General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is ₹3,000 crore.

Key Points

• The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) initiated a high-profile investigation in August 2025 following a formal complaint lodged by the State Bank of India (SBI).
• The complaint alleged a significant monetary loss to the tune of approximately ₹3,000 crore involving credit facilities extended to the telecom major. Hence, option 4 is correct.
• The primary entities named in the investigation are Anil Ambani and his flagship telecom firm, Reliance Communications Ltd (RCom).
• The probe was triggered after internal audits and forensic reports suggested potential irregularities in the utilization of funds sanctioned by the State Bank of India and other consortium members.
• The investigation focuses on alleged diversion of funds, criminal conspiracy, and cheating, which resulted in the account being classified as a non-performing asset and subsequently a fraudulent account.

Additional Information

• Reliance Communications (RCom):
• Once a dominant force in the Indian telecommunications industry, Reliance Communications faced a massive debt crisis due to intense competition and high spectrum costs.
• The company officially entered the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) process in 2019 to resolve its mounting liabilities, which exceeded ₹46,000 crore at that time.
• Role of the CBI in Bank Frauds:
• The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is the premier investigating agency of India that handles cases of corruption and economic offenses of national and international importance.
• Its Banking Fraud Evolution Cell specifically targets high-value bank defaults and white-collar crimes that threaten the financial stability of Public Sector Banks (PSBs).
• State Bank of India (SBI):
• As the largest public sector bank in India, SBI often acts as the lead bank in large corporate loan consortiums.
• Under Reserve Bank of India (RBI) guidelines, banks are mandated to report accounts as fraud to the CBI if they find evidence of willful default or misappropriation of sanctioned loans.
• Legal Framework for Financial Crimes:
• Cases involving large-scale banking fraud are typically registered under Section 420 (Cheating) and Section 120-B (Criminal Conspiracy) of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), often alongside provisions of the Prevention of Corruption Act.
• The Enforcement Directorate (ED) may also join such probes to investigate money laundering aspects under the PMLA (Prevention of Money Laundering Act).

Important Points

• Timeline: The specific complaint and subsequent action by the CBI in this context were recorded in August 2025.
• Impact: Investigations into figures like Anil Ambani highlight the rigorous scrutiny of Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) in the Indian banking system, which have historically weighed down the economy.
• Numerical Value: The figure of ₹3,000 crore represents the approximate principal loss alleged by SBI in this specific instance of the investigation.

The correct answer is A high-level mechanism to deepen bilateral cooperation across strategic, economic, technological, and people-to-people sectors.

Key Points

• The India-Singapore Ministerial Roundtable (ISMR) is a distinctive high-level leadership mechanism designed to pave a new path for the Strategic Partnership between the two nations.
• The inaugural meeting of the ISMR was held in September 2022 in New Delhi, marking a significant shift toward a more integrated and future-oriented bilateral engagement.
• It brings together senior ministers from both countries, including the Ministers of External Affairs, Finance, and Commerce, to deliberate on cross-cutting issues that affect strategic, economic, and technological domains.
• The primary objective of the ISMR is to identify and capitalize on new opportunities in emerging sectors, ensuring that the bilateral relationship evolves in line with global shifts in technology and sustainability.
• During the second ISMR held in Singapore in August 2024, both countries reaffirmed their commitment to deepening cooperation and decided to elevate the relationship to a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership.

Additional Information

• Six Pillars of Cooperation: The ISMR framework is structured around six key pillars: Digitalization, Skill Development, Sustainability, Healthcare, Advanced Manufacturing, and Connectivity.
• Economic Significance: Singapore has consistently been one of the largest sources of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) into India, and the ISMR helps streamline trade and investment flows by resolving regulatory bottlenecks.
• Digital Connectivity: A major achievement discussed within this framework is the real-time payment systems linkage between India’s UPI and Singapore’s PayNow, which was launched in February 2023 to facilitate faster and cheaper cross-border remittances.
• Green Energy and Sustainability: Both nations are collaborating closely on Green Hydrogen and Green Ammonia initiatives to meet their respective Net Zero targets, emphasizing the sustainability pillar of the roundtable.
• Semiconductor Ecosystem: In the 2024 meeting, a specific emphasis was placed on building a resilient semiconductor supply chain, with Singapore offering its expertise in advanced manufacturing to support India's Semicon India mission.

Important Points

• Leadership Participation: The 2^nd ISMR saw participation from Indian ministers Dr. S. Jaishankar (External Affairs), Nirmala Sitharaman (Finance), Piyush Goyal (Commerce and Industry), and Ashwini Vaishnaw (Electronics and IT).
• Strategic Alignment: The framework aligns with India’s Act East Policy, positioning Singapore as a crucial gateway for India’s engagement with the ASEAN region.
• Human Capital: The Skill Development pillar focuses on the mutual recognition of qualifications and the skilling of the Indian workforce to meet the demands of Singapore’s high-tech industries.
• IMEC Corridor: Discussions often include broader regional connectivity, such as the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC), where Singapore can play a role as a global logistics hub.

The correct answer is Desert National Park.

Key Points

• The 24-hour wildlife census using the waterhole method was conducted in June 2025 at the Desert National Park (DNP), which spans across the Jaisalmer and Barmer districts of Rajasthan.
• During this census, a significant sighting of 73 Great Indian Bustards (GIBs) was recorded, providing vital data for the conservation of this Critically Endangered species.
• The waterhole method is a traditional counting technique where volunteers and forest officials stay stationed at specific water points for a full day and night, usually during the peak summer months when animals are most likely to visit water sources.
• The Desert National Park is the primary natural habitat and the last stronghold for the Great Indian Bustard in the world, making such surveys crucial for monitoring their population trends.
• The census in 2025 aimed to assess the impact of ongoing conservation efforts, including the predator-proof fencing and captive breeding programs established in the region. Hence, the correct answer is Desert National Park.

