AFCAT 02/2023 Memory Based Paper 25 Aug 2023 (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is 'Reproach'. 

Key Points

• The most appropriate synonym for the word 'Berate' is 'Reproach'.
• Let's look at the meaning and example of the given words:

• Therefore, by reading the above definition, we find that the correct answer is Option 2.

• आइए दिए गए शब्दों के अर्थ देखें:

The correct answer is- '​Sadness' 

Key Points

• The most appropriate synonym of the given word 'Melancholy' is '​Sadness​'.
• Melancholy: sad (दुखी) 
• Example: a melancholy piece of music
• Sadness: the feeling of being unhappy, especially because something bad has happened (दुखी होने की भावना, खासकर क्योंकि कुछ बुरा हुआ है)     
• Example: Her sadness at her grandfather's death was obvious.
• Therefore, as per the points mentioned above, we find that the correct answer is Option 1.

Additional Information Let's look at the meaning of other words:

• Intimidate: to frighten or threaten someone, usually in order to persuade them to do something that you want them to do (किसी को डराना या धमकाना, आमतौर पर उन्हें कुछ ऐसा करने के लिए मनाने के लिए जो आप उन्हें करना चाहते हैं)
• Slavish: obeying completely and having no original thoughts or ideas (पूरी तरह से पालन करना और कोई मूल विचार या विचार नहीं रखना)
• Wit: the ability to use words in a clever and humorous way (चतुर और विनोदी तरीके से शब्दों का प्रयोग करने की क्षमता)

The correct answer is Unreflective.

 

Key Points 

 

• The word 'pensive' means engaged in, involving, or reflecting deep or serious thought.
• Unreflective: This term is straightforward - not given to reflection or serious thought. This is a potential antonym of "pensive".

 

Confusion Points

 

• Frivolous: This word means not having any serious purpose or value, or being carefree and not serious. It can indeed be considered as an antonym of "pensive", which means engaged in, involving, or reflecting deep or serious thought.
• Both "Frivolous" and "Unreflective" can be considered as antonyms for "Pensive". However, if we must select the most appropriate, the choice would be:
• Unreflective - as it is the most direct and exact opposite of being in a state of deep or serious thought, which "pensive" implies. "Frivolous" could be considered an antonym as well, but it also carries implications of a lack of seriousness or value, which is not inherently present in the definition of "pensive". Therefore, "Unreflective" would be the most appropriate antonym among the given options.

 

Additional Information

 

• Hollow: In terms of describing a person or a statement, "hollow" refers to having no real value, significance, or sincerity, being devoid of substance or character. This doesn't necessarily imply a lack of thought or reflection, it's more about lack of substance or depth. So, this isn't a direct antonym of "pensive".
• Goofy: This word describes a person who is likely to do silly things, usually in a playful or lighthearted way. Though it might imply a lack of serious thought, it is more about behavior than state of mind, and not a precise antonym for "pensive".

The correct answer is '​Enhance.'

Key Points  

• The meaning of the word 'Mitigate' is to make something less serious, painful, unpleasant, etc. ('Mitigate' शब्द का अर्थ कुछ कम गंभीर, दर्दनाक, अप्रिय आदि बनाना है।)
• Example: It is unclear how to mitigate the effects of tourism on the island.
• Let us see the meanings of the pairs of words:
• Appease: to make somebody calmer or less angry by agreeing to what he/she wants. (अभीष्‍ट वस्‍तु देकर शांत करना या संतुष्‍ट करना।)
• Enhance: to improve something or to make something look better. (बेहतर दिखने के लिए, किसी वस्‍तु में सुधार लाना।)
• Allay: to make something less strong. ((पीड़ा, कष्‍ट, भय आदि की) तीव्रता या प्रबलता कम करना।)
• Reduce: to make something less or smaller in quantity, price, size, etc. (मात्रा, क़ीमत, आकार आदि की दृष्टि से घटाना; छोटा करना)
• Therefore, Enhance is the one that best expresses the opposite meaning of the given word 'Mitigate.'
• Hence, the correct answer is '​Enhance.'

Additional Information

• Let us see the synonyms of the given words:​

The correct answer is 'Drey'

Key Points

• Let's see the meanings of the given words-
• Drey- the nest of a squirrel, typically in the form of a mass of twigs in a tree.
• Hole- a hollow place in a solid body or surface.
• Lair- a place where a wild animal, especially a fierce or dangerous one, lives
• Burrow- a hole or tunnel dug by a small animal, especially a rabbit, as a dwelling.
• Hence, according to the meaning of the given words, the correct answer is Option 1.

The correct answer is 'Atheist'.

Key Points

• The word 'Atheist' means 'someone who does not believe in any God.'
• Examples, 
• As an atheist, I do not accept this religious argument.
• Although I am an atheist, I don’t just automatically hate religion or dismiss other people's faith.
• According to the meaning and examples that are given above, 'atheist' is the correct answer.

 

Additional Information

• Let's learn the meanings of other words given in the options:
• Devotee: a person who strongly admires a particular person or is extremely interested in a subject.
• Theist: someone who believes in the existence of a god.
• Anarchist: a person who believes in the political belief in which there should be little or no formal or official organization to society but that people should work freely together

The correct answer is "To suddenly stop a bad habit or addiction"

Key Points

• "Cold turkey" refers to the "act of abruptly stopping a habit or addiction without the aid of medication or other assistance."
• e.g. She decided to stop drinking coffee and quit cold turkey.
• This phrase is often used to describe the difficult and uncomfortable withdrawal symptoms that can occur when someone abruptly stops using drugs or alcohol.
• The phrase is thought to have originated in the early 20th century, possibly from the idea that the pale, cold skin of a turkey resembles the pallor of someone going through withdrawal.
• All other options are incorrect.

Thus, option 2 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 'Act without preparation'

 Key Points

• The idiom 'Play it by ear' originates from music, where it refers to playing music without reference to written notation.
• In a broader sense, it means to act according to the circumstances, rather than according to a predetermined plan.
• Example - Since I'm not sure when my last meeting will end, let's play it by ear for our dinner plans
• The other options do not correctly reflect this meaning.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

The correct answer is 'Elegant'.

Key Points

• The exact synonym of the given word 'Graceful' is 'Elegant'.
• Graceful: moving in a smooth, relaxed, attractive way, or having a smooth, attractive shape.
• Example: She is a wonderfully graceful dancer.
• Elegant: graceful and attractive in appearance or behaviour.
• Example: She wore an elegant dove-grey jacket.
• By reading the above definitions we find that the correct answer is Option 3.
  

Correct Answer: Elegant.  

Additional Information

• The meaning of the other words given in the options as follows: 
• Natural: as found in nature and not involving anything made or done by people.
• Example: He died of natural causes.
• Decorated: to add something to an object or place, especially in order to make it more attractive. 
• Example: They decorated the wedding car with ribbons and flowers.
• Artificial: made by people, often as a copy of something natural.
• Example: These clothes were made of artificial fibres.

The correct answer is- to evoke a memory

Key Points

• From the given options the most suitable answer is 'to evoke a memory.'
• The meaning of the idiom 'Ring a bell' is someone says something that you believe you’ve heard in the past, alarm bells start ringing and you try to remember. 
• Example: I don't know her but her name rings a bell.

Thus the most appropriate answer for the given idiom is 'to evoke a memory.'

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Additional Information

• Let's check some synonyms and antonyms of 'Ring a bell:'
• Synonyms: evoke, remind, awaken

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Hinglish

• दिए गए विकल्पों में से सबसे उपयुक्त उत्तर है 'to evoke a memory'
• मुहावरा 'Ring a bell’ का अर्थ है कि कोई व्यक्ति ऐसा कुछ कहता है जिसे आप मानते हैं कि आपने अतीत में सुना है, अलार्म की घंटी बजने लगती है और आप याद करने की कोशिश करते हैं
• Example: I don't know her but her name rings a bell.

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इस प्रकार दिए गए मुहावरे का सबसे उपयुक्त उत्तर है 'to evoke a memory'

The correct answer is 'the most shortest'.

Key Points

• 'Most' should be removed from the sentence.
• A superlative adjective is an adjective used in comparisons to describe something as being of the highest degree or extreme. We use superlative adjectives when making comparisons of three or more people or things.
• 'Shortest' is already in superlative form of adjective 'short'. If we add 'most' with it, it will be a case of double superlative and that is grammatically incorrect.
• Ex: He is the most fastest/ fastest bowler in the world.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: This road is the shortest of all.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2).

