General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Narendra Modi.

Key Points

• According to the Global Leader Approval Rating Tracker released by the US-based business intelligence firm Morning Consult, Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi was identified as the most popular democratic leader in July 2025.
• Prime Minister Narendra Modi consistently secured the top spot with an approval rating often exceeding 70%, significantly higher than his global counterparts from developed nations. Hence, option 1 is correct.
• The survey tracked the approval ratings of government leaders in various countries including the United States, United Kingdom, France, Australia, and Italy, among others.
• The report highlights India's Prime Minister's sustained popularity, which is attributed to various socio-economic reforms and diplomatic initiatives on the international stage.
• Narendra Modi has held the Prime Minister's office since May 2014, leading the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) to consecutive victories in the Lok Sabha elections.

Additional Information

• About Morning Consult:
• Morning Consult is a proprietary data and business intelligence company founded in 2014 and headquartered in Washington, D.C.
• The firm provides real-time polling data on political elections, elected officials, and corporate brands, conducting thousands of interviews across the globe daily.
• Their Global Leader Approval Rating is based on a seven-day moving average of all adults in a given country, with sample sizes varying by nation.
• Other Leaders Mentioned in Options:
• Nirmala Sitharaman: She currently serves as the Minister of Finance and Minister of Corporate Affairs of India. While a highly influential leader, she is not typically ranked in the "Head of Government" approval surveys conducted by Morning Consult. Hence, option 2 is incorrect.
• Rahul Gandhi: He is a prominent leader of the Indian National Congress (INC) and served as the Leader of the Opposition in the 18^th Lok Sabha. He is a key political figure but did not top the global approval rating for democratic heads of government in this report. Hence, option 3 is incorrect.
• Amit Shah: He serves as the Union Home Minister and the first Minister of Co-operation of India. Like the Finance Minister, he holds a critical cabinet position but the specific "World Leader" survey focuses on the Head of Government (Prime Minister/President). Hence, option 4 is incorrect.
• Global Context:
• The rankings usually feature other notable figures like Joe Biden (President of the USA), Justin Trudeau (Prime Minister of Canada), and Giorgia Meloni (Prime Minister of Italy).
• A high approval rating for a democratic leader often indicates strong public trust and satisfaction with the governance and policy implementation within the country.

Important Points

• Data Reliability: The Morning Consult data is considered a benchmark for geopolitical sentiment, as it uses a standardized methodology across all surveyed countries to ensure comparability.
• Socio-Economic Impact: Leaders with high approval ratings are often those who have successfully managed inflation, employment, and national security concerns.
• Democratic Significance: In the context of July 2025, these ratings reflect the political stability and the electoral mandate enjoyed by the leader in the world's largest democracy.

The correct answer is Article 223.

Key Points

• Article 223 of the Constitution of India deals with the appointment of an Acting Chief Justice for a High Court. It states that when the office of Chief Justice is vacant or when the Chief Justice is unable to perform their duties, the President may appoint one of the other Judges of the court to perform those duties.
• In December 2025, the President of India appointed Justice Meenakshi Madan Rai to perform the duties of the Chief Justice of the Sikkim High Court. Hence, the correct answer is Article 223.
• Justice Meenakshi Madan Rai is the Senior-most Judge of the Sikkim High Court and has the distinction of being the first woman from Sikkim to be appointed as a Judge of the High Court.
• The appointment was necessitated by the retirement or vacancy in the office of the permanent Chief Justice, ensuring that the judicial administration of the Sikkim High Court continues without interruption.
• The President issues the notification for such appointments through the Department of Justice, under the Ministry of Law and Justice.

Additional Information

• Article 217:
• This article relates to the appointment and conditions of the office of a Judge of a High Court.
• It specifies that every Judge shall be appointed by the President after consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the Governor of the State. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect in the context of "Acting" duties.
• Article 226:
• This article empowers the High Courts to issue certain writs, including Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Quo Warranto, and Certiorari.
• These writs are issued for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights (Part III) and for any other legal purpose. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Article 124:
• This article provides for the establishment and constitution of the Supreme Court of India.
• It details the appointment of Supreme Court Judges and the Chief Justice of India, rather than High Court appointments. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
• High Court of Sikkim:
• It was established in 1975 when Sikkim became the 22^nd State of the Indian Union.
• It is located in Gangtok and is one of the smallest High Courts in India in terms of judge strength.

Important Points

• Justice Meenakshi Madan Rai was first sworn in as a Judge of the Sikkim High Court on April 15, 2015.
• She has previously served as the Acting Chief Justice of the Sikkim High Court multiple times, including instances in 2018, 2019, 2020, and 2021.
• The Acting Chief Justice holds the same powers and performs the same judicial and administrative functions as a permanent Chief Justice.
• The Judiciary in India follows a single integrated system, where the High Courts operate under the Supreme Court, but are independent of the State Executive.

The correct answer is Bareilly.

Key Points

• The Junior National Boxing Championships (for both Boys and Girls) were organized in Bareilly, Uttar Pradesh, in the year 2024.
• The championship took place from 6 January to 13 January 2024, serving as a major platform for young pugilists in the country.
• The venue for this prestigious sporting event was Invertis University, located in Bareilly, which provided the necessary infrastructure for the multi-day tournament.
• Approximately 800 boxers from 35 states and Union Territories across India participated in various weight categories to compete for the national title.
• The event was organized under the aegis of the Boxing Federation of India (BFI), aiming to identify and nurture talent for future international events, including the 2028 Los Angeles Olympics.