Additional Information

• Desert National Park (DNP):
• Located in the Thar Desert, it covers an area of approximately 3162 sq km, making it one of the largest national parks in India.
• It was declared a National Park in 1981 to protect the fragile ecosystem of the desert and its unique wildlife like the Chinkara, Desert Fox, and Blackbuck.
• The park features a unique landscape of sand dunes, jagged rocks, and dense salt lake bottoms, providing a perfect camouflage for the Great Indian Bustard.
• Great Indian Bustard (Ardeotis nigriceps):
• It is the State Bird of Rajasthan, locally known as Godawan.
• The bird is listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, granting it the highest level of legal protection in India.
• On the IUCN Red List, it is categorized as Critically Endangered due to its small, declining population, primarily threatened by overhead power lines, habitat loss, and stray dogs.
• The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change launched Project Great Indian Bustard to facilitate the recovery of the species through in-situ and ex-situ conservation.
• Other Options in Context:
• Ranthambore National Park: Situated in Sawai Madhopur, Rajasthan, it is famous for its Royal Bengal Tiger population rather than bustards.
• Bandhavgarh National Park: Located in Madhya Pradesh, it is known for having one of the highest densities of tigers in India.
• Kanha National Park: Also in Madhya Pradesh, it is renowned for the Barasingha (Swamp Deer) and its role in tiger conservation.

Important Points

• Waterhole Census Technique: This method relies on the physiological need of animals to drink water during extreme heat. In Rajasthan, this is often conducted on Buddha Purnima (full moon night) to ensure maximum visibility for observers sitting in "machans" near the waterholes.
• Conservation Milestones: A successful conservation breeding center has been established at Sam, Jaisalmer, where GIB eggs are collected from the wild, hatched in incubators, and the chicks are reared to bolster the wild population.
• Geographical Significance: The Great Indian Bustard is a flagship species for the grassland ecosystem. Its presence indicates the health of the dry grasslands, which are often overlooked compared to forested ecosystems.

The correct answer is Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.

Key Points

• The Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports (MYAS) is the primary government body responsible for formulating and implementing policies related to sports and youth development in India.
• In 2023, the ministry announced a significant revision in the financial assistance provided under the Scheme of Assistance to National Sports Federations (NSFs).
• Under the revised guidelines, the grant for organizing National Championships for High-Priority sports disciplines was increased from ₹22 lakh to ₹44 lakh. Hence, the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports is the correct answer.
• This increase applies to Senior, Junior, and Sub-Junior categories, aiming to improve the quality of competition, infrastructure, and technical conduct of the tournaments.
• The High-Priority category includes sports where India has high medal-winning potential in international events like the Olympics, Asian Games, and Commonwealth Games.

Additional Information

• Scheme of Assistance to National Sports Federations (NSFs):
• This is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports through which funds are channeled for training, international exposure, and equipment.
• It supports the National Coaching Camps, appointment of Foreign Coaches, and participation in International Competitions.
• The categorization of sports into High Priority, Priority, and General determines the level of financial support provided.
• Categorization of Sports:
• High Priority: Disciplines like Athletics, Archery, Badminton, Boxing, Shooting, and Wrestling.
• Priority: Sports that are included in the Olympic Games but where India is currently working towards global standards.
• General: Sports that are not included in the Olympics or Asian Games but have a significant following or regional importance.
• Key Initiatives of the Ministry:
• Khelo India Programme: Launched in 2018 to revive the sports culture in India at the grassroots level by building a strong framework for all sports played in the country.
• Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS): A specialized program to provide personalized support to India’s elite athletes to improve their performance at the Olympic Games.
• National Sports Development Fund (NSDF): Established in 1998 to mobilize resources from non-government sources for the promotion of sports.

Important Points

• Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports: It was initially set up as the Department of Sports just before the 9^th Asian Games in 1982 in New Delhi. It became a full-fledged Ministry in the year 2000.
• Role of SAI: The Sports Authority of India (SAI), an autonomous body under the Ministry, manages the field-level implementation of various schemes and maintains sports infrastructure like the Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium and Indira Gandhi Arena.
• National Sports Policy: The current framework is guided by the National Sports Policy 2001, which focuses on "Broadening of Sports" and "Achieving Excellence in Sports" at the national and international levels.
• Financial Budget: For the financial year 2024-25, the budget allocation for the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports was increased to over ₹3,400 crore, reflecting the government's commitment to the "Viksit Bharat" vision through sports.

The correct answer is Union Territories without legislatures.

Key Points

• The Constitution (131^st Amendment) Bill 2025 is a proposed legislative measure aimed at amending Article 240 of the Indian Constitution to include the Union Territory of Chandigarh.
• Article 240 specifically grants the President of India the power to make regulations for the peace, progress, and good government of certain Union Territories that do not have their own legislative assemblies.
• Currently, Chandigarh is a Union Territory without a legislature, meaning it does not have a Legislative Assembly or a Chief Minister. It is administered by an Administrator (often the Governor of Punjab) appointed by the President.
• By including Chandigarh under Article 240, the Union Government seeks to streamline the governance and legislative process for the territory, aligning it with the administrative framework used for other non-legislative regions like Ladakh and Lakshadweep. Hence, the statement regarding its alignment with Union Territories without legislatures is correct.
• This amendment is significant because it allows the President to enact laws for Chandigarh through regulations, which have the same legal force as an Act of Parliament.

Additional Information

• Article 240 of the Constitution:
• This article empowers the President to make regulations for Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu, and Ladakh.
• Any regulation so made may repeal or amend any Act made by Parliament which is for the time being applicable to the Union Territory.
• The inclusion of Chandigarh in this list via the 131^st Amendment Bill 2025 represents a shift in the administrative control mechanism for the city.
• Categories of Union Territories in India:
• UTs with Legislatures: These include Delhi (National Capital Territory), Puducherry, and Jammu and Kashmir. They have their own Legislative Assemblies and a Council of Ministers to handle local governance.
• UTs without Legislatures: These include Chandigarh, Ladakh, Lakshadweep, Andaman and Nicobar Islands, and Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu. These are governed directly by the Union Government through an Administrator or Lieutenant Governor.
• Historical Context of Chandigarh:
• Chandigarh was established as a Union Territory on November 1, 1966, following the Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966.
• It serves as the joint capital for both Punjab and Haryana, but remains under the direct jurisdiction of the Central Government.