The correct answer is ‘little money’.

Key Points

• The meaning of the given sentence suggests that the elder brother’s income is lesser than the younger brother's.
• The adjective ‘little’ is wrongly used to describe money. ‘Little’ means small and is a positive degree adjective.
• Here we need a comparative degree adjective to compare the earning of the younger brother and elder brother.
• Hence we should use ‘less money' instead of ‘little money.
• Thus option 1 i.e. ‘little money’ contains a grammatical error.

Correct Sentence -  I earn less money than my younger brother.

The error is in the third part of the sentence, and thus, the correct solution is option 3.

The third part of the sentence is incorrect because it is missing an article. Articles are determiners that are used before noun eg- an, a, the. There are two types of articles, definite articles that specify something or someone and indefinite articles that the mentioned noun is a part of a group. United States is the name of a country making it a proper noun, though not many proper nouns are preceded by ‘the’, United States is an exceptional case because it is not just one country but a group of states of two different continents.

Correct sentence:

‘The number of obese people is really high in the United States.’

The correct answer is 'The manager was referring about'.

Key Points

• In the given sentence, the preposition 'about' is incorrect.
• The preposition 'about' means on the subject of; concerning.
• The preposition 'about' should be replaced by the preposition 'to'.
• The preposition 'to' is used to mention someone or something in speech or in writing.
  

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Sentence: The manager was referring to the previous instances of loss to the employees during his address.

The correct answer is "DABC".

Key Points

• While arranging the parts of the passage, we should find some grammatical or contextual connections between them:-
• 'D' follows the sentence as the third person pronoun 'they' mentioned in 'D' refers back to the "Mr Kalpesh Mishra. and Dr. Nath" in the sentence 'A'.
• Next is 'A' as it describes an instance of one evening where they received a visit of from an acquaintance. Mr. Piyush Sharma. It follows D.
• After that is 'B' as the noun 'Mr. Piyush Sharma at the end of A and the noun 'Mr. Piyush Sharma' mentioned in 'B' at the beginning brings a connection between the two sentences. B follows A.
• Last is 'C' as the attribute 'great agitation' mentioned in 'C' is linked with the man's 'nervous and excitable nature' mentioned in the sentence 'B'.
• Thus, the correct order is DABC**.**

The correct answer is 'PQSR'.

Key Points

While arranging the parts of the sentence, we have to find some grammatical or contextual relationships between them. So let's find them out.

• We can understand that an organisation has conducted a research and and they had a realization.
• Part P comes first as this prepositional phrase complements the commencing line Through their work and research  by giving it a time frame over the next ten years. So it takes the first place.
• Part Q follows Part P. It introduces the subject of the main clause + Verb Chetana Charitable Trust understood. So it takes the second place.
• Part S comes after Part Q as it introduces through a relative clause what Chetana Charitable Trust understood through their work and research for ten years. It takes the third place
• Part R concludes the sentence (when combined with the last part) by giving the next part of the outcome they had discovered through their work and reasearch: (the children) were not acquiring any out-of-the-box skills..
• Therefore, as per the points mentioned above, we find that the correct order is 'PQSR'.
  

Hence, the sentence in the correct order is 'Through their work and research over the next ten years, Chetana Charitable Trust understood that children were not getting proper guidance and were not acquiring any out-of-the-box skills.'

Important Point

• A prepositional phrase often appears after the word it modifies.
• However, like adverbs, prepositional phrases that modify verbs can also be found at the very beginning or very end of a sentence.

The correct answer is 'SRQP.'

Key Points

• While arranging the parts of the sentence given in options, we have to find some grammatical or contextual connections between them, so let’s find out.
• In this sentence, we can see that there are different parts like Subject, verb, conjunction and continuation of the object.
• The first part should be S as it is providing the definition of "Patriotism."
• S should be followed by R as it is saying that "that type of patriotism" is evil.
• The last part should be P as S is talking about the belonging of a man to the whole world.
• Thus, forming the basic structure of a sentence.
• ​​Correct sentence: For some people patriotism means hatred for other countries, but this type of patriotism is an evil and it should be condemned because today man belongs to the whole world as much as to any one country.

Additional Information      

 

• Before rearranging parts of the sentence, it is very important to read them carefully.
• It is very important to analyse the use of a determiner and conjunction in such cases.
• This confusion can be eradicated by practising more and more questions of Sentence Jumbles.
  

Hinglish      

• विकल्पों में दिए गए वाक्य के भागों को व्यवस्थित करते समय हमें उनके बीच कुछ व्याकरणिक या प्रासंगिक संबंध खोजने होंगे, तो आइए जानें।
• इस वाक्य में, हम देख सकते हैं कि Subject, verb, conjunction and continuation of the object जैसे विभिन्न भाग हैं।
• पहला भाग S होना चाहिए क्योंकि यह "Patriotism" की परिभाषा प्रदान कर रहा है।
• S के बाद R आना चाहिए क्योंकि यह कह रहा है कि"that type of patriotism", evil है।
• अंतिम भाग P होना चाहिए क्योंकि S एक आदमी के पूरी दुनिया से संबंधित होने की बात कर रहा है।
• इस प्रकार, एक वाक्य की मूल संरचना का निर्माण हैं।

The correct answer is "Will they".

Key Points

• The most appropriate question tag to fill in the blank is "will they".
• "Will they" is the question tag form of the modal auxiliary "will".
• It's used at the end of negative sentences stated in the future with "will".
• The main sentence given is a future negative sentence with "will", so this is the grammatically correct choice.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Complete Sentence: They will not go to Japan this year for a vacation, will they?

The correct answer is "Despite ".

Key Points

• The most appropriate option to fill in the blank is "Despite".
• The word "despite" is a preposition which is used to introduce a notion that something occurred even though there was a factor that might have prevented it from happening.
• In this case, "despite" denotes that he joined the university even though his parents disapproved.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Complete Sentence: Despite his parent's disapproval, he joined this university.

The correct answer is "Walk around".

Key Points

• The most appropriate phrasal verb to fill in the blank is "walk around".
• The phrasal verb "walk around" is often used to describe leisurely moving from one place to another for the purpose of exploration or observation, perfect for describing a visit to a place like the Royale Gardens.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Complete Sentence: The Royale Gardens is a pleasant place to walk around.

The correct answer is "can".

Key Points

• The modal verb that best fits the blank is "can".
• Can is used to express ability or permission. It is the most appropriate modal verb in this sentence because the speaker is giving the other person permission to use their phone.
• Example: I can speak three languages.
• Let us look at other modal auxiliaries:
• Should is used to express a recommendation or a suggestion. It is not appropriate in this sentence because the speaker is not giving a recommendation or a suggestion. 
• Example: You should study for your test.
• Will is used to express future intention or certainty. It is not appropriate in this sentence because the speaker is not making a prediction about the future. 
• Example: I will call you tomorrow.
• Must is used to express necessity. It is not appropriate in this sentence because the other person does not need to use the speaker's phone.
• Example: You must stop smoking.
• ​Therefore option 4 is correct.

The correct answer is beat down.

Key Points

• The correct phrasal verb that fits the blank in the given sentence is "beat down".
• The verb "beat" means to strike repeatedly or forcefully. In this context, the sun is striking the travellers with its rays.
• The phrasal verb "beat down" means to shine with great intensity, as in the sun beating down on something or someone.
• Therefore, in this sentence, the sun is "beating down" on the weary travellers, which is forcing them to seek the shade of a tree.
• The correct sentence is: "The sun beat down on the weary travellers, forcing them to seek the shade of a tree."

Additional Information

• Option 1) "Beat against" means to strike or hit something repeatedly, which is not appropriate in this context.
• Option 2) "Beat up" means to physically assault someone, which is not appropriate in this context.
• Option 4) "Beat back" means to force something or someone to retreat or go back, which is not appropriate in this context.
• Therefore, the correct phrasal verb is "beat down".

The correct answer is 'idiophones'.

