General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Hanoi.

Key Points

• The 15^th edition of the India-Vietnam Defence Policy Dialogue (DPD) was scheduled to be held in Hanoi, Vietnam, in November 2025.
• This high-level dialogue serves as a cornerstone for reviewing the progress of bilateral defence cooperation between the two nations, which have historically shared strong ties.
• The meeting is typically co-chaired by the Defence Secretary of India and the Deputy Defence Minister of Vietnam, reflecting the high priority both countries accord to their security partnership.
• Key discussions during this 15^th edition focused on deepening collaboration in areas such as maritime security, cyber security, military training, and the defence industry.
• The dialogue aims to align the strategic interests of both nations in the Indo-Pacific region, ensuring a stable and rules-based international order. Hence, the correct answer is Hanoi.

Additional Information

• Comprehensive Strategic Partnership:
• The relationship between India and Vietnam was upgraded to a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership in September 2016 during the visit of the Indian Prime Minister to Vietnam.
• This status is Vietnam's highest tier of diplomatic partnership, shared with only a few other countries like Russia, China, and South Korea.
• Joint Vision Statement 2030:
• During the 13^th DPD and subsequent high-level visits, both nations signed the "Joint Vision Statement on India-Vietnam Defence Partnership towards 2030".
• This document significantly enhances the scope and scale of existing defence cooperation, focusing on mutual logistics support and capacity building.
• Maritime Security and South China Sea:
• India and Vietnam share common concerns regarding the freedom of navigation and overflight in the South China Sea.
• India has consistently supported a peaceful resolution of disputes in the region based on UNCLOS 1982.

Important Points

• Defence Exercises:
• VINBAX is the annual bilateral military exercise between the Indian Army and the Vietnam People’s Army, which focuses on UN Peacekeeping Operations and humanitarian assistance.
• Line of Credit (LoC):
• India extended a $100 million Defence Line of Credit to Vietnam for the procurement of 12 High-Speed Guard Boats for the Vietnam Border Guard, demonstrating commitment to Vietnam's maritime capacity.
• Historical Context:
• Diplomatic relations were established in 1972, and the two countries celebrated 50 years of diplomatic ties in 2022.
• Vietnam is a key pillar of India's Act East Policy and an essential partner in the Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI)$.

The correct answer is 99^th.

Key Points

• India has achieved the 99^th rank in the 2025 Sustainable Development Report (SDR), also known as the SDG Index, which evaluates the progress of 167 countries toward the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
• The index is released annually by the UN Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN), an organization that has been tracking the performance of UN member states since the adoption of the 2030 Agenda in 2015.
• India’s jump to the 99^th position signifies a notable improvement in its overall score, reflecting advancements in various socio-economic and environmental indicators compared to previous years.
• The 2025 report highlights India's steady progress in areas such as Goal 12 (Responsible Consumption and Production) and Goal 13 (Climate Action), although challenges remain in achieving Goal 2 (Zero Hunger) and Goal 5 (Gender Equality).
• The Sustainable Development Report provides a comprehensive data-driven assessment of how close each nation is to achieving the 17 goals established by the United Nations General Assembly.

Additional Information

• Understanding the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs):
• The SDGs consist of 17 interlinked global goals designed to be a "blueprint to achieve a better and more sustainable future for all" by the year 2030.
• These goals were adopted by all 193 UN Member States in September 2015 during the United Nations Sustainable Development Summit.
• Global Rankings and Leaders:
• In the 2025 Index, Nordic countries like Finland, Sweden, and Denmark continue to lead the rankings, demonstrating high performance across almost all environmental and social targets.
• The report emphasizes that while developed nations rank higher, they often generate significant negative international spillovers that affect the ability of developing nations to reach their goals.
• India's Internal Monitoring - SDG India Index:
• In addition to global rankings, NITI Aayog in India publishes the SDG India Index to track the performance of States and Union Territories.
• This domestic index aligns with the National Indicator Framework (NIF) and helps foster competitive federalism by ranking states like Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and Himachal Pradesh as front-runners in sustainability.
• The Role of SDSN:
• The UN Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN) was set up in 2012 under the auspices of the UN Secretary-General.
• It mobilizes global scientific and technological expertise to promote practical solutions for sustainable development, including the implementation of the Paris Agreement on Climate Change.

Important Points

• Key Data Facts: The SDG Index uses a scale of 0 to 100, where 100 represents the optimum score (full goal achievement). India’s progress from being ranked 112^th in 2024 (estimated) to 99^th in 2025 shows a significant upward trajectory in its SDG Dashboard.
• Challenges Identified: Despite the improved rank, the 2025 report warns that global progress has stalled for the third year in a row due to geopolitical tensions and economic fluctuations following the COVID-19 pandemic.
• Future Targets: India aims to reach net-zero carbon emissions by 2070, a commitment made at COP26, which remains a critical component of its long-term strategy for Goal 7 (Affordable and Clean Energy) and Goal 13.

The correct answer is Shaili Singh.

Key Points

• In April 2025, the young Indian athlete Shaili Singh showcased an exceptional performance at the National Federation Cup Athletics championships.
• The event was hosted at the Maharaja's College Ground in Ernakulam (Kochi), Kerala, which is a historic venue for track and field events in India.
• Shaili Singh recorded a massive jump of 6.64 m, which, according to the competition context, broke a 23-year-old record previously held by the legendary Anju Bobby George at this specific meet. Hence, the statement regarding her record-breaking jump is correct.
• She is a protégé of the Anju Bobby George Foundation and has been consistently performing at the highest domestic and international levels in the Long Jump category.
• The National Federation Cup serves as a critical selection trial for Indian athletes aiming for international assignments like the Asian Athletics Championships and the World Athletics Championships.

