General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Agni-Prime.

Key Points

• The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully flight-tested the Agni-Prime (also known as Agni-P) missile on 24 September 2025.
• This specific test was significant as it was conducted from a rail-based mobile launcher, enhancing the strategic flexibility and survivability of the missile system by allowing it to be moved across the country’s vast railway network.
• The launch was carried out under full operational conditions, validating the reliability of the entire weapon system, including the propulsion, control systems, and navigation technologies.
• The mission met all objectives, confirming the high degree of accuracy and precision of the missile. This test represents a major milestone in India’s transition toward modern canisterized missile systems.
• The flight test took place at the Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam Island located off the coast of Odisha, which is the primary site for India's strategic missile testing.

Additional Information

• Agni-Prime Missile Features:
• Type: It is a two-stage solid-propellant ballistic missile that belongs to the new generation of the Agni series.
• Range: It has a strike range of 1,000 to 2,000 kilometers, making it a medium-range ballistic missile (MRBM).
• Canisterization: The missile is canisterized, meaning it is stored in a sealed tube. This allows for easier transport, longer shelf life, and significantly reduces the time required for launch.
• Navigation: It incorporates advanced Ring Laser Gyro-based Inertial Navigation Systems (RINS) and Micro Navigation Systems (MINS) for superior guidance.
• Strategic Significance:
• Agni-Prime is designed to replace the aging Agni-I and Agni-II missiles in the Indian inventory.
• The rail-based launcher capability ensures that the missile can be hidden and moved quickly, making it harder for enemy reconnaissance to track and target India's nuclear deterrent.
• It contributes to India’s policy of Credible Minimum Deterrence and its "No First Use" nuclear doctrine.
• Evolution of Agni Series:
• The Agni missiles were developed under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP), spearheaded by Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam.
• The family includes variants ranging from the short-range Agni-I (700 km) to the Intercontinental Ballistic Missile (ICBM) Agni-V (over 5,000 km).
• Unlike the older liquid-fuel missiles, modern Agni-Prime uses composite motor casings and advanced materials to reduce weight and increase efficiency.

Important Points

• DRDO: Headquartered in New Delhi, it is the R&D wing of the Ministry of Defence. It was formed in 1958 by merging the Technical Development Establishment and the Directorate of Technical Development and Production.
• Operational Readiness: Full operational condition tests are usually conducted by the Strategic Forces Command (SFC) in coordination with DRDO to ensure that the user (the military) is capable of handling the equipment in real-world scenarios.
• Mobility: While road-mobile launchers are common, rail-mobile versions provide an extra layer of strategic depth because of India's extensive railway infrastructure, allowing for rapid redeployment across thousands of kilometers.

The correct answer is Studying biomarkers of healthy aging, resilience, adversity, and transitions.

Key Points

• The BHARAT study (Biomarkers of Healthy Aging, Resilience, Adversity, and Transitions) was launched by the Centre for Brain Research (CBR), an autonomous center of the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru, in 2023.
• The primary focus of this study is to identify biological markers (biomarkers) that correlate with healthy brain aging and to understand how certain individuals remain resilient against cognitive decline despite various adversities.
• It is a longitudinal study, meaning it tracks the same group of individuals over an extended period to observe changes in cognitive health, brain structure, and lifestyle factors.
• The initiative aims to address the growing challenge of neurodegenerative disorders such as Alzheimer’s disease and dementia within the specific context of the Indian population. Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
• By studying the resilience and transitions of the aging brain, the researchers hope to develop better diagnostic tools and preventative strategies tailored to Indian genetics and lifestyle.

Additional Information

• Centre for Brain Research (CBR):
• The CBR was established at IISc Bengaluru through a generous philanthropic contribution from Mr. Kris Gopalakrishnan, the co-founder of Infosys.
• The center focuses on finding solutions for brain-related disorders that affect the elderly, particularly those leading to cognitive impairment.
• Target Demographic:
• The BHARAT study typically recruits participants aged 45 years and above to capture the early transitions into the aging phase.
• This demographic is critical because pathological changes in the brain often begin decades before clinical symptoms of dementia appear.
• Methodology and Technology:
• The study employs state-of-the-art technologies, including 3-Tesla MRI scanners for neuroimaging, genomic sequencing, and proteomic analysis from blood samples.
• Participants undergo rigorous neuropsychological assessments to evaluate memory, attention, and executive functions.
• Significance for India:
• With India’s aging population expected to reach nearly 20% of the total population by 2050, research into healthy aging is a national priority.
• The study accounts for unique Indian socio-economic factors, dietary habits, and environmental exposures that differ significantly from the Western cohorts usually studied in global health research.
• Longitudinal Cohort Studies:
• Similar to the Srinivaspura Aging, Neuro Epidemiology and Genetics (SAGE) study, BHARAT creates a massive database of clinical and biological data to serve as a resource for future drug development and public health policy.

Important Points

• The IISc was founded in 1909 and is consistently ranked as one of India's premier institutes for scientific research.
• According to the Dementia in India 2020 report, an estimated 5.3 million people above age 60 had dementia in India, a number expected to double by 2050.
• The BHARAT study contributes to the Global Brain Health initiative by providing data from the Global South, which is currently underrepresented in genomic and aging research.
• The term "Biomarkers" in this context refers to measurable indicators such as blood proteins or brain volume changes that can predict disease risk.

The correct answer is Tom Cruise, Dolly Parton, Debbie Allen, and Wynn Thomas.

Key Points

• The Academy of Motion Picture Arts and Sciences (AMPAS) announced the recipients for the 15^th Annual Governors Awards, which are honorary Oscars recognizing extraordinary lifetime achievement in the film industry.
• Tom Cruise was selected to receive the Jean Hersholt Humanitarian Award for his extensive philanthropic efforts and his significant contributions to the global film industry, particularly his role in revitalizing theatrical exhibition in the post-pandemic era.
• Dolly Parton, a legendary country music singer, songwriter, and actress, was honored with an Honorary Award for her seven-decade-long career and her massive influence on film through music and screen presence, including her Oscar-nominated work in films like 9 to 5.
• Debbie Allen was recognized with an Honorary Award for her multi-faceted career as a director, choreographer, and actress, acknowledging her legacy in dance-heavy productions and her mentorship through the Debbie Allen Dance Academy.
• Wynn Thomas, a trailblazing production designer, received an Honorary Award for his groundbreaking work in cinema, notably being the first African American production designer to achieve major acclaim through collaborations on films like Do the Right Thing and A Beautiful Mind.
• These icons were selected by the Academy's Board of Governors for their profound impact on the arts and sciences of motion pictures.

