General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Merger of 29 labour laws into four Labour Codes.

Key Points

• The Government of India has undertaken a historic reform by consolidating 29 Central Labour Laws into four comprehensive Labour Codes to simplify compliance and modernize workers' rights.
• This reform aims to improve the Ease of Doing Business by reducing the complexity of multiple definitions and authorities, replacing them with a more streamlined and transparent framework.
• The four codes include the Code on Wages (2019), the Industrial Relations Code (2020), the Social Security Code (2020), and the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code (2020). Hence, the main reform is the merger into four codes.
• The reform is designed to extend social security and minimum wage protections to over 50 crore workers in both the organized and unorganized sectors, including the burgeoning gig economy.
• Under these codes, the government has introduced one registration, one license, and one return for establishments, significantly reducing the administrative burden on employers while ensuring better enforcement of labor standards.

Additional Information

• Code on Wages, 2019:
• It amalgamates four major acts: the Minimum Wages Act (1948), the Payment of Wages Act (1936), the Payment of Bonus Act (1965), and the Equal Remuneration Act (1976).
• It introduces a statutory floor wage to be determined by the Central Government, ensuring that no state government sets a minimum wage below this threshold.
• Social Security Code, 2020:
• This code replaces 9 laws, including the Employees’ Provident Fund Act and the Maternity Benefit Act.
• For the first time, it brings gig workers and platform workers under the ambit of social security schemes, such as life and disability cover.
• Industrial Relations Code, 2020:
• It consolidates the Trade Unions Act (1926), Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act (1946), and Industrial Disputes Act (1947).
• It increases the threshold for establishments to lay off workers without prior government permission from 100 to 300 employees.
• OSH Code, 2020:
• The Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code merges 13 labor laws related to factories, mines, and construction workers.
• It mandates free health check-ups once a year for employees above a certain age and formalizes the appointment letters for all workers.

Important Points

• Digitization of Compliance: The Ministry of Labour and Employment has integrated these reforms with the Shram Suvidha Portal to facilitate online inspection and grievance redressal.
• Unorganized Sector Focus: The e-Shram portal was launched to create a National Database of Unorganized Workers (NDUW), which helps in the direct delivery of social security benefits.
• Fixed-Term Employment: The codes introduce fixed-term employment, allowing employers to hire workers for a specific duration with the same statutory benefits as permanent employees, ensuring flexibility and fairness.
• Gender Neutrality: The reforms emphasize gender equality by allowing women to work in all establishments at night (between 7 PM and 6 AM) subject to their consent and safety arrangements.

The correct answer is Justice Surya Kant.

Key Points

• Justice Surya Kant was appointed as the Chief Justice of India (CJI) with effect from 24 November 2025.
• He succeeded Justice B.R. Gavai, whose tenure as the Chief Justice concluded on 23 November 2025.
• Justice Surya Kant was elevated as a Judge of the Supreme Court of India on 24 May 2019.
• Before joining the Supreme Court, he served as the Chief Justice of the Himachal Pradesh High Court and as a Judge of the Punjab and Haryana High Court.
• His appointment was made by the President of India under Article 124 of the Constitution, following the established convention of appointing the senior-most Supreme Court judge as the Chief Justice of India.
• Hence, the correct answer is Option 4 – Justice Surya Kant.

Additional Information

• Justice D.Y. Chandrachud:
• Served as the 50^th Chief Justice of India from 9 November 2022 to 10 November 2024.
• Justice Sanjiv Khanna:
• Served as the 51^st Chief Justice of India from 11 November 2024 to 13 May 2025.
• Justice B.R. Gavai:
• Served as the 52^nd Chief Justice of India from 14 May 2025 to 23 November 2025.

Important Points

• Chief Justice of India (from 24 November 2025): Justice Surya Kant.
• Immediate Predecessor: Justice B.R. Gavai.
• Appointment Effective From: 24 November 2025.
• Constitutional Provision: Article 124 of the Constitution of India.

The correct answer is Haryana.

Key Points

• Haryana finished at the top of the medal tally in the Khelo India Para Games (KIPG) 2025.
• The state secured the highest number of medals across various para sports, showcasing outstanding performances by its para-athletes.
• Tamil Nadu and Maharashtra were among the other leading performers in the Games, but Haryana emerged as the overall champion.
• The Khelo India Para Games 2025 were organized to promote sports among persons with disabilities and to identify talented para-athletes for national and international competitions.
• Hence, the correct answer is Option 2 – Haryana.

Additional Information

• The Khelo India Para Games are conducted under the Khelo India Programme of the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
• The Games provide a national platform for para-athletes to compete in multiple disciplines, including athletics, badminton, powerlifting, table tennis, archery, shooting, and other para sports.
• The event aims to encourage greater participation in sports among persons with disabilities and strengthen India's para-sports ecosystem.

Important Points

• Top State: Haryana.
• Event: Khelo India Para Games 2025.
• Organised by: Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India.
• Objective: To promote para sports, identify talented athletes, and prepare them for international competitions such as the Paralympic Games, Asian Para Games, and World Para Championships.
• Exam Tip: Remember that Haryana topped the medal tally at the Khelo India Para Games 2025, continuing its strong performance in national sporting events.
• Correct Answer: Option 2 – Haryana.

The correct answer is Radio-frequency spectrum.

