General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is 4.4% of GDP.

Key Points

• The Union Budget 2025-26 was presented by the Union Minister of Finance, Nirmala Sitharaman, in the Parliament of India.
• For the Financial Year 2025-26, the government has projected the fiscal deficit at 4.4% of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
• This target is part of a broad fiscal consolidation roadmap aimed at bringing the deficit down to a sustainable level below 4.5% of GDP.
• In the previous fiscal year, FY 2024-25, the Revised Estimate (RE) for the fiscal deficit was recorded at 4.9%, demonstrating a steady downward trend from the Budget Estimate (BE) of 5.1%.
• The reduction to 4.4% reflects the government's commitment to balancing macroeconomic stability with the need for high capital expenditure to spur economic growth.

Additional Information

• Fiscal Deficit: This is the difference between the government's total expenditure and its total non-debt receipts (which include revenue receipts and non-debt capital receipts like recovery of loans). It indicates the total borrowing requirements of the Government of India.
• Revenue Deficit: This occurs when the revenue expenditure exceeds the revenue receipts. It implies that the government is borrowing to meet its current consumption needs rather than for investment or asset creation.
• Primary Deficit: This is calculated by deducting interest payments on previous debts from the fiscal deficit. It shows the amount of borrowing needed to meet expenditures other than interest obligations.
• FRBM Act, 2003: The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act was introduced to ensure long-term macroeconomic stability by setting targets for the reduction of fiscal and revenue deficits.
• Financing the Deficit: The government typically finances the fiscal deficit through market borrowings (issuing dated securities and treasury bills), external debt, and drawing from small savings funds.

Important Points

• The Union Budget 2025-26 continues to prioritize Capital Expenditure (Capex), which is vital for building infrastructure such as highways, railways, and digital networks.
• A lower fiscal deficit helps in keeping inflation under control and prevents the "crowding out" effect, ensuring that more credit is available for the private sector.
• The Tax-to-GDP ratio is expected to improve in 2025-26 due to better GST compliance and a wider direct tax base, contributing to the consolidation process.
• The government intends to stick to the fiscal glide path to eventually reduce the debt-to-GDP ratio, which is a key metric for international credit rating agencies.

The correct answer is Rajnath Singh.

Key Points

• Rajnath Singh, the Union Minister of Defence of India, attended the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) Defence Ministers' Conclave held in June 2025.
• As the Defence Minister, he has been a consistent representative for India at high-level security dialogues, focusing on regional stability and military cooperation across the Eurasian landmass.
• During the conclave, the Indian delegation emphasized the importance of a multipolar world and the need for collective action against transborder terrorism.
• The meeting provided a platform for India to engage in bilateral discussions with other member states, including Russia and Central Asian Republics, to strengthen strategic partnerships. Hence, the statement regarding Rajnath Singh is correct.
• The Defence Ministers' Conclave is an annual event where the heads of defense departments from SCO member nations deliberate on defense industry collaboration and joint military exercises.

Additional Information

• Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO):
• The SCO is a permanent intergovernmental international organization established on 15 June 2001 in Shanghai, China.
• It was founded by the leaders of China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan.
• India and Pakistan officially joined as full members during the Astana Summit in June 2017.
• In July 2023, Iran was formally inducted as the ninth permanent member of the SCO.
• Structure and Objectives:
• The Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS), headquartered in Tashkent, is a permanent organ of the SCO which facilitates cooperation against terrorism, separatism, and extremism.
• The organization covers approximately 40% of the global population and nearly 20% of the global GDP.
• The primary goals include strengthening mutual trust and neighborliness among member states and promoting effective cooperation in politics, trade, economy, and technology.
• India's Role in SCO:
• India hosted the SCO Council of Heads of State summit for the first time in virtual mode in July 2023 under the theme "SECURE-SCO".
• The acronym SECURE stands for Security, Economy, Connectivity, Unity, Respect, and Environment, a concept proposed by Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
• India's engagement with the SCO is driven by its "Connect Central Asia" policy and its interest in the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC).

Important Points

• Regional Security Dynamics: The SCO is often viewed as an "Alliance of the East" and plays a critical role in balancing Western influence in Central Asia.
• Military Exercises: Member states regularly participate in "Peace Mission" joint military counter-terrorism exercises to improve interoperability among their armed forces.
• Expansion: Recent years have seen Belarus moving towards full membership, indicating the growing geopolitical footprint of the organization in Eastern Europe and Asia.

The correct answer is P R Sreejesh.

Key Points

• P R Sreejesh, the legendary Indian hockey goalkeeper, announced his retirement from international hockey, concluding an illustrious 18-year career after the Paris 2024 Olympics.
• He made his senior international debut in 2006 at the South Asian Games in Colombo and became a permanent fixture in the Indian squad since 2011.
• Sreejesh played a pivotal role in India winning two consecutive Olympic Bronze medals at Tokyo 2020 and Paris 2024, ending a long medal drought for the country in hockey.
• Over his career, he represented India in over 330 international matches and participated in four Olympic Games (2012, 2016, 2020, and 2024).
• He served as the captain of the Indian national team during the 2016 Rio Olympics and led the team to the silver medal at the 2016 Champions Trophy.

Additional Information

• Awards and Recognitions:
• In 2021, Sreejesh was honored with the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award, which is the highest sporting honor in India.
• He was awarded the Padma Shri, India's fourth-highest civilian award, in 2017 for his contributions to sports.
• He was named the World Games Athlete of the Year for 2021, becoming only the second Indian after Rani Rampal to achieve this feat.
• Sreejesh won the FIH Goalkeeper of the Year award for two consecutive years in 2021 and 2022.
• Major Achievements:
• He won the Gold Medal at the 2014 Incheon Asian Games and the 2022 Hangzhou Asian Games.
• He was part of the team that secured the Gold Medal at the 2011, 2016, 2018, and 2023 Asian Champions Trophy.
• Following his retirement, he was appointed as the Head Coach of the India U-21 Men's Hockey Team to nurture future talent.

