General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is January 2025.

Key Points

• The Economic Survey 2024-25 is a flagship annual document of the Ministry of Finance, Government of India. It is traditionally presented in Parliament during the Budget Session, usually on January 31^st, which falls in the month of January 2025.
• It is presented by the Union Finance Minister (currently Nirmala Sitharaman) in both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. The presentation occurs exactly one day before the Union Budget is introduced.
• The document is prepared by the Economics Division of the Department of Economic Affairs (DEA) under the comprehensive guidance of the Chief Economic Advisor (CEA), currently V. Anantha Nageswaran.
• The Economic Survey serves as an official report card of the Indian Economy for the preceding financial year, detailing the performance of various sectors and the overall macroeconomic health of the nation.
• Since the Union Budget 2025-26 is scheduled for February 1, 2025, the preceding Economic Survey for the fiscal year 2024-25 is presented in January 2025 to provide the necessary context for the upcoming budget's proposals.

Additional Information

• Historical Context of the Survey:
• The first Economic Survey of India was presented in the year 1950-51.
• Up until 1964, the survey was presented along with the Union Budget. However, from 1964 onwards, it was decoupled and presented a day earlier to allow for a better understanding of the budget's background.
• Growth Projections and GDP:
• The survey provides GDP growth projections for the upcoming fiscal year. For 2024-25, it analyzes factors like inflation, fiscal deficit, and current account deficit.
• It helps the Government of India and the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in formulating monetary and fiscal policies based on the data of the National Statistical Office (NSO).
• Key Sectoral Analysis:
• The document provides detailed chapters on the Agricultural Sector, Industrial Sector, and Services Sector.
• It also focuses on Foreign Exchange Reserves, Export-Import (EXIM) trends, and Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).

Important Points

• Constitutional Status: While the Union Budget is a constitutional requirement under Article 112 (referred to as the Annual Financial Statement), the Economic Survey is not mandated by the Constitution of India. It is a settled convention that has become an integral part of the budget process.
• Interim Budget Exception: In an Election Year (such as 2024), the government may present an Interim Budget in February and a full budget along with the Economic Survey later in the year after the new government is formed. However, for a regular cycle like 2024-25 leading into 2025-26, the January presentation remains standard.
• Significance for Stakeholders: The survey is highly anticipated by economists, investors, and policymakers as it highlights the reforms needed and the challenges facing the Indian economy in the global context.

The correct answer is Khangchendzonga National Park.

Key Points

• In the global review conducted by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) in November 2025, Khangchendzonga National Park was rated as 'Good'. This rating signifies that the site's World Heritage values are well-protected and the management system is highly effective.
• The IUCN World Heritage Outlook is a flagship report released every three years that tracks whether the conservation of natural World Heritage sites is sufficient to protect them in the long term.
• Khangchendzonga National Park, situated in the heart of the Himalayas in Sikkim, is India’s first and only 'Mixed' World Heritage Site, recognized for both its natural and cultural significance since 2016.
• The 'Good' rating highlights the park's success in maintaining its unique high-altitude ecosystem and protecting rare species despite the challenges posed by climate change. Hence, the correct answer is Khangchendzonga National Park.

Additional Information

• Khangchendzonga National Park (KNP):
• Located in the state of Sikkim, it includes a unique diversity of plains, valleys, lakes, glaciers, and spectacular snow-capped mountains covered with ancient forests.
• It is home to Mount Khangchendzonga, the third-highest peak in the world.
• The park provides a habitat for several endangered species, including the Snow Leopard, Red Panda, Himalayan Black Bear, and the Tibetan Wolf.
• Sundarbans National Park:
• Located in West Bengal, it is the world's largest mangrove forest.
• It is often categorized under 'Significant Concern' by the IUCN due to the rising sea levels and the high frequency of cyclones in the region.
• Great Himalayan National Park Conservation Area (GHNPCA):
• Located in Kullu, Himachal Pradesh, it was inscribed on the World Heritage List in 2014.
• It is characterized by high alpine peaks, alpine meadows, and riverine forests.
• Nanda Devi and Valley of Flowers National Parks:
• Located in Uttarakhand, these parks are renowned for their meadows of endemic alpine flowers and outstanding natural beauty.
• Nanda Devi National Park was inscribed in 1988, and the Valley of Flowers was added to the site in 2005.

Important Points

• The IUCN uses four categories to rate sites: Good, Good with Some Concern, Significant Concern, and Critical.
• The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) was established in 1948 and is headquartered in Gland, Switzerland. It serves as the official advisory body on nature to the UNESCO World Heritage Committee.
• As of 2025, the major threats identified for Indian natural heritage sites include invasive species, climate change, and infrastructure development.

The correct answer is Tripura.

Key Points

• In June 2025, the state of Tripura officially declared itself as the third state in India to achieve Full Functional Literacy under the ULLAS (Understanding Lifelong Learning for All in Society) initiative.
• The ULLAS scheme, also known as the New India Literacy Programme (NILP), is a centrally sponsored initiative aimed at empowering non-literates aged 15 years and above.
• The declaration came after the successful conduct of the Foundational Literacy and Numeracy Assessment Test (FLNAT), which verified the literacy skills of thousands of learners across the state's districts.
• This achievement places Tripura alongside other leading regions like Mizoram and the Union Territory of Ladakh, which were early achievers in reaching full functional literacy status under this framework.
• The success of the program in Tripura is attributed to the coordinated efforts of the State Literacy Mission Authority and the active participation of Volunteer Teachers (VTPs).