Key Points

• The National Frequency Allocation Plan, 2025 (NFAP-2025) is a regulatory document issued by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT), under the Ministry of Communications, which provides the central framework for the allocation and assignment of the radio-frequency spectrum in India.
• It defines which portions of the electromagnetic spectrum are reserved for specific types of services, such as mobile telephony (5G, 6G), broadcasting, satellite communications, and defense purposes. Hence, the option regarding radio-frequency spectrum is correct.
• The plan is periodicially updated to align India's spectrum usage with the international standards set by the International Telecommunication Union (ITU) during the World Radiocommunication Conference (WRC).
• NFAP-2025 specifically aims to support the deployment of next-generation technologies by identifying new frequency bands for broadband wireless access and Low Earth Orbit (LEO) satellite constellations.
• By organizing the spectrum, the government ensures that wireless signals do not interfere with each other, maximizing the efficiency and security of the nation's digital infrastructure.

Additional Information

• Radio-frequency (RF) Spectrum:
• The RF spectrum refers to the range of electromagnetic waves between 3 kHz and 300 GHz. It is a finite natural resource owned by the public and managed by the state.
• In India, the Wireless Planning and Coordination (WPC) Wing of the DoT is the national authority for frequency management.
• Department of Telecommunications (DoT):
• The DoT is responsible for formulating policies and licensing for telecom services. It conducts spectrum auctions to allocate frequencies to private players like Airtel, Jio, and Vi.
• ITU and WRC:
• The International Telecommunication Union (ITU) is a United Nations specialized agency. The WRC is held every three to four years to review and revise the Radio Regulations, which then serve as a template for the National Frequency Allocation Plan.
• Analysis of Other Options:
• Postal codes: These are part of the Postal Index Number (PIN) system managed by the Department of Posts for logistics and mail delivery. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
• Railway land-use frequencies: While railways use specific frequencies for signaling (like GSM-R), the NFAP is a broader plan for all sectors, and "land-use" is a matter of infrastructure planning, not frequency allocation. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
• Electric vehicle (EV) charging bands: EV charging involves power electronics and electrical grid standards (such as CCS or CHAdeMO) rather than the radio-frequency spectrum allocation. Hence, this statement is incorrect.

The correct answer is MS Dhoni.

Key Points

• Former Indian captain MS Dhoni was inducted into the ICC Hall of Fame in 2025.
• He was honoured alongside several cricketing legends, including Matthew Hayden (Australia) and Hashim Amla (South Africa).
• MS Dhoni is regarded as one of the greatest captains in cricket history, having led India to:
• ICC T20 World Cup (2007)
• ICC Cricket World Cup (2011)
• ICC Champions Trophy (2013)
• He is the only captain to have won all three major ICC white-ball trophies.
• Hence, the correct answer is Option 2 – MS Dhoni.

Additional Information

• ICC Hall of Fame:
• Established by the International Cricket Council (ICC) to honour cricketers who have made exceptional contributions to the sport.
• Players are inducted after retirement based on their outstanding achievements and impact on international cricket.
• MS Dhoni's Major Achievements:
• Captain of India's 2007 ICC T20 World Cup-winning team.
• Captain of India's 2011 ICC Cricket World Cup-winning team.
• Captain of India's 2013 ICC Champions Trophy-winning team.

Important Points

• ICC Hall of Fame 2025 inductee from India: MS Dhoni.
• He was inducted along with Matthew Hayden and Hashim Amla.

The correct answer is ₹5 Lakh.

Key Points

• The government provides a maximum financial support of ₹5 Lakh for the new construction of a Tribal Homestay unit to promote sustainable tourism in indigenous areas.
• This initiative is part of the Swadesh Darshan Scheme (specifically under the SD 2.0 framework and related tribal development modules) aimed at enhancing the Socio-economic conditions of tribal communities.
• The primary objective of providing this Financial Assistance is to create Livelihood Opportunities for tribal families by allowing them to showcase their Culture, Heritage, and Traditions to domestic and international tourists.
• By April 2025, the guidelines emphasize that these homestays must adhere to Sustainable Tourism standards, ensuring minimal environmental impact while maximizing community benefits.
• The Ministry of Tourism, in collaboration with the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, facilitates the identification of beneficiaries, focusing on Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) and other marginalized tribal hamlets.

Additional Information

• Swadesh Darshan 2.0 (SD 2.0):
• Launched to move away from theme-based circuits toward Destination-centric tourism development.
• It focuses on Integrated Development of tourist destinations with a focus on Sustainability and Responsibility.
• The scheme encourages the Vocal for Local campaign by promoting indigenous crafts and stay options.
• Financial Bifurcation for Homestays:
• While New Construction receives up to ₹5 Lakh, the Upgradation or Renovation of existing tribal houses into homestays is typically eligible for a lower subsidy, often capped at ₹3 Lakh.
• This funding is usually disbursed in Installments based on the progress of construction and adherence to specified Architectural Designs that reflect local tribal aesthetics.
• PM-JANMAN Connection:
• The Pradhan Mantri Janjati Adivasi Nyaya Maha Abhiyan (PM-JANMAN), launched in November 2023 with a budget of over ₹24,000 Crore, complements the Swadesh Darshan goals by improving basic infrastructure like Roads, Electricity, and Housing in tribal areas, making homestays more viable.

Important Points

• Eligibility and Implementation:
• Beneficiaries must be Permanent Residents of the tribal area and possess Valid Land Records or certificates from local tribal councils.
• The State Tourism Departments act as the nodal agencies for the Verification of applications and the Monitoring of the construction phase.
• Promotion of Niche Tourism:
• Tribal homestays are categorized under Niche Tourism, specifically Eco-Tourism and Ethno-Tourism, which are seeing a high growth rate in India as of 2024-2025.
• The scheme also provides for Capacity Building, where tribal hosts are trained in Hospitality, Hygiene, and Digital Marketing to manage their units effectively.