Important Points

• Personal Background: Born on May 8, 1988, in Kizhakkambalam, Kerala, Sreejesh is often referred to as "The Wall of Indian Hockey" due to his exceptional goalkeeping skills.
• Historic Save: His most iconic moment came during the Tokyo 2020 Olympics bronze medal match against Germany, where he made a crucial save from a penalty corner in the final 6.8 seconds to secure the 5-4 win.
• Transition to Coaching: His retirement marks the end of an era, but his transition to coaching ensures his vast experience in international hockey continues to benefit Hockey India and the development of junior goalkeepers.
• Legacy: He is widely regarded as one of the greatest goalkeepers in the history of the sport, alongside legends like Shankar Lakshman.

The correct answer is 23^rd.

Key Points

• According to the latest data provided, India has secured the 23^rd position in the Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) 2026.
• The CCPI is an independent monitoring tool that tracks the climate protection performance of 63 countries and the European Union, which collectively account for over 90% of global greenhouse gas emissions.
• The index is published annually by Germanwatch, the NewClimate Institute, and the Climate Action Network (CAN) International to enhance transparency in international climate politics.
• The rankings are determined by a standardized framework that allows for a comparison of climate protection efforts across different nations.
• The CCPI 2026 assessment highlights how countries are aligning their national strategies with the goals set under the Paris Agreement to limit global warming.

Additional Information

• Four Pillars of CCPI: The index evaluates performance based on four categories with specific weightages: Greenhouse Gas Emissions (40%), Renewable Energy (20%), Energy Use (20%), and Climate Policy (20%).
• Empty Top Three Ranks: A unique feature of the CCPI is that the first three ranks are typically left vacant. This is because no single country has yet performed well enough in all categories to be on a path compatible with the 1.5°C goal of the Paris Agreement.
• Publication History: The Climate Change Performance Index was first published in 2005. It serves as a vital resource for non-governmental organizations and policymakers to pressure governments for more ambitious climate action.
• India's Climate Trajectory: India has historically performed well in the Renewable Energy and GHG Emissions categories due to its low per capita emissions and massive scale-up of solar and wind power projects.
• Methodology: The Climate Policy category is evaluated based on expert assessments from local NGOs and think tanks within each country, ensuring a mix of quantitative data and qualitative policy review.

Important Points

• The 23^rd rank indicates a shift in the global competitive landscape of climate action, emphasizing the need for India to further accelerate its transition toward a Net Zero economy by its target year of 2070.
• Significant contributors to a country's score include its Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) and the implementation of domestic laws like the Energy Conservation Act in the context of India.
• The index often features Nordic countries like Denmark and Sweden near the top of the list, serving as benchmarks for climate policy and renewable integration.

The correct answer is BRICS.

Key Points

• The 17^th BRICS Summit is scheduled to be held in July 2025 under the Presidency of Brazil.
• The theme of the summit is 'Strengthening Global South Cooperation for a More Inclusive and Sustainable Governance', reflecting the group's focus on amplifying the voices of developing nations in the international arena.
• This summit is particularly significant as it continues the momentum of the BRICS expansion that took place during the 15^th Summit in South Africa and the 16^th Summit in Russia.
• The primary objectives of the 2025 summit include promoting multilateralism, reforming global financial institutions, and enhancing south-south cooperation to address challenges like climate change and economic inequality.
• The Brazilian presidency aims to use this platform to advocate for sustainable development and a more equitable global governance system that represents the current geopolitical realities. Hence, the correct answer is BRICS.

Additional Information

• Evolution of BRICS:
• The acronym BRIC was first coined by Jim O'Neill of Goldman Sachs in 2001 to describe the fast-growing economies of Brazil, Russia, India, and China.
• The first formal summit took place in Yekaterinburg, Russia, in 2009. With the induction of South Africa in 2010, the group was renamed BRICS.
• BRICS Expansion (BRICS+):
• In a historic move during the 2023 Johannesburg Summit, the group invited new members to join. As of January 1, 2024, nations including Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, and the United Arab Emirates (UAE) became full members.
• This expansion significantly increases the group's share of the global population and its control over global energy resources, particularly oil and gas.
• Key Institutions:
• New Development Bank (NDB): Formerly known as the BRICS Development Bank, it is headquartered in Shanghai, China. It aims to mobilize resources for infrastructure and sustainable development projects in BRICS and other emerging economies.
• Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA): A framework designed to provide protection against global liquidity pressures and provide mutual support during financial crises.
• Global Economic Impact:
• The BRICS nations combined represent over 40% of the world's population and contribute more than 30% of the global Gross Domestic Product (GDP) based on Purchasing Power Parity (PPP).
• The group serves as a counterweight to the G7 and seeks to challenge the dominance of the US Dollar in international trade through initiatives like local currency settlements.

The correct answer is New Delhi.

Key Points

• The Quality Council of India (QCI), acting as the national custodian of accreditation in India, commemorated World Accreditation Day 2025 in New Delhi.
• World Accreditation Day is a global initiative established by the International Laboratory Accreditation Cooperation (ILAC) and the International Accreditation Forum (IAF) to raise awareness about the importance of accreditation.
• The event, held on June 9, 2025, brought together various stakeholders, including government officials, industry leaders, and accreditation bodies, to discuss the role of quality standards in national development.
• The celebration in New Delhi focused on how accreditation supports the implementation of Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) and enhances the global competitiveness of Indian products and services.
• As the apex body for quality, QCI utilizes this platform to strengthen the quality ecosystem in India under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

Additional Information

• Quality Council of India (QCI):
• It was established in 1997 as an autonomous body through a Cabinet decision.
• It was set up jointly by the Government of India and the Indian industry represented by three premier industry associations: ASSOCHAM, CII, and FICCI.
• The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, is the nodal department for QCI.
• The Chairperson of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister of India based on the recommendation of the industry. Jaxay Shah was appointed to this position in October 2022.
• Constituent Boards of QCI:
• NABL: National Accreditation Board for Testing and Calibration Laboratories, which provides accreditation to laboratories.
• NABH: National Accreditation Board for Hospitals & Healthcare Providers, focusing on quality standards in the healthcare sector.
• NABET: National Accreditation Board for Education and Training, which works on improving standards in vocational and school education.
• NABCB: National Accreditation Board for Certification Bodies, which accredits organizations offering certification and inspection services.

