General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Kochi.

Key Points

• The Indian Navy is scheduled to launch INS ‘Ikshak’, the third of the four Survey Vessels (Large) (SVL), in November 2025 at Kochi, Kerala.
• The primary objective of this launch is to significantly enhance India's indigenous hydrography capabilities, ensuring better mapping of the Indian Ocean Region.
• The ship’s name, Ikshak, which means ‘Guide’, symbolizes its role in providing safe passage for mariners through precise hydrographic data.
• The vessel is designed to conduct full-scale coastal and deep-water surveys of ports, navigational channels, and Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZ).
• The launch at Kochi underscores the strategic importance of the Southern Naval Command, which serves as a major training and operational base for the Indian Navy.

Additional Information

• Survey Vessel (Large) Project:
• The SVL project involves the construction of four ships intended to replace the existing Sandhayak Class survey ships.
• The first two ships of this class are INS Sandhayak and INS Nirdeshak, both designed for extensive maritime surveillance.
• These ships are being built under a contract between the Ministry of Defence and Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE), Kolkata.
• Technological Features and Indigenous Effort:
• The INS Ikshak features an indigenous content of over 80% by cost, aligning with the Atmanirbhar Bharat and Make in India initiatives.
• Each vessel in this class has a displacement of approximately 3,400 tons and a length of about 110 meters.
• They are equipped with state-of-the-art hydrographic equipment, including Multi-beam Echo Sounders, GPS precise positioning systems, and Autonomous Underwater Vehicles (AUVs).
• Operational Roles:
• Apart from hydrography, these ships can be deployed for Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) and can function as limited hospital ships during emergencies.
• The data collected by these vessels is vital for the National Hydrographic Office (NHO), based in Dehradun, to produce accurate nautical charts.

Important Points

• Kochi, often called the "Queen of the Arabian Sea," is a critical location for naval inductions and shipbuilding activities in South India.
• The year 2025 marks a significant milestone in the Indian Navy's modernization plan to achieve a 200-ship fleet for blue-water operations.
• The successful development of INS Ikshak involved a collaborative effort between GRSE and L&T Shipbuilding, demonstrating public-private partnership in defense.

The correct answer is 125 days.

Key Points

• The Viksit Bharat–G RAM G Act 2025 is a significant legislative framework designed to enhance rural livelihood by guaranteeing 125 days of statutory wage employment per financial year to every rural household.
• The primary objective of this act is to provide a robust social security net for families residing in rural areas, ensuring that at least one member of the household can find work when needed.
• This guarantee applies to all adult members of a rural household who volunteer to perform unskilled manual work.
• Under the provisions of the act, the 125 days of work is a legal entitlement, representing an increase from the previously standard 100 days offered under earlier schemes like MGNREGA.
• The act emphasizes inclusive growth, specifically targeting vulnerable groups, including Scheduled Castes (SC), Scheduled Tribes (ST), and women, to ensure they have access to minimum income through labor.

Additional Information

• Vision of Viksit Bharat 2047:
• The Viksit Bharat–G RAM G Act 2025 is a foundational step toward the Viksit Bharat 2047 vision, which aims to transform India into a developed nation by the 100^th year of its independence.
• By increasing the employment days to 125, the government aims to reduce rural-to-urban migration and strengthen the rural economy.
• Financial Provisions and Wages:
• Wages under this act are revised annually and are linked to the Consumer Price Index-Agricultural Labourers (CPI-AL) to protect workers against inflation.
• The Central Government typically bears 100% of the wage cost for unskilled manual labor, while material costs are shared between the Centre and the States in a 75:25 ratio.
• Types of Work Permitted:
• The act focuses on the creation of durable assets such as water conservation structures, check dams, rural roads, and afforestation projects.
• Work is also directed toward natural resource management and individual assets for small and marginal farmers to improve agricultural productivity.
• Digital Implementation:
• The scheme utilizes the G RAM G portal for real-time monitoring, e-attendance via the National Mobile Monitoring System (NMMS), and Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) to ensure transparency.
• Aadhaar-Based Payment Systems (ABPS) are mandatory to ensure that the wages reach the correct bank accounts of the beneficiaries without leakage.

Important Points

• Unemployment Allowance: If the government fails to provide employment within 15 days of the application for work, the applicant is legally entitled to a daily unemployment allowance.
• Social Audit: To maintain accountability, the Gram Sabha is empowered to conduct social audits of all the projects executed under the Act in the Gram Panchayat.
• Workplace Facilities: The act mandates that facilities such as drinking water, shade for periods of rest, and first-aid boxes must be provided at every worksite.
• Role of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs): The Gram Panchayats are responsible for planning and implementing at least 50% of the works in terms of cost, ensuring decentralized governance.

The correct answer is Uttarakhand.

Key Points

• The Uttarakhand government has announced the implementation of a specialized environmental tax (often referred to as a Green Tax) on all out-of-state vehicles entering its territory.
• This regulation is set to be fully operational starting from December 2025, marking a significant step toward sustainable tourism in the Himalayan region.
• The primary motive behind this initiative is to mitigate the ecological damage caused by the massive influx of tourist vehicles and to generate revenue for environmental conservation efforts.
• This tax specifically targets non-Uttarakhand registered vehicles, ensuring that those contributing to the carbon footprint of the state participate in its preservation.
• The State Cabinet approved this measure to address the growing concerns of pollution and traffic congestion in eco-sensitive zones.