Important Points

• Article 239: States that every Union Territory shall be administered by the President acting, to such extent as he thinks fit, through an administrator to be appointed by him with such designation as he may specify.
• The President's power to make regulations under Article 240 is a plenary power, meaning it is as wide as the power of Parliament to make laws for these territories under Article 246.
• The Constitution (131^st Amendment) Bill 2025 is part of a broader effort to update the constitutional framework to reflect current administrative requirements in Chandigarh, specifically regarding the ease of implementing central policies and local regulations without the delays of parliamentary scheduling.
• The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) is the nodal ministry for all matters of Union Territories relating to legislation, finance and budget, and appointment of Administrators.

The correct answer is Nagpur Bench of the Bombay High Court.

Key Points

• The Supreme Court of India, in a landmark judgment delivered in October 2025, expanded the legal horizon of environmental protection by ruling that the Public Trust Doctrine applies equally to artificial lakes and man-made water bodies.
• This specific ruling affirmed a previous directive issued by the Nagpur Bench of the Bombay High Court, which had emphasized that the state acts as a trustee for all water resources regardless of their origin. Hence, the correct answer is Nagpur Bench of the Bombay High Court.
• The court observed that the ecological significance of a water body does not depend on whether it was formed naturally or constructed by human intervention, as both serve vital environmental functions like groundwater recharge and climate regulation.
• The Public Trust Doctrine mandates that the state holds certain resources in trust for the general public and cannot permit their conversion for private ownership or commercial exploitation that harms the public interest.
• This judgment reinforces the interpretation of Article 21 of the Constitution of India, which encompasses the right to a wholesome environment as part of the Right to Life.

Additional Information

• The Public Trust Doctrine:
• Originating from Roman Law, it was first integrated into Indian law by the Supreme Court in the case of M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath (1997).
• It establishes that resources like air, sea, waters, and forests have such a great importance to the people as a whole that it would be wholly unjustified to make them a subject of private ownership.
• Constitutional Framework:
• Article 48A: This Directive Principle of State Policy directs the State to protect and improve the environment and safeguard forests and wildlife.
• Article 51A(g): It is a Fundamental Duty of every citizen to protect and improve the natural environment, including lakes, rivers, and wildlife.
• Bombay High Court:
• Established on August 14, 1862, it is one of the oldest and most prestigious High Courts in India.
• It has jurisdiction over the states of Maharashtra and Goa, and the Union Territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu.
• The Nagpur Bench is one of its permanent benches, along with Aurangabad and Panaji.
• Significance of Artificial Lakes:
• In many urban areas, artificial lakes are the primary sources of micro-climate maintenance and biodiversity hubs.
• Protecting them under the Public Trust Doctrine prevents land mafias and developers from reclaiming lake beds for real estate projects.

Important Points

• The ruling is expected to impact various smart city projects and urban development plans across India where man-made reservoirs were previously considered exempt from strict environmental non-alienation rules.
• The October 2025 verdict clarifies that once a territory is designated as a water body in revenue records, its status cannot be changed easily, even if it is currently dry or was originally man-made.
• This legal precedent provides a powerful tool for environmental activists to challenge the encroachment of historic tanks and reservoirs constructed during various eras of Indian history.

The correct answer is Mashal.

Key Points

• Mashal is a massive sports talent hunt initiative introduced by the Government of Bihar to identify and nurture athletic potential at the grassroots level.
• The program was officially launched by Chief Minister Nitish Kumar in May 2025, specifically targeting students enrolled in secondary and higher secondary schools across the state.
• The primary objective of Mashal is to create a structured pathway for young athletes to move from school-level competitions to national and international sporting events.
• The talent hunt covers a wide range of disciplines, ensuring that students with diverse physical strengths—from sprinting and long-distance running to team sports like football and kabaddi—are identified.
• Under this scheme, the state government aims to provide scientific training, nutritional support, and modern equipment to the selected candidates to hone their skills effectively.

Additional Information

• Bihar Sports Authority (BSA):
• The BSA serves as the nodal agency for implementing Mashal. It coordinates with district education officers and physical education teachers to conduct trials at the block and district levels.
• The authority is also responsible for managing the State Sports Academy and ensuring that the infrastructure meets the standards required for professional athlete development.
• Infrastructure and Facilities:
• To support initiatives like Mashal, the Bihar Government has been investing in the construction of stadiums in every subdivision and improving existing sports complexes in cities like Patna and Rajgir.
• The Rajgir Sports University, the first of its kind in the state, plays a pivotal role in providing higher education and research facilities in the field of sports science.
• Student Enrollment and Participation:
• The target group includes students from Class 9 to Class 12, generally falling within the age group of 14 to 18 years.
• By focusing on secondary schools, the program ensures that talent is captured at a critical developmental stage before athletes transition to university-level sports.

Important Points

• Incentives for Athletes:
• The Government of Bihar has implemented a "Medal Lao, Naukri Pao" policy, which guarantees government jobs to athletes who win medals in recognized national and international championships.
• Successful participants of the Mashal talent hunt may receive stipends or scholarships to cover their educational and training expenses, reducing the financial burden on their families.
• Socio-Economic Impact:
• The program is designed to promote social inclusivity by reaching out to students in rural and marginalized areas who previously lacked access to formal sports scouting.
• By integrating sports into the academic calendar, the state aims to promote a culture of physical fitness and discipline among the youth of Bihar.
• Selection Process:
• The selection involves multiple rounds, including physical efficiency tests (PET), skill-specific drills, and medical evaluations to ensure that the most promising talents are shortlisted for long-term training camps.

The correct answer is 25 basis points.