Important Points

• Significance of Accreditation: It provides a formal recognition that an organization is competent to perform specific tasks, thereby reducing risk and increasing consumer confidence.
• Global Context: India is a signatory to the ILAC Mutual Recognition Arrangement (MRA) and IAF Multilateral Recognition Arrangement (MLA), ensuring that Indian accreditations are recognized in over 100 countries.
• Economic Impact: By adhering to international quality standards, Indian exporters can overcome Technical Barriers to Trade (TBT), facilitating smoother entry into international markets.
• World Accreditation Day History: The first World Accreditation Day was celebrated in 2008, and since then, it has been observed annually on June 9 with a unique theme each year focusing on different aspects of quality and trade.

The correct answer is New Zealand.

Key Points

• The government of New Zealand, through the New Zealand Qualifications Authority (NZQA), officially added India to its List of Qualifications Exempt from Assessment (LQEA) in June 2024 (with updates continuing into 2025).
• This move is designed to streamline the immigration process for Indian nationals by recognizing specific qualifications without the need for a separate International Qualification Assessment (IQA).
• The LQEA inclusion applies specifically to high-level qualifications, including Bachelor’s degrees, Master’s degrees, and Doctorates awarded by recognized Indian universities.
• This decision primarily supports the Skilled Migrant Category (SMC) Resident Visa, making it easier for skilled professionals from India to claim points for their education.
• By adding India to this list, New Zealand aims to reduce the administrative burden and financial costs for migrants, as they no longer need to pay for individual assessments for the listed qualifications.

Additional Information

• List of Qualifications Exempt from Assessment (LQEA):
• The LQEA is a critical tool used by Immigration New Zealand to determine if an overseas qualification is comparable to a New Zealand Qualification Framework (NZQF) level.
• Qualifications on this list are pre-verified, meaning the NZQA has already determined their equivalence to New Zealand standards.
• Prior to this inclusion, many Indian applicants had to undergo a rigorous IQA process, which could take several weeks and cost approximately NZD 445.
• Scope of Indian Qualifications:
• The exemption covers various fields, with a significant focus on Engineering, Information Technology, and Science.
• For a qualification to be exempt, it must be awarded by an institution recognized by India's University Grants Commission (UGC) and must fall within the specified effective dates (often starting from 1990, 2005, or 2015 depending on the degree).
• Professional degrees like the Bachelor of Engineering and Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery (MBBS) are often subject to specific verification by professional bodies in New Zealand.
• Bilateral Relations:
• The inclusion reflects the growing strategic partnership between India and New Zealand, particularly in the sectors of education, trade, and labor mobility.
• It acknowledges the high quality of India's higher education system and the significant contribution of the Indian diaspora to the New Zealand economy.

Important Points

• Criteria for Exemption: To benefit from the LQEA, the applicant's year of graduation must match the dates specified in the NZQA database. If the degree was awarded before the start date mentioned in the list, an Individual Assessment is still required.
• NZQF Levels: Most Indian Bachelor's degrees are equated to NZQF Level 7, while Master's degrees generally align with NZQF Level 9.
• Other Countries: Other nations sharing this exempt status with New Zealand include the United Kingdom, Australia, Canada, South Africa, and the United States. India's addition marks a major milestone for South Asian educational recognition.

The correct answer is Sports Business Journal's Lifetime Achievement Award.

Key Points

• David Hill, the legendary television executive and former leader of Fox Sports, has been selected as the recipient of the Sports Business Journal’s Lifetime Achievement Award for 2025.
• This prestigious award recognizes individuals who have made a significant and enduring impact on the sports business landscape through innovation, leadership, and visionary contributions.
• The ceremony to honor Hill is scheduled to take place during the 18^th annual Sports Business Awards on May 21, 2025, in New York City.
• David Hill is widely celebrated for revolutionizing sports broadcasting, most notably by introducing the constant score and clock graphic (known as the Fox Box) during NFL and MLB broadcasts.
• Throughout his career, he has been a transformative figure at News Corp, Sky Sports, and Fox, fundamentally changing how fans across the United States and the United Kingdom consume live sports.

Additional Information

• Sports Business Journal (SBJ):
• It is a leading national weekly trade publication that provides comprehensive coverage of the sports industry, including marketing, media, and facility development.
• The Lifetime Achievement Award is one of its highest honors, previously awarded to icons such as Billie Jean King, Jerry Jones, and Dick Ebersol.
• Career of David Hill:
• Born in Australia, Hill began his career in journalism before moving into television production.
• In the 1990s, he moved to the United States to help launch Fox Sports after the network famously outbid CBS for the NFL's NFC package in 1994.
• He served as the Chairman and CEO of Fox Sports and later as the President of Fox Sports Media Group, overseeing major events like the Super Bowl, World Series, and Daytona 500.
• Technical Innovations:
• Beyond the Fox Box, Hill was instrumental in developing the FoxTrax (the "glowing puck") for the NHL and enhancing the audio quality of NASCAR broadcasts to make viewers feel closer to the action.
• His work emphasized the entertainment aspect of sports, integrating music, dynamic graphics, and innovative camera angles.

Important Points

• Global Influence: Before his success in America, David Hill played a critical role in the 1991 launch of Sky Sports in the United Kingdom, which transformed the English Premier League into a global media powerhouse.
• Industry Impact: The 2025 award highlights his ability to blend technology with storytelling, a legacy that continues to influence every major sports network today, including ESPN, NBC, and Turner Sports.
• Recognition: In addition to the SBJ honor, Hill has won multiple Sports Emmy Awards and is a member of the Sports Broadcasting Hall of Fame (inducted in 2017).