Additional Information

• Geographical Context: Uttarakhand is a Himalayan state known for its fragile ecosystem. High vehicular movement leads to increased carbon emissions, which accelerates the melting of glaciers and impacts the local biodiversity.
• Tourism and Infrastructure: The state hosts the annual Char Dham Yatra, attracting millions of pilgrims. The environmental tax will help fund the maintenance of mountainous roads and the management of solid waste generated by tourists in high-altitude areas.
• Implementation Technology: To prevent long queues and traffic at border check posts like Haridwar and Rishikesh, the government plans to integrate the tax collection with FastTag technology and digital portals.
• Policy Alignment: This move is in line with the recommendations of the National Green Tribunal (NGT), which has frequently emphasized the need for "carrying capacity" assessments and fiscal measures to protect the Western Himalayas.
• Financial Allocation: The funds collected through this Green Tax will be deposited into a dedicated Environment Fund managed by the state's Pollution Control Board for specific reforestation and anti-pollution projects.

Important Points

• Vehicle Classification: The tax amount will vary depending on the type of vehicle. Heavy commercial vehicles and luxury buses will likely face higher charges compared to private light motor vehicles.
• Exemptions: Local residents with vehicles registered in Uttarakhand are exempt from this tax. Additionally, emergency services, ambulances, and government vehicles on official duty will not be charged.
• Economic Impact: While the tax aims at environmental protection, the government is also balancing it to ensure it does not drastically deter religious tourism, which is a major contributor to the state's GDP.
• Similar Global Practices: Such environmental levies are common in international tourist hubs and other Indian hill stations like Manali in Himachal Pradesh, which implemented a similar green fee for vehicles crossing the Rohtang Pass.

The correct answer is Union Public Service Commission (UPSC).

Key Points

• The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is India's premier central recruiting agency, responsible for appointments to and examinations for All India services and group A & group B of Central services.
• It traces its origin to the Public Service Commission which was first set up in India on October 1, 1926, following the recommendations of the Royal Commission on the Superior Civil Services in India (also known as the Lee Commission) in 1924.
• Initially established under the Government of India Act 1919, the commission was intended to fulfill the functions of recruitment and to protect the interests of public servants from political influences.
• The commission was later reconstituted as the Federal Public Service Commission under the Government of India Act 1935, which expanded its scope to include provincial requirements.
• Post-independence, with the commencement of the Constitution of India on January 26, 1950, the Federal Public Service Commission was renamed the Union Public Service Commission and granted Constitutional Status under Part XIV.

Additional Information

• Election Commission of India (ECI):
• It is an autonomous constitutional authority responsible for administering election processes in India at the national and state levels.
• It was established on January 25, 1950, in accordance with the Constitution. This day is now celebrated as National Voters' Day.
• The commission derives its powers from Article 324 of the Constitution.
• Central Vigilance Commission (CVC):
• The CVC is the main agency for preventing corruption in the Central government.
• It was established in February 1964 based on the recommendations of the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption.
• It was originally a non-statutory body but was granted statutory status by the CVC Act, 2003.
• Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI):
• The CBI is the premier investigating agency of India, operating under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.
• It was set up in 1963 by a resolution of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
• It is not a statutory body but derives its power to investigate from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946.

Important Points

• Constitutional Provisions for UPSC: Articles 315 to 323 of the Constitution deal with the composition, appointment, and removal of members, power and functions, and independence of the UPSC.
• Membership: The President of India appoints the Chairman and other members of the UPSC. Usually, the commission consists of 9 to 11 members including the Chairman.
• Tenure: Every member holds office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
• Independence: The UPSC is an independent constitutional body. The expenses of the commission are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India, and the Chairman is ineligible for further employment under the Government of India or a State after retirement.

The correct answer is 93%.

Key Points

• The Economic Survey 2024-25, which was released in January 2025, provides a comprehensive analysis of the Indian economy and highlights the significant challenges posed by environmental factors.
• According to the survey, India has been identified as the seventh most vulnerable country globally to the impacts of climate change.
• The report startlingly revealed that extreme weather events occurred on 93% of the days in the calendar year 2024. This indicates that out of 366 days (2024 being a leap year), at least one region in India experienced a significant climate event on approximately 340 days.
• These climate events primarily included record-breaking heatwaves, devastating floods, landslides, and intense cyclones, reflecting the increasing frequency and intensity of weather anomalies.
• The data underscores that climate change is no longer a future projection but a present reality affecting the geographical and economic stability of the nation.
• Hence, the correct answer is 93%.

Additional Information

• Impact on Agriculture and Economy:
• The Economic Survey notes that such frequent extreme weather events have a direct negative impact on agricultural productivity and food security.
• Fluctuations in the monsoon and unseasonal rains in 2024 led to volatility in food inflation, particularly affecting the prices of vegetables and cereals.
• Heatwaves of 2024:
• During the summer of 2024, parts of North and Central India recorded temperatures exceeding 50°C, creating a severe public health crisis and increasing the peak electricity demand to record levels.
• Climate Risk Index:
• The ranking of India as the seventh most vulnerable country aligns with findings from the Global Climate Risk Index, which assesses the extent to which countries have been affected by the impacts of weather-related loss events.
• Government Initiatives:
• To combat these risks, India has accelerated its National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) and emphasized the National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC).
• India remains committed to its Panchamrit targets announced at COP26, aiming for Net Zero emissions by the year 2070.

Important Points

• Economic Survey 2024-25: This document is prepared by the Economics Division of the Department of Economic Affairs under the guidance of the Chief Economic Advisor (CEA).
• Macro-Critical Risk: The survey categorizes climate change as a macro-critical risk, meaning it has the potential to affect the GDP growth, fiscal deficit, and financial stability of the country.
• Disaster Management: The increasing frequency of events on 93% of days necessitates a shift from reactive relief to proactive disaster resilient infrastructure, as promoted by the CDRI (Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure).
• Mission LiFE: Launched by the Prime Minister, this mission encourages an environmentally conscious lifestyle to mitigate the long-term effects of global warming at an individual and community level.

The correct answer is Chess.

