General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Switzerland.

Key Points

• Switzerland has secured the 1^st rank in the Global Innovation Index (GII) 2025, continuing its long-standing dominance as the world's most innovative economy.
• The index is published annually by the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO), a specialized agency of the United Nations.
• This ranking marks the 15^th consecutive year that Switzerland has been named the global leader in innovation, showcasing its robust Research and Development (R&D) ecosystem and high-quality academic institutions.
• Following Switzerland, other top-performing nations in the 2025 index include Sweden, the United States of America, and Singapore, which consistently lead in technological advancements and patent filings.
• The GII 2025 report highlights the state of global innovation trends, focusing on how geopolitical tensions and economic shifts influence the ability of nations to foster new ideas and industries.

Additional Information

• Structure of the Global Innovation Index (GII):
• The GII relies on two sub-indices: the Innovation Input Sub-Index and the Innovation Output Sub-Index.
• The Input Sub-Index is built on five pillars: Institutions, Human capital and research, Infrastructure, Market sophistication, and Business sophistication.
• The Output Sub-Index is based on two pillars: Knowledge and technology outputs and Creative outputs.
• The overall score is the average of these two sub-indices, providing a balanced view of a country's innovation enablers and results.
• World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO):
• Established in 1967 and headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland, WIPO is the global forum for intellectual property (IP) services, policy, and cooperation.
• It currently has 193 member states and manages over 26 international treaties related to patents, trademarks, and industrial designs.
• India's Performance:
• India has shown significant growth in the GII over the last decade, consistently ranking as the top innovative economy in the Central and Southern Asia region.
• In recent editions like 2024, India was ranked 39^th globally, driven by its leadership in Information and Communication Technology (ICT) services exports and venture capital receipt.

Important Points

• Top 5 Global Innovators (2025): The top five positions are generally occupied by Switzerland, Sweden, the United States, Singapore, and the United Kingdom.
• Science and Technology (S&T) Clusters: The GII also ranks the world's top 100 Science and Technology clusters, with the Tokyo-Yokohama cluster in Japan and the Shenzhen-Hong Kong-Guangzhou cluster in China often leading the list.
• Impact of AI: The 2025 report emphasizes the role of Artificial Intelligence (AI) and Green Technologies as the primary drivers of innovation growth for the current decade.
• Global Innovation Tracker: This component of the GII monitors key metrics like scientific publications, venture capital deals, and international patent applications (via the Patent Cooperation Treaty - PCT).

The correct answer is Gold.

Key Points

• India secured the Gold medal in the women’s 10m air pistol event at the ISSF Junior World Cup 2025, continuing its legacy of dominance in international shooting competitions.
• The victory highlights the exceptional talent pool within the Indian shooting contingent, particularly in the pistol discipline, which has consistently yielded high scores on the global stage.
• The ISSF Junior World Cup is a premier tournament organized by the International Shooting Sport Federation, designed specifically for athletes in the junior category (typically under the age of 21).
• The women’s 10m air pistol event requires athletes to fire at a target placed 10 meters away using a 4.5 mm (0.177 in) caliber air pistol, emphasizing extreme concentration and precision.
• Winning the Gold medal at this level is a significant milestone for young Indian shooters, as it serves as a stepping stone toward major senior events like the World Championships and the Olympic Games.

Additional Information

• International Shooting Sport Federation (ISSF):
• The ISSF is the governing body for Olympic shooting events and several non-Olympic shooting sport disciplines, headquartered in Munich, Germany.
• It was founded in 1907 and currently oversees the rules and regulations for Rifle, Pistol, and Shotgun events globally.
• 10m Air Pistol Event Characteristics:
• In this event, shooters fire from a standing position and use only one hand to hold the pistol.
• The target's 10-ring (the center) has a diameter of only 11.5 millimeters, making it one of the most challenging precision sports in the world.
• In the final round, the scores of the qualification round are usually reset, and the top eight shooters compete in an elimination-style format to determine the medal winners.
• India's Performance in Shooting:
• India has emerged as a global powerhouse in junior shooting, frequently topping the medal tallies at Junior World Cups and World Championships in recent years.
• The National Rifle Association of India (NRAI), founded in 1951, is the organization responsible for promoting and governing the sport within the country.
• Prominent Indian shooters like Manu Bhaker and Saurabh Chaudhary also rose to fame through the ISSF Junior circuit before achieving success at the Senior level.
• Significance of 2025 Competitions:
• The 2025 shooting calendar is crucial for developing the next generation of shooters for the 2028 Los Angeles Olympics.
• The ISSF Junior World Cup provides a competitive environment that mimics the pressure of senior-level international finals, helping athletes build mental resilience and technical consistency.

Important Points

• Medal Categorization: In ISSF events, the Gold medal is awarded for first place, Silver for second, and Bronze for third. India’s Gold medal in 2025 signifies outperforming top competitors from countries like China, Germany, and the USA.
• Technological Advancement: Modern shooting events utilize electronic scoring targets (EST), which provide instant feedback and high numerical accuracy up to decimal points in the final rounds.
• Age Eligibility: Athletes are eligible to compete in the junior category until the 31^st of December of the year in which they turn 21 years old.

The correct answer is Margaret McDonald.

Key Points

• Margaret McDonald has made literary history by being named the youngest-ever winner of the Carnegie Medal for Writing in 2025.
• She received this prestigious honor for her debut novel titled ‘Glasgow Boys’, which has been widely acclaimed for its emotional depth and authentic portrayal of youth.
• At just 25 years of age, McDonald surpassed previous records to become the youngest recipient since the award's inception in 1936.
• The novel ‘Glasgow Boys’ follows the lives of two young men, Finlay and Banjo, navigating the complexities of the foster care system, masculinity, and working-class life in Scotland.
• The Yoto Carnegie Medal is judged by children’s librarians, making it one of the most respected awards in the United Kingdom for children’s and young adult literature.