Additional Information

• Governors Awards:
• The Governors Awards is an annual event held by AMPAS where three specific awards are presented: the Honorary Award, the Jean Hersholt Humanitarian Award, and the Irving G. Thalberg Memorial Award.
• Unlike the competitive Oscars, these are non-competitive awards decided by a vote of the Board of Governors to honor individuals who have made indelible marks on the industry over their entire careers.
• The Jean Hersholt Humanitarian Award:
• This award is given to an individual in the motion picture industry whose humanitarian efforts have brought credit to the industry.
• Notable past recipients include Angelina Jolie, Oprah Winfrey, and Elizabeth Taylor.
• The Honorary Award:
• The Honorary Oscar is given for "extraordinary distinction in lifetime achievement, exceptional contributions to the state of motion picture arts and sciences, or for outstanding service to the Academy."
• This award bypasses the traditional nomination process and is represented by the iconic statuette.
• Timing and Significance:
• The Governors Awards ceremony is typically held in November or January, separate from the main Academy Awards telecast, to allow for longer tributes to the legends of cinema.
• The 2025 cycle of awards (presented in late 2024) serves as a precursor to the 97^th Academy Awards.

Important Points

• Tom Cruise: Known for the Mission: Impossible franchise and Top Gun: Maverick, his award highlights his stewardship of the cinematic experience during the COVID-19 crisis.
• Dolly Parton: Her Imagination Library and her Grammy-winning musical legacy have made her a global cultural ambassador.
• Debbie Allen: A former Kennedy Center Honoree, she has directed numerous episodes of Grey's Anatomy and starred in the iconic series Fame.
• Wynn Thomas: His work on Hidden Figures (2016) and Malcolm X (1992) showcases his ability to define the visual language of historical and contemporary stories.

The correct answer is Yibbi Jansen.

Key Points

• The International Hockey Federation (FIH) officially announced the winners of the FIH Hockey Stars Awards 2024 on November 8, 2024, naming Yibbi Jansen of the Netherlands as the FIH Women Player of the Year.
• Yibbi Jansen played an instrumental role in the Netherlands women's team securing the gold medal at the Paris 2024 Olympics.
• During the Paris 2024 Olympic Games, Jansen showcased her dominance by finishing as the tournament's top scorer with 9 goals, primarily through her world-class drag-flicking expertise.
• She has been a consistent performer in the FIH Pro League and was a key factor in the Dutch team’s continued dominance in international hockey over the past year.
• The award is a testament to her technical skills and scoring ability, making her one of the most feared penalty corner specialists in the world.

Additional Information

• Other Major FIH 2024 Award Winners:
• FIH Men's Player of the Year: Harmanpreet Singh, the captain of the Indian Men's Hockey Team, won this award for the third time after leading India to a bronze medal at the Paris 2024 Olympics and finishing as the tournament's leading scorer with 10 goals.
• FIH Goalkeeper of the Year: In the men's category, PR Sreejesh (India) was honored for his stellar performance in his final international season. In the women's category, Ye Jiao (China) won the award for her incredible saves that propelled China to an Olympic silver medal.
• FIH Rising Star of the Year: The women’s award went to Zoe Diaz of Argentina, while the men’s award was secured by Sufyan Khan of Pakistan.
• FIH Coach of the Year: Alyson Annan (China) was named the best women’s coach, and Jeroen Delmee (Netherlands) was named the best men’s coach.
• International Hockey Federation (FIH):
• The FIH is the global governing body for field hockey, headquartered in Lausanne, Switzerland.
• It was founded on 7 January 1924 in Paris to ensure hockey was included in the Olympic Games.
• The federation currently oversees major tournaments including the Hockey World Cup, the FIH Pro League, and the Olympic hockey competitions.

Important Points

• Selection Process: The FIH Hockey Stars Awards winners are determined by a comprehensive voting system that includes National Associations (represented by team captains and coaches), fans, players, and media members.
• Dutch Dominance: With Yibbi Jansen winning the Player of the Year, the Netherlands continues its streak of having at least one female player on the podium for over a decade, reflecting the country's status as a powerhouse in women's field hockey.
• Sarah Wilson: It is important to note that Sarah Wilson (Option 3) is a highly respected international umpire from Scotland and was not a candidate for the Player of the Year award.
• Olympic Legacy: The 2024 awards were heavily influenced by performances at the Paris 2024 Olympics, which remains the most prestigious stage for field hockey athletes.

The correct answer is 36.

Key Points

• At the 2025 Khelo India Youth Games (KIYG), the host state Bihar delivered an impressive performance, securing a total of 36 medals.
• The medal tally for Bihar included 5 Gold, 9 Silver, and 22 Bronze medals, marking a significant milestone in the state's sporting history.
• With this performance, Bihar secured the 15^th position in the overall medal standings, showcasing the results of improved sports infrastructure and training programs within the state.
• The 7^th edition of the Khelo India Youth Games was hosted by Bihar for the first time, with events organized across multiple cities including Patna, Rajgir, Gaya, and Muzaffarpur.
• The games were held from January 19 to January 30, 2025, and featured over 5,000 athletes competing in 25 different sports disciplines.

Additional Information

• Khelo India Youth Games (KIYG):
• The Khelo India initiative was introduced by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports to revive the sports culture in India at the grass-root level.
• The first edition was held in New Delhi in 2018 under the name Khelo India School Games.
• The 2025 edition held in Bihar was the seventh installment of this prestigious national multisport event.
• Mascot and Identity:
• The official mascot for the 2025 KIYG was 'Gaur', representing the state animal of Bihar, symbolizing strength and resilience.
• The logo and anthem for the games were unveiled by Chief Minister Nitish Kumar to promote the theme of "Yuva Shakti" (Youth Power).
• Overall Winners:
• Maharashtra continued its dominance in the competition, finishing at the top of the medal table, followed by Haryana and Tamil Nadu.
• The games included traditional Indian sports like Gatka, Kalaripayattu, Thang-Ta, and Mallakhamba alongside mainstream Olympic sports.