Key Points

• Dommaraju Gukesh, popularly known as D Gukesh, is a prominent Indian Grandmaster in the sport of Chess.
• He has been selected for the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award 2024, which is the highest sporting honor in India, following his historic achievements on the global stage.
• In April 2024, D Gukesh made history by becoming the youngest-ever challenger for the World Chess Championship title after winning the FIDE Candidates Tournament in Toronto, Canada, at the age of 17.
• He played a crucial role in leading the Indian Men’s Team to their first-ever Gold Medal at the 45^th FIDE Chess Olympiad held in Budapest, Hungary, in September 2024.
• He achieved an individual Gold Medal on the first board during the Olympiad, finishing with a phenomenal performance rating of over 3000.
• Gukesh is currently the highest-rated Indian chess player, having surpassed the legendary Viswanathan Anand in the FIDE Live Ratings.

Additional Information

• Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award:
• It is awarded annually by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India.
• The award was formerly known as the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award before being renamed in August 2021 in honor of the Hockey legend Major Dhyan Chand.
• The first recipient of this prestigious award was the Chess legend Viswanathan Anand in the year 1991-92.
• The award consists of a medallion, a certificate, and a significant cash prize of Rs. 25 lakh.
• FIDE (International Chess Federation):
• It is the international governing body for the sport of Chess, founded on July 20, 1924, in Paris, France.
• It organizes the World Chess Championship and sets the Elo rating system to rank players globally.
• Grandmaster (GM) Title:
• This is the highest title a chess player can attain, awarded by FIDE.
• D Gukesh became the second-youngest Grandmaster in history in January 2019, at the age of 12 years, 7 months, and 17 days.

Important Points

• National Sports Day: Celebrated in India on August 29 to mark the birth anniversary of Major Dhyan Chand. The National Sports Awards are typically presented by the President of India at Rashtrapati Bhavan.
• 2024 Context: The year 2024 has been a landmark year for Indian Chess, with both the Men's and Women's teams winning Olympiad Gold, making D Gukesh a primary candidate for the nation's top honors.
• World Championship 2024: D Gukesh faces the reigning World Champion Ding Liren from China in the World Chess Championship match scheduled for late 2024 in Singapore.

The correct answer is Transactree Technologies.

Key Points

• In May 2025, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) exercised its regulatory authority to impose monetary penalties on Union Bank of India and Transactree Technologies Private Limited for various compliance failures.
• The penalty on Union Bank of India was specifically linked to the violation of RBI directions concerning Lending to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) Sector and the maintenance of the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR).
• Transactree Technologies Private Limited, which operates as a Non-Banking Financial Company-Peer to Peer (NBFC-P2P) lending platform (widely known as Lendbox), was penalised for non-compliance with the Peer-to-Peer Lending Platform (Reserve Bank) Directions, 2017.
• These regulatory actions were taken under the provisions of Section 47A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, and relevant sections of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
• The RBI clarified that these penalties are based on deficiencies in regulatory compliance and are not intended to validate any specific transactions between these entities and their customers.

Additional Information

• Union Bank of India:
• It is one of India's largest Public Sector Banks, headquartered in Mumbai.
• The bank was established in 1919 and was inaugurated by Mahatma Gandhi.
• Following the 2020 Amalgamation, Andhra Bank and Corporation Bank were merged into Union Bank of India, significantly expanding its footprint to over 8,500 branches.
• Transactree Technologies (NBFC-P2P):
• Peer-to-Peer (P2P) lending is a method of debt financing that allows individuals to borrow and lend money without the use of an official financial institution as an intermediary.
• The RBI regulated this sector in 2017 by categorizing such platforms as Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) to ensure transparent operations and consumer protection.
• Transactree Technologies operates Lendbox, which is a leading fintech player in the Indian credit market.
• Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR):
• It is the minimum percentage of deposits that a commercial bank has to maintain in the form of liquid cash, gold, or unencumbered securities.
• It is a key monetary policy tool used by the RBI to control the expansion of bank credit and ensure the solvency of banks.

Important Points

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI):
• The RBI was established on April 1, 1935, in accordance with the provisions of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
• It performs the function of the Monetary Authority, the Regulator and Supervisor of the financial system, and the Manager of Foreign Exchange.
• Under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, the RBI has the power to inspect banking companies and impose fines to maintain financial stability in the Indian economy.
• Regulatory Oversight:
• The RBI frequently issues Master Directions on Know Your Customer (KYC), Cyber Security Framework, and Interest Rate on Deposits to protect the interests of depositors.
• Failure to adhere to these norms results in enforcement actions, which serve as a deterrent for other financial institutions and fintech companies.

The correct answer is Nilambur.

Key Points

• The Indian National Congress (INC) candidate secured a decisive victory in the Nilambur Assembly constituency during the Kerala by-elections conducted in June 2025.
• The Nilambur seat became a focal point of political competition between the United Democratic Front (UDF) and the Left Democratic Front (LDF), with the Congress nominee managing to reclaim the seat for the UDF alliance. Hence, the option Nilambur is correct.
• The election was held to fill the vacancy created in the constituency, and it saw an impressive voter turnout of approximately 78.4%, indicating high political awareness among the local populace in June 2025.
• The victory in Nilambur is strategically significant for the Congress party as it strengthens their representation in the Malappuram district, which is traditionally a stronghold for their ally, the Indian Union Muslim League (IUML).
• The Election Commission of India (ECI) oversaw the process, ensuring the use of M3 generation Electronic Voting Machines (EVM) and Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trails (VVPAT) to maintain the integrity of the June 2025 polls.