Additional Information

• Shaili Singh:
• Born on January 7, 2004, in Jhansi, Uttar Pradesh, she is considered one of the brightest prospects in Indian athletics.
• She is coached by Robert Bobby George, who is the husband and former coach of Anju Bobby George.
• In 2021, she won the Silver Medal at the World Athletics U20 Championships held in Nairobi, Kenya, with a jump of 6.59 m.
• Her personal best of 6.76 m (achieved in 2023) is the second-longest jump by an Indian woman, trailing only behind her mentor's national record.
• Anju Bobby George:
• She is the first Indian athlete to win a medal at the World Championships in Athletics, securing a Bronze in Paris in 2003.
• Her national record of 6.83 m was set at the 2004 Athens Olympics, where she finished fifth (later upgraded to fourth).
• She was awarded the Padma Shri in 2004 and the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna in 2003 for her contributions to sports.

Important Points

• Other Options Analysis:
• Ancy Sojan: A talented long jumper from Kerala who has been a close competitor to Shaili Singh, frequently crossing the 6.50 m mark in domestic circuits.
• Priyanka Goswami: An Indian athlete who specializes in the 20 km Race Walk. She represented India at the Tokyo 2020 Olympics and won a Silver Medal at the 2022 Commonwealth Games.
• D Sudha Singh: An Indian Olympic athlete who competes in the 3000 m Steeplechase event. She is an Asian Games Gold medalist (2010 Guangzhou) and a two-time Olympian.
• Significance of the venue: The Maharaja's College Ground in Ernakulam is renowned for its synthetic track and has been a breeding ground for several international athletes from Kerala.

The correct answer is Indian Grand Prix 1.

Key Points

• Gurindervir Singh, a prominent sprinter from Punjab, achieved a significant milestone at the Indian Grand Prix 1.
• The competition was held at the Netaji Subhash National Institute of Sports (NSNIS) in Patiala on February 18, 2021.
• In the 100m sprint event, he clocked a timing of 10.32 seconds, which was his personal best at the time and one of the fastest timings recorded in the domestic circuit for that season.
• By winning this race, he defeated the reigning national record holder Amiya Kumar Mallick, who finished the race in 10.39 seconds to take the silver medal.
• His performance at the Indian Grand Prix 1 served as a crucial season opener, demonstrating his potential to represent India at high-level international athletic meets.

Additional Information

• Athletics Federation of India (AFI):
• The AFI is the apex body for athletics in India and is responsible for organizing the Indian Grand Prix series.
• It is affiliated with World Athletics and the Asian Athletics Association, ensuring that domestic results are recognized for Olympic and World Championship qualifications.
• National Record in 100m:
• The official national record for the men's 100m sprint was established by Amiya Kumar Mallick with a time of 10.26 seconds in 2016.
• Later, in 2023, Manikanta Hoblidhar improved this record by clocking 10.23 seconds at the National Open Athletics Championships.
• Other Competition Formats:
• The South Asian Championships and Asian Games are international multi-sport events where Indian athletes compete against other nations.
• The Olympic Trials are specific qualifying events used to select the final contingent for the Summer Olympics, often held under the banner of the National Inter-State Athletics Championships.

Important Points

• Career Highlights: Gurindervir Singh has been a standout performer since his junior days, winning gold at the Asian Youth Athletics Championships in 2017.
• Training and Facilities: Most elite sprinters in India, including Gurindervir, utilize the high-performance centers in Patiala and Bengaluru for advanced training under national and international coaches.
• Significance of IGP: The Indian Grand Prix (IGP) series usually consists of multiple legs (e.g., IGP 1, 2, 3, and 4) which provide athletes with consistent competitive exposure throughout the year.

The correct answer is Shri Sanjay Malhotra.

Key Points

• Shri Sanjay Malhotra assumed the role of the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) following the conclusion of the tenure of his predecessor. As of August 2025, he continues to lead India's central banking institution.
• He is a distinguished 1990-batch Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officer of the Rajasthan cadre. His appointment was cleared by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) for a standard tenure of three years.
• Prior to his elevation as the RBI Governor, he served as the Secretary in the Department of Revenue under the Ministry of Finance, where he played a pivotal role in tax policy and administration.
• He took over the reins from Shaktikanta Das, who served a significant term including an extension. Shri Malhotra is the 26^th Governor of the Reserve Bank of India.
• As the Governor, he acts as the Chief Executive Officer of the bank and the ex-officio Chairperson of the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC), which is tasked with maintaining price stability and controlling inflation.

Additional Information

• Reserve Bank of India (RBI):
• Established on April 1, 1935, under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, based on the recommendations of the Hilton Young Commission.
• The Central Office was initially in Kolkata but was permanently moved to Mumbai in 1937.
• The bank was nationalized in 1949, making it fully owned by the Government of India.
• Structure of RBI Governance:
• The bank's affairs are governed by a Central Board of Directors. This board is appointed by the Government of India in keeping with the Reserve Bank of India Act.
• The board consists of the Governor and not more than four Deputy Governors, along with non-official directors nominated by the government.
• Functions of the Governor:
• The Governor is responsible for the overall direction and management of the bank. He signs the currency notes (except the one-rupee note, which is signed by the Finance Secretary).
• The Governor represents India at various international forums such as the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the Bank for International Settlements (BIS).

Important Points

• Historical Context:
• The first Governor of the RBI was Sir Osborne Smith (1935–1937).
• The first Indian to serve as the Governor was C.D. Deshmukh (1943–1949).
• Manmohan Singh is the only Prime Minister of India who also served as the Governor of the RBI (1982–1985).
• Other Noted Personalities (Options):
• Dr. Poonam Gupta: She is the Director General of the National Council of Applied Economic Research (NCAER) and was the first woman to hold this prestigious position.
• Shri Saugata Bhattacharya: A prominent economist who has held senior positions at Axis Bank and has been a member of the PM’s Economic Advisory Council.
• Dr. Nagesh Kumar: A renowned economist serving as the Director of the Institute for Studies in Industrial Development (ISID) and a former Director at UN-ESCAP.
• Key Responsibilities: The Governor manages foreign exchange reserves, acts as a banker to the government, and regulates the banking system under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.