The correct answer is Ministry of Ayush.

Key Points

• The DRAVYA portal (Digital Repository of Ayurveda, Siddha, Unani, and Homoeopathy medicinal plants) was launched in 2025 to serve as a comprehensive digital knowledge repository for medicinal substances.
• The portal was officially initiated and launched by the Ministry of Ayush to centralize information related to traditional Indian medicine systems.
• It was developed under the supervision of the National Medicinal Plants Board (NMPB), which is the nodal agency for medicinal plants in India.
• The primary objective of DRAVYA is to provide a reliable database containing botanical descriptions, chemical constituents, therapeutic uses, and pharmacological data for over 3,000 species of medicinal plants.
• By digitizing traditional knowledge, the portal aims to facilitate scientific research, standardize herbal formulations, and support the growth of the Ayush industry globally.

Additional Information

• Ministry of Ayush:
• This ministry was established on November 9, 2014, by the Government of India to revive and promote traditional systems of healthcare.
• The acronym AYUSH stands for Ayurveda, Yoga and Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha, and Homoeopathy.
• The ministry focuses on upgrading educational standards, quality control of drugs, and increasing the availability of medicinal plant raw materials.
• National Medicinal Plants Board (NMPB):
• Formed in November 2000, the NMPB functions under the Ministry of Ayush.
• It is responsible for coordinating all matters related to medicinal plants, including policy-making, conservation, cultivation, and sustainable management across various states in India.
• The NMPB also promotes in-situ and ex-situ conservation of rare and endangered medicinal species.

Important Points

• Digital Infrastructure: The DRAVYA portal is a key component of the Digital India mission, ensuring that ancient Ayurvedic texts and tribal medical knowledge are preserved and accessible in a modern format.
• Digital Herbarium: It functions as a Digital Herbarium, allowing botanists and researchers to study high-resolution images and taxonomic details of plants without needing physical samples.
• Global Reach: The portal assists in international trade by providing regulatory bodies and pharmaceutical companies with verified data on the safety and efficacy of Indian medicinal herbs.
• Sustainability: By mapping the geographical distribution of plants, the platform helps the Ministry of Ayush monitor the supply chain and prevent the over-exploitation of natural resources.

The correct answer is Managing digital data.

Key Points

• The Centralised Information Management System (CIMS) is the Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) advanced data warehouse, specifically designed for managing digital data and regulatory reporting across the financial sector.
• Launched by RBI Governor Shaktikanta Das in June 2023, the platform serves as a modern replacement for the previous eXtensible Business Reporting Language (XBRL)-based reporting system.
• The primary function of CIMS is to handle Big Data, enabling the RBI to perform sophisticated data analysis and econometric modeling to support monetary policy and financial stability.
• Regulated Entities (REs), such as Commercial Banks and NBFCs, are required to use this system to submit various statutory and supervisory returns, ensuring a more streamlined and automated flow of information.
• By May 13, 2025, the transition for various categories of Regulated Entities to this centralized platform ensures that all critical financial data is handled through a standardized digital architecture, reducing manual intervention.
• The system leverages Artificial Intelligence (AI) and Machine Learning (ML) to process and validate granular data, which helps in identifying systemic risks and monitoring the health of the Indian economy.

Additional Information

• Regulated Entities (REs):
• These are financial institutions that fall under the direct supervision of the Reserve Bank of India.
• Examples include Public Sector Banks, Private Sector Banks, Foreign Banks, Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), and Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs).
• The CIMS platform ensures these entities provide high-quality data for better regulatory oversight.
• Transition from XBRL to CIMS:
• The XBRL system was the standard for many years, but it faced limitations regarding data granularity and the speed of processing large datasets.
• CIMS provides a more flexible data structure, allowing the RBI to collect data at a much more detailed level (transaction-level in some cases) compared to the aggregate data collected previously.
• Features of CIMS:
• The platform includes a Data Lake that stores both structured and unstructured data.
• It facilitates Straight Through Processing (STP), which minimizes human errors by allowing the direct transfer of data from the banks' internal systems to the RBI's server.
• It provides self-service analytics for REs, allowing them to view their own submitted data and trends.

Important Points

• Regulatory Compliance: Compliance with the CIMS reporting framework is mandatory under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, and the RBI Act, 1934.
• Data Security: Given the sensitive nature of the financial data, CIMS employs high-level encryption and security protocols to prevent cyber threats and unauthorized access.
• Economic Impact: By providing the Central Bank with real-time data, CIMS helps in the timely identification of Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) and ensures the liquidity and solvency of the banking system.
• Timeline: The RBI has followed a phased implementation approach, moving different reports and returns (like the CRILC or Liquidity Coverage Ratio returns) into CIMS over the years 2023, 2024, and 2025.

The correct answer is Amphibious warships, missiles and swarm drones.

Key Points

• In January and February 2025, the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC), which is the highest decision-making body of the Ministry of Defence in India, approved several capital acquisition proposals worth over Rs 1.4 lakh crore to modernize the armed forces.
• The approval included the procurement of Amphibious warships, specifically Landing Platform Docks (LPDs), which are crucial for the Indian Navy to conduct amphibious operations, transport main battle tanks, and provide disaster relief. Hence, the inclusion of amphibious warships is a correct component.
• The DAC also cleared the acquisition of advanced missile systems, including indigenous Short-Range Surface-to-Air Missiles (SRSAM) and variants of the BrahMos cruise missile, to strengthen the strike capability and air defense of the Indian Navy and Indian Army. Hence, the inclusion of missiles is a correct component.
• A significant highlight of the 2025 approvals was the push for swarm drones. These are clusters of Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs) that use Artificial Intelligence (AI) to coordinate and overwhelm enemy air defenses or conduct mass surveillance. Hence, the inclusion of swarm drones is a correct component.
• The entire package was designed under the Buy (Indian-IDDM) category, which stands for Indigenously Designed, Developed, and Manufactured, ensuring that the technology and production remain within India.
• Hence, the correct answer is Amphibious warships, missiles and swarm drones.