Additional Information

• Boxing Federation of India (BFI):
• The BFI is the national governing body for Olympic boxing in India. It is responsible for organizing national championships and managing the national teams.
• It is recognized by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports and is affiliated with the International Boxing Association (IBA).
• The current President of the BFI is Shri Ajay Singh, and the organization is headquartered in New Delhi.
• Bareilly City:
• Bareilly is a major city in the state of Uttar Pradesh, situated on the banks of the Ramganga River.
• It is famously known as Nath Nagri because of the presence of several ancient temples dedicated to Lord Shiva surrounding the city.
• The city is also a significant hub for trade and is well-known for its Zari-Zardosi embroidery and furniture industry.
• Other Recent National Boxing Events:
• The 7^th Elite Women's National Boxing Championship was held in Greater Noida at Gautam Buddha University in December 2023.
• The Elite Men's National Boxing Championship 2023 was conducted in Shillong, Meghalaya, in November 2023.
• These tournaments are critical for the ranking of players and for their selection into the national coaching camps conducted by the Sports Authority of India (SAI).
• Importance of Junior Championships:
• Junior championships are the foundation of the Indian boxing ecosystem, where athletes aged 15 to 16 years showcase their skills.
• Top performers in these events are often drafted into the Khelo India scholarship scheme, which provides financial assistance and advanced training to budding sportspersons.

The correct answer is Verifying investment performance claims.

Key Points

• The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) introduced the operational framework for the Performance Reporting and Rating Verification Agency (PaRRVA) in April 2025 to bring transparency to the investment ecosystem.
• The primary objective of PaRRVA is the verification of investment performance claims made by regulated intermediaries, such as Investment Advisers (IAs) and Research Analysts (RAs), ensuring they do not mislead investors with inflated return data. Hence, the correct answer is Verifying investment performance claims.
• Under this framework, any performance-related claims made in advertisements or marketing materials must be validated by PaRRVA before being circulated to the public.
• The agency is designed to act as an independent body (often supported by subsidiaries of Stock Exchanges) that checks the authenticity of historical data and the methodology used to calculate returns.
• By mandating this verification, SEBI aims to curb the practice of "cherry-picking" profitable periods or using "back-tested" data to lure unsuspecting retail investors into risky financial products.

Additional Information

• Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI):
• SEBI was established on April 12, 1988, and was given statutory powers on January 30, 1992, through the SEBI Act, 1992.
• It is the principal regulator for the securities market in India, headquartered in Mumbai, with regional offices in New Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai, and Ahmedabad.
• The main functions of SEBI include protecting the interests of investors, regulating the business in stock exchanges, and promoting the development of the securities market.
• Investment Advisers and Research Analysts:
• These entities are regulated under the SEBI (Investment Advisers) Regulations, 2013 and SEBI (Research Analysts) Regulations, 2014.
• They are prohibited from making guaranteed return claims or using superlative terms like "best" or "No. 1" without objective verification by bodies like PaRRVA.
• Investor Protection Measures:
• The introduction of PaRRVA is a step towards investor protection, preventing financial fraud and mis-selling in the growing digital investment advisory space.
• It complements other SEBI initiatives like the SCORES (SEBI Complaints Redress System) platform, which allows investors to lodge grievances against listed companies and intermediaries online.
• Digital Transformation in Regulation:
• The PaRRVA framework utilizes algorithmic verification and data feeds from Depositories and Exchanges to ensure that the reported performance matches actual transaction records.
• This move aligns with global best practices in financial regulation, where independent audits of performance track records are becoming standard for wealth management firms.

The correct answer is Belagavi.

Key Points

• The 11^th edition of the Joint Military Exercise MITRA SHAKTI was scheduled to be held in Belagavi, Karnataka, India.
• MITRA SHAKTI is a premier bilateral exercise conducted annually between the Indian Army and the Sri Lankan Army to bolster military cooperation.
• The primary objective of the 2025 edition is to enhance interoperability and synergy between the two nations while conducting counter-insurgency and counter-terrorism operations in a sub-conventional environment.
• The exercise involves the participation of infantry battalions from both sides, focusing on tactical drills and the exchange of best practices under a United Nations mandate.
• The training curriculum includes drone warfare, counter-IED (Improvised Explosive Device) techniques, and specialized operations in semi-urban terrains.

Additional Information

• History of Mitra Shakti:
• The joint exercise series was first initiated in 2012 to build strong bilateral relations and foster mutual understanding between the security forces of India and Sri Lanka.
• It has since evolved into a critical platform for sharing operational experiences gained during various peacekeeping missions and internal security duties.
• 10^th Edition Recap:
• The 10^th edition of Exercise Mitra Shakti was successfully conducted in August 2024 at the Army Training School in Maduru Oya, Sri Lanka.
• This edition saw a significant focus on Hadr (Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief) operations and joint tactical planning.
• SLINEX (Sri Lanka-India Naval Exercise):
• Apart from the army exercise, the two countries participate in a bilateral maritime exercise called SLINEX.
• Launched in 2005, SLINEX aims to enhance maritime security and promote technical coordination between the Indian Navy and the Sri Lanka Navy.

Important Points

• Strategic Significance: These exercises are a cornerstone of India’s “Neighbourhood First” policy and the SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the Region) vision, aimed at maintaining peace in the Indian Ocean Region.
• Belagavi Training Hub: Belagavi (formerly Belgaum) is a significant military base in India, housing the Maratha Light Infantry Regimental Centre (MLIRC) and the Junior Leaders Wing of the Infantry School, making it an ideal location for international joint exercises.
• Scope of Operations: The drills often include sniping, combat conditioning, rappelling, and medical evacuation drills to ensure readiness for diverse combat scenarios.

The correct answer is Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

Key Points

• The Ministry of Commerce and Industry officially launched the Trade Intelligence and Analytics Portal in January 2025 to empower Indian exporters with data-driven decision-making tools.
• The portal was inaugurated by the Union Minister of Commerce and Industry, Shri Piyush Goyal, as part of the government's digital transformation agenda for the trade sector.
• It serves as a comprehensive platform providing transparent and real-time trade data, which includes detailed information on export-import statistics, global market trends, and trade flows.
• The portal integrates Advanced Analytics and Artificial Intelligence (AI) to provide insights into Non-Tariff Barriers (NTBs), Rules of Origin, and tariff structures across more than 200 international markets.
• The primary objective of this initiative is to assist Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) and large exporters in identifying new opportunities to help India achieve its target of $2 trillion in exports by 2030.

