General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Hnahthial.

Key Points

• The second edition of the North Eastern Region (NER) District SDG Index (2023-24) was officially released in July 2025. It serves as a comprehensive tool to measure the progress of districts across the eight North Eastern states in achieving the Sustainable Development Goals.
• In this edition, the Hnahthial district, located in the state of Mizoram, emerged as the top-performing district in the entire region with an impressive score of 81.43. This highlights the district's significant strides in sectors like health, education, and clean energy.
• The index is a collaborative effort between NITI Aayog and the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (MDoNER), with technical support provided by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
• Following Hnahthial, other high-performing districts in the 2023-24 index included Aizawl (also in Mizoram) and East Sikkim (in Sikkim), both of which maintained scores above 78, showcasing the strong performance of Mizoram and Sikkim in the regional rankings.
• The report evaluates 103 districts across the region based on 84 indicators that cover 15 global goals out of the 17 SDGs, excluding goals 14 (Life Below Water) and 17 (Partnerships for the Goals) as they are less applicable at the district level in this landlocked region.

Additional Information

• Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs): These are a set of 17 global goals established by the United Nations in 2015 as a universal call to action to end poverty, protect the planet, and ensure that by 2030 all people enjoy peace and prosperity.
• NER District SDG Index Framework: This index is the first of its kind in India that focuses specifically on a geographical region. It categorizes districts into four categories based on their scores: Aspirant (0–49), Performer (50–64), Front Runner (65–99), and Achiever (100).
• State Performance: In the 2023-24 report, Mizoram and Sikkim dominated the list of top districts. Hnahthial, a relatively new district carved out of Lunglei in 2019, showed exceptional growth in environmental sustainability and poverty reduction.
• Regional Coverage: The index covers all eight states of the North Eastern Region, which include Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, and Tripura.
• Monitoring and Evaluation: The index allows state and district administrations to identify gaps in socio-economic development and helps the Central Government in better resource allocation and policy framing under the Act East Policy.

Important Points

• Comparison with First Edition: The first edition of the NER District SDG Index was launched in 2021 (for the period 2021-22), where East Sikkim topped the list. The shift in 2023-24 to Hnahthial indicates a dynamic change in local governance and development speed in Mizoram.
• NITI Aayog's Role: As the premier policy think tank of the Government of India, NITI Aayog (established in 2015) uses these indices to foster competitive federalism among states and districts.
• Indicators Used: The 84 indicators used in the 2023-24 index were refined to include latest data from the National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5), Unified District Information System for Education (UDISE+), and Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS).
• Goal 1 (No Poverty) and Goal 3 (Good Health and Well-being): These two goals saw the highest improvement across most districts in the North East, largely due to schemes like PM-JAY and MGNREGA.

The correct answer is Smriti Mandhana.

Key Points

• The Wisden Cricketers' Almanack 2025 has named Indian pace spearhead Jasprit Bumrah and star batter Smriti Mandhana as the Leading Cricketers in the World for their exceptional performances in the year 2024.
• Jasprit Bumrah has achieved the distinction of being the first Indian fast bowler to be honored as the Leading Men's Cricketer in the World by Wisden. This recognizes his vital role in India's success, particularly during the ICC Men’s T20 World Cup 2024.
• Smriti Mandhana has been recognized as the Leading Women's Cricketer in the World. She was instrumental in the Indian Women's Team's success across formats and famously led the Royal Challengers Bangalore (RCB) to their maiden Women's Premier League (WPL) title in March 2024.
• This marks a historic "Indian double," where both the Men's and Women's top global honors from the Wisden Almanack have been awarded to Indian cricketers in the same year.
• The Wisden Cricketers' Almanack, often referred to as the "Bible of Cricket," is an annual publication that has been documenting the sport since the 19^th century.

Additional Information

• Wisden Cricketers' Almanack:
• It was founded in 1864 by the English cricketer John Wisden. It is the world's most famous sports reference book and is published annually in the United Kingdom.
• The "Leading Cricketer in the World" title was introduced in the 2004 edition to recognize the single best player in the world for the previous calendar year.
• Smriti Mandhana:
• Born on July 18, 1996, in Mumbai, she is a prolific left-handed opening batter. She has previously won the Rachael Heyhoe Flint Award for the ICC Women's Cricketer of the Year twice (in 2018 and 2021).
• In 2024, she showcased remarkable consistency in One Day Internationals (ODIs) and Test matches, further cementing her status as a global icon in women's cricket.
• Jasprit Bumrah:
• Known for his unique slingshot action, Bumrah was born on December 6, 1993. He is currently regarded as one of the best all-format bowlers in history.
• He played a decisive role in India winning the ICC T20 World Cup 2024, where he was named the Player of the Tournament for taking 15 wickets at an incredible economy rate of 4.17.

Important Points

• Cricketers of the Year: Apart from the "Leading Cricketer" title, Wisden also selects "Five Cricketers of the Year," an honor that can only be won once in a player's career and is primarily based on their influence on the English cricket season.
• Previous Indian Winners: Other Indian legends who have been named the Leading Cricketer in the World include Virender Sehwag (twice), Sachin Tendulkar, and Virat Kohli (three consecutive times between 2016-2018).
• Leading T20 Cricketer: The 2025 edition also highlights the Leading T20 Cricketer in the World, a category introduced more recently to reflect the growing popularity of the shortest format of the game.

The correct answer is Jagdish Singh Khehar.

Key Points

• The Government of India announced the Padma Awards for the year 2025, where retired Chief Justice of India (CJI) Jagdish Singh Khehar was honored with the Padma Vibhushan.
• He received this prestigious award in the field of Public Affairs for his exceptional contribution to the Indian judiciary and the legal system. Hence, the correct answer is Jagdish Singh Khehar.
• Jagdish Singh Khehar served as the 44^th Chief Justice of India from January 4, 2017, to August 27, 2017.
• During his tenure, he headed various landmark benches, including the one that struck down the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) Act, thereby upholding the collegium system of judicial appointments.
• He was also the presiding CJI during the historic Triple Talaq case, where a five-judge bench declared the practice of 'Talaq-e-Biddat' unconstitutional by a 3:2 majority.
• He played a crucial role in constituting the nine-judge bench for the Right to Privacy case (Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India), which established privacy as a Fundamental Right under Article 21 of the Constitution.