The correct answer is Iranian–Russian Treaty on Comprehensive Strategic Partnership.

Key Points

• The Iranian–Russian Treaty on Comprehensive Strategic Partnership is a historic bilateral agreement signed in January 2025 between the Russian Federation and the Islamic Republic of Iran.
• The treaty was signed by the presidents of both nations in Tehran, marking a significant milestone in their diplomatic history and replacing the outdated 2001 Treaty on the Principles of Relations and Cooperation.
• The scope of the pact is exceptionally broad, covering critical areas such as defense and security, energy, cybersecurity, transportation, and regional stability.
• This partnership aims to elevate the relationship from tactical cooperation to a comprehensive strategic alliance, reflecting the shared vision of both nations regarding geopolitical sovereignty and mutual protection.
• It emphasizes the military-technical cooperation between the two countries, which includes the potential for joint development of advanced weaponry, drone technology, and satellite communication systems.

Additional Information

• Energy and Natural Resources:
• The treaty facilitates deep cooperation in the oil and gas sectors, including natural gas swaps and joint investments in hydrocarbon extraction within the Caspian Sea and Persian Gulf regions.
• Russia, being one of the world's largest energy producers, and Iran, holding some of the largest natural gas reserves, seek to coordinate global energy prices and supply chains through this framework.
• Economic and Financial Integration:
• To bypass Western sanctions, the agreement promotes the use of local currencies (the Ruble and the Rial) in bilateral trade, reducing dependency on the US Dollar.
• The integration of Russia's Mir and Iran's Shetab payment systems is a key component of this economic strategy to facilitate seamless banking transactions.
• Transportation and Connectivity:
• A major highlight of the partnership is the acceleration of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a 7,200-km multi-modal network of ship, rail, and road routes.
• The INSTC connects India, Iran, Azerbaijan, and Russia, serving as a strategic alternative to the Suez Canal for trade between Asia and Europe.

Important Points

• Geopolitical Context: The treaty comes at a time when both Russia and Iran face extensive economic sanctions from the United States and the European Union, pushing them toward a multipolar world order.
• Cybersecurity and Information: The pact includes specific clauses on cyber defense, aimed at protecting critical infrastructure from foreign cyberattacks and collaborating on data sovereignty.
• Regional Stability: Both nations have committed to coordinating their efforts in West Asia and the South Caucasus to prevent external interference and combat terrorism.
• Space Cooperation: The agreement also touches upon space exploration, including the launching of Iranian satellites using Russian rockets and the establishment of ground stations for GLONASS (Russia's GPS equivalent).

The correct answer is Sagarmala Finance Corporation Ltd..

Key Points

• The Sagarmala Finance Corporation Ltd. (SFCL) was officially launched in June 2025 as a dedicated financial institution to provide long-term and low-cost credit to India's maritime and blue economy sectors.
• It functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, aiming to bridge the massive funding gap in port-led development projects.
• The primary objective of SFCL is to offer specialized financial products tailored for shipbuilding, port modernization, inland waterways, and coastal shipping initiatives.
• The institution was established to support the capital-intensive nature of the maritime sector, which often faced challenges in securing competitive interest rates from traditional commercial banks.
• By providing structured financing, SFCL plays a pivotal role in achieving the goals set under the Amrit Kaal Vision 2047, which envisions a sustainable and globally competitive Indian maritime sector.

Additional Information

• Sagarmala Programme:
• Launched in March 2015, it is the flagship program of the Government of India to promote port-led development by exploiting India's 7,517 km long coastline and navigable waterways.
• It focuses on four pillars: Port Modernization, Port Connectivity, Port-led Industrialization, and Coastal Community Development.
• Maritime India Vision 2030:
• Released in March 2021, this 10-year blueprint outlines the development of the maritime sector with an estimated investment of Rs. 3 lakh crore.
• It aims to improve operational efficiency and increase the share of renewable energy in the maritime sector to over 60%.
• Blue Economy:
• This refers to the sustainable use of ocean resources for economic growth, encompassing sectors like fisheries, maritime transport, renewable energy, and waste management.
• India’s maritime sector accounts for approximately 95% of the country’s trade by volume and 70% by value.

Important Points

• Logistics Efficiency: One of the core targets of financing through SFCL is to reduce logistics costs in India from the current 14-16% of GDP to a more competitive 8-10%.
• Shipbuilding and Repair: Under the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative, SFCL provides financial assistance to boost domestic shipbuilding and ship-breaking industries, aiming to place India among the top 10 shipbuilding nations by 2030.
• Strategic Funding: The corporation is expected to leverage private sector participation through Public-Private Partnership (PPP) models, ensuring that high-impact projects receive the necessary fiscal backing.
• Global Context: The establishment of such a bank aligns India with other major maritime nations like Norway and China, which have specialized financial bodies to support their oceanic economic activities.

The correct answer is Parvati Tirkey.

Key Points

• Parvati Tirkey, a distinguished tribal poet from Jharkhand, was selected for the prestigious Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar in June 2025.
• She received this recognition for her debut collection of poems titled ‘Phir Ugna’, which is written in Hindi.
• The collection ‘Phir Ugna’ is noted for its deep exploration of tribal identity, the pain of displacement, and the symbiotic relationship between nature and indigenous communities.
• Originally hailing from the Gumla district of Jharkhand, Parvati Tirkey belongs to the Oraon (Kurukh) tribe, and her work brings the lived experiences of her community to the forefront of mainstream Indian literature.
• The Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar is a literary honor in India which the Sahitya Akademi annually confers on young writers of outstanding merit in any of the 24 major Indian languages.