Important Points

• Infrastructure Development: The State Sports Academy and Bihar Sports University in Rajgir served as the primary hub for many high-profile events, reflecting the state's investment in world-class facilities.
• Sports Policy: The Bihar government recently implemented a "Medal Lao, Naukri Pao" (Bring Medal, Get Job) policy, which significantly boosted the morale of local athletes participating in the 2025 games.
• Historical Context: This was the first major national multisport event of this scale hosted by Bihar, involving the active participation of 36 States and Union Territories.
• Economic Impact: Hosting the Khelo India Youth Games contributed to the local economy and promoted Bihar as a potential destination for national and international sporting events in the future.

The correct answer is Trinamool Congress.

Key Points

• The Trinamool Congress (TMC) emerged victorious in the Kaliganj assembly constituency during the by-elections held in June 2025. This win allowed the party to retain its political influence in the Nadia district of West Bengal.
• The Kaliganj seat is a crucial segment within the West Bengal Legislative Assembly, and the by-poll was necessitate by the vacancy created in the seat prior to the scheduled general assembly elections.
• The election was conducted under the supervision of the Election Commission of India, which ensured that the Model Code of Conduct was followed throughout the campaigning and polling period.
• The Trinamool Congress candidate defeated the nearest rival from the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP), marking a significant trend in the local political landscape of West Bengal during the 2025 mid-term assessments.
• This victory for the TMC reinforced the leadership of Mamata Banerjee, the Chief Minister of West Bengal, highlighting the party's continued grassroots support in rural and semi-urban pockets.

Additional Information

• All India Trinamool Congress (AITC):
• Founded on January 1, 1998, by Mamata Banerjee after splitting from the Indian National Congress.
• The party has been in power in West Bengal since 2011, ending the 34-year rule of the Left Front.
• Its official election symbol is the "Jora Ghas Phul" (Twin Flowers in Grass), and it currently holds the status of a prominent state party with significant influence in national politics.
• West Bengal Legislative Assembly:
• The Vidhan Sabha of West Bengal consists of 294 elected members.
• The term of the assembly is five years, and the Governor of the state holds the power to dissolve it under specific constitutional conditions.
• The Kaliganj seat is one of the constituencies that historically sees intense competition between the TMC, BJP, and the Left-Congress alliance.
• By-elections (By-polls):
• By-polls are specialized elections held to fill a vacancy that arises when a sitting member of the Legislative Assembly or Parliament dies, resigns, or is disqualified.
• These elections are essential for maintaining the full democratic representation of a constituency within the legislature.

Important Points

• Election Commission of India (ECI): Established under Article 324 of the Constitution of India, it is the autonomous constitutional authority responsible for administering election processes in India at both the national and state levels.
• Demographics and Geography: The Kaliganj constituency is situated in the Nadia district, which shares a border with Bangladesh. This geographical location often makes issues like border security, migration, and rural development central to the election manifestos of parties like the Trinamool Congress and BJP.
• Voter Turnout: High voter participation is a characteristic feature of West Bengal elections, often exceeding 80%, reflecting the deep-rooted political consciousness of the citizens in the state.

The correct answer is Bank of India.

Key Points

• In August 2025, the Bank of India (BOI) officially classified the loan accounts of Reliance Communications (RCom) and its subsidiary, Reliance Telecom, as fraud.
• This decision by the public sector lender followed a similar move by the State Bank of India (SBI) and Canara Bank, which had previously tagged these accounts due to significant financial irregularities.
• The classification was triggered by the findings of a forensic audit conducted by BDO India, which uncovered evidence of fund diversion and unauthorized transactions within the Anil Ambani-led companies.
• The Bank of India has a substantial exposure to Reliance Communications, with outstanding dues estimated to be in the range of several thousand crores, contributing to the company's total debt of approximately Rs 46,000 crore.
• Under Reserve Bank of India (RBI) guidelines, once an account is declared fraud, the bank is required to report it to the Central Fraud Registry and provide 100% provisioning for the outstanding amount over a specific period.

Additional Information

• Reliance Communications (RCom):
• Once a leading telecom operator in India, RCom was part of the Reliance Group headed by Anil Ambani.
• The company faced severe financial distress due to high competition and debt, eventually filing for insolvency under the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) in 2019.
• The Role of SBI in the Case:
• As the lead lender in the consortium, the State Bank of India played a pivotal role in the forensic investigation.
• SBI was among the first major banks to categorize the RCom accounts as fraudulent, setting a precedent for other lenders like Bank of India and Indian Overseas Bank.
• Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016:
• The IBC provides a time-bound process for resolving insolvency and bankruptcy cases in India.
• Despite being under the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP) for years, the recovery for lenders in the RCom case has remained slow due to various legal hurdles and litigation.

Important Points

• Forensic Audit Impact: The forensic audit is a critical tool used by financial institutions to detect malpractice. In the case of Anil Ambani’s firms, the audit revealed that funds were moved to related parties without proper commercial justification.
• Legal Implications for Promoters: When a bank declares an account as fraud, the promoters and directors face restricted access to institutional finance and may be subjected to investigations by agencies like the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) and the Enforcement Directorate (ED).
• Banking Sector Stability: Such classifications are part of the RBI’s efforts to clean up Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) and ensure transparency in the Indian banking system.
• Classification Timeline: While SBI initiated the process earlier, the formal declaration by Bank of India in 2025 reinforces the collective stance of the consortium of lenders against the defaulting entity.

The correct answer is Asian Athletics Championship.

Key Points

• Parul Chaudhary, the prominent Indian distance runner, showcased an exceptional performance at the Asian Athletics Championship in 2025, where she successfully broke her previous National Record.
• She competes primarily in the 3000m steeplechase and the 5000m events, and her record-breaking feat in 2025 further solidified her position as one of India's elite track athletes.
• The Asian Athletics Championship is a biennial event organized by the Asian Athletics Association, and the 2025 edition served as a crucial platform for athletes to qualify for the World Athletics Championships.
• During the competition, Parul Chaudhary demonstrated superior stamina and tactical awareness, surpassing the timing she had previously set at international meets like the World Championships and Asian Games.
• Her achievement in 2025 is a testament to her consistent training and the support provided by the Athletics Federation of India (AFI) to promote long-distance running in the country.