Key Points

• Let's refer to these lines from the passage: "Khartal, also referred to as Kartal, kartah, Khar taal, khartaal, and khurtal, comes under the category of ___ of the self-sounding variety, where the properties of vibrator and resonator are combined by the instrument. This wooden clapper is a Ghana Vadya, which has discs or plates that produce a clinking sound when bought together."
• The above lines give a definition of a khartal and how it is played.
• The word 'idiophones' is referred to any of a class of musical instruments (such as a bell or gong) whose sound is generated by striking, rubbing, plucking, or blowing the material of the instrument itself not under any special tension.
• By reading the above lines we can say that a khartal falls under the category of idiophones, therefore fits most appropriately in the blank (1).
• Hence the correct answer is Option 3.

Additional Information

Let's look into the meanings of the other given words:

• Organology: It is the science of musical instruments and their classifications.
• Colophon: An identifying mark used by a printer or a publisher.
• Doggone: Used to express feelings of annoyance, surprise, or pleasure; Damn.

The correct answer is 'produce'.

Key Points

• Let's refer to this line from the passage: "This wooden clapper is a Ghana Vadya, which has discs or plates that ____ a clinking sound when bought together."
• The above line is talking about how a khartal is played.
• By reading the whole passage we get to know that the sense of the passage is in Simple Present Tense.
• The verb 'produce' means to compose, create, or bring out by the intellectual or physical effort.
• Option 2 is incorrect because 'producing' is the present participle of 'produce' used to refer to continuous actions from the immediate past till present time.
• Option 3 is incorrect because 'produced' is the past form of 'produce' used to refer to actions that have already happened.
• Option 1 is incorrect because 'produces' is used with 3rd person singular present tense and the words "discs or plates" give a plural sense to the sentence.
• Therefore the word 'produce' fits most appropriately in the blank (2).

The correct answer is 'since'.

Key Points

• Let's refer to this line from the passage: "It is traditionally made from Sheesham wood or teak ____ this produces the required nadam or sound."
• By reading the above line we understand that it is talking about two things that are related to each other in a way, what a khartal is made of and why Sheesham wood or teak is used.
• The conjunction 'since' is used to join a main clause and a subordinate clause. Since comes at the beginning of the subordinate clause.
• Example:
• Mukesh has been promoted twice since he joined the company.
• I've been very busy since I started my new job.
• We decided to leave early, since the traffic was getting worse.
• Therefore, the conjunction 'since' fits most appropriately in the blank (3).

The correct answer is: 1519

Key Points

• Let us refer to the following lines in the passage, "On September 20, 1519, Magellan set sail from Spain with five ships."
• It is stated here that Magellan set sail from Spain in 1591.
• Thus the answer is 1592

Additional Information

One should follow the below-mentioned rules to properly solve comprehension questions:

• Read the passage carefully.
• Identify the purpose of the passage.
• Go through the questions so that you know what specific information to find in the passage.
• Find specific information required to answers questions.

The correct answer is: Magellan ultimately proved that the earth was round.

Key Points

• Let us refer to the following lines in the passage, "Only one ship and 17 sailors under the command of the Basque navigator Elcano survived to complete the westward journey to Spain and thus prove once and for all that the world is round, with no precipice at the edge."
• It is stated here that Magellan proved that the world is round.

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Additional Information

• One should follow the below-mentioned rules to properly solve comprehension questions:
• Read the passage carefully.
• Identify the purpose of the passage.
• Go through the questions so that you know what specific information to find in the passage.
• Find specific information required to answers questions.

The correct answer is: Strait of All Saints

Key Points

• Let us take a look at the following line, "Magellan named this passage the Strait of All Saints, but today it is known as the Strait of Magellan."
• It was later named Strait of Magellan.
• Thus, Magellan named the strait All Saints Strait.

Additional Information

• Read the passage carefully.
• Identify the purpose of the passage.
• Go through the questions so that you know what specific information to find in the passage.
• Find specific information required to answers questions.

The correct answer is: first panorama of the Pacific Ocean

Key Points

• Let us take a look at the following lines from the passage, "One ship deserted while in this passage and returned to Spain, so fewer sailors were privileged to gaze at that first panorama of the Pacific Ocean."
• The sailors had the privilege to gaze at the first panorama of the Pacific Ocean.

Additional Information 

• Read the passage carefully.
• Identify the purpose of the passage.
• Go through the questions so that you know what specific information to find in the passage.
• Find specific information required to answers questions.

The correct answer is: early spring of 1521 

Key Points

• Let us refer to the following lines in the passage, "Those who remained crossed the meridian now known as the International Date Line in the early spring of 1521 after 98 days on the Pacific Ocean."
• It is stated that the crew crosses the Internation Date Line in early Spring 1921.

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Additional Information

• Read the passage carefully.
• Identify the purpose of the passage.
• Go through the questions so that you know what specific information to find in the passage.
• Find specific information required to answers questions.

The correct answer is RasBehari Ghosh.

Key Points

• The 1907 Surat session was popularly known as Surat Split as the Congress split into two groups. i.e. Extremists and Moderates.
• It was presided by Moderate leader RasBehari Ghosh.
• Mainly there was an ideological difference between the two groups.
• The main objectives placed by the extremist were

1. Demand for the resolution of Swaraj.
2. Lala Lajpat Rai to be made the President of INC.

• These two demands were not accepted by the moderates thus initiated the split.
• The Surat Split was a victory of the British policy of Divide and Rule.
• In 1916, Lucknow session both the groups reunited again.

The Council of Ministers during the time of Shivaji Maharaj was known as Ashta Pradhan.

Key Points

• The translation of Ashta Pradhan in English is "Council of Eight".
• It was an administrative and advisory council. It is said that this council contributed to the military attacks on the Muslim Mughal Empire by Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj.
• He is the founder of the Maratha kingdom of India.
• He found the oppression by Muslims and religious persecution of the Hindus was highly intolerable and not fair.
• He was crowned as Chhatrapati at Raigarh in AD 1674.
• The Maratha Kingdom rose with the fierce actions of Shivaji and his followers.

The correct answer is ​A - 2, B - 4, C - 3, D - 1.

Confusion Points

• The Sirr-i-Akbar is a compilation of the Upanishads translated from Sanskrit into Persian authored by Dara Shukoh in 1657 AD.
• The Tabaqat-i-Akbari is a history of India from the early Muslim invasions to the thirty-eight years of Akbar's reign by Nizamuddin Ahmad.

Key Points

Additional Information

• Nizamuddin Ahmad was a Muslim historian of late medieval India.
• He was son of Muhammad Muqim-i-Harawi.
• He was Akbar's Mir Bakhshi.
• His work, the Tabaqat-i-Akbari, is a comprehensive work on general history covering the time from the Ghaznavids up to the 38th year of Akbar's reign.
• Gulbadan Begum was a Mughal princess and the daughter of Emperor Babur, the founder of the Mughal Empire.
• She is best known as the author of Humayun Nama, the account of the life of her half-brother, Emperor Humayun, which she wrote at the request of her nephew, Emperor Akbar.
• Abul Fazl was the grand vizier of the Mughal emperor Akbar.
• He was the author of the Akbarnama, the official history of Akbar's reign in three volumes, and a Persian translation of the Bible.
• Dara Shikoh, also known as Dara Shukoh, was the eldest son and heir-apparent of the Mughal emperor Shah Jahan.
• Dara was designated with the title Padshahzada-i-Buzurg Martaba and was favoured as a successor by his father and his older sister, Princess Jahanara Begum.
• Dara Shikoh is the author of the book Sakinat-ul-Auliya.

The correct answer is Igneous Rock.

Key Points

• Igneous rock:
• Igneous rock or magmatic rock is made up of molten magma.
• The solidification of magma formed the first rocks on earth.
• Magma is a molten and semi-molten rock mixture found under the surface of the Earth. On the rare occasions when magma breaks the surface, as in a volcanic eruption, it is called lava.
• Magma cools and crystallizes to form igneous rock.
• It is formed out of the solidification of magma (molten rock below the surface) and lava (molten rock above the surface) and is known as igneous or primary rocks.
• Having their origin under conditions of high temperatures the igneous rocks are unfossiliferous.
• Granite, gabbro, basalt, are some of the examples of igneous rocks.
• There are three types of igneous rocks based on place and time taken in cooling of the molten matter, plutonic rocks, volcanic rocks, and intermediate rocks.
• There are two types of rocks based on the presence of acid-forming radicals, silicon, acidic rocks, and basic rocks.
• Igneous rock is of two types:-

1. Intrusive igneous rocks: When crystallization takes place below the earth's surface,  the rock so formed are intrusive igneous rocks. Examples are diorite, gabbro, granite, etc.
2. Extrusive igneous rocks: They crystallize on an earth surface, where small crystals are formed. Its examples are basalt, andesite, dacite, etc.

