced by the principles of Industry 4.0, which emphasizes automation, data exchange, and smart manufacturing.
• Training modules now include cybersecurity, Internet of Things (IoT), and Cloud Computing to cater to the demands of the IT and Aerospace sectors.
• Incentives and Subsidies:
• To encourage participation, the state provides stipends to trainees and tax incentives to companies that establish Centers of Excellence (CoE) within the state.
• Special focus is given to women entrepreneurs and startups through dedicated incubation centers funded under the state's startup policy.

Important Points

• Target Population: The policy aims to certify over 1.5 million youth over a period of three years, targeting an age group of 18 to 35 years.
• Geographical Outreach: While Bengaluru remains a tech hub, this policy mandates the setting up of Skill Hubs in Tier-2 and Tier-3 cities like Mysuru, Hubballi, and Kalaburagi.
• Digital Skill Passport: A unique feature introduced in 2025 is the Digital Skill Passport, a blockchain-based credential that allows employers to verify a candidate's certifications and work experience instantly.
• Global Collaboration: Karnataka has signed various Memorandums of Understanding (MoUs) with international organizations and multinational corporations (MNCs) to provide global certification standards to local students.

The correct answer is Armand Duplantis.

Key Points

• Armand Duplantis, the Swedish pole vault sensation, set a monumental new world record of 6.28 m during the Stockholm Diamond League (also known as BAUHAUS-galan) in June 2025.
• This performance took place at the historic Stockholm Olympic Stadium in Sweden, where Duplantis competed in front of a home crowd, further cementing his status as the greatest pole vaulter in history.
• The height of 6.28 m surpassed his own previous world records, continuing a streak of incremental improvements that he has maintained since first breaking the record in 2020.
• Known by his nickname "Mondo," he is a Swedish-American athlete who has chosen to represent Sweden, his mother's home country, in international athletics.
• His success at the 2025 Diamond League circuit is part of a broader career that includes multiple World Championship titles and Olympic Gold Medals.

Additional Information

• Armand Duplantis:
• Born on November 10, 1999, in Lafayette, Louisiana, USA.
• He won the Gold Medal at the Tokyo 2020 Olympics and successfully defended his title at the Paris 2024 Olympics.
• He holds the distinction of being the first pole vaulter to clear the 6.20 m barrier, a feat that revolutionized the sport of athletics.
• Diamond League:
• The Wanda Diamond League is an annual series of elite track and field competitions organized by World Athletics.
• It was established in 2010 to replace the IAAF Golden League and consists of various legs held across Europe, Asia, and North America.
• The Stockholm leg is one of the most prestigious stops on the tour, often featuring record-breaking attempts due to its favorable conditions.
• Other Prominent Vaulters:
• Sam Kendricks: An American pole vaulter and a two-time World Champion (2017 and 2019) who has been a consistent rival to Duplantis.
• Emmanouil Karalis: A Greek athlete who won the Bronze Medal at the 2024 Paris Olympics and holds the Greek national record.
• Kurtis Marschall: An Australian pole vaulter who has won multiple Commonwealth Games titles and is a regular finalist in World Athletics events.

Important Points

• World Record Ratification: Any world record set in athletics, such as the 6.28 m vault, must be officially ratified by World Athletics, the international governing body for the sport. This involves strict anti-doping protocols and official measurement of the crossbar height.
• Technological Impact: Modern pole vaulting utilizes carbon fiber and fiberglass poles, which allow for greater energy return. Duplantis combines this technology with extraordinary approach speed and technical acrobatics to clear heights that were previously thought impossible.
• Historical Context: Before Duplantis, the pole vault world record was famously held by Sergey Bubka for many years, followed by Renaud Lavillenie of France, who cleared 6.16 m in 2014.

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

• In October 2024, the state government of Maharashtra launched India’s first integrated state-level Cyber Command and Control Centre (C4).
• The facility was officially inaugurated by the Deputy Chief Minister of Maharashtra, Shri Devendra Fadnavis, at Mahape in Navi Mumbai on October 3, 2024.
• This center serves as a comprehensive hub for citizens to report cybercrimes through multiple platforms, including a dedicated helpline number 14407, a specialized web portal, and a mobile application.
• The primary objective of this project is to provide a swift response to cyber-related grievances and to tackle the rising instances of financial frauds and digital threats across the state.
• The Cyber Command and Control Centre is equipped with advanced technology, including Artificial Intelligence (AI) and Machine Learning (ML), to monitor and mitigate cyber-attacks in real-time.

