General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Aero India 2025.

Key Points

• The announcement regarding the development of a new high-calibre Pinaka rocket with an extended range of 120 km was made by DRDO (Defence Research and Development Organisation) officials during the Aero India 2025 event.
• Aero India 2025 is the 15^th edition of Asia’s largest aero show, held at the Yelahanka Air Force Station in Bengaluru, Karnataka.
• The new variant is designed to significantly enhance the Indian Army's long-range fire power, effectively doubling the range of the current Pinaka Mk-II system. Hence, the statement regarding the event is correct.
• This development is part of India’s Aatmanirbhar Bharat initiative, focusing on reducing dependency on foreign weapon systems and promoting indigenous defence technology.
• The 120 km range version will likely feature advanced guidance systems to maintain precision at longer distances, transitioning the Pinaka from a saturation weapon to a precision-strike asset.

Additional Information

• Pinaka Multi-Barrel Rocket Launcher (MBRL):
• The system is named after the divine bow of Lord Shiva. It was developed by the Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE), a DRDO laboratory based in Pune.
• It was first battle-tested during the Kargil War in 1999, where it was successful in neutralizing enemy positions on high mountain ridges.
• Existing Variants:
• Pinaka Mk-I: The initial version with a range of approximately 37.5 km to 40 km.
• Pinaka Mk-II / ER (Extended Range): Offers an enhanced range of up to 60 km to 75 km.
• Guided Pinaka: Equipped with a Navigation, Guidance, and Control (NGC) kit, utilizing the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (NavIC) for high accuracy.
• System Capabilities: A single Pinaka battery consists of six launcher vehicles, each capable of firing 12 rockets in 44 seconds, neutralizing an area of 700m x 500m.
• Defence Exports: The Pinaka system has gained international recognition, with Armenia becoming the first international customer to sign a deal for the system in 2022, valued at approximately Rs. 2,000 crores.

Important Points

• Strategic Impact: The development of the 120 km range variant bridges the tactical gap between traditional tube artillery and short-range ballistic missiles like the Pralay.
• Manufacturing Partners: While DRDO is the lead designer, the production is carried out by private and public sector partners, including Tata Power SED, Larsen & Toubro (L&T), and Munitions India Limited (MIL).
• Technological Integration: The upcoming high-calibre rockets are expected to integrate advanced composite propellants and improved aerodynamic control surfaces to achieve the 120 km milestone while maintaining a low Circular Error Probable (CEP).
• Aero India 2025: The event serves as a global platform for Ministry of Defence to showcase indigenous achievements, attracting Defence Ministers and CEOs from over 100 countries.

The correct answer is Code on Education, 2021.

Key Points

• The Government of India has consolidated 29 Central Labour Laws into four comprehensive Labour Codes to simplify and modernize the legal framework for the workforce.
• The four codes are: the Code on Wages, 2019; the Industrial Relations Code, 2020; the Code on Social Security, 2020; and the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020.
• Code on Education, 2021 is not a part of these labour reforms; education-related regulations fall under different ministries and the National Education Policy 2020. Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.
• The Code on Wages, 2019 was the first to be passed by Parliament in August 2019, while the remaining three codes received Presidential assent in September 2020. Hence, statement 1, 3, and 4 are included in the codes.
• These reforms aim to cover over 50 crore workers in both organized and unorganized sectors, providing them with minimum wages and social security.

Additional Information

• Code on Wages, 2019:
• This code replaces four laws: the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965, and the Equal Remuneration Act, 1976.
• It universalizes the provisions of minimum wages and timely payment of wages to all employees regardless of the sector or wage ceiling.
• Industrial Relations Code, 2020:
• It amalgamates the Trade Unions Act, 1926, the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946, and the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.
• The code introduces the concept of a "Fixed Term Employment" and aims to improve Ease of Doing Business by streamlining dispute resolution.
• Code on Social Security, 2020:
• This code subsumes nine central labour laws including the Employees’ Provident Fund Act and the Maternity Benefit Act.
• It is significant for extending social security benefits to gig workers and platform workers for the first time in India.
• Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020:
• It merges 13 central labour laws regulating the health and safety of workers in factories, mines, and plantations.
• It creates a National Occupational Safety and Health Advisory Board to recommend standards for different sectors.

Important Points

• The implementation of these codes has been a major focus of the Ministry of Labour and Employment, with a transition target set towards 2025 to ensure all states frame their respective rules.
• By consolidating the laws, the government aims to reduce multiplicity of definitions and compliance burdens for businesses.
• The codes empower the Central Government to fix a "Floor Wage", taking into account the living standards of workers across different geographical areas.
• One of the primary features is the digitization of compliance, where registers and returns can be maintained and filed electronically.

The correct answer is Mohd. Arif Khan.

Key Points

• Mohd. Arif Khan has been appointed as the Deputy Chief Executive Officer (Deputy CEO) of SBI General Insurance, effective from June 2024 (noted as 2025 in the context of specific organizational cycles).
• With a career spanning over 30 years in the banking and financial services sector, he brings extensive experience from his long-standing tenure at the State Bank of India (SBI).
• In his role as Deputy CEO, he is responsible for overseeing strategic business operations, enhancing operational efficiency, and driving the company’s growth in the competitive non-life insurance market.
• His expertise encompasses various domains including retail banking, human resources, and strategic planning, which are critical for the expansion of SBI General Insurance across urban and rural India.
• The appointment is part of a broader leadership reshuffle at SBI General Insurance aimed at strengthening its management team to achieve a higher market share and improve customer service delivery.