Additional Information

• Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar:
• This award was established in 2011 to recognize and promote young authors under the age of 35.
• The award consists of a casket containing an engraved copper plaque and a purse of Rs. 50,000.
• The selection is made by a three-member jury in each language, following a rigorous process of nomination and evaluation.
• Other Notable Winners Mentioned:
• Akhil P Dharmajan: A popular writer from Kerala who was recognized for his Malayalam novel 'Ram C/O Anandhi', which gained significant traction on social media.
• Kirtida Brahmbhatt: An author recognized for her contributions to Gujarati literature.
• Mayur Khavdu: Another recipient honored for his literary work in the Gujarati language.
• Literary Context of Jharkhand:
• Jharkhand has a rich tradition of tribal literature that focuses on "Jal, Jangal, Jameen" (Water, Forest, Land).
• Poets like Parvati Tirkey follow the legacy of other Sahitya Akademi winners from the state, contributing to the Hindi and regional language literary canons.

Important Points

• Selection Criteria: To be eligible for the Yuva Puraskar, the author must be an Indian national and must not have exceeded 35 years of age as of January 1^st of the year of the award.
• The Sahitya Akademi: It was founded on March 12, 1954, and is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India. It is headquartered at Rabindra Bhavan in New Delhi.
• Scope of Languages: The Akademi recognizes works in 24 languages, which include the 22 languages listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, plus English and Rajasthani.

The Correct answer is Vyommitra.

Key Points

• Vyommitra is India's first humanoid robot designed specifically for space missions.
• It was developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), showcasing advancements in space technology.
• Vyommitra is a female humanoid robot that can mimic human actions and perform specific tasks in space environments.
• The name "Vyommitra" is derived from Sanskrit, where "Vyom" means space and "Mitra" means friend, symbolizing a "friend in space."
• It is intended to be deployed in unmanned space missions, including the Gaganyaan mission, serving as a precursor to human spaceflight.
• The humanoid can perform crew functions, like operating control panels, environmental monitoring, and providing feedback to mission controllers.
• Vyommitra is equipped with advanced artificial intelligence and sensors to interact with astronauts and provide assistance during space missions.
• It is designed to handle microgravity conditions, making it suitable for tasks in the challenging environment of outer space.
• This innovation marks India’s stride in advancing robotics and human-robot interaction for space exploration.

Additional Information

• Vikram
• Vikram is the name of the lander used in Chandrayaan-2, India’s lunar exploration mission.
• It is named after Dr. Vikram Sarabhai, the father of the Indian space program.
• Vikram was designed to land on the lunar surface and conduct scientific experiments, but it is not a humanoid robot.
• Suryamitra
• Suryamitra is an initiative by India to train solar technicians under the National Institute of Solar Energy (NISE).
• The program aims to create skilled manpower for the solar energy sector in India.
• It is not related to space missions or humanoid robotics.
• Aditya
• Aditya is the name of India’s first solar mission, also known as Aditya-L1.
• The mission aims to study the solar corona, solar emissions, and other solar phenomena.
• It is not a humanoid robot but a spacecraft designed for scientific research on the Sun.

The correct answer is Francesco Fortunato.

Key Points

• The Italian race walker Francesco Fortunato made history at the Italian Indoor Championships held in Ancona in February 2025 by setting a new World Indoor Record in the 5000 m race walk.
• He clocked a remarkable time of 18:03.01, shattering the previous world indoor mark that had stood for three decades.
• The previous record of 18:07.08 was held by the Russian athlete Mikhail Shchennikov, which was set in 1995.
• This performance took place at the Pala Indoor stadium in Ancona, which is the traditional home for the Italian Athletics Indoor Championships.
• Francesco Fortunato represents the Fiamme Gialle (the sports section of the Italian Finance Guard) and has been a consistent performer for Italy in international athletics.

Additional Information

• Profile of Francesco Fortunato:
• He was born on December 13, 1994, in Andria, Italy.
• He is a specialist in the 20 km race walk and has represented Italy at the Tokyo 2020 Olympics and the Paris 2024 Olympics.
• His record-breaking feat in 2025 cements his position as one of the fastest walkers in the history of the sport, particularly in the shorter indoor formats.
• Race Walking Mechanics:
• Race walking is a long-distance foot race where athletes must always have one foot in contact with the ground.
• The advancing leg must be straightened (i.e., not bent at the knee) from the moment of first contact with the ground until the vertical upright position.
• Judges monitor these two rules strictly, and three red cards lead to disqualification.
• Other Athletes in the Options:
• Evan Dunfee: A highly decorated Canadian race walker who won the bronze medal in the 50 km race walk at the Tokyo 2020 Olympics.
• Toshikazu Yamanishi: A Japanese athlete who is a two-time World Champion (2019 and 2022) in the 20 km race walk.
• Matteo Giupponi: Another prominent Italian race walker who won the bronze medal at the 2022 European Athletics Championships.

Important Points

• Significance of the Record: The 5000 m indoor event is a test of extreme speed and technical precision, often used by outdoor specialists to build anaerobic capacity during the winter season.
• Venue Facts: The city of Ancona, located in the Marche region of Italy, hosts the National Indoor Championships almost every year due to its state-of-the-art 200-meter banked track facilities.
• Governing Bodies: Records in this discipline are ratified by World Athletics (formerly IAAF) and the FIDAL (Federazione Italiana di Atletica Leggera) at the national level.
• Historical Context: Before Fortunato's achievement, the 18-minute barrier was considered nearly impossible for the 5000 m indoor walk; his time of 18:03.01 has brought the world closer to that historic milestone.

The correct answer is Modified Mixed Recall Period.

Key Points

• The State Bank of India (SBI) Research report, released in June 2025, highlighted that poverty in India has declined significantly, largely attributed to the updated methodology used in the Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES) 2022-23.
• The report emphasizes that the shift to the Modified Mixed Recall Period (MMRP) has provided a more accurate and realistic estimation of household consumption patterns compared to older methods.
• Under the MMRP, the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) collects data using three different time frames: a 7-day recall period for high-frequency items (like edible oil, eggs, fish, fruits, vegetables, and tobacco), a 30-day recall period for mid-frequency items (fuel, rent, and non-durable goods), and a 365-day recall period for durable goods (clothing, footwear, and education).
• The SBI report notes that the Gini Coefficient, which measures inequality, has also seen a decline, indicating that economic growth is becoming more inclusive across both rural and urban sectors.
• Based on the MMRP data, the report estimates that rural poverty has dropped to around 7.2% and urban poverty to 4.6%, bringing the national average to approximately 5% or lower.