Additional Information

• Maharashtra Cyber Security Project:
• The Cyber Command and Control Centre is a major component of the larger Maharashtra Cyber Security Project, which has an estimated budget of approximately Rs. 837 crore.
• This initiative aims to modernize the state's cyber defense infrastructure, making it one of the most technologically advanced security hubs in the country.
• Integrated Operations:
• The center brings together 50 representatives from various banks and financial institutions to work alongside police officials and technical experts.
• This integration ensures that the "Golden Hour" (the critical period immediately after a crime) is utilized effectively to freeze fraudulent transactions and recover stolen money for victims.
• Technical Capabilities:
• The facility includes specialized units for digital forensics, malware analysis, and threat intelligence to stay ahead of evolving cyber-criminal tactics.
• It will provide support to all district-level cyber police stations in Maharashtra, acting as a central nervous system for cyber law enforcement.
• Global Context:
• The establishment of this center places Maharashtra at the forefront of digital safety in India, aligning with global standards for cybersecurity governance.
• By centralizing grievance handling, the government aims to increase the conviction rate in cyber-related cases, which has historically been a challenge due to the borderless nature of such crimes.

Important Points

• The helpline 14407 will be operational 24/7 to assist victims of online scams and identity theft.
• The project involves collaboration with private sector security firms and global technology partners to ensure the latest software and encryption standards are used.
• The Navi Mumbai facility is expected to serve as a model project that other states in India might replicate to strengthen their own digital security frameworks.

The correct answer is Bharatiya Janata Party.

Key Points

• The Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) emerged as the political party with the most seats in the 2025 Bihar Legislative Assembly election.
• The elections were conducted to elect representatives for the 243 constituencies of the Bihar Vidhan Sabha.
• To achieve a majority and form the government independently, a party or coalition requires at least 122 seats in the Bihar Legislative Assembly.
• The Bharatiya Janata Party focused its 2025 campaign on the "Viksit Bihar" (Developed Bihar) agenda, emphasizing infrastructure, industrial growth, and central government schemes.
• The Election Commission of India (ECI) managed the multi-phase polling process across all 38 districts of the state to ensure a fair democratic exercise.

Additional Information

• Bihar Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha):
• The Bihar Legislative Assembly is the lower house of the bicameral legislature of Bihar. It has a total strength of 243 elected members.
• The assembly's term is five years, as per the provisions of the Constitution of India, unless it is dissolved earlier by the Governor.
• The assembly meetings are held at the Vidhan Sabha Bhawan located in the capital city, Patna.
• Major Political Rivals in Bihar:
• Rashtriya Janata Dal (RJD): Led by the Lalu Prasad Yadav family, the RJD is a major regional force. In the 2020 elections, it had emerged as the single largest party with 75 seats, though it sits in the opposition or as a coalition partner depending on the term.
• Janata Dal (United) (JD-U): Under the leadership of Nitish Kumar, the JD(U) has been a central pillar of Bihar politics for over two decades, often playing the role of a "kingmaker" in coalition politics.
• Indian National Congress (INC): The INC generally contests as part of the Mahagathbandhan (Grand Alliance) in Bihar, representing a national perspective alongside regional interests.
• Election Significance:
• The 2025 election was critical for determining the state's trajectory regarding the Caste Census implementation and Special Category Status demands.
• The voter turnout in Bihar remains a significant indicator of political awareness, with a high percentage of women voters and youth participating in the 2025 polls.
• The BJP's victory reflects its expanding footprint in the Hindi Heartland and its ability to consolidate votes across various demographic segments.

Important Points

• Constitutional Context: Under Article 170 of the Constitution of India, the composition of the Legislative Assemblies is defined, ensuring direct election by the people.
• Governor's Role: Following the 2025 results, the Governor of Bihar invited the leader of the Bharatiya Janata Party (or the leader of the largest coalition) to form the government and prove their majority on the floor of the house.
• Historical Trend: Bihar was the first state in India to implement 50% reservation for women in Panchayati Raj Institutions, a factor that heavily influences the voting patterns observed in the 2025 Assembly elections.

The correct answer is 2025-2026.

Key Points

• The Prime Minister Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana (PM-DDKY) was announced by the Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman during the presentation of the Union Budget 2025-26 on February 1, 2025.
• This initiative is a comprehensive scheme aimed at achieving Atmanirbharta (self-reliance) in the production of pulses and oilseeds, which are critical components of India's food basket.
• The scheme focuses on enhancing the entire value chain, including production, storage, processing, and marketing of agricultural produce to ensure higher returns for farmers.
• A primary objective of PM-DDKY is to reduce India's heavy dependency on imports for edible oils, thereby saving foreign exchange and strengthening national food security.
• The budget allocation for this scheme is designed to provide farmers with access to high-yielding variety (HYV) seeds, modern farming technology, and robust market linkages. Hence, the correct answer is 2025-2026.