Additional Information

• Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT): Functioning under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, the DGFT is responsible for formulating and implementing the Foreign Trade Policy (FTP) and promoting India's exports through various digital schemes.
• Foreign Trade Policy (FTP) 2023: This policy shifted India's approach from an incentive-based regime to a remission and entitlement-based regime, emphasizing Ease of Doing Business through automation and paperless processing.
• Export Targets: The Indian government has set a long-term goal to reach $1 trillion in merchandise exports** and **$1 trillion in services exports by the year 2030, supported by initiatives like the Trade Intelligence Portal.
• India's Trade Ecosystem: Key bodies such as Export Promotion Councils (EPCs) and Commodity Boards work under the aegis of this ministry to support specific sectors like pharmaceuticals, engineering goods, and textiles.
• Market Access Initiative (MAI) Scheme: This is an export promotion scheme that provides financial assistance to export promotion organizations and individual exporters for market studies, branding, and participation in international trade fairs.

Important Points

• The portal acts as a single-window solution for exporters to access HS Code-wise (Harmonized System) data and market intelligence, which was previously scattered across multiple platforms.
• By providing predictive analytics, the ministry helps businesses stay ahead of global supply chain disruptions and shifting geopolitical trade dynamics.
• The Department of Commerce, which manages this portal, is also the lead agency for negotiating Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) with countries like the UK, European Union, and members of the GCC to expand India's global footprint$.

The correct answer is Sai Sudharsan.

Key Points

• The Orange Cap for the IPL 2025 season was won by Sai Sudharsan, who represented the Gujarat Titans.
• He achieved this milestone by scoring a massive total of 759 runs throughout the tournament, displaying remarkable consistency at the top of the order.
• This feat makes him one of the primary contributors to the Gujarat Titans' batting strength, securing his position as a premier opening or top-order batter in the Indian Premier League.
• Winning the Orange Cap involves surpassing all other batters in the league in terms of total runs accumulated during a single edition of the tournament.
• His performance included several half-centuries and crucial match-winning knocks, helping the Ahmedabad-based franchise maintain a competitive edge in IPL 2025.

Additional Information

• The Orange Cap Award:
• It is an annual cricket award presented to the leading run-getter in the Indian Premier League (IPL) since its inception in 2008.
• The first-ever winner of the Orange Cap was Shaun Marsh, who scored 616 runs for Kings XI Punjab in the inaugural season.
• During the tournament, the player currently leading the run charts wears the physical Orange Cap while fielding.
• Gujarat Titans (GT):
• The franchise is based in Ahmedabad, Gujarat, and plays its home matches at the Narendra Modi Stadium.
• The team entered the IPL in 2022 and made history by winning the title in its debut season.
• The 759 runs scored by Sai Sudharsan represent one of the highest individual season totals for the franchise.
• Sai Sudharsan Profile:
• A stylish left-handed batter from Tamil Nadu, he was initially picked up by Gujarat Titans in the 2022 Mega Auction for his base price of 20 lakhs.
• He is known for his solid technique and ability to play both pace and spin with ease, making him a versatile player in the T20 format.
• Other Options in Context:
• Virat Kohli: He holds the all-time record for the most runs in a single IPL season, scoring 973 runs in 2016 for Royal Challengers Bengaluru (RCB).
• Suryakumar Yadav: A vital player for Mumbai Indians, renowned as one of the world's best T20 batters with his "360-degree" hitting ability.
• Rajat Patidar: An explosive middle-order batter for Royal Challengers Bengaluru, famous for his century in the 2022 playoffs.

Important Points

• The race for the Orange Cap is one of the most followed aspects of the IPL, reflecting the individual dominance of batters over the course of nearly two months of cricket.
• Sai Sudharsan reaching 759 runs highlights the rising importance of young Indian domestic talent in a league that features the best international cricketers.
• Statistical data from IPL 2025 shows that consistency in the powerplay and the ability to anchor the innings were key factors in achieving this high run tally.

The correct answer is Rural citizens and low-income account holders.

Key Points

• The decision by Public Sector Banks (PSBs), specifically Indian Bank and Punjab National Bank (PNB), to remove minimum balance penalties in July 2025 is designed to alleviate the financial burden on the most vulnerable sections of society.
• Rural citizens and low-income account holders are the primary beneficiaries as they often possess limited disposable income and face fluctuations in cash flow, making it difficult to maintain a consistent Average Monthly Balance (AMB).
• Prior to this change, failure to maintain a minimum balance often resulted in automated penalty deductions, which could deplete the meager savings of wage laborers and small-scale farmers. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• This policy shift is part of a broader effort to promote Financial Inclusion by ensuring that the cost of banking does not act as a barrier for the unorganized sector.
• By removing these penalties, banks encourage individuals from economically weaker sections (EWS) to utilize formal banking channels for remittances, savings, and government subsidies without the fear of hidden charges.

Additional Information

• Average Monthly Balance (AMB):
• AMB is the minimum average amount a customer is required to keep in their Savings Account over a month to avoid non-maintenance charges.
• In Public Sector Banks, the minimum balance requirement is typically lower in rural and semi-urban branches compared to metro branches, yet it remains a challenge for low-income groups.
• Financial Inclusion Initiatives:
• The Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY), launched in 2014, was a pioneer in providing zero-balance accounts to the unbanked population.
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has issued guidelines stating that banks should not levy penalties that result in a negative balance in a savings account.
• Impact on Banking Habits:
• Removal of penalties helps in building trust among first-time bankers in rural locations, preventing them from returning to informal and risky money-lending practices.
• It helps migrant workers and pensioners who may only receive funds at specific intervals and cannot always keep a buffer in their accounts.
• Banking Regulations:
• The Banking Codes and Standards Board of India (BCSBI) and RBI monitor the "reasonableness" of bank charges to ensure that social banking objectives are met.
• The removal of these charges by Indian Bank and PNB serves as a benchmark for other nationalized banks to prioritize social welfare over non-interest income.

Important Points

• Demographic Focus: While urban professionals and wealthy individuals (Options 2 and 3) generally maintain balances far above the minimum threshold, they do not feel the impact of penalty removals.
• Comparison: College students (Option 4) also benefit from no-frills accounts, but the scale of impact is highest on rural populations whose entire financial security depends on small-scale banking accessibility.
• Economic Data: According to various financial surveys, non-maintenance charges previously accounted for a significant portion of miscellaneous revenue for banks, often collected from those least able to afford it.