Additional Information

• Defence Acquisition Council (DAC):
• The DAC was formed in 2001 following the recommendations of the Group of Ministers on Reforming the National Security System after the Kargil War.
• It is headed by the Union Defence Minister and includes the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) and the chiefs of the Army, Navy, and Air Force.
• Its primary function is to give Acceptance of Necessity (AoN) to various defense procurement projects.
• Amphibious Operations and LPDs:
• Landing Platform Docks (LPDs) are massive vessels capable of carrying helicopters, landing crafts, and hundreds of marines.
• They serve as a mobile sea base and are essential for India's security strategy in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR), particularly for protecting island territories like the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
• Swarm Drone Technology:
• Swarm drones represent the future of asymmetric warfare. They communicate via mesh networks and can perform "saturated strikes" that are difficult for traditional radar and anti-aircraft guns to stop.
• The Indian Army has been integrating these into its mechanized forces to enhance reconnaissance and offensive power along the Line of Actual Control (LAC).
• Atmanirbhar Bharat in Defence:
• The Government of India has issued several Positive Indigenisation Lists, which specify hundreds of items that the Armed Forces must procure only from domestic industry.
• The Defence Acquisition Procedure (DAP) 2020 further incentivizes local production and the participation of private sector players alongside Defence Public Sector Undertakings (DPSUs) like HAL and DRDO.

Important Points

• Key Technology Features:
• The missiles approved in 2025 feature high precision-guidance systems and electronic counter-countermeasures (ECCM) to bypass enemy jamming.
• The Amphibious warships are expected to have a displacement of over 20,000 tonnes and will be built by Indian shipyards such as Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL) or Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE).
• Drones approved include Loitering Munitions, which act as "suicide drones," staying in the air for extended periods before diving onto a target.
• Strategic Impact:
• These acquisitions help India counter the growing influence of the People's Liberation Army Navy (PLAN) in the Indian Ocean.
• By focusing on missiles and drones, India is transitioning from conventional force structures to technology-intensive military capabilities.

The correct answer is Sharda Sinha.

Key Points

• Sharda Sinha was a legendary Indian folk and classical singer hailing from the state of Bihar, widely celebrated as the "Bihar Kokila" (Nightingale of Bihar).
• She was also affectionately known as "Swar Kokila" due to her soulful and melodious voice that defined the cultural landscape of North India for decades.
• Born on October 1, 1952, in the Supaul district of Bihar, she became a towering figure in preserving and promoting the folk traditions of the region.
• She is most famous for her iconic Chhath Puja songs, which have become an inseparable part of the festival's celebrations globally.
• Her immense contribution to the arts was recognized by the Government of India with the Padma Shri in 1991 and the Padma Bhushan in 2018.
• She passed away on November 5, 2024, at the age of 72, marking the end of an era in Indian folk music.

Additional Information

• Linguistic Mastery:
• Sharda Sinha primarily performed in regional languages such as Maithili, Bhojpuri, and Magahi.
• By singing in these dialects, she played a pivotal role in bringing the rural heritage of Bihar and Eastern Uttar Pradesh to the national and international stage.
• Bollywood and Mainstream Success:
• She lent her voice to several hit Bollywood songs, most notably "Kahe Toh Se Sajna" in the 1989 blockbuster Maine Pyar Kiya.
• Other famous tracks include "Taar Bijli" from the film Gangs of Wasseypur - Part 2 (2012) and songs in the movie Hum Aapke Hain Koun..!
• Cultural Impact:
• Her renditions of vivah geet (wedding songs) and sohar (songs celebrating the birth of a child) are staples in households across Bihar.
• She is credited with reviving the popularity of traditional folk instruments and keeping ancient oral traditions alive through her recordings.

Important Points

• Awards and Honors:
• In addition to the Padma awards, she was a recipient of the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in 2006.
• She was also honored with the Bihar Ratna, the highest civilian honor bestowed by the State Government of Bihar.
• Educational Background:
• Beyond her musical career, she was an academician who served as a Professor of Music at Women’s College, Samastipur.
• She held a Master’s degree in Music and a Ph.D., emphasizing her deep theoretical and practical understanding of Hindustani Classical Music.
• Association with Chhath Puja:
• Her song "Uga Ho Suraj Dev" is considered a cultural anthem for the Chhath Mahaparv, a festival dedicated to the Sun God.
• Her voice is often cited as the bridge that connects the Bihari diaspora to their roots during traditional festivities.

The correct answer is Hanoi.

Key Points

• In October 2025, the city of Hanoi, Vietnam, served as the venue for the high-level signing ceremony of the United Nations Convention against Cybercrime.
• A total of 72 UN member states participated in the ceremony to sign the landmark deal, signaling a unified global effort to combat digital crimes.
• This convention represents the first legally binding global treaty specifically designed to address the complexities of cybercrime and electronic evidence sharing.
• The choice of Hanoi as the host city highlights Vietnam's growing influence and commitment to international cybersecurity and digital governance.
• The signing ceremony followed years of intensive negotiations aimed at creating a standardized legal framework for extradition and mutual legal assistance in cyber-related offenses.