Additional Information

• SBI General Insurance: Established in 2009, it is a leading general insurance company in India. It was initially a joint venture between the State Bank of India and Insurance Australia Group (IAG), though SBI currently holds the majority stake.
• Naveen Chandra Jha: He was appointed as the Managing Director (MD) and Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of SBI General Insurance in June 2024, succeeding Kishore Kumar Poludasu.
• Anand Pejawar: He serves as the Whole-time Director at SBI General Insurance and was previously the Deputy Managing Director. He has been instrumental in expanding the company's distribution channels and bancassurance partnerships.
• Regulatory Oversight: All operations and appointments in the company are governed by the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI), ensuring compliance with national insurance laws.
• Product Portfolio: The company offers a diverse range of products including Health Insurance, Motor Insurance, Travel Insurance, and Home Insurance, catering to both individual and corporate clients.

Important Points

• Strategic Location: The headquarters of SBI General Insurance is located in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
• Bancassurance Strength: The company leverages SBI's massive network of over 22,000 branches to distribute its insurance products to the unbanked and under-penetrated sections of society.
• Recent Growth: SBI General Insurance has consistently reported a high Gross Written Premium (GWP), making it one of the fastest-growing players in the private general insurance space in India.
• Digital Transformation: Under the new leadership of Mohd. Arif Khan and Naveen Chandra Jha, the company is focusing heavily on digitization and AI-driven claim processing to improve the settlement ratio.

The correct answer is Neiphiu Rio.

Key Points

• The Chief Minister of Nagaland, Neiphiu Rio, officially inaugurated a state-of-the-art football stadium at the Police Complex in Chumoukedima, located near Dimapur, in January 2025.
• This infrastructure project was specifically developed to enhance the training facilities for the Nagaland Police personnel and to provide a platform for local sports talent to flourish in the region. Hence, the correct answer is Neiphiu Rio.
• The inauguration ceremony was attended by various dignitaries, including the Director General of Police (DGP) of Nagaland and other senior government officials, marking a significant milestone for the Chumoukedima district.
• The stadium is equipped with modern amenities, including high-quality turf and a spectator gallery, aimed at hosting local and state-level football tournaments to promote a culture of sports and physical fitness.
• During his address, Neiphiu Rio emphasized the role of sports in fostering discipline and unity, particularly within the police force and among the youth of Nagaland.

Additional Information

• Neiphiu Rio:
• He is currently serving as the 5^th Chief Minister of Nagaland and is a leader of the Nationalist Democratic Progressive Party (NDPP).
• Neiphiu Rio has been a dominant figure in Nagaland politics, holding the office of Chief Minister for multiple terms, starting from his first appointment in 2003.
• He has been a strong advocate for the Naga Peace Process and has focused heavily on infrastructure development and sports promotion across the state.
• Other Options in Context:
• N. Biren Singh: He is the current Chief Minister of the neighboring state of Manipur, known for his focus on the "Go to Hills" and "Go to Village" missions.
• Temjen Imna Along: He is a prominent Minister in the Nagaland government, holding portfolios such as Tourism and Higher Education, and is widely popular on social media for promoting Naga culture.
• Conrad Sangma: He is the Chief Minister of Meghalaya and the President of the National People's Party (NPP).
• Location - Chumoukedima:
• Chumoukedima was officially established as a separate district in December 2021, having been carved out of the Dimapur district.
• It serves as a vital administrative and educational hub, housing the Nagaland Police Training School and several major educational institutions.

Important Points

• Sports Heritage of Nagaland: The state has a rich history in football, notably producing Dr. T. Ao, who was the first captain of the Indian National Football Team during the 1948 London Olympics.
• Infrastructure Goals: The Government of Nagaland has been working under the "Catch Them Young" policy to identify and nurture athletes at a young age, with the Chumoukedima stadium being a part of this broader vision.
• Police Modernization: The construction of the stadium within the Police Complex is part of the Police Modernization Scheme, which aims to improve the welfare and physical standards of the state's security forces.

The correct answer is 1045.

Key Points

• The Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports has established 1045 Khelo India Centres (KICs) across the country to strengthen the sports ecosystem at the grassroots level.
• These centres are spread across 36 States and Union Territories, covering a vast majority of districts in India.
• The primary objective of these centres is to provide low-cost, high-quality sports training to young athletes and to identify talent at an early age.
• A unique feature of the KIC scheme is the involvement of former champion athletes, who are engaged as coaches and mentors to run these centres and earn a livelihood.
• Each centre is provided with financial assistance for recurring expenses such as coaching salaries, sports equipment, and consumable kits. Hence, the correct answer is 1045.

Additional Information

• The Khelo India Programme:
• Launched in 2017-18, this central sector scheme aims at reviving the sports culture in India at the grassroots level by building a strong framework for all sports played in the country.
• It consists of 12 verticals, including "State Level Khelo India Centres" and "Talent Search and Development", which focus on different aspects of athlete progression.
• Selection of Athletes:
• Under the Talent Identification vertical, talented players are identified in priority sports disciplines at various levels by the High-Powered Committee.
• Selected athletes receive an annual financial assistance of Rs. 5 lakh per annum for 8 years to support their training and development.
• Employment Opportunities:
• The KIC initiative specifically targets the welfare of retired athletes. By appointing them as mentors, the government ensures their expertise is utilized while providing them with employment.

Important Points

• Infrastructure and Funding:
• The Government of India provides a one-time grant for the upgradation of sports infrastructure and the purchase of equipment at these centres.
• In addition to the initial grant, an annual recurring grant of Rs. 5 lakh is provided for each sporting discipline at the centre for at least 4 years.
• Regional Impact:
• Special focus is given to rural and tribal areas, as well as Left Wing Extremism (LWE) affected districts, to ensure that sports training is inclusive and reaches every corner of India.
• The "One District One KIC" policy was envisioned to ensure that at least 1,000 centres were operational, a target that has been successfully surpassed by reaching the 1045 mark.

The correct answer is Cyber Suraksha.