Additional Information

• Sedimentary rocks:
• Sedimentary rocks are formed by lithification consolidation and compaction of sediments.
  

Hence, they are layered or stratified of varying thickness. Example: sandstone, shale, etc.

• Metamorphic Rocks:
• The word metamorphic means ‘change of form’.
• Metamorphism is a process by which recrystallization and reorganization of minerals occur within a rock.
• This occurs due to pressure, volume, and temperature changes.

CONCEPT:

• Anomalous Expansion of Water: An abnormal property of water due to which it contracts instead of expanding when the temperature increases from 0°C to 4°C, and it becomes denser at this temperature.

• The density is maximum at 4° C.

• Then density decreases as temperature goes below 4° C as shown in the graph.

• Also, water expands in volume from 4°C to higher temperatures, and it becomes less dense at a temperature other than 4°C.

EXPLANATION:

• From the above theoretical portion, we can clearly say that the density of water is maximum at 4°C.

• So the correct answer will be option 2.

• Upon freezing, the molecules of water set themselves in an arrangement that is very open in nature and contains more space than the water in the liquid state. This is why water expands on freezing and becomes less dense.

• In the winter season, the water supply pipes open to the atmosphere ofter burst when the temperature of the surrounding falls below 4°C. This is due to the fact that water below 4°C expands (anomalous expansion) and exerts pressure on the walls of the pipes and thus causes damage to it.

The correct answer is New Zealand.

In News

• New Zealand Cricket announced the introduction of the Debbie Hockley Medal to honor the outstanding female cricketer.

Key Points

• Cricketer Debbie Hockley played 118 ODIs and 19 Tests for New Zealand from 1979 to 2000.
• Hockley was the fourth woman inducted into the ICC Hall of Fame after Belinda Clark (Australia), Enid Bakewell and Rachael Heyhoe-Flint (England).
• New Zealand awards the Sir Richard Hadlee Medal for the outstanding male cricketer of the year.
• She is the only woman to have won the supreme New Zealand Cricketer of the Year Award, having been honoured in 1998, 13 years before it was changed to the Sir Richard Hadlee Medal.
• In the Test arena, she scored 1301 runs at 52.04, including four centuries, seven half-centuries and a top score of 126 not out against Australia, at Auckland in 1990.
• Across both formats, she captained New Zealand on 33 occasions.
• She was the first woman to be elected President of NZC.
• Hockley retired from international cricket after playing in New Zealand’s victorious World Cup final against Australia, at Lincoln in 2000.
• In the 1999 New Year’s Honours, she was appointed a Member of the New Zealand Order of Merit, for services to cricket and, in 2021, a Companion of the New Zealand Order of Merit, also for services to cricket.

Additional Information

• New Zealand: 
• Capital - Wellington
• Currency - New Zealand dollar
• Prime Minister - Chris Hipkins
• National Sport - Rugby.

The correct answer is 1,2 and 3 only

Key Points

• The first modern Olympic Games were held in 1896 in Athens (Greece)
• Correct: The modern Olympic Games were revived in 1896 and were held in Athens, Greece.
• The games were not held during World War II considering the turmoil across the world
• Correct: The Olympics were canceled in 1940 and 1944 due to the events of World War II.
• In 1940, Japan was to be the first Asian country to host the Olympics
• Correct: Japan was awarded the 1940 Summer Olympics to be held in Tokyo, making it the first Asian country to win an Olympic bid. However, the games were canceled due to the Second Sino-Japanese War and eventually World War II.

Thus, all three statements are correct.

The correct answer is Women’s cricket.

Key Points

• Women's cricket made its debut at the 2022 Commonwealth Games on July 29, with the final being played on August 7, 2022. 

The 2022 Commonwealth Games were held in Birmingham, England. 

India faced Australia in the opening match.

• The last time cricket was played in a multi-sporting event was in the 1998 edition in Kuala Lumpur.
• The final team set will be finalized at the end of January 2022.

Important Points

• Apart from the qualifier, the teams taking part are Australia, India, Pakistan, Barbados (all in Group A), New Zealand, South Africa, and England (Group B, along with qualifier).

Additional Information

• The Commonwealth Games is an international multi-sport event involving athletes from the Commonwealth of Nations.
• The event was first held in 1930, and, with the exception of 1942 and 1946, has taken place every four years since then.
• The Commonwealth of Nations, generally known simply as the Commonwealth, is a political association of 54 member states, almost all of which are former territories of the British Empire, the only exceptions are Mozambique and Rwanda.

The correct answer is Jhansi.

Key Points

• National Research Centre for Agro-Forestry was established in Janshi on 8th May 1988.
• It works under the Indian Council of Agricultural Research.
• The Centre is located at Jhansi in Uttar Pradesh, about 10 km from Jhansi, and is popularly known as “KRISHIVANIKI”.
• Now it is renamed as ICAR-Central Agroforestry Research Institute (ICAR-CAFRI).

Additional Information 

• Some important Institutes and their locations are as follows
• Central Agroforestry Research Institute, Jhansi
• Central Inland Fisheries Research Institute, Barrackpore
• Central Arid Zone Research Institute, Jodhpur
• Central Avian Research Institute, Izatnagar
• Central Institute of Brackishwater Aquaculture, Chennai
• Central Institute for Arid Horticulture, Bikaner
• Central Institute for Research on Cattle, Meerut, Uttar Pradesh
• Central Institute for Research on Buffaloes, Hisar
• Central Institute for Research on Goats, Makhdoom
• Central Institute of Agricultural Engineering, Bhopal
• Central Institute for Women in Agriculture, Bhubaneswar

The correct answer is Lotia.

Key Points

• Lotia folk music
• It is sung in the month of Chaitra in Rajasthan. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• It is the regional music of Rajasthan and it is sung by the peasants while working in the fields.
• Women bring lotas (a vessel to fill water) and Kalash (a vessel considered to be auspicious to fill water during worship) filled with water from ponds and wells.
• They decorate them with flowers and come home.
• It is generally sung on the occasion of the Lotia festival in the Chaitra month according to the Hindi calendar.

Additional Information

• Pandwani
• It is a style of folk singing which includes narration of tales from the Mahabharata.
• While popular in Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, and Orissa, this form of folk theatre is predominantly performed in Chhattisgarh.
• Chakri
• It is one of the most popular types of traditional music played in Jammu & Kashmir.
• Chakri is a responsorial song form with instrumental parts, and it is played with instruments like the harmonium, the rubab, the sarangi, the nout, the geger, the tumbaknaer and the chimta.
• Tappa
• It is a form of Indian semi- classical vocal music.
• It originated from the folk songs of the camel riders of Punjab and was developed as a form of classical music by Mian Ghulam Nabi Shori.

The correct answer is 22nd April.

Key Points

World Earth Day:

• World earth day is celebrated every year on 22nd April.
• The day aims to demonstrate support for environmental protection.
• World earth day was first celebrated in 1970.
• Earth Day was first proposed by the UNESCO Conference in San Francisco.
• The famous Paris agreement was signed by the United States, China, and some 120 other countries during earth day 2016.
• The theme of earth day 2019 was "Protect Our Species".
• The year 2021 marks the 51st anniversary of the annual celebration of World Earth Day.
• This year’s theme for Earth Day is ‘Restore Our Earth’.

Additional Information 

The correct answer is Article 360.

• Article 360 deals with a financial emergency.

Key Points

• Financial Emergency:
• Article 360 empowers the president to proclaim a Financial Emergency if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen due to which the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened. 
• A proclamation declaring financial emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue.
• However, if the proclamation of Financial Emergency is issued at a time when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved or the dissolution of the Lok Sabha takes place during the period of two months without approving the proclamation, then the proclamation survives until 30 days from the first sitting of the Lok Sabha after its reconstitution, provided the Rajya Sabha has in the meantime approved it.
• Once approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the Financial Emergency continues indefinitely till it is revoked.
• A resolution approving the proclamation of financial emergency can be passed by either House of Parliament only by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of that house present and voting.
• ​A proclamation of Financial Emergency may be revoked by the president at any time by a subsequent proclamation.
• Such a proclamation does not require parliamentary approval.