Additional Information

• Uniform Recall Period (URP):
• In this method, the consumption data for all items is collected for a uniform 30-day recall period.
• This was the primary method used by the NSSO until the late 1990s but was criticized for underestimating the consumption of durable goods and overestimating the consumption of perishables due to recall bias.
• Mixed Recall Period (MRP):
• The MRP uses a 365-day recall period for five low-frequency categories (clothing, footwear, durable goods, education, and institutional medical expenses) and a 30-day recall period for all other items.
• This was the standard used in the 2011-12 poverty estimations but has been superseded by the more granular MMRP.
• Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES):
• The HCES is conducted by the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
• The 2022-23 survey was particularly significant as it was conducted after a gap of 11 years, following the junking of the 2017-18 survey data.
• Significance of Recall Periods:
• Shorter recall periods (like 7 days) for food items reduce memory lapse and provide more accurate data on nutritional intake.
• Longer recall periods for durables prevent "bulky" one-time expenditures from skewing the monthly average consumption.

Important Points

• Economic Impact: The transition to MMRP allows the Government of India to recalibrate the Consumer Price Index (CPI) basket, as it reflects current consumption habits where the share of food in the total budget has declined.
• World Bank Context: Many international organizations, including the World Bank and International Monetary Fund (IMF), monitor these methodological shifts to update Global Poverty counts and the $2.15-a-day (2017 PPP) poverty line.
• Data Fact: The SBI Ecowrap report specifically mentions that the decline in poverty is a result of government-led interventions such as the PM-GKAY (Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana), which provides free food grains to over 80 crore people$.

The correct answer is 8.86%.

Key Points

• In the Union Budget 2025-26, presented by Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on February 1, 2025, the allocation for gender-specific schemes reached a historic high of approximately 8.86% of the total expenditure.
• The total outlay for the Gender Budget Statement (GBS) for the fiscal year 2025-26 is estimated at ₹4.43 lakh crore, out of a total projected budget expenditure of ₹50.01 lakh crore.
• This allocation signifies a substantial increase from the previous fiscal year (2024-25), where the gender budget stood at approximately ₹3.10 lakh crore (around 6.5% of the total budget), reflecting the government's shift toward women-led development.
• The Gender Budget is categorized into two main parts: Part A, which includes schemes with 100% allocation for women, and Part B, which includes schemes where at least 30% of the allocation is dedicated to women.
• The primary objective of this increased funding is to enhance economic participation, ensure safety and security, and improve the socio-economic status of women across both rural and urban sectors.

Additional Information

• Gender Budgeting in India:
• India formally adopted Gender Budgeting in the year 2005-06 to ensure that the benefits of development reach women as much as men.
• It is not a separate budget for women but a tool to analyze the budgetary process through a gender lens to address disparities.
• Mission Shakti:
• This is an integrated women empowerment programme launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
• It consists of two sub-schemes: 'Sambal' (for safety and security, including One Stop Centres and Beti Bachao Beti Padhao) and 'Samarthya' (for empowerment, including Ujjwala and Swadhar Greh).
• Lakhpati Didi Scheme:
• The Union Budget 2025-26 continued its focus on the Lakhpati Didi initiative, aiming to empower 3 crore women in Self-Help Groups (SHGs) to earn an annual income of at least ₹1 lakh.
• As of 2025, nearly 1 crore women have already achieved this status through various skill development and micro-credit interventions.
• PM Awas Yojana (Grameen):
• Under this scheme, a significant portion of the Gender Budget is utilized as the government mandates that houses should be owned solely or jointly by women, thereby enhancing their asset-ownership and social standing.

Important Points

• Economic Impact: The 8.86% allocation is distributed across various ministries, including Rural Development, Education, and Health, to support women's health through schemes like PM Matru Vandana Yojana.
• Mudra Yojana: Under the PM Mudra Yojana, more than 70% of loans have been sanctioned to women entrepreneurs, fostering financial independence and entrepreneurship at the grassroots level.
• STEM Education: The budget highlights an increase in the enrollment of women in STEM (Science, Technology, Engineering, and Mathematics) courses, which currently stands at 43% in India, one of the highest in the world.
• Safety Initiatives: Funds under the Nirbhaya Fund and dedicated allocations for women police volunteers and fast-track special courts are crucial components of the security framework funded by the 2025-26 gender budget.

p>The correct answer is Chemically Contaminated Sites.

Key Points

• In July 2025, the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) officially notified the Environment Protection Rules, 2025, specifically targeting the management and remediation of Chemically Contaminated Sites.
• The primary objective of these rules is to provide a comprehensive legal framework for the identification, investigation, and decontamination of areas where hazardous substances have accumulated in the soil or groundwater.
• These rules are issued under the powers conferred by the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, which allows the Central Government to take measures to protect and improve the quality of the environment.
• The notification introduces strict protocols for the Remediation of Contaminated Sites, ensuring that toxic hotspots do not pose a continued threat to public health or the surrounding ecosystem.
• A significant feature of these rules is the enforcement of the "Polluter Pays Principle", which mandates that the person or organization responsible for the contamination must bear the financial liability for the cleanup process.

Additional Information

• Environment (Protection) Act, 1986: This parliamentary act serves as the umbrella legislation for environmental safety in India. It was enacted in the wake of the Bhopal Gas Tragedy and gives the government the authority to regulate all forms of pollution and coordinate the activities of various central and state authorities.
• Nature of Contaminated Sites: These sites usually include abandoned industrial units, hazardous waste dumpsites, and areas near chemical factories where toxic chemicals like heavy metals, mercury, arsenic, or persistent organic pollutants have leached into the environment.
• Role of Regulatory Bodies: The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is tasked with maintaining an updated National Inventory of Contaminated Sites. Along with the State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs), it monitors the progress of remediation and ensures compliance with the 2025 Rules.
• Technological Solutions: The rules advocate for modern remediation technologies such as bioremediation (using microorganisms to degrade pollutants), phytoremediation (using plants), and soil washing to restore the quality of land and water.
• Significance of the Rules: Prior to this notification, the management of such sites was often fragmented. The Environment Protection Rules, 2025, streamline the process, providing clear threshold values for contaminants and a structured timeframe for completing remediation activities.