Additional Information

• Political Landscape of Kerala:
• The state of Kerala features a unicameral legislature known as the Kerala Legislative Assembly or Niyamasabha, consisting of 140 elected members.
• Politics in the state is primarily dominated by two major fronts: the United Democratic Front (UDF), led by the Congress, and the Left Democratic Front (LDF), led by the CPI(M).
• By-elections often serve as a mid-term referendum on the performance of the ruling government and the effectiveness of the opposition.
• The Nilambur Constituency:
• Nilambur is located in the Malappuram district and is renowned for its vast teak plantations and the Conolly's Plot, which is the world's oldest teak plantation.
• The constituency has a diverse demographic profile, making it a competitive battleground where local developmental issues, tribal welfare, and environmental conservation in the Western Ghats are primary campaign themes.
• Other Mentioned Seats:
• Wayanad: This is a Parliamentary constituency and often sees high-profile contests involving national leaders of the Congress party.
• Ernakulam and Kottayam: These are critical urban and semi-urban centers in Central Kerala, serving as political hubs for various factions of the Kerala Congress and the INC.

Important Points

• Constitutional and Legal Framework:
• Under Article 324 of the Constitution of India, the Election Commission is vested with the power of superintendence, direction, and control of elections.
• The Representation of the People Act, 1951, specifically Section 151A, mandates that a by-election for any vacancy must be held within six months from the date of the occurrence of the vacancy.
• The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) comes into immediate effect upon the announcement of the election schedule by the ECI, ensuring that the incumbent government does not use its position to influence the voters.
• Role of the Governor:
• In the context of the State Legislative Assembly, the Governor of Kerala acts as the constitutional head who summons and prorogues the assembly sessions based on the advice of the Council of Ministers.

The correct answer is Vigyan Shri Award.

Key Points

• Dr. C. Anandharamakrishnan, the Director of CSIR-National Institute for Interdisciplinary Science and Technology (NIIST), was honored with the Vigyan Shri Award in 2024.
• This award was specifically granted for his pioneering contributions to the field of Agricultural Sciences, particularly in food processing and engineering.
• The Vigyan Shri is a category under the newly instituted Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar (RVP), which is one of the highest national honors in India for science, technology, and innovation.
• The awards for the year 2024 were announced on August 7 and presented by the President of India on August 23, which coincides with National Space Day.
• Dr. Anandharamakrishnan has been recognized for his extensive research in 3D food printing, computational modeling of food processing, and nutrient delivery systems.

Additional Information

• Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar (RVP):
• Introduced by the Government of India in 2024, these awards replaced previous science-related awards to provide a unified recognition system.
• The awards are divided into four categories: Vigyan Ratna (for lifetime achievement), Vigyan Shri (for distinguished contributions), Vigyan Yuva-SSB (for young scientists), and Vigyan Team (for collaborative work).
• The 2024 awards covered 13 domains, including Physics, Chemistry, Biological Sciences, Mathematics, Agricultural Sciences, and Engineering.
• Profile of Dr. Anandharamakrishnan:
• Before his tenure at CSIR-NIIST, he served as the Director of the National Institute of Food Technology, Entrepreneurship and Management (NIFTEM) in Thanjavur.
• He has authored several books and published over 170 research papers focused on Food Engineering and Agro-processing.
• His work is instrumental in addressing issues like malnutrition and enhancing the shelf-life of agricultural produce through scientific intervention.

Important Points

• Significance of the Award: The Vigyan Shri honors scientists of any age who have made a distinguished contribution to their respective fields of science and technology.
• Selection Committee: The recipients are selected by a committee chaired by the Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government of India, including secretaries of various science departments.
• Other Categories: In 2024, while Dr. Anandharamakrishnan received the Vigyan Shri, the Vigyan Ratna (the highest in this series) was awarded to Professor G. Padmanabhan for his work in Biological Sciences.
• Venue and Location: The CSIR-NIIST, headed by the awardee, is a premier research laboratory located in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala, which focuses on sustainable utilization of regional resources.

The correct answer is Gulveer Singh.

Key Points

• Indian long-distance runner Gulveer Singh created history in February 2025 by breaking the Asian short-track record in the 5000 m event.
• He clocked a remarkable time of 12:59.77 at the BU John Thomas Terrier Classic held in Boston, USA.
• With this performance, Gulveer Singh became the first Indian athlete to breach the 13-minute barrier in the 5000 m discipline (indoor/short track).
• The previous Asian indoor record was 13:09.43, which was set by El Hassan El-Abbassi of Bahrain in 2012.
• Gulveer Singh finished second in the race, finishing just behind Yared Nuguse of the USA, who won the event with a time of 12:56.46.

Additional Information

• Gulveer Singh:
• Hailing from Sirsa, Uttar Pradesh, he is a prominent figure in India's middle and long-distance running circuit.
• In March 2024, he set the national record in the 10,000 m (outdoor) with a time of 27:41.81 at The TEN meet in California.
• He won the bronze medal in the 10,000 m at the 2022 Asian Games held in Hangzhou, China.
• Avinash Sable:
• He is another legendary Indian runner who holds the outdoor national record for the 5000 m (13:19.30) and the 3000 m Steeplechase.
• While Gulveer Singh broke the short-track record, Avinash Sable remains a dominant force in outdoor athletics and Commonwealth Games medalists.
• Short-Track vs. Outdoor Records:
• Short-track records (often referred to as indoor records) are maintained separately from outdoor records by World Athletics.
• Short-track races typically take place on a 200-meter oval, whereas outdoor tracks are 400 meters in length.
• Other Options:
• Jacob Kiplimo is a world-renowned long-distance runner from Uganda and a World Half Marathon record holder.
• Yared Nuguse is an American middle-distance runner who competed in the same race in Boston where Gulveer Singh set the record.

Important Points

• Training and Support: Gulveer Singh trains under the guidance of coach Scott Simmons and is supported by the JSW Sports program and the Athletics Federation of India (AFI).
• Historical Context: Entering the sub-13 minute club is considered a world-class milestone in long-distance running, placing Gulveer Singh among the elite athletes globally.
• Year of Achievement: This record was established on February 1, 2025, marking a significant start to the athletic season for India.
• Venue: The Boston University (BU) track is famous for being a "fast track," frequently producing record-breaking times due to its banking and surface quality.