Key Points

• In the April 2025 monetary policy review, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) announced a reduction in the Repo Rate by 25 basis points (bps) to stimulate economic activity.
• The decision was finalized by the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) after evaluating the prevailing inflation trends and the need to support GDP growth in the new financial year.
• A reduction of 25 basis points translates to a 0.25% decrease in the interest rate at which the RBI lends to commercial banks. Hence, the correct answer is 25 basis points.
• The MPC opted for a calibrated 25 bps cut rather than a more aggressive 50 basis points or 75 basis points reduction to ensure that liquidity remains balanced without stoking consumer price index (CPI) inflation. Hence, options 1 and 4 are incorrect.
• Small adjustments like 10 basis points are generally not standard practice for the RBI, which typically moves in multiples of 25 to provide a clear signal to the financial markets. Hence, option 3 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Repo Rate:
• The Repo Rate (Repurchase Option) is the key policy rate used by the Central Bank to control the money supply and inflation in the economy.
• When the Repo Rate is reduced, it becomes cheaper for commercial banks to borrow from the RBI, which usually leads to lower interest rates for home loans, auto loans, and business credits.
• Basis Points (bps):
• In finance, a basis point is a unit equal to one-hundredth of one percent (0.01%).
• It is primarily used to denote changes in interest rates, equity indices, and the yield of a fixed-income security to avoid ambiguity in percentage discussions.
• Monetary Policy Committee (MPC):
• The MPC is a six-member committee constituted by the Central Government under Section 45ZB of the amended RBI Act, 1934.
• It is headed by the Governor of the RBI and meets at least four times a year to determine the policy interest rate required to achieve the inflation target.

Important Points

• Impact on the Economy: A 25 basis point cut in April 2025 signals a "dovish" stance, indicating that the RBI is prioritizing economic expansion over strict monetary tightening.
• Reverse Repo Rate: While the Repo Rate is the rate at which banks borrow, the Reverse Repo Rate is the rate at which the RBI borrows money from banks. The gap between these two rates is known as the corridor.
• Transmission of Rates: For a repo rate cut to benefit the public, commercial banks must transmit the benefit by lowering their MCLR (Marginal Cost of Funds Based Lending Rate) or External Benchmark Lending Rate (EBLR).
• Inflation Targeting: The primary mandate of the RBI is to maintain price stability, with a target inflation rate of 4% with a tolerance band of +/- 2% (i.e., between 2% and 6%).

The correct answer is England.

Key Points

• The 2025 Kabaddi World Cup is scheduled to be hosted by England, specifically in the West Midlands region.
• This marks a historic milestone for the sport as it is the first time the Kabaddi World Cup is being held outside of Asia.
• The event is organized by the World Kabaddi Federation (WKF) and is expected to feature approximately 16 teams from across the globe, including men's and women's categories.
• The tournament is slated to take place in April 2025, with matches distributed across various venues in cities like Wolverhampton, Birmingham, and Coventry.
• The decision to host the event in England reflects the growing international footprint of the sport and the significant diaspora population in the United Kingdom that follows the game.

Additional Information

• History of Kabaddi World Cup:
• The first Standard Style Kabaddi World Cup was held in 2004 in Mumbai, India.
• Historically, India has been the most dominant nation in the sport, winning nearly all major international trophies in both Standard and Circle styles.
• Prior to the 2025 edition, all major iterations of the World Cup were hosted within Asian countries, predominantly in India.
• Styles of Kabaddi:
• Standard Style: Played on a rectangular mat, this version is featured in the Asian Games and the Pro Kabaddi League (PKL).
• Circle Style: Played on a circular pitch, this version is popular in Punjab (both in India and Pakistan) and has its own separate World Cup circuit.
• International Status:
• Kabaddi is the National Sport of Bangladesh.
• The sport has seen massive growth in countries like Iran, South Korea, and Kenya, challenging the traditional dominance of South Asian teams.

Important Points

• Strategic Selection: The West Midlands was chosen as the host because of its rich sporting heritage and the presence of a large, vibrant South Asian community, ensuring a high level of local engagement and viewership.
• Economic Impact: The 2025 event is expected to boost the local economy of England by attracting tourists, promoting international broadcasting rights, and fostering sports infrastructure development.
• Governance: While the International Kabaddi Federation (IKF) often oversees the Standard Style used in major games, the World Kabaddi Federation (WKF) is the lead body for the 2025 global event in the United Kingdom.
• Year of Event: The formal announcement for the 2025 host was made in 2022, giving the England Kabaddi Federation sufficient time to prepare for the high-profile influx of athletes.

The correct answer is Inheritance rights and access to education and employment.

Key Points

• The Government of Tamil Nadu released the Tamil Nadu Transgender Policy 2025 to provide a comprehensive legal framework for the rights and welfare of transgender persons.
• A landmark provision of this policy is the explicit assurance of inheritance rights, allowing transgender individuals to inherit ancestral and parental property, addressing a long-standing legal gap. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The policy emphasizes inclusive education by ensuring non-discriminatory access to schools and colleges, alongside creating specialized employment opportunities in both public and private sectors.
• It streamlines the process for obtaining Transgender Identity Certificates and Identity Cards, facilitating easier access to various government welfare schemes and legal documentation.
• The policy was developed following directives and observations from the Madras High Court to ensure the dignity and social integration of the community.

Additional Information

• Historical Context: Tamil Nadu has been a pioneer in transgender welfare, being the first state in India to establish a Transgender Welfare Board in the year 2008.
• Nodal Agency: The Social Welfare and Women Empowerment Department is responsible for the implementation and monitoring of the 2025 Policy guidelines across the state.
• Healthcare Provisions: The state provides Gender Reassignment Surgery (GRS) free of cost in Government General Hospitals and includes transgender persons under the Chief Minister’s Comprehensive Health Insurance Scheme.
• Housing and Social Security: While the state provides free housing site pattas and a monthly pension of ₹1,500 for destitute transgender persons over the age of 40, the 2025 policy specifically strengthens the legal standing regarding property inheritance.
• Education Incentives: The government provides tuition fee waivers and scholarships for transgender students pursuing higher education to improve the literacy rate and economic independence within the community.

Important Points

• Legal Rights: The policy aligns with the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019, but goes further by addressing succession laws which are usually governed by personal laws.
• Reservation Status: In Tamil Nadu, transgender persons are currently categorized under the Most Backward Classes (MBC) for the purpose of reservation in education and government jobs.
• Sensitization: The 2025 policy mandates sensitization programs for police personnel, healthcare workers, and judicial officers to prevent harassment and stigma.
• Self-Identification: It upholds the right to self-identified gender, in accordance with the Supreme Court's NALSA judgement (2014), ensuring that individuals do not face medical coercion for legal recognition.