The correct answer is India–Philippines naval drill in the South China Sea.

Key Points

• The India–Philippines naval drill conducted in the South China Sea in 2025 represents a significant escalation in bilateral defense ties and a shift in India’s maritime strategy. This exercise was aimed at enhancing interoperability and demonstrating a commitment to freedom of navigation in international waters. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The drill took place within the Philippines' Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), a region where China asserts expansive territorial claims under its controversial Nine-Dash Line. By conducting maneuvers here, India signaled its support for the 2016 Permanent Court of Arbitration ruling.
• This joint exercise involved advanced naval assets, including guided-missile frigates and maritime patrol aircraft, focusing on anti-submarine warfare (ASW) and surface gunnery drills.
• Exercise Ajeya Warrior is a bilateral Army exercise between India and the United Kingdom, not a naval exercise in the Bay of Bengal. It focuses on counter-terrorism and tactical operations. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• The Iron Fist Drill is historically a joint amphibious exercise between the United States and Japan; it does not traditionally involve Russia in the Indian Ocean as a joint "Iron Fist" branded partner for India. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Exercise Malabar is a multilateral naval exercise involving India, Australia, Japan, and the USA (the QUAD). While it occurs in the Indo-Pacific, the specific "eyebrow-raising" event in a disputed maritime region in 2025 specifically refers to the burgeoning India-Philippines security nexus in the South China Sea. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• India–Philippines Defense Relations:
• The relationship has transformed from a primarily commercial one to a strategic partnership. A milestone in this journey was the 2024 delivery of the BrahMos supersonic cruise missiles to the Philippines, worth $375 million.
• In 2025, both nations expanded their Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) on Defense Cooperation to include joint patrols and intelligence sharing.
• Geopolitics of the South China Sea:
• The South China Sea is a critical maritime gateway through which approximately one-third of global shipping passes, valued at over $3 trillion annually.
• The United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) serves as the legal framework for maritime rights, which India consistently advocates for to ensure a rules-based international order.
• India’s Act East Policy:
• Launched in 2014 by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, this policy focuses on the extended neighborhood in the Asia-Pacific region. It has evolved from economic integration to include security and defense cooperation with ASEAN member states.

Important Points

• Exercise Malabar: This was originally a bilateral exercise between India and the USA in 1992. It became trilateral with the inclusion of Japan in 2015 and quadrilateral with Australia rejoining in 2020. It serves as a visual deterrent and a mechanism for QUAD nations to ensure a Free and Open Indo-Pacific.
• Freedom of Navigation Operations (FONOPs): While India does not officially join U.S.-led FONOPs, its presence in the South China Sea through joint drills with littoral states like the Philippines and Vietnam serves a similar purpose of asserting maritime sovereignty and international law.
• INS Kadmatt and INS Shivalik: These are examples of Indian Navy ships that have been frequently deployed for Long Range Operational Deployments in the South China Sea to engage with friendly foreign navies.

The correct answer is Haryana.

Key Points

• In September 2025, the Japanese electronics giant TDK Corporation inaugurated its first state-of-the-art facility for manufacturing Lithium-ion (Li-ion) battery cells in India.
• The manufacturing plant is located in Manesar, which falls under the Gurugram district of the state of Haryana.
• This facility is specifically designed to produce high-end battery cells that will be supplied to major global technology companies, most notably for the assembly of Apple iPhones within India.
• The establishment of this plant in Haryana marks a significant shift in the global supply chain, as TDK Corporation previously imported these cells primarily from China.
• The project is a major boost to the "Make in India" initiative, aiming to increase domestic value addition in the electronics and mobile phone manufacturing sector.

Additional Information

• TDK Corporation: It is a leading Japanese multinational electronics company founded in 1935, with its global headquarters in Tokyo. The company is world-renowned for its expertise in magnetic materials and electronic components.
• Employment Generation: The inauguration of the Haryana plant is expected to create several thousand direct and indirect jobs, fostering local economic growth in the Manesar-Bawal industrial corridor.
• Investment Impact: This move by TDK Corporation signifies India’s growing status as a preferred destination for Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in high-tech manufacturing, particularly for the components used in premium smartphones.
• Strategic Location: Haryana was chosen due to its robust industrial infrastructure, proximity to the national capital, New Delhi, and its existing ecosystem of automotive and electronics manufacturing.

Important Points

• Supply Chain Localization: By producing lithium-ion cells domestically, the dependency on imports for critical mobile components is reduced, helping India achieve greater self-reliance in the electronics sector.
• PLI Scheme: Such investments are often supported by the Government of India’s Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme, which incentivizes large-scale electronics manufacturing to compete on a global scale.
• Technology Transfer: The Manesar plant utilizes Advanced Technologies to ensure high energy density and safety standards for the batteries, bringing world-class Japanese engineering processes to the Indian soil.
• Environmental and Economic Goals: The production of Li-ion batteries is central to the global transition toward cleaner energy and portable power solutions, aligning with India's long-term goals for sustainable industrialization.

The correct answer is DHRUV64.

Key Points

• DHRUV64 is the first fully indigenous high-performance microprocessor developed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) under the Microprocessor Development Programme (MDP), marking a significant milestone in 2025.
• It is built on the 64-bit RISC-V (Reduced Instruction Set Computer) open-source Instruction Set Architecture, designed to cater to complex computing needs within India.
• The development of DHRUV64 is a strategic step towards Atmanirbhar Bharat (Self-reliant India) in the semiconductor and hardware domain, reducing reliance on proprietary foreign architectures like Intel or ARM.
• This microprocessor is specifically optimized for applications in high-performance computing (HPC), secure servers, and critical infrastructure management, ensuring data sovereignty for the nation.
• The Microprocessor Development Programme (MDP) is an initiative funded and spearheaded by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) to design and fabricate a family of microprocessors within the country.