Additional Information

• Athlete Profile:
• Parul Chaudhary was born on April 15, 1995, in Meerut, Uttar Pradesh. She comes from a modest background and has risen through the ranks of Indian athletics through sheer perseverance.
• She gained international fame during the 2022 Asian Games (held in 2023) in Hangzhou, China, where she won the Gold Medal in the 5000m race and a Silver Medal in the 3000m steeplechase.
• She is the first Indian woman to win a Gold Medal in the 5,000 meters event at the Asian Games, marking a historic moment for Indian Athletics.
• National Records:
• Before her 2025 achievement, Parul held the national record in the 3000m steeplechase with a time of 9:15.31, set during the World Athletics Championships 2023 in Budapest.
• She also holds the national record for the women's 5000m and the 3000m (non-steeplechase) events, making her a versatile multi-record holder in India.
• Asian Athletics Championship:
• The 26^th edition of the Asian Athletics Championship was scheduled for 2025 in Gwangju, South Korea.
• This championship is the premier athletics event in Asia, featuring participation from over 40 countries across the continent.

Important Points

• Training and Support: Parul Chaudhary has been supported by the Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS), an initiative by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India, to provide assistance to top athletes for Olympic preparations.
• Significance of 2025: The year 2025 is pivotal for track athletes as it leads into the preparation cycle for the 2026 Asian Games and the 2028 Los Angeles Olympics.
• Specialization: Her ability to maintain a high pace in the steeplechase, which involves clearing hurdles and water jumps, distinguishes her from traditional flat-track runners.
• Competition Context: While she has participated in the Doha Diamond League and Commonwealth Games in the past, her record-shattering performance in the specific context of the 2025 calendar occurred at the Asian Athletics Championship.

p>The correct answer is Pakistan.

Key Points

• The Sustainable Development Report (SDR) 2025, released in June 2025, provides a comprehensive assessment of the progress made by 193 UN Member States towards achieving the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
• In the 2025 edition of the index, India secured a rank of 109^th globally. While India has shown progress in certain areas like climate action and basic infrastructure, it continues to face challenges in goals related to hunger, gender equality, and quality education.
• Among India's neighbors, Pakistan had a ranking significantly worse than India, placed at the 137^th position. This indicates that Pakistan is lagging behind in the majority of the 17 Sustainable Development Goals compared to other South Asian nations.
• In contrast, other neighboring countries such as Bhutan, Sri Lanka, and Nepal performed better than India in the 2025 SDR. Bhutan usually maintains a high rank due to its focus on environmental conservation and social well-being, while Nepal and Sri Lanka have shown resilience in social indicators despite economic fluctuations.
• The Sustainable Development Index score for India was approximately 64.0, whereas Pakistan scored lower, reflecting a wider gap in achieving the 2030 Agenda targets.

Additional Information

• Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN):
• The SDR is published annually by the UN Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN), which has been operating under the auspices of the UN Secretary-General since 2012.
• The report is led by Professor Jeffrey Sachs and provides a data-driven ranking to help countries identify gaps in their sustainable development strategies.
• The 17 SDGs:
• The Sustainable Development Goals were adopted by all United Nations Member States in 2015 as a universal call to action to end poverty, protect the planet, and ensure peace and prosperity by 2030.
• Key goals include Goal 1: No Poverty, Goal 5: Gender Equality, Goal 13: Climate Action, and Goal 16: Peace, Justice, and Strong Institutions.
• Regional Performance in South Asia:
• South Asia remains a region with diverse performance levels. While Bhutan and Maldives often lead the regional charts, Pakistan and Afghanistan consistently rank at the bottom due to political instability and economic crises.
• India's performance is critical to the global success of the SDGs because of its massive population and economic footprint.

Important Points

• The SDG Index score can be interpreted as the percentage of SDG achievement. A score of 100 indicates that all goals have been fully met.
• For the 2025 report, the global average progress has been noted as stagnant or slow since 2020, primarily due to the long-term impacts of global health crises and geopolitical conflicts.
• Finland, Sweden, and Denmark continue to occupy the top three positions in the global rankings for 2025, having achieved or being on track to achieve most of the targets.
• The June 2025 report emphasizes the need for increased financial architecture reform to help developing nations like India and Pakistan bridge the funding gap required for green transitions and social safety nets.

The correct answer is Electric vehicle services.

Key Points

• In May 2025, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) initiated a rigorous audit and review of digital wallets specifically linked to the Electric vehicle services sector.
• The move was prompted by the sudden operational shutdown of BluSmart, which was a major player in the EV ride-hailing and charging infrastructure ecosystem.
• The central bank's intervention focused on the Prepaid Payment Instruments (PPI) used by EV service providers to manage customer balances for ride bookings and battery charging.
• The investigation aimed to determine if Electric vehicle services providers were maintaining escrow accounts correctly to safeguard user deposits, as mandated by the Payment and Settlement Systems Act.
• This regulatory action highlights the RBI's concern regarding the financial stability of fintech-integrated mobility platforms and the protection of consumer interest in the event of corporate insolvency.

Additional Information

• Electric Vehicle Services: This industry encompasses e-mobility solutions, including electric cabs, bike-sharing, and public charging stations. These services often require users to maintain a "walled garden" balance in a closed-loop or semi-closed-loop wallet.
• BluSmart: Recognized as a pioneer in all-electric ride-sharing in India, it operated a large fleet and massive charging hubs. Its closure in the 2025 timeline created a ripple effect in the green mobility market, leading to concerns over unrecovered user funds.
• PPI Guidelines: The Reserve Bank of India issues Master Directions on Prepaid Payment Instruments, which regulate how companies can issue wallets and how they must store the money received from the public.
• Digital Payment Ecosystem: The integration of fintech within Electric vehicle services is part of a broader trend to streamline micro-transactions, though it introduces new layers of regulatory risk that the RBI monitors closely.