Additional Information

• The ULLAS Scheme:
• The Understanding Lifelong Learning for All in Society (ULLAS) was approved by the Government of India for implementation during the period FY 2022-2027.
• It is designed to align with the recommendations of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 to achieve 100% literacy in India.
• The scheme has five major components: Foundational Literacy and Numeracy, Critical Life Skills (including financial and digital literacy), Vocational Skills Development, Basic Education, and Continuing Education.
• Implementation and Technology:
• The scheme is implemented through volunteerism, encouraging students and citizens to provide social service as teachers for non-literate members of society.
• The ULLAS Mobile App serves as a digital platform for the registration of learners and volunteers, providing access to various teaching-learning materials (TLM).
• The National Institute of Open Schooling (NIOS) and the National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) provide the academic support and assessment frameworks for the learners.
• Financial Allocation and Targets:
• The total financial outlay for ULLAS-NILP is Rs. 1037.90 crore, with the Central Government contributing Rs. 700 crore and the States contributing Rs. 337.90 crore.
• The scheme targets approximately 5 crore non-literates across the country, focusing on marginalized groups and regions with low literacy rates.

Important Points

• Functional Literacy: Unlike traditional literacy, functional literacy refers to the ability of an individual to engage in all those activities in which literacy is required for effective functioning of their group and community.
• FLNAT: The Foundational Literacy and Numeracy Assessment Test is a nationwide test conducted twice a year (usually in March and September) to certify the learners under the ULLAS program.
• Geographical Milestone: Tripura, located in Northeast India, has consistently maintained high literacy rankings, and this achievement under ULLAS reinforces its status as an educational hub in the region.
• Ministry of Education: The Department of School Education and Literacy under the Union Ministry of Education is the nodal agency responsible for the monitoring and evaluation of the scheme nationwide.

The correct answer is Murlikant Petkar.

Key Points

• Murlikant Petkar was conferred with the prestigious Arjuna Lifetime Achievement Award in January 2025 in recognition of his pioneering contributions to Indian sports.
• He holds the distinction of being India's first Paralympic gold medalist, a feat he achieved more than five decades ago.
• His historic gold medal was won at the 1972 Summer Paralympics held in Heidelberg, West Germany.
• He competed in the 50m Freestyle swimming event, where he set a World Record at the time with a finish of 37.33 seconds.
• The award presented in 2025 serves to honor his legacy as the person who put India on the Paralympic map long before the nation became a regular contender for medals in the event.

Additional Information

• Military Career and Injury:
• Before becoming an athlete, Petkar was a soldier in the Indian Army, serving in the Corps of Electronics and Mechanical Engineers (EME).
• He sustained severe injuries, including nine bullet wounds, during the 1965 Indo-Pak War in the Sialkot sector, which led to him becoming paraplegic.
• Multifaceted Athlete:
• Petkar was a versatile sportsman; he initially represented India in Table Tennis at the 1968 Tel Aviv Paralympics.
• Apart from swimming, he has also competed internationally in Javelin Throw, Precision Javelin Throw, and Shot Put.
• National Honors:
• He was awarded the Padma Shri, India's fourth-highest civilian award, in 2018 by the Government of India.
• His life story was the inspiration for the 2024 biographical film titled "Chandu Champion", directed by Kabir Khan and starring Kartik Aaryan.
• Evolution of Awards:
• The Arjuna Award is usually given for outstanding performance over the previous four years, but the Lifetime Achievement category recognizes legends whose impact spans decades.

Important Points

• Devendra Jhajharia: He is another legendary para-athlete who won two gold medals in Javelin Throw (2004 Athens and 2016 Rio) and served as a major inspiration for the current generation.
• Mariyappan Thangavelu: He won the gold medal in the Men's High Jump T42 category at the 2016 Rio Paralympics.
• Deepa Malik: She was the first Indian woman to win a Paralympic medal, securing a silver in Shot Put at the 2016 Rio Games.
• Significance of 1972: Petkar's gold in 1972 was India's only individual Olympic or Paralympic gold until Abhinav Bindra won gold in 2008 and Devendra Jhajharia won in 2004.

The correct answer is 8 March.

Key Points

• International Women’s Day (IWD) is celebrated annually on 8 March to recognize the social, economic, cultural, and political achievements of women worldwide.
• The day also marks a call to action for accelerating gender parity and raising awareness about women's equality.
• The first National Woman's Day was observed in the United States on February 28, 1909, organized by the Socialist Party of America.
• The idea to make the day international was proposed by Clara Zetkin at the International Conference of Working Women in Copenhagen in 1910.
• As a result of the Copenhagen initiative, International Women’s Day was honored for the first time in Austria, Denmark, Germany, and Switzerland on 19 March 1911.
• The date of 8 March became fixed after women in Russia gained the right to vote following a strike for "Bread and Peace" in 1917, which began on 8 March (Gregorian calendar).
• The United Nations began celebrating International Women's Day in 1975, which was designated as International Women's Year.

Additional Information

• 16 June:
• This date is observed as the International Day of the African Child.
• It commemorates the 1976 Soweto Uprising in South Africa, where thousands of black school children protested against the poor quality of their education and demanded the right to be taught in their own language.
• It is also celebrated as Youth Day in South Africa to honor the students who lost their lives during the protest.
• 20 November:
• This date is recognized as World Children's Day (or Universal Children's Day).
• It marks the anniversary of the date in 1959 when the UN General Assembly adopted the Declaration of the Rights of the Child.
• It is also the date in 1989 when the UN General Assembly adopted the Convention on the Rights of the Child.
• 21 September:
• This date is observed as the International Day of Peace (World Peace Day).
• Established in 1981 by the United Nations, it is dedicated to world peace and specifically the absence of war and violence.
• The United Nations Peace Bell is rung at UN Headquarters in New York City to inaugurate the day.
• IWD Symbolism and Colors:
• The official colors of International Women's Day are Purple, Green, and White.
• Purple signifies justice and dignity; Green symbolizes hope; and White represents purity (though purity is a controversial concept, it was originally used by the Women's Social and Political Union in the UK).

Important Points

• In 1977, the United Nations General Assembly invited member states to proclaim March 8 as the UN Day for women's rights and world peace.
• Each year, the United Nations assigns a specific theme to the day. For example, the theme for 2024 was 'Invest in women: Accelerate progress'.
• International Women's Day is an official holiday in many countries, including Afghanistan, Armenia, Azerbaijan, Belarus, Cambodia, Cuba, Georgia, Laos, Mongolia, Montenegro, Russia, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, Uganda, Ukraine, Uzbekistan, Vietnam, and Zambia.