Key Points

• The Indian Armed Forces launched the major cyber security exercise Cyber Suraksha in 2025 to strengthen the nation's digital defenses and ensure the resilience of military communication networks.
• The primary objective of Cyber Suraksha 2025 is to simulate real-world cyber threats such as malware injections, distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks, and sophisticated phishing campaigns to evaluate the readiness of the tri-services.
• This exercise is conducted under the aegis of the Defence Cyber Agency (DCyA), which serves as the premier body for handling cyber warfare and protecting Critical Information Infrastructure (CII) within the military domain.
• The exercise emphasizes jointness and interoperability among the Indian Army, Indian Navy, and Indian Air Force, promoting a unified response strategy against coordinated digital incursions.
• By creating a simulated high-stress environment, the exercise helps in identifying vulnerabilities in current systems and encourages the adoption of secure practices among personnel. Hence, the correct answer is Cyber Suraksha.

Additional Information

• Defence Cyber Agency (DCyA):
• Established in 2019, the DCyA is a tri-service command of the Indian Armed Forces headquartered in New Delhi.
• It is tasked with handling cyber security threats and is capable of conducting both offensive and defensive cyber operations.
• The agency works in close coordination with the National Security Council Secretariat (NSCS) and the National Cyber Security Coordinator.
• Cyber Security Landscape in India:
• The Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In), functioning under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), is the national nodal agency for responding to computer security incidents.
• The National Cyber Security Policy (2013) and the upcoming National Cyber Security Strategy aim to build a secure and resilient cyberspace for citizens, businesses, and the government.
• India is increasingly focusing on Atmanirbhar Bharat in the tech sector to reduce dependence on foreign hardware and software that may contain supply chain vulnerabilities.
• Common Cyber Exercise Terminologies:
• Red Teaming: An ethical hacking approach where a group simulates an adversary to test the effectiveness of a security program.
• Blue Teaming: The defensive team responsible for maintaining internal network protections and responding to incidents.
• Zero Trust Architecture: A security model that requires strict identity verification for every person and device trying to access resources on a private network.

Important Points

• Evolution of Threats: In the current era of Hybrid Warfare, cyber attacks are often used in tandem with kinetic military actions to disable C4I (Command, Control, Communications, Computers, and Intelligence) systems.
• Data Sovereignty: Exercises like Cyber Suraksha highlight the importance of Data Localization and protecting sensitive military intelligence from State-sponsored actors and Advanced Persistent Threats (APTs).
• International Cooperation: While Cyber Suraksha is a domestic exercise, India also participates in multilateral exercises like Ex-Pitch Black or Malabar, where cyber security components are increasingly becoming a standard module.
• Skill Development: These exercises serve as a training ground for the cyber warriors of the Indian Armed Forces, ensuring they are well-versed in the latest encryption standards and threat-hunting techniques.

The correct answer is 30 May.

Key Points

• Hindi Journalism Day, also known as Hindi Patrakarita Diwas, is celebrated annually on 30 May across India to acknowledge the significance of the Hindi press.
• This specific date was chosen because it marks the first publication of the very first Hindi-language newspaper, Udant Martand, in the year 1826.
• The newspaper was established and edited by Pt. Jugal Kishore Shukla, who launched the venture from Calcutta (now Kolkata), which was the capital of British India at the time.
• The primary objective of celebrating this day is to honor the contributions of journalists who use Hindi as a medium to inform the public and preserve the cultural and social fabric of the nation.
• It serves as a reminder of the historical struggle and the pivotal role that the Hindi media played during the Indian Independence Movement by uniting the Hindi-speaking masses.

Additional Information

• Udant Martand:
• The name of the newspaper, Udant Martand, literally translates to "The Rising Sun."
• It was a weekly newspaper published every Tuesday.
• Pt. Jugal Kishore Shukla, its founder, was a lawyer originally from Kanpur, Uttar Pradesh, who moved to Calcutta to start this historic initiative.
• Despite its groundbreaking nature, the newspaper faced severe financial challenges due to high postal rates and a lack of government patronage, leading to its closure on December 11, 1827.
• Early Indian Press:
• The first-ever newspaper published in India was the Bengal Gazette (also known as Hicky's Bengal Gazette), started by James Augustus Hicky in 1780.
• Before the rise of the Hindi press, newspapers in India were primarily published in English, Bengali, and Persian.

Important Points

• First Hindi Daily: While Udant Martand was the first weekly, the credit for the first Hindi daily newspaper goes to Samachar Sudhavarshan, which began publication in 1854 under the editorship of Shyam Sundar Sen.
• Regional Expansion: The Banaras Akhbar, published in 1844 by Raja Shiv Prasad ‘Sitare-Hind’, is considered the first Hindi newspaper issued from a Hindi-speaking region.
• Related Observances:
• National Press Day is celebrated on November 16 to commemorate the Press Council of India's establishment as a moral watchdog for the media.
• World Press Freedom Day is observed globally on May 3 to raise awareness about the importance of freedom of the press and the rights of journalists.
• Vishwa Hindi Diwas (World Hindi Day) is celebrated on January 10, while National Hindi Diwas is observed on September 14 to mark the adoption of Hindi as an official language in 1949.

The correct answer is Visakhapatnam.

Key Points

• The 28^th National Conference on e-Governance (NCeG) was held in Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh, in September 2025.
• This prestigious annual event is organized by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) in collaboration with the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) and the host state government.
• The conference serves as a high-level platform for policy makers, industry leaders, and academia to deliberate on the latest trends in digital governance and the integration of emerging technologies in public administration.
• A key feature of the event is the presentation of the National Awards for e-Governance, which recognize excellence in implementing digital initiatives that improve the Ease of Living for citizens.
• The discussions at the 2025 conference focused on leveraging Artificial Intelligence (AI), Data Analytics, and Cloud Computing to enhance the efficiency and transparency of public service delivery.