Additional Information

• The Carnegie Medal:
• Established in 1936, it was created in memory of the Scottish-born philanthropist Andrew Carnegie.
• It is awarded annually by CILIP (the Chartered Institute of Library and Information Professionals).
• The award recognizes an outstanding new book written in English for children or young adults.
• ‘Glasgow Boys’ by Margaret McDonald:
• The book is noted for its dual-perspective narrative, focusing on the foster care experiences of its protagonists.
• It deals with heavy themes such as trauma, social class, and the redemptive power of friendship and education.
• The setting of Glasgow serves as a vivid backdrop, highlighting the socio-economic realities of the city.
• Yoto Carnegie Medal for Illustration:
• Formerly known as the Kate Greenaway Medal, this sister award recognizes excellence in illustration for children's books.
• Both medals are presented during the same ceremony and are considered the "gold standard" of children's book prizes in the UK.

Important Points

• Significance of the 2025 Win: Margaret McDonald's victory is significant because the Carnegie Medal rarely goes to debut authors, let alone those in their mid-twenties.
• Selection Process: Books are nominated by CILIP members and then shortlisted by a panel of expert librarians who evaluate the quality of the writing and the reading experience for the target age group.
• Impact: Winning this medal often leads to a massive surge in book sales and international translation rights, cementing the author's place in the literary canon.
• Shadowing Scheme: The Carnegie Medals also feature a unique Shadowing Scheme where thousands of school children across the UK read the shortlisted books and vote for their own favorite, known as the Shadowers’ Choice Award.

The correct answer is 353.

Key Points

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI), as the primary regulatory authority for the financial sector, undertook a total of 353 enforcement actions during the month of June 2025 to ensure strict adherence to banking norms.
• These 353 actions were distributed across various categories of financial entities, including Public Sector Banks (PSBs), Private Sector Banks, Foreign Banks, and Cooperative Banks.
• The enforcement measures were primarily triggered by non-compliance with regulatory guidelines, specifically concerning Know Your Customer (KYC) requirements, Anti-Money Laundering (AML) standards, and the Fair Practices Code.
• The Enforcement Department of the RBI, which was centralized in 2017 to handle the imposition of penalties, oversaw the identification of these lapses and the subsequent execution of the 353 actions. Hence, the statement regarding the count of 353 actions is correct.
• The nature of these actions varied from monetary penalties to administrative censures and operational restrictions, aimed at safeguarding the integrity of the Indian financial ecosystem.

Additional Information

• Reserve Bank of India (RBI):
• The RBI was established on April 1, 1935, in accordance with the provisions of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. It serves as India's Central Bank and is responsible for Monetary Policy and the supervision of banking and non-banking financial companies.
• The Governor of the RBI leads the institution, which is headquartered in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
• Legal Framework for Enforcement:
• The RBI derives its power to take enforcement actions and impose penalties from the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, particularly under Section 47A, and the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.
• For Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs), the RBI exercises authority under the RBI Act, 1934.
• Types of Financial Entities Regulated:
• Public Sector Banks: These are banks where the Government of India holds a majority stake (more than 50%). There are currently 12 such banks in India.
• Cooperative Banks: These institutions are governed by both the Banking Regulations Act and Cooperative Societies Acts of the respective states. They play a vital role in financial inclusion in rural and semi-urban areas.
• NBFCs: These are entities registered under the Companies Act that provide banking services without meeting the legal definition of a bank.
• Purpose of Enforcement Actions:
• The primary objective is to maintain Financial Stability and protect the interests of depositors. By penalizing 353 entities in a single month, the RBI signals its zero-tolerance policy toward systemic risks and fraudulent activities.
• These actions also ensure that the credit discipline is maintained and that institutions do not engage in evergreening of loans or misreporting of Non-Performing Assets (NPAs).

Important Points

• Enforcement Process: The process begins with an Annual Financial Inspection (AFI). If deficiencies are found, a Show Cause Notice (SCN) is issued. The final decision on the penalty, such as the 353 instances in June 2025, is taken after considering the institution's response.
• Digital Lending Guidelines: In recent years, a significant number of enforcement actions have been directed toward Digital Lending Apps (DLAs) and their Lending Service Providers (LSPs) for violating consumer privacy and unethical recovery practices.
• Monetary Penalties: The quantum of penalty is determined based on the size of the entity and the severity of the violation, ensuring the punishment is proportionate to the lapse.

The correct answer is Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).

Key Points

• The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has successfully developed and operationalized a 10-ton vertical planetary mixer, which is currently the world’s largest facility for mixing solid propellants.
• The facility was commissioned at the Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) SHAR, located in Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh, specifically to enhance the production capacity of heavy-lift launch vehicles.
• This massive mixer is designed to process the solid propellant required for the S200 boosters, which power the Launch Vehicle Mark 3 (LVM3), India's heaviest rocket used for missions like Chandrayaan and Gaganyaan.
• The development of this 10-ton capacity mixer represents a major technological leap from the previously used 4.5-ton and 5-ton mixers, significantly reducing the time required for propellant casting.
• The project is a significant milestone under the Atmanirbhar Bharat and Make in India initiatives, as the design and realization were achieved through indigenous efforts and collaboration with Indian industries.

Additional Information

• Vertical Planetary Mixer (VPM) Technology:
• A vertical planetary mixer uses a unique mechanism where the mixing blades rotate on their own axes while simultaneously orbiting around the center of the mixing bowl.
• This "planetary" motion ensures thorough and uniform mixing of highly viscous materials, which is critical for the stability and performance of rocket propellants.
• The 10-ton capacity refers to the amount of propellant slurry that can be processed in a single batch, ensuring consistency across large motor segments.
• Solid Propellant Composition:
• The solid propellant used by ISRO typically consists of Ammonium Perchlorate (oxidizer), Aluminium powder (fuel), and Hydroxyl-terminated polybutadiene (HTPB) (binder).
• The precision of the 10-ton mixer ensures that these components are blended without air bubbles or inconsistencies, which could lead to catastrophic failure during flight.
• Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) SHAR:
• Established in 1971, it is India’s primary spaceport located in Nellore district, Andhra Pradesh.
• It houses the Solid Propellant Plant (SPP) and the Second Solid Propellant Plant (SSPP), where the new 10-ton mixer is integrated into the production line.

