General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is It is the heaviest communication satellite launched by India..

Key Points

• The CMS-03 is a state-of-the-art communication satellite designed and developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) to provide advanced telecommunication services.
• Scheduled for launch in November 2025, the CMS-03 mission is significant because it is the heaviest communication satellite to be launched by India’s own launch vehicle, the LVM3 (Launch Vehicle Mark 3). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• This satellite is part of the CMS series, which is the successor to the long-running GSAT series. It is equipped with high-power Ka-band and Ku-band transponders to enhance data connectivity and VSAT services.
• The mission aims to achieve a lift-off mass exceeding previous indigenous records, pushing the payload capabilities of the LVM3 rocket to its maximum potential for Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO) missions.
• The CMS-03 is intended to provide expanded coverage for the Indian mainland as well as the Andaman & Nicobar and Lakshadweep islands, supporting the Digital India vision for high-speed internet.

Additional Information

• Private Space Payloads: The first private payload launched from India was the Vikram-S sub-orbital rocket, developed by the startup Skyroot Aerospace under the Prarambh mission on November 18, 2022. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Navigation Satellites: India's first dedicated navigation satellite mission was the IRNSS-1A, which was launched on July 1, 2013, forming the basis of the NavIC (Navigation with Indian Constellation) system. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Mars Missions: India’s first Mars mission, the Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM) or Mangalyaan, was launched on November 5, 2013, using the PSLV-C25 rocket. It made ISRO the fourth space agency in the world to reach Mars. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
• LVM3 Launch Vehicle: Formerly known as GSLV Mk III, the LVM3 is a three-stage heavy-lift launch vehicle. It consists of two S200 solid rocket boosters, an L110 liquid core stage, and a C25 cryogenic upper stage, capable of carrying payloads up to 4,000 kg to GTO.

Important Points

• Frequency Bands: The use of Ka-band in CMS-03 allows for higher bandwidth and smaller ground station antennas compared to traditional C-band or Ku-band satellites.
• Self-Reliance: By launching such heavy satellites indigenously, India reduces its dependence on foreign agencies like the European Space Agency (ESA) or SpaceX for launching high-mass communication payloads.
• Operational Life: Like most ISRO communication satellites in Geostationary Orbit, the CMS-03 is expected to have a mission life of over 10 to 12 years, providing continuous service for broadcasting and secure government communications.

The correct answer is National Payments Corporation of India.

Key Points

• The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) introduced NACH 3.0 in July 2025 as a major upgrade to the existing National Automated Clearing House system to enhance the efficiency of bulk transactions.
• NACH 3.0 is specifically designed to provide faster and more secure bank transactions by leveraging advanced API-based mandate management and real-time data validation protocols.
• This version aims to transition the traditional batch processing model towards a more dynamic framework, significantly reducing the turnaround time (TAT) for recurring payment mandates such as SIPs, EMI, and insurance premiums.
• The implementation of NACH 3.0 allows for real-time status updates for both banks and customers, ensuring higher transparency and a substantial reduction in transaction failures due to administrative errors.
• By integrating with modern digital infrastructure, the system supports NPCI’s goal of making India a leader in retail payment systems through high-volume, low-cost processing capabilities.

Additional Information

• National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI):
• It was incorporated in December 2008 as an umbrella organization for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India.
• NPCI is an initiative of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Indian Banks' Association (IBA) under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.
• The organization is headquartered in Mumbai, Maharashtra, and operates as a "Not for Profit" company under Section 8 of the Companies Act 2013.
• Notable products developed by NPCI include UPI (Unified Payments Interface), RuPay, IMPS, and Bharat BillPay.
• National Automated Clearing House (NACH):
• NACH is a centralized system launched to consolidate multiple ECS (Electronic Clearing Service) systems across the country, providing a single platform for all interbank clearing.
• It facilitates Direct Credit for the distribution of subsidies, dividends, salaries, and pensions, as well as Direct Debit for utility bills and loan repayments.
• The transition from earlier versions to NACH 3.0 reflects the evolution of Indian banking towards cloud-native technologies and cyber-resilient payment architectures.
• It helps the Government of India and various departments in the Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) scheme by ensuring funds reach the intended beneficiaries' bank accounts securely and promptly.

Important Points

• One of the primary features of NACH 3.0 is the enhancement of E-mandate services, which allows customers to authorize recurring payments using Aadhaar, Virtual ID, or Net Banking without physical paperwork.
• The upgrade in July 2025 introduced 24/7 mandate processing capabilities, moving away from the limitations of traditional banking hours for setting up automated payment instructions.
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) provides the regulatory oversight for these upgrades to maintain financial stability and protect consumer interests in the rapidly growing FinTech sector.
• With NACH 3.0, the National Payments Corporation of India has standardized the security protocols across all participating Member Banks, ensuring that even small cooperative banks can offer high-grade secure transactions to their users.

The correct answer is Indian Council of Agricultural Research.

Key Points

• The Indian Institute of Soil Science (IISS) is a premier scientific institute for soil research, located in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh.
• It was established in 1988 under the aegis of the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) to enhance the scientific basis of soil management.
• The World Soil Day celebrations, held on 5 December annually, were organized by the institute in December 2025 to emphasize the importance of soil health and sustainable resource management.
• The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) is the apex body responsible for coordinating, guiding, and managing research and education in agriculture, including horticulture, fisheries, and animal sciences in India.
• The IISS plays a critical role in the ICAR network by focusing on nutrient management, soil fertility, and environmental impact assessments to ensure food security.