The correct answer is Indian AI Research Organization.

Key Points

• The Indian AI Research Organization (often referred to in the context of the IndiaAI Innovation Centre) is a pivotal institution designed to be the cornerstone of India’s technological advancement in the field of Artificial Intelligence.
• This organization is scheduled to be established at GIFT City (Gujarat International Finance Tec-City) in Gandhinagar, with operations expected to commence from the beginning of 2026.
• The primary mandate of the organization is to strengthen the domestic AI ecosystem by facilitating high-level collaboration between government bodies, private industry players, and academic institutions.
• It functions as a central part of the IndiaAI Mission, aiming to develop indigenous Foundational Models and Large Language Models (LLMs) tailored to the Indian context and languages.
• The establishment aims to reduce India's dependence on foreign AI technologies by fostering Research and Development (R&D) and creating a robust pipeline for AI talent and intellectual property.

Additional Information

• The IndiaAI Mission: Approved by the Union Cabinet in March 2024, the mission has a total financial outlay of Rs. 10,372.92 crore. It is implemented by the IndiaAI Independent Business Division (IBD) under the Digital India Corporation.
• Computing Infrastructure: A significant portion of the mission involves the IndiaAI Supercomputing Capacity, which aims to establish a high-end scalable AI computing ecosystem with 10,000 or more GPUs (Graphics Processing Units) through public-private partnerships.
• GIFT City, Gandhinagar: As India's first International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) and a dedicated Smart City, it provides a regulatory-friendly environment and world-class infrastructure, making it an ideal location for global tech hubs and research organizations.
• IndiaAI Datasets Platform: This initiative under the mission will provide non-personal datasets to Indian startups and researchers, ensuring they have the high-quality data necessary to train complex AI models.
• Socio-Economic Applications: The research conducted will focus on critical sectors such as Healthcare, Agriculture, and Education, utilizing AI to solve large-scale problems specific to the Indian population and geography.

Important Points

• Ministry Involvement: The initiative is spearheaded by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) to ensure India remains competitive in the global AI race.
• Startup Support: The IndiaAI Startup Financing pillar is designed to provide streamlined funding and support for deep-tech startups, enabling them to move from prototypes to commercial products.
• Future Skills: The mission includes IndiaAI FutureSkills, which focuses on increasing the availability of AI courses at undergraduate, graduate, and post-graduate levels to build a workforce of AI professionals.
• Data Governance: The framework emphasizes ethical AI development and data privacy, aligning with India's broader digital governance goals and the Digital Personal Data Protection Act.

The correct answer is ₹11.21 lakh crore.

Key Points

• The Government of India, under the leadership of Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman, has significantly increased the outlay for Capital Expenditure (CapEx) to drive economic growth.
• For the upcoming fiscal cycle, the estimated capital expenditure allocation has been set at ₹11.21 lakh crore, which is a substantial rise intended to modernize infrastructure across the nation.
• This allocation reflects the government's commitment to the "Viksit Bharat" vision, focusing on long-term asset creation rather than short-term consumption.
• The ₹11.21 lakh crore figure represents approximately 3.4% of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP), indicating a massive push towards capital-intensive projects.
• This funding is primarily directed toward the Ministry of Railways, Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, and the Power sector to improve connectivity and logistical efficiency.

Additional Information

• Understanding Capital Expenditure (CapEx):
• Capital Expenditure refers to the funds used by the government to acquire, upgrade, and maintain physical assets such as roads, bridges, tunnels, and railway lines.
• Unlike revenue expenditure, which covers operational costs like salaries and pensions, CapEx has a multiplier effect on the economy, creating jobs and boosting private investment.
• The steady increase from ₹10 lakh crore in FY 2023-24 to the current levels demonstrates a consistent strategy of infrastructure-led development.
• Fiscal Deficit and Management:
• The Ministry of Finance aims to manage this high CapEx while maintaining a path of fiscal consolidation.
• The target is to reduce the Fiscal Deficit to below 4.5% by FY 2025-26, balancing growth with financial stability.
• Higher Capital Expenditure is often funded through market borrowings, but the resulting asset creation helps in servicing debt through increased tax revenues in the long run.

Important Points

• Support to State Governments:
• The Union Budget continues the scheme of 50-year interest-free loans to state governments for capital investment.
• An outlay of ₹1.3 lakh crore is often earmarked within these broader schemes to encourage states to undertake urban reforms and infrastructure projects.
• Economic Impact:
• Investment in Capital Expenditure is expected to crowd-in private investment, which had been sluggish in previous years.
• Projects like the PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan are integrated with this funding to ensure multi-modal connectivity across the country.
• Large-scale allocations help in the timely completion of national projects like the Dedicated Freight Corridors and Expressways.

The correct answer is Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft.

Key Points

• The Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA) is India’s indigenous program to develop a 5.5 Generation stealth multi-role fighter aircraft.
• During Aero India 2025, held at Air Force Station Yelahanka in Bengaluru, the DRDO (Defence Research and Development Organisation) showcased the progress and the stealth features of the AMCA.
• The project is spearheaded by the Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA) in collaboration with Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL).
• It is designed to possess stealth characteristics, including a low Radar Cross-Section (RCS), achieved through a special airframe design, internal weapons bays, and the use of Radar Absorbent Materials (RAM).
• The AMCA is intended to be a twin-engine aircraft capable of supercruise (supersonic flight without using afterburners) and equipped with advanced AESA radar and integrated avionics.