Additional Information

• Focus on Oilseeds:
• The Union Budget 2025-26 places significant emphasis on mustard, groundnut, sesame, soybean, and sunflower to boost domestic edible oil production.
• This aligns with the Atmanirbhar Oilseeds Abhiyan, which seeks to bridge the gap between demand and domestic supply.
• Agricultural Infrastructure:
• The government aims to strengthen Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) in agriculture to facilitate crop estimation and digital credit for farmers.
• PM-DDKY is expected to integrate with existing schemes like PM-KISAN to provide a holistic support system for small and marginal farmers.
• Budgetary Strategy for Farmers:
• The Union Budget 2025-26 increased the Agricultural Credit Target to a record high to ensure adequate liquidity for rural entrepreneurs and farmers.
• Special provisions have been made for Climate-Resilient Agriculture, developing 109 new varieties of 32 field and horticultural crops for cultivation by farmers.

Important Points

• Economic Impact: By promoting the Prime Minister Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana, the government intends to stabilize retail inflation related to food items, particularly pulses.
• Natural Farming: As part of the broader agricultural vision in the 2025-2026 budget, one crore farmers across the country are to be initiated into Natural Farming over the next two years, supported by certification and branding.
• Procurement and MSP: The scheme works in tandem with the government's commitment to Minimum Support Price (MSP) operations, ensuring that the increased production of Dhan (Grains) and Dhaanya (Wealth/Crops) translates into financial security for the agricultural community.

The correct answer is Summer McIntosh.

Key Points

• Summer McIntosh, a teenage swimming sensation from Canada, delivered one of the most dominant performances in aquatic history at the World Short Course Swimming Championships (25m) held in Budapest, Hungary, in December 2024.
• During the championships, she set a new World Record in the 400m Freestyle with a staggering time of 3:51.30, showcasing her exceptional endurance and speed in the 25-meter pool.
• She continued her record-breaking spree in the 200m Individual Medley (IM), clocking a time of 2:01.86 to shatter the previous global mark. This event requires mastery over all four swimming strokes: butterfly, backstroke, breaststroke, and freestyle.
• In the 400m Individual Medley (IM), she established another World Record with a time of 4:18.43, further cementing her status as the world's premier medley swimmer.
• Her performance in Budapest marked the first time a swimmer had broken three individual world records at a single World Short Course Championship in the modern era.

Additional Information

• Athlete Profile: Summer McIntosh was born in August 2006 in Toronto. She is the daughter of Jill Horstead, who competed in swimming for Canada at the 1984 Los Angeles Olympics.
• Olympic Success: Prior to her success in Budapest, McIntosh was the standout performer at the Paris 2024 Olympic Games, where she won three gold medals (400m IM, 200m Butterfly, and 200m IM) and one silver medal.
• Short Course vs. Long Course: Short Course swimming takes place in a 25-meter pool, which emphasizes the "turns" and "underwater phases" more than Long Course swimming, which is conducted in a 50-meter Olympic-sized pool.
• World Aquatics: The event in Budapest was organized by World Aquatics (formerly known as FINA), the international federation recognized by the International Olympic Committee (IOC) for administering international competitions in water sports.
• Comparison: While Katie Ledecky (USA) and Ariarne Titmus (Australia) are legendary figures in freestyle swimming, Summer McIntosh has distinguished herself by combining elite freestyle speed with world-class proficiency in the butterfly and medley disciplines.

Important Points

• Medley Order: In Individual Medley (IM) events, the strokes must be swum in the order of Butterfly, Backstroke, Breaststroke, and Freestyle. Summer McIntosh is currently considered the most versatile swimmer globally due to her strength in all four segments.
• Historical Context: The 2024 World Short Course Championships saw Budapest hosting the event at the Duna Arena, a venue famous for hosting multiple World Aquatics Championships (2017 and 2022).
• Records: World Records in short course are often faster than long course times because swimmers benefit from more frequent wall push-offs and streamlined glides during turns.

The correct answer is United Nations (UN).

Key Points

• The United Nations (UN) is an international organization founded on October 24, 1945, following the end of World War II.
• Its primary mission is to maintain international peace and security, develop friendly relations among nations, and promote social progress, better living standards, and human rights.
• The organization was established by 51 founding member states who signed the UN Charter in San Francisco, USA. As of today, it has grown to include 193 member states.
• The UN succeeded the League of Nations, which had failed to prevent the second global conflict. It operates through six principal organs: the General Assembly, the Security Council, the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC), the Trusteeship Council, the International Court of Justice (ICJ), and the UN Secretariat.
• The Secretary-General serves as the chief administrative officer of the organization, representing the United Nations on the global stage.

Additional Information

• North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO):
• NATO was established on April 4, 1949, with the signing of the North Atlantic Treaty (Washington Treaty).
• It is a political and military alliance of 32 member countries from Europe and North America, committed to the principle of collective defense.
• Its headquarters is located in Brussels, Belgium.
• World Trade Organization (WTO):
• The WTO is the only global international organization dealing with the rules of trade between nations.
• It officially commenced operations on January 1, 1995, under the Marrakesh Agreement, replacing the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) which had been in place since 1948.
• It is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland, and currently consists of 164 member states.
• International Monetary Fund (IMF):
• The IMF was conceived at a UN conference in Bretton Woods, New Hampshire, USA, in July 1944 and began formal existence in December 1945.
• Its main functions are to foster global monetary cooperation, secure financial stability, facilitate international trade, and promote sustainable economic growth.
• The organization is based in Washington, D.C., and provides loans and technical assistance to its 190 member countries.