The correct answer is Mahendra Dev.

Key Points

• Mahendra Dev was appointed as the Chairman of the Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM) in June 2025.
• The Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM) is an independent body constituted to provide expert advice on economic and related issues to the Prime Minister of India.
• Prior to this prestigious appointment, Mahendra Dev served as the Director and Vice-Chancellor of the Indira Gandhi Institute of Development Research (IGIDR) in Mumbai.
• He has also served as the Chairman of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP), which is under the Ministry of Agriculture.
• His expertise spans development economics, agricultural policy, and poverty alleviation, making him a critical figure in shaping India's macroeconomic strategy for the mid-2020s.

Additional Information

• Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM):
• It is a non-constitutional, non-permanent, and non-statutory body.
• The Council is tasked with analyzing any issue, economic or otherwise, referred to it by the Prime Minister.
• It maintains its secretariat within the NITI Aayog for administrative and logistical support.
• Other Economists in the Options:
• Poonam Gupta: She is the first female Director General of the National Council of Applied Economic Research (NCAER) and has been a member of the EAC-PM.
• Arvind Subramanian: A world-renowned economist who served as the Chief Economic Adviser (CEA) to the Government of India from 2014 to 2018.
• Vijay Kelkar: A veteran economist and civil servant who served as the Chairman of the 13^th Finance Commission and is known for the Kelkar Committee reports on tax reforms and PPP models.

Important Points

• The Chairman of the EAC-PM usually holds a rank equivalent to a Cabinet Minister in the Union Government.
• The EAC-PM has been instrumental in publishing major reports such as the Competitiveness Roadmap for India@100 and the State of Inequality in India Report.
• The council typically consists of full-time members and part-time members who are experts from academia and the private sector.
• The terms of reference for the EAC-PM include addressing macroeconomic issues, inflation, employment, and financial sector stability.

The correct answer is Aluminium powder explosion.

Key Points

• The tragic warehouse incident occurred in April 2025 in the state of Gujarat, which is a major industrial and chemical hub in India.
• Preliminary investigations and forensic reports identified that the root cause of the blast was an Aluminium powder explosion, categorized as a high-intensity dust explosion.
• Aluminium powder is extremely combustible and reactive; when it is finely divided, it has a very high surface-area-to-volume ratio, making it prone to rapid oxidation and ignition if suspended in the air.
• The explosion likely occurred due to the accumulation of metallic dust in a confined space, where a small spark or heat source triggered a primary explosion, followed by a more devastating secondary explosion as settled dust was lofted into the atmosphere.
• Industrial safety experts noted that Gujarat hosts numerous units involved in pigment manufacturing, pyrotechnics, and metallurgy, where such hazardous materials are commonly stored. Hence, the correct answer is Aluminium powder explosion.

Additional Information

• Properties of Aluminium Powder:
• It is a silvery-white powder used extensively in paints, explosives, rocket fuel, and solar cell manufacturing.
• In its powder form, aluminium reacts with oxygen and water (releasing hydrogen gas), which can create a pressurized and highly flammable environment in sealed containers.
• Combustible Dust Hazards:
• A dust explosion requires five elements: fuel (dust), dispersion, confinement, oxidizer (oxygen), and an ignition source.
• Unlike liquid fires, metal fires (Class D) cannot be extinguished with water, as water can exacerbate the reaction by producing hydrogen.
• Industrial Landscape of Gujarat:
• Gujarat contributes significantly to India's industrial output, particularly in the chemical and petrochemical sectors.
• Major industrial zones like Vapi, Ankleshwar, and Dahej are strictly monitored under the Factories Act, 1948, to prevent such catastrophic failures.
• Regulatory Framework:
• The Petroleum and Explosives Safety Organization (PESO) is the nodal agency in India for regulating hazardous substances under the Explosives Act, 1884.
• Companies are required to maintain a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) for all reactive chemicals to ensure workers are aware of storage protocols and emergency response steps.

Important Points

• Prevention and Mitigation:
• Warehouses dealing with Aluminium powder must utilize explosion-proof lighting and non-sparking tools to minimize ignition risks.
• Effective ventilation systems and dust extraction units are mandatory to keep the concentration of airborne particles below the Lower Explosive Limit (LEL).
• Regular safety audits and mock drills are emphasized by the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) to improve resilience against industrial disasters in high-risk zones.

The correct answer is Cricket.

Key Points

• The Laureus World Sports Awards are considered the most prestigious honors in the international sporting calendar, often referred to as the "Oscars of Sports." They celebrate the greatest sporting achievements of the previous calendar year.
• Gymnastics: This sport was represented by Simone Biles, who won the Laureus World Sportswoman of the Year award in 2025 (following her record-breaking performance at the 2024 Paris Olympics). Gymnastics has a strong history of representation in individual categories due to the global impact of its stars. Hence, Gymnastics is represented.
• Tennis: In the 2025 cycle, Tennis featured prominently with athletes like Novak Djokovic or Carlos Alcaraz being recognized in the World Sportsman of the Year or Breakthrough of the Year categories. Tennis is a staple at the Laureus awards, with legends like Roger Federer holding record wins. Hence, Tennis is represented.
• Surfing: This sport is typically represented in the Laureus World Action Sportsperson of the Year category. In the 2025 awards, top surfers like Caroline Marks or John John Florence were acknowledged for their achievements in the World Surf League and Olympic stages. Hence, Surfing is represented.
• Cricket: Despite the high popularity of the T20 World Cup and other major tournaments in 2024, Cricket was not represented among the individual award winners for the 2025 Laureus ceremony. While cricket teams sometimes appear in the Team of the Year nominations, individual cricketers rarely win against global individual sport stars like those in athletics, tennis, or gymnastics. Hence, the correct answer is Cricket.