Additional Information

• LCA Tejas Mk-2:
• This is a 4.5-generation medium-weight fighter currently under development to replace the Mirage 2000, Jaguar, and MiG-29 fleets of the Indian Air Force.
• It features a more powerful GE-F414 engine compared to the Mk-1 and has a higher payload capacity.
• TEDBF (Twin Engine Deck Based Fighter):
• This is a carrier-based multi-role combat aircraft being developed for the Indian Navy.
• It is intended to operate from India's indigenous aircraft carrier, INS Vikrant, and the INS Vikramaditya, replacing the MiG-29K.
• Advanced Light Weight Torpedo (ALWT):
• This refers to naval ammunition rather than an aircraft; it is an anti-submarine weapon developed by NSTL (Naval Science and Technological Laboratory) under DRDO.
• Stealth Technology:
• Stealth technology involves techniques used to make aircraft, ships, or missiles less visible to radar, infrared, and sonar detection.
• The AMCA incorporates a "serpentine" intake duct to shield the engine fan blades, which are a major source of radar reflection.

Important Points

• Phased Development: The AMCA is planned to be developed in two phases: Mark-1 (equipped with US-made GE-414 engines) and Mark-2 (which aims to use a more powerful indigenous engine currently being planned in collaboration with international partners).
• Aero India 2025: This is the 15^th edition of the biennial air show, serving as a major hub for the "Make in India" initiative in the defense and aerospace sectors.
• Operational Timeline: The first prototype of the AMCA is expected to be rolled out by 2028-2029, with flight testing commencing shortly after.
• Strategic Significance: With the successful induction of AMCA, India will join a select group of nations, including the USA (F-22, F-35), Russia (Su-57), and China (J-20), that possess indigenous fifth-generation stealth fighter technology.

The correct answer is Chakshu.

Key Points

• The Government of India launched the Chakshu facility on March 4, 2024, as a significant step towards enhancing citizen security in the telecommunications sector.
• Chakshu is an integrated feature of the Sanchar Saathi portal (sancharsaathi.gov.in), developed by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT).
• The platform allows citizens to proactively report suspected fraudulent communications received through calls, SMS, or social media platforms like WhatsApp. Hence, the statement regarding its function is correct.
• It specifically targets reporting for scams related to KYC updates, bank account or SIM card deactivation threats, gas connection issues, and impersonation of government officials or relatives.
• The initiative aims to create a secure digital ecosystem by allowing the DoT to identify and block mobile numbers and resources used by cyber-criminals before they can cause financial harm.

Additional Information

• Digital Intelligence Platform (DIP):
• Alongside Chakshu, the Union Minister for Communications, Ashwini Vaishnaw, launched the Digital Intelligence Platform (DIP).
• The DIP is a non-public portal designed for real-time information sharing and coordination among Telecom Service Providers (TSPs), Law Enforcement Agencies (LEAs), and Financial Institutions.
• It helps in identifying the misuse of telecom resources and aids in the investigation of cyber-crimes and financial frauds.
• Sanchar Saathi Portal:
• This is a citizen-centric initiative of the Department of Telecommunications to empower mobile subscribers.
• Other key features include CEIR (Central Equipment Identity Register) for blocking lost or stolen mobiles and TAFCOP to check the number of mobile connections taken in one's name.
• Reporting Mechanism:
• If a user has already fallen victim to a financial fraud or cyber-crime, they should not use Chakshu; instead, they must report it to the cyber-crime helpline number 1930 or visit the official portal at www.cybercrime.gov.in.
• Chakshu is strictly for suspected fraud attempts rather than reported losses.

Important Points

• Impact of Telecom Security: Since the inception of the Sanchar Saathi portal, the government has successfully disconnected over 1 crore mobile connections obtained through fraudulent means.
• Legal Framework: These initiatives are backed by the Telecommunications Act, 2023, which provides the necessary legal teeth to handle spam and fraudulent activities.
• Proactive Action: By reporting on Chakshu, a user helps the Department of Telecommunications to trigger re-verification of the suspect number. If the re-verification fails, the SIM card is disconnected immediately.
• Future Scope: The platform is expected to evolve to include AI-based detection of phishing links and automated spam filtering in collaboration with TSPs like Airtel, Jio, and VI.

The correct answer is László Krasznahorkai.

Key Points

• The Swedish Academy announced László Krasznahorkai as the winner of the Nobel Prize in Literature for the year 2025.
• László Krasznahorkai is a highly acclaimed Hungarian novelist and screenwriter known for his demanding and complex prose, often featuring incredibly long sentences and a distinct, recursive style.
• He was awarded the prize for his "enigmatic and grand narratives that capture the intensity of human experience and the disintegration of reality." Hence, the correct answer is László Krasznahorkai.
• His most famous works include the 1985 novel Satantango and the 1989 masterpiece The Melancholy of Resistance, both of which were adapted into acclaimed films by director Béla Tarr.
• With this win, he becomes the second Hungarian author to receive this prestigious honor, following Imre Kertész who won in 2002.
• The author's literary career spans several decades, beginning with his debut in 1977, and he has previously won the International Booker Prize in 2015.

Additional Information

• Ernest Hemingway:
• He was an American novelist and short-story writer who won the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1954.
• He is best known for his "iceberg theory" of writing and classic works like The Old Man and the Sea and A Farewell to Arms. Statement 1 is incorrect as he won in the mid-20^th century.
• John Steinbeck:
• An American author who received the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1962.
• His writing often focused on the social and economic issues of the Great Depression, notably in The Grapes of Wrath and Of Mice and Men. Statement 3 is incorrect.
• George Orwell:
• The British author of 1984 and Animal Farm never won a Nobel Prize in Literature during his lifetime.
• He passed away in January 1950, and the Nobel Prize is generally not awarded posthumously. Statement 4 is incorrect.

