General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Jyothi Yarraji.

Key Points

• Jyothi Yarraji successfully defended her gold medal in the women's 100 m hurdles during the Asian Athletics Championships held in May 2025.
• She achieved a remarkable timing of 12.96 seconds, which set a new Championships record for the event.
• By clocking 12.96 s, she became the first woman in the history of the Asian Athletics Championships to dip below the previous record in this specific category, further cementing her dominance in Asian hurdles.
• This victory represents a significant title defense, as she had previously won the top spot in the earlier edition of the continental meet, proving her consistency and elite form.
• Her performance was a highlight for the Indian contingent, contributing to the nation's gold medal tally and securing her path toward global qualification standards.

Additional Information

• Jyothi Yarraji:
• She is a premier Indian sprinter specializing in the 100 m hurdles and hails from Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh.
• She has been a consistent national record holder and was the first Indian woman to run the 100 m hurdles in under 13 seconds.
• Her training is often supported by the Reliance Foundation Athletics High-Performance Centre, which has played a crucial role in her technical development.
• Other Athletes Mentioned:
• Vithya Ramraj: An Indian athlete known for her prowess in the 400 m hurdles and 400 m sprint. She famously equaled P.T. Usha’s long-standing national record in 2023.
• Anu Raghavan: A seasoned 400 m hurdles specialist who has represented India at various international platforms, including the Asian Games and previous Asian Championships.
• Pooja Singh: A rising star in Indian athletics, primarily known for her achievements in the High Jump event rather than hurdles.
• Asian Athletics Championships:
• It is a biennial event organized by the Asian Athletics Association.
• The event serves as a platform for athletes from across Asia to compete for continental titles and gain ranking points for the World Athletics Championships and the Olympic Games.
• The 100 m hurdles for women is a standard track event where athletes must clear ten hurdles of 83.8 cm height over a 100-meter straight track.

The correct answer is option1. The detailed solution will be updated soon.

The correct answer is August 2025.

Key Points

• The 130^th Constitutional Amendment Bill was officially introduced in the Lok Sabha (the Lower House of Parliament) in August 2025.
• Constitutional amendments in India are carried out under the provisions of Article 368, which empowers the Parliament to amend the Constitution of India while maintaining its basic structure.
• This specific bill represents a significant legislative step, typically introduced by a Union Minister to address pressing administrative, social, or political requirements that necessitate a formal change in the constitutional text.
• The introduction of a Constitutional Amendment Bill in the Lok Sabha marks the beginning of a rigorous legislative process involving multiple readings, detailed discussions, and a specific voting pattern.
• To pass, such a bill requires a special majority, which entails a majority of the total membership of the House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.

Additional Information

• Article 368 of the Constitution:
• Located in Part XX, this article provides the Parliament with the authority to amend the Constitution by way of addition, variation, or repeal.
• There are three types of amendments: those requiring a simple majority (like creating new states under Article 3), those requiring a special majority, and those requiring a special majority plus ratification by at least half of the state legislatures.
• The Process of Amendment:
• An amendment bill can be initiated in either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha; however, it cannot be introduced in state legislatures.
• Unlike ordinary bills, there is no provision for a joint sitting of the two houses if there is a disagreement over a Constitutional Amendment Bill.

Each house must pass it independently.

• The President of India must give assent to the bill once it is passed by both houses; the President cannot return the bill for reconsideration or withhold assent.
• Difference Between Bill and Act:
• A Bill is a draft legislative proposal. It becomes an Act (Law) only after it is passed by the Parliament and receives the Presidential Assent.
• The numbering of Constitutional Amendment Bills (like the 130^th Bill) is often higher than the numbering of Constitutional Amendment Acts because some bills fail to pass or are withdrawn.

Important Points

• Legislative Timeline: The introduction in August 2025 coincides with the Monsoon Session of Parliament, a period typically used for significant legislative business.
• Judicial Oversight: Any amendment passed by the Parliament is subject to Judicial Review by the Supreme Court. The court ensures that the amendment does not violate the Basic Structure Doctrine established in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973).
• Special Majority Requirements: For the 130^th Bill to progress, it must secure the support of more than 50% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha and 66.6% of those attending and voting on the day of the division.
• Federal Consent: If the 130^th Amendment Bill affects the powers of the states, the Election Commission, or the High Courts, it would require ratification by the legislatures of 14 or more states before reaching the President.

The correct answer is Riyadh, Saudi Arabia.

Key Points

• The city of Riyadh, the capital of Saudi Arabia, is designated to host the WWE Night of Champions event on June 28, 2025.
• This event is part of the long-term strategic partnership between WWE (World Wrestling Entertainment) and the Saudi General Entertainment Authority (GEA).
• The Night of Champions is a specialized Premium Live Event (PLE) where, traditionally, every active championship in the WWE roster is defended.
• The scheduling of this event in June 2025 follows the pattern of WWE hosting at least two major international events in the Kingdom annually, contributing to the Riyadh Season and other national festivities.
• The hosting of such global sporting spectacles is a key component of Saudi Arabia's effort to become a premier destination for international entertainment and sports tourism.

Additional Information

• WWE-Saudi Arabia Partnership:
• In 2018, WWE entered into a 10-year multi-platform strategic partnership with the General Entertainment Authority to support Saudi Vision 2030.
• Previous high-profile events held under this agreement include the Greatest Royal Rumble, Crown Jewel, Super ShowDown, and Elimination Chamber.
• The partnership has seen WWE evolve its programming in the region, including the historic participation of female athletes in matches since 2019.
• General Entertainment Authority (GEA):
• The GEA was established in 2016 by royal decree to regulate and develop the entertainment sector in Saudi Arabia.
• Under the leadership of Chairman Turki Alalshikh, the authority has secured massive deals with global entities like WWE, UFC, and major Boxing promoters.
• The initiatives are designed to diversify the nation's economy away from oil, a core pillar of the Saudi Vision 2030 plan.
• Significance of Night of Champions:
• First introduced as Vengeance: Night of Champions in 2007, the event became a standalone PLE focused on championship gold.
• In 2023, the event was held in Jeddah, Saudi Arabia, featuring the crowning of the inaugural World Heavyweight Champion.