Important Points

• The UN Security Council is responsible for maintaining international peace and consists of 15 members: 5 permanent members (China, France, Russian Federation, the United Kingdom, and the United States) and 10 non-permanent members elected for two-year terms.
• The UN Day is celebrated every year on October 24 to mark the anniversary of the entry into force of the UN Charter in 1945.
• The United Nations headquarters is situated on international territory in New York City, although the land was donated by the Rockefeller family.

The correct answer is National Gatka Association of India.

Key Points

• The 2^nd Federation Gatka Cup 2025 was organized by the National Gatka Association of India (NGAI), which is the apex body for the sport in the country.
• The tournament was held in Bengaluru, Karnataka, in November 2025, marking a major step in promoting traditional martial arts in South India.
• The event featured Gatkadars (players) from various states, competing in both Soti (stick) and Farri (shield) categories to demonstrate agility and skill.
• The National Gatka Association of India is responsible for standardizing the rules and regulations of Gatka to transform it from a traditional martial art into a recognized competitive sport.
• The NGAI works under the aegis of the World Gatka Federation to ensure the sport gains international visibility and follows a professional format.

Additional Information

• Gatka Martial Art:
• Gatka is a traditional Sikh martial art that originated in the 15^th century in the Punjab region.
• It was primarily developed by the Sikh Gurus, particularly Guru Hargobind Ji and Guru Gobind Singh Ji, for self-defense and training of the Khalsa warriors.
• The sport uses a Soti (a wooden stick made of bamboo) and a Farri (a leather shield) as the primary equipment for sparring.
• Recognition as a National Sport:
• The Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India, has officially recognized Gatka as a national sport.
• It was included in the Khelo India Youth Games starting from the 2021 edition, which significantly boosted its popularity among the youth across India.
• In 2023, Gatka made its debut as a medal sport in the 37^th National Games held in Goa.

Important Points

• The National Gatka Association of India (NGAI) was established in 2001 and is led by Harjeet Singh Grewal, who has been instrumental in creating a National Rulebook for the sport.
• The NGAI is affiliated with the International Sikh Martial Arts Academy (ISMAA), which provides technical support and training for referees and coaches.
• Tournaments like the Federation Cup serve as vital platforms for selecting athletes for the World Gatka Championship and other international exhibitions.
• The 2025 tournament in Bengaluru highlighted the association's efforts to achieve secular participation and geographical diversity within the sport's ecosystem.

The correct answer is New Delhi.

Key Points

• The inaugural Fit India Carnival, a landmark event celebrating health and physical activity, was organized in New Delhi.
• This three-day celebration took place from March 14 to March 16, 2025, marking a significant milestone in the national fitness narrative.
• The venue for this pioneering event was the Major Dhyan Chand National Stadium, a premier multi-purpose sports facility located near India Gate.
• The event was spearheaded by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India, to foster a culture of wellness among citizens.
• The carnival served as a platform for sports exhibitions, wellness workshops, and interactive sessions featuring Olympians and fitness influencers to inspire the public.

Additional Information

• Fit India Movement:
• It was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on August 29, 2019, which coincides with National Sports Day.
• The movement aims to address the rising lifestyle diseases in India by promoting simple ways to stay fit and active in daily life.
• Significance of March 2025:
• The Fit India Carnival in 2025 was designed to move beyond traditional sports and include modern fitness trends like CrossFit, Zumba, and Aerial Yoga.
• It showcased the integration of technology in fitness, including wearable devices and AI-driven health monitoring.
• National Sports Day:
• Celebrated every year on August 29 to commemorate the birth anniversary of hockey legend Major Dhyan Chand.
• The stadium in New Delhi where the carnival was held is named in his honor to recognize his contribution to Indian sports.
• Collaborative Efforts:
• The initiative involves collaboration between the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and the Ministry of Education to implement fitness protocols in schools and colleges.
• Programs like Fit India School Week and Fit India Quiz have been successful in engaging millions of students across the country.
• Infrastructure in New Delhi:
• As the host city, New Delhi offers world-class facilities such as the Indira Gandhi Arena and Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium, which frequently host national and international sports events.

Important Points

• Fit India Freedom Run: One of the most popular campaigns under the movement, encouraging citizens to run at their own pace and location to promote cardiovascular health.
• Age Group Focus: The movement is inclusive, targeting children (5-18 years), adults (18-65 years), and senior citizens (above 65 years) with tailored fitness protocols.
• Holistic Wellness: The 2025 carnival emphasized mental health alongside physical fitness, including meditation and stress management clinics.
• Economic Impact: The promotion of such events boosts the Indian fitness industry, which includes gyms, health tech startups, and sports apparel brands.