Additional Information

• Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR):
• It was established on 16 July 1929 as a registered society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860, following the report of the Royal Commission on Agriculture.
• Headquartered in New Delhi, it is one of the largest national agricultural systems in the world, reporting to the Department of Agricultural Research and Education (DARE) under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
• The Union Minister of Agriculture serves as the President of the ICAR.
• World Soil Day:
• The International Union of Soil Sciences (IUSS) recommended an international day to celebrate soil in 2002.
• The UN General Assembly officially designated 5 December 2014 as the first official World Soil Day to honor the birthday of H.M. King Bhumibol Adulyadej of Thailand, who was a key proponent of this initiative.
• The primary objective is to focus attention on the importance of healthy soil and advocating for the sustainable management of soil resources.
• Indian Institute of Soil Science (IISS):
• The institute has developed various technologies like the Mridaparikshak (a digital soil test mini-lab) to assist farmers.
• It contributes significantly to the Soil Health Card Scheme, which was launched by the Government of India in February 2015 to inform farmers about the nutrient status of their holdings.

Important Points

• Central Soil Salinity Research Institute (CSSRI): Located in Karnal, Haryana, this institute focuses specifically on the reclamation and management of salt-affected soils.
• Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR): Established in 1942, it is India's largest research and development organization, but it focuses on industrial and general science rather than being the apex body for agricultural research.
• National Horticulture Board (NHB): Established in 1984 by the Government of India, it focuses on the development of the high-tech horticulture industry and post-harvest management.
• Soil Health and SDGs: Sustainable soil management is vital for achieving the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), particularly Goal 2 (Zero Hunger) and Goal 15 (Life on Land).

The correct answer is It declined to entertain the fresh plea.

Key Points

• On April 28, 2025, the Supreme Court of India took a significant stance regarding the legal challenges surrounding the Waqf (Amendment) Act by declining to entertain a fresh petition filed against the legislation.
• The bench, while presiding over the matter, observed that multiple petitions and deliberations regarding the Waqf (Amendment) Act were already in progress across various legal and legislative forums.
• The court noted that the Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC), which was constituted to examine the nuances of the Amendment Act, was still in the process of finalizing its reports and recommendations.
• The Supreme Court emphasized that judicial intervention at this specific juncture might be premature given that the Parliamentary process for review and refinement of the act was not yet fully concluded. Hence, the statement that it declined to entertain the fresh plea is correct.
• The petitioners had sought a stay or a declaration of the act as unconstitutional, citing concerns over the autonomy of religious bodies, but the court maintained that the current legal framework allowed for the legislative review to take precedence.

Additional Information

• Waqf (Amendment) Act:
• The Waqf (Amendment) Act was introduced to bring about sweeping reforms in the Waqf Act of 1995, primarily focusing on the transparency, accountability, and digitization of Waqf properties across India.
• One of the most debated features of the act includes the restructuring of the State Waqf Boards and the Central Waqf Council to include women and non-Muslim members in administrative roles.
• The act aims to streamline the process of property registration and prevent the encroachment of Waqf land, which is estimated to be over 6 lakh acres across the country.
• Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC):
• The JPC is an ad-hoc committee of Parliament formed to examine specific bills or scandals; in this case, it was tasked with hearing stakeholders from different Muslim organizations, legal experts, and state governments.
• The committee's role is to ensure that the Amendment Act aligns with the Constitution of India, specifically Article 25 and Article 26, which guarantee the right to manage religious affairs.

Important Points

• Judicial Review and Policy: The Supreme Court often practices judicial restraint when a legislative matter is under active consideration by a specialized Parliamentary Committee to avoid conflicting outcomes.
• Waqf Board Authority: Under the proposed amendments, the power of the Waqf Board to declare a property as "Waqf by User" has been a point of major legal contention, leading to numerous filings in High Courts and the Apex Court.
• Date of Significance: The decision on April 28, 2025, serves as a precedent that the judiciary will likely wait for the final legislative version of the act before passing a comprehensive judgment on its constitutional validity.

The correct answer is 102^nd.

Key Points

In the 2025 Global Hunger Index (GHI), India has been ranked 102^nd among the 123 countries that were assessed. This ranking reflects the complex challenges India faces in addressing food security and nutritional outcomes across its large population.
The Global Hunger Index is a tool used to comprehensively measure and track hunger at global, regional, and national levels, published annually to create awareness and trigger action.
The report is a joint effort between Concern Worldwide, an Irish humanitarian organization, and Welthungerhilfe, a German aid agency.
With a rank of 102^nd, India’s level of hunger is categorized as Serious. The index utilizes a 100-point scale where lower scores indicate less hunger and higher scores indicate a more severe situation.
The 2025 assessment highlights the need for continued policy intervention in maternal and child health to improve India's standing in global nutritional benchmarks.

Additional Information

Four Key Indicators of GHI:

Undernourishment: The share of the entire population with insufficient caloric intake, representing the availability of food.
Child Stunting: The share of children under the age of five who have low height for their age, reflecting chronic undernutrition.
Child Wasting: The share of children under the age of five who have low weight for their height, reflecting acute undernutrition.
Child Mortality: The mortality rate of children under the age of five, partially reflecting the fatal mix of inadequate nutrition and unhealthy environments.

Scoring and Severity:

A score of < 9.9 is considered Low, 10.0-19.9 is Moderate, 20.0-34.9 is Serious, 35.0-49.9 is Alarming, and 50.0 or above is Extremely Alarming.
The GHI scores are calculated using data from various international agencies, including the FAO, WHO, UNICEF, and the World Bank.

Global Context and SDG 2:

The index is a vital monitor for Sustainable Development Goal 2 (SDG 2), which aims to achieve Zero Hunger by the year 2030.
The 2025 report emphasizes that global progress against hunger has largely stagnated due to factors like climate change, economic shocks, and geopolitical conflicts.

Important Points

Government Initiatives in India: To combat hunger, the Government of India implements the National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013, which legally entitles up to 75% of the rural population and 50% of the urban population to receive subsidized food grains.
Poshan Abhiyaan (National Nutrition Mission): Launched in 2018, this flagship program aims to improve nutritional outcomes for children, pregnant women, and lactating mothers by reducing stunting and wasting.
Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY): A large-scale food security scheme that provides free food grains to 80 crore beneficiaries to ensure no one goes hungry during periods of economic stress.
Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS): This scheme provides a package of six services including supplementary nutrition and pre-school non-formal education to children in the age group of 0-6 years.