Additional Information

• Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG):
• It is the nodal agency of the Government of India for administrative reforms and the redressal of public grievances.
• The department operates under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.
• It is responsible for formulating policies and coordinating measures for administrative efficiency and e-governance across the country.
• National e-Governance Plan (NeGP):
• Launched in 2006, the NeGP aims to make all government services accessible to the common man in his locality through common service delivery outlets.
• It consists of several Mission Mode Projects (MMPs) at the central, state, and integrated levels to ensure efficiency, transparency, and reliability.
• Digital India Program:
• Launched in July 2015, this flagship program aims to transform India into a digitally empowered society and knowledge economy.
• The program focuses on three key vision areas: Digital Infrastructure as a Core Utility, Governance and Services on Demand, and Digital Empowerment of Citizens.
• Importance of e-Governance:
• It facilitates G2C (Government to Citizen), G2B (Government to Business), and G2G (Government to Government) interactions.
• Key tools include the UMANG app, DigiLocker, e-Hospital, and Aadhaar-enabled services, which reduce the need for physical visits to government offices.

Important Points

• The 27^th National Conference on e-Governance was held in 2024 in Mumbai, Maharashtra, showing the rotating nature of the venue to different states.
• The National Awards for e-Governance usually include categories such as Government Process Re-engineering, Digital Transformation in State/UTs, and Academic/Research Institutions' contributions to e-governance.
• Visakhapatnam, also known as Vizag, is a major industrial city and the executive capital of Andhra Pradesh, often selected for high-profile technology and maritime summits.
• The theme of the conference typically aligns with the Prime Minister’s vision of Minimum Government, Maximum Governance.

The correct answer is Pulses.

Key Points

• In the Union Budget 2025-26, presented by the Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on February 1, 2025, a comprehensive six-year support plan was announced specifically for Pulses.
• The primary objective of this initiative is to achieve Atmanirbharta (self-reliance) and significantly reduce the import dependency of India on essential legumes.
• This six-year mission focuses on increasing the domestic production of key varieties such as Tur (Arhar), Urad (Black Gram), and Masur (Lentil), which constitute a large portion of India's import bill.
• The government aims to expand the area under cultivation for these crops, especially in rainfed areas and rice-fallow regions, by providing farmers with high-yielding climate-resilient seeds and technical support.
• The plan integrates the procurement process with the Minimum Support Price (MSP) mechanism to ensure that farmers receive remunerative prices, thereby incentivizing them to shift from water-intensive crops to pulses. Hence, the correct answer is Pulses.

Additional Information

• Pulses Production in India:
• India is currently the largest producer, consumer, and importer of pulses in the world.
• Major pulse-producing states include Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Maharashtra, and Uttar Pradesh.
• Despite being a leader in production, India imports approximately 2 to 3 million tonnes of pulses annually from countries like Canada, Myanmar, and Mozambique to meet domestic demand.
• Oil Seeds (Comparison):
• While Oil seeds also receive significant government attention through the National Mission on Edible Oils - Oil Palm (NMEO-OP), the specific six-year plan highlighted in the 2025-26 Budget is dedicated to pulses.
• India faces a high import bill for edible oils, spending billions of dollars primarily on Palm oil, Soybean oil, and Sunflower oil.
• National Food Security Mission (NFSM):
• The NFSM-Pulses was launched in 2007-08 and has been instrumental in raising pulse production from 14.76 million tonnes in 2007 to over 27 million tonnes in recent years.
• The new six-year plan acts as an extension and intensification of these efforts to bridge the remaining supply-demand gap by the year 2031.
• Other Budget 2025-26 Agricultural Highlights:
• The budget proposed the digital public infrastructure for agriculture to cover 6 crore farmers and their lands within 3 years.
• A push for Natural Farming was also emphasized, aiming to bring 1 crore farmers into the fold of chemical-free agriculture over the next two years.

Important Points

• Nutritional Security: Pulses are a vital source of protein for the majority of the Indian population, making their affordability and availability a matter of nutritional security.
• Soil Health: Being leguminous crops, pulses help in nitrogen fixation, which improves soil fertility naturally and reduces the need for chemical fertilizers like Urea.
• Climate Resilience: Pulses are generally drought-tolerant and require less water compared to crops like Paddy or Sugarcane, making them ideal for the six-year support plan targeting sustainable agriculture.

The correct answer is World Para Athletics Championships 2025.

Key Points

• The World Para Athletics Championships 2025 is set to be one of the most significant international sporting events hosted by India, marking a milestone in the country's journey toward becoming a global sporting hub.
• This event is the flagship competition for para-athletics globally and is organized under the aegis of World Para Athletics and the International Paralympic Committee (IPC).
• India’s selection as a host venue highlights the nation’s growing sporting infrastructure and its commitment to fostering inclusive sports for persons with disabilities.
• The championships involve thousands of elite athletes from over 100 countries competing in various track and field disciplines, making it one of the largest gatherings of para-athletes in the world.
• Hosting this event aligns with the Government of India’s initiatives like Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS) and the Khelo India Para Games, aimed at identifying and nurturing talent at the grassroots level. Hence, the correct answer is World Para Athletics Championships 2025.

Additional Information

• Summer Universiade 2025 (FISU World University Games):
• The 32^nd edition of the Summer Universiade is scheduled to take place in the Rhine-Ruhr region of Germany in 2025.
• It is an international multi-sport event organized for university athletes by the International University Sports Federation (FISU).
• Commonwealth Games 2026:
• Originally awarded to Victoria, Australia, the state withdrew as host in 2023 due to rising costs.
• The 2026 Games are now confirmed to be held in Glasgow, Scotland, featuring a more compact program to ensure financial sustainability.
• FIFA Women’s World Cup:
• The most recent FIFA Women’s World Cup was held in 2023, hosted jointly by Australia and New Zealand.
• The next edition is scheduled for 2027 and will be hosted by Brazil; there is no senior FIFA Women’s World Cup scheduled for the year 2025.
• Para-Sports in India:
• India has seen a massive surge in para-sports performance, winning a record 19 medals at the Tokyo 2020 Paralympics and 29 medals at the Paris 2024 Paralympics.
• The Paralympic Committee of India (PCI) is the primary body responsible for selecting athletes and promoting the Paralympic movement within the country.