Additional Information

• The UN Convention against Cybercrime:
• The process was initiated by General Assembly Resolution 74/247, which established an Ad Hoc Committee to draft a comprehensive international convention.
• The final draft of the treaty was approved in August 2024 in New York before being opened for signature in Hanoi in 2025.
• It aims to bridge the gap between different national legislations, providing a common ground for prosecuting hacking, online fraud, and identity theft.
• Vietnam's Digital Strategy:
• Hosting this event aligns with Vietnam's National Digital Transformation Program, which seeks to secure the country's digital economy.
• As an active member of ASEAN, Vietnam has been a vocal proponent of regional cooperation in information security and data protection.
• Participation Scope:
• While 72 states signed the document in Hanoi, the treaty remains open for further signatures at the United Nations Headquarters to ensure near-universal participation.

Important Points

• International Cooperation: The treaty establishes mechanisms for 24/7 points of contact between nations to facilitate the rapid preservation of electronic data during criminal investigations.
• Human Rights Safeguards: During the drafting and signing in Hanoi, significant emphasis was placed on ensuring that the treaty includes safeguards to protect privacy and freedom of expression.
• Capacity Building: A core pillar of the convention signed in 2025 is providing technical assistance and training to developing nations to help them implement effective cybersecurity measures.
• Implementation: Following the signing, the treaty will enter into force once it is ratified by the required number of national governments, transitioning from a signed agreement to an active international law.

The correct answer is Chaman Arora.

Key Points

• Chaman Arora has been conferred with the prestigious Sahitya Akademi Award 2024 for his literary contribution to the Dogri language.
• He received this recognition for his book titled "Ik Hor Ashwthama", which is a significant work in contemporary Dogri literature.
• The Sahitya Akademi announced its annual awards for 2024 on December 20, 2024, honoring writers across 24 Indian languages.
• The selection for the award was made based on the recommendations of a three-member jury in the respective languages, following the rules and procedures laid down by the Akademi.
• Chaman Arora's work "Ik Hor Ashwthama" reflects deep cultural and social narratives relevant to the Dogra community and the Jammu region.

Additional Information

• Sahitya Akademi Award:
• Established in 1954, it is a literary honor in India conferred annually by the Sahitya Akademi (India's National Academy of Letters).
• The award is presented to the most outstanding books of literary merit published in any of the major Indian languages.
• Initially, the award amount was Rs. 5,000, but it has been increased over the years and currently stands at Rs. 1,00,000 along with an engraved copper plaque and a shawl.
• The Akademi recognizes 24 languages, including the 22 languages listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution, plus English and Rajasthani.
• Dogri Language:
• Dogri is primarily spoken in the Jammu region of Jammu and Kashmir, as well as parts of Himachal Pradesh and Punjab.
• It was included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution in 2003 through the 92^nd Constitutional Amendment Act.
• It is one of the five official languages of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
• Other Options:
• Shiv Kumar Batalvi: A legendary Punjabi poet who became the youngest recipient of the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1967 for his epic verse play "Loona".
• Dalip Kaur Tiwana: A renowned Punjabi novelist and short-story writer who won the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1971 for her novel "Eho Hamara Jeevana".
• Jaswant Singh: While a common name, in the context of literature, Jaswant Singh Kanwal was a famous Punjabi writer who received the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1996 for his novel "Taushali Di Hansi".

The correct answer is China.

Key Points

• The 9^th Asian Winter Games were held in Harbin, the capital city of Heilongjiang Province in China, during February 2025.
• This edition of the games saw participation from athletes representing 34 National Olympic Committees (NOCs), reflecting the widespread growth and interest in winter sports across the Asian continent.
• The event officially commenced on February 7, 2025, and concluded on February 14, 2025, featuring a wide array of competitions in both ice and snow disciplines.
• Harbin, famously known as the "Ice City," became the first city to host the Asian Winter Games twice, having previously hosted the 3^rd edition in 1996.
• The games were organized under the slogan "Dream of Winter, Love among Asia," aimed at promoting unity and the spirit of sportsmanship among participating nations.

Additional Information

• Host Selection and History:
• The Olympic Council of Asia (OCA) officially awarded the hosting rights to Harbin during its 42^nd General Assembly held in Bangkok in July 2023.
• China has previously hosted the Asian Winter Games in 1996 (Harbin) and 2007 (Changchun), making the 2025 event the third time the country has hosted this prestigious regional competition.
• Mascots and Symbols:
• The official mascots for the 2025 Games were Binbin and Nini, two Siberian tiger cubs designed to represent the unique wildlife and cultural heritage of Northeast China.
• The emblem, titled "Breakthrough," depicted a short-track speed skater in motion, combined with the form of a lilac flower (the city flower of Harbin).
• Venues and Events:
• The ice sports, including Curling, Figure Skating, and Ice Hockey, were centered in Harbin's urban area, while snow sports like Alpine Skiing and Snowboarding were held in the Yabuli mountain region.
• The competition included 6 sports, 11 disciplines, and 64 events, providing a platform for top-tier winter athletes from Asia.

Important Points

• Environmental Sustainability: The 2025 Harbin Games emphasized a "Green" philosophy, utilizing energy-efficient technologies for ice production and repurposing existing venues to minimize the ecological footprint.
• Future Outlook: Following the 2025 games in China, the 10^th Asian Winter Games are scheduled to be held in Trojena, Saudi Arabia, in 2029, marking the first time the event will be held in Western Asia.
• Economic Impact: The event significantly boosted tourism in Heilongjiang, showcasing China's advanced infrastructure and its capability to host world-class sporting events following the success of the 2022 Beijing Winter Olympics.