Additional Information

• History and Foundation: The Laureus World Sports Awards were established in 1999 by founding patrons Daimler and Richemont. The inaugural ceremony was held in May 2000 in Monte Carlo, where Tiger Woods and Marion Jones were the first major winners.
• The Selection Process: The awards involve a two-step process. First, a Nominations Panel of over 1,000 sports journalists from over 70 countries selects a shortlist. Then, the members of the Laureus World Sports Academy—a group of over 70 living sporting legends—vote by secret ballot to select the winners.
• Major Categories: The core individual awards include World Sportsman of the Year, World Sportswoman of the Year, World Breakthrough of the Year, World Comeback of the Year, and World Action Sportsperson of the Year. There is also a Sport for Good award, which recognizes organizations using sport to improve lives.
• Laureus Sport for Good: Beyond the glitz of the awards, the Laureus Sport for Good Foundation supports more than 160 projects in over 40 countries. The foundation uses the power of sport to end violence, discrimination, and disadvantage for young people around the globe.
• Notable Figures: Roger Federer holds the record for the most Laureus awards won by a single athlete, with six trophies (five for Sportsman of the Year and one for Comeback of the Year). Usain Bolt and Novak Djokovic are also among the most decorated athletes in the history of the event.

Important Points

• 2025 Ceremony Context: The 2025 awards celebrated achievements from the 2024 calendar year, which was dominated by the Paris Olympic Games. This resulted in a heavy concentration of winners from Olympic disciplines such as Athletics, Swimming, and Gymnastics.
• Individual vs. Team Recognition: While Cricket stars like Virat Kohli or Pat Cummins may be icons, the Laureus individual categories are historically dominated by sports with a singular global tour (like Tennis or Golf) or Olympic importance. Cricket is more frequently considered for the Team of the Year award rather than individual honors.

The correct answer is NISAR.

Key Points

• NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar) is a joint Earth-observation mission between the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) of the United States and the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
• Scheduled for launch in 2025 (specifically targeted around July 2025 as per mission updates), this initiative stands as a premier example of international scientific collaboration in space exploration.
• The mission aims to provide a detailed view of Earth using Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) technology, which can observe the planet's surface in all weather conditions, day and night.
• It is the first satellite mission to use two different radar frequencies: the L-band (provided by NASA) and the S-band (provided by ISRO), allowing for high-resolution mapping of ecosystems and ice mass.
• The satellite will map the entire globe every 12 days, providing spatially and temporally consistent data for understanding changes in Earth’s ecosystems, ice sheets, and natural hazards.

Additional Information

• Mission Objectives and Applications:
• The primary goal of NISAR is to measure Earth’s changing ecosystems, dynamic surfaces, and ice masses, offering insights into biomass, natural hazards, and groundwater.
• It will monitor crustal deformation caused by earthquakes, volcanoes, and landslides, helping in disaster management and risk assessment.
• The data will assist in tracking sea level rise and the rate of glacier melting in the Arctic and Antarctic regions.
• Technical Contributions:
• ISRO is responsible for providing the S-band radar, the spacecraft bus, and the launch services using the GSLV Mark II (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle).
• NASA provides the L-band SAR, a high-rate communication subsystem for science data, GPS receivers, and a solid-state recorder.
• The L-band SAR has a wavelength of about 24 centimeters, while the S-band SAR has a wavelength of about 10 centimeters, making them ideal for different types of surface penetration and sensitivity.
• Other Mentioned Initiatives:
• Gaganyaan: India’s first human spaceflight mission, which aims to demonstrate indigenous capability by sending a crew of three members to an orbit of 400 km for a 3-day mission.
• Aditya-L1/L2: Aditya-L1 was launched in September 2023 as India’s first dedicated mission to study the Sun from the Lagrange point 1. Aditya-L2 is a conceptualized follow-up mission.
• GSAT-12: A communication satellite launched by ISRO in July 2011 to provide services like tele-education, tele-medicine, and Village Resource Centres.
• Global Impact:
• The NISAR mission data will be open-access, supporting the global scientific community in climate change research and sustainable agriculture.
• It represents a strategic partnership signed in 2014, showcasing the growing Indo-US space cooperation.

The correct answer is National Sports Governance Bill, 2025.

Key Points

• The National Sports Governance Bill, 2025 was approved by the Rajya Sabha on 12 August 2025. This legislation marks a significant shift in how sports are administered in the country by providing a statutory framework for the recognition and regulation of sports bodies.
• The primary objective of the bill is to recognize national sports organisations (NSOs) and oversee their operations to ensure they adhere to principles of transparency and accountability.
• Under this Act, the Central Government is empowered to grant recognition to National Sports Federations (NSFs) and the Indian Olympic Association (IOA), provided they comply with the prescribed governance standards. Hence, the bill aims to streamline the functioning of these bodies.
• The bill introduces a National Sports Regulatory Board, which will act as an apex body to monitor the compliance of various sports organizations with the new National Sports Code.
• It emphasizes athlete-centric administration, ensuring that the interests of sportspersons are prioritized over administrative bureaucracy in National Sports Organisations.

Additional Information

• Regulatory Framework: Before this bill, sports governance was largely guided by the National Sports Development Code of India, 2011. The 2025 Bill codifies many of these guidelines into law, making them legally binding on all recognized sports entities.
• Dispute Resolution: The bill proposes the establishment of a National Sports Dispute Resolution and Appellate Tribunal. This body will handle grievances related to selection disputes, disciplinary actions, and anti-doping violations, providing an alternative to traditional civil courts.
• International Alignment: One of the key features of the legislation is to align Indian sports governance with the Olympic Charter and the guidelines of International Sports Federations. This is crucial for avoiding suspensions from international bodies like the International Olympic Committee (IOC).
• Promotion of Integrity: The bill contains specific provisions to combat match-fixing, age fraud, and sexual harassment in sports. It mandates the creation of Internal Complaints Committees in every sports organization as per the POSH Act.