Important Points

• Significance of 2025: The year 2025 is pivotal for Indian athletics as hosting the World Para Championships serves as a precursor to India's potential bid for the 2036 Olympic and Paralympic Games.
• Inclusivity and Accessibility: One of the core themes of the 2025 championships in India is to promote the Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan (Accessible India Campaign), ensuring that sporting venues meet international accessibility standards for all citizens.
• Economic Impact: International events of this magnitude boost sports tourism and contribute to the local economy through the influx of athletes, coaches, officials, and international media.

The correct answer is Parvati Tirkey.

Key Points

• The Sahitya Akademi announced the winners of the Yuva Puraskar for the year 2025 in June 2025, recognizing young literary talents across various Indian languages.
• Parvati Tirkey was conferred with the prestigious Yuva Puraskar in the Hindi language category for her exceptional poetry collection titled "Phir Ugna".
• The collection "Phir Ugna" is noted for its deep connection to tribal identity, nature, and the resilience of indigenous communities, reflecting a modern perspective on traditional roots.
• To be eligible for the Yuva Puraskar, the author must be 35 years of age or below as of January 1^st of the year of the award. Hence, the statement regarding the age limit is a critical criterion for this selection.
• The award presented to Parvati Tirkey includes a copper plaque and a cash prize of Rs. 50,000, which is aimed at encouraging young writers to continue their contribution to Indian literature.

Additional Information

• Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar:
• Instituted in the year 2011, this award aims to promote and recognize the works of young authors in 24 Indian languages, including those listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India, as well as English and Rajasthani.
• The selection process involves a three-member jury for each language, ensuring a fair and rigorous evaluation of contemporary literature produced by the youth.
• Other Noteworthy Winners (2025):
• Mayur Khavdu: Recognized for his contributions to Gujarati literature, demonstrating the diversity of the Yuva Puraskar across different regional aesthetics.
• Akhil P Dharmajan: A prominent voice in Malayalam literature who has gained significant popularity for his narrative style and storytelling.
• Subrat Senapati: Awarded for his work in Odia, showcasing the rich literary heritage of eastern India.
• Sahitya Akademi (National Academy of Letters):
• Founded on March 12, 1954, it is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India.
• It is the highest body in the country for the promotion of literature and maintains a library that is one of the largest multi-lingual libraries in India.

Important Points

• The Sahitya Akademi also confers other major awards such as the Main Sahitya Akademi Award and the Bal Sahitya Puraskar (for children's literature).
• The theme of "Phir Ugna" (meaning "To Grow Again") symbolizes a renaissance of tribal consciousness and environmental ethics in the 21^st century.
• Awards like the Yuva Puraskar are essential for identifying emerging voices that represent the changing socio-political landscape of India through creative expression.
• The Hindi category remains one of the most competitive sections due to the vast number of publications and the widespread demographic of the Hindi-speaking belt.

The correct answer is Godrej Aerospace.

Key Points

• In November 2025, Godrej Aerospace, a business unit of Godrej & Boyce, successfully delivered the first human-rated Vikas engine to the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
• This delivery is a critical milestone for the Gaganyaan mission, which is India’s first human spaceflight program designed to send Indian astronauts into Low Earth Orbit (LEO).
• The Vikas engine is a high-thrust liquid-propellant engine used to power the core second stage of the LVM3 (Launch Vehicle Mark-3), which is the heavy-lift launcher chosen for the mission.
• The term human-rated implies that the engine has been modified and tested under more stringent parameters to ensure 100% reliability and crew safety during the ascent phase of the flight.
• Godrej Aerospace has been a long-standing partner of ISRO, contributing to the development of liquid propulsion engines for various launch vehicles including PSLV and GSLV since the 1980s.

Additional Information

• Gaganyaan Mission:
• The mission aims to demonstrate India’s indigenous capability to undertake human spaceflight missions to Low Earth Orbit.
• The plan involves sending a three-member crew to an altitude of 400 km for a 3-day mission, followed by a safe landing in Indian sea waters.
• The project was officially announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi during his Independence Day speech in 2018.
• Vikas Engine Technology:
• The Vikas engine (named after Vikram Ambalal Sarabhai) is based on the Viking engine technology licensed from France in the 1970s.
• It uses UDMH (Unsymmetrical Dimethylhydrazine) as fuel and Nitrogen Tetroxide (N2O4) as the oxidizer.
• The human-rated version features enhanced structural integrity and advanced health monitoring systems to detect any anomalies in real-time.
• Industrial Collaboration:
• While Godrej Aerospace manufactures the liquid engines, Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) is responsible for fabricating the crew module and service module structures.
• Larsen & Toubro (L&T) contributes by manufacturing the solid motor casings (S200) for the LVM3 rocket.

Important Points

• Safety Protocols: The Gaganyaan launch vehicle incorporates a Crew Escape System (CES), which is designed to pull the crew module away from the rocket in case of an emergency on the launch pad or during the flight.
• Manufacturing Location: Godrej Aerospace operates its sophisticated manufacturing facility in Vikhroli, Mumbai, where it produces complex cryogenic and liquid propulsion components.
• Future Goals: The success of the human-rated Vikas engine and the subsequent Gaganyaan mission are stepping stones toward building the Bharatiya Antariksha Station (BAS) by 2035 and landing an Indian on the Moon by 2040.
• Economic Impact: These collaborations with private sector entities like Godrej Aerospace highlight the "Make in India" initiative in the high-technology space and defense sectors.

The correct answer is 2.6%.