Important Points

• The Nobel Prize in Literature:
• It has been awarded annually since 1901, according to the will of Alfred Nobel.
• The selection is made by the 18 members of the Swedish Academy based in Stockholm.
• The prize includes a gold medal, a diploma, and a cash award, which in 2024 and 2025 was approximately 11 million Swedish krona (SEK).
• Criteria for the award include the author producing "in the field of literature the most outstanding work in an ideal direction."
• Significance of the 2025 Award:
• The choice of László Krasznahorkai highlights the Swedish Academy's continued interest in deep, philosophical European literature.
• His works are often described as post-modernist and dystopian, reflecting the anxieties of late 20^th-century and early 21^st-century society.

The correct answer is 5.3 years.

Key Points

• The 2023 Air Quality Life Index (AQLI) report, published by the Energy Policy Institute at the University of Chicago (EPIC), reveals that air pollution is the single greatest threat to human health in India.
• According to the study, the average Indian resident is set to lose 5.3 years of life expectancy due to PM2.5 pollution if current levels persist, relative to the World Health Organization (WHO) guideline of 5 µg/m³.
• The report highlights that 100% of India's population lives in areas where the annual average particulate pollution level exceeds the WHO guideline.
• In comparison to other health risks, particulate pollution reduces life expectancy more than cardiovascular diseases (which shorten life by 4.5 years) and tobacco use (which shortens life by 2.8 years).
• The AQLI data is based on pollution levels recorded in 2021, and it underscores that India is the world's second most polluted country after Bangladesh.

Additional Information

• The Indo-Gangetic Plain (IGP):
• This region is identified as the most polluted area in India, housing more than 500 million people (about 38.9% of the population).
• Residents of the IGP are on track to lose about 7.8 years of life expectancy if the 2021 pollution levels continue.
• Impact on Delhi:
• Delhi is cited as the most polluted city in the world. In the national capital, residents could gain 11.9 years of life expectancy if pollution were reduced to meet the WHO standards.
• Even if India meets its own National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) of 40 µg/m³, Delhi residents could still gain 8.5 years of life.
• Definition of PM2.5:
• PM2.5 refers to atmospheric particulate matter that has a diameter of less than 2.5 micrometers.
• These fine particles are hazardous because they can penetrate deep into the lungs and enter the bloodstream, causing respiratory and cardiovascular issues.
• South Asia Context:
• The region of South Asia (including India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, and Nepal) accounts for more than half of the total life years lost globally due to pollution.
• Between 1998 and 2021, average annual particulate pollution in India increased by 67.7%, further reducing life expectancy.

Important Points

• National Clean Air Programme (NCAP):
• Launched in January 2019 by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), NCAP is a long-term strategy to tackle air pollution.
• The programme initially aimed for a 20% to 30% reduction in PM2.5 and PM10 concentrations by 2024 (taking 2017 as the base year).
• The target was later updated to achieve a 40% reduction in particulate matter concentration in 131 cities by the year 2026.
• WHO Guidelines:
• In September 2021, the World Health Organization updated its Global Air Quality Guidelines (AQGs), reducing the safe annual average limit for PM2.5 from 10 µg/m³ to 5 µg/m³.
• This change reflects the increased scientific evidence of the harmful effects of air pollution even at very low concentrations.

The correct answer is Madhav National Park.

Key Points

• In March 2025, the Government of India officially notified Madhav National Park as the 58^th Tiger Reserve of the country.
• It is located in the Shivpuri district of Madhya Pradesh and spans an area of approximately 354 square kilometers.
• The designation was finalized following the recommendation and approval of the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) to ensure better protection and habitat management for the big cats.
• This declaration makes Madhav National Park the eighth tiger reserve in the state of Madhya Pradesh, further strengthening its reputation as India’s "Tiger State".
• The primary objective of this designation is to facilitate the re-establishment of a breeding tiger population in the Gwalior-Chambal region, where tigers had historically roamed but had disappeared over the decades.
• Hence, the correct answer is Madhav National Park.

Additional Information

• Panna National Park:
• Located in Panna and Chhatarpur districts of Madhya Pradesh, it was declared a Tiger Reserve in 1994.
• It is famous for its successful Tiger Reintroduction Project started in 2009 after the local tiger population had vanished.
• It is also home to the Ken River, which is part of the Ken-Betwa river linking project.
• Pench National Park:
• This park straddles the border of Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra. It was designated a Tiger Reserve in 1992.
• It served as the inspiration for Rudyard Kipling’s famous work, "The Jungle Book", featuring the character Mowgli.
• The park is named after the Pench River that flows through it from north to south.
• Kuno National Park:
• Located in the Sheopur district of Madhya Pradesh, it gained global attention in September 2022.
• It is the site for the Action Plan for Introduction of Cheetah in India, where African Cheetahs from Namibia and South Africa were released.
• While it hosts a variety of predators, it has not yet been designated as a primary Tiger Reserve.
• Madhav National Park History:
• Established in 1958, it was named after Madho Rao Scindia, the Maharaja of Gwalior.
• The park features the Sakhya Sagar Lake, a Ramsar site, and the George Castle, built at the highest point for King George V.

Important Points

• Project Tiger: Launched on April 1, 1973, from Jim Corbett National Park, it is a major conservation program to protect the National Animal of India.
• National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA): A statutory body constituted under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, responsible for the management of Tiger Reserves.
• Conservation Status: Tigers are listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List and are included in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
• Ecological Corridor: The Madhav Tiger Reserve is vital as it acts as a bridge between the Ranthambore Tiger Reserve in Rajasthan and the Kuno-Panna landscape, facilitating the natural dispersal of wildlife.
• Tiger Census: India conducts a National Tiger Estimation every four years. According to recent reports, India holds more than 75% of the world's wild tiger population.

The correct answer is Deepti Sharma.