Additional Information

• Padma Vibhushan:
• It is the second-highest civilian award of the Republic of India, instituted on January 2, 1954.
• The award is given for "exceptional and distinguished service" without distinction of race, occupation, position, or sex.
• In the hierarchy of civilian honors, it ranks below the Bharat Ratna and above the Padma Bhushan.
• Career of Justice Khehar:
• Born in 1952, he was the first Chief Justice of India from the Sikh community.
• Before being elevated to the Supreme Court in 2011, he served as the Chief Justice of the Uttarakhand High Court and the Karnataka High Court.
• He also served as the Acting Chief Justice of the Punjab and Haryana High Court.
• Other Options in Context:
• Justice Dipak Misra served as the 45^th CJI and is known for judgments on Section 377 and Aadhaar.
• Justice Ranjan Gogoi served as the 46^th CJI and was later nominated to the Rajya Sabha; he was awarded the Padma Bhushan in 2024.
• Justice H.L. Dattu served as the 42^nd CJI and later as the Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC).

Important Points

• The Padma Awards are announced every year on the occasion of Republic Day (January 26^th).
• The awards are conferred by the President of India at ceremonial functions held at Rashtrapati Bhawan usually around March or April.
• The recommendations for the awards are made by the Padma Awards Committee, which is constituted by the Prime Minister every year.
• The total number of awards given in a year (excluding posthumous awards and those to NRI/foreigners/OCIs) should not exceed 120.
• The 2025 list included several luminaries across fields like Art, Social Work, Public Affairs, Science and Engineering, Trade and Industry, Medicine, Literature and Education, Sports, and Civil Service.

The correct answer is Vinícius Jr..

Key Points

• The Brazilian forward Vinícius Jr. was honored as the Best FIFA Men’s Player for the 2024 season during the prestigious The Best FIFA Football Awards held in December 2024.
• His victory was largely attributed to his exceptional performance during the 2023-2024 club season, where he acted as the spearhead for Real Madrid in both domestic and international competitions.
• Vinícius Jr. played a decisive role in securing Real Madrid’s 15^th UEFA Champions League title, notably scoring in the final, and helping the club clinch their 36^th La Liga trophy.
• He emerged as the winner after a global voting process that included national team coaches, national team captains, specialist journalists, and fans from around the world.
• The consideration period for the 2024 award spanned from August 2023 to August 2024, during which the player demonstrated remarkable consistency, scoring 24 goals and providing 11 assists for his club.

Additional Information

• The Best FIFA Football Awards:
• These awards were established by FIFA in 2016 following the conclusion of their partnership with France Football for the FIFA Ballon d’Or.
• The ceremony aims to recognize the most outstanding performers in association football based on their achievements over a specific sporting calendar or season.
• Other Finalists in 2024:
• Rodri: The Manchester City and Spain midfielder was a top contender after winning the Premier League and UEFA Euro 2024, where he was named the Player of the Tournament.
• Jude Bellingham: The young English midfielder was recognized for his phenomenal debut season at Real Madrid, winning the La Liga Player of the Season award.
• Erling Haaland: The Norwegian striker remained in the spotlight due to his prolific goal-scoring record in the English Premier League.
• Award Categories:
• Apart from the Best Men’s Player, the event also presents awards for the Best FIFA Women’s Player, Best Men’s Coach, Best Women’s Coach, and the FIFA Puskás Award for the best goal scored during the year.
• The FIFA FIFPRO Men’s World 11 is also revealed during the ceremony, representing the best team of the year as voted by the players themselves.

Important Points

• Vinícius Jr. became the first Brazilian player to win the Best FIFA Men’s Player award since its rebranding in 2016, ending a long wait for the football-rich nation.
• His triumph highlights the shift in global football dominance toward a new generation of stars following the long-standing era of Lionel Messi and Cristiano Ronaldo.
• The FIFA voting system ensures a diverse range of perspectives by giving equal weight (25% each) to the four distinct voting groups, making it one of the most comprehensive individual honors in sports.
• The 2024 awards were particularly significant as they reflected performances in major continental tournaments like the Copa América and the UEFA European Championship.

The correct answer is National Disaster Management Authority.

Key Points

• The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), which is the apex body for disaster management in India, promoted and launched the Sachet App to provide real-time disaster alerts to citizens.
• The Sachet App is a crucial part of the Integrated Alert System (IAS), designed to disseminate early warnings and alerts for various natural hazards like cyclones, floods, heatwaves, and earthquakes.
• As of April 2025, the promotion of this app has been intensified to ensure that every citizen has access to geo-targeted alerts based on their current location, facilitating timely evacuation and safety measures.
• The application was developed in collaboration with the Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT), under the Department of Telecommunications, utilizing the Common Alerting Protocol (CAP) standards.
• The Sachet App acts as a single point of information, aggregating data from various disaster-monitoring agencies such as the Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) and the Central Water Commission (CWC).
• A key feature of the app is its multilingual support, which allows users across different states and Union Territories of India to receive information in their local languages, enhancing the reach of disaster mitigation efforts.

Additional Information

• National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA):
• Established under the Disaster Management Act, 2005, the NDMA is chaired by the Prime Minister of India.
• Its primary role is to lay down policies, plans, and guidelines for disaster management to ensure a timely and effective response to disasters.
• The NDMA coordinates with the State Disaster Management Authorities (SDMAs) to implement safety protocols across the country.
• Indian Meteorological Department (IMD):
• The IMD is the principal agency responsible for meteorological observations, weather forecasting, and seismology.
• While it provides the raw data and weather warnings used by the Sachet App, it is not the promoting authority of the app itself.
• Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY):
• MeitY focuses on IT policy, e-governance, and the promotion of the electronics industry in India.
• Though it supports digital initiatives, the specialized disaster-alerting platform falls under the functional domain of NDMA.
• NITI Aayog:
• The National Institution for Transforming India (NITI Aayog) is the premier policy think tank of the Government of India.
• It provides strategic and technical advice but does not typically launch operational public safety applications like Sachet.