Important Points

• Venue and Infrastructure: Riyadh offers world-class venues such as the Kingdom Arena and the Mohammed Abdo Arena, which are equipped with state-of-the-art technology for global broadcasting.
• Economic Impact: These events draw thousands of international tourists to Saudi Arabia, boosting the local hospitality, transport, and retail sectors.
• Global Reach: WWE broadcasts its events to over 180 countries in 25 languages, providing significant international exposure to the host city of Riyadh.
• King and Queen of the Ring: In addition to Night of Champions, Riyadh recently hosted the King and Queen of the Ring in May 2024, showcasing the city's capability to handle frequent large-scale productions.

The correct answer is Viksit Bharat Young Leaders Dialogue – 2026.

Key Points

• The Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports officially announced the second edition of the Viksit Bharat Young Leaders Dialogue – 2026 on 13 September 2025.
• This initiative is a cornerstone of the government's efforts to engage the youth of India in the vision of making the country a developed nation by 2047.
• The 2026 edition is specifically designed to achieve higher participation compared to its predecessor, featuring new tracks for engagement and a significantly broader outreach across rural and urban sectors.
• The event serves as a platform for young leaders to interact directly with policymakers and contribute their innovative ideas for national development under the Viksit Bharat agenda.
• Registration and participation for this mega-event are primarily facilitated through the MY Bharat (Mera Yuva Bharat) portal, which acts as a digital ecosystem for youth empowerment.
• The dialogue aims to identify and nurture leadership qualities among the Yuva Shakti, encouraging them to take ownership of the country's transformation during the Amrit Kaal.

Additional Information

• Viksit Bharat @2047:
• It is the Government of India’s ambitious roadmap to transform the nation into a developed entity by the 100^th year of independence in 2047.
• The vision encompasses various facets of development, including economic growth, social progress, environmental sustainability, and good governance.
• MY Bharat (Mera Yuva Bharat) Platform:
• Launched on 31 October 2023, coinciding with National Unity Day, this platform serves as an autonomous body to provide equitable opportunities for youth.
• It targets individuals in the age group of 15-29 years (and 10-19 years for specific components) to help them transition from "passive recipients" to "active drivers" of development.
• The platform has successfully registered millions of users, creating a bridge between youth aspirations and government initiatives.
• Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports:
• The ministry plays a pivotal role in creating an environment where the youth can realize their full potential through programs like NSS (National Service Scheme) and NYKS (Nehru Yuva Kendra Sangathan).
• By organizing events like the Young Leaders Dialogue, the ministry ensures that youth-led development becomes a reality in India.

Important Points

• The second edition focuses on decentralized participation, ensuring that voices from districts and villages are represented at the National Level.
• The Dialogue typically includes thematic workshops, brainstorming sessions, and keynote addresses by eminent personalities and Union Ministers.
• Inclusion of new tracks in 2026 suggests a shift toward specialized areas such as Digital Transformation, Green Energy, and Social Entrepreneurship.
• The event reinforces the concept of Jan Bhagidari (People's Participation), which is essential for the success of national missions.

The correct answer is All Insurers and Reinsurers.

Key Points

• The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) issued a high-priority advisory in June 2025 following the tragic crash of Air India flight AI-171.
• This advisory was specifically directed toward All Insurers and Reinsurers operating within the Indian jurisdiction to ensure a unified and rapid response to the catastrophe. Hence, option 1 is correct.
• The primary objective of this directive was to facilitate the immediate settlement of insurance claims for the families of the deceased and the injured passengers.
• IRDAI instructed companies to simplify the documentation process, suggesting that official passenger manifests or reports from government authorities be accepted in lieu of standard death certificates to avoid administrative delays.
• The inclusion of Reinsurers in the advisory is significant because aviation insurance involves high-value risks that are typically shared with reinsurance companies globally and domestically, such as GIC Re.
• Insurers were also mandated to set up 24/7 dedicated helpdesks and appoint senior-level nodal officers to oversee the claim disposal process related to the AI-171 crash.

Additional Information

• About IRDAI:
• The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) is a statutory body established under the IRDA Act, 1999.
• It functions as the apex regulator for both the Life Insurance and General Insurance sectors in India, including reinsurance companies.
• The authority was formed based on the recommendations of the Malhotra Committee report of 1994.
• Its headquarters were shifted from Delhi to Hyderabad, Telangana, in the year 2001.
• Composition of the Authority:
• According to Section 4 of the IRDAI Act, 1999, the body consists of a Chairman, five full-time members, and four part-time members, all appointed by the Government of India.
• Classification of Stakeholders:
• Life Insurers: Entities that provide coverage against the risk of human life. In major accidents, they process death benefits and personal accident claims.
• General Insurers: Entities that cover non-life assets. In the context of Air India AI-171, these companies handle Aviation Hull Insurance (the aircraft itself) and Liability Insurance for third parties and cargo.
• Reinsurers: These are companies that provide insurance to the insurance companies themselves. They help manage financial stability when a massive loss occurs, such as a large-scale aviation disaster.
• Aviation Insurance Norms:
• The Montreal Convention often governs the liability limits for international flights, ensuring that victims receive standardized compensation regardless of the airline's specific fault.
• IRDAI ensures that Indian carriers maintain adequate insurance protection to meet these international and domestic obligations.

Important Points

• The June 2025 advisory emphasized the "customer-first" approach, urging General Insurers to settle hull claims quickly so the airline could maintain operational continuity while Life Insurers focused on beneficiary payouts.
• By addressing all stakeholders, IRDAI prevents reinsurance disputes from stalling the payment of primary claims to the victims' families.
• In India, the General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC Re) serves as the sole domestic reinsurer, often leading the reinsurance treaty for national carriers like Air India.

The correct answer is 5.