Important Points

• Tenure and Age Limits: To prevent the monopolization of power, the bill enforces strict tenure limits and an age cap of 70 years for office bearers of sports federations, similar to the Lodha Committee recommendations for cricket.
• Gender Representation: A mandatory requirement of at least 30% representation of women in the executive committees of all recognized National Sports Federations has been introduced to promote gender equality in sports management.
• Financial Accountability: Any sports organization receiving government grants or financial assistance will be subject to audit by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India to ensure the proper utilization of public funds.
• Athlete Commissions: The legislation mandates that every National Sports Organisation must have an Athletes’ Commission, where active or recently retired athletes have a voice in the decision-making process.

The correct answer is 30 days.

Key Points

• The Constitution (One Hundred and Thirtieth Amendment) Bill was introduced in the Lok Sabha on 20 August 2025. This landmark legislation aims to address legal ambiguities regarding the continuation of high-ranking officials in office while under judicial or police custody.
• According to the provisions of the bill, any Central Minister or State Minister who is detained for a period of 30 consecutive days or more must be removed from their position. This rule applies specifically when the detention is related to corruption or other serious criminal charges.
• The bill seeks to establish a mandatory timeframe to ensure that the governance of the country or a state is not hampered by the physical absence or legal entanglements of a member of the Council of Ministers.
• The threshold of 30 days was determined to allow for a reasonable period for legal recourse or bail applications, while ensuring that prolonged judicial custody does not lead to a vacuum in administrative leadership.
• Prior to this amendment, there was no specific constitutional provision that mandated the automatic removal of a minister solely based on detention; removal was largely dependent on the discretion of the Prime Minister or Chief Minister, or upon conviction under the Representation of the People Act.

Additional Information

• Constitutional Provisions for Ministers:
• At the Union level, Article 75 of the Constitution of India states that ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister and hold office during the pleasure of the President.
• At the State level, Article 164 contains similar provisions, where ministers hold office during the pleasure of the Governor. The 130^th Amendment Bill adds a specific condition to these articles regarding detention.
• Corruption and Serious Charges:
• The bill targets offenses under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, and other serious charges involving moral turpitude or threats to national security. The aim is to uphold the integrity of the executive branch.
• Difference between Detention and Conviction:
• Under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, a legislator is disqualified only upon conviction with a sentence of two years or more. However, the 2025 Amendment focuses on the detention stage (pre-trial or during trial) to prevent "governance from jail."
• Legislative Process:
• Being a Constitution Amendment Bill, it requires a special majority in both Houses of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) as per Article 368. This means a majority of the total membership of each House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.
• Impact on Public Accountability:
• This amendment is seen as a step toward Zero Tolerance for corruption in public life. It ensures that individuals holding constitutional posts are held to a higher standard of accountability and transparency.

The correct answer is Dr Dev Pragad.

Key Points

• The 18^th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD) Convention was held from 8^th to 10^th January 2025 in Bhubaneswar, Odisha.
• Dr Dev Pragad, the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of the global media company Newsweek, served as the Guest of Honour for the convention.
• The theme for the 2025 convention was "Pravasi Bharatiya: Trusted Partners for India’s Progress in Amrit Kaal," emphasizing the role of the Indian diaspora in the nation's development.
• The event was officially inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on January 9, 2025, which is the main day of the celebrations.
• The convention serves as a platform for the Government of India to engage with the Overseas Indian community and address their concerns while celebrating their achievements. Hence, the correct answer is Dr Dev Pragad.

Additional Information

• Significance of January 9:
• Pravasi Bharatiya Divas is celebrated on 9 January to mark the return of Mahatma Gandhi, the greatest 'Pravasi', from South Africa to India (specifically Mumbai) in the year 1915.
• The formal celebration of PBD began in 2003 under the administration of then-Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
• Evolution of the Convention:
• Since 2015, the format of PBD was changed to be celebrated once every two years (biennial) instead of every year.
• The 17^th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas was held in Indore, Madhya Pradesh, in 2023, where Dr. Mohamed Irfaan Ali, the President of Guyana, was the Chief Guest.
• Pravasi Bharatiya Samman Awards:
• This is the highest honour conferred on Non-Resident Indians (NRIs), Persons of Indian Origin (PIOs), or an organization established by them.
• The awards are traditionally conferred by the President of India (currently Droupadi Murmu) during the valedictory session of the convention.
• Ministry Involvement:
• The Ministry of External Affairs is the nodal agency for organizing this event, often in partnership with a host State Government and industry bodies like FICCI or CII.

Important Points

• Other Distinguished Guests in 2025:
• While Dr Dev Pragad was the Guest of Honour, the Chief Guest for the 18^th PBD was H.E. Pravind Kumar Jugnauth, the former Prime Minister of Mauritius.
• The Youth Pravasi Bharatiya Divas, held on the first day (8 January), usually features a prominent young leader from the diaspora as a special guest.
• Focus Areas:
• The 2025 convention in Bhubaneswar specifically highlighted Odisha's potential in technology, tourism, and sports infrastructure, encouraging the Indian diaspora to invest in the state.
• The concept of Amrit Kaal refers to the 25-year period leading up to the centenary of India's independence in 2047, during which the diaspora is expected to play a crucial role in making India a Viksit Bharat (Developed India).

The correct answer is 9 September 2025.

Key Points

• In an announcement made in June 2025, it was revealed that the world-renowned author Dan Brown is set to release a new installment in his famous Robert Langdon series.
• The title of the upcoming thriller is The Secret of Secrets, which marks the sixth book featuring the iconic professor of symbology.
• The official publication date for this highly anticipated novel is scheduled for 9 September 2025. Hence, the correct date is 9 September 2025.
• The release is expected to be a global event, handled by major publishing houses such as Doubleday in the United States and Transworld in the United Kingdom.
• Fans have been waiting for this release since the previous book in the series, Origin, which was published in 2017.