Important Points

• Consumer Redressal: Following the BluSmart incident, the RBI emphasized that Electric vehicle services must have a transparent refund mechanism for any unutilized balances stored in digital wallets.
• Interoperability: A key feature discussed during the 2025 review was the potential requirement for wallet interoperability, allowing EV users to transfer balances between different charging or ride-hailing service providers.
• Compliance Audits: Companies in the EV sector are now required to submit periodic System Audit Reports (SAR) to the RBI to ensure their digital payment infrastructure meets cybersecurity and financial safety standards.
• Financial Solvency: The central bank has suggested that non-banking entities in the Electric vehicle services space might need to maintain higher net worth requirements to continue offering wallet-based services.

The correct answer is China.

Key Points

• In early 2025, China formally requested consultations with India at the World Trade Organization (WTO) concerning India’s trade measures on solar cells and solar modules.
• This request marks the official commencement of a legal dispute within the WTO dispute settlement framework, where China challenged India's domestic protectionist policies.
• The primary focus of China’s complaint is the Approved List of Models and Manufacturers (ALMM) and the high Basic Customs Duty (BCD) imposed by the Government of India.
• China argues that these measures provide an unfair advantage to Indian domestic manufacturers and are inconsistent with India’s obligations under the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) 1994 and the Agreement on Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMs).
• Consultations are the first stage of the WTO process, allowing the involved member countries to discuss the matter and find a solution without proceeding to formal litigation.

Additional Information

• Basic Customs Duty (BCD): In April 2022, India implemented a BCD of 40% on imported solar modules and 25% on solar cells to reduce dependency on imports, particularly from China, and promote the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative.
• Approved List of Models and Manufacturers (ALMM): Managed by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), this list ensures that only certified domestic manufacturers can supply components for government-subsidized projects, effectively acting as a non-tariff barrier.
• Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme: To support the local industry against foreign competition, India introduced the PLI scheme for High-Efficiency Solar PV Modules with an outlay of over Rs. 24,000 crore.
• WTO Dispute Settlement Process: If the consultations between India and China do not reach a resolution within 60 days, China may request the WTO to establish a dispute settlement panel to adjudicate the matter.
• India's Renewable Energy Target: India has set an ambitious goal of reaching 500 GW of non-fossil energy capacity by 2030, making the solar supply chain a critical point of national economic interest.

Important Points

• Global Solar Market Dynamics: China currently dominates over 80% of the global solar manufacturing supply chain, leading to trade tensions not just with India, but also with the United States and the European Union.
• Previous WTO Disputes: India has previously lost a case at the WTO against the USA regarding Domestic Content Requirements (DCR) under the Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission in 2016.
• Strategic Autonomy: The Indian government maintains that these measures are essential for energy security and to prevent dumping of cheap components that could stifle the growth of nascent domestic industries.
• Import Data: Despite high duties, India remains a significant importer of solar components, with imports from China totaling billions of US Dollars annually due to the massive scale of Indian solar installations.

The correct answer is Gender equality.

Key Points

• Mission Shakti 5.0 was launched by the Government of Uttar Pradesh during International Girl Child Week, which was celebrated from October 3 to October 11, 2025.
• The mission is a flagship initiative aimed at enhancing the safety, dignity, and self-reliance of women and girls, often summarized under the vision of Nari Shakti.
• This initiative directly aligns with Sustainable Development Goal 5 (SDG 5), which seeks to achieve Gender Equality and empower all women and girls globally.
• During the launch, the Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh emphasized the integration of technology and community policing to reduce crimes against women and ensure a secure environment.
• The 5.0 version of the mission focuses on grassroots reach, utilizing 604 pink booths and dedicated women help desks at every police station to provide immediate assistance. Hence, the correct answer is Gender equality.

Additional Information

• Evolution of Mission Shakti:
• The mission was first launched in October 2020 in response to the need for a comprehensive safety net for women in Uttar Pradesh.
• It operates on a three-pillar strategy: Suraksha (Safety), Samman (Dignity), and Swavalamban (Self-reliance).
• Sustainable Development Goal 5 (SDG 5):
• SDG 5 is one of the 17 Sustainable Development Goals established by the United Nations in 2015.
• Its targets include ending all forms of discrimination and violence against women, as well as ensuring equal opportunities for leadership at all levels of decision-making.
• Key Components of Mission Shakti 5.0:
• The phase involved awareness campaigns across 75 districts, targeting schools, colleges, and public spaces to educate girls about their legal rights.
• Significant focus is placed on the promotion of helpline numbers such as 1090 (Women Power Line), 181 (Women Helpline), and 112 (Emergency Response Support System).
• Financial empowerment is promoted through the BC Sakhi (Business Correspondent Sakhi) program and Self-Help Groups (SHGs), fostering economic independence.
• International Girl Child Day:
• Observed annually on October 11, this day highlights the challenges girls face while promoting their empowerment and the fulfillment of their human rights.

Important Points

• Impact on Education: While the primary goal is Gender Equality, the mission indirectly supports SDG 4 (Quality Education) by creating a safe environment that encourages girls to attend schools and higher education institutions without fear.
• Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam: The mission echoes the spirit of the Women's Reservation Bill (2023), which aims to provide 33% reservation for women in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies, further cementing political gender equality in India.
• Operational Data: Since its inception, Mission Shakti has led to the establishment of specialized courts for the speedy trial of cases related to POCSO and crimes against women, significantly improving the conviction rate in the state.

The correct answer is Asian Development Bank.

Key Points

• In January 2025, the Government of India signed a $126.42 million loan agreement with the Asian Development Bank (ADB) to enhance the tourism potential of Uttarakhand.
• The primary objective of this loan is to develop sustainable, inclusive, and climate-resilient tourism infrastructure around the iconic Tehri Lake (Tehri Reservoir).
• The project, titled the Integrated Tehri Lake Development Project, aims to transform the region into a premier destination for adventure tourism and water sports.
• Key components of the agreement include the construction of a world-class water sports academy, ferry terminals, eco-friendly resorts, and public amenities to attract both domestic and international tourists.
• The project emphasizes environmental sustainability by integrating solid waste management systems and sewage treatment plants to protect the ecosystem of the Bhagirathi River and the reservoir.
• This initiative is expected to boost the local economy by creating employment opportunities for the youth and women of the Tehri Garhwal district through skill development programs.