Key Points

• The Indian Men’s Junior Hockey Team has won the Junior Asia Cup a total of 5 times as of June 2025.
• India secured its fifth title in December 2024 by defeating arch-rivals Pakistan with a score of 5-3 in the final held in Muscat, Oman.
• With this victory, India became the most successful team in the history of the tournament, surpassing Pakistan’s record of three titles.
• The five years in which India emerged as champions are 2004, 2008, 2015, 2023, and 2024.
• In the 2024 edition, Arshdeep Singh was a standout performer, scoring a hat-trick in the final match to secure India's dominance in Asian junior hockey. Hence, the correct option is 5.

Additional Information

• Men's Junior Asia Cup Overview:
• The Men's Junior Asia Cup is an international under-21 field hockey tournament organized by the Asian Hockey Federation (AHF).
• The tournament was first held in 1988 in Karachi, Pakistan, where the hosts emerged as the inaugural champions.
• It serves as a primary qualification tournament for the FIH Hockey Men's Junior World Cup, with the top-ranked teams earning a spot on the global stage.
• Tournament History and Rivalry:
• India and Pakistan have been the most dominant forces in this competition. While India holds 5 titles, Pakistan has won the trophy 3 times (1988, 1992, and 1996).
• Other nations that have tasted success include South Korea, which won the tournament in 2000.
• The 2023 edition was held in Salalah, Oman, where India defeated Pakistan 2-1 in the final to claim their fourth title.
• Indian Hockey Development:
• Success at the Junior Asia Cup is a testament to the robust grassroots development and academy structures in India, such as the Odisha Naval Tata Hockey High Performance Centre.
• Many players from the junior winning squads, such as Harmanpreet Singh (from the 2015 batch), have transitioned to become world-class players for the Indian Senior National Team.
• The Government of India, through the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports and the Sports Authority of India (SAI), provides extensive funding and training facilities for these young athletes.

Important Points

• Host Nations: Oman has become a frequent host for the tournament in recent years, successfully organizing both the 2023 and 2024 editions in Salalah and Muscat respectively.
• Qualification Impact: By reaching the final of the 2024 Junior Asia Cup, India confirmed its berth for the 2025 FIH Hockey Men's Junior World Cup.
• Record Win Streak: India’s victory in 2024 marked their second consecutive title win (2023 and 2024), demonstrating their current era of supremacy in the under-21 category across Asia.

The correct answer is Shooting.

Key Points

• The ISSF World Cup was introduced by the International Shooting Sport Federation in 1986.
• The primary objective of establishing the World Cup was to provide a homogeneous system for qualification for the Olympic Games in shooting events.
• It comprises multiple stages held annually in different countries across the globe, featuring competitions in Rifle, Pistol, and Shotgun categories.
• The ISSF World Cup Finals are held at the end of the competition year, where the top-performing shooters of the season compete for the prestigious titles.
• The International Shooting Sport Federation (ISSF) is the governing body for Olympic shooting events and is headquartered in Munich, Germany.
• Hence, the correct answer is Shooting.

Additional Information

• International Shooting Sport Federation (ISSF):
• The organization was founded in 1907 as the International Shooting Union (UIT) and later changed its name to ISSF in 1998.
• It currently recognizes over 150 national shooting federations as members. The current President of the ISSF is Luciano Rossi, who took office in December 2022.
• Swimming:
• Swimming is globally governed by World Aquatics (formerly known as FINA - Fédération Internationale de Natation), which was founded in 1908.
• Major international events include the World Aquatics Championships and the FINA Swimming World Cup, which is a series of short-course (25m) meets.
• Squash:
• Squash is governed by the World Squash Federation (WSF), which is recognized by the International Olympic Committee (IOC).
• The professional circuit is managed by the Professional Squash Association (PSA), featuring the PSA World Championships as its pinnacle event.
• Skiing:
• Skiing events, including Alpine, Cross-Country, and Ski Jumping, are governed by the International Ski and Snowboard Federation (FIS).
• The FIS was founded in 1924 during the first Olympic Winter Games in Chamonix, France.

Important Points

• Shooting in the Olympics: Shooting has been part of the Modern Olympic Games since the first edition in Athens 1896, except for the 1904 and 1928 editions.
• India's Success: India has a strong legacy in ISSF events. Notable athletes like Abhinav Bindra (the first Indian to win an individual Olympic gold in 2008), Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore, Gagan Narang, and Manu Bhaker have brought international acclaim to the country in this sport.
• ISSF World Championships: Unlike the World Cup which is held annually with multiple stages, the ISSF World Shooting Championships are held every four years and are considered the most prestigious event after the Olympics.
• Disciplines: The Rifle and Pistol events are usually conducted at indoor or semi-outdoor ranges at distances of 10m, 25m, and 50m, while Shotgun events (Skeet and Trap) take place at outdoor ranges.

The correct answer is 6.00%.

Key Points

• The 54^th meeting of the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) was conducted by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in April 2025 to review the prevailing macroeconomic conditions and determine the key policy rates for the financial year 2025-26.
• Following the deliberations of the committee, the RBI announced a reduction in the policy repo rate, bringing it down to 6.00%. This decision represented a significant shift from the previous rate of 6.5% which had been maintained for several preceding quarters.
• The reduction of 50 basis points in the repo rate was aimed at stimulating economic growth and incentivizing investment by lowering the cost of borrowing for commercial banks and, subsequently, for businesses and individual consumers.
• Alongside the repo rate, the committee also adjusted the Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) rate to 5.75% and the Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) rate to 6.25%, maintaining the standard corridor width.
• The MPC, led by the RBI Governor, noted that while inflation was showing signs of stabilization within the target range, the move to 6.00% was necessary to provide a cushion against global economic headwinds. Hence, the correct answer is 6.00%.