Additional Information

• Dan Brown's Literary Career:
• Dan Brown is an American author born on 22 June 1964, in Exeter, New Hampshire.
• He became a global phenomenon with the publication of The Da Vinci Code in 2003, which has sold over 80 million copies worldwide.
• His works are known for their blend of cryptography, keys, symbols, and conspiracy theories involving historical and religious organizations.
• The Robert Langdon Series:
• The series began with Angels & Demons (published in 2000), followed by the record-breaking The Da Vinci Code.
• Subsequent titles include The Lost Symbol (2009), Inferno (2013), and Origin (2017).
• The character Robert Langdon is a professor at Harvard University specializing in religious symbology and iconology.
• Impact and Adaptations:
• Brown's novels have been translated into more than 56 languages and have sold more than 250 million copies as of recent estimates.
• Several of his books have been adapted into major motion pictures starring Tom Hanks, directed by Ron Howard.
• His writing style often involves a 24-hour time frame and a fast-paced narrative that takes place in historically rich locations like Rome, Paris, and Washington, D.C.

Important Points

• The upcoming book, The Secret of Secrets, is rumored to delve into the mysteries of ancient manuscripts and modern technological enigmas.
• Publication of a Robert Langdon thriller typically leads to a significant surge in "literary tourism" to the cities and landmarks mentioned in the plot.
• Collectors and bibliophiles often look for the First Edition copies which are released on the primary publication date of 9 September 2025.
• The book will be available in multiple formats including hardcover, ebook, and audiobook simultaneously on the release day.

The correct answer is 7.

Key Points

• The Ministry of Home Affairs announced the Padma Awards for the year 2025 on the eve of India's 76^th Republic Day (January 25, 2025).
• For the year 2025, the President of India approved a total of 132 Padma Awards to be conferred upon distinguished individuals across various fields.
• The total count of awards includes 7 Padma Vibhushan, which is the second-highest civilian award in the country, followed by 11 Padma Bhushan and 114 Padma Shri awards.
• The Padma Vibhushan is awarded for exceptional and distinguished service in any field, including service rendered by Government servants (excluding doctors and scientists).
• Among the 132 awardees, 30 are women, and the list also features 8 persons from the category of Foreigners/NRI/PIO/OCI and 9 Posthumous awardees.

Additional Information

• History of the Awards: The Padma Awards were instituted in the year 1954. They are one of the highest civilian honors of India, announced annually on the occasion of Republic Day.
• Categories:
• Padma Vibhushan: For exceptional and distinguished service.
• Padma Bhushan: For distinguished service of a high order.
• Padma Shri: For distinguished service in any field such as Art, Social Work, Public Affairs, Science and Engineering, Trade and Industry, Medicine, Literature and Education, Sports, and Civil Service.
• Selection Process: The nominations are considered by the Padma Awards Committee, which is constituted by the Prime Minister every year. The committee is headed by the Cabinet Secretary.
• Presentation: The awards are presented by the President of India at a formal ceremony held at Rashtrapati Bhavan, typically in the months of March or April.

Important Points

• Maximum Limit: According to the guidelines, the total number of awards given in a single year (excluding posthumous awards and those given to foreigners) should not exceed 120.
• Bharat Ratna: This is the highest civilian award in India. While Padma Awards recognize "distinguished service," the Bharat Ratna is awarded for the "highest degree of national service."
• Interruptions: The awards have been announced every year since their inception, except for short interruptions during the years 1978, 1979, and from 1993 to 1997.
• Field of Recognition: The 2025 list highlights a significant emphasis on Social Work and Science and Engineering, reflecting the nation's current developmental priorities and cultural heritage.

The correct answer is Chiang Min Yu.

Key Points

• The final of the 17^th World Soft Tennis Championship, held in November 2024, saw a historic clash in the Girls' Singles (Under-15) category.
• Chiang Min Yu, representing Chinese Taipei, defeated India's Tanushree Pandey to claim the Gold Medal in the championship.
• The prestigious tournament was hosted in Jingshan, located in the Hubei Province of China, which is recognized as a major hub for the sport.
• By reaching the final and securing the Silver Medal, Tanushree Pandey became the first Indian girl to ever reach the final of a World Soft Tennis Championship, marking a significant milestone for Indian sports.
• The victory of Chiang Min Yu further solidified the dominance of Chinese Taipei in international soft tennis competitions, a sport where they have traditionally been very strong.

Additional Information

• Soft Tennis Overview:
• Soft Tennis is a racket sport that originated in Japan in the late 19^th century. It differs from regular lawn tennis primarily by the use of soft rubber balls that are inflated with air.
• The sport is governed globally by the International Soft Tennis Federation (ISTF) and is included in major multi-sport events like the Asian Games.
• 17^th World Soft Tennis Championship:
• The 2024 edition in Jingshan featured participants from over 30 countries, including powerhouses like Japan, South Korea, and China.
• The event included various categories such as Singles, Doubles, and Team events for both seniors and juniors (Under-15, Under-18, and Under-21).
• Jingshan, China:
• The city of Jingshan is often referred to as the "Tennis City of China". It has hosted several international tournaments and possesses state-of-the-art tennis facilities to promote the growth of the sport in the region.
• India's Progress in Soft Tennis:
• The Amateur Soft Tennis Federation of India (ASTFI) is the national governing body responsible for selecting players for international stages.
• The success of players like Tanushree Pandey in 2024 highlights the rising popularity and competitive level of the sport in India, particularly at the grassroots and junior levels.

Important Points

• Technical Differences: In soft tennis, the rackets are usually lighter and the strings have lower tension compared to lawn tennis to accommodate the lighter rubber ball.
• Medal Tally 2024: India finished the 17^th World Soft Tennis Championship with a total of six medals, including one Silver (by Tanushree Pandey) and five Bronze medals, marking one of their most successful outings in the tournament's history.
• Key Competitors: Apart from Chiang Min Yu, other top players in the tournament hailed from South Korea and Japan, nations that have historically shared the majority of gold medals in world championships.

The correct answer is Sustainable Cities Integrated Pilot Approach.