The correct answer is FAO.

Key Points

• The report titled the State of the World’s Forests (SOFO) is a flagship publication released by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations.
• It is published biennially (every two years) and provides a comprehensive overview of the status of the world's forests, forest policy developments, and the contribution of forestry to sustainable development.
• The 2024-2025 reporting focus typically emphasizes the role of forest-sector innovations in addressing global challenges like climate change, biodiversity loss, and sustainable resource management.
• The report serves as a critical data source for tracking progress toward the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), particularly SDG 15 (Life on Land), and the Global Forest Goals of the United Nations Strategic Plan for Forests.
• The FAO utilizes data from the Global Forest Resources Assessment (FRA) to compile these reports, ensuring that international policymakers have access to science-based evidence for forest conservation and restoration.

Additional Information

• Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO):
• Established on October 16, 1945, the FAO is a specialized agency of the United Nations that leads international efforts to defeat hunger.
• Its headquarters are located in Rome, Italy, and it operates in over 130 countries worldwide.
• The FAO is responsible for monitoring global agriculture, forestry, and fisheries, providing a platform for nations to negotiate agreements and debate policy.
• International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN):
• Founded in 1948 and headquartered in Gland, Switzerland, it is known for maintaining the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
• It brings together government and civil society organizations to protect nature and accelerate the transition to sustainable development.
• United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP):
• Established in June 1972 following the Stockholm Conference, it is headquartered in Nairobi, Kenya.
• It acts as the global authority that sets the environmental agenda and promotes the coherent implementation of the environmental dimension of sustainable development within the UN system.
• World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF):
• An international non-governmental organization founded in 1961, headquartered in Gland, Switzerland.
• It focuses on wilderness preservation and the reduction of human impact on the environment, famously publishing the Living Planet Report every two years.
• Global Forest Resources Assessment (FRA):
• Coordinated by the FAO, the FRA provides essential data on the world's forest resources every five years, complementing the biennial SOFO reports.

The correct answer is Kaziranga National Park.

Key Points

• Kaziranga National Park and Tiger Reserve (KNPTR), located in the state of Assam, conducted its inaugural grassland bird survey in early 2025.
• The survey was a milestone in avian conservation, recording a total of 43 grassland bird species within the park's unique ecosystem.
• The exercise highlighted the park as a leading grassland bird habitat, specifically identifying rare and threatened species such as the Finn’s Weaver and the Bengal Florican.
• This census was part of a broader effort to monitor biodiversity beyond the park's famous megafauna, using the point count method across multiple ranges including Kohora, Bagori, and Agoratoli.
• The documentation of Finn's Weaver is particularly significant as it is one of the rarest weaver birds in the world, with very few viable populations remaining in the Terai and Brahmaputra floodplains.

Additional Information

• Kaziranga National Park:
• It was declared a World Heritage Site by UNESCO in 1985.
• It is home to two-thirds of the world's population of the Great One-horned Rhinoceros.
• The park is situated on the banks of the Brahmaputra River and is characterized by tall elephant grass, marshland, and dense tropical moist broadleaf forests.
• Bengal Florican (Houbaropsis bengalensis):
• It is listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List.
• This bird is a grassland specialist and serves as an indicator species for the health of the alluvial grassland ecosystem.
• Other National Parks in Options:
• Dudhwa National Park: Located in Lakhimpur Kheri, Uttar Pradesh, it is part of the Terai Arc Landscape and also hosts the Bengal Florican, but it was not the site of the specific 43-species survey mentioned for 2025.
• Desert National Park: Situated in Rajasthan near Jaisalmer, it is the primary habitat for the Great Indian Bustard (another grassland bird) rather than the Bengal Florican.
• Keoladeo National Park: Located in Bharatpur, Rajasthan, it is a UNESCO World Heritage Site famous primarily as a wetland habitat for migratory waterfowl like the Siberian Crane (formerly).

Important Points

• Conservation Status: The Finn's Weaver is classified as Endangered, and its discovery in high numbers during the 2025 survey reinforces the importance of Kaziranga as a crucial conservation hub.
• Survey Methodology: The 2025 survey involved over 100 volunteers and forest officials, covering approximately 20-25 square kilometers of intense grassland patches to ensure accurate data collection.
• Habitat Management: The success of these bird populations is often attributed to the controlled grassland burning and management practices carried out by the Assam Forest Department to maintain the short-grass and tall-grass mosaic.
• BirdLife International: Kaziranga has also been identified as an Important Bird Area (IBA) by BirdLife International due to its role in the conservation of globally threatened avian species.

The correct answer is Data for Development.