The correct answer is Qatar.

Key Points

• The FIFA Council officially announced in March 2024 that Qatar will host the next five editions of the FIFA U-17 World Cup starting from 2025 to 2029.
• Starting with the 2025 edition, the FIFA U-17 World Cup will undergo a massive expansion, increasing the number of participating teams from 24 to 48.
• The tournament, which was previously held every two years (biennially), will now be held annually to provide more competitive opportunities for young footballers globally.
• The decision to grant hosting rights to a single nation for five consecutive years was made to ensure stability and efficiency in tournament organization using existing world-class infrastructure. Hence, the correct answer is Qatar.

Additional Information

• FIFA U-17 Women’s World Cup:
• Similar to the men's tournament, the FIFA U-17 Women’s World Cup will also become an annual event starting from 2025.
• Morocco has been selected as the host for the five editions of the women’s tournament from 2025 to 2029.
• The field for the women's tournament will expand to 24 teams, reflecting FIFA’s commitment to growing women's football at the grassroots level.
• Historical Context:
• The FIFA U-17 World Cup was first held in 1985 in China, where it was originally an Under-16 event before changing to Under-17 in 1991.
• Nigeria is currently the most successful nation in the history of the men's tournament, having won a record five titles.

Important Points

• Infrastructure and Legacy:
• Qatar was chosen largely due to its existing state-of-the-art stadiums and facilities built for the 2022 FIFA World Cup, which ensures operational efficiency and sustainability.
• This 48-team format mimics the expansion of the senior FIFA World Cup, which will also feature 48 teams starting in 2026.
• Global Development:
• By moving to an annual cycle, FIFA aims to ensure that no age group of young players misses the chance to play on the world stage due to the previous two-year gap.
• The expansion allows more nations from developing football regions (such as Asia and Africa) to participate, fostering global talent identification.

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

• Operation Spot Trap was a massive state-wide anti-corruption drive conducted in January 2025 to weed out bribery and financial irregularities in public offices.
• The operation was orchestrated by the Vigilance and Anti-Corruption Bureau (VACB) of Kerala, following numerous complaints regarding "speed money" or illegal commissions being demanded for public services.
• A total of 36 people, including several government employees and private middlemen, were arrested during the coordinated raids across multiple districts. Hence, the statement regarding the location being Kerala is correct.
• The raids primarily targeted departments with high public interaction, such as the Revenue Department, Motor Vehicles Department (MVD), and Local Self-Government (LSG) institutions.
• During the operation, the VACB officials seized significant amounts of unaccounted cash from the possession of officials and from various hidden spots within government premises.

Additional Information

• Vigilance and Anti-Corruption Bureau (VACB):
• The VACB is the premier agency in Kerala dedicated to investigating corruption among public servants. It operates under the Home Department of the Government of Kerala.
• The agency is headed by a Director of the rank of Director General of Police (DGP) or Additional Director General of Police (ADGP).
• Its primary function is to conduct "trap" operations, surprise checks, and detailed enquiries into assets disproportionate to the known sources of income of government employees.
• Mechanism of Trap Operations:
• A "trap" typically involves the use of phenolphthalein-coated currency notes. When a public servant accepts this money, their hands are dipped in a sodium carbonate solution, which turns pink, providing scientific evidence of the bribe-taking act.
• Operation Spot Trap utilized these methods along with advanced surveillance to catch offenders red-handed in 2025.
• Legal Framework:
• The arrests and subsequent prosecutions are carried out under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988. This Act was significantly amended in 2018 to include provisions for punishing both the bribe-taker and the bribe-giver.
• The VACB also relies on the Kerala Government Servants' Conduct Rules to initiate departmental actions alongside criminal proceedings.

Important Points

• Public Participation:
• The Kerala government has encouraged citizens to report corruption via the 'Vigilance Eye' mobile application and a 24/7 toll-free helpline number (1064).
• This digital integration played a crucial role in gathering the intelligence that led to the success of Operation Spot Trap in January 2025.
• Impact on Administration:
• Such operations are intended to improve Kerala's ranking in the India Corruption Survey. Despite being noted as one of the least corrupt states in India, the government continues these high-intensity drives to ensure zero tolerance for corruption.
• The 36 arrests made in 2025 serve as a deterrent to other officials and emphasize the accountability of the bureaucracy.

The correct answer is To give a snapshot of key socio-economic data of the Ministry.

Key Points

• The GoIStats mobile application was launched by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) in 2025 to revolutionize how official statistics are accessed in India.
• The primary objective of this application is to provide a real-time snapshot of the country's key socio-economic indicators, making high-level data available at the fingertips of users. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It serves as a centralized digital platform where users can find authenticated data regarding National Income, Gross Domestic Product (GDP), and Consumer Price Index (CPI).
• The app is specifically designed to enhance transparency and data accessibility for researchers, policymakers, students, and the general public, moving away from bulky physical reports to a digital-first approach.
• By integrating various datasets, the GoIStats app helps in monitoring the economic health of the nation through interactive visualizations and simplified statistical dashboards.

Additional Information

• Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI):
• MoSPI came into existence as an independent Ministry on 15^th October 1999 after the merger of the Department of Statistics and the Department of Programme Implementation.
• The Ministry has two wings: one relating to Statistics (National Statistical Office - NSO) and the other relating to Programme Implementation.
• It is responsible for the release of crucial macroeconomic data such as the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) and inflation rates.
• Digital Transformation in Statistics:
• The launch of GoIStats aligns with the Digital India initiative, focusing on providing governance on demand and empowering citizens through information.
• The application uses advanced data analytics to present Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) data and Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) results in a more digestible format.
• Other Ministry Functions:
• MoSPI also oversees the Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS) and monitors the implementation of Infrastructure Projects worth Rs. 150 crores and above.