Key Points

• In 2025, the Guntur Municipal Corporation (GMC) in Andhra Pradesh initiated a major environmental drive by deploying over 200 electric autos for municipal services.
• The primary function of these e-autos is to facilitate door-to-door garbage collection across the city, ensuring a more efficient and eco-friendly waste management system. Hence, the statement regarding Guntur's deployment under this specific project is correct.
• This initiative was implemented under the Sustainable Cities Integrated Pilot Approach (SCIPA), which is a collaborative project aimed at integrating sustainability into urban planning.
• The project is supported by the United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO) and the Global Environment Facility (GEF) in partnership with India's Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA).
• The deployment of electric vehicles (EVs) helps in reducing the carbon footprint of the urban local body and aligns with the national goal of transitioning to clean energy.

Additional Information

• Sustainable Cities Integrated Pilot Approach (SCIPA):
• This project focuses on low-carbon urban development and integrated waste management solutions.
• It targets specific pilot cities in India, including Guntur and Vijayawada in Andhra Pradesh, to demonstrate sustainable models that can be replicated nationwide.
• Key components include composting, recycling, and the use of electric mobility to minimize environmental degradation.
• Guntur Municipal Corporation (GMC):
• Guntur is a major city in Andhra Pradesh known for its proactive stance in the Swachh Bharat Mission.
• The GMC has been focusing on achieving a higher rank in the Swachh Survekshan index by adopting modern technologies for solid waste management.
• The 200+ e-autos are equipped with GPS tracking to monitor the real-time movement and efficiency of garbage collection.
• Significance of Electric Mobility in Waste Management:
• Traditional diesel or petrol vehicles used for waste collection contribute significantly to air pollution and noise pollution in residential areas.
• The shift to electric autos reduces operational costs for the municipality due to lower maintenance and fuel expenses.
• It supports India's commitment to the Paris Agreement by promoting decarbonization in the transport sector.

Important Points

• Global Collaboration: The involvement of UNIDO and GEF provides technical expertise and funding to help Indian cities implement climate-resilient infrastructure.
• Year of Implementation: The scale-up of this project in Guntur reached a milestone in 2025, marking it as a leader in sustainable urban transport within the state.
• Impact on Livelihoods: The project also aims to provide better working conditions for sanitation workers by providing modern, easy-to-operate electric vehicles.

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

• In June 2025, the state of Maharashtra officially launched an advanced Artificial Intelligence (AI) powered system specifically engineered for the cybercrime protection of women and children.
• The initiative is designed to address the rising instances of digital harassment, cyberstalking, and the spread of deepfakes, providing a safer digital environment for vulnerable demographics.
• The AI framework utilizes predictive analytics and natural language processing to monitor and flag suspicious activities on social media and messaging platforms in real-time.
• This system is integrated with the Maharashtra State Cyber Cell, enabling automated First Information Report (FIR) drafting and faster triage of cases involving minors and women.
• The project is part of the Maharashtra Cyber Security Project Phase II, which aims to make the state a global hub for cybersecurity excellence and digital forensics.

Additional Information

• National Cyber Crime Reporting Portal:
• The Government of India maintains a centralized portal (www.cybercrime.gov.in) where citizens can report cybercrimes, with a special focus on crimes against women and children.
• The National Helpline Number 1930 serves as an immediate response mechanism for reporting financial cyber frauds.
• Legal Framework in India:
• The Information Technology Act, 2000, particularly Section 66E (violation of privacy) and Section 67 (publishing obscene material), provides the legal basis for prosecuting cyber offenders.
• The transition to the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) has further strengthened provisions related to organized cybercrime and digital safety.
• I4C (Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre):
• Established by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), I4C acts as a nodal agency to coordinate between Law Enforcement Agencies (LEAs) of different States and Union Territories.
• It focuses on identifying cybercrime trends and enhancing capacity building for police officers across India.
• AI in Law Enforcement:
• Modern policing increasingly uses Machine Learning (ML) for sentiment analysis and automated threat detection to prevent online grooming and exploitation.

Important Points

• Data Privacy Standards: The AI system launched in Maharashtra is built to comply with the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023, ensuring that the personal data of victims is handled with the highest degree of confidentiality.
• Digital Forensics: Maharashtra has established dedicated cyber police stations in all 36 districts and 34 police commissionerates to handle technical investigations.
• Awareness Campaigns: Complementing the AI tool, the state conducts the Cyber Safe Girl campaign and Cyber Literacy workshops in schools to educate youth about safe internet practices and the risks of oversharing.
• Global Context: The use of Artificial Intelligence for protection aligns with the Budapest Convention on Cybercrime, emphasizing international cooperation to mitigate transnational digital threats.

The correct answer is England.

Key Points

• In the ICC Champions Trophy 2025, Australia created a new record for the highest successful run chase in the history of the tournament by chasing down a target of 356.
• The record-breaking feat was achieved against England, who had posted a massive total of 355 runs in their allotted overs.
• Australia reached the target in the final overs, finishing at 356/5. This performance highlighted the aggressive batting depth of the Australian squad during the 2025 edition held in Pakistan.
• Prior to this, the record for the highest chase in the Champions Trophy was significantly lower, making this 350-plus chase a landmark event in One Day International (ODI) cricket history.
• The match was a crucial encounter that showcased the high-scoring nature of the pitches prepared for the 2025 event, specifically at venues like Lahore and Rawalpindi.

Additional Information

• ICC Champions Trophy 2025:
• The 2025 tournament was the 9^th edition of the ICC Champions Trophy, an ODI cricket tournament contested by the top eight men's national teams.
• The event returned to the cricket calendar after an eight-year gap, with the previous edition having taken place in 2017 in England and Wales.
• The host country for the 2025 edition was Pakistan, marking the return of a major ICC multi-team event to the nation.
• Australia's Legacy in ICC Events:
• Australia is one of the most successful teams in ICC history, having won the Champions Trophy twice consecutively in 2006 and 2009.
• Their ability to chase high totals is a testament to their power-hitting capabilities and tactical approach to the middle overs of an ODI innings.
• England's Recent ODI Form:
• Despite setting a target of 355, England faced challenges in their bowling department, which struggled to contain the Australian batsmen on a flat track.
• England has been a pioneer of high-scoring ODI cricket since 2015, but this match proved that defensive bowling remains a challenge against elite opposition.