Additional Information

• Microprocessor Development Programme (MDP):
• The MDP aims to achieve complete indigenization of the electronic system design and manufacturing (ESDM) sector in India.
• Prior to DHRUV64, the program supported the development of the SHAKTI series by IIT Madras and the VEGA series by C-DAC.
• The goal is to provide domestic alternatives for various segments, including IoT devices, automotive electronics, and supercomputing.
• Significance of RISC-V Architecture:
• RISC-V is an open-standard architecture that allows Indian researchers and engineers to customize designs without paying heavy licensing fees or royalties to foreign corporations.
• By using RISC-V, DHRUV64 ensures a transparent and secure design process, which is vital for national security and strategic applications.
• C-DAC (Centre for Development of Advanced Computing):
• C-DAC is the premier R&D organization of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) for carrying out R&D in IT, Electronics, and associated areas.
• It is well-known for creating the PARAM series of supercomputers, and the development of DHRUV64 further cements its role in the hardware evolution of India.

Important Points

• Comparison with SHAKTI: While SHAKTI was India's first indigenous RISC-V processor (developed by IIT Madras), DHRUV64 represents the latest advancement in 2025 specifically targeting high-end 64-bit server-grade performance.
• Applications of DHRUV64:
• Data Centers: It provides a secure platform for domestic cloud services.
• Strategic Sectors: Ideal for use in Defense and Space missions where hardware security and reliability are paramount.
• Smart Cities: Can power large-scale IoT networks and urban management systems.
• Semiconductor Mission: The launch of DHRUV64 aligns with the India Semiconductor Mission (ISM), which seeks to build a vibrant semiconductor and display ecosystem to enable India’s emergence as a global hub for electronics manufacturing.

The correct answer is Saudi Arabia.

Key Points

• The International Olympic Committee (IOC) officially announced in July 2024 that the Kingdom of Saudi Arabia will host the inaugural Olympic Esports Games in 2025.
• This historic partnership between the IOC and the Saudi Arabian National Olympic Committee (NOC) is established for a duration of 12 years, ensuring that the Olympic Esports Games will be held regularly over this period.
• The proposal to create these games was unanimously approved by the IOC members during the 142^nd IOC Session, which took place in Paris just before the start of the Olympic Games Paris 2024.
• The decision builds upon the momentum of the Olympic Esports Week, which was successfully pilot-tested in Singapore in June 2023, attracting over 500,000 unique participants.
• The IOC President, Thomas Bach, emphasized that this initiative combines the Olympic brand and values with the immense popularity of the esports community to engage a younger global audience.

Additional Information

• Saudi Arabia's Vision 2030: The hosting of the Olympic Esports Games aligns with Saudi Arabia's Vision 2030, a strategic framework aimed at diversifying the nation's economy and transforming it into a global hub for sports, tourism, and entertainment.
• Esports Infrastructure in Riyadh: The capital city, Riyadh, has already established itself as a premier destination for competitive gaming, having hosted the first-ever Esports World Cup in 2024, which featured a record-breaking prize pool of over $60 million.
• Operational Model: The IOC has clarified that the Olympic Esports Games will have a specialized organizational and financial model, distinct from the traditional Summer and Winter Olympic Games, to better address the unique requirements of the digital sports industry.
• Gender Equality and Inclusion: A key focus of the partnership is to promote gender equality in gaming; currently, Saudi Arabia has over 23.5 million gamers, with nearly half of them being women.
• Leadership: The initiative is championed by Prince Abdulaziz bin Turki Al Faisal, the Minister of Sport and President of the Saudi Arabian Olympic and Paralympic Committee, and Princess Reema bint Bandar Al Saud, a member of the IOC and the Saudi NOC.

Important Points

• IOC Esports Commission: The development of the games is overseen by the IOC Esports Commission, chaired by David Lappartient, which was established to explore the integration of virtual sports into the Olympic movement.
• Global Reach: As of 2024, there are estimated to be over 3 billion gamers worldwide, and the IOC's move into esports is a strategic effort to remain relevant in an increasingly digitalized sports landscape.
• Future Prospects: Following the 2025 debut in Saudi Arabia, the IOC intends to refine the selection of gaming titles, which may include physical virtual sports (like cycling on trainers) and traditional competitive video games that align with Olympic values$.

The correct answer is 30 June 2026.

Key Points

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI), in a notification issued in May 2025, announced significant relaxations in the Know Your Customer (KYC) updation norms to enhance customer convenience and ensure the continuity of financial services.
• As per the new guidelines, low-risk customers are allowed to continue their banking transactions without a fresh KYC update until 30 June 2026, even if their periodic updation is currently due.
• This extension is specifically aimed at low-risk individuals who have not had any change in their identification or address details, allowing them to provide a self-declaration through digital channels instead of visiting a branch.
• The primary objective behind this move is to reduce the administrative burden on Regulated Entities (REs) and prevent the sudden freezing of bank accounts, which often causes distress to genuine customers.
• The RBI has encouraged banks and other financial institutions to utilize V-CIP (Video-based Customer Identification Process) and other non-face-to-face channels to complete the re-KYC process before the revised deadline.

Additional Information

• Understanding KYC (Know Your Customer):
• KYC is a mandatory process for financial institutions to verify the identity and address of their customers to prevent money laundering, terrorist financing, and other illegal activities.
• It involves the submission of Officially Valid Documents (OVDs) such as Aadhaar, Passport, Voter ID, or Driving License.
• Risk Categorization in Banking:
• Customers are categorized into High, Medium, and Low risk based on their profile, occupation, and nature of transactions.
• Traditionally, High-risk customers require a KYC update every 2 years, Medium-risk every 8 years, and Low-risk every 10 years.
• The May 2025 relaxation specifically targets the Low-risk category to simplify their compliance journey.
• The Role of PMLA:
• The KYC guidelines are framed under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002, and the Prevention of Money Laundering (Maintenance of Records) Rules, 2005.
• Compliance with these rules is essential for the stability and integrity of the Indian financial system.
• Digital KYC and V-CIP:
• The V-CIP is a method of customer identification by an official of the Regulated Entity by undertaking a seamless, secure, real-time, online video call with the customer.
• It has become a popular alternative to physical visits, especially for re-KYC and opening new accounts.