Important Points

• Safety and Automation: The 10-ton mixer facility is equipped with advanced remote-control systems and automated safety protocols to handle hazardous chemical processes, minimizing human intervention in the mixing zone.
• Impact on Future Missions: By doubling the mixing capacity per batch, ISRO can now accelerate the launch frequency of the LVM3 rocket, supporting commercial satellite launches and the upcoming Gaganyaan (human spaceflight) missions scheduled for 2025 and beyond.
• Global Standing: Prior to this achievement, such high-capacity mixers were limited to a few spacefaring nations. With this 2025 operational report, India solidifies its position as a leader in solid propulsion technology.
• Strategic Autonomy: Developing this hardware indigenously eliminates dependence on foreign suppliers for critical aerospace manufacturing infrastructure, ensuring long-term sustainability for the Indian Space Program.

The correct answer is Rithvik Bollipalli and Nicolás Barrientos.

Key Points

• The Indian tennis player Rithvik Bollipalli and his Colombian partner Nicolás Barrientos won the men’s doubles title at the 2025 Chile Open.
• The Chile Open, also known as the Movistar Chile Open, is a prestigious professional men's tennis tournament played on outdoor clay courts.
• The 2025 edition of the tournament was held in Santiago, the capital city of Chile, and is categorized as an ATP 250 event on the ATP Tour.
• This victory marks a significant achievement for Rithvik Bollipalli, who has been steadily climbing the ATP Doubles Rankings and establishing himself as a prominent figure in Indian tennis.
• The duo showcased exceptional coordination throughout the tournament to defeat their opponents in the final, contributing to the growing success of Indo-Colombian partnerships in international tennis.

Additional Information

• Rithvik Bollipalli:
• He is an Indian professional tennis player who specializes in the doubles format.
• In recent years, he has won multiple ATP Challenger titles, which provided the momentum to transition into ATP 250 and higher-level tournaments.
• His playing style is often characterized by strong net play and quick reflexes, making him a formidable doubles specialist.
• Nicolás Barrientos:
• He is an experienced tennis player from Colombia who has represented his country in the Davis Cup.
• Barrientos has a career-high doubles ranking that reflects his consistency on the professional circuit, particularly on clay surfaces.
• The Chile Open (Santiago):
• The tournament is part of the "Golden Swing" of the Latin American tennis circuit, which includes events in Argentina, Brazil, and Mexico.
• It is typically held in February or March each year, attracting several top-tier clay-court specialists from around the world.
• Indian Tennis in Doubles:
• India has a rich history in doubles tennis, with icons like Leander Paes, Mahesh Bhupathi, and Rohan Bopanna winning multiple Grand Slams.
• The success of players like Bollipalli, Yuki Bhambri, and N. Sriram Balaji indicates a new generation of Indian athletes maintaining the nation's dominance in the doubles category.

Important Points

• ATP 250 Category: This is the fourth tier of men's tennis tournaments after the Grand Slams, the ATP Finals, and the ATP Masters 1000. Winning this title grants the players 250 ranking points.
• Surface Characteristics: The red clay in Santiago is known for being slower than hard courts, requiring high physical endurance and strategic point construction, which makes the victory of the Bollipalli-Barrientos pair even more commendable.
• Historical Context: The Chile Open has seen legendary winners in the past, and the inclusion of an Indian winner in the doubles category adds to the diverse history of the event.

The correct answer is Intermediate Range Agni-Prime Missile.

Key Points

• The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully flight-tested the Intermediate Range Agni-Prime Missile (also known as Agni-P) on 24 September 2025.
• The test was conducted from a rail-mounted mobile launcher, demonstrating the capability for rapid deployment and high mobility across the Indian railway network.
• This successful mission was carried out in close coordination with the Strategic Forces Command (SFC), which is responsible for the management and administration of the country's tactical and strategic nuclear weapons stockpile.
• The Agni-Prime is a two-stage canisterised solid-propellant ballistic missile. Being canisterised allows for the missile to be stored for long periods and launched with very short preparation time.
• The missile has a strike range capability between 1,000 and 2,000 kilometres, making it a critical asset for regional deterrence.
• The test validated the reliability and efficiency of the advanced propulsion systems, navigation, and control mechanisms integrated into the Agni-P platform.

Additional Information

• Agni Series Evolution:
• The Agni-P is a next-generation follow-on to the Agni-I and Agni-II missiles, incorporating technologies used in the longer-range Agni-IV and Agni-V.
• Agni-I: Range of 700-800 km.
• Agni-V: India's first Intercontinental Ballistic Missile (ICBM) with a range exceeding 5,000 km.
• Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO):
• It was established in 1958 by merging the Technical Development Establishment of the Indian Army and the Directorate of Technical Development and Production.
• It works under the administrative control of the Ministry of Defence, Government of India, with headquarters in New Delhi.
• Its primary objective is to achieve self-reliance in critical defence technologies and systems.
• Strategic Forces Command (SFC):
• Created in January 2003, the SFC is a part of India's Nuclear Command Authority (NCA).
• It is responsible for operationalising the directives of the NCA under the leadership of a Commander-in-Chief of the rank of Air Marshal or equivalent.

Important Points

• Advanced Navigation: The Agni-Prime missile features a Ring Laser Gyro-based Inertial Navigation System (RINS) and a redundant Micro Navigation System (MINS) to ensure high-degree accuracy during terminal phases.
• Weight and Maneuverability: Compared to earlier versions, the Agni-P is significantly lighter due to the use of composite materials, making it easier to transport via road or rail.
• Strategic Significance: The development of the Intermediate Range Agni-Prime strengthens India's No First Use (NFU) nuclear doctrine by ensuring a credible and survivable second-strike capability.
• BrahMos (Option 1): This is a Supersonic Cruise Missile developed jointly by India (DRDO) and Russia (NPOM), with a range of approximately 290-450 km, fundamentally different from the ballistic Agni series.
• Akash (Option 3): This is a short-range Surface-to-Air Missile (SAM) system designed to protect vulnerable areas from air attacks.
• Prithvi-II (Option 4): A short-range surface-to-surface ballistic missile with a range of approximately 250-350 km, first tested in 1996.

The correct answer is Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.