The correct answer is Punjab Kesari.

Key Points

• Lala Lajpat Rai was a prominent Indian independence activist and a revolutionary leader, widely celebrated by the title Punjab Kesari, which means the 'Lion of Punjab'.
• He was born on 28 January 1865 in the village of Dhudike, located in the Ferozepur district of Punjab. His 160^th birth anniversary was observed across India on 28 January 2025.
• He was a vital part of the Indian National Congress and formed the legendary Lal-Bal-Pal trio, representing the assertive nationalist wing alongside Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Bipin Chandra Pal.
• In 1894, he was instrumental in founding the Punjab National Bank (PNB), which was the first swadeshi bank started with Indian capital. He also founded the Lakshmi Insurance Company.
• During a protest against the Simon Commission in Lahore on 30 October 1928, he was severely injured in a lathi charge ordered by the British police. He succumbed to his injuries on 17 November 1928.

Additional Information

• Netaji:
• This title is synonymous with Subhash Chandra Bose, one of the most influential leaders of the Indian independence movement who led the Indian National Army (INA).
• The title Netaji was reportedly first used by Indian soldiers of the Indische Legion in Germany in 1942.
• Lokmanya Tilak:
• Bal Gangadhar Tilak was conferred with the title Lokmanya, which means "accepted by the people".
• He was a scholar, mathematician, and philosopher who famously declared, "Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it!"
• Deshbandhu:
• Chittaranjan Das (C.R. Das) was popularly known as Deshbandhu, which translates to "Friend of the Nation".
• He was a distinguished lawyer, a leader of the Swaraj Party, and a political mentor to Subhash Chandra Bose.
• Literary Contributions of Lala Lajpat Rai:
• He was a prolific writer and authored several influential books, including Unhappy India, Young India, History of My Deportation, and The Arya Samaj.
• He founded the Servants of the People Society in 1921, dedicated to the service of the country and its marginalized communities.

Important Points

• Political Ideology: Lala Lajpat Rai was deeply influenced by the Arya Samaj and played a significant role in the Swadeshi Movement of 1905 following the Partition of Bengal.
• International Impact: He traveled to the United States in 1917 and founded the Indian Home Rule League of America in New York to seek international support for India's freedom.
• Education: He was a pillar of the DAV (Dayanand Anglo-Vedic) College Trust and Management Society and helped establish several educational institutions in Punjab.
• Legacy: His death sparked a wave of revolutionary activities; Bhagat Singh, Rajguru, and Sukhdev vowed to avenge his death, which eventually led to the Saunders' murder case in 1928.

The correct answer is Longest chess marathon.

Key Points

• Tunde Onakoya, a renowned Nigerian chess master and child education advocate, officially broke the Guinness World Record for the longest chess marathon in April 2024.
• The record-breaking event took place at the iconic Times Square in New York City, beginning on April 17 and concluding on April 20, 2024.
• Onakoya played for a continuous duration of 60 hours, significantly surpassing the previous record of 56 hours, 9 minutes, and 37 seconds, which was set by Norwegian players Hallvard Haug Flatebø and Sjur Ferkingstad in 2018.
• The marathon was not just a feat of endurance but a fundraising campaign aimed at raising $1 million for his non-profit organization, Chess in Slums Africa, to support education and chess training for underprivileged children across the continent.
• Throughout the attempt, he was joined by American chess player Shawn Martinez, who acted as his opponent for the entire 60-hour duration to satisfy the Guinness World Record requirements. Hence, the correct answer is Longest chess marathon.

Additional Information

• Chess in Slums Africa:
• This is a social intervention initiative founded by Tunde Onakoya in 2018.
• The organization uses chess as a framework to help children in impoverished communities (like Oshodi in Lagos, Nigeria) develop critical thinking, problem-solving skills, and access to scholarships.
• The foundation has successfully reached thousands of children, providing them with a path away from street life and child labor.
• Global Recognition:
• The event drew global attention, receiving public support from Bill Gates, the President of Nigeria (Bola Ahmed Tinubu), and various United Nations representatives.
• Onakoya’s achievement has been hailed as a symbol of resilience and a testament to the potential of African youth on the global stage.

Important Points

• Technical Rules of the Record:
• According to Guinness World Record guidelines for the longest marathon, the participant is permitted only 5 minutes of break for every hour of continuous activity.
• These breaks can be accumulated, which Tunde Onakoya used for brief periods of rest and medical check-ups during his 60-hour stint.
• Despite battling physical exhaustion and intense fatigue, he remained undefeated in the games played during the marathon.
• Impact and Legacy:
• By the end of the marathon, the campaign had successfully raised hundreds of thousands of dollars, contributing significantly toward the construction of educational facilities in Nigeria.
• The record solidified the year 2024 as a milestone for Nigerian sports and humanitarian efforts globally$.

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh.

Key Points

• In June 2025, the state of Uttar Pradesh became the first in India to launch a comprehensive state-level Clean Air Plan formulated using airshed-based scientific analysis.
• The plan was developed by the Uttar Pradesh Pollution Control Board (UPPCB) in technical collaboration with IIT Kanpur and supported by international organizations like the World Bank.
• Unlike traditional city-specific plans, this airshed approach recognizes that air pollution does not respect administrative boundaries and moves across regions due to meteorological factors and topographical features.
• The initiative aims to address trans-boundary pollution, focusing on clusters of districts that share the same air quality profile, rather than treating cities as isolated units. Hence, the correct answer is Uttar Pradesh.