Additional Information

• Article 356 of the Indian Constitution includes provisions in case of failure of constitutional machinery in State. 
• It is also known as President's Rule.
• Article 358 deals with the suspension of the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Article 19.
• Article 362 in The Constitution Of India 1949
• Rights and privileges of Rulers of Indian States Rep by the Constitution (Twenty-sixth Amendment) Act, 1971

The correct answer is 1, 2, and 3.

Key Points

• Prime Minister:
• Article 75 of the Indian Constitution mentions that a Prime Minister is one who is appointed by the President.
• There is no specific procedure for his election or appointment.
• Article 74(1) states that there shall be a Council of Ministers with a Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President. Thus, the Indian Constitution itself recognizes a Council of Ministers.
• President of India appoints a person as the Prime Minister who is either the leader of the party which holds a majority of seats in the Lok Sabha or is a person who is able to win the confidence of the Lok Sabha by gaining the support of other political parties.
• All other ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
• The term of the prime minister is not fixed and he holds office during the pleasure of the President. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• However, this does not mean that the president can dismiss the Prime Minister at any time. So long as the Prime Minister enjoys the majority support in the Lok Sabha, he cannot be dismissed by the President.
• In accordance with the conventions of the Parliamentary system of Government, the President has to appoint the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha as Prime Minister. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Constitutionally the Prime Minister may be a member( elected or nominated) of the two houses of Parliament. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

The correct answer is Electromagnetic Radiation.

Key Points

• A bolometer is a device designed to measure the power of incident electromagnetic radiation, particularly in the infrared region.
• It operates based on the principle that the electrical resistance of certain materials changes when they absorb radiation.
• Bolometers are commonly used in astronomy to detect and measure faint radiation from celestial objects.
• The word "bolometer" is derived from the Greek words "bolos," meaning beam or ray, and "meter," meaning measure.
• The sensitivity of bolometers makes them valuable tools in fields such as astrophysics, atmospheric science, and materials research.

Additional Information

 

The correct answer is I, II, and III.

Key Points

• AIRAWAT ranked 75th in the 61st edition of the Top 500 Global Supercomputing List. Hence, statement I is correct.
• Part of the Government's National Program on AI, highlighting its strategic role in India's AI
• Aligned with Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi's vision, "AI FOR ALL," emphasizing inclusivity in AI technology.
• India's AI efforts focus on areas like Natural Language Processing, Image Processing, Agriculture, Health Care, and Robotics.
• India's strong AI ecosystem, massive data availability, digital economy, and skilled workforce provide a competitive edge.
• The Proof of Concept AI Research Analytics and Knowledge Dissemination Platform has a peak compute capacity of 410 AI Petaflops Mixed Precision. Hence, statement II is correct.
• AIRAWAT maintains 8.5 Petaflops (Rmax) Double Precision, enhancing India's AI computational capabilities.
• MeitY envisions scaling AIRAWAT to 1,000 AI Petaflops Mixed Precision to meet evolving computational needs. Hence, statement III is correct.
• C-DAC, a pioneer in HPC and AI, deploys supercomputing systems to accelerate innovation.
• AIRAWAT supports the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative, empowering academia, industries, and startups to develop indigenous AI solutions under the National Program on AI.

Additional Information Super Computer:

• An advanced computing device with unparalleled processing power for complex tasks.
• Excels in rapid and extensive calculations, vital for scientific research and simulations.
• Used in weather forecasting, climate modeling, nuclear simulations, and data-intensive tasks.
• Leverages simultaneous processing for enhanced computational efficiency.
• Catalyst for technological advancement, fostering innovation and scientific breakthroughs.

Important Points

• Param 8000 was India's first super computer.
• PARAM is a series of super computers designed and assembled by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing in Pune, India.
• PARAM means "supreme" in the Sanskrit language, whilst also creating an acronym for "PARAllel Machine".
• India's present largest HPC AI super computer is PARAM SIDDHI AI.
• Since June 2022, USA's Frontier is the world's most powerful super computer, reaching 1102 petaFlops (1.102 exaFlops) on the LINPACK benchmarks. Hence Frontier is the fastest super computer.
• China has the maximum number of super computers.

The correct answer is Israel.

Key Points

• Barak 8 is a long-range surface-to-air missile developed by Israel Aerospace Industries and DRDO.
• Firstly, it was tested successfully in Israel on 10th November 2014.
• Indian Navy had successfully test-fired the missile from INS Kolkata on 29th and 30th December 2015.
• Recently, Israel has tested successfully Barak 8 extended-range interceptor on 22 March 2021.
• It will help in destroying a target 150 km away.

Important Points

• Features of Barak 8:
• It is also known as LR-SAM naval defence system.
• It will provide a 360-degree defence against various airborne threats.
• It will help in defending against UAVs, helicopters, aircraft, ballistic missiles, cruise missiles, etc.
• It can target multiple targets at the same time in all weather conditions.
• Initially, it had a target range of 100 km.
• Variants of Barak 8:
• Barak 8 AMD/LRSAM - 
• Designed for Israeli Navy.
• Now, used by many countries.
• Barak 8 MRSAM -
• It is a medium-range land-based missile system.
• It has a tracking radar, control system, and mobile launcher system.
• Barak MX -
• It has a flexible configuration option.
• It is useful in both naval and land missions.

The correct answer is Automatic Train Protection System.

Key Points

• Railway Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw has announced that the ‘Kavach’ System, the anti-collision test conducted by the Indian Railways to check the indigenous developed system to avoid rail accidents is successful.
• He held an on-site inspection near Secunderabad on 4 March 2022.

Additional Information

• The test involved two trains - one with the railway minister on board and the other with the Chairman of the Railway Board - hurtle towards each other at full speed.
• 'Kavach' automatically stopped the train before 380 metres of other Locomotive at the front.
• The indigenously developed Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system, Kavach, was designed to help the Railways achieve - zero accidents.
• The Kavach will be the world's cheapest automatic train collision protection system.
• The railway authorities informed that once implemented, it will cost 50 lakh rupees per kilometer to operate compared to about 2 crore rupees worldwide.

The correct answer is Bulgaria.

Key Points

• Time Shelter, written by Georgi Gospodinov and translated into English by Angela Rodel, has won the International Booker Prize 2023.
• This is the first time a novel originally published in Bulgarian has won the annual award
• Lessons that can be drawn from the book “Time Shelter”:
• The book warns against excessive nostalgia and the temptation to escape from the present.
• It emphasizes the importance of living in the present and embracing current opportunities.
• "Time Shelter" advocates for finding a balance between preserving the past and embracing the future.
• The narrative underscores the consequences of vanishing memories and the allure of escaping the present.

Additional Information

• The International Booker Prize, formerly known as the Man Booker International Prize, has been awarded since 2005 when it was won by Albanian writer Ismail Kadare. It is a sister prize to the Booker Prize, awarded to a novel written in English.
• Salman Rushdie is the first India Born British Indian to win the Booker Prize.
• Arundhati Roy is the first Indian Citizen to win the Booker Prize.

The correct answer is Vistara Airlines.

Key Points

• Vistara Airlines is a joint venture between Tata Sons and Singapore Airlines. Vistara airline is a Indian Airline in Gurgaon. Vistara airline is founded 2013 in New Delhi by Singapore airline, Tata sons. Vistara is a domestic airline.

Additional Information

• Air Pegause was and Indian regional airline. It's headquartered in Bangalore. A Pegause is founded in 2014.
• Air Asia India is in India which is headquartered in Bangalore Karnataka. Air Asia India was founded by Tony Fernandez generally airport food is expensive and budget but Air Asia offer and advanced food ordering service.
• Turbo Aviation Private Limited established in November 2003. Turbo jet is an Indian regional airline in Hyderabad. Turbo airline is founded on 4 March 2013.

The correct answer is Ashok Chakra.

Key Points

Ashok Chakra:

• Ashok Chakra is the highest peacetime gallantry award followed by Kirti Chakra and Shaurya Chakra.
• It is awarded for valour, courageous action, or self-sacrifice away from the battlefield.
• It was first awarded in 1952 to flight lieutenant Suhas Biswas.
• It is the peacetime equivalent to Param Vir Chakra.