Key Points

• The 11^th National Handloom Day was celebrated with great fervor on 7 August 2025. The primary event took place at the Bharat Mandapam, located at Pragati Maidan, New Delhi.
• During this significant occasion, the President of India, Smt. Droupadi Murmu, graced the event and presented the prestigious Sant Kabir Handloom Awards and National Handloom Awards to exceptional weavers for their contribution to the craft.
• The celebration of this day serves to honor the weaving community and acknowledge their contribution to the socio-economic development of the country, particularly in rural areas.
• The date August 7 carries deep historical significance as it commemorates the Swadeshi Movement, which was officially launched on this day in 1905 at the Calcutta Town Hall.
• The primary objective of the event at Bharat Mandapam was to promote indigenous textiles and encourage the public to adopt sustainable handloom products. Hence, the correct answer is Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.

Additional Information

• History of National Handloom Day:
• The Government of India declared August 7 as National Handloom Day in 2015. The first-ever celebration was inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
• The goal was to bring the handloom sector into the mainstream and provide weavers with the recognition and financial stability they deserve.
• Economic Significance:
• The handloom sector is the second-largest employer in India after agriculture, providing livelihoods to over 35 lakh people directly and indirectly.
• India accounts for approximately 95% of the world’s hand-woven fabrics, making it a global leader in this traditional craft.
• Government Initiatives:
• The Ministry of Textiles has introduced various schemes such as the National Handloom Development Programme (NHDP) and the Raw Material Supply Scheme to support artisans.
• The India Handloom Brand was launched to ensure the quality, authenticity, and zero-defect nature of handloom products for international and domestic markets.

Important Points

• Sant Kabir Handloom Awards: These awards are conferred upon outstanding handloom weavers who have made valuable contributions in keeping the traditional handloom heritage alive through innovation and skill.
• Swadeshi Movement Connection: The 1905 movement focused on boycotting foreign-made goods and reviving domestic products and production processes, which is the core essence of modern-day Atmanirbhar Bharat.
• Women Empowerment: More than 70% of the weavers and allied workers in India are women, making the handloom sector a vital tool for gender-based economic empowerment and financial independence.
• Bharat Mandapam: This International Exhibition-cum-Convention Centre (IECC) is one of the largest convention complexes in India, famously known for hosting the G20 Summit in 2023.

The correct answer is Chandrayaan-3.

Key Points

• Chandrayaan-3 is the third lunar exploration mission by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), which successfully landed near the Moon’s south pole on August 23, 2023.
• The mission's Vikram lander was equipped with the Instrument for Lunar Seismic Activity (ILSA), which became the first instrument to detect over 250 seismic signals from the polar region.
• The ILSA payload is designed to characterize the seismicity of the lunar surface by measuring ground vibrations caused by moonquakes, meteorite impacts, and artificial activities like the movement of the Pragyan rover.
• This marks a significant scientific leap because seismic data from the Moon had not been collected since the Apollo missions of the 1970s, which were primarily located around the lunar equator.
• By detecting these signals at the south pole, Chandrayaan-3 has provided researchers with a new dataset to understand the lunar crust and mantle structure in a previously unexplored geographical context.

Additional Information

• ILSA Technology: The instrument is built using Micro-Electro-Mechanical Systems (MEMS) technology. This allowed the seismometer to be compact and highly sensitive, capable of detecting vibrations as small as a few nanometers.
• The Pragyan Rover: During its mission life of 14 Earth days (one lunar day), the Pragyan rover traveled over 100 meters. Interestingly, the ILSA was sensitive enough to record the vibrations generated by the rover's wheels as it navigated the lunar terrain.
• Mission Components: Chandrayaan-3 consisted of a Lander Module (Vikram), a Rover (Pragyan), and a Propulsion Module. The Propulsion Module carried the SHAPE (Spectro-polarimetry of Habitable Planet Earth) payload to study Earth from lunar orbit.
• Other Missions:
• Chang'e 5: A Chinese mission launched in 2020 that successfully returned lunar soil samples to Earth but did not focus on long-term seismic monitoring at the south pole.
• Luna 1: The first spacecraft to reach the vicinity of the Moon, launched by the Soviet Union in 1959.
• Artemis I: An uncrewed NASA mission launched in 2022 as a flight test for the Orion spacecraft and the Space Launch System (SLS), orbiting the Moon without landing.

Important Points

• Shiv Shakti Point: The landing site of Chandrayaan-3 was officially named Shiv Shakti Point by the Government of India to commemorate the success of the mission.
• LVM3-M4: The heavy-lift launch vehicle, also known as the Launch Vehicle Mark-III, was used to propel the spacecraft into space from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota.
• Global Achievement: With this mission, India became the fourth country to achieve a soft landing on the Moon and the first to do so in the lunar south pole region.
• Scientific Payloads: Apart from ILSA, the mission included ChaSTE to measure thermal properties and APXS and LIBS on the rover to determine the elemental composition of lunar soil, which confirmed the presence of Sulphur.

The correct answer is Jayant Vishnu Narlikar.

Key Points

• Jayant Vishnu Narlikar is a world-renowned Astrophysicist and cosmologist who has been recognized with the Vigyan Ratna, the highest honour in the Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar series for the year 2025.
• The Vigyan Ratna award is specifically designed to recognize lifetime achievements and contributions that have made a significant impact in any field of Science and Technology.
• Jayant Vishnu Narlikar is famous for his work on the Steady State theory of the universe and the Hoyle-Narlikar theory of gravitation, which he developed alongside Fred Hoyle.
• The Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar was instituted by the Government of India in 2023 to unify various science awards under one umbrella, ensuring transparency and prestige in recognizing scientific excellence.
• The announcement of these awards typically takes place on May 11 (National Technology Day), and they are presented on August 23, celebrated as National Space Day to mark the success of the Chandrayaan-3 mission.