Additional Information

• Concept of Airshed Management:
• An airshed is defined as a geographical area where local topography and meteorology limit the dispersion of pollutants, leading to similar air quality levels throughout the zone.
• In India, the Indo-Gangetic Plain (IGP) is considered a massive multi-state airshed where pollution from one state significantly impacts the air quality of neighboring states.
• Managing air quality through an airshed lens allows for synchronized action against biomass burning, industrial emissions, and vehicular exhaust across a larger territory.
• National Clean Air Programme (NCAP):
• Launched in January 2019 by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), it is a long-term, time-bound national strategy.
• The original goal was a 20% to 30% reduction in PM2.5 and PM10 concentrations by 2024, with 2017 as the base year; this was later updated to a 40% reduction target by 2026.
• The program covers 131 non-attainment cities across the country, where air quality consistently fails to meet National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS).

Important Points

• Targeted Pollutants: The plan specifically targets Particulate Matter (PM2.5 and PM10), Nitrogen Oxides (NOx), and Sulfur Dioxide (SO2), which are primary contributors to respiratory illnesses.
• Geographic Focus: In Uttar Pradesh, major non-attainment cities including Lucknow, Kanpur, Varanasi, Agra, and Noida are integrated into this regional management framework.
• Sectoral Interventions: Key strategies include the promotion of Electric Vehicles (EVs), strict enforcement of Grades Response Action Plan (GRAP), and the installation of Continuous Ambient Air Quality Monitoring Systems (CAAQMS).
• Financial Support: The implementation is supported by grants from the XV Finance Commission specifically earmarked for improving air quality in million-plus population cities.

The correct answer is Civil Registration System.

Key Points

• The Union Home Minister Amit Shah launched the Civil Registration System (CRS) mobile application on October 29, 2024, to modernize the process of recording vital events in India.
• The application is designed to allow citizens to register births and deaths at any time and from any location, significantly reducing the dependency on physical visits to government offices.
• It aims to streamline and automate the registration process, ensuring that certificates are issued in a much shorter time frame compared to the traditional manual method.
• The app was developed under the aegis of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India to promote the Digital India initiative and enhance administrative efficiency.
• This digital transition is part of the implementation of the Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Act, 2023, which seeks to create a national-level database of vital statistics.
• Hence, the correct answer is Civil Registration System.

Additional Information

• Legal Framework:
• The Registration of Births and Deaths (RBD) Act, 1969, provides the statutory framework for the compulsory registration of these events in India.
• The 2023 Amendment to this Act authorized the use of digital technology and the creation of centralized databases to improve data integrity and accessibility.
• Significance of CRS:
• The Civil Registration System is a continuous, permanent, and compulsory recording of the occurrence and characteristics of vital events.
• Accurate data from the CRS is crucial for health planning, socio-economic development, and population monitoring by the government.
• Digital Governance:
• The mobile app integrates with various API-based services to ensure that the data can be verified and updated in real-time across different government platforms.
• It facilitates the issuance of digitally signed certificates, which are legally valid and harder to forge than traditional paper documents.

Important Points

• Single Document Utility: Under the new rules, the birth certificate will serve as a single document for multiple purposes, including admission to educational institutions, issuance of driving licenses, preparation of voter lists, and applying for a passport or Aadhaar.
• Mandatory Timeline: While the app eases the process, the standard requirement to report births and deaths within 21 days of the occurrence remains a key administrative guideline for citizens.
• Integration: The national database created through this system will eventually be linked with the National Population Register (NPR), Electoral Rolls, and Ration Card databases to ensure seamless governance and benefit delivery.
• User Interface: The CRS App is designed to be user-friendly, supporting multiple languages to cater to the diverse population of India across different states and union territories.

The correct answer is Gender Budgeting Knowledge Hub portal.

Key Points

• The Gender Budgeting Knowledge Hub (GBKH) portal was launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD) to act as a centralized digital repository for all resources related to Gender Responsive Budgeting (GRB) in India.
• It was officially unveiled during the National Consultation on Gender Budgeting held in June 2025 (referring to the event timeline specified), aimed at strengthening the institutionalization of gender-sensitive planning across Government departments.
• The portal serves as a platform for sharing best practices, training modules, research papers, and Gender Budgeting Statements from various Union Ministries and State Governments. Hence, the correct answer is the Gender Budgeting Knowledge Hub portal.
• The primary objective of this hub is to facilitate capacity building for officials and stakeholders, ensuring that financial allocations effectively address the specific needs and disparities faced by women and girls.
• By providing real-time access to data and guidelines, the GBKH portal streamlines the process of monitoring gender-related expenditures and evaluating the impact of welfare schemes.

Additional Information

• Gender Budgeting in India:
• India formally adopted Gender Budgeting in 2005-06. It is not a separate budget for women but an analytical tool to ensure gender mainstreaming in the macroeconomic policy framework.
• The Ministry of Women and Child Development serves as the nodal agency for coordinating these efforts across the Government of India.
• Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP):
• Launched in January 2015 at Panipat, Haryana, this scheme aims to address the declining Child Sex Ratio (CSR) and promote female education and empowerment.
• While an Annual Report might be released periodically, it was not the specific portal launched during the June 2025 consultation focused on budgeting.
• One-Stop Centre (OSC) Scheme:
• Also known as Sakhi Centres, this scheme was implemented to provide integrated support (medical, legal, and psychological) to women affected by violence under one roof.
• It is funded through the Nirbhaya Fund and is a critical component of the Sambal sub-scheme of Mission Shakti.
• National Resource Centre for Women (NRCW):
• This was an initiative intended to provide technical support to the Ministry and other agencies; however, the specific Knowledge Hub portal is the contemporary digital evolution designed for Gender Budgeting specifically.

Important Points

• Mission Shakti: This is an integrated women empowerment programme launched as an umbrella scheme for the safety, security, and empowerment of women. It has two sub-schemes: 'Sambal' (safety) and 'Samarthya' (empowerment).
• Gender Budgeting Statement (Statement 20): This is a crucial document presented along with the Union Budget in Parliament, highlighting the quantum of funds allocated for schemes that benefit women.
• Article 15(3) of the Indian Constitution empowers the State to make special provisions for women and children, providing the legal foundation for Gender Budgeting.
• The June 2025 consultation focused on the sustainable development goals (SDG 5), which targets gender equality and the empowerment of all women and girls by 2030.

The correct answer is London, UK.