Additional Information

Vir Chakra:

• Vir Chakra is an Indian gallantry award third in precedence in the wartime gallantry awards after Param Vir Chakra and Mahavir Chakra.
• It is awarded for acts of gallantry in the presence of the Enemy whether on land or at sea or in the air.
• It was first awarded to Brigadier Harbaksh Singh In 1948. ​

​

Param Vir Chakra:

• Param Vir Chakra is India's highest military decoration awarded for displaying distinguished acts of valour during wartime.
• It is the greatest of the ultimate Brave foremost conspicuous bravery in the presence of the enemy.
• It was first awarded to Major Somnath Sharma in 1947.

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Kirti Chakra:

• The Kirti Chakra is an Indian military decoration awarded for valour, courageous action, or self-sacrifice during peacetime.
• It is the peacetime equivalent of the Maha Vir Chakra and it comes after Ashoka Chakra and before Shaurya Chakra.
• It may be awarded to civilians as well as military personnel, including posthumous awards.

The correct answer is Israel.

Key Points

• India purchased Airborne Warning and Control System (AWACS) from Israel.
• India purchased the two Phalcon airborne warning and control systems (AWACS) from Israel at a cost of around USD 1 billion.
• AWACS is a mobile, long-range radar surveillance and control system used for air defence.
• It is also called an eye in the sky due to its superior surveillance capabilities.
• The system can detect, track, and identify low-flying aircraft at a distance of 370 km and beyond and high-level targets at much greater distances.
• The AWACS which is bought from Israel is mounted on Russian-origin Illyushin-76 transport aircraft

Additional Information

• The largest arms and ammunitions importers are
• Saudi Arabia(1st)
• India(2nd)
• Egypt
• Australia
• China
• The largest arms and ammunitions exporters are 
• United States(1st)
• Russia(2nd)
• France
• Germany
• China

The correct answer is Nag Missile - Surface-to-surface and air-to-surface​.

Key Points

• Barak is an Israeli surface-to-air missile designed to be used as a ship-borne point-defense missile system against aircraft, anti-ship missiles, and UAVs.
• Hence it is correctly matched.
• The Nag missile is the land to land version missile.
• Hence it is NOT correctly matched.
• Nirbhay is a subsonic missile, flying at a speed of 0.7 to 0.9 Mach. 
• It has sea skimming and terrain hugging capability.
• It helps the missile to stay under enemy radar to avoid detection.
• Hence it is correctly matched.

Additional Information

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

• Operation NISTAR:
• In 2018, the Indian Naval Ship (INS) Sunayana successfully evacuated 38 Indian Nationals after it entered Porbandar harbor in Gujarat.
• They were rescued from cyclone**-hit Socotra island in Yemen** under a swift Humanitarian and Disaster Relief Operation (HADR) code-named Operation NISTAR.
• Operation Pawan:
• ​It was the code name for the 1987 Indian Peace Keeping Force (IPKF) operations to disarm the Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (LTTE) and wrest control of the Jaffna peninsula in Northern Sri Lanka.
• Operation Pawan was carried out as a part of the Indo-Sri Lanka Accord.
• It took place on 11 Oct 1987 – 25 Oct 1987.
• **Operation Karuna:**​
• India's 'Operation Karuna' aids Myanmar post-Cyclone Mocha, with Indian Navy ships delivering over 40 tonnes of relief materials, including food, medicines, and hygiene items.
• India, the first responder in the region, extends a hand of friendship to cyclone-affected Myanmar, showcasing proactive regional cooperation and humanitarian support.
• Operation Devi Shakti:
• 'Operation Devi Shakti': India evacuates 78 individuals, including 25 Indians, from Taliban-controlled Kabul to Dushanbe, praised by External Affairs Minister Jaishankar.
• Special Air India flight, with Indian Air Force support, demonstrates India's commitment to safely repatriating its citizens from Afghanistan.
• Notably, 'Operation Devi Shakti' includes the evacuation of three copies of the Guru Granth Sahib, underscoring the preservation of cultural and religious items amid challenging circumstances.

The correct answer is Gulmarg.

Key Points

• HAWS (High Altitude Warfare School), is located at Gulmarg in the state of Jammu and Kashmir.
• It was established in 1948.
• It is one of the leading colleges in Defence Services.
• The soldiers posted in Siachen Glacier and other High Altitude Areas are trained in HAWS.
• The School was initially set up at Gulmarg, as a Formation Sickly School.
• The training imparted consisted mainly of skiing techniques, mountain lore, and patrolling on skis.
• On 8 April 1962, the School was designated a Category A Training Establishment and renamed High Altitude Warfare School (HAWS).
• The training instills confidence and stamina, besides defrosting the fear of the unknown. The men are taught to integrate with the environment so that they can guard the Himalayan frontiers effectively.

Shortcut Trick

Quantity of sulphuric acid to be added = Total mixture × (New % − Old %) ÷ (100 − New %)

⇒ Added Acid = 10 × (25 − 10) ÷ (100 − 25)

⇒ Added Acid = 10 × 15 ÷ 75

⇒ Added Acid = 10 ÷ 5 = 2 liters

∴ The correct answer is 2 liter.

Alternate Method

Given: Initial mixture = 10 litres, Initial Acid = 10%, Target Acid = 25%.

Since we are adding pure sulphuric acid, its concentration is 100%.

Calculations:

⇒ Ratio of Initial Mixture to Added Acid = 75 : 15 = 5 : 1

⇒ Let initial mixture be 5 units and added acid be 1 unit.

⇒ 5 units = 10 liters

⇒ 1 unit = 10 ÷ 5 = 2 liters

∴ The correct answer is 2 liter.

Additional Information

Alligation Rule

It is used to find the ratio in which two components of different concentrations are mixed to get a mixture of a desired mean concentration.

Constant Component Method

When adding a substance (acid), the other substance (water) remains constant. Initial Water = 90% of 10 = 9L. New Acid is 25%, so New Water is 75%. 75% of New Total = 9L ⇒ New Total = 12L.

Formula for Pure Addition

Added Quantity = Q × (C₂ − C₁) ÷ (100 − C₂), where Q is initial quantity and C₁, C₂ are old and new concentrations.

Shortcut Trick

Given Base Area (πr²) = 308 m² and Height (h) = 7√2 m.

From πr² = 308 ⇒ (22/7) × r² = 308 ⇒ r² = 98 ⇒ Radius (r) = 7√2 m.

Since r = h = 7√2, Slant height (l) = r√2 = 7√2 × √2 = 14 m.

Curved Surface Area (CSA) = πrl = (Base Area / r) × l = (308 / 7√2) × 14 = 308 × √2.

∴ The correct answer is 308√2 m².

Alternate Method

Given: Base Area = 308 m², Height (h) = 7√2 m.

Formula Used:

Area of circular base = πr²

Slant height (l) = √(r² + h²)

Curved Surface Area (CSA) = πrl

Calculations:

⇒ πr² = 308

⇒ (22/7) × r² = 308

⇒ r² = (308 × 7) ÷ 22

⇒ r² = 14 × 7 = 98

⇒ r = √98 = 7√2 m

⇒ l = √((7√2)² + (7√2)²)

⇒ l = √(98 + 98) = √196 = 14 m

⇒ CSA = πrl = (22/7) × 7√2 × 14

⇒ CSA = 22 × √2 × 14 = 308√2 m²

∴ The correct answer is 308√2 m².

Additional Information

Total Surface Area of a Cone

It includes the curved surface and the circular base: TSA = πrl + πr² = πr(l + r).

Volume of a Cone

The space occupied by the cone: Volume = (1/3) × πr²h.

Slant Height Property

For a right circular cone, l² = r² + h², following the Pythagorean theorem in the vertical cross-section.

Shortcut Trick

In a 'no profit, no loss' transaction, the ratio of their Cost Prices is inversely proportional to their respective profit and loss percentages.

Ratio of CP₁ to CP₂ = Loss% : Profit% = 9 : 15 = 3 : 5

Total ratio parts = 3 + 5 = 8 parts ⇒ 8 parts = Rs. 2160

1 part = 2160 ÷ 8 = Rs. 270

CP of 1st fan = 3 parts × 270 = Rs. 810, and CP of 2nd fan = 5 parts × 270 = Rs. 1350

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 810 & Rs. 1350.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total CP of two fans = Rs. 2160

Profit on the first fan = 15%

Loss on the second fan = 9%

Net result = Neither profit nor loss

Fan 1 (Profit)

+15%

Fan 2 (Loss)

−9%

0%

9

15

3 : 5 Ratio of Cost Prices

Calculations:

Let the CP of the first fan be x.