Additional Information

• Asian Development Bank (ADB):
• Established in 1966, the ADB is a regional development bank headquartered in Mandaluyong, Philippines.
• As of 2025, it has 69 member countries, with 49 from within the Asia-Pacific region.
• The current President of ADB is Masatsugu Asakawa. Its main goal is to eradicate extreme poverty while promoting social and economic development.
• Tehri Lake and Dam:
• The Tehri Dam is the highest dam in India and one of the highest in the world, located on the Bhagirathi River in Uttarakhand.
• The Tehri Reservoir, often called Tehri Lake, is a massive man-made lake covering an area of approximately 42 square kilometers.
• It is a significant source of hydroelectric power (with a capacity of 2,400 MW) and provides drinking water and irrigation to several states in North India.
• Tourism in Uttarakhand:
• Known as "Devbhoomi" (Land of the Gods), Uttarakhand is a major hub for spiritual tourism, trekking, and wildlife.
• The state government has been focusing on diversifying tourism beyond religious circuits to include wellness tourism and adventure sports to increase the GSDP (Gross State Domestic Product).

Important Points

• Climate Resilience: The project incorporates climate-smart design features to withstand the specific geographical challenges of the Himalayan region, such as landslides and seismic activity.
• Institutional Support: The Department of Economic Affairs (DEA) under the Ministry of Finance acted as the nodal agency for the Government of India in finalizing this multilateral funding.
• Local Community Engagement: A significant portion of the project is dedicated to community-based tourism, ensuring that local homestays and small businesses benefit directly from the increased tourist footfall$.

The correct answer is Streamlining labour regulations.

Key Points

• The primary objective of implementing the four Labour Codes is to streamline labour regulations by consolidating and simplifying 29 central labour laws into four concise codes.
• This massive reform is designed to improve the Ease of Doing Business in India by reducing the multiplicity of definitions, authorities, and compliance requirements that previously burdened the industrial sector.
• The four codes include: The Code on Wages, 2019; The Industrial Relations Code, 2020; The Code on Social Security, 2020; and The Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020.
• By bringing these codes into effect, the Government of India aims to modernize the labour market, making it more flexible and responsive to the needs of a 21^st-century economy while ensuring worker rights are protected under a unified legal framework.
• The consolidation helps in removing obsolete provisions and overlapping jurisdictions, thereby fostering a more transparent and efficient industrial environment.

Additional Information

• Code on Wages, 2019:
• This code replaces four laws: the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965, and the Equal Remuneration Act, 1976.
• It universalizes the right to minimum wages and timely payment of wages to all employees, regardless of the sector or wage ceiling.
• Industrial Relations Code, 2020:
• It consolidates the Trade Unions Act, 1926, the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946, and the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.
• The code seeks to balance industrial peace with employer flexibility, particularly regarding the thresholds for layoffs and retrenchment in establishments.
• Code on Social Security, 2020:
• It integrates nine laws, such as the Employees’ Provident Fund Act and the Maternity Benefit Act.
• A major feature is the extension of social security to unorganized workers, gig workers, and platform workers, recognizing modern forms of employment.
• Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020:
• This code subsumes 13 labour laws related to the safety and health of workers in factories, mines, and plantations.
• It introduces a single registration for establishments instead of multiple licenses, facilitating administrative efficiency.

Important Points

• Historical Context: The recommendation for consolidating labour laws was first proposed by the Second National Commission on Labour in 2002, highlighting the need for simplification and rationalization.
• Implementation Agency: The Ministry of Labour and Employment is the nodal ministry responsible for the formulation and notification of rules under these codes.
• Technological Integration: The codes emphasize the use of web-based inspections and electronic filing of returns to reduce human interface and corruption.
• One Nation, One Definition: One of the critical achievements of these codes is the standardization of the definition of "Wage" across all four codes, which eliminates legal ambiguity and litigation.

The correct answer is Bihar.

Key Points

• The 2025 Asia Rugby U-20 Sevens Championship was hosted by the Indian state of Bihar, marking a significant milestone for the sport in the region.
• The international event took place in the capital city, Patna, specifically at the Pataliputra Sports Complex, which is equipped with world-class facilities for such competitions.
• The championship was held over two days, on August 9 and August 10, 2025, featuring intense matches among the top youth teams in Asia.
• The tournament was organized through a collaborative effort between Asia Rugby, the Indian Rugby Football Union (Rugby India), and the Government of Bihar.
• It showcased competitions in both the Men’s and Women’s categories, providing a platform for emerging talent from countries across the continent to compete at a high level.

Additional Information

• Rugby India (Indian Rugby Football Union):
• This is the governing body for Rugby Union in India, founded in 1968 and affiliated with World Rugby.
• The current President of Rugby India is the well-known actor and former rugby player Rahul Bose, who has been instrumental in promoting the sport.
• The organization is responsible for managing the Indian National Teams across various age groups and formats, including Sevens and Fifteens.
• Asia Rugby:
• It is the formal governing body for the sport in Asia and is one of the regional associations under World Rugby.
• Headquartered in Dubai, United Arab Emirates, it oversees more than 30 member unions across the continent.
• The organization conducts various annual tournaments, including the Asia Rugby Championship and the Asia Rugby Sevens Series.
• Bihar’s Sports Initiatives:
• The Government of Bihar has been actively investing in sports infrastructure to transform the state into a sports hub in Eastern India.
• The selection of Bihar as a host for an international rugby event highlights the state’s success in developing a strong rugby culture, especially at the grassroots level.
• The Sports Authority of Bihar has launched several schemes to identify and train young athletes for national and international platforms.

Important Points

• Tournament Format: The U-20 Sevens format involves 7 players per side playing in two halves of 7 minutes each, known for its high speed and tactical complexity.
• Participating Nations: Major rugby-playing nations in Asia, including Hong Kong China, Thailand, Malaysia, Uzbekistan, and Sri Lanka, frequently participate in these championships to secure continental rankings.
• Economic and Social Impact: Hosting an event of this magnitude in 2025 boosted local tourism in Patna and inspired thousands of school and college students in Bihar to take up the sport.
• Venue Details: The Pataliputra Sports Complex is a multi-use stadium that has previously hosted major events like the Women’s World Cup Kabaddi and various Pro Kabaddi League matches.