Key Points

• The ICC Women’s Cricket World Cup 2025 was the 13^th edition of the premier 50-over international tournament, hosted by India across various iconic venues.
• Deepti Sharma was adjudged the Player of the Tournament for her remarkable consistency and all-round brilliance throughout the competition. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• As a versatile off-spinner and left-handed batter, she played a pivotal role in India’s journey to winning their maiden World Cup title, contributing significantly in both departments.
• During the tournament, Deepti Sharma scalped 18 wickets at an impressive economy rate and scored over 300 runs, often anchoring the middle order during pressure situations.
• Her ability to deliver under pressure was most evident in the semi-finals and finals, where her tactical bowling in the middle overs restricted the opposition's scoring rate.
• Jemimah Rodrigues provided stability to the batting order and played several match-winning cameos, but she was not the recipient of the tournament's top individual honor. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Shafali Verma was known for her explosive starts at the top of the order, providing India with high-scoring powerplays, yet she did not win the overall player award. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Smriti Mandhana finished as one of the highest run-scorers of the tournament, hitting multiple centuries, but the Player of the Tournament was awarded to Sharma for her dual-role impact. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• ICC Women’s Cricket World Cup:
• The Women’s World Cup is the oldest world championship in cricket, with the first edition held in England in 1973, two years before the first men's tournament.
• The 2025 edition marked a significant milestone as India hosted the event solely, boosting the popularity of women's sports in the subcontinent.
• Historically, Australia has been the most successful team, winning the title 7 times prior to the 2025 event.
• Deepti Sharma’s Career Highlights:
• Born in Agra, Uttar Pradesh, she made her international debut in 2014.
• She holds the record for the highest individual score by an Indian woman in ODIs, scoring 188 against Ireland in 2017.
• She is a prominent figure in franchise cricket, representing teams in the Women’s Premier League (WPL) and The Hundred.

Important Points

• Smriti Mandhana, who captained a few matches and opened the batting, was the vice-captain of the Indian team during this victorious campaign.
• The 2025 World Cup Final was held at the Narendra Modi Stadium in Ahmedabad, witnessing a record-breaking crowd for a women’s cricket match in India.
• The International Cricket Council (ICC) increased the prize money for the 2025 tournament to ensure pay parity with the men’s equivalent events, a historic move for the sport.
• Other notable performers included Sophie Ecclestone (England) for bowling and Beth Mooney (Australia) for batting, who were also in contention for the top award.

The correct answer is Gurjar Mahendra.

Key Points

• Gurjar Mahendra etched his name in the history books by setting a new world record in the men's javelin F42 category.
• This feat was achieved during the 2025 World Para Athletics (WPA) Grand Prix, which was held in Dubai, United Arab Emirates.
• He recorded a monumental throw of 61.17 meters, surpassing previous benchmarks in the F42 classification. Hence, the correct answer is Gurjar Mahendra.
• The F42 category is designated for para-athletes with lower limb impairments, such as leg length differences or impaired muscle power, which affects their movement but allows them to compete from a standing position.
• Mahendra's achievement is a significant milestone for Indian para-sports, showcasing the high level of technical skill and physical preparation among Indian field athletes.
• The 2025 WPA Grand Prix serves as a critical qualification event for the upcoming World Para Athletics Championships, making this record-breaking performance even more vital for his career trajectory.

Additional Information

• World Para Athletics Grand Prix:
• The Grand Prix series is a global circuit of elite competitions organized under the International Paralympic Committee (IPC).
• The Dubai Grand Prix, also known as the Fazza International Para Athletics Championships, is one of the premier stops in the circuit, often hosting hundreds of athletes from over 60 countries.
• These events provide athletes with the opportunity to achieve world rankings and meet Minimum Entry Standards (MES) for the Paralympic Games.
• Para-Athletics Classifications (Javelin):
• F42: This class is for athletes with a single leg impairment above the knee or a combination of limb deficiencies that result in similar functional limitations.
• Sumit Antil (F64): He is one of India's most famous para-athletes who holds the world record in the F64 category (athletes with a leg amputation competing with prosthetics). He won gold medals at the Tokyo 2020 and Paris 2024 Paralympics.
• F40/F41: These classes are for athletes of short stature (dwarfism). Athletes like Ravi Rangoli have competed in these categories for India in various field events.
• Growth of Para-Sports in India:
• The Government of India, through the Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS), provides specialized training, foreign exposure, and financial assistance to elite para-athletes.
• The Paralympic Committee of India (PCI) is the national governing body responsible for selecting and training athletes for international meets like the WPA Grand Prix.

Important Points

• The 61.17 m throw by Gurjar Mahendra is particularly impressive as it signifies a leap in the performance standards for the F42 class, which historically had lower distances compared to the F64 or F46 classes.
• Other Indian athletes like Pingane Mina Vilas also participated in the 2025 Dubai event, contributing to India's overall medal tally at the Grand Prix.
• Records set at WPA Grand Prix events are officially recognized by World Para Athletics for the purpose of world rankings and seeding in major championships.
• The year 2025 is a crucial year for athletes to build momentum heading into the next Asian Para Games and the 2028 Los Angeles Paralympics cycle.

The correct answer is Rajasthan border.

Key Points

• Operation Alert was officially launched by the Border Security Force (BSF) in August 2025 to enhance security and vigilance along the International Border (IB) between India and Pakistan.
• The primary focus of this intensive security exercise was the Rajasthan border, which includes critical sectors such as Jaisalmer, Barmer, Bikaner, and Sri Ganganagar.
• This operation is traditionally carried out in the days leading up to Independence Day on 15 August to prevent any attempts of infiltration, smuggling, or anti-national activities by terrorist elements during the national festival.
• During Operation Alert, the BSF increases its manpower on the frontline, deploying even those personnel usually assigned to administrative tasks to ensure 24/7 surveillance and patrolling.
• The operation involves advanced electronic surveillance, increased camel patrolling in the Thar Desert, and coordination with local police and intelligence agencies to maintain a high state of readiness.