Important Points

• Common Alerting Protocol (CAP): This is an international standard format for emergency alerting and public warning, which the Sachet App uses to ensure consistency across various communication platforms like SMS, radio, and television.
• Cell Broadcast Alert System (CBAS): Alongside the app, the NDMA has been testing Cell Broadcast technology to send loud, intrusive alerts to mobile phones even without active internet connections.
• Geofencing: The Sachet App utilizes GPS technology and geofencing to ensure that alerts are only sent to people residing in or traveling through the specific danger zone, preventing unnecessary panic in safe areas.
• Citizen Safety Features: The app also includes educational resources, "Do’s and Don’ts" for different disasters, and contact details for emergency services in various locations.

The correct answer is India-EFTA Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement.

Key Points

• The India-EFTA Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) was officially signed on March 10, 2024, marking a historic milestone in India’s trade relations with European nations outside the European Union.
• The agreement involves the European Free Trade Association (EFTA), which consists of four member countries: Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway, and Switzerland.
• A landmark feature of this agreement is the legally binding commitment by EFTA countries to invest US $100 billion in India over a period of 15 years.
• This investment is projected to facilitate the creation of 1 million direct jobs in India across various sectors, including manufacturing, services, and infrastructure.
• The TEPA is the first-ever Free Trade Agreement (FTA) signed by India that includes a specific, quantifiable commitment toward Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and employment generation.
• Negotiations for this pact spanned over 15 years, having initially commenced in 2008, before seeing a final push for conclusion in 2023-2024.

Additional Information

• Trade in Goods and Services:
• Under TEPA, EFTA countries will provide market access to 99.6% of India’s exports. In return, India will offer tariff concessions on 92.2% of its tariff lines, covering products like machinery, watches, chocolates, and wine.
• In the services sector, India has secured better access for its professionals in areas such as IT, auditing, healthcare, and engineering through specialized provisions for Mode 1 and Mode 4 service delivery.
• Intellectual Property Rights (IPR):
• The agreement includes robust provisions for the protection of Intellectual Property Rights, balancing the interests of innovators with India's need to maintain affordable healthcare and generic medicine production.
• Economic Profile of EFTA:
• The EFTA was established in 1960 by the Stockholm Convention. While its members are not part of the European Union (EU), they are highly developed economies with a combined GDP of over US $1 trillion.
• Switzerland is India’s largest trading partner within the EFTA bloc, primarily due to the import of gold and precious metals, which constitute a significant portion of bilateral trade.
• Significance for India:
• This agreement aligns with the "Make in India" and "Atmanirbhar Bharat" initiatives by encouraging European companies to establish manufacturing bases in India to serve both domestic and global markets.
• It provides India with a strategic gateway to the European market, bypassing some of the complexities associated with broader EU trade negotiations.

Important Points

• Legal Nature of Investment: The US $100 billion commitment is unique because it includes a "rebalancing" mechanism. If the investment targets are not met within the stipulated 15-year timeframe, India reserves the right to withdraw or adjust certain tariff concessions provided under the deal.
• Sectoral Focus: The investment is expected to flow into high-growth areas such as chemicals, pharmaceuticals, food processing, and renewable energy.
• Rules of Origin: The pact includes strict Rules of Origin (RoO) to ensure that the benefits of the agreement are enjoyed primarily by the signatory nations and to prevent the re-routing of goods from third-party countries$.

The correct answer is Jawaharlal Nehru Indoor Stadium, Cuttack.

Key Points

• The 71^st Senior National Men's Kabaddi Championship was held at the Jawaharlal Nehru Indoor Stadium located in Cuttack, Odisha.
• The prestigious tournament was scheduled for the year 2025, continuing the long-standing tradition of India's premier domestic kabaddi competition.
• The event was organized by the Odisha Kabaddi Association under the aegis of the Amateur Kabaddi Federation of India (AKFI), showcasing the state's capability to host major sporting events.
• This championship serves as a critical platform for players to demonstrate their skills for selection into the Indian National Kabaddi Team for upcoming international fixtures.
• The 71^st edition saw intense competition among various states, union territories, and departmental teams such as Services and Railways, featuring top international stars.

Additional Information

• Jawaharlal Nehru Indoor Stadium:
• Located in Cuttack, it is one of the oldest and most iconic indoor sports arenas in Odisha, with a seating capacity of approximately 6,000 spectators.
• Apart from kabaddi, the venue frequently hosts national and international tournaments for Table Tennis, Gymnastics, and Badminton.
• Senior National Kabaddi Championship:
• It is the highest level of domestic kabaddi in India, held annually to determine the best state or departmental team in the country.
• The 70^th edition of the championship was previously held in Maharashtra in 2024, where the Indian Railways team clinched the title.
• Odisha as a Sports Hub:
• The state of Odisha has been aggressively promoting sports under its "Sports for Youth, Youth for Sports" initiative, hosting global events like the FIH Men's Hockey World Cup in 2018 and 2023.
• The city of Bhubaneswar is often called the Sports Capital of India, but Cuttack remains a vital center for indoor sports development.
• Amateur Kabaddi Federation of India (AKFI):
• Founded in 1972, the AKFI is the national governing body for the sport of kabaddi in India.
• It is affiliated with the International Kabaddi Federation (IKF) and is responsible for organizing national championships across various age groups, including Junior and Sub-Junior levels.

Important Points

• Player Recruitment: Performance in the Senior Nationals is a major criterion for players to be scouted by franchises in the Pro Kabaddi League (PKL), which has significantly increased the commercial value of the sport since 2014.
• Format: The tournament typically follows a League-cum-Knockout format, where teams are divided into groups (pools) before progressing to the quarter-finals, semi-finals, and the final.
• Dates of Event: The 71^st edition in 2025 highlights the continued growth of the sport post-pandemic, ensuring a steady pipeline of talent for India's dominance in the Asian Games and World Cups.

The correct answer is Urjit Patel.