Key Points

• The Wimbledon Championships is the oldest and most prestigious tennis tournament in the world, and the 2025 edition was held in London, United Kingdom.
• The tournament takes place annually at the All England Lawn Tennis and Croquet Club (AELTC), which is situated in the Wimbledon district of southwest London.
• The 2025 Wimbledon Championships represents the 138^th edition of the event, maintaining its long-standing tradition since its inception in 1877.
• It is historically significant as the only Grand Slam tournament that continues to be played on Grass courts, which is the original surface of the sport.
• The event is part of the Grand Slam calendar, typically scheduled to occur over a fortnight starting in late June and concluding in early July.
• The 2025 tournament features various categories, including Gentlemen's Singles, Ladies' Singles, doubles, and junior championships, attracting top-tier athletes from the ATP and WTA tours.

Additional Information

• Grand Slam Venues and Locations:

• Australian Open: Held annually in January at Melbourne Park in Melbourne, Australia, played on Hard courts.

• French Open (Roland-Garros): Held in May and June at Stade Roland-Garros in Paris, France, played on Red Clay.

• US Open: Held in August and September at the USTA Billie Jean King National Tennis Center in New York City, USA, played on Hard courts.

• Wimbledon Traditions: The tournament is famous for its strict all-white dress code for players and the tradition of spectators consuming strawberries and cream. It is also known for the absence of sponsor advertising around the courts.

• Court Maintenance: The grass courts at Wimbledon are composed of 100% Perennial Ryegrass, which is mown to a height of exactly 8mm during the playing season to ensure optimal performance.

Important Points

• Centre Court: This is the premier court at the AELTC and features a retractable roof, which was installed in 2009 to allow play to continue during rain and low-light conditions.
• The Royal Box: Located at the south end of Centre Court, it is reserved for use by the British Royal Family and other invited dignitaries.
• Prize Money: The Wimbledon organizers announce a significant prize fund each year, which is distributed equally between the Gentlemen's and Ladies' champions, a practice that has been in place since 2007.
• Qualifying Rounds: Before the main draw in London, qualifying matches are usually held at the Bank of England Sports Centre in Roehampton.

The correct answer is Kumudhini Lakhia.

Key Points

• Kumudhini Lakhia, a legendary Kathak dancer and choreographer, was honored with the Padma Vibhushan in the year 2025 for her exceptional contribution to the field of Art.
• Born in 1930, she is widely credited with revolutionizing the traditional Kathak dance form by moving away from solo narratives toward innovative group choreographies and contemporary themes.
• She founded the Kadamb Centre for Dance in Ahmedabad, Gujarat, in 1964, which has since become a premier institute for training and research in Kathak.
• Her work is characterized by a focus on spatial design, lighting, and costumes, which transformed the visual aesthetics of the dance while maintaining the integrity of the Lucknow Gharana techniques.
• Before receiving the Padma Vibhushan, she was previously decorated with the Padma Shri in 1987 and the Padma Bhushan in 2010, making her one of the most decorated classical dancers in India.

Additional Information

• Padma Vibhushan:
• It is the second-highest civilian award in India, preceded by the Bharat Ratna.
• The award was instituted on January 2, 1954, and is given for "exceptional and distinguished service" without distinction of race, occupation, position, or sex.
• The awards are announced annually on the eve of Republic Day (January 26) by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
• Kathak Dance Form:
• Kathak is one of the eight classical dances of India recognized by the Sangeet Natak Akademi.
• It originated in North India, specifically in the states of Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan.
• The name is derived from the Sanskrit word 'Katha', meaning story, and practitioners are known as Kathakars (storytellers).
• Key features include Chakkars (spins), intricate footwork (Tatkar), and expressive gestures (Abhinaya).
• Other Distinguished Personalities:
• Birju Maharaj: A doyen of the Lucknow Kalka-Bindadin Gharana of Kathak. He received the Padma Vibhushan in 1986 and passed away in 2022.
• Kelucharan Mohapatra: A legendary exponent of Odissi dance. He was the first person from Odisha to receive the Padma Vibhushan in the year 2000.
• Shobana Chandrakumar: A renowned Bharatanatyam dancer and two-time National Film Award winning actress from Kerala. She was awarded the Padma Shri in 2006.

Important Points

• The Padma Awards are conferred by the President of India at ceremonial functions held at Rashtrapati Bhawan usually around March or April.
• In 2025, the selection committee emphasized pioneers who bridged the gap between traditional heritage and modern sensibilities, fitting the profile of Kumudhini Lakhia perfectly.
• She has been a mentor to several prominent dancers, including Aditi Mangaldas and Daksha Sheth, who have further expanded the boundaries of Indian classical dance.
• The recognition of a Kathak exponent with the Padma Vibhushan highlights the continued cultural significance of the Gharana system in the 21^st century.

The correct answer is Army, BRO, ITBP, NDRF, SDRF.

Key Points

• The multi-agency rescue operation in Uttarkashi during August 2025 was necessitated by extreme weather conditions leading to flash floods and landslides across the Himalayan region.
• The Indian Army deployed specialized columns for humanitarian assistance and disaster relief (HADR), focusing on bridging collapsed road sections and airlifting stranded individuals.
• The Border Roads Organization (BRO) was instrumental in restoring critical infrastructure, specifically clearing the National Highways and Chardham Yatra routes that were blocked by heavy debris.
• The Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP), being the primary force stationed along the Sino-Indian border, acted as the first responder due to their deep familiarity with the high-altitude terrain of Uttarakhand.
• The National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) and the State Disaster Response Force (SDRF) worked in tandem to conduct technical search and rescue operations, providing emergency medical services and managing relief camps for the displaced population.

Additional Information

• National Disaster Response Force (NDRF):
• It was constituted under the Disaster Management Act, 2005, to provide a specialist response to natural and man-made disasters.
• The Prime Minister of India serves as the Chairperson of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), which oversees the NDRF.
• Border Roads Organization (BRO):
• Established on 7 May 1960, the BRO functions under the Ministry of Defence.
• It plays a strategic role in maintaining the socio-economic development of the North and North-Eastern border states by ensuring all-weather connectivity.
• Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP):
• The ITBP is one of the Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs) of India, raised on 24 October 1962.
• It is specifically trained for mountain warfare and high-altitude rescue operations, making it vital for emergencies in the Himalayas.
• Uttarkashi Geography:
• Uttarkashi is a district in Uttarakhand that houses the sources of the Ganges (Gangotri) and Yamuna (Yamunotri) rivers.
• The region is geologically unstable and prone to cloudbursts, which often result in catastrophic flash floods like those seen in 2013 and 2025.