The correct answer is 16^th Asiatic Lion Population Estimation.

Key Points

• Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced that the 16^th Asiatic Lion Population Estimation will be conducted in the year 2025 to assess the health and growth of the lion population in India.
• This estimation is a vital conservation exercise conducted every five years to monitor the world’s only wild population of Asiatic Lions (Panthera leo leo).
• The survey primarily covers the Gir National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary along with the surrounding Greater Gir region in the Saurashtra landscape of Gujarat.
• The 15^th Asiatic Lion Census was originally due in 2020 but was replaced by a restricted exercise called "Poonam Avlokan" due to the COVID-19 pandemic, which recorded 674 lions.
• The 2025 survey will utilize advanced technology, including GPS tracking, camera traps, and individual identification markers, to ensure a more scientific and accurate headcount.

Additional Information

• Project Lion:
• Launched on August 15, 2020, Project Lion aims at the holistic conservation of the Asiatic Lion and its landscape.
• It focuses on habitat development, engaging modern technologies in lion management, and addressing human-wildlife conflict.
• The project also envisages the relocation of some lions to different sites within Gujarat or other states like Madhya Pradesh (Kuno) to prevent extinction from disease.
• Asiatic Lion Characteristics:
• The Asiatic Lion is slightly smaller than the African Lion and possesses a distinctive longitudinal fold of skin running along its belly.
• It is listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List and is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
• Population Trends:
• Between 2015 and 2020, the population showed a significant growth of 29%, increasing from 523 to 674 individuals.
• The distribution area of the lions has expanded from 22,000 sq. km in 2015 to about 30,000 sq. km in 2020, covering districts like Junagadh, Gir Somnath, Amreli, and Bhavnagar.
• Poonam Avlokan:
• This was an alternative estimation method conducted on full moon nights where forest guards observed lions from their respective beats.
• While not as exhaustive as a full census, it provides critical interim data on demographics and geographical distribution.

Important Points

• The Gujarat Forest Department is the nodal agency responsible for organizing and executing these wildlife surveys.
• The Lion’s status as a flagship species makes the 2025 survey a priority for international biodiversity conservationists.
• Efforts are being made to establish Barda Wildlife Sanctuary as a second home for lions to reduce the density in Gir and mitigate risks of epidemics.

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh.

Key Points

• The Uttar Pradesh government announced the strengthening and revitalized implementation of the SHe-Box portal in May 2025 to ensure a safer working environment for women across the state.
• The initiative is designed to provide a single-window access to every woman, whether she is working in the organized or unorganized sector, to register complaints related to sexual harassment at the workplace.
• By strengthening this portal, the Government of Uttar Pradesh aims to monitor the progress of complaints more effectively, ensuring that they are disposed of in a time-bound manner as per legal requirements. Hence, the statement regarding Uttar Pradesh is correct.
• This move involves the integration of the digital platform with District Magistrates and Internal Committees (IC) of various departments to streamline the redressal process.
• The state’s focus in 2025 is to increase awareness among women employees about their rights under the PoSH Act and the availability of digital tools for grievance redressal.

Additional Information

• SHe-Box Portal:
• The Sexual Harassment electronic Box (SHe-Box) is a centralized portal developed by the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD), Government of India.
• It was originally launched to facilitate the effective implementation of the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013.
• The portal allows both government and private employees to lodge complaints which are then directly forwarded to the concerned Internal Committee (IC) or Local Committee (LC).
• The PoSH Act, 2013:
• This Act defines sexual harassment at the workplace and creates a mechanism for redressal of complaints.
• It mandates every employer with 10 or more employees to constitute an Internal Committee (IC).
• For the unorganized sector or establishments with fewer than 10 employees, the Local Committees (LC) are constituted at the district level.

Important Points

• Mission Shakti in Uttar Pradesh:
• The strengthening of the SHe-Box is aligned with the state's flagship Mission Shakti campaign, which focuses on the safety, dignity, and self-reliance of women.
• The Uttar Pradesh administration has designated Nodal Officers in every district to track the status of complaints registered through the portal.
• In May 2025, the state emphasized that any delay in the inquiry process by the Internal Committees would attract strict administrative action.
• The Ministry of Women and Child Development continues to provide the technical framework, while states like Uttar Pradesh lead the ground-level enforcement and monitoring.

The correct answer is Automatic removal.

Key Points

• The Constitution (130^th Amendment) Bill 2025 introduces a significant legal provision regarding the holding of high constitutional offices by individuals facing criminal proceedings or arrest.
• Under this proposed legislation, if a Prime Minister, Chief Minister, or any Minister at the Union or State level is arrested and remains in custody without being granted bail within 30 days, they face Automatic removal from their position. Hence, the correct answer is Automatic removal.
• The primary objective of this amendment is to ensure that individuals occupying critical executive roles are not incapacitated by legal detention, which could lead to a constitutional vacuum or administrative paralysis.
• This 30-day threshold is a definitive timeline established to balance the principle of "innocent until proven guilty" with the necessity of uninterrupted governance and the sanctity of high office.
• The bill aims to institutionalize the moral and ethical requirement that a person in judicial or police custody for an extended period cannot effectively discharge their duties toward the Parliament or State Legislature.