Key Points

• In August 2025, the Government of India appointed former Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Governor Urjit Patel as the Executive Director for India at the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
• The appointment is for a fixed tenure of three years, during which he will represent the Indian constituency at the IMF Executive Board in Washington, D.C.
• The Executive Director (ED) at the IMF represents a constituency of countries; for India, this typically includes Bangladesh, Bhutan, and Sri Lanka, in addition to the home nation.
• The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) approved this high-profile selection to ensure India's economic interests and perspectives are robustly presented at the global lender's highest decision-making level.
• Urjit Patel succeeds Krishnamurthy Subramanian, whose term concluded in 2025, marking a continuation of appointing top-tier economists to this strategic international post.

Additional Information

• Urjit Patel:
• He served as the 24^th Governor of the Reserve Bank of India from September 2016 to December 2018.
• During his tenure, the historic demonetization of November 2016 took place, and the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) was formally established to target inflation.
• Before his IMF role, he also served as the Vice President of the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) based in Beijing, focusing on investment operations.
• He holds a Ph.D. in Economics from Yale University and has previously worked with the IMF in the early 1990s.
• International Monetary Fund (IMF):
• Established in 1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference, the IMF works to foster global monetary cooperation and secure financial stability.
• The Executive Board consists of 24 Directors who are responsible for conducting the day-to-day business of the IMF.
• The Managing Director of the IMF (currently Kristalina Georgieva as of recent years) serves as the head of the organization and Chair of the Executive Board.
• Other Notable Personalities:
• Krishnamurthy Subramanian: A former Chief Economic Adviser (CEA) to the Government of India (2018–2021) who served as Executive Director at the IMF starting in November 2022.
• Raghuram Rajan: The 23^rd Governor of the RBI and the first Indian to serve as the Chief Economist of the IMF (2003–2006).
• Shaktikanta Das: The 25^th Governor of the RBI (appointed in 2018), recognized globally for steering the Indian economy through the COVID-19 pandemic and global inflationary cycles.

Important Points

• The role of the Executive Director is pivotal because they participate in the formulation of IMF policies, Article IV consultations, and the approval of financial assistance packages to member countries.
• India is one of the fastest-growing large economies, and its representation at the IMF is crucial for advocating for the needs of the Global South and emerging markets.
• The appointment reflects the government's strategy of deploying experienced central bankers and policy experts to international financial institutions to enhance diplomatic and economic leverage.

The correct answer is Mumbai.

Key Points

• The annual banking conference, FIBAC, is a premier event co-hosted by the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI) and the Indian Banks’ Association (IBA).
• For the year 2025, the conference is scheduled to be held on 25 and 26 August 2025 in the city of Mumbai.
• The central theme for this two-day event is ‘Charting New Frontiers’, which aims to explore the future of the Indian financial ecosystem in a rapidly changing global environment.
• The venue, Mumbai, is strategically chosen as it is the Financial Capital of India and serves as the primary hub for major banking and financial institutions.
• The conference serves as a critical platform for Bank CEOs, Policymakers, and Fintech innovators to deliberate on strategies for the Indian banking industry to support the nation's goal of becoming a USD 5 trillion economy.

Additional Information

• FICCI (Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry):
• Established in 1927, it is the largest and oldest apex business organization in India.
• It was founded on the advice of Mahatma Gandhi by legendary industrialists G.D. Birla and Purshottamdas Thakurdas.
• Its headquarters is located in New Delhi, and it plays a vital role in policy advocacy and networking for the Indian industry.
• IBA (Indian Banks’ Association):
• Formed on 26 September 1946, it is a representative body of management of banking in India operating in India.
• It is based in Mumbai and currently represents over 240+ banking companies operating in the country.
• The association helps in strengthening the Indian banking system and facilitates coordination between various banks and the Government of India.
• Significance of Mumbai:
• Mumbai houses the headquarters of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), and the National Stock Exchange (NSE).
• It is home to the corporate headquarters of almost all major public and private sector banks, making it the most suitable location for FIBAC.

Important Points

• Key Participants: The conference typically features a keynote address by the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and participation from high-ranking officials of the Ministry of Finance.
• Technological Focus: Discussions at FIBAC 2025 are expected to focus heavily on Artificial Intelligence (AI), Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI), and the implementation of Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC).
• Economic Impact: The insights derived from the FIBAC conference often influence the regulatory roadmap and operational strategies of commercial banks for the upcoming financial year.
• Previous Editions: Past editions of the conference, such as FIBAC 2024, were also hosted in Mumbai at venues like the Hotel Trident, reinforcing the city's status as the permanent heartbeat of Indian finance.

The correct answer is Enforcement Directorate.

Key Points

• The Enforcement Directorate (ED) is the central agency responsible for investigating the Mithi River Desilting Scam under the provisions of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002.
• The investigation focuses on the financial irregularities and money laundering aspects of contracts awarded by the Brihanmumbai Municipal Corporation (BMC) for the desilting of the Mithi River and various major drains in Mumbai.
• The scam came to light following the heavy monsoon rains in 2015, which led to severe flooding in Mumbai, raising doubts about the actual work performed by contractors despite massive payments.
• The ED stepped in after the Economic Offences Wing (EOW) and the Anti-Corruption Bureau (ACB) of the Mumbai Police registered FIRs against several contractors and civic officials for cheating and forgery.
• Investigations by the ED involve tracing the "proceeds of crime," where public funds meant for disaster management were allegedly diverted to private accounts through shell companies. Hence, the correct answer is the Enforcement Directorate.

Additional Information

• Geographical Context of Mithi River:
• The Mithi River is a major river in the island city of Mumbai, Maharashtra, flowing approximately 17.8 kilometers.
• It originates from the overflow of the Vihar Lake and also receives discharge from the Powai Lake before meeting the Arabian Sea at Mahim Bay.
• It serves as a critical natural drainage system for Mumbai; however, heavy encroachment and industrial pollution have severely reduced its width and depth over the decades.
• The Role of the Brihanmumbai Municipal Corporation (BMC):
• The BMC is the richest municipal corporation in India and is responsible for the maintenance of the city's infrastructure, including the storm-water drain (SWD) network.
• Every year, before the monsoon, the BMC awards contracts worth hundreds of crores of Indian Rupees (INR) for removing silt (desilting) to ensure the city does not flood.
• Agency Roles:
• The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) typically handles cases of corruption involving central government officials or cases referred by the Supreme Court or High Courts.
• The Mumbai Police handle the initial criminal investigation (cheating/forgery), while the Enforcement Directorate (ED) specifically targets the illegal wealth and money laundering generated from such crimes.