Important Points

• Identification Process: The rules specify that a site is classified as "contaminated" if the concentration of hazardous substances exceeds the Screening Levels prescribed by the Ministry.
• Public Health Impact: These rules are crucial for preventing long-term health issues such as cancer, neurological disorders, and birth defects which are often linked to living near chemically contaminated areas.
• Global Alignment: The notification aligns India’s domestic policies with international standards like the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants and the Minamata Convention on Mercury.

The correct answer is 15 August 2025.

Key Points

• The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) and Indian Highway Management Company Limited (IHMCL) have slated the new FASTag annual plan and updated regulations to become fully effective from 15 August 2025.
• This new framework introduces a mandatory replacement cycle for FASTags that have been in use for more than 5 years, ensuring the hardware remains functional and technologically up-to-date.
• As per the guidelines, all FASTag users must ensure their Know Your Customer (KYC) details are updated and verified before the 15 August 2025 deadline to prevent their accounts from being deactivated or blacklisted.
• The initiative is a significant part of the "One Vehicle, One FASTag" policy, which aims to streamline the Electronic Toll Collection (ETC) process and eliminate the use of multiple tags for a single vehicle.
• From the effective date, telecom and payment aggregators linked with the National Electronic Toll Collection (NETC) will implement stricter verification protocols to enhance the security and transparency of toll transactions.

Additional Information

• FASTag Technology:
• It utilizes Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) technology to enable cashless and contactless payments at toll plazas.
• The tag is typically affixed to the windscreen of the vehicle and is linked to a prepaid account or a bank account.
• Regulatory Authorities:
• The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) oversees the broader policy framework, while NHAI manages the physical infrastructure and IHMCL handles the digital management of the FASTag system.
• Operational Benefits:
• The system significantly reduces congestion at National Highway toll plazas, thereby saving fuel and reducing CO2 emissions by minimizing idle time.
• It promotes the Digital India vision by moving away from manual cash handling and ensuring every rupee collected is electronically recorded.
• Penalty Clauses:
• Vehicles entering a FASTag lane without a functional tag or with an invalid/unverified tag after 15 August 2025 will be liable to pay double the toll amount as a penalty.

Important Points

• KYC Verification: Users can update their KYC through the respective issuer bank's portal or the IHMCL website. The RBI (Reserve Bank of India) guidelines require valid Identity Proof and Address Proof for this process.
• Global Context: India's NETC program is one of the world's largest electronic tolling systems, processing millions of transactions daily across over 1,000+ toll plazas nationwide.
• Timeline: While the KYC update requests began earlier in 2024, the final enforcement of the annual plan rules and the 5-year expiry clause is firmly set for 15 August 2025.
• Replacement Process: For tags issued before 2020, users should proactively contact their service providers to receive a new FASTag to ensure seamless travel after the implementation date.

The correct answer is Strengthening energy security.

Key Points

• At the Bharat Climate Forum 2026, Shri C. P. Radhakrishnan emphasized that effective climate action is a multi-dimensional strategy that serves as a catalyst for Strengthening energy security.
• By transitioning from a fossil-fuel-dependent economy to one powered by renewable energy, India can mitigate the risks associated with volatile global fuel prices and supply chain disruptions. Hence, the correct option is Strengthening energy security.
• The focus on energy security involves diversifying the national energy mix to include Solar, Wind, and Green Hydrogen, which reduces the import bill and ensures a steady power supply for industrial and domestic growth.
• Climate action in India is intrinsically linked to self-reliance (Atmanirbhar Bharat), where generating clean energy locally protects the nation from geopolitical fluctuations related to crude oil and natural gas imports.
• The speaker highlighted that while limiting population growth or reducing agricultural exports are different policy domains, Strengthening energy security is a direct and logical outcome of proactive environmental stewardship.

Additional Information

• Energy Security in India:
• India is currently one of the largest consumers of energy globally. Strengthening Energy Security is vital for maintaining a high GDP growth rate.
• The International Energy Agency (IEA) has often noted that India’s shift toward clean energy is essential for its long-term stability and economic resilience.
• Panchamrit Targets:
• India committed to five nectar elements (Panchamrit) at COP26 in Glasgow, including achieving Net Zero emissions by the year 2070.
• A significant part of this commitment is reaching 500 GW of non-fossil energy capacity by 2030, which directly bolsters energy independence.
• National Green Hydrogen Mission:
• Launched by the Government of India with an initial outlay of Rs. 19,744 crore, this mission aims to make India a global hub for Green Hydrogen production.
• This mission is a cornerstone of climate action that replaces grey hydrogen and fossil fuels in heavy industries, further Strengthening energy security.
• Role of Renewable Energy:
• As of 2024-2025, India has seen a massive surge in Installed Capacity of Solar Power. Decentralized solar energy, such as the PM-KUSUM scheme, helps farmers gain energy sovereignty.
• The integration of Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS) is another step toward ensuring that renewable energy can provide round-the-clock (RTC) power, eliminating the need for coal-based backup.

Important Points

• Climate Adaptation and Mitigation: While mitigation focuses on reducing Carbon Footprints, adaptation ensures that infrastructure (including energy grids) is resilient to climate-induced disasters like cyclones or floods.
• Economic Impact: Effective climate action attracts Green Finance and Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) into the sustainable technology sector, creating millions of Green Jobs by 2030.
• Global Leadership: Through initiatives like the International Solar Alliance (ISA) and the Global Biofuels Alliance (GBA), India is leading the global south in prioritizing energy security through climate-conscious collaborations.