Additional Information

• Article 75 and Article 164:
• Currently, Article 75 deals with the appointment and tenure of the Prime Minister and Union Ministers, stating they hold office during the pleasure of the President.
• Similarly, Article 164 pertains to the Chief Minister and State Ministers holding office during the pleasure of the Governor. The 130^th Amendment Bill seeks to insert specific clauses to these articles to automate removal upon the failure to secure bail.
• The Representation of the People Act, 1951:
• Under the current Section 8 of the RPA, 1951, disqualification usually triggers only upon conviction with a sentence of two years or more.
• This bill goes a step further by addressing the status of ministers during the investigation or trial stage, specifically focusing on the period of custody rather than waiting for a final conviction.
• Judicial Precedents:
• Historically, the Supreme Court of India in the Lily Thomas vs. Union of India (2013) case ruled that any Member of Parliament or State Legislature convicted of a crime with a minimum two-year sentence would be disqualified immediately.
• The 2025 Bill expands the scope of accountability by focusing on the executive's ability to function while under arrest, addressing gaps left by previous judicial pronouncements.

Important Points

• Administrative Continuity: The bill emphasizes that the Prime Minister or Chief Minister is the head of the Council of Ministers; their absence for more than 30 days due to legal restraint is viewed as a failure of the constitutional machinery.
• Impact of the Amendment: Once the 30-day limit expires without bail, the official is deemed to have vacated the office by operation of law, necessitating the President or Governor to appoint a successor or initiate a new selection process within the majority party.
• Scope of the Bill: It applies strictly to those holding Ministerial portfolios and does not necessarily strip them of their membership of the house (MP/MLA) immediately, unless other provisions of the RPA or Tenth Schedule are triggered, but it terminates their Executive authority.

The correct answer is Venice, Italy.

Key Points

• The high-profile wedding of Jeff Bezos and Lauren Sánchez took place in the historic and romantic city of Venice, Italy, in June 2025.
• The event was characterized as a lavish, multi-day celebration that attracted a wide array of global elites, celebrities, and business leaders to the iconic "Floating City."
• The choice of Venice follows the couple's long-standing affinity for European destinations, often seen during their travels aboard Bezos’s superyacht.
• This marriage marks a significant personal milestone for Jeff Bezos, the executive chairman of Amazon, following his high-profile engagement to Sánchez in May 2023.
• The wedding festivities reportedly utilized several historic venues across the Venetian Lagoon, highlighting the city's status as a premier location for ultra-luxury destination weddings.

Additional Information

• Jeff Bezos: He is the founder and former CEO of Amazon.com, one of the world's largest technology and e-commerce companies. He also founded the aerospace manufacturer and sub-orbital spaceflight services company Blue Origin in 2000.
• Lauren Sánchez: An American media personality, former news anchor, and entertainment reporter. She is also a licensed pilot and the founder of Black Ops Aviation, an aerial filming and production company.
• Venice, Italy: A unique city located in northeastern Italy, built on a cluster of 118 small islands separated by canals and linked by over 400 bridges. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site known for its artistic heritage and Gothic architecture.
• Koru: Much of the couple's time leading up to the wedding was spent on Bezos’s massive sailing yacht named Koru, which is approximately 127 meters (417 feet) long and is considered one of the largest sailing yachts in the world.
• Engagement: The couple officially went public with their relationship in 2019 and became engaged in May 2023 while attending the Cannes Film Festival in France.
• Economic Impact: Large-scale celebrity weddings in cities like Venice provide a significant boost to the local luxury tourism sector, benefiting high-end hotels, private water taxi services, and local artisans.

The correct answer is Ujjwala.

Key Points

• Ujjwala is the official mascot for the Khelo India Para Games. It is a sparrow, which is also the State Bird of Delhi.
• The mascot was first unveiled by the Union Minister of Youth Affairs and Sports, Shri Anurag Singh Thakur, in November 2023 for the inaugural edition of the games.
• The choice of a sparrow as the mascot symbolizes pride, determination, and resilience. It reflects the spirit of para-athletes who overcome immense challenges to achieve excellence.
• Ujjwala represents the idea that even the smallest being can be strong and resilient, echoing the message of empowerment and empathy towards the divyang community.
• The mascot serves as a symbol of inclusivity in Indian sports, bringing attention to the Khelo India initiative's expansion into para-sports. Hence, the correct answer is Ujjwala.

Additional Information

• Khelo India Para Games (KIPG):
• The first-ever edition of the Khelo India Para Games was held in New Delhi from December 10 to December 17, 2023.
• The games featured 7 sports disciplines: Para Athletics, Para Shooting, Para Archery, Para Football, Para Badminton, Para Table Tennis, and Para Weightlifting.
• Over 1,450 athletes from 32 states and Union Territories participated in the inaugural event, marking a historic step for para-sports in India.
• Other Official Mascots:
• Veer: The mascot for the Khelo India Youth Games 2023 (held in Tamil Nadu) was Veer Mangai, named after the legendary queen Velu Nachiyar.
• Shakti: This is the official mascot for the Khelo India Women's League, symbolizing women empowerment and strength.
• Jitu: The mascot for the Khelo India University Games 2023 (held in Uttar Pradesh) was Jitu, representing the Barasingha (Swamp Deer), the state animal of Uttar Pradesh.
• Khelo India Programme:
• Launched in 2018, the Khelo India scheme aims to revive the sporting culture in India at the grass-root level by building a strong framework for all sports played in the country.
• It is an initiative of the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India.
• The program includes various verticals like Khelo India Youth Games (KIYG), Khelo India University Games (KIUG), Khelo India Winter Games, and the newly added Para Games.

Important Points

• Symbolism of Ujjwala: The sparrow is known for its agility and ubiquity. By choosing it as the mascot, the organizers aimed to connect the para-games with the common citizens and highlight the mettle of the participating athletes.
• Administrative Significance: The introduction of the Para Games under the Khelo India banner ensures that divyang athletes receive financial support, training facilities, and a national platform comparable to non-para athletes.
• Host City: New Delhi has been a central hub for these games, utilizing world-class venues like the Indira Gandhi Stadium and the Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium.

The correct answer is 26.