Important Points

• Modus Operandi of the Scam:
• Contractors allegedly submitted fake bills and used forged vehicle registration numbers in their logs to claim they had transported thousands of tonnes of silt to dump sites.
• Audits revealed that many registration numbers provided for "trucks" used in desilting actually belonged to two-wheelers, scooters, or auto-rickshaws, proving the work was not done as claimed.
• The scam is estimated to be worth over Rs. 150 crore, involving a nexus between contractors, third-party auditors, and civic engineers.
• Legal Actions:
• Under the PMLA, the Enforcement Directorate has the power to attach properties of the accused that are suspected to be bought using the embezzled money.
• Several prominent contractors were blacklisted by the BMC following the investigation, and charge sheets have been filed against multiple individuals for their involvement in the scam.

The correct answer is 5.6%.

Key Points

• According to the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS), India's unemployment rate was recorded at 5.6% in May 2025.
• The PLFS is a regular survey conducted by the National Statistical Office (NSO), which operates under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
• The data specifically focuses on the unemployment rate for persons aged 15 years and above, providing a clear picture of the job market's health for the working-age population.
• The survey utilizes the Current Weekly Status (CWS) approach for its quarterly and short-term updates, where a person is considered unemployed if they did not work even for one hour during the reference period of the last 7 days but were available for work.
• This 5.6% figure is a critical indicator used by policymakers to evaluate the impact of economic schemes and the pace of job creation in both urban and rural sectors. Hence, the correct answer is 5.6%.

Additional Information

• Unemployment Rate (UR):
• The Unemployment Rate is defined as the percentage of persons unemployed among the total persons in the Labour Force.
• It is calculated as: UR = (Unemployed Persons / Labour Force) x 100.
• Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR):
• LFPR represents the percentage of the total population that is either employed or seeking/available for work (unemployed).
• In recent years, India has seen a steady increase in the LFPR, particularly among women in rural areas.
• Worker Population Ratio (WPR):
• The WPR is the percentage of employed persons in the total population.
• This ratio helps in understanding the proportion of the population that is actively contributing to the production of goods and services in the economy.
• National Statistical Office (NSO):
• The NSO was formed through the merger of the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) and the Central Statistics Office (CSO) on May 23, 2019.
• It is the nodal agency in India for the planned development of the statistical system and for maintaining norms and standards in the field of statistics.

Important Points

• Objectives of PLFS:
• The PLFS was launched in April 2017 with two primary objectives.
• First, to estimate the key employment and unemployment indicators (viz. WPR, LFPR, UR) in the short time interval of three months for urban areas only in the Current Weekly Status (CWS).
• Second, to estimate employment and unemployment indicators in both Usual Status (ps+ss) and CWS in both rural and urban areas annually.
• Key Methodologies:
• Usual Status: The activity status is determined based on a reference period of 365 days preceding the date of the survey.
• Current Weekly Status (CWS): The activity status is determined based on a reference period of 7 days preceding the date of the survey.
• The May 2025 data point is part of the ongoing effort to provide real-time or high-frequency labor market data to assist in evidence-based policymaking.

The correct answer is Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).

Key Points

• The Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC), also known as Sriharikota Range (SHAR), is the primary spaceport of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
• Located in Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh, it provides the essential infrastructure for India's orbital launches, featuring two active launch pads and advanced tracking facilities.
• The NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar (NISAR) mission is a landmark collaboration between NASA (United States) and ISRO (India). It is designed to map the entire globe every 12 days to study changes in Earth’s ecosystems and ice mass.
• ISRO is responsible for the launch of the NISAR mission, utilizing the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) Mark II or LVM3 from the SDSC facility.
• Established as the Indian National Committee for Space Research (INCOSPAR) in 1962 and later reconstituted as ISRO in 1969, the agency has grown to become one of the top six space agencies in the world.

Additional Information

• Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO):
• Headquarters: Located in Bengaluru, Karnataka.
• Founding: Established on 15 August 1969 by Dr. Vikram Sarabhai, who is considered the father of the Indian space program.
• Functions: It manages the Indian space program, including satellite communication, earth observation, and planetary exploration.
• National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC):
• Location: Headquartered in Hyderabad, Telangana.
• Role: A key wing of ISRO, it is responsible for remote sensing data acquisition, processing, and dissemination. It plays a vital role in managing natural resources and monitoring disasters.
• Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO):
• Establishment: Formed in 1958 under the Ministry of Defence.
• Focus: It works on developing world-class weapon systems and equipment for the Indian Armed Forces, including missiles like the Agni and Prithvi series.
• North-Eastern Space Applications Centre (NESAC):
• Location: Situated in Umiam, Shillong, Meghalaya.
• Objective: A joint initiative of the Department of Space (DoS) and the North Eastern Council (NEC), established in 2000 to provide space technology support for the development of North Eastern India.

Important Points

• NISAR Technical Features: It is the first satellite mission to use two different radar frequencies (L-band and S-band) to measure changes in our planet's surface less than a centimeter across.
• SDSC Location Advantage: Sriharikota was chosen for its proximity to the equator and the advantage of being on the East Coast, which allows satellites to gain a velocity boost from Earth's rotation during eastward launches.
• Key Milestone: The mission scheduled for July 2025 represents a significant step in Indo-US strategic partnership in the field of space and environmental science.
• Launch Vehicles: SDSC handles various vehicles including the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV), which is known as the "workhorse" of ISRO, and the Launch Vehicle Mark-3 (LVM3) used for heavy missions like Chandrayaan-3.

The correct answer is Leander Paes.