Additional Information

• Repo Rate and Its Function:
• The Repo Rate (Repurchase Option) is the interest rate at which the Reserve Bank of India lends money to commercial banks in the event of any shortfall of funds.
• It is used by monetary authorities to control inflation. When inflation is high, the RBI increases the repo rate to reduce liquidity in the economy; conversely, it lowers the rate to inject liquidity and spur GDP growth.
• The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC):
• The MPC is a statutory body constituted under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, following an amendment in 2016.
• It consists of 6 members: the Governor of the RBI (Chairperson, ex officio), the Deputy Governor in charge of monetary policy, one officer of the RBI nominated by the Central Board, and three external members appointed by the Government of India.
• The committee is mandated to meet at least four times a year, though it usually meets bi-monthly (six times a year) to publish the Monetary Policy Report.
• Monetary Policy Stance:
• The MPC often adopts specific "stances" such as Accommodative (aimed at growth), Neutral (no specific direction), or Hawkish/Withdrawal of Accommodation (aimed at curbing inflation).
• A rate cut to 6.00% typically aligns with an accommodative stance to ensure that the banking system has enough liquidity to support credit flow.
• Inflation Targeting:
• The Government of India, in consultation with the RBI, sets a Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation target.
• The current target is 4% with a tolerance band of +/- 2%, meaning inflation should ideally remain between 2% and 6%.

Important Points

• Standing Deposit Facility (SDF): This replaced the Reverse Repo Rate as the floor of the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) corridor. It allows the RBI to absorb liquidity from banks without providing collateral.
• Marginal Standing Facility (MSF): A window for banks to borrow from the RBI in an emergency situation when inter-bank liquidity dries up completely. It is usually set 25 basis points above the Repo Rate.
• Basis Points (bps): In finance, 100 basis points equal 1%. Therefore, a 50 bps cut means a 0.50% reduction in the rate.

The correct answer is 27.

Key Points

• The Indian Shuttlers delivered an extraordinary performance at the Asian Para-Badminton Championship 2025, which was held in Pattaya, Thailand.
• India finished the prestigious tournament with a total of 27 medals, marking one of the most successful outings for the Indian contingent in the history of the continental championships.
• The medal tally consisted of 9 Gold, 8 Silver, and 10 Bronze medals, showcasing India's dominance in various classifications of para-badminton.
• This stellar achievement placed India at the top of the medal table, ahead of traditional powerhouses like China and Japan in several categories.
• Key athletes who contributed to this tally include prominent names such as Pramod Bhagat, Suhas Yathiraj, Nitesh Kumar, and Krishna Nagar, who secured victories in their respective Singles and Doubles events.

Additional Information

• Asian Para-Badminton Championship:
• This is a premier biennial event organized to provide a platform for elite para-athletes across Asia to compete and gain crucial ranking points for Paralympic qualification.
• The 2025 edition in Thailand saw participation from over 20 countries, featuring various impairment groups including wheelchair and standing categories.
• Classification in Para-Badminton:
• Athletes are divided into six classes: WH1 and WH2 for wheelchair users, SL3, SL4, and SU5 for standing players with limb impairments, and SH6 for short stature athletes.
• India’s strength is particularly notable in the SL3 and SL4 categories, where players like Suhas L. Yathiraj (an IAS officer and Paralympic medalist) have consistently performed at the world stage.
• Significance of the 2025 Win:
• The total of 27 medals represents a significant growth from previous editions, reflecting the impact of government initiatives like the Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS) and the Khelo India program.
• The 9 Gold medals won in 2025 highlight the depth of talent in the Indian squad, as multiple athletes managed to reach the podium across different age groups and skill levels.
• Recent Trends in Indian Para-Sports:
• Since the Tokyo 2020 Paralympics, where India won 19 medals, there has been a massive surge in the infrastructure and funding for para-badminton.
• Badminton Association of India (BAI) and the Paralympic Committee of India (PCI) work in tandem to scout talent from rural areas and provide them with international-standard training facilities.

Important Points

• Tournament Venue: The 2025 event was hosted at Pattaya, which has become a major hub for international para-sports in Southeast Asia.
• Performance Comparison: In the previous 2023 cycle, India had a strong showing, but the 27 medals in 2025 set a new national record for the highest number of medals in a single Asian Championship.
• Governing Bodies: The event is sanctioned by the Badminton World Federation (BWF) and the Asian Paralympic Committee, ensuring rigorous anti-doping and fair-play standards are maintained throughout the competition.

The correct answer is Chandoli National Park.

Key Points

• In November 2025, as part of a significant conservation initiative, 79 spotted deer (also known as Chital) were successfully translocated to Chandoli National Park in Maharashtra.
• The primary objective of this relocation is to augment the prey base within the park, which is a critical component of the Sahyadri Tiger Reserve (STR).
• This translocation project was executed by the Maharashtra Forest Department to ensure a sustainable population of herbivores, which is essential for the survival and potential reintroduction of large carnivores like Tigers in the region.
• The 79 spotted deer were moved from overpopulated areas or zoological facilities, such as the Rajiv Gandhi Zoological Park in Katraj, Pune, to the wild habitat of Chandoli.
• The process involved advanced scientific methods for capture and transport to minimize stress and ensure the high survival rate of the animals during the wildlife management operation. Hence, the correct answer is Chandoli National Park.

Additional Information

• Chandoli National Park:
• Located in the Western Ghats, it spans across the districts of Sangli, Satara, Kolhapur, and Ratnagiri in the state of Maharashtra.
• It was established as a Wildlife Sanctuary in 1985 and later declared a National Park in May 2004.
• In 2010, it was merged with the Koyna Wildlife Sanctuary to form the Sahyadri Tiger Reserve, which is one of the few tiger reserves in the world located in a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
• The park is home to diverse fauna, including the Indian Bison (Gaur), Leopards, Sloth Bears, and various species of deer and antelopes.
• Spotted Deer (Axis axis):
• Commonly known as Chital, they are native to the Indian subcontinent and are characterized by their golden-brown coat with white spots.
• They play a vital role in the ecosystem as a primary prey species for major predators like Tigers, Leopards, and Dholes.
• They prefer open grasslands and semi-evergreen forests, making the habitat of Chandoli an ideal environment for their propagation.
• Sahyadri Tiger Reserve (STR):
• The reserve is unique due to its rugged terrain and high-altitude evergreen forests, providing a safe corridor for wildlife movement between the northern and southern Western Ghats.
• Recent conservation efforts have focused on habitat restoration and prey-base enrichment to make the reserve a viable home for Big Cats.