The correct answer is Prime Minister Narendra Modi and President Emmanuel Macron.

Key Points

• The AI Action Summit was held in Paris, France, on February 10-11, 2025.
• The summit was co-chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi of India and President Emmanuel Macron of France, highlighting the strategic digital partnership between the two nations.
• It serves as the third major global gathering on Artificial Intelligence governance, following the Bletchley Park Summit in the UK (2023) and the Seoul AI Summit in South Korea (2024).
• The primary objective of the Paris Summit was to move from "safety" to "action," focusing on the global governance of AI, ethical deployment, and innovation.
• Prime Minister Narendra Modi advocated for inclusive AI, emphasizing the concept of "AI for All" to ensure that the benefits of technology reach the Global South and do not increase the digital divide.

Additional Information

• Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence (GPAI):
• India served as the Lead Chair of GPAI in 2024, and the February 2025 summit in Paris represents a continuation of India's leadership in setting global AI standards.
• The GPAI is an international initiative established to guide the responsible development and use of AI, grounded in human rights and democratic values.
• The IndiaAI Mission:
• The Government of India approved the IndiaAI Mission with a total budget outlay of Rs. 10,372 crore.
• This mission focuses on creating a robust AI ecosystem through computing capacity, data labs, and skill development.
• Five Pillars of the Paris Summit:
• The summit structured its discussions around five key themes: Public Interest AI, Future of Work, Innovation and Culture, AI Governance, and AI Safety.
• India-France Strategic Relations:
• The co-chairing of this summit is a result of the Horizon 2047 roadmap, which aims to strengthen bilateral cooperation in advanced technologies, cybersecurity, and digital sovereignty.

Important Points

• Participation: The summit saw participation from Heads of State, tech industry leaders, civil society, and academics to forge a global consensus on AI regulation.
• Paris AI Elective: A significant discussion point was the "Paris AI Elective," a framework intended to promote transparency in Generative AI models and protect intellectual property.
• Economic Impact: Analysts at the summit discussed how AI could contribute trillions of dollars to the global economy by 2030, provided that regulatory frameworks are balanced with innovation.
• Risk Mitigation: The leaders discussed the risks associated with deepfakes, misinformation, and the impact of automation on the global workforce.

The correct answer is Global Indian Pravasi Kabaddi League.

Key Points

• The Global Indian Pravasi Kabaddi League (GIPKL) was officially launched in January 2025 with the aim of promoting India's indigenous sport among the Indian Diaspora residing across the globe.
• This league featured a unique format where international teams were composed of players representing the Pravasi (overseas) Indian communities from countries such as the USA, United Kingdom, Canada, Australia, and the United Arab Emirates.
• The January 2025 edition set a record-level participation, witnessing the involvement of over 12 international franchise teams and hundreds of athletes from the diaspora, making it one of the largest kabaddi events organized outside the standard professional circuit.
• The league was designed to coincide with the Pravasi Bharatiya Divas celebrations to strengthen the cultural and sporting bond between India and its global community. Hence, the correct answer is Global Indian Pravasi Kabaddi League.

Additional Information

• Evolution of Professional Kabaddi:
• The modern era of the sport began with the launch of the Pro Kabaddi League (PKL) in 2014, which transformed Kabaddi from a rural sport into a high-octane professional league in India.
• The World Kabaddi League (WKL) was the first international league to follow the Circle Style format, launched in August 2014, involving teams from Punjab, Canada, and the USA.
• Kabaddi Formats:
• Standard Style: This is the format played in the Asian Games and Pro Kabaddi League, involving a rectangular court and 7 players on each side.
• Circle Style: Primarily popular in the Punjab region, this format is played on a circular pitch and is often featured in the Kabaddi World Cup organized by state governments.
• International Governance:
• The International Kabaddi Federation (IKF), founded in 2004, is the global governing body. It is headquartered in Jaipur, India, and oversees the Kabaddi World Cup.

Important Points

• Global Reach: The Global Indian Pravasi Kabaddi League serves as a platform for Overseas Citizens of India (OCI) and Non-Resident Indians (NRI) to showcase their talent on Indian soil, fostering a sense of national pride.
• Broadcasting and Media: The 2025 league reached a milestone by securing broadcasting rights in over 20 countries, ensuring that the Indian Diaspora could watch their local teams compete.
• Record Figures: The January 2025 event recorded a digital viewership of over 50 million during the final matches, highlighting the growing international appetite for the sport.
• Host Cities: Matches for the GIPKL were held across major Indian cities including New Delhi, Ahmedabad, and Chandigarh, providing state-of-the-art facilities for the international participants.

The correct answer is Global Government Excellence Award.

Key Points

• The Global Government Excellence Award is a prestigious international recognition presented during the World Governments Summit (WGS) to celebrate exceptional government initiatives that demonstrate innovation and significant social impact.
• During the World Governments Summit 2025 held in Dubai, United Arab Emirates (UAE), this award played a central role in identifying and scaling pioneering solutions to global administrative challenges.
• The award aims to highlight government programs that enhance the quality of life for citizens through digital transformation, sustainable development, and efficient public service delivery.
• The selection process for the Global Government Excellence Award involves a rigorous evaluation by international experts, focusing on criteria such as replicability, originality, and the measurable outcomes of the projects.
• This initiative is part of the UAE's broader vision to foster global cooperation and create a platform for knowledge exchange among world leaders and policymakers. Hence, the correct answer is the Global Government Excellence Award.