Then, the CP of the second fan is (2160 − x).

In a 'no profit no loss' transaction, Profit amount on the 1st fan = Loss amount on the 2nd fan

⇒ 15% of x = 9% of (2160 − x)

⇒ (15 ÷ 100) × x = (9 ÷ 100) × (2160 − x)

⇒ 15x = 9 × (2160 − x)

⇒ 15x = 19440 − 9x

⇒ 15x + 9x = 19440

⇒ 24x = 19440

⇒ x = 19440 ÷ 24 = 810

So, the Cost Price of the first fan = Rs. 810

Cost Price of the second fan = 2160 − 810 = Rs. 1350

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 810 & Rs. 1350.

Additional Information

Overall Profit/Loss % (Same Selling Price)

If two articles are sold at the same price, one at a profit of x% and the other at a loss of x%, there is always an overall loss given by (x ÷ 10)² %.

No Profit No Loss Condition

When the overall transaction results in neither profit nor loss, the absolute profit earned on the first item exactly cancels out the absolute loss incurred on the second item, giving the equation: CP₁ × Profit% = CP₂ × Loss%.

Short Trick:

Detailed Solution:

We know that,

$\Rightarrow {\rm{Total;amount}} = {\rm{P}} \times {\left( {1 + \frac{r}{{100}}} \right)^t}$ 

Where,

P = Principal

R = Rate of interest

t = Time period

Given,

A sum becomes 3 times in 5 years.

$3P = P{\left( {1 + \frac{r}{{100}}} \right)^5}{\rm{;}}$

$\Rightarrow 3 = {\left( {1 + \frac{r}{{100}}} \right)^5}$       ----(1)

Let,

After t years the sum becomes 9 times

$\therefore 9P = P{\left( {1 + \frac{r}{{100}}} \right)^t}{\rm{;}}$

$\Rightarrow 9 = {\left( {1 + \frac{r}{{100}}} \right)^t}$

$\Rightarrow {3^2} = {\left( {1 + \frac{r}{{100}}} \right)^t}$

Using equation (1)

$\Rightarrow {\left( {1 + \frac{r}{{100}}} \right)^{10}} = {\left( {1 + \frac{r}{{100}}} \right)^t}$

∴ t = 10 years

Shortcut Trick

The percentage difference between Compound Interest and Simple Interest for 2 years is calculated as (R²/100)%.

Effective difference % = (5² / 100)% = 0.25%

As per the question, 0.25% of Sum = ₹25

Sum (100%) = (25 ÷ 0.25) × 100 = 100 × 100 = ₹10000

∴ The correct answer is ₹10000.

Alternate Method

Given:

Rate of interest (R) = 5% per annum

Time period (T) = 2 years

Difference between C.I. and S.I. = ₹25

Formula Used:

Difference (D) = P × (R / 100)²

Calculations:

⇒ 25 = P × (5 / 100)²

⇒ 25 = P × (1 / 20)²

⇒ 25 = P × (1 / 400)

⇒ P = 25 × 400

⇒ P = 10000

∴ The correct answer is ₹10000.

Additional Information

Difference for 3 Years

For a period of 3 years, the difference between CI and SI is given by: D = P(R/100)² × (3 + R/100).

Successive Percentage Formula

Compound interest for 2 years can be found using the effective rate formula: x + y + (xy/100), where x and y are rates for each year.

Simple Interest Property

Simple Interest remains constant every year if the principal and rate do not change, whereas CI increases every year as interest is calculated on interest.

Given:

We have the given expression,

27(2n – 1) = (243)3

Calculation:

27(2n – 1) = (243)3

⇒ (3³)^{(2n - 1)} = (3⁵)³

⇒ (3)^{(6n - 3)} = (3)¹⁵

⇒ 6n - 3 = 15

⇒ 6n = 18

⇒ n = 3

∴ The value of n in the expression [27(2n – 1) = (243)] is 3.

Calculation:

Since there are 26 cards in a pack which are black

The probability of getting both black = 26/52 × 25/51

Also, there are 4 queens in a pack

The probability of getting both queens = 4/52 × 3/51

The probability of getting a queen of black color is 2/52 × 1/51

The probability that either both are black or both are queens

= (26/52 × 25/51) +  (4/52 × 3/51 - 2/52 × 1/51)

∴ Required answer = 330/1326

Given:

A and B can do a piece of work in 30 days, while B and C can do the same work in 24 days and C and A in 20 days.

They all work together till 12th day then  A and C leave.

Formula used:

Time taken to complete the work = Total work/Efficiency

Concept used:

Total work = LCM of the number of days taken by A and B, B and C and C and A.

Calculations:

⇒ 2 × (A + B + C) = (4 + 5 + 6)

⇒ (A + B + C) = 7.5

Efficiency of B = (A + B + C) - (C + A)

⇒  (7.5) - (6)

⇒  1.5

According to question,

(A + B + C) work for 12 days and completed (12 × 7.5) units work.

⇒ Remaining work = (120 - 90)

⇒ 30 units

Time taken by B to complete the remaining work = 30/1.5 = 20 

∴ The number of days required to complete the remaining work is 20.

Shortcut Trick

Let the total maximum marks be 100%.

Difference in percentages = 60% − 40% = 20%

Difference in marks = Fails by 40 + Surplus of 20 = 40 + 20 = 60 marks

20% of Maximum marks = 60

Maximum marks = (60 ÷ 20) × 100 = 300

∴ The correct answer is 300 marks.

Alternate Method

Given:

Marks of 1^st student = 40%, fails by 40 marks.

Marks of 2^nd student = 60%, gets 20 marks more than the passing marks.

Formula Used:

Passing Marks = (Percentage × Total Marks) ± Marks difference

Calculation:

⇒ Let maximum marks be x.

⇒ Marks obtained by 1^st student = 40% of x = 0.40x

⇒ Passing marks = 0.40x + 40

⇒ Marks obtained by 2^nd student = 60% of x = 0.60x

⇒ Passing marks = 0.60x − 20

⇒ Equating both expressions for passing marks:

⇒ 0.40x + 40 = 0.60x − 20

⇒ 0.60x − 0.40x = 40 + 20

⇒ 0.20x = 60

⇒ x = 60 ÷ 0.20

⇒ x = 300

∴ The correct answer is 300 marks.

Additional Information

Passing Marks Calculation

Passing marks can be calculated using either student's score once the maximum marks are known: Passing Marks = (40% of 300) + 40 = 120 + 40 = 160.

Percentage Change

Percentage represents a fraction of 100. It is often used to compare quantities and analyze changes. Net difference = Sum of shortfalls and surpluses when moving in opposite directions from a base point.

Maximum Marks

Maximum marks in an examination are always considered as 100% (the base). Any score, shortfall or surplus is calculated relative to this 100% total value.

Given:

Your wrist watch at 10 hours, 22 minutes.

Formula Used:

The angle between the hour hand and minutes hand

θ = (30H - 11 M/2)

Calculation:

Here, M = 22, H = 10

By using the above formula

θ = |30 × 10 - (11/2) × 22|

θ = |300 - 121|

θ = 179° 

∴ The correct answer is 179°  

Alternate Method 

Angle made by minuts hand in 22 minuts = (360/60) × 22  = 132° 

Now, hour hand makes an angle 360° in 720 minuts.

Total number in minuts at 10 hours, 22 minutes

⇒ 10 × 60 + 22 = 622 

So, angle made by hour hand at 10 hours, 22 minutes

⇒ (360°/720°) × 622 = 311° 

Angle made between the minuts hand and the hour land

⇒ 311° - 132° = 179°  

∴ The correct answer is 179°

Given:

X sold to Y for 540 rupees at a 20% loss.

Y spent 170 rupees on repairs.

Z sold by Y at a rate that would give X a 24% gain.

Formula used:

CP = SP/(100 - Loss)%

CP = SP/(100 + profit)

Calculation:

CP for X = 540 × 100/80 = Rs 675.