Key Points

• The Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation (MoSPI) recently unveiled its new logo, which symbolizes the modernization of the national statistical system and its alignment with India’s journey toward becoming a developed nation.
• The core theme conveyed by the new logo is “Data for Development,” emphasizing that accurate and timely official statistics are the backbone of national progress and socio-economic planning.
• The logo is designed to represent the integration of data and technology, reflecting the ministry’s mission to provide reliable, timely, and credible data for evidence-based policy-making.
• This rebranding highlights the importance of the National Statistical Office (NSO) in capturing the diverse realities of the country through numbers, which eventually drive sustainable development and equitable growth.
• The unveiling of the logo coincided with the ministry’s efforts to enhance data transparency and accessibility, ensuring that statistical insights are available to citizens, researchers, and policymakers alike to foster an informed society.

Additional Information

• Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation (MoSPI):
• MoSPI was created as an independent ministry in 1999 following the merger of the Department of Statistics and the Department of Programme Implementation.
• It serves as the nodal agency for the planned development of the statistical system in India, ensuring the quality of statistics released and maintaining international standards.
• The ministry is responsible for key economic indicators such as the Consumer Price Index (CPI), the Index of Industrial Production (IIP), and Gross Domestic Product (GDP) estimates.
• National Statistics Day:
• India celebrates National Statistics Day every year on 29^th June.
• This date marks the birth anniversary of Prof. Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis, who is widely regarded as the Father of Indian Statistics and the founder of the Indian Statistical Institute (ISI).
• The day is dedicated to sensitizing the public, especially the younger generation, about the role and importance of statistics in socio-economic planning and policy formulation.
• Structural Components:
• The ministry consists of two main wings: the National Statistical Office (NSO) and the Programme Implementation Wing.
• The NSO is further divided into the Central Statistics Office (CSO) and the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO), which conduct large-scale surveys on employment, expenditure, and industrial activities.
• The Programme Implementation Wing monitors the performance of infrastructure sectors and the implementation of the Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS).
• Digital Initiatives:
• To support the “Data for Development” theme, the ministry launched the e-Sankhyiki Portal in 2024.
• This portal acts as a centralized repository for national indicators and official statistics, significantly improving the ease of doing research and enhancing public service delivery through data.
• The integration of Artificial Intelligence (AI) and Machine Learning (ML) in data processing is a key feature of the ministry's vision for a Digital India.

The correct answer is ₹15,000.

Key Points

• ICICI Bank, one of India's leading private sector lenders, has announced a revision in the minimum average monthly balance (MAB) requirements for its savings account holders.
• From 1 August 2025, the new MAB requirement for savings accounts in metro and urban areas will be ₹15,000.
• Prior to this revision, the required minimum average monthly balance for these geographical locations was typically set at ₹10,000.
• This specific update is applicable to new customers who initiate their banking relationship with ICICI Bank on or after the 1^st of August, 2025.
• The bank's decision to increase the MAB is part of its periodic review of service charges and operational costs associated with maintaining liquid savings accounts in high-cost areas.

Additional Information

• Geographical Classification: Banks in India categorize branches into Metro, Urban, Semi-Urban, and Rural tiers to determine different MAB thresholds based on the local economic landscape.
• MAB Calculation: The Minimum Average Monthly Balance is calculated by adding the daily closing balances of the account for every day in a calendar month and dividing the total by the number of days in that month.
• Non-Maintenance Charges: If a customer fails to maintain the stipulated ₹15,000 balance, ICICI Bank levies a non-maintenance charge. This penalty is usually a percentage of the shortfall between the actual balance and the required MAB.
• Exempted Accounts: Certain types of accounts, such as Salary Accounts, Basic Savings Bank Deposit Accounts (BSBDA), and Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) accounts, are typically zero-balance accounts and do not require an MAB.
• Industry Trends: Other major private banks like HDFC Bank and Axis Bank also periodically adjust their minimum balance requirements to align with inflation and the rising costs of digital banking infrastructure.

Important Points

• Implementation Date: The change is strictly scheduled for 1 August 2025, and customers opening accounts before this date may be governed by the previous schedule of charges until further notice.
• Customer Communication: Regulators like the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) mandate that banks must inform customers of any change in service charges or balance requirements at least 30 days in advance.
• Tiered Services: Higher MAB requirements often come with added benefits such as a higher number of free ATM transactions, discounted locker rentals, and personalized wealth management services.

p>The correct answer is Trachoma.

Key Points

• India achieved a landmark in global public health in June 2025 when the World Health Organization (WHO) officially declared the elimination of Trachoma as a public health problem in the country.
• Trachoma is a neglected tropical disease (NTD) caused by infection with the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis, which is the leading infectious cause of blindness worldwide.
• The elimination of this disease follows decades of persistent efforts under the National Trachoma Control Program, which was first launched by the Government of India in 1963.
• India successfully implemented the WHO-recommended SAFE strategy, which stands for Surgery, Antibiotics, Facial cleanliness, and Environmental improvement, to curb the transmission and impact of the disease.
• With this validation, India has joined a growing list of countries that have eliminated this debilitating disease, significantly improving the quality of life and visual health for millions in endemic regions.