Important Points

• Conservation Impact: Increasing the number of herbivores like spotted deer helps in reducing man-animal conflict in peripheral areas by keeping predators within the protected forest boundaries.
• Geographical Significance: Chandoli National Park is located near the Warna River and includes the Chandoli Dam, which serves as a major water source for the local wildlife.
• Other Options:
• Sultanpur National Park is a famous bird sanctuary located in Haryana.
• Kaziranga National Park in Assam is world-renowned for its One-horned Rhinoceros.
• Keoladeo National Park in Rajasthan is a premier avifauna sanctuary and a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

The correct answer is 2^nd Edition.

Key Points

• The World Health Organization (WHO), in collaboration with the Ministry of Ayush, will organize the 2^nd WHO Global Summit on Traditional Medicine in New Delhi.
• The summit is scheduled to be held in December 2025, serving as a major global platform to discuss the future of Traditional, Complementary, and Integrative Medicine (TCIM).
• The primary objective of the 2025 Summit is to build on the momentum generated during the inaugural event to further integrate traditional medicine into national health systems and global health policies.
• It aims to showcase evidence-based traditional medicine and foster international cooperation to meet the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) related to health and well-being.
• India’s role as the host reinforces its position as a global hub for traditional healthcare practices like Ayurveda, Yoga, and Unani, supported by modern scientific validation.

Additional Information

• 1^st WHO Global Summit on Traditional Medicine:
• The first-ever global summit was held on 17-18 August 2023 in Gandhinagar, Gujarat, India.
• It was organized alongside the G20 Health Ministers’ Meeting under India’s G20 Presidency.
• The outcome document of this summit was the Gujarat Declaration, which committed to utilizing the potential of traditional medicine through science, technology, and innovation.
• WHO Global Centre for Traditional Medicine (GCTM):
• Established in Jamnagar, Gujarat, the GCTM is the first and only global outpost for traditional medicine by the WHO.
• The foundation stone was laid by Prime Minister Narendra Modi and WHO Director-General Dr. Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus in April 2022.
• It focuses on four main strategic areas: Evidence and learning, Data and analytics, Sustainability and equity, and Innovation and technology.
• Ministry of Ayush:
• The Ministry of AYUSH was formed on 9^th November 2014 to ensure the optimal development and propagation of Ayurveda, Yoga and Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha, and Homoeopathy.
• The ministry plays a pivotal role in regulating the standards of education and research in traditional Indian medicine systems.
• Global Importance of Traditional Medicine:
• According to WHO data, nearly 80% of the world's population uses traditional medicine in some form.
• Traditional medicine is an important pillar of Universal Health Coverage (UHC) and is increasingly being scrutinized through the lens of biodiversity conservation and intellectual property rights.

Important Points

• The World Health Organization (WHO) was established on 7 April 1948, and its headquarters is located in Geneva, Switzerland.
• The current Director-General of WHO is Dr. Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus, who has been a strong advocate for integrating traditional medicine with modern healthcare.
• The International Day of Yoga, celebrated annually on June 21, is one of India's most successful global traditional medicine and wellness initiatives recognized by the United Nations.
• The December 2025 summit in New Delhi is expected to see participation from health ministers, scientists, and traditional medicine practitioners from over 190 countries.

The correct answer is NITI Aayog.

Key Points

• The report titled ‘India’s Blue Economy: Strategy for Harnessing Deep-Sea and Offshore Fisheries’ was released by NITI Aayog in October 2025.
• The primary objective of this report is to provide a comprehensive roadmap for the sustainable development of India's maritime resources, specifically focusing on the untapped potential of deep-sea fishing and offshore fisheries.
• It highlights the strategic importance of the Blue Economy in achieving the goal of a Viksit Bharat (Developed India) by 2047, emphasizing economic growth alongside environmental conservation.
• The document identifies critical gaps in the current fisheries sector, such as the lack of advanced technology, limited financial investment in deep-sea vessels, and the need for better post-harvest infrastructure like cold storage and processing units.
• Through this strategy, NITI Aayog aims to enhance the livelihoods of the coastal communities and increase the contribution of the fisheries sector to the national GDP.

Additional Information

• Blue Economy:
• The term refers to the sustainable use of ocean resources for economic growth, improved livelihoods, and jobs while preserving the health of the ocean ecosystem.
• India has a vast coastline of approximately 7,517 km and an Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) spanning over 2.02 million square kilometers, offering immense marine wealth.
• NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India):
• Established on January 1, 2015, it serves as the premier policy think tank of the Government of India, replacing the erstwhile Planning Commission.
• It operates on the principle of cooperative federalism and provides strategic and technical advice to the central and state governments.
• Relevant Organizations in the Sector:
• National Fisheries Development Board (NFDB): Established in 2006 with headquarters in Hyderabad, it works under the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry, and Dairying to enhance fish production.
• Marine Products Export Development Authority (MPEDA): Formed in 1972 under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, it focuses on the export promotion of marine products from India.
• Deep-Sea Fishing vs. Coastal Fishing:
• Coastal fishing is generally limited to 12 nautical miles from the shore, whereas deep-sea fishing involves operating in deeper waters, usually beyond the continental shelf, targeting species like tuna and oceanic squids.
• India's deep-sea resources remain underutilized because a majority of the traditional fishing fleet consists of small, motorized boats incapable of staying at sea for extended periods.

Important Points

• Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY): This is a flagship scheme launched in May 2020 to bring about a Blue Revolution through sustainable and responsible development of the fisheries sector with an investment of over Rs. 20,000 crores.
• Employment Potential: The fisheries sector in India provides employment to more than 28 million people, particularly within marginalized coastal communities.
• Global Standing: India is currently the third-largest fish-producing country and the second-largest aquaculture nation in the world.
• Sustainable Development Goals (SDG): The Blue Economy strategy aligns with SDG 14, which aims to "conserve and sustainably use the oceans, seas, and marine resources for sustainable development."

The correct answer is Foundational (Classes 1–5).