The price at which Y sold to Z = 675 + 24% of 675

⇒ 675 + 6/25 × 675 = Rs 837.

The total cost price for Y = 540 + 170 = Rs 710.

Profit for Y = Selling price - CP for Y = 837 - 710 = Rs 127.

∴  Y earned a profit of Rs 127.

Given:

Diameter of First Pizza = 8 cm; Radius = 4 cm

Price = Rs 240.

Diameter of Second Pizza = 12 cm; Radius = 6 cm 

Price = Rs 360.

Concept:

The price is proportional to the size (i.e., the area), we should find the cost per square cm.

Calculation:

Area of the first pizza = π × (4)² = 16π cm².

Price per cm² for the first  pizza = 240/16π ≈ Rs 4.77/cm²

Area of the second pizza = π × (6)² = 36π cm².

The expected price for the second pizza = 4.77 × 36π ≈ Rs 540.

The discount on the second pizza is Rs 540 - Rs 360 = Rs 180.

∴ The correct answer is Rs 180.

Sudha sold an article to Renu for = Rs. 576

Cost price of the article for Sudha = Rs. 576 × (100/80) = Rs. 720

Final cost price of the article for Renu = 576 + 224 = Rs. 800

Profit gain on the article for Renu = Rs. 720 × (124/100) = Rs. 892.8

Profit percentage on the article for Renu = (92.8/800) × 100 = 11.6%

As we know,

Area of the equilateral triangle = [√3/4] a²

Diagonal of a square = √2 a

Area of the square = a²

a² = 18√3

⇒ a = √[18 √3]

Diagonal of a square = √2a

Diagonal of the square = √2 × √[18 √3] 

Side of the equilateral triangle = √2 × √[18 √3]      [Diagonal of the square]

Area of the equilateral triangle = [√3/4] [√2 × √(18 √3)]² = [√3/4] × 2 × (18 √3) = 27

Calculation:

We have

$\frac{\sqrt[3]{2197} +\sqrt[3]{2744}}{3}$ = x% of 50

$\frac{\sqrt[3]{13^3} +\sqrt[3]{14^3}}{3}$ = x % of 50

$\frac{{13} +{14}}{3}$ = x% of 50

27/3 = x% of 50

9 = (x/100) × 50

x = 18

Hence, the correct answer is 18.

Given:

The new speed is 80% of the usual speed

Total distance cover 2000 km in 52 hours

Take 2 hour's rest then return

Formula used: 

Average speed  = 2ab/(a + b)

a = new speed , b = usual speed

Calculation:

New speed = $\frac{80}{100}$(usual speed)

⇒ new speed/usual speed = 4/5

New speed = 4u, usual speed = 5u

Time excluding the rest hour =  52 - 2 = 50h

Average speed  = 2000/50   

Average speed = 40 km/h

⇒ $2\ ×\ 4u ×\ 5u \over 4u\ +\ 5u$ = 40

⇒ 40u²/9u = 40

⇒ u/9 = 1

⇒ u = 9

Since,  km/h × 5/18 = m/s

New speed = 4u

New speed = 9 × 4 = 36 × 5/18 = 10 m/s  

∴ The correct answer is 10 m/s

Given:

Cost of Horse and Carriage is Rs. 30,000

Calculation:

Let the cost of Horse be Rs. x

Then the cost of the Carriage will be Rs. (30,000 – x)

According to the question,

⇒ 120% of x + 90% of (30,000 – x) = 102% of 30,000

⇒ 6/5x + 9/10(30,000 – x) = 102 × 300

⇒ (12x + 2,70,000 – 9x)/10 = 30,600

⇒ 3x + 2,70,000 = 3,06,000  

⇒ 3x = 3,06,000 – 2,70,000

⇒ 3x = 36,000

⇒ x = 36,000/3 = 12,000

∴ The cost of Horse is Rs. 12,000.

Shortcut Trick

Let HCF = 1 unit and LCM = 20 units.

Difference between LCM and HCF = 20 − 1 = 19 units.

Given 19 units = 456 ⇒ 1 unit (HCF) = 24.

LCM = 20 × 24 = 480.

Other Number = (HCF × LCM) ÷ First Number = (24 × 480) ÷ 96 = 120.

∴ The correct answer is 120.

Alternate Method

Given:

First number (n₁) = 96

HCF = LCM ÷ 20

LCM − HCF = 456

Formula Used:

Product of two numbers = HCF × LCM

Calculations:

⇒ Let LCM = L and HCF = H.

⇒ H = L ÷ 20 ⇒ L = 20H.

⇒ L − H = 456

⇒ 20H − H = 456

⇒ 19H = 456

⇒ H = 456 ÷ 19 = 24.

⇒ L = 20 × 24 = 480.

⇒ Let the other number be n₂.

⇒ n₁ × n₂ = H × L

⇒ 96 × n₂ = 24 × 480

⇒ n₂ = (24 × 480) ÷ 96

⇒ n₂ = 480 ÷ 4 = 120.

∴ The correct answer is 120.

Additional Information

Product Rule

For any two numbers a and b, the relationship is always: a × b = HCF(a, b) × LCM(a, b).

Divisibility Property

The HCF of any set of numbers is always a factor of their LCM.

Co-prime Numbers

If two numbers are co-prime, their HCF is 1 and their LCM is equal to their product.

Given:

Average age of 12 students = 23 years

Average age of students including two teachers = 35 years

Age of science teacher = (Age of mathematics teacher + 15) years

Formula:

Sum of total observation = Total number of observations × Average

Calculation:

Let, Age of mathematics teacher = X years

Age of science teacher = (X + 15) years

Total age of 12 students

⇒ 23 × 12 = 276 years

Total age of students including two teachers

⇒ 35 × 14 = 490 years

According to the question,

⇒ 276 + X + (X + 15) = 490

⇒ 276 + 2X + 15 = 490

⇒ 2X + 291 = 490

⇒ 2x = 490 - 291

⇒ X = 199/2 = 99.5 years

∴ The age of mathematics teacher is 99.5 years.

Calculation:

According to the question,

A = (2/5)B + B = 7B/5

5A = 7B

10A = 14B         -----(1)

Again,

B = (3/7)(A + C)

7B = 3A + 3C

5A = 3A + 3C          (∵ 7B = 5A)

2A = 3C       

10A = 15C      ------(2)

From (1) & (2)

10A = 14B = 15C

A : B : C = 1/10 : 1/14 : 1/15

Multiply with 210   (LCM of 10, 14 & 15)

A : B : C = 210/10 : 210/14 : 210/15

A : B : C = 21 : 15 : 14

Therefore,

Share of C = 49000 × 14/(21+15+14) = 49000 × (14/50)

∴ Share of C = 13720 /-

Deck: A porch that resembles the deck on a ship

Quay: Platform parallel to shoreline.

Stern: The rear part of a ship

Bow: Front part of a vessel or aircraft

Mast: A vertical pole for supporting sails

Clearly, Deck, Stern, Bow and Mast are all parts of a ship while Quay isn’t so it’s the odd– one out.

Hence, Quay is the answer.

Harbour is a place on the coast where ships may moor in shelter,

Similarly,

In the same a Hangar is a large building with an extensive floor area, typically for housing aircraft.

Hence, Hangar is the correct answer.

The pattern followed is:

Hence, the correct answer is "36".

The logic followed here is :-

Cricket is played on pitch.

Similarly,

Golf is played on course.

Hence, the correct answer is "Course".

The diagram which best represents the relationship among the Father, Uncle, Man is given below:

1.all uncle and Father are men.

2. Some father could be uncle and some uncle could be father.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

Given relationships are : Village people, Educated people, Intelligent people

Some Village people are Intelligent people and Educated people.

Some Educated people are Intelligent people and Village people.

Some Intelligent people are Village people and Educated people.

The least possible Venn diagram for given relationship is as follows :-

Thus, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Except 5 - 24, all follow the format ‘X - X²’ such as:

4 - 4² = 16;

6 - 6² = 36;

7 - 7² = 49;

But 5 - 5² = 25 ≠ 24.

Hence, 5 - 24 is different from other three responses.

The pattern here is as follows:

First row → (6 + 7)² = 13² = 169

Second row → (10 + 9)² = 19² = 361

Third row → (8 + 3)² = 11² = 121

Hence, “121” is the correct answer