The correct answer is Neeraj Chopra.

Key Points

• Neeraj Chopra made history in May 2025 by becoming the first Indian javelin thrower to breach the 90-meter mark in an international athletics meet.
• This milestone is considered the "gold standard" in international javelin throw, placing him among the elite group of athletes known as the 90m club.
• Prior to this achievement, his personal best and the National Record stood at 89.94 meters, which he recorded at the Stockholm Diamond League in Sweden on June 30, 2022.
• His consistent performance in global circuits like the Diamond League and World Athletics Championships has made him the most successful Indian track and field athlete in history.
• The 90m throw was a long-anticipated goal for the athlete, who had previously come within centimeters of the mark on multiple occasions. Hence, the correct answer is Neeraj Chopra.

Additional Information

• Neeraj Chopra's Profile:
• Born on December 24, 1997, in Khandra village, Panipat district, Haryana.
• He holds the rank of Subedar in the Indian Army (Rajputana Rifles).
• He rose to global prominence after winning the Gold Medal at the Tokyo 2020 Olympics with a throw of 87.58m, becoming the first Indian to win a gold in track and field.
• Major Career Milestones:
• Won the Gold Medal at the 2023 World Athletics Championships in Budapest with a throw of 88.17m.
• Became the first Indian to win the Diamond League Trophy in 2022.
• Awarded the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna in 2021 and the Padma Shri in 2022.
• Other Options Context:
• Shivpal Singh: An Indian javelin thrower who represented India at the Tokyo Olympics and has a personal best of 86.23m achieved in 2019.
• Kishore Jena: A rising star who won the Silver Medal at the 2022 Asian Games with a personal best of 87.54m.
• Abdul Khaliq: Known as the "Flying Bird of Asia," he was a legendary Pakistani sprinter of the 1950s, not a javelin thrower.

Important Points

• World Record Context:
• The World Record in men's javelin throw is 98.48 meters, set by Jan Zelezny of the Czech Republic in 1996.
• Crossing the 90m barrier is a feat achieved by fewer than 25 athletes in the history of the sport under current javelin specifications.
• Javelin Specifications:
• The men's javelin weighs exactly 800 grams and measures between 2.6 and 2.7 meters in length.
• The center of gravity was moved forward in 1986 to reduce the flight distance for safety reasons after Uwe Hohn threw 104.80m.

The correct answer is Eravikulam National Park.

Key Points

• Eravikulam National Park, located in the Idukki district of Kerala, has been ranked as the top national park in India with a score of 92.7% in the Management Effectiveness Evaluation (MEE) for the 2020-25 cycle.
• The MEE is a tool used by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) to assess how well protected areas are being managed and whether they are achieving their conservation objectives.
• The evaluation process is conducted by the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) and follows the framework provided by the IUCN World Commission on Protected Areas (WCPA).
• The 2022-23 report (for the 5^th cycle) evaluated 128 National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries across the country, focusing on 30 parameters including planning, inputs, process, and conservation outcomes.
• Eravikulam National Park is famous for being the natural habitat of the Nilgiri Tahr, an endangered mountain goat. It also houses Anamudi, the highest peak in South India, standing at an elevation of 2,695 meters. Hence, the correct answer is Eravikulam National Park.

Additional Information

• Bandipur National Park:
• Located in the state of Karnataka, it was established in 1974 as a tiger reserve under Project Tiger.
• It is a part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve and is known for its significant population of Tigers and Asian Elephants.
• It shares its boundaries with Nagarhole National Park, Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary, and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary.
• Kanha National Park:
• Situated in Madhya Pradesh, it is the largest national park in the state and was created on 1 June 1955.
• It is well-known for successfully conserving the Barasingha (Swamp Deer), which is also the official mascot of the park ("Bhoorsingh the Barasingha").
• The park provided the inspiration for Rudyard Kipling’s famous novel, "The Jungle Book".
• Manas National Park:
• Located in the Himalayan foothills of Assam, it is a UNESCO World Heritage Site, a Project Tiger reserve, and an Elephant Reserve.
• It is renowned for its rare and endangered endemic wildlife such as the Assam Roofed Turtle, Hispid Hare, Golden Langur, and Pygmy Hog.
• The park is contiguous with the Royal Manas National Park in Bhutan.
• Management Effectiveness Evaluation (MEE) Framework:
• India adopted the MEE framework in 2006 to bring transparency and accountability to the management of its Protected Area (PA) network.
• The evaluation divides parks into categories such as 'Very Good' (score above 75%), 'Good' (60-75%), 'Satisfactory' (40-59%), and 'Poor' (below 40%).
• The 5^th cycle of evaluation showed a significant improvement in the management standards of Indian wildlife habitats compared to previous decades.

Important Points

• Periyar Tiger Reserve, also located in Kerala, emerged as the best-managed tiger reserve in the same evaluation cycle with a score of 94.38%.
• The state of Kerala has consistently performed well in MEE rankings, highlighting effective conservation strategies and community participation in forest management.
• The Neelakurinji flower, which blooms once every 12 years, is another major attraction of Eravikulam National Park, turning the hills blue during its blooming season.

The correct answer is Clear work–life boundaries.