Key Points

• In August 2025, the Government of Tripura launched a comprehensive tech-driven disaster preparedness initiative aimed at mitigating the impact of natural calamities through advanced monitoring.
• As part of this initiative, the state has proposed the installation of 26 automated weather stations (AWS) and automated rain gauges to facilitate real-time data collection and analysis.
• These high-tech installations are designed to provide precise meteorological data, which is critical for the state's Early Warning System (EWS), especially during the monsoon season.
• The primary goal of deploying these 26 units is to enhance the accuracy of weather forecasts at a micro-level, allowing disaster management teams to respond more effectively to threats like flash floods, landslides, and cyclonic storms.
• The initiative integrates Information and Communication Technology (ICT) with traditional disaster management protocols to ensure that information reaches the last mile in a timely manner.

Additional Information

• Geographical Vulnerability of Tripura:
• Tripura is situated in the northeastern part of India and is highly susceptible to hydro-meteorological disasters due to its hilly terrain and high annual rainfall.
• The state also falls under Seismic Zone V, making it one of the most earthquake-prone regions in the country.
• Function of Automated Weather Stations:
• An Automated Weather Station (AWS) measures various parameters such as temperature, humidity, wind speed, wind direction, and solar radiation without manual intervention.
• The data is typically transmitted via GPRS or Satellite communication to a central server at the State Disaster Management Authority (SDMA).
• Impact on Agriculture:
• The installation of these 26 stations will significantly benefit the farming community by providing localized weather alerts, helping them protect crops from sudden heavy rainfall or hailstorms.
• Administrative Coverage:
• The project ensures coverage across all 8 districts of Tripura, including West Tripura, South Tripura, Dhalai, and North Tripura, creating a robust network of environmental sensors.

Important Points

• Modernization of Disaster Response: The August 2025 project marks a significant shift from reactive to proactive disaster management, utilizing predictive modeling based on the data from the 26 new stations.
• Collaboration: This initiative is often carried out in coordination with the India Meteorological Department (IMD) and the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) to align with national standards of safety and data accuracy.
• Number of Units: The specific count of 26 was determined based on a gap analysis of the existing meteorological infrastructure in the state to ensure no region remains unmonitored.
• Digital Tripura: This move is a subset of the broader "Digital Tripura" vision, which seeks to use technology for governance and public safety.

The correct answer is Three.

Key Points

• The Union Cabinet, chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, approved the 'PM - One Nation One Subscription' (PM-ONOS) initiative in October 2024.
• A total financial outlay of ₹6,000 crore has been allocated for this central sector scheme to provide nationwide access to high-quality scholarly journals.
• The allocated amount of ₹6,000 crore is intended to cover the costs for a period of three years, specifically from the financial years 2025-26, 2026-27, and 2027-28. Hence, the correct answer is Three.
• The initiative aims to provide access to nearly 30 key international publishers and over 13,000 high-impact journals through a centralized subscription model.
• The program is coordinated by the Ministry of Education and the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF) to democratize access to research and development across the country.

Additional Information

• Scope and Coverage:
• The scheme will benefit more than 6,300 institutions, including Central Universities, IITs, NITs, IISERs, and state-funded universities and colleges.
• It is estimated that about 1.8 crore students, faculty members, and researchers will gain access to these digital resources without individual institutional costs.
• Implementing Agency:
• The Information and Library Network (INFLIBNET) Centre, an Inter-University Centre of the University Grants Commission (UGC), is the nodal agency for implementing the PM-ONOS portal.
• The INFLIBNET portal will serve as the single point of access for all subscribed journals and databases for the authorized institutions.
• Strategic Importance:
• This initiative aligns with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, which emphasizes making high-quality research and education accessible to all sections of society.
• By negotiating at a national level, the Government of India can leverage better pricing (economies of scale) compared to individual institutions negotiating separately with international publishers.

Important Points

• Focus on STEM and Beyond: While a significant portion of the journals covers Science, Technology, Engineering, and Medicine (STEM), the subscription also includes crucial databases for Social Sciences and Humanities.
• Funding Breakdown: The total budget of ₹6,000 crore is split into ₹1,800 crore for the first year (2025-26), ₹2,000 crore for the second (2026-27), and ₹2,200 crore for the third year (2027-28).
• Digital India Connection: The scheme is a significant step toward the Digital India vision, ensuring that researchers in remote areas or tier-2 and tier-3 cities have the same access to knowledge as those in premier institutes.
• ANRF Role: The Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF) acts as the apex body to provide strategic direction and ensure that the research resources support India's goal of becoming a global leader in innovation.

The correct answer is V Srinivas.

Key Points

• V Srinivas, a distinguished 1989-batch IAS officer of the Rajasthan cadre, was elected as the President of the International Institute of Administrative Sciences (IIAS) for the 2025–2028 term.
• The election was held during the IIAS General Assembly and Statutory Meeting in Mombasa, Kenya, in June 2024/2025, where he received overwhelming support from member nations.
• He currently serves as the Secretary of the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) and the Department of Pension and Pensioners’ Welfare (DoPPW) under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, Government of India.
• This election marks a significant diplomatic and administrative achievement for India, as an Indian official is heading this prestigious global body after a long hiatus of several decades.
• During his presidency, he is expected to lead the global agenda on digital governance, administrative reforms, and the modernization of public services across IIAS member states.

Additional Information

• International Institute of Administrative Sciences (IIAS):
• Established in 1930, the IIAS is a global federation headquartered in Brussels, Belgium.
• It is dedicated to the study and improvement of public administration and administrative sciences worldwide, providing a platform for civil servants and academics.
• The Government of India has been a member of the IIAS since 1954, represented through the DARPG.
• Contributions of V Srinivas:
• He has been a pivotal figure in implementing the CPGRAMS (Centralised Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring System), which has significantly enhanced the efficiency of grievance redressal in India.
• He is also known for his literary contributions, having authored books such as 'India’s Relations with the International Monetary Fund' and 'Digitalizing India'.
• He played a key role in the National e-Governance Service Delivery Assessment (NeSDA) and the Special Campaign 2.0/3.0 for cleaning government offices and disposing of pendency.
• Other Personalities:
• GC Murmu: He is the current Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India and was the first Lieutenant Governor of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
• KM Chandrasekhar: A retired 1970-batch IAS officer who served as the Cabinet Secretary of India from 2007 to 2011.
• Public Administration in India: India has been increasingly recognized on international platforms like IIAS for its Digital India mission and Minimum Government, Maximum Governance philosophy.