Important Points

• Self-Declaration Policy: For low-risk customers, if there is no change in KYC information, a self-declaration submitted through registered email-id, registered mobile number, ATMs, or mobile apps is sufficient for re-KYC.
• Regulated Entities (REs): These include Commercial Banks, Regional Rural Banks, Cooperative Banks, NBFCs, and Payment System Operators regulated by the RBI.
• Account Freezing Rules: RBI has reiterated that accounts should not be frozen routinely without providing adequate notice and multiple reminders to the customer regarding KYC pendency.
• Master Direction: The overarching rules are governed by the RBI Master Direction - Know Your Customer (KYC) Direction, 2016, which is periodically updated to reflect changes in technology and regulatory policy.

The correct answer is India.

Key Points

• India is among the 37 countries scheduled to present its Voluntary National Review (VNR) at the High-Level Political Forum (HLPF) on Sustainable Development in July 2025.
• The HLPF 2025 is convened under the auspices of the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) of the United Nations to review the global progress of the 2030 Agenda.
• This marks India's third submission of the VNR, following its previous presentations in the years 2017 and 2020.
• The VNR process in India is spearheaded by NITI Aayog, which acts as the nodal agency for coordinating the implementation of Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) across the country.
• The report presented in 2025 highlights India's achievements and challenges in meeting the 17 SDGs, focusing on data-driven governance and inclusive growth.
• The July 2025 forum aims to reinforce international cooperation and share best practices among the 37 member states regarding social, economic, and environmental sustainability. Hence, the correct answer is India.

Additional Information

• High-Level Political Forum (HLPF):
• The HLPF was established in 2012 as a result of the Rio+20 Conference (United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development).
• It is the main United Nations platform for the follow-up and review of the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) at the global level.
• The forum meets annually in July for eight days under the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC).
• Voluntary National Reviews (VNRs):
• VNRs are the mechanism through which countries assess and present their national progress in implementing the 2030 Agenda.
• These reviews are state-led and voluntary, providing a platform for sharing experiences, including successes, challenges, and lessons learned.
• The objective is to accelerate SDG implementation through peer learning and international support.
• NITI Aayog and SDGs in India:
• NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) was formed on January 1, 2015, replacing the Planning Commission.
• It has developed the SDG India Index, which ranks States and Union Territories on their performance across various parameters like poverty, health, education, and gender equality.
• The 2025 VNR preparation involved extensive consultations with State Governments, Civil Society Organizations, and the Private Sector.
• Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs):
• The SDGs consist of 17 goals and 169 targets adopted by all United Nations Member States in 2015.
• Key goals include Goal 1 (No Poverty), Goal 5 (Gender Equality), Goal 7 (Affordable and Clean Energy), and Goal 13 (Climate Action).
• The deadline for achieving these global targets is 2030.

Important Points

• Participation Count: While various countries participate in HLPF, the specific cohort presenting VNRs varies each year. In 2025, the total count of presenting nations is 37.
• Previous Submissions: India presented its first VNR in 2017 and its second in 2020 during the COVID-19 pandemic, emphasizing resilient recovery.
• Location: The HLPF sessions traditionally take place at the United Nations Headquarters in New York.
• Theme of 2025: The discussions in July 2025 specifically address the "acceleration" of the 2030 Agenda as the world enters the final five-year countdown to the deadline.

The correct answer is Rory McIlroy.

Key Points

• Rory McIlroy made history by winning the 2025 Masters Tournament, becoming only the sixth male golfer to complete the Career Grand Slam.
• By securing the victory at Augusta National Golf Club, he joined an elite group of legendary golfers who have won all four modern major championships: Gene Sarazen, Ben Hogan, Gary Player, Jack Nicklaus, and Tiger Woods.
• The Masters Tournament was the final piece of the puzzle for McIlroy, who had been seeking the elusive Green Jacket for over a decade to complete his collection of major trophies.
• This achievement solidifies his legacy as one of the greatest golfers of the 21^st century, representing Northern Ireland on the global stage.
• The victory in 2025 ended a significant drought in major titles for McIlroy, whose previous major win occurred in 2014.

Additional Information

• Profile of Rory McIlroy:
• Born on May 4, 1989, in Holywood, Northern Ireland, he turned professional in 2007.
• Before his 2025 Masters win, his major championship record included the U.S. Open (2011), the PGA Championship (2012 and 2014), and The Open Championship (2014).
• He has spent over 100 weeks as the World Number One in the Official World Golf Ranking during his career.
• Other Golfers and the Grand Slam:
• Jordan Spieth: A three-time major winner who requires the PGA Championship to complete his Career Grand Slam.
• Phil Mickelson: A winner of five majors who has finished as runner-up in the U.S. Open six times, the only major he lacks.
• Tiger Woods: He completed his first Career Grand Slam at the age of 24 during the 2000 Open Championship, the youngest to ever do so.
• The Masters Tournament:
• Established in 1934, it is held annually at the Augusta National Golf Club in Georgia, USA.
• It is the only one of the four major championships that is played at the same location every year.
• The winner is traditionally presented with a Green Jacket, which must be returned to the clubhouse one year after the victory.

Important Points

• The Modern Grand Slam: In professional male golf, the Grand Slam consists of winning the Masters, the U.S. Open, The Open Championship (British Open), and the PGA Championship.
• Historical Context: Before the modern era, the Grand Slam consisted of the U.S. Open, U.S. Amateur, British Open, and British Amateur. Bobby Jones is the only golfer to win all four of these in a single calendar year (1930).
• Significance of 2025: Rory McIlroy's win is considered a landmark event in sports history, as the gap between his third and fourth different major titles spanned 11 years, demonstrating immense resilience and longevity in the sport of golf.

The correct answer is The Standing Committee of the National Board for Wildlife.