Additional Information

• Border Security Force (BSF):
• The BSF was established on 1 December 1965 following the Indo-Pak War to ensure the security of the borders of India.
• It is one of the five Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF) and is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
• The BSF is currently responsible for guarding the 3,323 km long India-Pakistan border and the 4,096 km long India-Bangladesh border.
• Geographical Context of Rajasthan Border:
• The International Border in Rajasthan spans approximately 1,037 km.
• The terrain is characterized by shifting sand dunes of the Thar Desert, making it a challenging environment for surveillance, requiring specialized units like the BSF Camel Contingent.
• Related Operations:
• Apart from Operation Alert, the BSF conducts Operation Sard Hawa during the winter months (usually January) to counter infiltration during periods of thick fog along the western border.
• These exercises are crucial for testing the operational efficiency of surveillance equipment and the physical readiness of the jawans in extreme weather conditions.

Important Points

• Strategic Importance: The Rajasthan border is strategically sensitive due to its proximity to Pakistan's Sindh and Punjab provinces.
• Technology Integration: Under the Comprehensive Integrated Border Management System (CIBMS), the BSF utilizes drones, thermal imagers, and underground sensors to monitor the Rajasthan frontier.
• Public Safety: Such operations also aim to boost the confidence of the civilian population living in the border villages by showcasing the strength and presence of the armed forces.

The correct answer is West Bengal Clinical Establishments (Registration, Regulation and Transparency) (Amendment) Bill, 2025.

Key Points

• The West Bengal Legislative Assembly passed the West Bengal Clinical Establishments (Registration, Regulation and Transparency) (Amendment) Bill, 2025 in June 2025 to address the rising costs of private healthcare.
• The primary objective of this amendment is to cap healthcare expenses and regulate the charges for various medical services in private hospitals and nursing homes across the state.
• It focuses on ensuring transparency in billing, particularly regarding diagnostic tests, bed charges, and the cost of medicines, which have often been reported as exorbitant.
• The bill grants additional powers to the West Bengal Clinical Establishment Regulatory Commission (WBCERC) to enforce these price caps and investigate complaints of overcharging.
• This legislation aims to protect patients from financial exploitation while maintaining a standard of quality healthcare delivery within the private sector.

Additional Information

• The 2017 Parent Act:
• The West Bengal Clinical Establishments (Registration, Regulation and Transparency) Act was first enacted in 2017 to replace the older 2010 Act.
• It was designed to bring private clinical establishments under a strict regulatory framework to ensure better patient care and accountability.
• The 2017 Act mandated the creation of the WBCERC, which serves as a grievance redressal body for patients and their families.
• Regulatory Commission Functions:
• The WBCERC is headed by a retired High Court Judge and includes members from the medical, administrative, and social service fields.
• It has the authority to award compensation to victims of medical negligence or those who have been overcharged by clinical establishments.
• The commission can also cancel the registration of a hospital if it fails to comply with the state-mandated guidelines.

Important Points

• Specific Caps and Slabs: The 2025 Amendment introduces standardized price slabs for common surgeries and ICU (Intensive Care Unit) facilities to prevent arbitrary pricing by different hospitals.
• Mandatory Disclosures: Under the new provisions, every clinical establishment must display a detailed price list in Bengali, English, and Hindi at a prominent location within the premises.
• Penalties for Violation: Establishments found violating the cost-capping norms may face a fine ranging from Rs. 1 lakh to Rs. 20 lakh, or even the suspension of their trade license.
• Patient Rights: The bill reinforces the Charter of Patient Rights, emphasizing that no patient should be denied emergency treatment due to an inability to pay an immediate deposit.
• Universal Healthcare Vision: This move is part of the state's broader vision, led by Chief Minister Mamata Banerjee, to integrate private healthcare resources with public welfare goals, similar to the Swasthya Sathi scheme.

The correct answer is Kuno National Park.

Key Points

• The milestone event of an India-born female cheetah giving birth to five cubs occurred in Kuno National Park in November 2025. This represents the successful establishment of the second generation of cheetahs on Indian soil.
• Project Cheetah is the world’s first intercontinental large wild carnivore translocation project, which was officially launched by the Prime Minister on September 17, 2022.
• The project involved bringing cheetahs from Namibia (8 cheetahs) and South Africa (12 cheetahs) to restore the species in India after it was declared extinct in the country in 1952.
• Kuno National Park is located in the Sheopur and Morena districts of Madhya Pradesh. It was selected because of its suitable grassland-woodland habitat and adequate prey base.
• The birth of cubs to an India-born mother is considered a critical indicator of the long-term success of the reintroduction program, proving that the translocated population can successfully mature and reproduce in the local environment.

Additional Information

• Gir National Park:
• Located in Gujarat, it is the only natural habitat in the world where Asiatic Lions are found.
• It was established in 1965 and plays a vital role in the conservation of the Panthera leo leo subspecies.
• Ranthambore National Park:
• Situated in the Sawai Madhopur district of Rajasthan, it is one of the most famous Tiger Reserves in India.
• It is located at the junction of the Aravalli and Vindhya hill ranges and is known for its diurnal Bengal Tigers.
• Bandipur National Park:
• Located in the state of Karnataka, it was established as a tiger reserve under Project Tiger in 1973.
• It is a part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve and is known for its significant population of Elephants and Tigers.
• Cheetah Extinction in India:
• The cheetah was officially declared extinct from India in 1952 due to over-hunting and habitat loss.
• The last physical evidence of the Asiatic cheetah in India was recorded in 1947 in the Korea district of present-day Chhattisgarh.

Important Points

• Geographical Features of Kuno: The park spans an area of approximately 748 square kilometers. It is characterized by Kardhai, Khair, and Salai trees and is intersected by the Kuno River, which is a major tributary of the Chambal River.
• Monitoring and Management: The cheetahs in Kuno are monitored 24/7 using satellite radio collars and dedicated ground teams to ensure their safety and health within the acclimatization bomas and the open forest.
• Species Difference: The cheetahs introduced in Kuno are African Cheetahs (Acinonyx jubatus jubatus), as the Asiatic Cheetah population is currently restricted only to Iran and is too small to permit translocation.