Additional Information

• Understanding the SAFE Strategy:
• Surgery: Used to treat trachomatous trichiasis, the advanced stage where eyelashes turn inward and scratch the eyeball.
• Antibiotics: Mass drug administration of Azithromycin is conducted to treat the community-wide pool of infection.
• Facial Cleanliness: Promotes hygiene to reduce the spread of the bacteria from one person to another.
• Environmental Improvement: Focuses on better access to water and sanitation (WASH) to eliminate breeding sites for flies that transmit the bacteria.
• Comparison with Other Diseases:
• Kala-azar (Visceral Leishmaniasis): India is on the verge of eliminating Kala-azar, having met the target of less than 1 case per 10,000 population at the block level, but formal WHO certification for the entire nation is a separate process.
• Lymphatic Filariasis: Commonly known as Elephantiasis, India has set a national goal to eliminate this disease by 2027, utilizing mass drug administration campaigns.
• Yaws: India was the first country in the world to be certified Yaws-free by the WHO in May 2016.
• Transmission and Impact: Trachoma is transmitted through contact with eye and nose discharges from infected people, particularly young children. It is also spread by flies that have been in contact with the eyes and noses of infected people. Left untreated, repeated infections lead to permanent corneal opacity and blindness.

Important Points

• Elimination Criteria: To be validated as having eliminated Trachoma as a public health problem, a country must prove that the prevalence of trachomatous inflammation—follicular (TF) in children aged 1–9 years is less than 5% in each formerly endemic district.
• Global Milestones: India is the 19^th country globally to be validated by the WHO for eliminating trachoma as a public health problem, a testament to the strength of the National Health Mission.
• Historical Context: Over the years, India has successfully eliminated several major diseases, including Smallpox (1977), Polio (2014), and Maternal and Neonatal Tetanus (2015), marking steady progress toward Universal Health Coverage.
• Economic Benefits: The elimination of Trachoma prevents the loss of productivity associated with vision impairment and blindness, providing a significant boost to the socio-economic development of rural and marginalized communities.

The correct answer is Jasprit Bumrah.

Key Points

• Jasprit Bumrah, the premier Indian fast bowler, has been recognized for his extraordinary dominance in the longest format of the game, particularly throughout the 2023-2024 cycle.
• In February 2024, Jasprit Bumrah created history by becoming the first Indian pacer to reach the Number 1 spot in the ICC Men’s Test Player Rankings.
• His performance in the Test series against England in 2024 was a major factor in this recognition, where he picked up 19 wickets in just three matches, including a match-winning 9-wicket haul in the Vizag Test.
• Bumrah's ability to perform across different conditions, from the pace-friendly tracks of South Africa to the spinning tracks of India, solidified his reputation as the world's most versatile red-ball bowler.
• The ICC Awards are presented annually to honor the best performers in international cricket; for the 2024 evaluation period, Bumrah's impact on Test Cricket was deemed the most significant among global nominees.

Additional Information

• International Cricket Council (ICC):
• The ICC is the global governing body for cricket, founded as the Imperial Cricket Conference in 1909.
• It is headquartered in Dubai, United Arab Emirates, and is responsible for organizing major global tournaments like the World Test Championship (WTC) and the ODI World Cup.
• Virat Kohli:
• While a legend in Test cricket, Virat Kohli was recently honored as the ICC Men’s ODI Cricketer of the Year 2023 following his record-breaking 765 runs in the 2023 ODI World Cup.
• Ravichandran Ashwin:
• The veteran off-spinner reached the historic milestone of 500 Test wickets in February 2024 during the Rajkot Test against England, becoming only the second Indian to do so after Anil Kumble.
• ICC Men's Test Cricketer of the Year Award:
• This prestigious award was introduced in 2004. Past winners include greats like Dale Steyn, Sachin Tendulkar, and Ricky Ponting.
• The award considers players' performances in Test matches over a 12-month period, evaluating wickets, runs, and match-winning contributions.
• Rohit Sharma:
• The current Indian Captain who led the team to the final of the ICC World Test Championship 2021-23 and the ICC Men's Cricket World Cup 2023.

Important Points

• Jasprit Bumrah is often referred to as a "generational talent" due to his unique bowling action and high-speed accuracy.
• In 2024, he became the fastest Indian pacer to reach 150 Test wickets, achieving the feat in just 34 matches.
• The ICC Test Rankings are updated weekly, but the ICC Annual Awards provide a cumulative recognition of a player's excellence over the entire calendar year or season.

The correct answer is 25 January 2025.

Key Points

• National Tourism Day in India is celebrated every year on 25 January to raise awareness about the importance of tourism for the country's economy and social development.
• In the year 2025, the day was celebrated on its traditional date of 25 January, which fell on a Saturday.
• The primary objective of this day is to highlight the cultural heritage, natural beauty, and diversity of India to both domestic and international tourists.
• The Ministry of Tourism, Government of India, acts as the nodal agency for organizing various events, seminars, and cultural programs across different states to mark this occasion.
• The celebration emphasizes Sustainable Tourism and encourages citizens to explore the vast landscapes of the nation, from the Himalayas to the backwaters of Kerala.