Key Points

• The Standing Committee of the National Board for Wildlife (NBWL), in its meeting held in July 2025, recommended a comprehensive revision of the ‘Guidelines for declaration of Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZ), 2011'.
• The original 2011 Guidelines were issued by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) to provide a framework for designating buffer zones around National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries.
• The decision to revise the guidelines stems from the need to streamline the ESZ notification process and address the administrative and legal challenges faced over the last decade.
• The committee highlighted that the updated guidelines would aim to better balance the ecological integrity of protected areas with the socio-economic development and livelihood rights of local communities residing in these zones. Hence, statement 2 is the correct answer.
• The revision is expected to provide clearer definitions of prohibited, regulated, and permitted activities, ensuring that conservation goals are met without causing undue hardship to the public.

Additional Information

• National Board for Wildlife (NBWL):
• It is a statutory body constituted under Section 5A of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
• The board is chaired by the Prime Minister of India, while the Standing Committee is chaired by the Minister of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
• It serves as the apex body for all wildlife-related matters, including the approval of projects inside and around Protected Areas.
• Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZ):
• ESZs are areas notified by the MoEFCC under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
• The primary objective is to create "shock absorbers" for protected areas by regulating human activities in the immediate vicinity.
• Generally, an ESZ can extend up to 10 kilometers around a National Park or Wildlife Sanctuary, though this distance can be increased or decreased based on specific ecological requirements.

Important Points

• Regulatory Framework of ESZ:
• Prohibited Activities: These include commercial mining, setting up of sawmills, polluting industries, and major hydroelectric projects.
• Regulated Activities: These include the felling of trees, establishment of hotels and resorts, drastic change of agriculture systems, and the commercial use of natural water resources.
• Permitted Activities: These include ongoing agriculture and horticulture practices by local communities, rainwater harvesting, and the use of renewable energy sources.
• Judicial Interventions: In 2022, the Supreme Court of India mandated a minimum 1 km ESZ for all protected areas, though this was later modified in 2023 to allow for area-specific flexibility, emphasizing that rigid boundaries may not be practical for every geographical location.

The correct answer is Exercise Suraksha Chakra.

Key Points

• Exercise Suraksha Chakra was the first major integrated multi-state mock drill conducted across the Delhi-NCR region, specifically designed to simulate a high-intensity earthquake scenario.
• The drill commenced on 1 August 2025 and was carried out simultaneously at 55 locations throughout the National Capital Region (NCR), including sensitive areas in Delhi, Uttar Pradesh, and Haryana.
• The primary objective of this exercise was to evaluate the disaster preparedness, inter-state coordination, and response time of various administrative and emergency services during a large-scale natural calamity.
• The exercise was organized under the aegis of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) in collaboration with the Delhi Disaster Management Authority (DDMA) and state-level disaster response units.
• This integrated drill focused on testing the Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) for emergency communication, debris clearance, medical triage, and the rescue of trapped individuals from high-rise buildings.

Additional Information

• Seismic Vulnerability of Delhi-NCR:
• The Delhi-NCR region falls under Seismic Zone IV, which is categorized as a High Damage Risk Zone. Proximity to active fault lines like the Sohna Fault and the Mahendragarh-Dehradun Fault necessitates frequent simulations like Exercise Suraksha Chakra.
• National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA):
• Headed by the Prime Minister of India, the NDMA is the apex body for disaster management, established under the Disaster Management Act, 2005. Its role is to lay down policies and guidelines for ensuring timely and effective responses to disasters.
• National Disaster Response Force (NDRF):
• The NDRF played a pivotal role in Exercise Suraksha Chakra. Established in 2006, it is a specialized force consisting of 12 battalions (as of recent data) trained for natural and man-made disasters including CBRN (Chemical, Biological, Radiological, and Nuclear) emergencies.
• Comparison with Other Exercises:
• While Exercise Suraksha Chakra is an internal disaster drill, Exercise Surya Kiran is a periodic bilateral military exercise conducted between the Indian Army and the Nepalese Army, primarily focusing on jungle warfare and counter-insurgency operations.
• Technological Integration:
• The drill utilized advanced tools such as Geographic Information Systems (GIS), drones for damage assessment, and satellite-based communication systems to ensure connectivity when traditional networks fail during an earthquake.

Important Points

• Multi-Agency Participation: The drill saw active involvement from the Indian Army, Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs), local Police Departments, Fire Services, and major Hospitals in the NCR.
• Public Awareness: A critical component of Exercise Suraksha Chakra was the community participation segment, where residents were educated on "Drop, Cover, and Hold On" techniques and the identification of emergency assembly points.
• Reporting and Feedback: Post-exercise, an After-Action Report (AAR) was drafted to identify gaps in inter-departmental logistics and to refine the Disaster Management Plans of the involved states.

The correct answer is Swarnim Bharat: Virasat aur Vikas.

Key Points

• India celebrated its 76^th Republic Day on January 26, 2025, with great fervor and national pride.
• The central theme for the 2025 celebrations was "Swarnim Bharat: Virasat aur Vikas", which translates to "Golden India: Heritage and Development".
• The theme was chosen to reflect India's dual commitment to preserving its rich cultural heritage (Virasat) while striving for rapid modern development (Vikas) towards the goal of Viksit Bharat by 2047.
• The Republic Day parade was held at the iconic Kartavya Path in New Delhi, showcasing the nation's military prowess, indigenous defense equipment, and diverse cultural tableaux.
• The celebration marked the 75^th anniversary of the adoption of the Constitution of India, emphasizing the strength of Indian democracy.

Additional Information

• Historical Significance: Republic Day commemorates the date on which the Constitution of India came into effect on January 26, 1950. While the Constitution was adopted on November 26, 1949, the 26^th of January was chosen because it was on this day in 1930 that the Purna Swaraj (Complete Independence) declaration was promulgated by the Indian National Congress.
• Viksit Bharat @2047: This is the government's vision to transform India into a developed nation by the centenary of its independence in 2047. The 2025 theme aligns with this long-term objective of economic growth and global leadership.
• Chief Guest Tradition: Every year, India invites a world leader as the Chief Guest for the Republic Day parade. For the 2025 celebrations, President Mohamed Muizzu of the Maldives was invited, highlighting India's "Neighborhood First" policy and maritime security cooperation.
• Previous Themes: In 2024, during the 75^th Republic Day, the themes were "Viksit Bharat" and "Bharat - Loktantra ki Matruka" (India - Mother of Democracy), focusing on women-led development and democratic values.
• Beating Retreat Ceremony: The Republic Day festivities conclude with the Beating Retreat ceremony on the evening of January 29 at Vijay Chowk, featuring performances by the bands of the Indian Army, Navy, and Air Force.