The correct answer is Prem Watsa and Kamesh Goyal.

Key Points

• Valueattics Reinsurance has made history by becoming the first private domestic reinsurer in India to receive final approval from the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI).
• The company received its R3 license, which is the final stage of the registration process, in March 2025, allowing it to officially commence reinsurance operations within the country.
• The venture is promoted by two prominent figures in the global and Indian insurance sectors: Prem Watsa, the Chairman and CEO of Fairfax Financial Holdings, and Kamesh Goyal, the Founder and Chairman of Digit Insurance.
• This development marks a significant shift in the Indian insurance landscape, which was traditionally dominated by the state-owned General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC Re) and branches of Foreign Reinsurers (FRBs).
• The entry of Valueattics Reinsurance is expected to increase domestic capacity for risk-taking and foster competition in a market that has seen limited domestic private participation for decades.

Additional Information

• Concept of Reinsurance: Reinsurance is essentially "insurance for insurance companies." It is a practice where insurers transfer portions of their risk portfolios to other parties to reduce the likelihood of paying a large obligation resulting from an insurance claim.
• Role of IRDAI: The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India is the statutory body formed under the IRDAI Act, 1999. It regulates and promotes the insurance and re-insurance industries in India to protect the interests of policyholders.
• The Licensing Process: To start a reinsurance business in India, an entity must go through three stages of IRDAI approval: R1 (requisition for registration), R2 (detailed application analysis), and R3 (grant of certificate of registration).
• Historical Context: For a long time, GIC Re was the sole domestic player. In 2016, the IRDAI opened the doors for Foreign Reinsurance Branches (FRBs), allowing global giants like Swiss Re, Munich Re, and Lloyd’s of London to set up shop in India.
• Significance of Promoters: Prem Watsa is often referred to as the "Canadian Warren Buffett" and has significant investments in India through Fairfax. Kamesh Goyal is a veteran in the industry who successfully launched Go Digit General Insurance, one of India's leading insurtech unicorns.

Important Points

• Market Impact: The presence of a domestic private reinsurer like Valueattics helps in capital retention within the Indian economy, as fewer premiums need to be sent abroad to global reinsurance hubs.
• Sector Growth: The Indian reinsurance market is projected to grow significantly due to rising insurance penetration, government-backed crop insurance schemes, and increasing awareness of health and life insurance post-pandemic.
• Digital Integration: Given Kamesh Goyal’s background with Digit Insurance, it is anticipated that Valueattics Reinsurance will leverage advanced technology and data analytics to streamline underwriting and claims management.
• Regulatory Reform: The approval reflects IRDAI’s ongoing efforts under its "Insurance for All by 2047" mission, aimed at easing capital requirements and attracting more private investment into the sector.

The correct answer is 10.5 and 9.5.

Key Points

• Suruchi Singh secured the Gold Medal in the Women’s 10m Air Pistol event at the 2025 ISSF World Cup held in Munich, Germany.
• In a high-pressure final, she clinched the top spot by shooting scores of 10.5 and 9.5 in her final two shots of the competition.
• These final shots allowed her to edge out her closest competitor, Camille Jedrzejewski of France, who took the Silver Medal.
• The victory was a significant milestone for Indian shooting in the 2025 season, reinforcing the country's dominance in the 10m Air Pistol discipline.
• Suruchi Singh showed remarkable composure throughout the 24-shot final, maintaining a lead that was cemented by her precision in the concluding round.

Additional Information

• ISSF (International Shooting Sport Federation):
• It is the governing body for Olympic shooting events and several non-Olympic shooting sports.
• The federation is headquartered in Munich, Germany, making the Munich World Cup one of the most prestigious events on the shooting calendar.
• 10m Air Pistol Event:
• This is an Olympic shooting discipline where athletes fire at a target 10 meters away using a 4.5 mm (0.177 in) caliber air pistol.
• The final round consists of series of shots where shooters are eliminated one by one until the final two remain to compete for gold and silver.
• Venue - Munich:
• The Munich Olympic Shooting Range is historic, having hosted the 1972 Summer Olympics. It is known for its world-class facilities and challenging lighting conditions.
• India's Shooting Legacy:
• India has produced several world-class pistol shooters including Manu Bhaker, Jaspal Rana, and Sarabjot Singh. The success of Suruchi Singh in 2025 adds to this growing list of international accolades.

Important Points

• Scoring System: In the final of the ISSF World Cup, scoring is done in decimal points. A perfect shot is a 10.9, making Suruchi’s 10.5 an exceptionally high-pressure, high-accuracy shot at the penultimate stage.
• Competitive Field: The 2025 Munich World Cup featured top-ranked shooters from around the world, including representatives from China, France, and South Korea, making the gold medal a testament to elite performance.
• Strategic Calm: The ability to shoot a 9.5 as a final shot, knowing it would be enough to secure the title based on the aggregate lead, demonstrates the psychological strength required at the International level.

The correct answer is 96.07.

Key Points

• According to the 2025 Sustainable Development Report (SDR), India has achieved a Spillover Score of 96.07.
• The Spillover Index measures the extent to which a country's domestic actions and consumption patterns create positive or negative externalities (impacts) on other countries' ability to achieve the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
• A higher score on the Spillover Index (closer to 100) indicates that a country causes fewer negative transboundary impacts; India's score of 96.07 suggests it has relatively low negative impacts on other nations compared to many developed economies.
• The report is published annually by the Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN), which has been working under the auspices of the UN Secretary-General since 2012.
• The 2025 report assesses all 193 UN Member States, providing a comprehensive overview of global progress toward the 2030 Agenda.