Important Points

• Socio-Economic Indicators: These include vital statistics like literacy rates, employment figures, poverty levels, and health metrics that define the quality of life in a country.
• Data Reliability: The data provided on the GoIStats app is sourced directly from the National Statistical Office (NSO), ensuring 100% authenticity and eliminating the risks associated with misinformation.
• User Interface: The app features multilingual support and offline access to certain key indicators, ensuring that data literacy reaches even the remote corners of the country.
• Global Comparison: The app often provides benchmarks against Sustainable Development Goals (SDG), allowing users to see India's progress on international indices.

The correct answer is Simone Biles.

Key Points

• The legendary American gymnast Simone Biles was honored with the Laureus World Sportswoman of the Year award, recognizing her incredible return to the pinnacle of her sport.
• This prestigious recognition was awarded during the 2024/2025 awards cycle, celebrating her historic performance at the World Gymnastics Championships where she extended her record as the most decorated gymnast in history.
• Simone Biles has now won the Laureus World Sportswoman of the Year award multiple times, having previously secured the title in 2017, 2019, and 2020.
• Her comeback in 2023 and 2024 after a hiatus following the Tokyo Olympics was cited as one of the greatest sporting stories, demonstrating both physical excellence and mental resilience. Hence, the correct answer is Simone Biles.

Additional Information

• Laureus World Sports Awards:
• Established in 1999 by founding patrons Daimler and Richemont, these awards are often referred to as the "Oscars of Sports."
• The awards recognize individuals and teams from the world of sports along with sporting achievements throughout the year.
• The selection process involves a Nominations Panel of world media followed by a final vote by the Laureus World Sports Academy, a jury made up of 71 sporting legends.
• Simone Biles (USA):
• She is an American artistic gymnast who holds a record 30 World Championship medals and multiple Olympic gold medals.
• She is widely considered the greatest gymnast of all time and has five moves named after her in the Code of Points.
• Other Options:
• Serena Williams: A former World No. 1 tennis player and a past recipient of the Laureus award, though she retired from professional tennis in 2022.
• Ellesse Andrews: A champion track cyclist from New Zealand who gained international acclaim for her performances at the 2024 Paris Olympics.
• Rebeca Andrade: A highly successful Brazilian gymnast who has been a major rival to Biles, winning gold on the floor exercise at the 2024 Olympics.

Important Points

• Award Categories: Besides Sportswoman of the Year, other major categories include World Sportsman of the Year, World Team of the Year, World Comeback of the Year, and World Breakthrough of the Year.
• 2024 Ceremony: The 25^th Laureus World Sports Awards were held in Madrid, Spain, in April 2024, where Biles was a double nominee for both Sportswoman and Comeback of the year.
• Global Impact: The awards also support the Laureus Sport for Good foundation, which uses the power of sport to end violence, discrimination, and disadvantage for young people around the world.

The correct answer is Mahendra Gurjar.

Key Points

• Mahendra Gurjar, an Indian para-athlete, made history by setting a new World Record in the men's javelin F42 category.
• This feat was achieved at the Nottwil 2024 World Para Athletics Grand Prix, which was held in Switzerland in June 2024.
• He secured the gold medal with a remarkable throw of 49.46 meters, surpassing the previous global standards for this specific classification.
• The competition in Nottwil is one of the most prestigious stops on the World Para Athletics circuit, attracting top-tier athletes from across the globe to compete in Switzerland.
• Gurjar's performance is a significant milestone for Indian Para-sports, showcasing the country's growing dominance in field events on the international stage.

Additional Information

• World Para Athletics Grand Prix:
• The Grand Prix series is organized by World Para Athletics, the global governing body for the sport under the International Paralympic Committee (IPC).
• These events provide a platform for athletes to achieve qualification standards for the Paralympic Games and World Championships.
• The Nottwil leg is particularly famous for its high-quality facilities and is often referred to as a "fast" venue for both track and field disciplines.
• Classification F42:
• In para-athletics, classification ensures fair competition by grouping athletes with similar levels of physical impairment.
• The 'F' stands for Field events (such as javelin, shot put, and discus).
• The 42 classification is for athletes with limb deficiency, leg length difference, impaired muscle power, or impaired range of movement, specifically affecting the legs.
• Para-Athletics in India:
• India has seen a surge in success in para-athletics, especially following the Tokyo 2020 Paralympics and the Hangzhou 2022 Asian Para Games.
• The Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports and the Paralympic Committee of India (PCI) provide support through the Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS).

Important Points

• Global Rankings: Such records significantly boost an athlete's World Ranking, which is a critical factor for Paralympic seeding and entry.
• Venue Significance: Nottwil is located in the Canton of Lucerne, Switzerland, and is home to the Swiss Paraplegic Centre, making it a hub for para-sports research and competition.
• Year 2024: This year is pivotal as athletes prepare for the Paris 2024 Paralympic Games, and record-breaking performances like that of Mahendra Gurjar serve as a major morale booster for the Indian contingent.
• Other Indian Successes: Along with Mahendra Gurjar, other athletes like Neeraj Yadav and Rinku Solanki have consistently performed well in the F46 and F55 categories respectively, contributing to India's medal tally in international meets.

The correct answer is Allowed up to four nominees.

Key Points

• The Banking Laws (Amendment) Act, notified in April 2025, introduced a significant reform by allowing bank account holders to have up to four nominees for a single account.
• Previously, under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, depositors were permitted to nominate only one individual to receive the proceeds of their deposits in the event of their death.
• This amendment provides depositors with the flexibility of simultaneous and successive nominations. This means they can specify the proportion of funds each nominee should receive or list them in a preferred order of succession.
• The primary objective of this change is to reduce the volume of unclaimed deposits in the Indian banking system, which has been a growing concern for the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
• By allowing multiple nominees, the government aims to ensure a smoother transition of assets to legal heirs or beneficiaries, thereby minimizing legal disputes and administrative hurdles for families of deceased depositors. Hence, the correct answer is Allowed up to four nominees.