Key Points

• The Right to Disconnect Bill, 2025, is a legislative proposal designed to address the challenges of the Modern Digital Workplace, where technology often blurs the lines between professional and personal life.
• The primary objective of the bill is to establish Clear work–life boundaries by legally recognizing an employee's right to ignore work-related communications, such as Emails, WhatsApp messages, and Phone calls, outside of their stipulated Working Hours. Hence, option 2 is correct.
• It seeks to empower Employees to disconnect from their work without the fear of disciplinary action or professional Retaliation from their Employers.
• The bill proposes that organizations must define specific "Out-of-Office" periods and negotiate terms of engagement that respect the Privacy and personal time of the workforce.
• This principle is aimed at tackling the "Always-On" culture, which has been exacerbated by the rise of Remote Work and Telecommuting, ensuring that the digital tools meant for efficiency do not lead to perpetual Work Cycles.

Additional Information

• Global Context and Origin:
• France became the first country to implement such a law in January 2017, mandating companies with more than 50 employees to establish periods when staff should not send or receive emails.
• Other nations like Italy, Spain, Ireland, Portugal, and recently Australia (in 2024) have introduced similar legal frameworks to protect the Digital Wellbeing of workers.
• Impact on Mental Health:
• Constant connectivity is a major contributor to Work-Related Stress, Burnout, and Mental Fatigue.
• By enforcing Work-Life Balance, the bill aims to reduce Anxiety levels and improve the Sleep Quality of employees who are otherwise tethered to their devices 24/7.
• Productivity and Retention:
• Research indicates that workers who have sufficient Recovery Time are more Productive, Creative, and Engaged during their active hours.
• Establishing these boundaries helps in Employee Retention as workers feel more respected and less prone to Exhaustion.
• Legislative History in India:
• In India, the concept gained traction when a Private Member's Bill, titled the Right to Disconnect Bill, 2018, was introduced in the Lok Sabha by MP Supriya Sule.
• The 2025 version of the bill represents a renewed effort to modernize Labour Laws in the context of the Gig Economy and widespread Digital Transformation.

Important Points

• Key Provisions: The bill often includes the creation of an Employee Welfare Committee within companies to monitor compliance and resolve disputes regarding after-hours communication.
• Exemptions: Most versions of the Right to Disconnect legislation allow for exceptions during Emergencies or critical Operational Requirements, provided they are clearly defined in the Employment Contract.
• Digital Rights: This bill is considered a significant step in the evolution of Digital Rights, acknowledging that in a Hyper-Connected world, the right to be "offline" is essential for Human Dignity.

The correct answer is 0.85.

Key Points

• The NITI Aayog released the second edition of the North Eastern Region (NER) District Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) Index Report (2023-24) in July 2024, showcasing the progress of districts in the region.
• According to the official report, 85% (which corresponds to the value 0.85) of the districts in the North Eastern Region showed an increase in their composite SDG Index scores compared to the first edition.
• The index is a collaborative effort between NITI Aayog, the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (MDoNER), and the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
• This edition of the index covered 103 districts across the eight states of the region, namely Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, and Tripura.
• The assessment is based on 84 indicators that span 15 out of the 17 global SDGs, providing a comprehensive view of social, economic, and environmental development at the district level.
• The improvement in the scores of 0.85 of the districts highlights the success of targeted interventions and localized monitoring of development targets.

Additional Information

• Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs):
• The SDGs are a set of 17 global goals adopted by the United Nations in 2015 as a universal call to action to end poverty and protect the planet by 2030.
• In India, NITI Aayog is the nodal agency responsible for monitoring the progress of these goals at the national and sub-national levels through various indices.
• Performance Categorization:
• Districts are categorized based on their scores: Aspirant (0–49), Performer (50–64), Front Runner (65–99), and Achiever (100).
• In the 2023-24 report, no districts fell into the Aspirant category, indicating a significant upward shift in development standards across the region.
• State-wise Highlights:
• Sikkim and Mizoram have consistently emerged as top performers in the region. Districts like East Sikkim have often secured the highest positions in the rankings.
• The index facilitates competitive federalism by encouraging states and districts to improve their performance through data-driven governance.

Important Points

• Indicators and Framework: The framework for the NER District SDG Index is aligned with the National Indicator Framework (NIF) of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
• Policy Significance: The improvement in 85% of districts is attributed to the successful implementation of flagship schemes such as Jal Jeevan Mission, Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY), and Ayushman Bharat in the North Eastern Region.
• Data Reliability: The index utilizes the latest available data from Central Ministries and State Governments, ensuring a robust and transparent evaluation of regional disparities.
• Regional Development: The focus on the North East is a core part of India's Act East Policy, aiming to integrate the region's economy and infrastructure with the rest of the country and neighboring nations.

The correct answer is Bharat Climate Forum 2026.

Key Points

• The Vice-President of India, C. P. Radhakrishnan, delivered the inaugural address at the Bharat Climate Forum 2026, which serves as a premier platform for discussing India's climate resilience and sustainable growth.
• During his speech, he emphasized that climate action should be perceived as a strategic opportunity for economic transformation and technological innovation, rather than a constraint or a burden on national development.
• The forum brought together policymakers, industry leaders, and international experts to deliberate on the roadmap for achieving Net Zero emissions while maintaining high economic productivity.
• C. P. Radhakrishnan highlighted that the transition to a green economy is a pathway to creating millions of green jobs and enhancing India's energy security through domestic renewable energy sources.
• He further noted that India is one of the few large economies on track to meet its Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs), setting a global benchmark for environmental leadership.