Important Points

• Multi-Agency Coordination: The success of such operations depends on the Integrated Command and Control Center, which synchronizes the efforts of military, paramilitary, and civil forces.
• SDRF Evolution: Following the 2013 Kedarnath tragedy, the Uttarakhand SDRF was significantly strengthened and is now considered one of the most efficient state-level response forces in India.
• Air Support: During the August 2025 floods, the Indian Air Force (IAF) often supports these agencies through Operation Rahat-style sorties, using Chinook and Mi-17 helicopters for heavy-lift requirements.

The correct answer is Near-boundary low-altitude engagement.

Key Points

• On March 14, 2025, the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and the Indian Navy successfully conducted a flight test of the Vertically Launched Short Range Surface to Air Missile (VLSRSAM).
• The test was carried out from the Integrated Test Range (ITR), Chandipur, located off the coast of Odisha, using a land-based vertical launcher.
• The primary objective of the mission was to establish and validate the near-boundary low-altitude engagement capability of the missile system, which is crucial for defending against sea-skimming threats.
• The missile successfully intercepted a high-speed aerial target flying at a very low altitude and at a near-range boundary, demonstrating the system's precision and rapid reaction time.
• This flight test confirmed the integration of various subsystems, including the missile, the vertical launcher with canister, and the weapon control system.

Additional Information

• VLSRSAM System Overview:
• The VLSRSAM is a next-generation, ship-borne weapon system designed to provide a point-defense shield for Indian Navy warships against a variety of aerial threats.
• It is intended to replace the older Barak-1 surface-to-air missile systems currently in service on several Indian naval vessels.
• The missile has an operational range of approximately 40 to 50 kilometers and can reach altitudes of up to 15 kilometers.
• Design and Technology:
• It features cruciform wings that provide aerodynamic stability and Thrust Vector Control (TVC), allowing the missile to perform high-maneuverability turns immediately after a vertical launch.
• The vertical launch capability ensures a 360-degree coverage, enabling the ship to engage targets coming from any direction without maneuvering the vessel or the launcher.
• The system is equipped with an active radar seeker for terminal guidance, ensuring high kill probability against agile targets.
• Strategic Significance:
• The development of VLSRSAM is a significant step toward Aatmanirbhar Bharat (Self-reliant India) in the defense sector, as it is designed and developed indigenously by DRDO laboratories like RCI Hyderabad and DRDL.
• It is specifically optimized to counter supersonic sea-skimming missiles, which fly very close to the water surface to avoid radar detection, making low-altitude engagement a critical requirement.

Important Points

• Comparison with other options:
• Underwater deployment: This capability is associated with Submarine-Launched Ballistic Missiles (SLBMs) or torpedoes, not the VLSRSAM, which is surface-launched.
• Mid-course ballistic target destruction: This is the domain of Ballistic Missile Defence (BMD) systems like the Prithvi Air Defence (PAD) or Advanced Air Defence (AAD), rather than short-range tactical missiles.
• Long-range high-altitude interception: Systems like the S-400 or Long Range Surface-to-Air Missile (LRSAM/Barak-8) handle long-range threats, whereas VLSRSAM is specialized for short-range protection.

The correct answer is Vigyan Shri (VS) Award.

Key Points

• Prof. Syed Wajih Ahmad Naqvi, a distinguished Biogeochemical Oceanographer, was honored with the Vigyan Shri (VS) Award in 2024.
• He received this prestigious recognition in the domain of Earth Science for his pioneering contributions to marine science and biogeochemistry. Hence, option 4 is correct.
• The Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar (RVP) is the highest national award in the field of science, technology, and innovation in India, established to recognize outstanding contributions by scientists and technologists.
• The Vigyan Shri (VS) Award specifically recognizes distinguished contributions to any field of science and technology.
• Prof. Naqvi has significantly enhanced the understanding of oceanic nitrogen cycles, particularly in the Arabian Sea and the Indian Ocean, gaining both national and international acclaim.
• He previously served as the Director of the CSIR-National Institute of Oceanography (NIO), based in Goa, where he led numerous research expeditions and institutional developments.

Additional Information

• Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar (RVP) Categories:
• Vigyan Ratna (VR): Awarded for lifetime achievements and contributions in any field of science and technology.
• Vigyan Shri (VS): Awarded for distinguished contributions in any field of science and technology.
• Vigyan Yuva-Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar (VY-SSB): Designed to recognize young scientists up to the age of 45 years who have made exceptional contributions.
• Vigyan Team (VT): Awarded to a team consisting of three or more scientists/researchers for collaborative work.
• Eligibility and Domains:
• The awards are given in 13 specific domains, including Physics, Chemistry, Biological Sciences, Mathematics & Computer Science, Earth Science, Medicine, Engineering Sciences, Agricultural Science, Environmental Science, Technology & Innovation, Atomic Energy, Space Science and Technology, and Others.
• The selection is made by the Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar Committee (RVPC), which is headed by the Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government of India.
• Significance of 2024:
• The year 2024 marked the inaugural edition of the Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar, consolidating various previous science awards under one umbrella.
• A total of 33 awards were announced in the first edition across the four categories.

Important Points

• The awards were presented by the President of India, Droupadi Murmu, at a ceremony held at Rashtrapati Bhavan.
• The announcement of the awards coincided with National Space Day, celebrated on August 23, to commemorate the success of the Chandrayaan-3 mission.
• Prof. Naqvi's research is crucial for understanding marine hypoxia (low oxygen zones) and how climate change affects ocean chemistry and marine life.
• The award comprises a Sanad (Certificate) and a Medal, emphasizing the recipient's dedication to advancing the scientific landscape of India.