Key Points

• The Pupil-Teacher Ratio (PTR) is a critical indicator of the quality of education, representing the average number of students assigned to a single teacher. A lower ratio typically indicates better individual attention for students.
• According to the UDISE+ 2024–25 (Unified District Information System for Education Plus) report, the Foundational level (Classes 1–5) demonstrated the most favorable PTR compared to other levels of schooling. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The improvement in PTR at the Foundational stage is largely attributed to the government's focus on Foundational Literacy and Numeracy (FLN) under the NIPUN Bharat Mission, which necessitates manageable class sizes.
• For the Secondary level (Classes 9–12), while there has been significant improvement over the years, the ratio remains slightly higher than the foundational stage due to the requirement for subject-specific teachers for various streams. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• The Middle level (Classes 6–8), often referred to as Upper Primary, also maintains a steady PTR but it has traditionally been higher than the primary/foundational levels in the national average statistics. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• The Preparatory stage, which in the NEP 2020 structure encompasses classes 3–5, is often grouped with foundational data in UDISE+ reporting; however, as an independent option listed for classes 6–8, it does not hold the best ratio. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• UDISE+ (Unified District Information System for Education Plus):
• It was launched in 2018-19 by the Ministry of Education to collect real-time data and act as a specialized tool for the planning and monitoring of the school education system in India.
• The system covers more than 14.89 lakh schools, 95 lakh teachers, and over 26.5 crore students from pre-primary to higher secondary levels.
• RTE Act 2009 Norms:
• The Right to Education Act (2009) mandates a PTR of 30:1 for Primary schools (Classes 1–5) and 35:1 for Upper Primary schools (Classes 6–8).
• India has consistently worked towards these targets, with most states now performing better than the minimum 30:1 requirement at the foundational level.
• NEP 2020 Structural Changes:
• The National Education Policy 2020 introduced a 5+3+3+4 structure, replacing the old 10+2 system.
• The Foundational Stage (5 years) includes 3 years of Anganwadi/Pre-school followed by Classes 1 and 2.
• The policy emphasizes that for Socio-Economically Disadvantaged Groups (SEDGs), the PTR should ideally be 25:1.

Important Points

• Impact of PTR: A healthy PTR at the Foundational level (ages 3–8) is vital because this is the critical window for cognitive development and basic skill acquisition.
• Teacher Availability: The UDISE+ 2024-25 report indicates a steady increase in the total number of teachers, which has directly contributed to the optimization of PTR across Government, Aided, and Private schools.
• Digital Integration: The report also tracks the Computer-to-Pupil Ratio and Internet Access, showing that improvements in physical infrastructure and human resources (teachers) are moving in tandem to improve learning outcomes.

The correct answer is Samba Mahsuri.

Key Points

• DRR Dhan 100 (Kamala) is an advanced genome-edited rice variety that was developed by scientists at the ICAR-Indian Institute of Rice Research (IIRR), located in Hyderabad.
• It is a derivative of the popular elite rice variety Samba Mahsuri (also known as BPT 5204), which is highly favored by farmers and consumers across India for its excellent cooking quality and fine grain.
• The variety was developed using CRISPR/Cas9 gene-editing technology to specifically target and knock out the GW2 gene (Grain Weight 2), which acts as a negative regulator of grain size.
• By editing this specific gene, researchers successfully increased the grain weight and yield of the plant without introducing any foreign genetic material, ensuring it remains non-transgenic.
• This breakthrough, highlighted in reports around May 2025, marks a significant milestone in Indian agriculture as it is one of the first few crops developed under the SDN-1 (Site-Directed Nuclease-1) category to reach advanced stages.

Additional Information

• Samba Mahsuri (BPT 5204):
• It is a "mega-variety" known for its medium-slender grains and high market demand.
• Despite its popularity, it is susceptible to several biotic stresses, leading researchers to use it as a base for various improvements, including the Improved Samba Mahsuri (resistant to Bacterial Blight).
• Genome Editing Technology:
• Unlike Genetically Modified Organisms (GMOs), genome editing (specifically SDN-1 and SDN-2) does not involve the permanent integration of foreign DNA.
• The Department of Biotechnology (DBT) and the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change issued guidelines in 2022 exempting such varieties from the stringent biosafety regulations applicable to transgenic crops.
• ICAR-IIRR:
• The Indian Council of Agricultural Research - Indian Institute of Rice Research is a premier national institute dedicated to rice research and was established as the All India Coordinated Rice Improvement Project (AICRIP) in 1965.
• Significance of the Name:
• The variety is officially designated as DRR Dhan 100, with the name Kamala added as a unique identifier for this genome-edited line.

Important Points

• The modification of the GW2 gene in DRR Dhan 100 typically results in an increase of approximately 10% to 15% in grain weight, significantly boosting the overall agricultural productivity.
• India is one of the leading countries adopting genome editing to ensure food security, following similar global trends in the USA, China, and Japan.
• The release of Kamala is expected to benefit thousands of farmers in states like Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu, where Samba Mahsuri is a staple crop.
• The May 2025 timeframe signifies the transition of these lab-developed varieties into multi-location field trials and eventual commercial cultivation under the updated regulatory framework.

The correct answer is Chetna V.

Key Points

• Chetna V is a prodigious Bharatanatyam dancer who has been recognized for her exceptional skills and contribution to the classical arts at the young age of 14.
• In May 2025, she was conferred with the prestigious Nritya Kala Bhushan Bal Puraskar, an award dedicated to honoring "child jewels" (Bal Puraskar) who exhibit mastery in the field of classical dance.
• This recognition highlights her dedication to the Tanjore style or other specific lineages of Bharatanatyam, emphasizing her technical precision in Adavus (basic steps) and Abhinaya (expression).
• The award ceremony typically aims to encourage young artists to preserve the rich cultural heritage of India and serves as a platform for emerging talents to showcase their Arangetram-level proficiency.
• Recipients of such awards are often selected based on their performance consistency, stage presence, and their ability to convey complex mythological narratives through the medium of dance.