Key Points

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) released its Monetary Policy Report (MPR) in October 2025, providing a comprehensive outlook on the Indian economy for the upcoming fiscal years.
• According to the report, the CPI inflation projection for the financial year FY 2025-26 has been revised to 2.6%.
• This downward revision is attributed to favorable base effects, an improvement in supply-side management, and the expectation of a normal monsoon impacting food prices positively.
• The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) noted that the headline inflation is expected to remain well within the RBI's target range of 2% to 6%, with the medium-term target being 4%.
• The RBI utilizes these projections to determine the Policy Repo Rate and the overall monetary policy stance, which in this report remained focused on price stability and supporting sustainable growth.

Additional Information

• Consumer Price Index (CPI):
• CPI is the primary measure used by the RBI to monitor retail inflation in India. It tracks the change in the price of a fixed basket of goods and services consumed by households.
• The data for CPI is compiled and released monthly by the National Statistical Office (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
• Monetary Policy Committee (MPC):
• The MPC is a six-member committee constituted by the Central Government under Section 45ZB of the amended RBI Act, 1934.
• It consists of three members from the RBI, including the Governor (who acts as the ex-officio chairperson), and three external members appointed by the Government of India.
• Inflation Targeting Framework:
• In 2016, India adopted a flexible inflation targeting (FIT) framework. The primary objective is to maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth.
• The current inflation target is set at 4% with a tolerance band of +/- 2%, meaning inflation should stay between 2% and 6%.

Important Points

• The Monetary Policy Report (MPR) is a statutory document published by the Reserve Bank of India every six months (typically in April and October).
• It explains the sources of inflation and provides forecasts for inflation and GDP growth for a period of six to eighteen months ahead.
• For FY 2025-26, the Real GDP growth is also a key metric monitored alongside the 2.6% inflation projection to ensure the economy does not overheat or stagnate.
• A 2.6% projection is significant as it sits below the 4% midpoint target, suggesting a period of low and stable prices which can boost consumer confidence and investment.
• The fiscal year 2025-26 in India commences on April 1, 2025, and concludes on March 31, 2026.

The correct answer is 15%.

Key Points

• The Karnataka Government has officially raised the housing reservation quota for religious minorities from the previous 10% to 15%.
• This decision was announced in June 2025 to ensure better accessibility to affordable housing for minority communities across the state.
• The move was spearheaded by the Minister for Housing and Minority Welfare, Zameer Ahmed Khan, who proposed the enhancement to the Karnataka Housing Board (KHB).
• The revised reservation applies to the allotment of residential sites and houses developed by the Department of Housing and the KHB in various urban and rural projects.
• This policy change aims to provide social security and promote inclusive growth by addressing the specific housing needs of the minority population in Karnataka.

Additional Information

• Karnataka Housing Board (KHB):
• The KHB was established under the Karnataka Housing Board Act, 1962, with the primary objective of providing housing to the people of Karnataka at affordable prices.
• It operates as a statutory body under the Government of Karnataka, focusing on the creation of layouts and the construction of houses for various income groups, including EWS (Economically Weaker Sections), LIG (Low Income Group), and MIG (Middle Income Group).
• Religious Minorities in Karnataka:
• In Karnataka, the religious minority category includes communities such as Muslims, Christians, Jains, Buddhists, Sikhs, and Parsis.
• The increase by 5% (from 10% to 15%) is part of a broader welfare strategy managed by the Minority Welfare Department.
• Significance of the Move:
• The increase in the quota ensures that a higher proportion of state-funded housing stock is diverted towards the marginalized sections within the minority communities.
• It reflects the state's commitment to Article 15 and Article 16 of the Constitution of India, which allow the state to make special provisions for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes.
• The allotment process for these reserved categories is typically managed through a lottery system or seniority-based applications overseen by the Directorate of Minorities.
• Welfare Context:
• This housing reservation is often coupled with other schemes such as the Basava Vasati Yojana and the Dr. B.R. Ambedkar Niwas Yojana, which provide financial assistance for house construction.
• The Karnataka State Housing Corporation Limited (KSHCL) acts as the implementing agency for several of these social housing schemes alongside the KHB.

The correct answer is Andhra Pradesh tribal students.

Key Points

• A historic Guinness World Record was established by the Tribal Welfare Department of Andhra Pradesh during the celebration of the 10^th International Day of Yoga.
• The record involved a massive gathering of 22,631 tribal students from various Tribal Welfare Residential Educational Institutions (Gurukulams) across the state.
• The students performed 108 Surya Namaskars (Sun Salutations) simultaneously, showcasing remarkable endurance, discipline, and synchronization. Hence, the correct answer is Andhra Pradesh tribal students.
• The event took place on June 21, 2024, and was officially adjudicated and recognized by the Guinness World Records representatives for the category of the largest simultaneous performance of this specific yogic sequence by a tribal student group.
• This initiative was designed to promote physical fitness, mental well-being, and awareness of India's cultural heritage among the youth belonging to marginalized communities.

Additional Information

• Surya Namaskar (Sun Salutation):
• It is a comprehensive yogic practice consisting of a sequence of 12 powerful postures (asanas).
• The practice is known to improve blood circulation, enhance flexibility, and strengthen the musculoskeletal system.
• Performing 108 rounds is considered a significant spiritual and physical milestone in yoga tradition, often associated with the completion of a "mala" of repetitions.
• International Day of Yoga (IDY):
• The idea was first proposed by Prime Minister Narendra Modi during his address at the 69^th session of the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) in 2014.
• The UN declared June 21 as the International Day of Yoga because it is the Summer Solstice, the longest day of the year in the Northern Hemisphere, which holds special significance in many parts of the world.
• The first IDY was observed globally on June 21, 2015.
• Tribal Welfare in Andhra Pradesh:
• The Andhra Pradesh Tribal Welfare Residential Educational Institutions Society (APTWREIS), also known as Gurukulam, plays a vital role in providing quality education to students from Scheduled Tribes (ST).
• These institutions focus on holistic development, including sports, arts, and traditional practices like yoga, to ensure tribal youth can compete at national and international levels.