The correct answer is 86.

Key Points

• NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development) has officially sanctioned a cumulative total of 86 projects as of 31^st August 2025.
• These projects have been distributed across 8 State Governments in India to boost regional development and rural growth.
• The financial assistance provided for these 86 projects falls under the category of term loans, which are designed for long-term capital expenditure in the rural sector.
• The primary focus of these sanctioned projects involves the enhancement of rural infrastructure, irrigation systems, and agricultural logistics.
• This initiative is part of NABARD's ongoing commitment to providing financial support to state-led developmental programs that improve the livelihood of the rural population. Hence, the correct answer is 86.

Additional Information

• About NABARD:
• NABARD was established on 12 July 1982 based on the recommendations of the B. Sivaraman Committee.
• It functions as the apex development bank in India, headquartered in Mumbai, with a mandate to promote sustainable and equitable agriculture and rural development.
• The institution is fully owned by the Government of India after the RBI divested its entire stake.
• Term Loans for State Governments:
• Term loans are provided to State Governments to fund various projects under the Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) and other specialized funds like the Long Term Irrigation Fund (LTIF).
• The tenure for such loans typically varies depending on the specific fund, often ranging from 7 to 15 years, including a grace period.
• The interest rates on these loans are generally linked to the Bank Rate or specific benchmarks set by the Government of India.
• Project Categories:
• Sanctioned projects usually cover sectors such as Rural Connectivity (roads and bridges), Social Sector (schools, public health centers), and Agriculture and Allied Sectors (micro-irrigation, animal husbandry).
• The 86 projects sanctioned as of August 2025 aim to bridge the infrastructure gap and improve the credit absorption capacity of the targeted 8 states.

Important Points

• Strategic Impact: The sanctioning of 86 projects reflects a proactive fiscal approach to rural empowerment. By targeting 8 State Governments, NABARD ensures a decentralized development model that addresses specific regional needs.
• Monitoring Mechanism: Projects sanctioned under these term loans are subject to on-site monitoring and periodic reviews by NABARD officers to ensure timely completion and quality assurance.
• Economic Significance: These investments play a crucial role in increasing the Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) of the participating states by creating employment opportunities and improving market access for farmers.

The correct answer is A.R. Rahman.

Key Points

• Legendary Indian composer A.R. Rahman has won the Hollywood Music in Media Award (HMMA) 2024 for his exceptional work in the film Aadujeevitham: The Goat Life.
• He received the award in the category of 'Score - Independent Film (Foreign Language)', adding another prestigious international accolade to his career.
• The 15^th edition of the Hollywood Music in Media Awards was held in November 2024 at The Avalon Hollywood in Los Angeles, USA.
• The film Aadujeevitham: The Goat Life is a survival drama directed by Blessy and stars Prithviraj Sukumaran in the lead role. It is based on the 2008 novel of the same name by Benyamin.
• The soundtrack and background score by A.R. Rahman were praised for capturing the emotional and harrowing journey of the protagonist, blending Middle Eastern musical elements with Indian sensibilities. Hence, the correct answer is A.R. Rahman.

Additional Information

• A.R. Rahman:
• Born as A. S. Dileep Kumar on January 6, 1967, in Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
• He is popularly known as the "Mozart of Madras" and has won two Academy Awards (Oscars), two Grammy Awards, a BAFTA, and a Golden Globe for his work in Slumdog Millionaire (2008).
• He was awarded the Padma Bhushan, India's third-highest civilian award, in 2010.
• Hollywood Music in Media Awards (HMMA):
• It is an organization that honors original music (song and score) in all forms of visual media, including feature films, TV shows, video games, and documentaries.
• It is considered a significant precursor to the Golden Globes and Academy Awards in the music categories.
• The Film - Aadujeevitham:
• It is a Malayalam language film released in March 2024.
• The story depicts the life of Najeeb Mohammed, an Indian immigrant worker in Saudi Arabia who is forced into slavery as a goat herder in the desert.
• The film became one of the highest-grossing Malayalam films of all time.
• Other Options:
• Ilaiyaraaja: A legendary composer often referred to as "Isaignani" (musical genius), known for his prolific work in South Indian cinema with over 7,000 songs.
• Shankar-Ehsaan-Loy: A famous Indian musical trio consisting of Shankar Mahadevan, Ehsaan Noorani, and Loy Mendonsa, widely known for their Bollywood soundtracks.
• Himesh Reshammiya: A well-known Indian playback singer, music director, and actor known for his distinct high-pitched voice and numerous hit albums in the 2000s.

Important Points

• International Recognition: The HMMA win for Aadujeevitham marks a significant moment for Regional Indian Cinema on the global stage.
• Category Distinction: While major Hollywood films compete in main categories, the Foreign Language category specifically highlights excellence in non-English global cinema.
• Collaborations: A.R. Rahman has frequently collaborated with director Blessy and the performance of Prithviraj Sukumaran was enhanced significantly by the atmospheric score.

The correct answer is Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.

Key Points

• The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) released the first-ever monthly Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) in April 2025, marking a significant shift in how labor data is tracked in India.
• The National Sample Survey Office (NSSO), which is the statistical arm under MoSPI, is responsible for conducting these surveys and processing the data to reflect current employment trends.
• This move from quarterly (for urban areas) and annual reports to monthly reports was initiated to provide real-time insights into the Indian economy, allowing for more agile and evidence-based policy interventions.
• The PLFS serves as the primary source of official data on employment and unemployment indicators, including the Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) and Unemployment Rate (UR) across various age groups and educational levels.
• The launch of the monthly series in April 2025 aims to capture seasonal variations in the workforce more accurately, particularly in sectors like agriculture and construction. Hence, the correct answer is Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.