Additional Information

• Bharatanatyam:
• It is one of the oldest and most popular classical dance forms of India, originating from the state of Tamil Nadu.
• Traditionally performed by Devadasis in temples, it was formerly known as Sadir Attam.
• The dance is based on the principles of the Natya Shastra, an ancient Sanskrit text on performing arts attributed to Bharata Muni.
• It consists of three main elements: Nritta (pure dance), Nritya (solo dance with expressions), and Natya (group dramatic dance).
• Sudha Chandran:
• She is an accomplished Indian Bharatanatyam dancer and actress who gained international fame for continuing to dance using a Jaipur foot (prosthetic leg) after an accident.
• Her life story serves as a major inspiration in the world of performing arts.
• Ravi Shankar:
• Pandit Ravi Shankar was a world-renowned Sitar maestro and composer, not a dancer.
• He was instrumental in popularizing Indian classical music in the West and was a recipient of the Bharat Ratna in 1999.
• Other Classical Dances of India:
• Apart from Bharatanatyam, the Sangeet Natak Akademi recognizes other forms such as Kathak (Uttar Pradesh), Kathakali (Kerala), Kuchipudi (Andhra Pradesh), Odissi (Odisha), Sattriya (Assam), Manipuri (Manipur), and Mohiniyattam (Kerala).

The correct answer is Atal Pension Yojana.

Key Points

• Pradhan Mantri Virasat Ka Samvardhan (PM VIKAS) is an integrated scheme launched by the Ministry of Minority Affairs that aims to improve the livelihoods of minority communities, particularly artisan communities, through skill development, leadership training, and entrepreneurship.
• The scheme was formed by converging five erstwhile schemes of the Ministry: Seekho Aur Kamao, USTTAD, Hamari Dharohar, Nai Roshni, and Nai Manzil.
• Seekho Aur Kamao: This was a placement-linked skill development scheme for minority youth. It has been successfully integrated into PM VIKAS to provide market-oriented skills. Hence, option 1 is converged.
• Nai Roshni: This scheme focused on leadership development for minority women to empower them to interact with government systems and banks. It is now a component of the PM VIKAS framework. Hence, option 2 is converged.
• Hamari Dharohar: This scheme aimed at preserving the rich heritage and culture of minority communities in India. It has been brought under the umbrella of PM VIKAS to promote traditional arts and crafts. Hence, option 3 is converged.
• Atal Pension Yojana (APY): This is a social security scheme for the unorganized sector, administered by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) under the Ministry of Finance. It is not part of the PM VIKAS convergence. Hence, option 4 is NOT converged.
• The PM VIKAS scheme is designed to target 6 notified minority communities (Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Parsis, and Jains) and focuses on the socio-economic development of these groups through a credit-linked livelihood approach.

Additional Information

• Pradhan Mantri Virasat Ka Samvardhan (PM VIKAS):
• It was announced in the Union Budget 2022-23 as a "Central Sector Scheme" implemented for the remaining period of the 15^th Finance Commission.
• The scheme components include Skilling and Training, Leadership and Entrepreneurship (especially for women), and Education (for school dropouts).
• It aims to preserve and promote traditional arts and crafts while ensuring that artisans have access to modern marketing platforms and financial assistance.
• Atal Pension Yojana (APY):
• Launched on 9^th May 2015 by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in Kolkata.
• It targets the unorganized sector workers between the age of 18 to 40 years.
• Subscribers receive a guaranteed minimum monthly pension of Rs. 1,000 to Rs. 5,000 after attaining the age of 60 years, depending on their contributions.
• Seekho Aur Kamao (Learn & Earn):
• Launched in September 2013, this scheme focused on youth aged 14 to 35 years.
• It aimed to reduce the unemployment rate of minorities and provide them with employment-linked certifications.
• Nai Roshni Scheme:
• Introduced in 2012-13, it targeted women aged 18 to 65 years.
• The goal was to instill confidence and provide knowledge on tools and techniques for interacting with various government tiers.

Important Points

• The PM VIKAS scheme emphasizes the Artisan Livelihood Component, which focuses on identifying handicraft clusters and providing them with technical training and business mentorship.
• The scheme seeks to increase the income levels of minority communities by bridging the gap between traditional skills and modern market demands.
• Nai Manzil, another converged scheme, specifically addressed the education and skill needs of school dropouts from minority communities, integrating them into the mainstream economy.
• The USTTAD (Upgrading the Skills and Training in Traditional Arts/Crafts for Development) component focuses on building a database of traditional artisans and conducting exhibitions like Hunar Haat.

The correct answer is Indore.

Key Points

• Indore has secured the first rank in Category-1, which comprises cities with a population of over 10 lakh, in the Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan Awards 2025.
• In the same category, Agra (Uttar Pradesh) achieved the second position, while Surat (Gujarat) stood third. These rankings reflect the cities' outstanding performance in implementing the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP).
• The awards are an initiative by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) to rank 131 cities across India based on their efforts to improve air quality through various administrative and field-level interventions.
• The evaluation for the 2025 awards was conducted based on the self-assessment reports submitted by the Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) on the PRANA portal, followed by a rigorous third-party verification process.
• The ranking system incentivizes cities to take proactive steps such as managing road dust, controlling vehicular emissions, and preventing the open burning of municipal solid waste. Hence, the correct answer is Indore.

Additional Information

• National Clean Air Programme (NCAP):
• Launched in January 2019, the NCAP is a long-term, time-bound national strategy to tackle the air pollution problem across the country in a comprehensive manner.
• The programme initially aimed for a 20% to 30% reduction in Particulate Matter (PM10 and PM2.5) concentrations by 2024, taking 2017 as the base year. The target was later revised to a 40% reduction by 2026.
• Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan Categorization:
• Cities are categorized into three groups based on their 2011 Census population to ensure fair competition.
• Category 1: Population over 10 lakh (includes 47 cities).
• Category 2: Population between 3 lakh and 10 lakh (includes 44 cities).
• Category 3: Population less than 3 lakh (includes 40 cities).
• Assessment Criteria:
• The ranking is based on eight major thematic areas: control of biomass and municipal solid waste burning, road dust management, dust from construction and demolition waste, vehicular emissions, industrial emissions, public awareness, and improvement in PM10 concentrations.
• Weightage is also given to the implementation of Information, Education, and Communication (IEC) activities and the improvement of air quality monitoring networks.
• Indore's Environmental Leadership:
• Indore, located in Madhya Pradesh, has consistently dominated environmental rankings in India. It has been awarded the title of India's Cleanest City for seven consecutive years in the Swachh Survekshan.
• The city's success in the Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan is attributed to its innovative waste-to-energy plants, extensive public transport electrification, and strict enforcement of pollution control norms.