Important Points

• Constitutional Head: The President of India, currently Droupadi Murmu, unfurls the National Flag and takes the salute during the parade, as the President is the Constitutional Head of the State.
• Padma Awards: On the eve of Republic Day, the Government of India announces the Padma Awards, which are among the highest civilian honors in the country, categorized into Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan, and Padma Shri.
• Atmanirbhar Bharat: Recent parades have emphasized indigenization, featuring only Made-in-India weapon systems like the LCH Prachand, K-9 Vajra, and Nag anti-tank guided missiles to showcase self-reliance in defense.

The correct answer is Pranav Venkatesh.

Key Points

• Pranav Venkatesh, a highly acclaimed Grandmaster from India, emerged as the champion in the open section of the World Junior Atomic Chess Championship 2025.
• The prestigious tournament was hosted in the scenic coastal town of Petrovac, Montenegro, which is a frequent venue for international chess competitions.
• He secured the World Junior title by displaying exceptional tactical skills in the Atomic Chess variant, further solidifying his reputation as one of the most versatile young players in the global chess arena.
• Born in October 2006, the Chennai-based player has been a consistent performer in both classical and variant chess formats, representing the rising dominance of India in international chess.
• This victory in 2025 adds to his growing list of accolades, proving his proficiency in high-pressure junior-level championships.

Additional Information

• Atomic Chess Variant: Unlike standard chess, Atomic Chess is a variant where every capture results in an "explosion" that removes the capturing piece, the captured piece, and all non-pawn pieces in the eight surrounding squares. The game can end if a King is caught in an explosion.
• Pranav Venkatesh's Career: He became India's 75^th Grandmaster in August 2022 at the age of 15. He achieved his final GM norm at the Limpedea Cup held in Baia Mare, Romania.
• Petrovac, Montenegro: This location is a prominent hub for chess in Europe, having hosted events like the European Individual Chess Championship and various FIDE-rated youth tournaments.
• Other Participants:
• Pentala Harikrishna: A veteran Indian Grandmaster and former World Junior Champion (2004) who paved the way for the younger generation.
• GM Amar Elham: A young prodigy from Norway known for his sharp attacking style in junior circuits.
• Matic Lavrencic: A competitive player from Slovenia who has represented his country in various European youth divisions.

Important Points

• Age Eligibility: The World Junior Championship is specifically designated for players who are under the age of 20 as of January 1^st of the tournament year.
• India's Chess Growth: The success of players like Pranav Venkatesh highlights the effectiveness of the training ecosystems in Tamil Nadu, which has produced a significant percentage of India's Grandmasters.
• FIDE Recognition: While Atomic Chess is popular on online platforms like Lichess, specialized championships in Montenegro bring these variants to an over-the-board (OTB) professional setting, attracting top-tier talent.
• Historical Context: Pranav V crossed the 2500 ELO rating threshold early in his career, joining an elite group of Indian teenagers who have dominated the international chess rankings in the 2020s.

The correct answer is Hayli Gubbi.

Key Points

• Hayli Gubbi is a shield volcano located at the southern end of the Erta Ale volcanic range in the Afar Region of Ethiopia.
• In November 2025, the volcano garnered significant attention from the global scientific community after it erupted for the first time in recorded history. Prior to this event, the volcano was primarily known for its fumarolic activity and was considered relatively quiet compared to its neighbors.
• The volcano reaches an elevation of approximately 521 meters (1,709 feet) and is situated within the Danakil Depression, a tectonic plate junction that is one of the lowest and hottest places on Earth.
• This eruption is geologically significant because it provides new evidence regarding the magmatic processes occurring within the Afar Triple Junction, where the Nubian, Somali, and Arabian tectonic plates are pulling away from each other.
• Volcanologists monitor this region closely as the Erta Ale range is one of the most active volcanic chains in Africa, though Hayli Gubbi specifically had no prior historical record of a major lava-producing eruption.

Additional Information

• Mount Semeru:
• Located in East Java, Indonesia, Mount Semeru is the highest mountain on the island of Java.
• It is an active stratovolcano known for its frequent eruptions, often producing pyroclastic flows and lahars that pose significant risks to local populations.
• It is a prominent feature of the Bromo Tengger Semeru National Park and has been erupting almost continuously since 1967.
• Kilauea:
• Situated on the Big Island of Hawaii, USA, Kilauea is one of the most active shield volcanoes in the world.
• It is a hotspot volcano, meaning it is not located on a plate boundary but over a plume of magma rising through the Earth's crust.
• It is famous for its effusive eruptions and long-standing lava lakes, and it is a central part of the Hawaii Volcanoes National Park.
• Krasheninnikov:
• This is a complex volcanic system located on the Kamchatka Peninsula in Russia.
• It consists of two overlapping stratovolcanoes housed within a large caldera formed during the late Pleistocene epoch.
• The Kamchatka region is part of the Pacific Ring of Fire and contains one of the highest concentrations of active volcanoes in the world.
• Volcanism in Ethiopia:
• Ethiopia is home to more than 60 volcanoes, many of which are located along the Great Rift Valley.
• The Erta Ale volcano, also in the Afar region, is the most famous in the country, known for its persistent lava lake that has been active for decades.
• The tectonic activity in this region is slowly splitting the African continent apart, a process that will eventually lead to the formation of a new ocean basin.

Important Points

• Geological Context: The eruption of Hayli Gubbi in 2025 serves as a reminder of the unpredictable nature of dormant volcanoes in rift zones.
• Data Monitoring: Modern satellite technology and seismic sensors allow researchers to detect changes in ground deformation and gas emissions, which preceded the historical eruption of this Ethiopian volcano.
• Afar Triangle: This region is unique because it is the only place on Earth where a mid-ocean ridge can be studied on land, making the activity of volcanoes like Hayli Gubbi vital for geophysical research.