Additional Information

• Scope of the Amendment Act:
• The Banking Laws (Amendment) Act amends several key legislations, including the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, the State Bank of India Act, 1955, and the Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Acts of 1970 and 1980.
• Apart from nomination rules, it seeks to improve governance standards in the banking sector and provide greater operational freedom to banks.
• Changes in Substantial Interest:
• The Act revised the definition of substantial interest for bank directors. The threshold, which was previously fixed at Rs. 5 lakhs in 1968, has been significantly increased to Rs. 2 crores to reflect modern economic realities.
• Cooperative Bank Reforms:
• The amendment extended the tenure of directors (excluding the chairman and whole-time directors) in cooperative banks from the existing 8 years to 10 years.
• This change aligns the management of cooperative banks with the standards applicable to other commercial banking entities.
• Unclaimed Deposits and UDGUM:
• To tackle the issue of forgotten funds, the RBI previously launched the UDGUM (Unclaimed Deposits – Gateway to Access Information) portal. The 2025 notification on multiple nominees complements these digital efforts to return funds to the rightful owners.

Important Points

• Auditor Remuneration: The Act grants greater autonomy to the boards of directors of public sector banks to determine the remuneration of statutory auditors, which was earlier more tightly regulated.
• Reporting Dates: It updated the reporting frequency for banks to the RBI from a fortnightly basis (Fridays) to a daily or specific date basis to ensure more accurate liquidity management and data tracking.
• Customer Protection: The increase in the number of nominees is seen as a pro-consumer move, particularly for large families or individuals wishing to distribute their savings among multiple dependents without requiring a complex Will.
• Notification Year: While the bill was tabled in 2024, its implementation and notification occurred in April 2025, marking a new era in Indian banking jurisprudence.

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh.

Key Points

• The Uttar Pradesh Defence Industrial Corridor (UPDIC) is a flagship project aimed at reducing the dependency of the Indian Armed Forces on foreign imports and promoting the Make in India initiative.
• As of the latest reports leading into 2025, the corridor has successfully attracted investment proposals worth ₹33,896 crore from various national and international defense manufacturers.
• The Uttar Pradesh Expressways Industrial Development Authority (UPEIDA) is the nodal agency designated by the State Government to oversee the land acquisition and infrastructure development for this corridor.
• The project is planned across six strategic nodes: Lucknow, Kanpur, Jhansi, Agra, Aligarh, and Chitrakoot. These nodes were selected based on their existing industrial base and connectivity via expressways.
• The Aligarh node has shown rapid progress, with several Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) already beginning the process of setting up production units for defense components.

Additional Information

• Background and Announcement: The establishment of two Defence Industrial Corridors in India was announced by the Union Government in the Budget 2018-19. One corridor was allocated to Tamil Nadu and the other to Uttar Pradesh.
• Investment Targets: The Ministry of Defence has set an ambitious target of achieving a turnover of $25 billion (₹1.75 lakh crore)** in defense manufacturing by **2025**, including exports worth **$5 billion.
• Major Industry Players: Significant entities such as BrahMos Aerospace, Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL), and Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) are involved in setting up facilities within the UPDIC. The BrahMos missile manufacturing center is being established in the Lucknow node.
• Policy Support: To attract investors, the state government launched the UP Defence and Aerospace Unit and Employment Promotion Policy, which provides incentives such as capital subsidies, stamp duty exemptions, and rebates on land costs.
• Infrastructure Connectivity: The corridor leverages the vast network of expressways in the state, including the Yamuna Expressway, Agra-Lucknow Expressway, and Bundelkhand Expressway, ensuring seamless logistics for the heavy defense industry.

Important Points

• Node Specialization: Each node in the Uttar Pradesh corridor is designed for specific industrial strengths. For example, the Jhansi node is expected to host heavy equipment manufacturing, while the Kanpur node focuses on textiles for defense and small arms.
• Comparison with Tamil Nadu: While Uttar Pradesh has attracted ₹33,896 crore in proposals, the Tamil Nadu Defence Industrial Corridor (TNDIC) covers nodes like Chennai, Hosur, Coimbatore, Salem, and Tiruchirappalli, focusing heavily on the Aerospace sector.
• Employment Generation: The UPDIC is projected to generate over 2.5 lakh jobs in the state, boosting the local economy and promoting technical skill development among the youth.
• Atmanirbhar Bharat: These corridors are central to the Self-Reliant India vision, aiming to transform India from one of the world's largest importers of defense equipment into a global Defense Manufacturing Hub.

The correct answer is Wildlife Institute of India, Dehradun.

Key Points

• The inaugural plenary session of the Indian Conservation Conference (ICC)–2025 was hosted by the Wildlife Institute of India (WII), located in Dehradun, Uttarakhand.
• The event took place in June 2025, bringing together a diverse group of ecologists, conservationists, policy-makers, and researchers from across the country.
• The conference focused on addressing critical challenges in biodiversity preservation, habitat restoration, and the impact of climate change on India's unique ecosystems.
• The Wildlife Institute of India served as the ideal venue for this plenary session due to its long-standing history as a premier institution for wildlife research and management since its inception in 1982.
• During the session, the emphasis was placed on the "Vision 2047" for wildlife conservation in India, highlighting the use of modern technology like drones and AI-based monitoring for endangered species.