Additional Information

• Components of Spillover Score: The index tracks three main categories: Environmental & Social spillovers embodied in trade (e.g., carbon emissions or child labor in supply chains), Economy & Finance spillovers (e.g., unfair tax competition), and Security spillovers (e.g., arms exports).
• The SDG Index vs. Spillover Index: While the SDG Index measures a country’s internal progress toward the 17 goals, the Spillover Index specifically looks at international consequences. Often, high-income countries rank high on the SDG Index but very low on the Spillover Index due to heavy consumption.
• Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN): Led by renowned economist Professor Jeffrey Sachs, the SDSN mobilizes scientific and technical expertise from academia, civil society, and the private sector.
• India's SDG Journey: India has integrated the SDGs into its national development strategy through the NITI Aayog, focusing on major schemes like Jal Jeevan Mission and Ayushman Bharat to address domestic targets while maintaining a stable international footprint.

Important Points

• Global Context: The 2025 Report emphasizes the urgent need for a "Global Financial Architecture" reform to support developing nations in closing the financing gap required to meet 2030 targets.
• Data and Fact: In the 2025 assessment, countries with scores above 95 on the spillover index are generally considered to be "exporting" very few negative environmental or social costs to the rest of the world.
• Yearly Comparison: India's Spillover Score has remained consistently high over the last few years, reflecting its status as a country that, while developing, does not disproportionately burden the global environment through its trade-linked consumption.
• Target 2030: The Sustainable Development Goals were adopted by all United Nations Member States in 2015 as a universal call to action to end poverty and protect the planet by the year 2030.

The correct answer is Neeraj Chopra.

Key Points

• Indian athlete Neeraj Chopra won the men’s javelin throw event at the Ostrava Golden Spike athletics meet in the Czech Republic.
• The event, which took place in June 2025, saw Chopra producing a winning throw of 85.29 metres.
• With this performance, he became the only athlete in the entire competition to throw beyond the 85-metre mark, showcasing his dominance in the field.
• The Ostrava Golden Spike is a prestigious meet and part of the World Athletics Continental Tour Gold series, often featuring the world’s elite javelin throwers.
• This victory further solidified Neeraj Chopra's position as a consistent performer on the global stage following his previous successes in the Olympics and World Championships.

Additional Information

• Neeraj Chopra (India):
• He is the first Indian track and field athlete to win an Olympic Gold Medal, achieving this feat at the Tokyo 2020 Olympics.
• He also secured the Gold Medal at the 2023 World Athletics Championships held in Budapest, becoming the first Indian to do so.
• His personal best and national record stands at 89.94 metres, achieved at the Stockholm Diamond League in 2022.
• Jakub Vadlejch (Czech Republic):
• A top-tier javelin thrower who won the Silver Medal at the Tokyo Olympics and is a regular podium finisher in the Diamond League circuit.
• He is known for his rivalry with Chopra and remains one of the most consistent throwers in the world.
• Anderson Peters (Grenada):
• A two-time World Champion (winning in 2019 and 2022) and one of the few active athletes to have breached the 90-metre mark.
• Julian Weber (Germany):
• A leading European javelin thrower who frequently ranks in the top 5 globally and won the European Championship gold in 2022.
• Ostrava Golden Spike:
• First held in 1961, it is one of the oldest and most respected athletics meetings in Europe, held annually at the Mestsky Stadion.

Important Points

• The 85.29 m throw was the decisive mark that separated Chopra from the rest of the field in Ostrava during the 2025 season.
• Success in javelin throw depends on a combination of explosive power, runway speed, and the aerodynamic angle of release.
• Maintaining a world ranking in the top tier is crucial for athletes to qualify for major events like the Diamond League Finals and the World Athletics Championships.

The correct answer is World Bank.

Key Points

• The World Bank has announced its plans to develop and introduce a new indicator for measuring extreme poverty in India and other nations in 2025.
• This initiative is part of a broader effort to update the international poverty lines to reflect the changing economic realities and price levels globally, moving away from the 2017 Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) benchmarks.
• Currently, the World Bank uses a threshold of $2.15 per person per day to define extreme poverty, but for a lower-middle-income country like India, there is a growing need for indicators that better capture the cost of living and basic needs.
• The 2025 revision aims to provide a more accurate assessment of poverty trends, which is crucial for tracking Sustainable Development Goal 1 (SDG 1), which targets the eradication of extreme poverty for all people everywhere.
• By refining these metrics, the World Bank intends to help policymakers in India better identify vulnerable populations and design more effective social security and poverty alleviation programs.

Additional Information

• The World Bank:
• It is an international financial institution established in 1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference.
• Headquartered in Washington, D.C., it provides loans and grants to the governments of low-income and middle-income countries for the purpose of pursuing capital projects.
• The current President of the World Bank is Ajay Banga, who assumed office in June 2023.
• Poverty Lines by Income Group:
• The World Bank maintains different poverty lines based on a country's economic status: $2.15** for **low-income**, **$3.65 for lower-middle-income, and $6.85 for upper-middle-income countries.
• As India is classified as a lower-middle-income economy, the $3.65** line is often considered more relevant for its **domestic policy** context than the **extreme poverty** line of **$2.15.
• NITI Aayog and Poverty (Option 1):
• In India, NITI Aayog is the nodal agency for monitoring poverty. It released the National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI), which uses 12 indicators across health, education, and standard of living.
• According to NITI Aayog's reports, India has seen a significant decline in multidimensional poverty, with millions escaping poverty between 2013-14 and 2022-23.
• Purchasing Power Parity (PPP):
• This is an economic theory and metric used to compare economic productivity and standards of living between countries by adjusting for price level differences.
• The World Bank updates its poverty lines whenever new International Comparison Program (ICP) data on PPPs become available to ensure the real value of the poverty line remains constant over time.