Additional Information

• Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar (RVP) Categories:
• Vigyan Ratna: Recognizes lifetime achievement in any domain of science. A maximum of 3 awards are given annually in this category.
• Vigyan Shri: Awarded for distinguished contributions to science and technology. Up to 25 awards are presented.
• Vigyan Yuva–Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar: Aimed at young scientists under the age of 45 years who have made exceptional contributions. Up to 25 awards are available.
• Vigyan Team: Given to a team of 3 or more scientists/researchers for groundbreaking collaborative work. Up to 3 awards are granted.
• Career of Jayant Vishnu Narlikar:
• Born on July 19, 1938, in Kolhapur, Maharashtra, he pursued his higher education at Banaras Hindu University (BHU) and the University of Cambridge.
• He served as the founder-director of the Inter-University Centre for Astronomy and Astrophysics (IUCAA) in Pune, established in 1988.
• He is also a celebrated science communicator, having written numerous books in Marathi, Hindi, and English to popularize complex scientific concepts among the general public.

Important Points

• Other Options Overview:
• Prakash Kumar: Recognized in the Vigyan Shri category for Biological Sciences during the inaugural 2024 awards. Hence, this statement is not the correct category for the question.
• Pavannan: Awarded the Vigyan Shri for his contributions to Science Communication and Popularization in 2024. Hence, this statement is incorrect for the Ratna category.
• Vidya Subramanian: Recipient of the Vigyan Yuva–Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar award in 2024 for her work in Agricultural Science. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
• Narlikar's Past Honours: He was previously awarded the Padma Vibhushan (India's second-highest civilian award) in 2004 and the Padma Bhushan in 1965, making the Vigyan Ratna a further testament to his monumental legacy in Astrophysics.
• Selection Process: The winners are selected by the Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar Committee (RVPC), which is headed by the Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government of India.

The correct answer is To bring back samples of moon rocks to Earth.

Key Points

• Chandrayaan-4 is a planned lunar sample return mission by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), serving as the successor to the highly successful Chandrayaan-3 mission.
• The primary objective of the mission is to land on the Lunar surface, collect samples of lunar soil (regolith) and rocks, and safely transport them back to Earth for detailed scientific study. Hence, option 3 is correct.
• Scheduled for launch around 2027 or 2028, the mission will demonstrate critical technologies such as docking and undocking in lunar orbit, lunar lift-off, and atmospheric re-entry.
• Unlike its predecessors, Chandrayaan-4 will involve a multi-module architecture, requiring at least two separate launches of the LVM3 (Launch Vehicle Mark-3) to carry the heavy payload into space.
• The mission is a crucial stepping stone towards India's long-term goal of sending a manned mission to the Moon by the year 2040.

Additional Information

• Legacy of Chandrayaan Missions:
• Chandrayaan-1 (2008): India's first lunar probe which played a pivotal role in the discovery of water molecules on the Lunar surface.
• Chandrayaan-2 (2019): Comprised an Orbiter, Lander (Vikram), and Rover (Pragyan). While the lander crashed, the Orbiter continues to provide valuable data.
• Chandrayaan-3 (2023): Made India the first country to achieve a soft landing near the Lunar South Pole on August 23, 2023.
• Future Lunar Exploration:
• LUPEX (Chandrayaan-5): The Lunar Polar Exploration Mission is a joint collaboration between ISRO and Japan's JAXA, focused on exploring the permanently shadowed regions of the moon for potential water ice.
• Bharatiya Antariksha Station: As part of the expanded space program, India aims to establish its own space station by 2035.
• Comparison with Other Options:
• Launching the first Indian astronaut is the objective of the Gaganyaan mission, not Chandrayaan-4.
• Establishing a permanent lunar base is a long-term international goal (like the Artemis Accords), but not the primary aim of this specific 2027 mission.
• Studying the Mars atmosphere was the goal of the Mars Orbiter Mission (Mangalyaan) launched in 2013.

Important Points

• Mission Modules: Chandrayaan-4 will consist of five specific modules: the Ascender Module, Descender Module, Propulsion Module, Transfer Module, and Re-entry Module.
• Sample Collection: The mission aims to collect roughly 2-3 kilograms of samples from the Shiv Shakti Point or a similar region in the South Pole.
• Complex Operations: This will be the first time ISRO attempts to launch a vehicle from the surface of another celestial body and perform a space docking maneuver to transfer samples between modules.
• Technical Significance: Successful sample return will place India in an elite group of nations (USA, Russia, and China) that have successfully brought back lunar soil to Earth.

The correct answer is 3.

Key Points

• Khel Mahakumbh is a major sports initiative of the Government of Gujarat aimed at encouraging participation in sports at the grassroots level.
• In January 2025, Gujarat Chief Minister Bhupendra Patel inaugurated the 3^rd edition of the event in Rajkot, Gujarat. Hence, the correct answer is 3.
• The event provides a platform for athletes from different age groups to participate in a wide range of sporting disciplines and promotes a culture of sports throughout the state.
• The initiative focuses on identifying and encouraging sporting talent at the grassroots level and providing opportunities for participants to compete at various levels.
• Therefore, the event inaugurated in January 2025 was the 3^rd edition of Khel Mahakumbh.

Additional Information

• Khel Mahakumbh:
• The term Mahakumbh refers to a large-scale sporting festival designed to bring athletes and sports enthusiasts together.
• The Gujarat initiative promotes mass participation, sports awareness, physical fitness, and talent identification.
• Competitions are organised across different sporting disciplines, providing opportunities to athletes from different parts of the state.
• Gujarat and Sports Promotion:
• The state government has undertaken several initiatives to develop sports infrastructure and grassroots sporting talent.
• Large sporting events such as Khel Mahakumbh encourage young people to participate in organised sports and develop competitive skills.
• Rajkot:
• Rajkot is a major city in the Saurashtra region of Gujarat.
• The city has important sporting infrastructure and has hosted various national and international sporting events.
• Bhupendra Patel:
• Bhupendra Patel is the Chief Minister of Gujarat.
• He has been associated with several state initiatives aimed at strengthening sports, youth development, and public infrastructure.

Important Points

• Event: Khel Mahakumbh
• Edition: 3^rd
• Inauguration: January 2025
• Venue: Rajkot, Gujarat
• Inaugurated by: Bhupendra Patel, Chief Minister of Gujarat

The correct answer is To enhance global monitoring of climate change and natural disasters.