Important Points

• PRANA Portal: The Portal for Regulation of Air-pollution in Non-Attainment cities (PRANA) is used for monitoring the implementation of NCAP. It provides all information related to the National Clean Air Programme to the public and tracks the physical and financial status of city action plans.
• International Day of Clean Air for Blue Skies: The Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan awards are typically presented on September 7, which is observed globally as the International Day of Clean Air for Blue Skies, to highlight the importance of clean air for health and the environment.
• Financial Incentives: Cash prizes and trophies are awarded to the top three cities in each category to encourage continued excellence and to provide funds for further air quality improvement projects.

The correct answer is KTCT Higher Secondary School, Thiruvananthapuram.

Key Points

• India’s first generative AI teacher, named Iris, was officially introduced at KTCT Higher Secondary School in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala.
• The humanoid robot was developed in collaboration with Makerlabs Edutech Private Limited, a Kochi-based startup specializing in educational technology.
• The initiative was part of the Atal Tinkering Lab (ATL) project, which is a flagship program under the Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) by NITI Aayog. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Iris is designed to act as a versatile teaching assistant, capable of providing personalized learning experiences and handling complex queries from students.
• The introduction of this AI teacher marks a significant shift in the educational landscape of India, integrating Generative AI to enhance the classroom environment.

Additional Information

• Features of Iris:
• Iris is a humanoid robot built with a wheeled base for mobility and manipulator arms to perform expressive gestures while teaching.
• It is equipped with a voice assistant and is capable of speaking three languages, which helps in breaking language barriers in a diverse educational setting.
• The robot uses a dedicated processor and high-speed internet connectivity to provide real-time responses to student questions across various subjects.
• Makerlabs Edutech:
• This Kochi-based firm is at the forefront of educational robotics and AI development in Kerala.
• The company focused on creating Iris as a tool to bridge the gap between traditional teaching and modern technology.
• Atal Innovation Mission (AIM):
• Launched by NITI Aayog, AIM promotes a culture of innovation and entrepreneurship across the country.
• The Atal Tinkering Labs (ATL) are established in schools to provide students with hands-on experience in STEM (Science, Technology, Engineering, and Math) fields.

Important Points

• Launch Date: The AI teacher Iris was unveiled in March 2024, representing a major leap in the adoption of Artificial Intelligence in Indian schools.
• Role in Pedagogy: Rather than replacing human teachers, Iris is intended to serve as a supplementary tool that can cater to the individual learning speeds and styles of different students.
• Technological Impact: This development highlights Kerala's leading position in digital literacy and the implementation of high-tech infrastructure in its public education system.
• Global Context: The use of Generative AI in the form of a humanoid teacher aligns with global trends where AI-driven education is becoming more interactive and user-centric.

The correct answer is Small Modular Reactors.

Key Points

• The U.S.–Turkey Nuclear Cooperation Agreement, signed in 2025, represents a strategic partnership aimed at deploying Small Modular Reactors (SMRs) to support Turkey’s clean energy transition.
• This agreement is part of a broader bilateral framework, the Strategic Energy and Climate Dialogue, which facilitates cooperation between the U.S. Department of Energy and the Ministry of Energy and Natural Resources of the Republic of Türkiye.
• The primary objective of focusing on Small Modular Reactors is to help Turkey meet its ambitious goal of reaching net-zero emissions by the year 2053 while ensuring national energy security.
• Unlike traditional large-scale plants, the agreement emphasizes SMRs because of their modular design, which allows for factory fabrication and easier transportation to various sites, significantly reducing capital costs and construction timelines.
• The partnership encourages the participation of private sector entities from both countries, allowing U.S.-based companies to provide advanced nuclear technology and technical expertise to the Turkish energy market.

Additional Information

• Definition of Small Modular Reactors (SMRs):
• SMRs are advanced nuclear reactors that have a power generation capacity of up to 300 MW(e) per unit.
• This capacity is approximately one-third of the output generated by traditional, large-scale nuclear power reactors.
• Their compact size makes them suitable for locations that cannot accommodate larger plants, such as remote areas or regions with smaller electrical grids.
• Key Features and Benefits:
• Passive Safety Systems: Many SMR designs rely on natural circulation, convection, and gravity rather than active pumps to cool the reactor in the event of a shutdown.
• Versatility: Beyond electricity, SMRs can be used for desalination, industrial process heat, and hydrogen production.
• Incremental Deployment: Utilities can add modules as demand grows, providing a flexible investment model compared to "one-size-fits-all" large reactors.
• Turkey's Nuclear Landscape:
• Turkey is currently constructing its first major nuclear facility, the Akkuyu Nuclear Power Plant, in collaboration with Russia.
• The 2025 agreement with the United States diversifies Turkey's nuclear technology portfolio by integrating western SMR technology alongside traditional large-scale units.

Important Points

• Regulatory Cooperation: The agreement involves collaboration between the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) and Turkey’s Nuclear Regulatory Authority (NDK) to harmonize safety standards and licensing procedures for SMRs.
• Section 123 Agreement: All civil nuclear cooperation between the U.S. and Turkey is governed by the "123 Agreement," a legally binding framework required by the U.S. Atomic Energy Act of 1954 to prevent nuclear proliferation.
• Global Context: The United States has signed similar MoUs with countries like Romania, Poland, and Ghana to promote SMR technology as a tool for climate action and reducing reliance on fossil fuels.
• Economic Impact: The deployment of SMRs is expected to create thousands of high-skilled jobs in both the manufacturing sectors of the USA and the energy infrastructure sectors of Turkey.