Important Points

• Data and Scale: The performance involved over 22,000 students performing 108 cycles, which translates to a collective total of over 2.4 million individual postures performed within a single event window.
• Guinness Certification: The certificate was presented to the Tribal Welfare Department officials, marking a proud moment for the state of Andhra Pradesh in the global arena of health and wellness.
• Comparison: While other states like Gujarat have also set records for Surya Namaskar (such as performing at 108 different locations simultaneously), the specific record for 22,000+ tribal students performing 108 repetitions is unique to the Andhra Pradesh 2024 initiative.

The correct answer is Palestine.

Key Points

• The United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) has repeatedly passed resolutions urging the Security Council to reconsider the full membership of Palestine, targeting its admission as the 194^th member state.
• In May 2024, a landmark resolution was adopted with 143 votes in favor, declaring that the State of Palestine is qualified for membership in accordance with Article 4 of the UN Charter.
• Palestine has held the status of a Non-member Observer State since November 29, 2012, following a vote in the General Assembly.
• The push in 2025 reflects a continued international effort to grant Palestine full rights and privileges within the United Nations, including the right to be seated among member states in alphabetical order and the right to propose agenda items.
• To become a full member, a state must receive a recommendation from the UN Security Council (where no permanent member exercises a veto) and a two-thirds majority vote in the General Assembly.

Additional Information

• South Sudan:
• Located in East-Central Africa, South Sudan is currently the world's youngest sovereign state.
• It gained independence from Sudan on July 9, 2011, following a referendum.
• It was admitted as the 193^rd member of the United Nations on July 14, 2011.
• Vatican City (Holy See):
• The Holy See holds the status of a Permanent Observer State at the United Nations.
• Unlike Palestine, the Vatican has historically maintained its observer status to preserve its neutrality in international political conflicts while still participating in diplomatic discourse.
• It is the smallest independent state in the world by both area and population.
• Kosovo:
• Kosovo declared independence from Serbia in February 2008.
• While it is recognized as a state by over 100 UN member countries, it is not a member of the United Nations.
• Its path to membership is complicated by the lack of universal recognition and potential vetoes from permanent members of the Security Council like Russia and China.
• UN Membership Criteria:
• According to the UN Charter, membership is open to all "peace-loving states" which accept the obligations contained in the Charter.
• The United Nations currently consists of 193 member states, with the last addition occurring in 2011.

Important Points

• The P5 (Permanent Five) members of the Security Council—the United States, United Kingdom, France, China, and Russia—hold the power to block any application for full membership.
• The State of Palestine is recognized as a sovereign state by more than 140 of the 193 UN member states as of 2024-2025.
• Full membership would allow Palestine to vote on resolutions and participate fully in all UN committees and specialized agencies.

The correct answer is Bastar.

Key Points

• In August 2025, the Chief Minister of Chhattisgarh took proactive measures to address the crisis caused by heavy monsoon rains and subsequent flooding in the southern part of the state.
• The Chief Minister specifically directed the administration and revenue officials to provide immediate relief and assistance to the families affected by floods in the Bastar division.
• The Bastar division, known for its complex topography and dense river networks, faced significant challenges as major rivers like the Indravati and Sabari reached danger marks, isolating several villages.
• Instructions were issued to ensure the availability of essential commodities, such as food grains, clean drinking water, and medicines, in the relief camps established across the affected districts.
• The government emphasized the implementation of the Revenue Book Circular (RBC) 6-4, which mandates financial compensation for loss of life, livestock, crops, and property damage caused by natural calamities. Hence, the correct answer is Bastar.

Additional Information

• Divisions of Chhattisgarh:
• Chhattisgarh is administratively divided into five major divisions: Raipur, Bilaspur, Durg, Bastar, and Surguja.
• The Bastar division is the southernmost division of the state and comprises districts like Bastar, Kanker, Dantewada, Sukma, Bijapur, Narayanpur, and Kondagaon.
• Surguja division is located in the northern part of the state, while Bilaspur and Raipur occupy the central plains.
• Geographical Vulnerability:
• The Bastar region is part of the Dandakaranya plateau and is highly prone to flash floods due to its hilly terrain and the presence of the Godavari river basin tributaries.
• During the Southwest Monsoon, this region often receives heavy rainfall, leading to the submergence of low-lying bridges (culverts) and cutting off connectivity to the Sukma and Bijapur districts.
• Disaster Management Framework:
• The State Disaster Response Force (SDRF) and the District Administration work in tandem to execute rescue operations using motorboats and helicopters if necessary.
• The Chhattisgarh government utilizes digital portals to track rainfall data and water levels in dams to issue early warnings to villagers residing near riverbanks.

Important Points

• Relief Norms (RBC 6-4): This is a critical legal provision in Chhattisgarh that defines the numerical value of compensation. For instance, it provides fixed financial aid for the repair of pucca and kutcha houses partially or fully destroyed by floods.
• Strategic Location: The Bastar division shares borders with Odisha, Telangana, and Maharashtra. Coordination with these states is essential when water is released from shared reservoirs or when rivers like the Godavari swell.
• Health Initiatives: Post-flood management in 2025 also involved the deployment of mobile medical units to prevent the outbreak of water-borne diseases like cholera and malaria in the tribal belts of Bastar.
• Agricultural Impact: Since a large population in Bastar depends on paddy and minor forest produce, the August 2025 directives specifically included a mandate for Agriculture Department officials to assess crop loss for insurance claims under the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana.

The correct answer is Allianz Arena, Munich.

Key Points

• The 2024–25 UEFA Champions League final is scheduled to be held at the Allianz Arena in Munich, Germany.
• The match is slated to take place on May 31, 2025, marking the conclusion of the 70^th season of Europe's premier club football tournament organized by UEFA.
• The Allianz Arena previously hosted the Champions League final in 2012, famously known as the "Finale dahoam," where Chelsea defeated Bayern Munich.
• Munich was originally designated to host the 2023 final, but due to the displacement of venues caused by the COVID-19 pandemic, its hosting rights were pushed back to 2025.
• The 2024–25 season is particularly significant as it introduces a new competition format, moving away from the traditional group stage to a 36-team league phase.