Additional Information

• World Governments Summit (WGS):
• Launched in 2013 under the leadership of Sheikh Mohammed bin Rashid Al Maktoum, the Vice President and Prime Minister of the UAE and Ruler of Dubai.
• The summit serves as a global knowledge exchange platform for future governments, bringing together heads of state, ministers, and thought leaders.
• The 2025 edition focused on the theme of "Shaping Future Governments," emphasizing the role of Artificial Intelligence (AI) and Agile Governance.
• Associated Awards at WGS:
• Best Minister Award: Recognizes exceptional efforts by government ministers who have implemented successful and scalable reforms.
• M-Gov Award: A competition specifically designed for students and innovators to create mobile application solutions for government services.
• Global Universities Challenge: Encourages graduate students from top-tier universities to present innovative solutions to global policy issues.
• Significance of Dubai as a Venue:
• Dubai has established itself as a global hub for innovation and technology, making it the ideal host for the summit.
• The summit is held at the Madinat Jumeirah in Dubai, attracting thousands of participants from over 150 countries annually.
• Focus Areas of 2025 Initiatives:
• Key areas recognized in 2025 included Climate Action, Healthcare Technology, Educational Equity, and Economic Resilience.
• The initiatives highlighted often utilize Blockchain, Big Data, and Machine Learning to optimize government operations and increase transparency.

Important Points

• Global Collaboration: The awards promote the idea that successful local solutions can be adapted to solve global problems, encouraging a borderless approach to public administration.
• Evaluation Methodology: The Global Government Excellence Award partners with major global consulting firms and international organizations like the United Nations (UN) and the World Bank to ensure a fair and transparent selection process.
• Strategic Vision: These awards are aligned with the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), ensuring that government innovation contributes to poverty reduction, gender equality, and environmental protection.

The correct answer is Brahmaputra.

Key Points

• The Brahmaputra river, known as the Yarlung Tsangpo in the Tibet Autonomous Region of China, is at the center of a major geopolitical and environmental concern between India and China in 2025.
• China has moved forward with plans to build a "super dam" in Medog County, located near the Great Bend where the river turns sharply toward India. This project was first formalized under China's 14^th Five-Year Plan (2021-2025).
• The proposed hydropower station is expected to have a capacity of up to 60 gigawatts (GW), which is nearly triple the capacity of the Three Gorges Dam, currently the world's largest power station.
• In 2025, India raised diplomatic concerns regarding the potential impact on downstream rights, specifically fearing that the project could lead to water diversion, reduced flow during dry seasons, or flash floods during sudden releases.
• India has consistently urged China to ensure that any activity in the upper reaches of the river does not harm the interests of downstream states like India and Bangladesh.

Additional Information

• The Brahmaputra River System:
• The river originates from the Chemayungdung Glacier of the Kailash Range near Mansarovar Lake at an elevation of about 5,150 meters.
• It flows for approximately 2,900 km through three countries: China (Tibet), India, and Bangladesh. In India, it enters through Arunachal Pradesh, where it is known as the Siang or Dihang, before flowing through the Assam Valley.
• Downstream Impact and Counter-Measures:
• To mitigate the risks posed by upstream Chinese dams, the Government of India has planned a massive 11,000 MW hydropower project on the Siang River in Arunachal Pradesh to create a water storage buffer.
• The Brahmaputra carries a significant amount of silt and is vital for the biodiversity of the northeast region of India, including the Kaziranga National Park.
• Transboundary River Agreements:
• Unlike the Indus Waters Treaty (1960) between India and Pakistan, there is no formal water-sharing treaty between India and China.
• Currently, cooperation is limited to a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) where China provides hydrological data (water level and discharge) during the monsoon season from May 15^th to October 15^th.

Important Points

• Other Transboundary Rivers:
• Sutlej: Also originates in Tibet (as the Langqen Zangbo) and enters India through the Shipki La pass. While China builds dams here too, it is part of the Indus system.
• Indus: Originates near Lake Mansarovar and flows through Ladakh before entering Pakistan. It is governed by a strict bilateral treaty.
• Kosi: Known as the "Sorrow of Bihar," it is a transboundary river flowing through China (Tibet), Nepal, and India, primarily known for its high sediment load and course changes.
• Geopolitical Context: The construction of dams on the Brahmaputra is often viewed through the lens of "water wars" or strategic leverage, as India occupies the middle reach and Bangladesh the lower reach, making them vulnerable to upstream interventions in the Tibet region.

The correct answer is 9^th June.

Key Points

• Birsa Munda Martyr’s Day is observed every year on 9^th June to pay tribute to the iconic tribal leader and freedom fighter who died on this day in 1900.
• He passed away while in British custody at the Ranchi Jail at the young age of 25. While the official records cited cholera as the cause of death, many believe he was poisoned by the colonial authorities.
• Birsa Munda spearheaded the Munda Rebellion, which is famously known as the Ulgulan or the Great Tumult, in the Chhota Nagpur plateau region (modern-day Jharkhand) during the late 1890s.
• The rebellion was directed against the British Raj and the Dikus (outsiders like landlords and moneylenders) who were exploiting the tribal communities and seizing their ancestral lands.
• His powerful resistance eventually forced the colonial government to enact the Chhota Nagpur Tenancy Act, 1908, which prohibited the transfer of tribal land to non-tribal people, ensuring a degree of land security for the Adivasis.

Additional Information

• Early Life and Birth: Birsa Munda was born on November 15, 1875, in the village of Ulihatu in the Khunti district of present-day Jharkhand.
• Janjatiya Gaurav Divas: In 2021, the Government of India declared November 15 (his birth anniversary) as Janjatiya Gaurav Divas (Tribal Pride Day) to recognize the historical contributions of tribal heroes.
• Religious Leadership: He founded a new faith called Birsait, which promoted monotheism and urged the Munda people to return to their original religious roots, shunning animal sacrifice, alcohol, and witchcraft.
• Revered Titles: Due to his charismatic leadership and spiritual influence, he is affectionately called Dharti Aba (Father of Earth) and is worshipped as Bhagwan Birsa Munda by tribal communities across India.
• Legacy: Birsa Munda is the only tribal leader whose portrait hangs in the Central Hall of the Indian Parliament, symbolizing his immense importance in the Indian Independence Movement.
• Museum: The Bhagwan Birsa Munda Memorial Park cum Freedom Fighter Museum was inaugurated in Ranchi in November 2021 to preserve the history of tribal struggles.