Key Points

• The NASA–ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar (NISAR) is a joint Earth-observing mission between the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) and the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
• The primary objective of this mission is to track subtle changes in the Earth's surface, providing essential data for understanding climate change, deforestation, glacier melt, and natural hazards such as earthquakes, tsunamis, volcanoes, and landslides. Hence, the correct answer is To enhance global monitoring of climate change and natural disasters.
• The satellite is scheduled to be launched from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota, India, using the GSLV Mark II (or LVM3) launch vehicle in July 2025.
• NISAR will be the first satellite mission to use two different radar frequencies, the L-band and the S-band, to measure changes in our planet's surface less than a centimeter across.
• The mission is designed to observe the entire land and ice masses of the Earth every 12 days, providing a consistent and detailed time-lapse view of planetary changes over its three-year primary mission life.

Additional Information

• Technological Contribution:
• NASA is providing the L-band Synthetic Aperture Radar, a high-rate communication subsystem for science data, GPS receivers, a solid-state recorder, and the payload data subsystem.
• ISRO is providing the S-band radar, the spacecraft bus, the GSLV launch system, and associated launch services.
• Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR): Unlike optical sensors, SAR can penetrate clouds, smoke, and forest canopies, and can operate during both day and night, making it an invaluable tool for disaster management and environmental monitoring.
• Global Ecosystems: The mission will measure changes in vegetation biomass, which is crucial for understanding the carbon cycle and the impact of human activities on forests and wetlands.
• Cryosphere Monitoring: NISAR will monitor the flow rates of glaciers and ice sheets in Antarctica and Greenland, helping scientists predict future sea-level rise more accurately.

Important Points

• Data Accessibility: One of the most significant aspects of the NISAR mission is that the data collected will be free and open to the public, facilitating global research and scientific collaboration.
• Disaster Response: In the event of large-scale natural disasters, NISAR data will be used to assess the extent of damage and help in relief operations by providing high-resolution maps of the affected regions.
• Solid Earth: The mission will study crustal deformation, providing insights into the processes occurring deep within the Earth that lead to tectonic shifts and volcanic eruptions.
• Indo-US Cooperation: This project represents one of the largest and most complex space collaborations between India and the United States, strengthening bilateral ties in science and technology.

The correct answer is 6.5%.

Key Points

• In June 2025, the global credit rating agency S&P Global Ratings (Standard & Poor's) updated its economic outlook for India, specifically revising the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth forecast for the fiscal year 2025-26 (FY26).
• The agency settled on a growth projection of 6.5% for FY26, indicating a steady but moderated growth trajectory compared to previous high-growth years.
• The revision by S&P typically takes into account various macroeconomic indicators such as inflation trends, interest rate trajectories set by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), and the overall global economic environment.
• Growth in FY26 is expected to be supported by a gradual recovery in rural demand and continued government capital expenditure on infrastructure projects, which acts as a catalyst for private investment.
• The forecast of 6.5% reflects the agency's view on the balance between domestic consumption and external challenges, such as volatile commodity prices and shifts in global supply chains.
• S&P Global Ratings often aligns its forecasts with the expected performance of the services sector and the manufacturing sector, which remain the primary drivers of the Indian economy.

Additional Information

• S&P Global Ratings:
• It is one of the "Big Three" credit rating agencies globally, alongside Moody’s Investors Service and Fitch Ratings.
• Headquartered in the United States, it provides essential intelligence, including credit ratings, benchmarks, and economic research to investors and market participants worldwide.
• Gross Domestic Product (GDP):
• GDP measures the total market value of all final goods and services produced within a country's geographical boundaries during a specific financial year.
• It is the most common indicator used to track the health and size of a national economy.
• Fiscal Year (FY) in India:
• In India, the Fiscal Year runs from April 1^st to March 31^st.
• The term FY26 refers to the period starting from April 1, 2025, and ending on March 31, 2026.
• Other Forecasting Entities:
• Besides S&P, other institutions like the International Monetary Fund (IMF), the World Bank, and the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) regularly release GDP growth estimates.
• These projections are crucial for policymakers to formulate the Union Budget and for foreign investors to make decisions regarding Foreign Direct Investment (FDI).
• Factors Influencing GDP Growth:
• Key components influencing these percentages include Private Final Consumption Expenditure (PFCE), Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF), and the Net Export status of the country.
• A growth rate of 6.5% generally positions India as one of the fastest-growing major economies in the world.

Important Points

• Economic revisions are dynamic; for instance, if monetary easing (lowering of repo rates) occurs faster than expected in 2025, the growth might exceed the 6.5% mark.
• Inflation management remains a core focus for the RBI, as maintaining CPI inflation within the target band of 4% (+/- 2%) is essential for sustainable GDP growth.
• The June 2025 report by S&P serves as a mid-year benchmark for tracking the Indian economy's resilience against global headwinds like geopolitical tensions.

The correct answer is Feeding Profit: How Food Environments Are Failing Children.

Key Points

• The 2025 flagship report released by UNICEF is titled Feeding Profit: How Food Environments Are Failing Children, which focuses on the systemic failures of the global food system.
• The report highlights a critical shift where commercial interests and the drive for profit often outweigh the nutritional well-being and health of infants, children, and adolescents.
• It reveals that nearly one in three children globally are not growing well due to malnutrition, which is increasingly driven by the high availability of ultra-processed foods and sugary drinks.
• The UNICEF findings underscore that poor food environments—characterized by aggressive marketing and low affordability of fresh produce—are the primary drivers of the childhood obesity epidemic.
• The report calls for national governments to implement stricter regulations on the food industry to protect children from unhealthy food exposures and ensure access to diverse and nutritious diets.

Additional Information

• UNICEF (United Nations Children's Fund):
• Established in 1946 and headquartered in New York City, UNICEF is a United Nations agency responsible for providing humanitarian and developmental aid to children worldwide.
• Its nutrition programs aim to prevent stunting, wasting, and micronutrient deficiencies in more than 190 countries.
• Malnutrition Trends:
• The Triple Burden of Malnutrition refers to the coexistence of undernutrition (stunting and wasting), micronutrient deficiencies, and overweight/obesity within the same community or household.
• Data from 2023-2024 indicates that approximately 148 million children under 5 years of age suffer from stunting globally.
• Food Environments:
• This term refers to the physical, economic, and policy conditions that shape food accessibility, affordability, and promotional messaging.
• Healthy food environments are essential for achieving Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) 2, which targets Zero Hunger and improved nutrition by 2030.
• Ultra-Processed Foods (UPFs):
• These are industrial formulations typically high in sodium, free sugars, and saturated fats, but low in protein and fiber.
• The 2025 report identifies UPFs as a major contributor to non-communicable diseases (NCDs) such as Type 2 diabetes and hypertension starting in early childhood.