Additional Information

• Wembley Stadium (London):
• Located in London, United Kingdom, it hosted the 2024 Champions League final between Real Madrid and Borussia Dortmund.
• It has a seating capacity of approximately 90,000 and holds the record for hosting the most finals in the tournament's history. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Santiago Bernabéu (Madrid):
• The iconic home of Real Madrid CF in Spain, it last hosted a Champions League final in 2010.
• The stadium recently underwent a massive technological renovation featuring a retractable roof and pitch. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Camp Nou (Barcelona):
• Home to FC Barcelona, this stadium is currently under a major reconstruction project known as Espai Barça.
• It hosted the famous 1999 final where Manchester United defeated Bayern Munich in dramatic fashion. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Allianz Arena Features:
• Commonly known as the Fußball Arena München for UEFA competitions due to sponsorship regulations, it is the first stadium in the world with a full color-changing exterior.
• It has a capacity of about 67,000 for international matches and serves as the home ground for FC Bayern Munich. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Important Points

• New UEFA Format (2024/25):
• The 2024/25 season marks the transition to the "Swiss-model", where teams play eight matches against eight different opponents in a single league table.
• The top eight teams advance automatically to the round of 16, while those finishing 9^th to 24^th enter a two-legged play-off.
• Historical Context:
• The UEFA Champions League was rebranded from the European Champion Clubs' Cup in 1992.
• Real Madrid holds the record for the most titles in the history of the competition, having won their 15^th trophy in 2024.
• Selection Process:
• Venues for the finals are selected by the UEFA Executive Committee based on various criteria, including stadium infrastructure, capacity, accessibility, and security.
• The 2026 final is scheduled to be held at the Puskás Aréna in Budapest, Hungary.

The correct answer is Expanding green cover to combat desertification.

Key Points

• The Aravalli Green Wall Project is a major environmental initiative aimed at creating a 1,400 km long and 5 km wide green belt buffer around the Aravalli Hill Range.
• A key aim of the project is to combat desertification and land degradation by planting native trees and shrubs to act as a barrier against the eastward expansion of the Thar Desert. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The project is specifically designed to cover four Indian states: Haryana, Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Delhi, where the Aravalli mountains play a critical role in the local climate.
• Launched around the context of World Environment Day and International Day of Forests, it involves the rejuvenation of water bodies such as ponds, lakes, and marshes within the Aravalli landscape to improve local biodiversity.
• The project does not involve building embankments in Punjab, nor is it focused on vertical gardens in Mumbai or national parks in the Himalayas. Hence, statements 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect.

Additional Information

• Inspiration from Africa: This project is inspired by the Great Green Wall initiative in Africa, which aims to combat desertification across the Sahel region from Senegal to Djibouti.
• Ecological Importance of Aravallis: The Aravalli Range is one of the oldest fold mountains in the world. It acts as a natural shield against dust storms originating from the Thar Desert towards the National Capital Region (NCR).
• Species Selection: The afforestation efforts focus on native species like Neem, Peepal, Banyan, and Babool, which are well-adapted to the local semi-arid climate and support indigenous fauna.
• Sustainable Development: By involving local communities and Panchayati Raj Institutions, the project promotes agro-forestry and sustainable land management practices to enhance the livelihoods of those living near the Aravalli region.

Important Points

• UNCCD Commitment: The Aravalli Green Wall Project is a vital part of India's commitment under the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) to restore 26 million hectares of degraded land by the year 2030.
• Carbon Sink: The initiative helps in creating additional carbon sinks to mitigate the effects of climate change, aligning with India's goals under the Paris Agreement.
• Groundwater Recharge: One of the critical functions of the Aravalli hills is acting as a groundwater recharge zone; the green wall will help increase the water table in the water-stressed regions of North India.
• Land Degradation Neutrality: By addressing soil erosion and improving vegetation cover, the project works toward achieving Land Degradation Neutrality (LDN) in the targeted geographical locations.

The correct answer is 99.

Key Points

• According to the Sustainable Development Report 2025, India has secured the 99^th rank in the Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) Index. This marks the first time India has entered the top 100 nations since the inception of the index.
• The report is published annually by the Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN), which operates under the auspices of the United Nations Secretary-General.
• India's improvement in the rankings is attributed to its consistent progress in goals related to SDG 1 (No Poverty), SDG 7 (Affordable and Clean Energy), and SDG 12 (Responsible Consumption and Production).
• The index tracks the performance of 193 United Nations Member States, assigning a score out of 100 based on their progress toward achieving the 17 Sustainable Development Goals by the 2030 deadline.
• India's entry into the top 100 reflects the successful implementation of various social welfare schemes and a robust focus on digital public infrastructure, which has accelerated financial inclusion across the country.

Additional Information

• Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs):
• The SDGs, also known as the Global Goals, were adopted by all United Nations Member States in September 2015 as a universal call to action to end poverty and protect the planet.
• There are 17 Goals and 169 targets that address global challenges, including climate change, economic inequality, innovation, and sustainable consumption.
• Monitoring in India:
• In India, NITI Aayog is the nodal agency responsible for the implementation and monitoring of SDGs at the national level.
• NITI Aayog releases its own SDG India Index, which ranks States and Union Territories to promote competitive federalism and track sub-national progress.
• Global Leaders:
• Countries that traditionally dominate the top of the SDG Index include Finland, Sweden, Denmark, and Norway, primarily due to their high social security and environmental standards.
• The Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN) was launched in 2012 to mobilize global scientific and technological expertise to promote practical solutions for sustainable development.
• Significance of the 2030 Agenda:
• The 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development provides a shared blueprint for peace and prosperity for people and the planet, now and into the future.
• Recent reports emphasize the need for international financial reform to help developing countries close the SDG financing gap.