Additional Information

• World Tourism Day: Unlike the national celebration, World Tourism Day is observed globally on 27 September every year under the leadership of the United Nations World Tourism Organization (UNWTO).
• Economic Significance: The tourism sector is a vital component of India’s Service Sector, contributing significantly to the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and serving as a major source of Foreign Exchange Earnings.
• Government Initiatives: Schemes like Swadesh Darshan and PRASHAD (Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spiritual Augmentation Drive) have been launched to develop theme-based tourist circuits and rejuvenate pilgrimage sites.
• Dekho Apna Desh: This is an initiative by the Ministry of Tourism to promote domestic travel among Indians, urging them to visit at least 15 tourist destinations within India by the year 2022 (and continued as a recurring theme).
• Employment: The tourism industry is one of the largest employers in India, providing livelihoods to millions of people in hospitality, transportation, guiding, and handicrafts sectors.

Important Points

• Date History: While 25 January is dedicated to National Tourism Day, the same date is also observed as National Voters' Day in India to mark the foundation day of the Election Commission of India (established in 1950).
• Incredible India: The Incredible India campaign is the international marketing initiative by the Government of India to promote tourism in the country to a global audience.
• Diverse Tourism Products: India offers a wide range of tourism products including Medical Tourism, Eco-Tourism, Adventure Tourism, and Religious Tourism, which are highlighted during the celebrations.
• Statistical Data: In recent years, India has seen a steady rise in the Foreign Tourist Arrivals (FTAs), and the government aims to position India as a top global destination by 2030 through policy reforms and infrastructure development.

The correct answer is Dharali in Uttarkashi district, Uttarakhand.

Key Points

• Dharali village, located in the Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand, witnessed a devastating flash flood on 5 August 2025. The event was triggered by intense cloudbursts in the higher reaches of the Himalayas, causing the Kheer Ganga rivulet to overflow with immense force.
• The village is a significant transit point situated on the Gangotri National Highway (NH-34), approximately 20 kilometers before the Gangotri Dham. It is famous for its apple orchards and its proximity to the Bhagirathi River.
• The 2025 flash flood caused a massive torrent of water, mud, and debris to sweep through the settlement, leading to the burial of several houses and the blockage of the National Highway. This disaster disrupted the Char Dham Yatra, leaving hundreds of pilgrims stranded.
• Historically, Dharali and surrounding areas like Harsil have been vulnerable to such ecological disturbances due to their geographical location in the High Himalayan zone, where steep slopes and loose soil contribute to rapid debris flows during monsoon seasons.
• Joshimath is located in the Chamoli district and is primarily known for land subsidence issues rather than being on the direct route to Gangotri Dham. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Balta is a village in the Almora district, which is part of the Kumaon division, whereas the flood occurred in the Garhwal division. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Rudraprayag is a district headquarters at the confluence of the Alaknanda and Mandakini rivers, serving as the gateway to Kedarnath, not the specific village devastated on the Gangotri route in this context. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Uttarkashi District: Established on 24 February 1960, it is one of the northernmost districts of India, sharing an international border with Tibet (China). It houses the origins of the Ganga (at Gangotri) and Yamuna (at Yamunotri) rivers.
• Gangotri Dham: One of the four sites in the Chota Char Dham pilgrimage. The temple is dedicated to Goddess Ganga and is located at an elevation of 3,100 meters. The region is ecologically sensitive and falls under the Gangotri National Park administration.
• Cloudburst Dynamics: A cloudburst is an extreme amount of precipitation in a short period (usually exceeding 100 mm per hour). In the Himalayas, these are frequent during the monsoon months (July to September) due to the orographic lifting of moisture-laden winds.
• Harsil Valley: Located very close to Dharali, Harsil is known as the "Mini Switzerland of India." It sits at an altitude of 2,620 meters and is inhabited by the Bhotia tribe. The area is critical for border security and tourism.

Important Points

• Disaster Management: Following the 2025 flood, the State Disaster Response Force (SDRF) and National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) conducted extensive operations. Under the Disaster Management Act, 2005, the district administration is empowered to evacuate vulnerable zones.
• Geological Vulnerability: The Main Central Thrust (MCT) passes through the Uttarkashi region, making it seismically active (Zone V) and prone to landslides. The 1991 Uttarkashi earthquake (magnitude 6.8) remains one of the most significant tectonic events in this area.
• National Highway 34: This highway connects Rishikesh to Gangotri. Constant maintenance is required due to the fragile shale and schist rock formations that frequently collapse during heavy rains.
• Ecological Impact: The accumulation of debris in the Bhagirathi River can lead to the formation of temporary artificial lakes, which pose a downstream threat of Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOF) or flash floods if the blockages burst suddenly.