Important Points

• Regulatory Measures:
• To combat malnutrition, experts suggest front-of-package labeling, taxes on sugar-sweetened beverages, and bans on marketing unhealthy foods to minor children.
• Several Latin American countries, such as Chile and Mexico, have already pioneered black-label warning systems to inform consumers about high levels of sugar and fat.
• Economic Impact:
• The World Bank estimates that malnutrition can cost the global economy billions of dollars in lost productivity and healthcare expenses.
• Investing in child nutrition yields high returns, often estimated at $16** for every **$1 spent on interventions.

The correct answer is Kheer Ganga River.

Key Points

• In August 2025, the Kheer Ganga River was severely affected by flash floods following intense torrential rain and suspected cloudbursts in its upper catchment areas.
• The disaster occurred in the Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand, a region highly susceptible to extreme weather events during the monsoon season.
• The sudden increase in the water level of the Kheer Ganga, which is a tributary of the Bhagirathi River, led to the destruction of local bridges and temporary settlements.
• Rescue operations were promptly initiated by the State Disaster Response Force (SDRF) to assist residents and pilgrims stranded in the affected zones near Ghattu Gad and surrounding valleys.
• The surge in the Kheer Ganga also caused a temporary rise in the silt levels and water volume of the main Bhagirathi River, prompting alerts in downstream towns.

Additional Information

• Geographical Context of Uttarkashi:
• Uttarkashi is a border district in Uttarakhand, housing the origins of two of India's holiest rivers: the Ganga (as Bhagirathi) and the Yamuna.
• The district is part of the Garhwal Himalayas and is characterized by steep slopes and narrow valleys, making it prone to landslides and flash floods.
• Bhagirathi River:
• The Bhagirathi is considered the source stream of the Ganga, originating from the Gaumukh at the foot of the Gangotri Glacier.
• It flows for about 205 kilometers before meeting the Alaknanda River at Devprayag.
• Mandakini River:
• The Mandakini originates from the Chorabari Glacier near Kedarnath in the Rudraprayag district.
• It was the primary river involved in the catastrophic 2013 North India floods, but it is not the river affected in this specific 2025 Uttarkashi event.
• Alaknanda River:
• The Alaknanda rises in the Satopanth Glacier and Bhagirath Kharak Glacier in Chamoli district.
• It is one of the major tributaries of the Ganga and has several confluences known as the Panch Prayag.

Important Points

• Meteorological Factors: The August 2025 floods were triggered by a low-pressure system that caused localized heavy downpours, often exceeding 100 mm of rain within a few hours.
• Ecological Sensitivity: The Himalayan region is an Eco-Sensitive Zone where unplanned construction and climate change have increased the frequency of GLOFs (Glacial Lake Outburst Floods) and flash floods.
• Disaster Management: The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) and the India Meteorological Department (IMD) emphasize the use of Early Warning Systems (EWS) to mitigate such risks in the high-altitude districts of Uttarakhand.

The correct answer is Rekha Gupta.

Key Points

• Rekha Gupta was appointed as the Chief Minister of Delhi following the results of the 2025 Delhi Legislative Assembly elections.
• She represents the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP), which emerged as the majority party by securing a significant number of seats in the 70-member assembly.
• The appointment was formalized after the Lieutenant Governor of Delhi invited the leader of the single largest party to form the government, leading to her swearing-in ceremony in February 2025.
• As the Chief Minister, she heads the Council of Ministers of the National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi, overseeing administrative and executive functions within the state’s jurisdiction.
• Her victory marked a major political transition in the capital, shifting the governance from the Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) to the BJP after a decade.

Additional Information

• Delhi Legislative Assembly:
• The Legislative Assembly of Delhi consists of 70 members elected directly by the people.
• The term of the assembly is five years, as mandated by the Constitution of India, unless it is dissolved earlier.
• The majority mark required to form a government in the 70-member house is 36 seats.
• Article 239AA:
• This article of the Indian Constitution provides special status to Delhi as the National Capital Territory.
• It stipulates that there shall be a Legislative Assembly and a Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister to aid and advise the Lieutenant Governor.
• The Parliament of India retains control over specific subjects like Public Order, Police, and Land in Delhi.
• Role of the Lieutenant Governor (LG):
• The LG is the Constitutional Head of the NCT of Delhi and is appointed by the President of India.
• In the 2025 political context, the LG administered the Oath of Office and Secrecy to the new Chief Minister and the cabinet members at Raj Niwas.

Important Points

• Atishi Marlena: Prior to the 2025 elections, she served as the Chief Minister of Delhi, having taken office in September 2024 following the resignation of Arvind Kejriwal.
• Arvind Kejriwal: He served as the Chief Minister for three consecutive terms (2013, 2015-2020, and 2020-2024) before stepping down in 2024; he led the AAP campaign during the 2025 polls.
• Election Commission of India (ECI): The ECI was responsible for conducting the 2025 Delhi Assembly elections, ensuring a free and fair voting process for millions of registered voters in the capital.
• Governance Structure: Unlike other Union Territories, Delhi has a unique dual-governance model where the elected government and the Central Government (through the LG) share administrative responsibilities.

The correct answer is Cash assistance and employment opportunities.

Key Points

• The Poverty-Free Village Scheme was launched by the Government of Rajasthan in July 2025 to uplift the socio-economic status of rural inhabitants.
• The scheme specifically focuses on providing Cash assistance to help families meet their immediate financial needs and manage daily subsistence costs.
• Along with financial aid, the initiative emphasizes Employment opportunities by integrating rural workers into local developmental projects and infrastructure maintenance. Hence, the correct answer is Cash assistance and employment opportunities.
• The primary objective of this project is to ensure that no household in the selected Gram Panchayats falls below the Poverty Line by the end of the implementation cycle.
• Implementation is carried out through the Department of Rural Development and Panchayati Raj, ensuring that the benefits reach the grassroots level effectively.