Important Points

• Historical Context: The International Poverty Line was first introduced as $1 a day** in **1990** based on **1985** prices. It was subsequently revised to **$1.08, $1.25**, **$1.90, and finally to the current $2.15 in September 2022.
• Global Poverty Goal: The World Bank aims to reduce the share of the global population living in extreme poverty to less than 3% by the year 2030.
• India's Role: Since India represents a significant portion of the global population, any change in how poverty is measured in India has a massive impact on global poverty statistics and World Bank projections.
• Data Sources: For India, the World Bank often relies on the Consumer Expenditure Survey (CES) conducted by the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI)$.

p>The correct answer is Ousmane Dembele.

Key Points

• The Men’s Ballon d’Or 2025 was awarded to the French forward Ousmane Dembele for his exceptional performance during the 2024-2025 football season.
• The prestigious ceremony took place at the Théâtre du Châtelet in Paris, France, marking the 69^th edition of the awards organized by France Football in collaboration with UEFA.
• Ousmane Dembele was recognized for his clinical playmaking and goal-scoring contributions for his club, Paris Saint-Germain (PSG), leading them to significant domestic and continental success.
• This victory marks a significant milestone in his career, as he emerged as the top choice among a panel of 100 international journalists representing the top 100 FIFA-ranked nations.
• The criteria for the award focused on individual performance, decisive character, and the player's conduct on the field during the specified season.

Additional Information

• History of Ballon d’Or:
• The Ballon d'Or is an annual football award presented by the French news magazine France Football since 1956.
• It was originally conceived by sports writer Gabriel Hanot to honor the best male player from Europe, but eligibility was expanded to all players active at European clubs in 1995 and to all players worldwide in 2007.
• The first-ever recipient of the award was Sir Stanley Matthews of Blackpool in 1956.
• Notable Record Holders:
• Lionel Messi holds the record for the most Ballon d'Or wins, having secured the trophy 8 times (2009, 2010, 2011, 2012, 2015, 2019, 2021, and 2023).
• Cristiano Ronaldo follows with 5 awards, having won in 2008, 2013, 2014, 2016, and 2017.
• Other legendary multiple-time winners include Michel Platini, Johan Cruyff, and Marco van Basten, each with 3 titles.
• Evolution of Selection Rules:
• Since 2022, the award period shifted from the calendar year to the European football season (August to July), ensuring that major tournaments like the World Cup or Euros are accounted for within a single voting cycle.
• The voting panel was also restricted to representatives from the top 100 countries in the FIFA World Rankings to ensure higher journalistic expertise.

Important Points

• Kylian Mbappe: A perennial contender and World Cup winner who has consistently finished in the top 3 in recent years but missed the top spot in 2025 to his teammate.
• Lionel Messi and Cristiano Ronaldo: Their era of dominance, spanning nearly two decades, saw them share 13 trophies between 2008 and 2023, representing the most competitive rivalry in football history.
• The Kopa Trophy: This is awarded during the same ceremony to the best performing player under the age of 21.
• The Yashin Trophy: Named after Lev Yashin, this award is presented to the best goalkeeper in the world during the Ballon d'Or gala.

The correct answer is Delhi Development Authority (DDA).

Key Points

• The Delhi Development Authority (DDA) has developed the city's first dedicated Centre of Excellence (CoE) for Sports located in Sector 8, Dwarka.
• The facility was officially inaugurated in May 2025, marking a significant milestone in the urban sports infrastructure of the National Capital Territory of Delhi.
• Unlike traditional sports complexes, this Centre of Excellence is specifically designed to provide high-performance training environments for athletes focusing on Olympic sports such as Archery, Athletics, and Football.
• The project is part of DDA’s broader mission to transform Dwarka into a major sports hub, supplementing existing facilities and providing a platform for professional coaching and scientific sports management.
• The DDA serves as the primary agency for land and infrastructure development in Delhi under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, Government of India.

Additional Information

• Infrastructure Features:
• The Dwarka Sector 8 complex boasts world-class facilities, including a synthetic athletic track, specialized Archery grounds, and international-standard Football pitches.
• It also includes hostel facilities for resident athletes, ensuring that talented youth from across the country can train in Delhi under professional supervision.
• Role of the DDA in Sports:
• The Delhi Development Authority currently maintains over 15 sports complexes, 3 mini-sports complexes, and 2 public golf courses (including the Qutab Golf Course and Bhalswa Golf Course).
• The transition toward "Centres of Excellence" indicates a shift from providing general recreational facilities to fostering competitive excellence in alignment with the Master Plan for Delhi (MPD) 2041.
• Comparison with Other Organizations:
• While the Sports Authority of India (SAI) manages national-level training programs (like the Target Olympic Podium Scheme - TOPS), the DDA is the local authority responsible for the physical construction and maintenance of these specific assets in Delhi.
• The Indian Olympic Association (IOA) acts as the governing body for Olympic movements but does not typically undertake large-scale civil construction projects like the Dwarka CoE.
• Socio-Economic Impact:
• The establishment of such centers in Dwarka helps in the decentralization of sports facilities, which were previously concentrated in South Delhi (e.g., Siri Fort) and East Delhi (e.g., Yamuna Sports Complex).
• It supports the Khelo India initiative by providing the necessary hardware (infrastructure) to complement the software (talent scouting and training).

Important Points

• The Lieutenant Governor of Delhi, who serves as the Chairman of the DDA, has been a key proponent of the timely completion of the Dwarka sports projects.
• The Centre of Excellence model aims to bridge the gap between amateur play and professional sports by integrating sports science, physiotherapy, and nutrition within the same premises.
• Recent developments in 2024-2025 have seen DDA increasing its budget allocation for green spaces and multi-utility sports arenas to cater to the growing population of the sub-city of Dwarka.