Important Points

• Statistical Highlights:
• The successful chase of 356/5 stands as a testament to the evolving nature of white-ball cricket where totals above 350 are no longer considered safe.
• Key contributors in the Australian lineup included top-order batters who maintained a strike rate of over 100 throughout the chase.
• Format and Qualification:
• The qualification for the 2025 Champions Trophy was based on the 2023 ICC Cricket World Cup group stage standings, ensuring only the most elite teams participated.
• The tournament format consisted of two groups of four teams, followed by semi-finals and a final.
• Historical Context:
• Before the 2025 record, the highest chase in a Champions Trophy was 297 runs, achieved by Sri Lanka against England in 2013. Australia's effort against England in 2025 broke this long-standing record by a massive margin.

The correct answer is Sri Lanka.

Key Points

• According to the data compiled by the Tea Board of India and released in March 2025, India has emerged as the second-largest tea exporter in the world for the calendar year 2024.
• India achieved this milestone by surpassing Sri Lanka, which had long held a dominant position in the global tea export market.
• Indian tea exports in 2024 surged to approximately 245 million kg, showing a robust growth compared to the previous year's figures.
• The growth is primarily driven by a significant increase in shipments to traditional markets like Russia, the CIS countries, and Iran, as well as expansion into new territories in the Middle East.
• While Kenya continues to maintain its position as the world's largest tea exporter, India's rise to the second spot highlights the increasing global demand for Indian Orthodox and CTC (Crush, Tear, Curl) tea varieties.

Additional Information

• Tea Board of India:
• It is a statutory body established under the Tea Act, 1953, and it started functioning in April 1954.
• The board functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government of India.
• It is headquartered in Kolkata and is responsible for the promotion of tea cultivation, processing, and domestic and international trade.
• Tea Production in India:
• India is the second-largest producer of tea in the world, with China holding the top position.
• The state of Assam is the largest producer of tea in India, followed by West Bengal (notably the Darjeeling and Dooars regions) and Tamil Nadu.
• Darjeeling Tea was the first Indian product to receive the Geographical Indication (GI) tag in 2004-2005.
• Export Destinations and Varieties:
• The major importers of Indian tea include Russia, the United Arab Emirates (UAE), Iran, the USA, and the UK.
• India primarily exports two types of tea: CTC, which is widely consumed for its strength, and Orthodox tea, which is preferred in international markets for its aroma and flavor.
• Global Context:
• In 2024, Sri Lanka faced various production challenges and economic shifts that impacted its export volumes, allowing India to increase its market share.
• Tea remains one of the most important agro-based industries in India, providing direct employment to over 1.2 million workers, a large percentage of whom are women.

Important Points

• The Tea Board consists of 31 members, including the Chairman, and represents various stakeholders such as owners, workers, and consumers.
• Climatic Requirements: Tea cultivation requires a hot and humid climate with temperatures ranging between 20°C to 30°C and an annual rainfall of 150-300 cm.
• Soil requirements involve well-drained deep loamy soil with a rich organic content. It is typically grown on sloping terrain to prevent waterlogging, which is harmful to the roots.

The correct answer is Dharuhera.

Key Points

• According to the analysis by the Finland-based Centre for Research on Energy and Clean Air (CREA), Dharuhera in Haryana emerged as the most polluted city in India during October 2024/2025.
• The city recorded a monthly average PM2.5 concentration of 123 micrograms per cubic meter (µg/m³), which is significantly higher than the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) daily limit of 60 µg/m³.
• Dharuhera is a major industrial hub located in the Rewari district of Haryana, positioned within the National Capital Region (NCR), making it highly susceptible to regional pollution trends.
• The report highlights that the air quality in the NCR deteriorated rapidly during this period due to a combination of industrial emissions, vehicular pollution, and unfavorable meteorological conditions typical of the onset of winter.
• While Delhi often remains the focus of pollution discourse, this data indicates that surrounding industrial towns like Dharuhera frequently record even higher concentrations of fine particulate matter.

Additional Information

• Centre for Research on Energy and Clean Air (CREA): It is an independent research organization headquartered in Helsinki, Finland. It tracks air pollution trends and energy transitions globally to provide data-driven insights for policy changes.
• PM2.5 (Particulate Matter 2.5): These are fine inhalable particles with diameters that are generally 2.5 micrometers and smaller. Due to their tiny size, they can bypass the nose and throat and penetrate deep into the lungs and even enter the bloodstream, posing severe health risks like respiratory and cardiovascular diseases.
• Comparison with Delhi: In the same period, Delhi recorded a monthly PM2.5 average of approximately 105 to 110 µg/m³. Although extremely high, it was lower than the levels recorded in Dharuhera.
• Causes of Pollution in NCR: The primary drivers during October and November include stubble burning in the neighboring states of Punjab and Haryana, biomass burning for heating, construction dust, and thermal power plant emissions.
• National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS): These standards are notified by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981. For PM2.5, the annual average limit is 40 µg/m³, while the 24-hour limit is 60 µg/m³.

Important Points

• Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP): To combat rising pollution in the Delhi-NCR region, the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) implements GRAP, which consists of four stages based on the Air Quality Index (AQI) levels (Poor, Very Poor, Severe, and Severe Plus).
• Industrial Impact: Dharuhera houses numerous manufacturing units and auto-component industries. The concentration of heavy machinery and logistical movement contributes to localized nitrogen dioxide (NO2) and particulate matter spikes.
• Geographical Factors: During October, the "withdrawal of the monsoon" leads to low wind speeds and temperature inversion, which traps pollutants near the ground, preventing their dispersion and leading to the "smog" effect across the Indo-Gangetic Plain.