Additional Information

• Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI):
• It came into existence as an independent Ministry on 15^th October 1999 after the merger of the Department of Statistics and the Department of Programme Implementation.
• The Ministry has two wings: one relating to Statistics and the other relating to Programme Implementation.
• The National Statistical Office (NSO) consists of the Central Statistical Office (CSO) and the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO).
• Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS):
• The PLFS was launched by the NSO in April 2017 to estimate the key employment and unemployment indicators in a shorter time interval for urban areas and annually for both rural and urban areas.
• It uses a rotational panel sampling design in urban areas to measure short-term changes in labor indicators.
• Before 2017, the NSSO used to conduct quinquennial (every five years) surveys on employment and unemployment.
• Important Labor Indicators:
• Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR): It is defined as the percentage of persons in the labour force (working or seeking or available for work) in the population.
• Worker Population Ratio (WPR): It is defined as the percentage of employed persons in the population.
• Unemployment Rate (UR): It is defined as the percentage of persons unemployed among the persons in the labour force.

Important Points

• NSSO Functions: The National Sample Survey Office is mandated to conduct large-scale sample surveys in diverse fields on an all-India basis. It plays a vital role in providing data for the Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) monitoring framework.
• Data Frequency: The transition to monthly releases in 2025 aligns India with global best practices followed by developed economies like the USA and European Union countries, where labor data is a monthly high-frequency indicator.
• Policy Impact: High-frequency labor data helps the Ministry of Finance and the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in making critical decisions regarding monetary policy and fiscal stimulus by identifying stress in the labor market early.
• National Statistical Commission (NSC): The NSC is an autonomous body formed in June 2005 under the recommendation of the Rangarajan Commission to reduce the problems faced by statistical agencies in the country regarding data collection.

The correct answer is Aditya L1.

Key Points

• Aditya-L1 is the first space-based Indian mission to study the Sun. It is an observatory-class mission designed to provide a comprehensive understanding of solar dynamics.
• The spacecraft was successfully launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) on September 2, 2023, using the PSLV-C57 launch vehicle.
• The mission is positioned in a halo orbit around the Lagrange point 1 (L1) of the Sun-Earth system, which is located approximately 1.5 million kilometers from Earth.
• Being placed at the L1 point allows the satellite to observe the Sun continuously without any occultation or eclipses, providing a major advantage in monitoring solar activities in real-time.
• The primary scientific objectives include studying the solar corona (the outermost layer), the chromosphere, and the photosphere, as well as investigating coronal mass ejections (CMEs), solar flares, and space weather.

Additional Information

• AstroSat:
• Launched in September 2015, it is India’s first dedicated multi-wavelength space observatory.
• It carries five scientific payloads to observe the universe in Optical, Ultraviolet, and X-ray regions of the electromagnetic spectrum simultaneously.
• Chandrayaan-1:
• Launched in October 2008 via PSLV-C11, it was India's first mission to the Moon.
• The mission is famous for discovering the presence of water molecules (H2O) and hydroxyl (OH) on the lunar surface.
• Mangalyaan (Mars Orbiter Mission):
• Launched on November 5, 2013, it was India’s first interplanetary mission.
• India became the first nation to reach the Martian orbit in its maiden attempt and the fourth space agency in the world to reach Mars.
• Lagrange Points:
• These are specific positions in space where the gravitational pull of two large masses precisely equals the centripetal force required for a small object to move with them.
• There are five Lagrange points (L1 to L5) for the Sun-Earth system. L1 is the most significant for solar observations.

Important Points

• Scientific Payloads of Aditya L1:
• The spacecraft carries seven payloads. Four of these are remote sensing payloads (VELC, SUIT, SoLEXS, HEL1OS) that look directly at the Sun.
• The other three are in-situ payloads (ASPEX, PAPA, Advanced Tri-axial High Resolution Digital Magnetometers) that study the local environment at the L1 point.
• Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VELC): This is the primary payload designed by the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA), Bengaluru, to study the solar corona and the dynamics of coronal mass ejections.
• Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope (SUIT): Developed by the Inter-University Centre for Astronomy and Astrophysics (IUCAA), Pune, it images the solar photosphere and chromosphere in near Ultraviolet wavelengths.
• The mission duration is expected to be approximately 5 years, providing long-term data on the 11-year solar cycle.

The correct answer is The World: A Brief Introduction.

Key Points

• The World: A Brief Introduction, published in 2020, is written by Richard Haass to address the "gap" in foreign-policy literacy among the general public.
• The book serves as a concise primer that explains the essential history, geography, and political science concepts necessary to understand the modern world.
• It covers the evolution of the international system starting from the Peace of Westphalia in 1648, through the World Wars and the Cold War, up to the current era of globalization.
• The text details major global challenges such as climate change, cybersecurity, pandemics, and nuclear proliferation, making it a critical resource for 2025 discussions on global governance.
• Haass argues that in an interconnected world, an informed citizenry is vital for a functioning democracy, as domestic stability is increasingly linked to international events.

Additional Information

• Richard Haass:
• He is an American diplomat who served as the President of the Council on Foreign Relations (CFR) for twenty years, from 2003 to 2023.
• He has held senior positions in the U.S. State Department and served as a special assistant to President George H.W. Bush.
• The New Map: Energy, Climate, and the Clash of Nations:
• This book was authored by Daniel Yergin in 2020.
• It focuses on how the shale revolution and the transition to renewable energy are altering the geopolitical landscape between the United States, Russia, and China.
• The Long Game: China's Grand Strategy to Displace American Order:
• Written by Rush Doshi and published in 2021.
• It provides an analysis of China's long-term strategic intentions to reshape the global order.
• The Future Is Asian:
• Authored by Parag Khanna in 2019.
• It explores the "Asianization" of the world, highlighting the economic and cultural pivot toward the Asian continent in the 21^st century.

Important Points

• World Order: A central theme in Richard Haass's work is the maintenance of international order and the prevention of global disarray.
• Bill of Obligations: In 2023, Haass released "The Bill of Obligations: The Ten Habits of Good Citizens," which shifts the focus toward domestic civic responsibilities in the United States.
• Foreign Policy Literacy: The concept refers to the basic knowledge required to evaluate how a country interacts with the world, a skill Haass considers mandatory for voters in the modern era.
• Council on Foreign Relations (CFR): Founded in 1921, it is one of the most influential think tanks in the world specializing in U.S. foreign policy and international affairs.