Additional Information

• Wildlife Institute of India (WII):
• It is an autonomous institution under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), Government of India.
• Established in 1982, it is based in Chandrabani, Dehradun.
• The institute conducts specialized research and training programs in areas like Forensic Science, GIS, and Remote Sensing applied to wildlife management.
• Forest Research Institute (FRI):
• Also located in Dehradun, it was established in 1906 as the Imperial Forest Research Institute.
• It is one of the oldest institutions of its kind and is famous for its Greco-Roman architecture and six specialized museums dedicated to forestry.
• It functions under the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE).
• Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE):
• It is an apex body in the national forestry research system that directs and manages forestry research and education in India.
• While its headquarters is in Dehradun, it has various regional institutes, such as the Tropical Forest Research Institute (TFRI) located in Jabalpur, Madhya Pradesh.
• Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru:
• Established in 1909 by Jamsetji Tata and the Maharaja of Mysore, it is a leading public research university for higher education and scientific research.
• It houses the Centre for Ecological Sciences (CES), which is a major hub for ecological and evolutionary research in India.

Important Points

• Dehradun is often referred to as the "Forestry Capital of India" because it hosts several major national organizations like the Survey of India, WII, FRI, and the Indira Gandhi National Forest Academy (IGNFA).
• The Indian Conservation Conference is a strategic biennial or annual event aimed at synchronizing state-level conservation efforts with national priorities.
• In 2025, the integration of community-based conservation models was a major theme, acknowledging the role of tribal communities in protecting forest cover.
• The conference also discussed the Status of Tigers in India and the success of Project Tiger, which completed 50 years in 2023, setting a precedent for future species-specific recovery programs.

The correct answer is King’s Birthday Honours Overseas & International List.

Key Points

• The King’s Birthday Honours Overseas & International List is published annually in June to recognize individuals who have provided exceptional service to the United Kingdom or its interests abroad.
• On 13 June 2025, the official list was released, coinciding with the celebrations for the Monarch’s Official Birthday. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• This list specifically honors those working in British Overseas Territories, or those performing international services in foreign countries and Commonwealth nations.
• The Foreign, Commonwealth and Development Office (FCDO) is responsible for managing the nominations and submitting recommendations to His Majesty King Charles III.
• Common honors included in this list are the Order of St Michael and St George (CMG/KCMG/DCMG), which is primarily awarded for service in a foreign country or for Commonwealth affairs.

Additional Information

• Honours System Frequency:
• British honors are generally granted twice a year: once at New Year and once on the King’s Official Birthday in June.
• The New Year Honours 2025 were published earlier in the year, typically around 30 December 2024 or 1 January 2025. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
• Overseas vs. Domestic Lists:
• The Overseas & International List is distinct from the UK Domestic List, which honors residents of the UK for national or local achievements.
• The UK Civil Service Honors are often integrated into the wider domestic list and do not constitute the primary title for the overseas recognitions published on that date. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Historical Context:
• Following the death of Queen Elizabeth II in September 2022, the honors were transitioned to the King’s Honours.
• The Queen’s Platinum Overseas & International List was a special one-time publication associated with the Platinum Jubilee in 2022. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Important Points

• The Gazette: All official honors lists are published in The Gazette, the UK's official journal of record, which makes the appointments legally binding and public.
• Types of Awards: The list frequently features ranks within the Order of the British Empire, including Officer (OBE), Member (MBE), and Commander (CBE), alongside British Empire Medals (BEM).
• Nomination Process: Nominations for the overseas list can be made by anyone but are rigorously vetted by the Diplomatic Service and Overseas Committee before being sent to the Prime Minister and then the King.
• Selection Criteria: Recipients must have demonstrated bravery, innovation, or dedication that significantly enhances the reputation of the UK internationally or supports British citizens overseas.

The correct answer is Atuo Mezhür.

Key Points

• Atuo Mezhür, a legendary sports administrator from Nagaland, passed away on January 5, 2025, in Kohima at the age of 72.
• He held a significant position as an Executive Member of the All India Football Federation (AIFF), representing the interests of the North-Eastern region at the national level for multiple terms.
• He served as the long-standing General Secretary of the Nagaland Football Association (NFA), where he was instrumental in nurturing football talent and organizing state-level tournaments.
• Beyond football, he was the General Secretary of the Nagaland Olympic Association (NOA), contributing to the broader development of various sports in the state of Nagaland.
• His contributions were recognized by high-ranking officials, including Nagaland Chief Minister Neiphiu Rio and AIFF President Kalyan Chaubey, who noted his selfless dedication to the growth of sports in India.

Additional Information

• All India Football Federation (AIFF):
• Founded in 1937, the AIFF is the national governing body for football in India, affiliated with FIFA and the Asian Football Confederation (AFC).
• It manages the Indian National Team, the Indian Super League (ISL), and the I-League.
• Savio Medeira:
• He is a former Indian National Team player and coach. He also served as the Technical Director of the AIFF and is known for his extensive coaching career in Goa.
• Bhaichung Bhutia:
• Commonly known as the "Sikkimese Sniper," he is a former captain of the Indian National Team and is one of the most decorated footballers in Indian history.
• He hailed from the state of Sikkim and was the first Indian player to sign a contract with a European club (Bury FC) in 1999.
• Subrata Dutta:
• A prominent football administrator from West Bengal, he served as the Senior Vice President of the AIFF and held leadership roles in the Indian Football Association (IFA).

Important Points

• Atuo Mezhür was also the Managing Director of Mezhür Higher Secondary School in Kohima, reflecting his commitment to education alongside athletics.
• During his tenure at the Nagaland Olympic Association, he played a vital role in organizing the North East Olympic Games, fostering unity through sports among the eight states of the region.
• His death is considered a major loss for the sporting fraternity of the North-East, as he was a bridge between state associations and the Union Government sports bodies.
• The Nagaland Football Association and the NOA have frequently credited him for the modernization of sports infrastructure in the districts of Nagaland.