Key Points

• The legendary Indian tennis player Leander Paes was honored with the prestigious P C Chandra Puraskaar 2025 for his exceptional contribution to the world of sports.
• The award ceremony was held in Kolkata, where the P.C. Chandra Group recognized his lifelong dedication and the glory he brought to India on the international tennis circuit.
• Leander Paes is widely celebrated as one of the greatest doubles and mixed doubles players in the history of tennis, having achieved a Career Grand Slam in both categories.
• The P C Chandra Puraskaar is an annual award presented to eminent personalities who have achieved excellence in fields such as sports, culture, science, and social service. Hence, the correct answer is Leander Paes.

Additional Information

• Leander Paes:
• He won the Bronze Medal in the men’s singles category at the 1996 Atlanta Olympic Games, ending a long medal drought for India in individual sports.
• He has won a total of 18 Grand Slam titles, comprising 8 men's doubles and 10 mixed doubles titles.
• In 2024, he became the first Asian man to be inducted into the International Tennis Hall of Fame in the player category.
• He has been honored with India's highest sporting honor, the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna (1996-97), as well as the Padma Shri (2001) and Padma Bhushan (2014) for his services to tennis.
• Other Notable Personalities mentioned:
• Mary Kom: An Indian amateur boxer and the only woman to win the World Amateur Boxing Championship six times. She won a bronze medal at the 2012 Summer Olympics.
• Amjad Ali Khan: A distinguished Indian classical musician who plays the Sarod. He was awarded the Padma Vibhushan in 2001.
• Kapil Dev: The former Indian cricketer who captained the national team to its first Cricket World Cup title in 1983.

Important Points

• P C Chandra Puraskaar:
• This award was instituted in the year 1993 in memory of the late Purna Chandra Chandra, the founder of the P.C. Chandra Group.
• The award typically includes a citation, a trophy, and a significant monetary prize.
• Previous recipients of this prestigious award include luminaries like Mother Teresa, Sunil Gavaskar, P.T. Usha, Sourav Ganguly, and Mithali Raj.
• Historical Context:
• The group has consistently promoted excellence and cultural heritage through this recognition for over three decades.
• The selection process involves a committee that identifies individuals whose work has had a profound impact on society or their respective professions.

The correct answer is 130.

Key Points

• According to the Human Development Report (HDR), India is ranked 130 among 193 countries and territories.
• The Human Development Index (HDI) is a statistical tool used to measure a country's overall achievement in its social and economic dimensions.
• The report is published annually by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). Hence, the correct answer is 130.
• India's HDI value is approximately 0.644, which places the country in the Medium Human Development category.
• The index evaluates three basic dimensions: long and healthy life, access to knowledge, and a decent standard of living.

Additional Information

• Dimensions and Indicators of HDI:
• Health: Measured by Life expectancy at birth. This indicates the number of years a newborn is expected to live if prevailing patterns of mortality at the time of birth stay the same throughout its life.
• Education: Measured by a combination of Mean years of schooling (for adults aged 25 years and older) and Expected years of schooling (for children of school entering age).
• Standard of Living: Measured by Gross National Income (GNI) per capita adjusted for Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) in US Dollars.
• Historical Context:
• The HDI was created by Pakistani economist Mahbub ul Haq and Indian economist Amartya Sen in 1990.
• It was launched with the goal of shifting the focus of development economics from national income statistics to people-centered policies.
• HDI Categories:
• Countries are grouped into four tiers of human development: Very High (0.800 and above), High (0.700–0.799), Medium (0.550–0.699), and Low (below 0.550).

Important Points

• India's Performance:
• In the latest data cycles, India has shown significant improvement in life expectancy, which has risen to about 67.7 years.
• The Expected years of schooling in India stands at 12.6 years, reflecting the impact of government initiatives like Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan.
• India's GNI per capita (PPP) has seen a steady increase, reaching approximately $6,951 in recent years.
• Global Rankings:
• Countries like Switzerland, Norway, and Iceland consistently top the HDI rankings due to their superior healthcare and educational infrastructure.
• Among India's neighbors, Sri Lanka (rank 78) and China (rank 75) usually feature in the High Human Development category.
• Other UNDP Indices:
• Apart from HDI, the UNDP also releases the Inequality-adjusted HDI (IHDI), Gender Development Index (GDI), and Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) to provide a broader view of developmental challenges$.

The correct answer is National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI).

Key Points

• The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) officially launched NACH 3.0 in June 2025 to revolutionize the bulk payment ecosystem in the country.
• NACH stands for National Automated Clearing House, which is a centralized system used by banks and financial institutions for interbank, high-volume, electronic transactions which are repetitive and periodic in nature.
• The primary objective of NACH 3.0 is to enable faster salary and EMI processing by streamlining the mandate management system and reducing the settlement cycle.
• This upgraded version introduces real-time mandate verification and enhanced API-driven integration, which significantly reduces the turnaround time (TAT) for recurring payments like insurance premiums, utility bills, and loan repayments.
• The system is designed to provide a seamless experience for both corporates and retail customers, ensuring higher success rates for automated debits and credits compared to previous versions.

Additional Information

• National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI):
• It is an umbrella organisation for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India, established in 2008.
• It is an initiative of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) under the provisions of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.
• NPCI is responsible for managing several key financial products including UPI (Unified Payments Interface), RuPay, IMPS, and Bharat BillPay.
• Reserve Bank of India (RBI):
• Established on April 1, 1935, following the recommendations of the Hilton Young Commission.
• It acts as the central bank of India and regulates the entire banking sector and monetary policy.
• Headquartered in Mumbai, it oversees the NPCI to ensure financial stability and security in the digital payment landscape.
• State Bank of India (SBI):
• The largest public sector bank in India, which was formed on July 1, 1955, after the nationalization of the Imperial Bank of India.
• While it is a major participant in the NACH system, it is a user (member bank) rather than the governing body that launches the core infrastructure updates.
• Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI):
• Established in 1988 and given statutory powers on January 30, 1992, through the SEBI Act, 1992.
• Its primary function is to protect the interests of investors in securities and to promote the development of the stock market. It does not handle retail payment clearing houses like NACH.