Additional Information

• India's Panchamrit Goals:
• Announced at COP26, India's climate strategy includes reaching a non-fossil energy capacity of 500 GW by 2030.
• The nation aims to fulfill 50% of its energy requirements from renewable energy sources by the year 2030.
• A major target is the reduction of total projected carbon emissions by one billion tonnes from now until 2030.
• The ultimate goal is for India to achieve the target of Net Zero emissions by the year 2070.
• C. P. Radhakrishnan:
• He is a prominent Indian politician who has served in significant constitutional roles, including the Governor of Maharashtra and holding additional charges for states like Telangana and Jharkhand.
• Known for his focus on administrative efficiency and social welfare, his transition to the role of Vice-President (as per the 2026 context) underscores his continued influence in national policy.
• National Green Hydrogen Mission:
• Launched by the Government of India with an initial outlay of Rs. 19,744 crore, this mission aims to make India a global hub for Green Hydrogen production.
• It targets the development of at least 5 MMT (Million Metric Tonne) of green hydrogen production capacity per annum by 2030.
• LiFE Movement:
• The Lifestyle for Environment (LiFE) initiative was introduced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi to encourage individuals to lead a life that is mindful of resource consumption and waste reduction.
• It promotes the concept of a circular economy where products are reused and recycled to minimize the environmental footprint.

The correct answer is Lowered to 3.1%.

Key Points

• During the August 2025 meeting of the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC), the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) reviewed the domestic and global economic conditions to set the path for the upcoming quarters.
• A major highlight of this review was the revision of the inflation forecast for the Financial Year 2025-26 (FY26).
• The RBI officially lowered the projected CPI (Consumer Price Index) inflation for FY 2025-26 to 3.1%. Hence, the correct answer is Lowered to 3.1%.
• This downward revision from previous estimates suggests that the central bank anticipates a significant cooling of price pressures, likely due to improved supply-side management, stable crude oil prices, and a favorable monsoon impact on food prices.
• The MPC, led by the RBI Governor, emphasized that maintaining price stability is crucial for sustaining the GDP growth momentum of the Indian economy.

Additional Information

• Monetary Policy Committee (MPC):
• The MPC is a six-member statutory body constituted by the Central Government under Section 45ZB of the amended RBI Act, 1934.
• It consists of three members from the RBI (including the Governor) and three external members appointed by the government.
• The primary objective of the MPC is to determine the Policy Repo Rate required to contain inflation within the specified target level.
• Inflation Targeting Framework:
• India adopted a Flexible Inflation Targeting (FIT) framework in 2016.
• The Government of India, in consultation with the RBI, has set a target for CPI inflation at 4%, with an upper tolerance limit of 6% and a lower tolerance limit of 2%.
• A forecast of 3.1% for FY 2025-26 indicates that the RBI expects inflation to stay well below its median target of 4%.
• Consumer Price Index (CPI):
• CPI is the primary measure used by the RBI to monitor retail inflation.
• It tracks the change in the price of a basket of goods and services consumed by households, including food, fuel, clothing, and housing.

Important Points

• Implications of the Forecast:
• A lower inflation forecast of 3.1% provides the RBI with more room to consider interest rate cuts (reducing the Repo Rate) to stimulate investment and consumption.
• It signals to the financial markets that the "war on inflation" is yielding results, leading to potentially lower bond yields and reduced borrowing costs for corporations and individuals.
• Economic Context:
• The August 2025 review is a pivotal moment as it sets the expectations for the second half of the decade.
• The focus remains on the "withdrawal of accommodation" stance or shifting towards a "neutral" stance if the inflation trajectory remains consistently low near the 3.1% mark.
• The FY 2025-26 period is expected to witness the full impact of previous policy measures and global economic stabilization.

The correct answer is WHO Pandemic Agreement.

Key Points

• The WHO Pandemic Agreement is a landmark international treaty adopted by the 194 Member States of the World Health Organization (WHO) on 20 May 2025 to ensure better global coordination against future health crises.
• The agreement was developed to address the systemic failures exposed during the COVID-19 pandemic, specifically focusing on Pandemic Prevention, Preparedness, and Response (PPPR).
• It was negotiated through the Intergovernmental Negotiating Body (INB), a special drafting group established by the World Health Assembly (WHA) in December 2021.
• A primary pillar of the treaty is equity, aimed at ensuring that low- and middle-income nations have equitable access to medical countermeasures like vaccines, therapeutics, and diagnostics.
• The agreement is rooted in Article 19 of the WHO Constitution, which allows the Assembly to adopt legally binding conventions or agreements for the global community.

Additional Information

• Pathogen Access and Benefit-Sharing (PABS) System: This is a core component of the treaty that mandates the sharing of pathogens with pandemic potential while ensuring that the resulting benefits (like patents or vaccine doses) are shared fairly with the international community.
• One Health Approach: The agreement integrates the One Health concept, recognizing that the health of humans, animals, and environments are interconnected, which is crucial for preventing zoonotic diseases.
• Sovereignty: The treaty explicitly reaffirms the sovereign right of nations to manage their own public health policies, provided they fulfill their responsibilities under the global framework.
• International Health Regulations (IHR): The WHO Pandemic Agreement works in tandem with the updated IHR (2005), which focuses on surveillance and notification of localized disease outbreaks before they become global pandemics.

Important Points

• Sustainable Financing: The treaty proposes a financing mechanism to help developing countries build their laboratory capacities, surveillance systems, and healthcare workforces.
• Technology Transfer: It encourages voluntary technology transfer and the waiving of certain Intellectual Property (IP) rights during emergencies to boost local manufacturing of life-saving drugs.
• Timeline: Following its adoption in May 2025, the agreement requires a specific number of ratifications by national parliaments to officially enter into force as international law.
• Transparency: Member states are committed to greater transparency regarding their national stockpiles and clinical trial data to prevent hoarding and misinformation during a health emergency.