Additional Information

• Target Groups: The scheme is designed for rural families who are identified through the SECC (Socio-Economic and Caste Census) data and those currently lacking stable income sources.
• Mechanism of Cash Assistance: The funds are disbursed through Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) to the bank accounts of the beneficiaries, ensuring transparency and reducing leakage. The estimated monthly support varies based on family size and economic distress levels.
• Employment Generation:
• The Employment opportunities component includes a 150-day guaranteed work clause, which is an extension beyond the standard provisions of MGNREGA.
• It also includes Skill Development training programs to make the youth in these villages employable in nearby Industrial Clusters.
• Geographical Coverage: While the pilot phase started in specific districts like Jaipur and Jodhpur, the state aims to cover over 10,000 villages across Rajasthan by the year 2027.
• Monitoring and Evaluation: A specialized Digital Dashboard has been created to track the poverty status of every enrolled family in real-time, involving Social Audits conducted by local community groups.

Important Points

• Eligibility Criteria: Families must be residents of Rajasthan for at least 10 years and should not have a member employed in a Government Job or paying Income Tax.
• Sustainable Goals: This scheme aligns with the United Nations Sustainable Development Goal 1 (No Poverty) and Goal 8 (Decent Work and Economic Growth).
• Integration: It works in tandem with other state welfare programs such as the Chiranjeevi Health Insurance Scheme to provide a holistic safety net, although health insurance is not the core component of this specific "Poverty-Free" grant.

The correct answer is Chennai.

Key Points

• The 23^rd edition of the National Para Athletics Championships, 2025, was organized in the city of Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
• The championship was held from January 9 to January 13, 2025, at the iconic Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium.
• The event was organized by the Paralympic Committee of India (PCI) in collaboration with the Sports Development Authority of Tamil Nadu (SDAT) and the Tamil Nadu Para Sports Association.
• The 2025 edition saw the participation of approximately 2,500 athletes representing 28 states and 8 Union Territories across various sporting categories.
• This national meet serves as a crucial selection trial for identifying and grooming athletes for upcoming international competitions, including the World Para Athletics Championships and the Asian Para Games.

Additional Information

• Paralympic Committee of India (PCI):
• The PCI was founded in 1992 and is the national governing body for para-sports in the country.
• It is recognized by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India, and is affiliated with the International Paralympic Committee (IPC).
• The current President of the PCI is Devendra Jhajharia, who is a two-time Paralympic gold medalist in javelin throw.
• Classification in Para Athletics:
• Athletes are grouped into classes based on their physical, visual, or intellectual impairments to ensure fair competition.
• Prefix "T" stands for Track and Jumping events, while "F" stands for Field events (like shot put or discus).
• The numeric values indicate the type and severity of the impairment; for example, classes 11-13 are for visually impaired athletes, while classes 51-57 are for athletes competing in wheelchairs.
• Tamil Nadu as a Sports Hub:
• The state of Tamil Nadu has been proactive in promoting sports through the SDAT, having recently hosted the Khelo India Youth Games in 2024.
• The Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium in Chennai, built in 1993, has a seating capacity of 40,000 and is a premier venue for national and international athletic meets.

Important Points

• Significance of the National Championships:
• The National Para Athletics Championship is the highest level of domestic competition for para-athletes in India.
• Performance in this event is the primary criterion for the Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS), which provides financial and technical assistance to top athletes.
• The 23^rd edition featured a wide range of events including 100m, 200m, 400m, 1500m sprints, Long Jump, High Jump, Shot Put, Discus Throw, and Club Throw.
• India’s recent success at the Paris 2024 Paralympics, where the country won a record 29 medals, has significantly boosted the profile and funding for these national meets.

The correct answer is 99.62%.

Key Points

• The Sustainable Development Goals — National Indicator Framework (NIF) Progress Report, 2025, was released in June 2025 by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
• According to the report, during the assessment year 2024–2025, the percentage of the rural population using improved sources of drinking water reached 99.62%. Hence, the correct option is 99.62%.
• This indicator is a vital metric under SDG Goal 6, which specifically targets Clean Water and Sanitation for all citizens.
• The data indicates a significant upward trajectory in rural infrastructure development, ensuring that nearly the entire rural landscape has access to safe and improved water sources.
• The report serves as a monitoring tool for the United Nations' 2030 Agenda, tracking India's specific progress through the National Indicator Framework (NIF), which currently consists of over 300 indicators.

Additional Information

• SDG 6 (Clean Water and Sanitation):
• This goal aims to ensure the availability and sustainable management of water and sanitation for all by the year 2030.
• India's commitment to this goal is reflected in large-scale schemes designed to eliminate the disparity between urban and rural access.
• Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM):
• Launched on 15^th August 2019, this mission is a primary driver for the high percentage recorded in the 2025 report.
• The mission aims to provide Functional Household Tap Connections (FHTC) to every rural household, often referred to as "Har Ghar Jal," by 2024-25.
• It emphasizes community-based management and greywater treatment to ensure long-term sustainability.
• Improved Sources of Drinking Water:
• This category includes piped water into dwellings, public taps or standpipes, tube wells or boreholes, protected dug wells, and rainwater harvesting systems.
• The use of improved sources is critical in reducing water-borne diseases such as cholera, dysentery, and typhoid in rural India.

Important Points

• Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI):
• MoSPI is the nodal agency in India responsible for the development of the National Indicator Framework (NIF).
• It coordinates with various Central Ministries and State Governments to collect authenticated data for the SDG Progress Reports.
• National Indicator Framework (NIF):
• The NIF is the backbone of SDG monitoring in India, localized to suit the Indian context while remaining aligned with Global Indicators.
• The 2025 Progress Report highlights that India has made "substantial progress" in Goal 6, with the rural drinking water target being one of the most successful outcomes.
• Data for this specific indicator is often sourced from the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation under the Ministry of Jal Shakti.