Important Points

• Technological Advancements: NACH 3.0 leverages cloud-native technologies and advanced AI-based fraud detection systems to ensure that bulk transactions are not only fast but also secure.
• Economic Impact: By ensuring that salaries are credited on time and EMI defaults due to technical lags are minimized, this system supports the Ease of Living and Digital India initiatives.
• Mandate Process: The transition to NACH 3.0 allows for the e-Mandate process to be completed in near real-time, removing the traditional delay of 2-3 business days associated with paper-based or older electronic systems.
• Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT): This platform also plays a crucial role in the Direct Benefit Transfer mechanism, allowing the government to transfer subsidies directly to the bank accounts of millions of beneficiaries with higher efficiency.

The correct answer is Arunachal Pradesh.

Key Points

• In May 2025, the Union Minister for Youth Affairs and Sports, Dr. Mansukh Mandaviya, officially inaugurated a new multi-purpose Khelo India Hall in the Kamle district of Arunachal Pradesh.
• The infrastructure project was established at Raga, which serves as the administrative headquarters of the Kamle district, aimed at boosting sports facilities in the remote North Eastern Region.
• The hall has been constructed under the flagship Khelo India Scheme, a national initiative by the Government of India to strengthen grass-root level sports infrastructure across the country.
• The facility is designed to accommodate various indoor sports disciplines such as badminton, table tennis, wrestling, and volleyball, providing a platform for local athletes to train under professional conditions.
• The inauguration underscores the government’s focus on the "Act East Policy" and its commitment to identifying and nurturing sporting talent from Arunachal Pradesh and other tribal-dominated areas.
• Hence, the correct answer is Arunachal Pradesh.

Additional Information

• Kamle District:
• It is one of the newer districts in Arunachal Pradesh, created in December 2017.
• The district was formed by bifurcating territories from the Lower Subansiri and Upper Subansiri districts to improve administrative efficiency in the region.
• Khelo India Program:
• Launched in 2018, the Khelo India (Play India) program was introduced to revive the sports culture in India by building a strong framework for all sports played in the country.
• It operates under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports and includes components like Talent Identification, Infrastructure Development, and the Khelo India State Centres of Excellence (KISCE).
• Sports in Arunachal Pradesh:
• The state has become a hub for combat sports and weightlifting. The National Center of Excellence (NCOE) in Itanagar is a key facility for training elite athletes.
• The state government frequently implements the "Catch ’Em Young" policy to scout talent at a very early age from various districts.
• Dr. Mansukh Mandaviya:
• He is a prominent political leader serving as the Union Minister of Youth Affairs and Sports and the Minister of Labour and Employment in the Indian Cabinet.
• Before this, he held the portfolio of the Union Health Minister, playing a crucial role during the national vaccination drives.

p data-end="57" data-start="0">The correct answer is Leh, Ladakh.

Key Points

• India’s first-ever Astro Tourism Festival, focused on celestial observation and the wonders of the night sky, was successfully held in Leh, Ladakh in 2025.
• The festival was designed to position Ladakh as a global hub for Astro-Tourism, capitalizing on its high altitude, low humidity, and minimal light pollution.
• The event featured diverse activities such as stargazing sessions, astrophotography workshops, and cultural performances, drawing enthusiasts from across the country.
• The initiative is part of a broader strategy to boost sustainable tourism in the Union Territory, encouraging visitors to explore the unique geographical and astronomical heritage of the region.
• It highlights the successful integration of scientific outreach with the tourism industry, fostering local entrepreneurship through the training of "Astropreneurs" or village-level astronomy guides. Hence, the correct answer is Leh, Ladakh.

Additional Information

• Dark Sky Reserve in Hanle:
• Hanle, located in the Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary in Ladakh, is home to India’s first Dark Sky Reserve. This area is strictly regulated to minimize artificial light, preserving the darkness required for high-end astronomical research.
• At an elevation of approximately 4,500 meters, it hosts the Himalayan Chandra Telescope (HCT), operated by the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA).
• Concept of Astro-Tourism:
• Astro-Tourism is a niche form of nature-based tourism that focuses on observing celestial events, planets, and stars in areas with clear, unpolluted skies.
• It promotes eco-friendly travel and provides a platform for educational science communication, often involving the use of telescopes and sky maps.
• Nakshatra Sabha:
• Nakshatra Sabha is a prominent series of events launched in India (often associated with Uttarakhand and Ladakh) to popularize Dark Sky Tourism.
• These campaigns are usually supported by the Ministry of Tourism and state departments to diversify the tourism portfolio beyond traditional sightseeing.
• Geography of Ladakh:
• Ladakh is often referred to as the "Land of High Passes". Its unique cold desert climate and high altitude make it one of the few places in the world with an atmosphere transparent enough for deep-space observation.

Important Points

• Light Pollution: This refers to the excessive or misdirected artificial light produced by human activities, which obscures the view of the stars. Ladakh maintains a low Bortle scale rating, indicating exceptionally dark skies.
• Economic Impact: By 2025, the focus on astro-tourism has significantly increased the income of homestays in remote villages like Hanle and Pangong, as tourists seek authentic, off-beat experiences.
• Cultural Connection: The festival also integrates local Ladakhi folklore related to the stars, connecting ancient indigenous knowledge with modern astronomical science.

The correct answer is They are part of “Organised Services”.

Key Points

• The Supreme Court of India, in a significant observation reaffirmed in May 2025, maintained that the Group A officers of the Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF) are to be treated as Organised Group A Services (OGAS).
• This classification as an Organised Service is crucial because it grants these officers the benefit of Non-Functional Upgradation (NFU), which helps mitigate the financial loss caused by acute career stagnation. Hence, option 2 is correct.
• By being part of Organised Services, officers from forces like CRPF, BSF, CISF, ITBP, and SSB are entitled to higher pay scales and better promotional avenues, bringing them to parity with other All India Services like the IAS and IPS.
• The court dismissed the notion that these forces are "unorganised," highlighting that their recruitment, training, and cadre management follow the strict protocols of Organised Group A Services as defined by the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT). Hence, option 4 is incorrect.
• The Supreme Court emphasized that the nature of duties performed by CAPF officers is vital for Internal Security and Border Management, and denying them OGAS status would be detrimental to their morale.

Additional Information

• Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF):
• The CAPF refers to the uniform nomenclature of five security forces in India under the authority of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
• These forces include the Border Security Force (BSF), Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), Central Industrial Security Force (CISF), Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP), and Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB).
• Recruitment for Group A officers in these forces is conducted annually by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) through the Central Armed Police Forces (Assistant Commandants) Examination.
• Non-Functional Upgradation (NFU):
• NFU is a scheme introduced during the 6^th Central Pay Commission in 2008 to address stagnation in various Organised Group A Services.
• Under this, if an officer of an Organised Service is not promoted due to a lack of vacancies, they are granted the pay scale of the higher grade when their batchmate from the IAS is promoted to that grade.
• The implementation of NFU for CAPF was a long-standing demand that the Supreme Court finally settled in favor of the officers.

Important Points

• Cadre Review: The Organised Service status mandates a periodic Cadre Review (usually every 5 years), which ensures that the promotional structure remains dynamic and functional.
• Legal Precedent: The initial landmark judgment for OGAS status was delivered in February 2019, and subsequent clarifications, including those in 2025, have ensured that the Government of India follows the court's directions without ambiguity.
• Administrative Control: Despite being Organised Services, the CAPF remains under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs rather than the Ministry of Defence, distinguishing them from the Indian Armed Forces.

The correct answer is The Hague, Netherlands.

Key Points

• The 2025 NATO Summit was held on 24–25 June 2025 in The Hague, the Netherlands.
• This was a significant diplomatic event as it was the first time the Netherlands hosted a NATO Summit since 1949, marking a return to one of the founding member nations for a major high-level meeting.
• The summit brought together leaders from the 32 member states of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization to discuss the evolving security landscape in Europe and the North Atlantic region.
• The primary venue for the summit was the World Forum in The Hague, a city globally recognized as the "International City of Peace and Justice."
• The choice of The Hague emphasized the alliance's commitment to the international rule of law and collective security.

Additional Information

• NATO (North Atlantic Treaty Organization):
• Established on April 4, 1949, with the signing of the Washington Treaty.
• It is an intergovernmental military alliance between 30 European countries and 2 North American countries.
• The fundamental role of NATO is to guarantee the freedom and security of its members through political and military means.
• Recent Accessions:
• Finland officially became the 31^st member on April 4, 2023.
• Sweden joined as the 32^nd member on March 7, 2024, significantly altering the security dynamics of the Baltic Sea region.
• Leadership:
• The 2025 Summit was one of the first major summits presided over by Secretary General Mark Rutte, who took office in October 2024.
• Mark Rutte previously served as the Prime Minister of the Netherlands for over 13 years, making the Dutch hosting of the summit particularly symbolic.
• Strategic Objectives:
• The summit focused on the implementation of the 2022 Strategic Concept, which defines Russia as the most significant and direct threat to allies' security.
• Discussions included the long-term support package for Ukraine and the strengthening of the Eastern Flank defense posture.

Important Points

• Host City Features: The Hague is not the capital of the Netherlands (which is Amsterdam), but it is the seat of the Dutch government and parliament, and it houses the International Court of Justice (ICJ).
• Defense Spending: A major theme of the 2025 deliberations was the Defense Investment Pledge, urging all members to spend at least 2% of their GDP on defense to ensure alliance readiness.
• Future Summits: It was confirmed during the meeting that the 2026 NATO Summit would be hosted by Turkey (Türkiye) in the city of Antalya.
• Article 5: The summit reaffirmed the principle of collective defense, where an attack against one ally is considered an attack against all allies, a cornerstone of the NATO alliance.

The correct answer is Shiv Nadar University, Delhi NCR.

Key Points

• In January 2025, Shiv Nadar University (SNU), located in Greater Noida, Delhi NCR, was selected as the Co-Chair for SDG Hub 6, which focuses on Clean Water and Sanitation.
• The appointment is for a three-year term spanning from 2025 to 2027, placing the institution at the forefront of global academic efforts to achieve sustainable water goals.
• This designation is part of the United Nations Academic Impact (UNAI) initiative, which selects institutions of higher education to serve as SDG Hubs based on their research, innovation, and community engagement.
• As a Co-Chair for SDG 6, Shiv Nadar University is tasked with leading international collaborations, sharing best practices, and developing academic solutions to tackle water scarcity and sanitation challenges globally.
• The selection highlights the university's dedicated research through its Center for Public Affairs and Critical Theory (CPACT) and various engineering departments toward water sustainability and wastewater management.

Additional Information

• Sustainable Development Goal 6 (SDG 6):
• SDG 6 is one of the 17 Sustainable Development Goals established by the United Nations in 2015.
• Its primary objective is to "ensure availability and sustainable management of water and sanitation for all" by the year 2030.
• Key targets include achieving universal and equitable access to safe and affordable drinking water, improving water quality by reducing pollution, and increasing water-use efficiency.
• United Nations Academic Impact (UNAI):
• Launched in 2010 by the United Nations, UNAI is an initiative that aligns institutions of higher education with the UN to support and contribute to the realization of UN goals and mandates.
• It currently comprises over 1,600 institutions in more than 150 countries working with the United Nations to promote global priorities.
• UNAI SDG Hubs:
• The UNAI designates specific universities as Hubs for each of the 17 SDGs. These hubs serve as centers of excellence and resources for other member institutions.
• Hubs are chosen for their demonstrated capacity to educate students and conduct research that directly impacts the specific Sustainable Development Goal they represent.

Important Points

• Shiv Nadar University was established in 2011 by the Shiv Nadar Foundation and was one of the first private universities in India to be awarded the Institution of Eminence (IoE) status by the Government of India.
• The role of Co-Chair involves mobilizing students and faculty to engage in advocacy and policy-making related to SDG 6, ensuring that academic research translates into real-world sustainability solutions.
• The 2025–2027 term represents a critical period for the 2030 Agenda, as the world moves into the final five years of the deadline for the Sustainable Development Goals.
• The inclusion of an Indian university as a lead for SDG 6 is significant given India's diverse hydrological challenges and its massive Jal Jeevan Mission, which aligns with SDG 6 targets.